Professional Documents
Culture Documents
BY STUDYNITI
[100 SETS]
ROCKET
ROCKET
ROCKET
REASONING MAINS LEVEL QUESTIONS
(ALL TYPES)
S U I T A B L E F O R A L L B A N K &
I N S U R A N C E M A I N S E X A M S
Preface
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ROCKET
Pg.
Puzzles & Seating Arrangements 1
Contents
Alphabet Series 49
Table of
Direction - Distance 57
Syllogism 67
Blood Relation 80
Coding - Decoding 90
Input - Output 97
Inequality 103
Rocket
Reasoning7
Puzzles & Seating
Arrangements
S Certain numbers of person are sitting in a line and all were facing south and
each person likes some flavour of Dairymilk. There are square of three
E number of persons sitting between D and G, who likes Cadbury flavour. The
one who likes Fruit & nut is second to the right of D who sits second to the
T right of the one who likes Choco. Square of two number of persons are
sitting between B and D. The one who likes Red velvet is an immediate
(1) neighbour of B. B and I sits second and fifth from the end (Either left or
right) respectively. M sits third to the right of the one who is second from
one end. The one who likes Bubbly flavour is an immediate neighbour of M,
who likes either candy or Choco. Two persons are there between one who
likes Choco and one who likes Bubbly flavour. The number of persons sits to
the right of B is one more than the number of persons sits to the left of
G.The one who likes Red velvet flavour is third from either right or left end.
The number of persons between B and I is same as the number of persons
between M and H.H is a neighbour of the one who likes neither Choco nor
Bubbly. E is sixth to the right of H.
Q1. How many persons sit between the one Q3. What is the position of the one who
who likes Candy and the one who is second likes Red velvet with respect to I?
to the left of D? [A] Third to the left
[A] None [B] Second to the right
[B] One [C] Immediate right
[C] Two [D] Fourth to the left
[D] Three [E] None of these
[E] Five Q4. Which of the following persons sit on
Q2. Which of the following person likes the second and fifth from the left end (with
Fruit & Nut flavour? respect to their positions) respectively?
[A] M [A] G, B
[B] G [B] E, M
[C] D [C] B, I
[D] I [D] H, M
[E] Cannot be determined [E] Cannot be determined
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Q3. The person who sits second to the right Q5. Who sits opposite to the one who
of the one who belongs to Jind belongs to belongs to Ambala?
which of the following city? [A] C-Jind
[A] Ambala [B] B-Bhiwani
[B] Jind [C] D-Karnal
[C] Panchkula [D] H-Hisar
[D] Jhajjar [E] None of these
[E] None of these
Q4. If G is related to Gurugram and B is ANSWERS
related to Faridabad, in the same way A is
related to? [A] B
[A] Ambala [B] E
[B] Gurugram [C] A
[C] Hisar [D] D
[D] Karnal [E] D
[E] None of these
computer and the one who likes commerce.The number of persons sitting
between the U and the one who likes English is the same as between the
one who likes Computer and Social.P sits two places away from U who
neither likes English nor Computer.The one who likes English either sits
adjacent to T or P.The number of persons sitting between R and Q is the
same as between Q and P.
Q1. Four of the following five are alike in a Q2. Starting from P’s position, if all the
certain way based on their positions in the persons are arranged in alphabetical order
seating arrangement and so form a group. in the clockwise direction, then the
Which among the following do not belong position of how many members (excluding
to that group? P) would not change?
[A] VQ
[A] 3
[B] T, Vacant
[B] 2
[C] PU
[C] 1
[D] RV
[D] 4
[E] QT
[E] None
Q3. Who among the following person sits
second to the left of the one who likes Q4. Which of the following pair of persons
Science? are sitting opposite to each other?
