An employee of the penal establishment who does not have the custody of the

prisoner is liable for:

*
a. Delivering prisoner form jail
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
d. Evasion thru negligence
2. If the detention prisoner knows of the plot to remove him from jail and
cooperates therein by escaping, he himself becomes liable for:

*
a. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
b. Evasion of service of sentence
c. Delivering prisoner from jail
d. No crime
3. Manny killed his wife under exceptional circumstances and was sentenced by the
RTC of Quezon City to suffer the penalty of destierro during which he was not to
enter the city. While serving sentence, Manny went to Quezon City to visit his
mother. Later, he was arrested in Baguio City. Did Manny commit a crime?

*
A. Yes, parricide under exceptional circumstance
B. Yes, evasion of service of sentence
C. Yes, indirect contempt
D. No crime
4. Where should Manny be prosecuted?

*
a. Quezon City
b. Baguio City
c. Quezon City or Baguio City
d. Any city in the Philippines
5. In quasi-recidivism, the second crime must be:

*
a. Offense
b. Felony
c. Offense or felony
d. Infraction
6. This crime is committed if the solemnity of the oath is violated.

*
a. Forgery
b. Falsification
c. Perjury
d. False testimony
7. Only private individuals may commit usurpation of authority or official
functions.

*
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
8. Does the term prostitution apply to a man?

*
a. Yes
b. No
c. It depends
d. False
9. Persons below 18 years of age shall be exempt from prosecution for the crime
of prostitution under Art. 2, RPC, such prosecution being inconsistent with the:

*
a. UNCLOS
b. UNCRC
c. UNICEF
d. UN
10. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted in the
year:

*
a. 1989
b. 1990
c. 1991
d. 1992
11. This is a global framework for children’s rights that has been signed by how
many countries?

*
a. 196
b. 197
c. 198
d. 199
12. Which of the following is a crime of malfeasance?

*
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
c. Dereliction od duty in the prosecution of offenses
d. Rendering judgment through negligence
13. Which among the following is a source of an unjust judgment?

*
a. Error
b. Ill-will or revenge
c. Bribery
d. All of the above
14. Which of the following may commit an unjust judgment?

*
a. RTC Judges
b. CA Justices
c. MeTC Judges
d. Both a and c only
15. The crime involved in qualified bribery is a:

*
a. Capital offense
b. Heinous crime
c. Both a and B
d. Those with a penalty of Reclusion perpetua
16. In abuses against chastity, a public officer solicits or makes any indecent
or immoral advances to a woman who is a relative of the person under the custody
and charge of the offender except:
*
a. Wife
b. Sister
c. Sister-in-law
d. Mother
17. In parricide, the relationship except the spouse must be in the:

*
a. Direct line
b. Collateral line
c. Zigzag line
d. Curve Line
18. Elias killed Susana. He was charged with parricide. During the trial, no
marriage contract was presented. Is the non-presentation of the marriage contract
fatal to the prosecution of the accused for parricide?

*
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. It depends
19. If a person killed another who is under 12 years of age not knowing that the
latter was his son is guilty of?

*
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
20. If a person wanted to kill another but by mistake killed his own father is
liable for?

*
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. No crime
21. What is the proper penalty to be imposed?

*
a. Penalty for the actual crime committed
b. Penalty for the intended crime
c. Penalty for the lesser offense in its maximum period
d. Penalty for the actual crime committed in its maximum period
22. Suppose Kokey killed his brother who is 3 days old, what crime is committed?

*
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
23. Suppose a husband, who wanted to kill his sick wife, hired a killer. The
hired killer shot the wife. What crime is committed by the husband?

*
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. No Crime
24. What is the liability of the husband?

*
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by Inducement
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
d. Accomplice
25. What is the crime committed by the hired killer?

*
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. No Crime
26. What is the liability of the hired killer?

*
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by Inducement
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
d. Accomplice
27. In this crime, the basis is the age of the child-victim.

*
a. Parricide
b. murder
c. Homicide
d. Infanticide
28. The accused was shocked to discover his wife and their driver sleeping in the
master’s bedroom. Outraged, the accused got his gun and killed both. Can the
accused claim that he killed the 2 under exceptional circumstances?

*
a. Yes
b. No
c. It depends
d. Maybe
29. Death under exceptional circumstance is not applicable when the daughter is:

*
a. Married
b. Under 18 years of age
c. Still under parental authority
d. Single
30. When a third person is injured in the course of the firing at the paramour,
what crime, if any, is committed?