[A] P [A] V, The one who likes Maths
[B] The one who sits 2nd to the right of P [B] U, The one who likes English
[C] The one who sits immediate left of R [C] S, P
[D] The one who likes Commerce [D] Vacant, The one who likes Economics
[E] None of the above [E] R, Q
ANSWERS
[A] C
[B] E
[C] D
[D] D
[E] E
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S Athat
certain number of persons are sitting in two parallel rows in such a way
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, all
E are sitting facing south while in the second row, all are sitting facing north.
Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member sitting in a row
T faces another member of the other row. O faces K and sits second to the left
(4) of G.Two persons sit between G and D, who sits at the extreme end.B sits
second to the right of P and faces to the north.The number of persons who
sits between B and K is one less than the number of persons who sit to the
right of K.The number of persons who sits between G and D is one more
than the number of persons who sit between O and T.M faces the one who
sits immediate left of T.The number of persons who sits between P and K is
just double the number of persons who sits between K and M.Only one
person sits between C and M.E faces the one who sits immediate left of B.
Q1. How many persons sit between O and Q2. Who among the following faces the one
D? who sits second to the right of K?
[A] Five [A] E
[B] Four [B] D
[C] Six [C] T
[D] Three [D] G
[E] Seven [E] None of these
Q3. The number of persons sit between B Q4. If B and C are interchanged their
and C, when counted to the left of C is the position to each other, then who among
same as the number of persons who sit the following sits third to the left of K?
between O and ___ when counted to the [A] B
left of __. [B] M
[A] E [C] C
[B] T [D] P
[C] D [E] None of these
[D] G
[E] No one
S Nine people attend the seminar in January, April, May, July and August. The
seminar is scheduled in three dates of every month 12, 18, 23. In the month
E which has 30days has all the dates scheduled for seminar. O attends
seminar on even number date. I attends the seminar in the month having 30
T days and on even date. P attends seminar on odd number date either in the
(5) month April or May. There are six dates between P and M.M and Q attend
the seminar on same month and both of them attend after N. In the month
of January there is only one scheduled seminar on even numbered date.N
attends seminar on 12th of a month which has 31 days. There are four dates
between N and Q.Thus Q can be placed only on 23rd of August.L attends the
seminar in 18th after April. O and L attend seminar on same month and on
even number dates. In the month which has 30 days has all the dates
scheduled for seminar. One person attends the seminar between K and O.
There are two seminar schedule days between J and K.
Q1. Who attends the seminar on January Q2. How many seminars were held
18th? between I and M?
[A] K [A] 4
[B] J [B] 3
[C] P [C] 5
[D] L [D] 2
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q3. How many seminars were held in the Q4. How many persons remain unchanged
date 12th of all given months? their positions when all the alphabets are
[A] 2 arranged in alphabetical order in the dates
[B] 3 when the seminars were held?
[C] 1 [A] 1
[D] 4 [B] 3
[E] None of these [C] 2
Q5. In which of the following month and [D] 4
date does I attend the seminar? [E] None of these
[A] April 12th
ANSWERS
[B] April 18th
[A] B [D] C
[C] Jan 23rd
[D] Aug 12th [B] C [E] A
[E] July 23rd [C] D
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MONTHS 12 18 23
JANUARY J
APRIL I K P
MAY O L
JULY N
AUGUST M Q
S In a cricket team, each member has a specific jersey number and specific
talent. All of them are facing east in line which is from north to south. In a
E playing team there are more than four batsmen, two all-rounders, one
spinner and remaining are bowlers. Jersey numbers are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10,
T 11 and 12. The captain is fifth from the south end. Spinner is on the
(6) immediate left of captain. Vice-captain is second to the left of keeper. Three
persons are sitting between bowler and keeper. Y, batsman sits second from
one end and sits third to the left of X, who is an immediate neighbour of
spinner. The team keeper is the skipper of team. Q who is a spinner sits in
the middle of the line.Vice-Captain has number eight in jersey. T is at one
end and immediate neighbour of U, who is a batsman. Both ends are
occupied by bowlers. Vice Captain is an all-rounder.W’s jersey number is half
of vicecaptain jersey number and is a neighbour of skipper. T’s jersey
number is a prime number when it is doubled it will be W’s jersey number
and when it’s tripled it will be the captain’s jersey number. Consecutive
prime numbers are the jersey numbers of both players in north and south
end.The number of players between T and keeper is one less than the
number of players between V and Y, who has jersey number which is a
prime number which is more than the square of R’s jersey number. R sits
third to the left of Z, who is a batsman and has jersey number as double of
captain’s number. Q has jersey number as half of P, the batsman.S has the
jersey number as prime number. In a playing team there are more than four
batsmen, two all-rounders, one spinner and remaining are bowlers. S is a
batsman and sits to the right of P, who is a batsman.
Q1. Who has the jersey number as 5? Q2. How many players are between W and
[A] The person who is 3rd to the left of W Vicecaptain?
[B] Q [A] 4
[C] The person who is 2nd to the right of Y [B] 3
[D] D.Y [C] 5
[E] None of these [D] 2
Q3. Who is third to the right of Q? [E] None of these
[A] The person whose jersey number is 7 Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a
[B] W certain way and so form a group. Which
[C] Z one does not belong to the group?
[D] The person who is 2nd to the left of W [A] U
[E] None of these [B] S
Q5. What is the total jersey number of the [C] Q
one who is spinner and the one who is [D] Z
second to the right ofR? [E] Y
[A] 8 ANSWERS
[B] 19 [A] B
[C] 9 [B] D
[D] 11
[C] A
[E] 15
[D] C
[E] E
S Nine chefs viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are hired to cook different sweets viz.
Basundi, Burfi, Halwa, Jalebi, Jamun, Katli, Kova, Kulfi, and Ladoo, but not
E necessarily in the same order. They are standing on an equilateral triangular
cooking table such that three persons stand at each of the sides and all of
T them are facing towards the centre. I stands adjacent to the one who cooks
(7) Halwa where neither of them stands at the same side. Two persons stand
between I and A, who doesn't stand on the same side as the one who cooks
Halwa. The one who cooks Burfi stands second to the left of A and fourth to
the right of the one who cooks Katli. The number of persons between the
one who cooks Katli and Halwa is the same as the number of persons
between A and D when counted from the right of both A and the one who
cooks Katli. The one who cooks Kulfi stands second to the left of D, who
stands to the immediate left of F. More than two persons stand between F
and G, who cook Kova when counted from both sides of F. The number of
persons between G and D is the same as the number of persons between
the one who cooks Jalebi and C when counted from the right of G and left of
the one who cooks Jalebi. C who doesn't stand on the same side as G. The
one who cooks Ladoo stands to the immediate right of the one who cooks
Basundi. E stands to the immediate left of the one who cooks Jamun
whereas H cooks neither Burfi nor Jalebi but stands third to the right of B.
Q1. How many persons stand between H Q2. The number of persons between F and
and the one who cooks Jalebi when the one who cook ___ is the same as the
counted from the right number of persons between A and the one
of H? who cook ___, when counted from the left
[A] As many persons stand between D of F and A.
and I counted from the right of D [A] Halwa, Kova
[B] Two [B] Kulfi, Jamun
[C] As many persons stand between A and [C] Basundi, Halwa
E counted from the right of A [D] Kova, Burfi
[D] More than three [E] None of these
[E] None
Q3. Who among the following person cooks Q4. If D is related to Katli and C is related to
Jamun? Basundi in a certain way, then who among
[A] The one who stands immediate right of E the following person is related to Ladoo?
[B] E [A] I
[C] H [B] F
[D] The one who stands second to the right [C] H
of D [D] B
[E] None of these [E] None of these
S Nine persons are sitting around the Hexagon table as shown in the below
figure. The persons sitting on corners are facing towards the centre and the
E persons sitting on sides are facing away from the centre. Each of them
scored different runs.