*
a. Serious physical injuries through simple imprudence or negligence
b. Serious physical injuries under exceptional circumstance
c. Frustrated murder
d. Frustrated homicide
31. Number of circumstance/s necessary to qualify homicide to murder:

*
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
32. A killed by B by stabbing B in the heart which resulted to B’s death. The
witness is the wife of the victim, who said that a day prior to the killing, A
threatened B. What crime is committed?

*
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. No crime
33. If A would shoot B at one of his feet, at a distance of one meter, there is
no intent to kill. If B is hit, the crime is:

*
a. Physical Injuries
b. Discharge of firearms
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Attempted Murder
34. Suppose B was not hit, the crime is:

*
a. Physical Injuries
b. Discharge of firearms
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Attempted Murder
35. X, a pharmacist, compounded and prepared the medicine on prescription by a
doctor. X erroneously used a highly poisonous substance. When taken by the patient,
the latter nearly died. What crime, if any, is committed?

*
a. Frustrated homicide through reckless imprudence
b. Homicide through reckless imprudence
c. Physical injuries through reckless imprudence
d. Any of the above depending on the circumstance
36. Use of unlicensed firearms in committing murder or homicide is:

*
a. Qualifies the killing to murder
b. Separate crime
c. An aggravating circumstance
d. Any of the above
37. Corpus delicti in crimes against persons may be proven by:

*
a. Credible testimony of a sole witness
b. Physical evidence
c. Physical body of the deceased
d. The ashes of a burned building
38. It is the practice of painlessly putting to death a person suffering from
some incurable disease.

*
a. Giving assistance to suicide
b. Euthanasia
c. Murder
d. Disturbance of a public order
39. If the gun was not pointed at the offended party when it was fired but was
initially aimed by the accused at or against the victim. In this case, this is:

*
a. Alarms and Scandal
b. Discharge of Firearm
c. Attempted homicide
d. No crime
40. Discharge towards the house of the victim is:

*
a. Alarms and scandal
b. Discharge of Firearm
c. Attempted homicide
d. No crime
41. In discharge of firearm, there is a complex crime if:

*
a. The injuries sustained by the offended party is serious
b. The injuries sustained by the offended party is less serious
c. The injuries sustained by the offended party is slight
d. Both a and b
42. Killing of a child less than 3 days old by a legitimate grandparent is:

*
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Homicide
43. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper penalty?

*
a. penalty for infanticide
b. penalty for murder
c. penalty for parricide
d. penalty for homicide
44. Killing of a child less than 72 hours by a neighbor is:

*
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Infanticide
d. Homicide
45. In relation to the preceding question, what is the proper penalty?

*
a. penalty for infanticide
b. penalty for murder
c. penalty for parricide
d. penalty for homicide
46. When infanticide is committed?

*
a. If the child is born dead
b. If the child is already dead
c. If the child is born alive, it could not sustain an independent life when it was
killed
d. none of the above
47. Suppose the child less than 3 days old is abandoned without any intent to kill
and death results, what crime is committed?

*
a. Infanticide
b. Abandoning a minor
c. parricide
d. murder
48. Abortion is a crime against the:

*
a. woman
b. fetus
c. woman and fetus
d. family
49. Suppose the mother as a consequence of abortion suffers death, what crime is
committed?

*
a. murder
b. homicide
c. murder with abortion
d. murder and abortion
50. Suppose the mother as a consequence of abortion suffers physical injuries,
what crime is committed?

*
a. physical injuries
b. abortion
c. physical injuries with abortion
d. physical injuries and abortion
51. If despite the employment of sufficient and adequate means to effect abortion,
the fetus that is expelled from the maternal womb is viable but unable to sustain
life outside the maternal womb, what crime is committed?

*
a. Frustrated abortion
b. Consummated abortion
c. infanticide
d. murder
52. Suppose the pregnant woman employed violence to herself specifically
calculated to bring about abortion, what crime is committed?

*
a. intentional abortion
b. unintentional abortion
c. abortion
d. suicide
53. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who tried to
commit suicide by poison, but she did not die and the fetus in her womb was
expelled instead?

*
a. no crime
b. intentional abortion
c. unintentional abortion
d. suicide
54. It is an abortion caused by a physician to save the life of a mother.