T
(8)
R sits second to the right of T, who doesn't sit on the sides of the table. R and
T face different directions. One person sits between R and O. S sits third to
the right of O. The one, who sits second to the left of S, scored 45 runs. One
person sits between the one, who scored 45 runs and the one, who scored 75
runs and both of them are facing the same direction. Two persons sit
between the one, who scored 75 runs and L. M sits third to the right of P,
who doesn't score 45 runs. The sum of the runs scored by M and S is 92. N
scored twice the runs scored by S. Q sits to the immediate left of the one,
who scored 36 runs. Average runs scored by the persons, who are sitting on
corners is 60. The difference between the runs scored by N and T is not 3.
The one who scored 4 runs more than T sits second to the right of the one
who scored 6 runs less than O. Two persons sit between the one, who scored
30 runs and the one, who scored 5 runs more than Q.
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Q1. What is the position of Q with respect to Q2. What is the difference between the
the one, who scored 80 runs? runs scored by the immediate neighbours
[A] Fourth to the Left of the one, who scored 30 runs?
[B] Second to the Left [A] 58 Runs
[C] Third to the Left [B] 34 Runs
[D] Fifth to the Right [C] 49 Runs
[E] Cannot Be Determined [D] 19 Runs
Q3. Who among the following person [E] Cannot Be Determined
scored the runs, which is a perfect square? Q4. Which among the following statement
[A] The one, who sits third to the left of O is/are not true?
[B] The one, who sits second to the left of L 1. Sum of runs scored by P and L is same
[C] The one, who sits third to the right of R as the one, who scored highest runs
[D] The one, who sits third to the right of M 2. More than three persons sit between N
[E] Cannot be determined and M in both directions from M
3. Difference between runs scored by R
Q5. Who among the following person
and M is divisible by 7
scored the highest runs?
[A] Only I and III
[A] N
[B] Only II
[B] P
[C] Only I and II
[C] R
[D] Only III
[D] S
[E] None of These
[E] T
ANSWERS
[A] C
[B] B
[C] D
[D] B
[E] A
lesser than B’s income” Q sits four persons away from R where O & R. Both Q
and R don’t sit on any of the extreme ends. O sits third to the right of Q. Only
three persons sit between O and the one who’s income is 1000 more than O.
S’s income is 12,000 and is neither adjacent to O nor sit on any of the ends.
Atleast two persons sit to the right of S where S & O and S $ L. M sits to the
right of L but not P where M * P and M $ Q.Not more than two persons sit
between L and M who’s income is 19,000 and M # N.
Q1. What will be the annual income of the Q2. How many persons sit between M and
person who is third to the right of S? the person who is second to the right of R?
[A] 132000 [A] One
[B] 216000 [B] Two
[C] 204000 [C] More than three
[D] 180000 [D] None
[E] None of these [E] C. Three
Q3. What is the income of the person who Q4. What is the total monthly income of Q
sits to the immediate left of O? and P?
[A] 15,000 [A] 38,000
[B] 19,000 [B] 43,000
[C] 17,000 [C] 32,000
[D] 14,000 [D] 56,000
[E] None of these [E] None of these
S There are six persons – Pankaj, Abhinav, Bhupati, Viswanath, Rahul, and
Satya sitting around an equated triangular table. Three of them sit at the
E corner of the table and three of them sit at the middle of the side. Some of
them are facing the center and some of them are facing away from the
T center. Each of them has a different amount of cash in their wallets among
950, 1220, 1560, 2240, 2890, and 3500. The one who has Rs.2240 sits at a side
(10) of the table but not adjacent to Bhupati, who has Rs.610 less than Abhinav.
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Bhupati sits second to the right of Rahul, who sits at a corner of the
table.Pankaj, who faces the direction that is opposite to Rahul sits adjacent
to the person having Rs.2240. Satya sits to the immediate right of the person
having Rs.1220 and also to the immediate left of Bhupati. Either Pankaj or
Rahul has Rs.1220. Satya faces the same direction as that of Pankaj. The
person having the highest money does not sit either second to the left or
second to the right of Satya. The person having RS.1560 sits second to the
right of Viswanath. Viswanath is not a neighbor of the person having
Rs.2890.The person having the least amount sits to the immediate left of
Abhinav.Pankaj did not have the highest amount. The person having the
third-lowest amount faces outside.
Q1. Who among the following sits third to Q2. Out of the following persons, find the
the left of the person having the second- one who faces a direction that is different
highest amount? from others?
Six persons sit in a triangular table such that three of them sits at corner and
S rest of them sits atmiddle side of the table. The one who sits at middle faces
E the centre and one who sits at corner faces away from the centre. Each one
of them wear different colour shirt. The one who wears orange shirt sits
T second to the left of R. D sits immediate right of G. R does not wear Red
shirt. The one who wears blue shirt sits opposite to M, who wear black shirt.
(11) G does not wear orange shirt. The one who wears yellow shirt sits second to
the left of P. G sits second to the right of the one who wears Red shirt. K
faces centre. One of the persons wears pink shirt.
Q1. Who among the following person wears Q2. Which of the following person sits third
Pink colour shirt? to the right of the one who sits second to
[A] P the left of K?
[B] D [A] The one who wears Red shirt
[C] K [B] The one who wears Black shirt
[D] G [C] The one who wears Pink shirt
[E] None of these [D] The one who wears Orange shirt
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[A] E
[B] B
Q3. Which among the following Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a
statement(s) is/are true? certain way thus forms a group. Find the
1. B and V are facing each other odd one which does not belong to the
2. R sits second to the left of W group?
3. H sits second to the right of B [A] GQ
[A] Only I and III [B] ER
[B] Only III [C] HW
[C] Only I and II [D] DU
[D] Only II [E] CS
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
Q5. If all girls are arranged in alphabetical
[A] D
order in a clockwise from P then how many
[B] C
girls remain unchanged in their position
(Excluding P)? [C] A
[A] Two [D] D
[B] One [E] A
[C] Three
[D] More than three
[E] None
S Seven persons viz. T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are born in different years. Their ages
are calculated based on the year 2020. None of them is born before 1960
E and after 2000. Each person owns different cars viz. Benz, BMW, Bugatti,
Ferrari, Lamborghini, Rolls Royce and Mercedes. All the information is not
T necessarily in the same order. Note: If it is mentioned that one person’s age
is equal to the last two digits of another person’s birth year, then it can be at
(13) any sequence. For example, if the age of ‘A’ is equal to the last two digits of
the birth year of ‘B’ which is 1976, then the age of ‘A’ might be either 76 or 67.
The age of X is 43 years and he owns Lamborghini. The difference between
the age of X and Y is 5 years. The age of Y is equal to the last two digits of the
birth year of Z who own Mercedes. T is 6 years younger than Z and 5 years
elder than W. The one who owns Benz is twice the age of W. The one who
likes BMW is the eldest person. Neither V nor Y is the eldest among them.
The age of U is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of W. The person
who owns Bugatti is elder to the person who owns Ferrari where neither of
them was owned by the youngest person.
Q1. Who among the following person is 38 Q2. Who among the following person owns
years old? Rolls Royce?
[A] V [A] The one whose age is 26
[B] Y [B] The one who is born in 1990
[C] Z [C] The one who is the second eldest
[D] X [D] The one who is the youngest
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q3. What is the age of the person who owns Q4. Who among the following is born in
Ferrari? 1983?
[A] 43 [A] The one who owns Bugatti car
[B] 30 [B] The one who owns Benz car
[C] 48 [C] The one who owns Lamborghini car
[D] 36 [D] The one who owns Mercedes car
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q5. Which of the following car is owned by
ANSWERS
the one who is born in 1972?
[A] E
[A] Bugatti
[B] Benz [B] D
[C] BMW [C] B
[D] Ferrari [D] E
[E] None of these [E] A
T 1990 30 FERRARI
U 1961 59 BMW
V 1970 50 BENZ
X 1977 43 LAMBORGHINI
Y 1972 48 BUGATTI
Z 1984 36 MERCEDES
Q4. Who among the following person likes Q5. Find the odd one out of the five?