*
a. Abortion practiced by a physician
b. Abortion practiced by a midwife
c. Therapeutic abortion
d. Dispensing of abortives
55. If the pharmacist knew that the abortive would be used to cause an abortion
and abortion resulted from the use thereof, the pharmacist is a/an _______ in the
crime of abortion.

*
a. accomplice
b. accessory
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d. principal by inducement
56. Once physical injuries resulted to deformity, it is classified as:

*
a. slight physical injuries
b. less serious physical injuries
c. serious physical injuries
d. mutilation
57. It refers to rape committed by an ascendant of the offended woman.

*
a. Statutory rape
b. marital rape
c. Incestous rape
d. Sexual assault
58. If a woman is carried away just to break her will to compel her to agree to
demand or request by the offender.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
c. Forcible abduction
d. Rape through forcible abduction
59. If a woman is transported just to restrain her liberty.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
c. Forcible abduction
d. Rape through forcible abduction
60. If a woman is transported from one place to another by virtue of restraining
her of her liberty and the act is coupled with lewd designs.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Kidnapping with serious illegal detention
c. Forcible abduction
d. Rape through forcible abduction
61. The accused detained the victim for 39 days and raped her 4 times, what crime
is committed?

*
a. Kidnapping with rape?
b. Kidnapping with rape and four counts of rape
c. Kidnapping with rape, four counts of rape and rape through sexual assault
d. any of the above
62. Isagani lost his gold necklace bearing his initials. He saw Roy wearing the
said necklace. Isagani asked Roy to return to him the necklace as it belongs to
him, but Roy refused. Isagani then drew his gun and told Roy, “If you will not give
back the necklace to me, I will kill you!” Out of fear for his life and against his
will, Roy gave the necklace to Isagani. What crime did Isagani commit?
*
a. Grave threats
B. Grave coercion
c. Impossible crime
d. Robbery
63. If by means of violence, the property is applied to the debt.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Light coercion
c. Robbery
d. estafa
64. If there is no obligation on the part of the offended party but was only
feigned.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Light coercion
c. Robbery
d. estafa
65. If the value of the property seized is greater than that of the debt and
violence and intimidation are employed.

*
a. Grave coercion
b. Light coercion
c. Robbery
d. estafa
66. Suppose a gang robbed a mansion in Forbes Park. On the occasion of the robbery,
physical injuries were inflicted on the household members. The robbers also
detained the children to compel their parents to come out with the money. What
crime/s was/were committed?

*
A. robbery with serious physical injuries
B. serious illegal detention
C. Robbery and serious physical injuries
D. Robbery with serious physical injuries and serious illegal detention
67. Suppose in relation to the preceding number, the victims were detained because
of the timely arrival of the police, such that the offenders had no choice but to
detain the victims as hostages in exchange for their safe passage.

*
A. robbery with serious physical injuries
B. serious illegal detention
C. Robbery and serious physical injuries
D. Robbery with serious physical injuries and serious illegal detention
68. There was collision between the side view mirrors of 2 vehicles. Immediately
thereafter, the wife and the daughter of A alighted from the CRV and confronted B.
A in view of the hostile attitude of B, summoned his wife and daughter to enter the
CRV and while they were in the process of doing so, B moved and accelerated his
Vitara backward as if to hit them. What crime was committed?

*
A. Malicious mischief
B. reckless imprudence resulting to damage to property
c. arson
d. Crime involving destruction
69. In bigamy, the second husband or wife who knew of the first marriage is:

*
a. an accessory
b. an accomplice
c. principal by direct participation
d. principal by indispensable cooperation
70. In bigamy, the witness, who falsely vouched for the capacity of either of the
contracting parties is:

*
a. an accessory
b. an accomplice
c. principal by direct participation
d. principal by indispensable cooperation
71. Bigamy is an offense against civil status which may be prosecuted only at the
instance of:

*
a. the State
b. the offended party
c. grandparents
d. parents
72. Concubinage is an offense against chastity which may be prosecuted only at the
instance of:

*
a. the State
b. the offended party
c. grandparents
d. parents
73. Premature marriages was decriminalized by:

*
a. R.A. 10655
b. R.A. 10566
c. R.A. 10656
d. R.A. 10556
74. This states that the contributory negligence of the party injured will not
defeat the action if it be shown that the accused might, by the exercise of
reasonable care and prudence, have avoided the consequences of the negligence of
the injured party.

*
a. Doctrine of last clear chance
b. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
c. Emergency Rule
d. any of the above
75. There is no direct filing in which of the following courts?

*
a. MeTC
b. MCTC
c. MTCC
d. RTC
76. As a general rule, a complaint or information must charge only one offense
except:

*
a. complex crimes
b. special complex crimes
c. continuous crime
d. all of the above
77. Should there be duplicity of offense in the information, the accused must move
for the quashal of the same:

*
a. before trial
b. after arraignment
c. before arraignment
d. before and after arraignment
78. The reservation of the right to institute separately the civil action shall be
made:

*
a. before the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
b. after the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
c. after the prosecution had rested its case
d. after the presentation of defense’ evidence
79. A petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the pendency of a
prejudicial question may be raised during the preliminary investigation. When the
criminal action has been filed in court for trial, the petition to suspend shall be
filed in the same criminal action at any time:

*
A. before the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
b. after the prosecution starts presenting the evidence
c. after the prosecution had rested its case
d. before the prosecution rests
80. Probable cause for the filing of an information is a:

*
a. legislative function
b. executive function
c. judicial function
d. all of the above
81. Probable cause for the issuance of warrant is a:

*
a. legislative function
b. executive function
c. judicial function
d. all of the above
82. From the filing of the complaint, the investigating officer has _______ days
within which to decide on whether to dismiss or issue a subpoena.

*
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
83. Clarificatory hearing during preliminary investigation is:

*
a. mandatory
b. not mandatory
c. not necessary
d. necessary
84. Within ___ days from the issuance of his resolution, the investigating
prosecutor shall forward the record of the case to the provincial or city
prosecutor or chief state prosecutor, or to the Ombudsman or his deputy.

*
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
85. A petition for Review to the DOJ may be filed by an aggrieved party within ____
days from the resolution of the Investigating Prosecutor.

*
a . 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
86. The party aggrieved by a resolution of the Secretary of Justice may file a
Motion for Reconsideration within a non-extendible period of ____ form receipt of
the resolution on appeal.

*
a . 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
87. The decision of the DOJ Secretary is appealable to the:

*
a. Court of Appeals
b. Supreme Court
c. RTC
d. Office of the President
88. The decision of the Office of the President is appealable to the:

*
a. Court of Appeals
b. Supreme Court
c. RTC
d. MeTC
89. Should the information be already filed in court but the accused filed a
petition for review of the findings of the prosecutors with the DOJ, the Court is
bound to suspend the arraignment of the accused for a period not exceeding _______:

*
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
90. In the determination of probable cause, within ____ days from the filing of the
complaint or information, the judge shall personally evaluate the resolution of the
prosecutor.

*
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30
91. Once a person has been duly charged in court, he may question his detention by:
*
a. petition for habeas corpus
b. motion to quash the information
c. motion to quash the warrant of arrest
d. only b and c
92. As a general rule, bail may not be filed once there is already a final judgment
except:

*
a. after conviction by the MTC
b. after conviction by the RTC
c. after conviction by the appellate court
d. all of the above
93. Remedy of the accused when bail is discretionary.

*
a. file a petition for bail
b. file a petition for habeas corpus
c. file a petition for certiorari
d. file a petition for mandamus
94. The Universal Declaration of Human rights applies to deportation cases; hence,

*
a. there is no reason why it cannot be invoked in extradition cases
b. there is a reason for the denial of bail of extradite
c. there is no reason to grant the same to an extradite
d. all of the above
95. Under the principle of pacta sunt servanda, the Philippines must honor the
Extradition Treaty it entered into with other countries. Pacta sunt servanda means:

*
a. The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered into by them
b. The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them
in good faith
c. The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in good faith
d. Though the States are bound to recognize an agreement entered into by them but
cannot be compelled to follow it.
96. In granting bail in extradition cases, the required proof of evidence is:

*
a. clear and convincing evidence
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. preponderance of evidence
d. substantial evidence
97. Bail in deportation proceedings is wholly:

*
a. mandatory
b. necessary
c. discretionary
d. not mandatory
98. Remedy of the accused when bail is denied by the trial court.

*
a. motion for reconsideration
b. appeal
c. petition for certiorari
d. petition for habeas corpus
99. An order denying a petition for bail is:

*
a. a final order
b. an interlocutory order
c. a mittimus
d. a commitment order
100. It is a writ issued directly by a judge to a law enforcer, for the arrest of a
person who has been held in contempt, has disobeyed a subpoena, or has to appear at
a hearing or trial.

*
a. bench warrant
b. warrant of arrest
c. alias warrant
d. search warrant