Thor? [A] The one who likes The Avengers
[A] D [B] The one, who likes Guardians of Galaxy
[B] C [C] The one lives immediately west of A
[C] The one, who lives along with G [D] The one, who lives immediately
on the same floor South-West of G
[D] The one, who lives immediately [E] The one, who likes Doctor Strange
North-East of A
[E] None of These
ANSWERS
[A] B
[B] B
[C] C
[D] E
[E] C
S Ten persons are living in the five building which is adjacent to each other as
shown in the figure.
E
T
(15)
The building was named P to T from left to right. The ground floor is
numbered as 1st floor and immediate above floor is 2nd and so on. Except
ten remaining flats are vacant floors. Immediate above and below floors of D
was vacant. G lives immediate above of J. There are one building is between
H and G living buildings. G lives in 2nd floor. Both C and J live in the same
numbered floor. E lives same floor as J and lives in the immediate building
of G. Two floors are between B’s and C’s floors and both of them lives in -
1 2 3
YEAR 1963 1968 1970 1978 1984 1987 1991 1996 2003 2004
AGE 56 51 49 41 35 32 28 23 16 15
PERSON E I L C D P A F B Q
Q3. If all the persons are arranged in Q4. Which of the following car is liked by
alphabetical order from P in a clockwise the one who sits immediate left of W?
direction, then how many persons are [A] Honda
unchanged in their positions (Excluding P)? [B] Renault
[A] None [C] Kia
[B] One [D] Ford
[C] Two [E] Nissan
[D] Three
[E] More than three ANSWERS
Q5. Who among the following person sits [A] B
third to the right of Honda? [B] E
[A] S [C] A
[B] U [D] E
[C] Q
[E] B
[D] V
[E] R
ANSWERS
Q3. How many floors are there between B
[A] D
and G’s father?
[A] Four [B] A
[B] Three [C] C
[C] Two [D] E
[D] Five [E] D
[E] None of the above
persons who attended A’s concert. B and G have concerts on the same date
Total number of persons who attended the concerts of D and G is 32k. Only
one concert held between the concerts of D and E. The difference between
the number of persons who attended the concerts of singers H and D is
2k.Total number of persons who attend the concert of G and C is 27k.
Q1. Who among the following singer has his Q2. How many singers concert held
concert on 24th July? between G and F?
[A] E [A] 3
[B] G [B] 1
[C] A [C] 2
[D] D [D] None
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q3. B’s concert was held on which of the Q4. Which of the following pair of singers
following date? have concert in the same month?
[A] 24th January [A] G and A
[B] 17th July [B] D and E
[C] 17th September [C] F and E
[D] 24th September [D] C and E
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q5. What is the total number of persons
ANSWERS
whoattended concert in July?
[A] 35k
[A] B
[B] 69k [B] C
[C] 32k [C] E
[D] 44k [D] D
[E] None of these [E] C
Deepti and Kabir. One person attends the lecture between Raunak and the
one who attends the lecture on Biology. Raunak neither attends the lecture
on Hindi nor attends the lecture before the one who attends the lecture on
Physics. The one who attends Physics doesn’t attend the lecture after any of
the breaks.
Q1. Who among the following person Q2. Mangesh attends his lecture at______?
attends the lecture on History? [A] 1.30 PM-2.00 PM
[A] The one whose lecture starts at 11 AM. [B] 12.15 PM-12-45 PM
[B] The one who attends two persons [C] 12.45 PM -1.15 PM
before Kabir. [D] 11.45 AM-12.15 PM
[C] Mangesh [E] None of these.
[D] The one whose lecture starts at 12.45 Q4. Who among the following person
PM. attends the lecture in Hindi?
[E] None of these [A] The one who attends two lectures
Q3. How many persons are attending the after Deepti.
lectures between the one who attends [B] Raunak
chemistry and Deepti? [C] The one who attends just after Physics.
[A] Two [D] Jignesh
[B] As many persons between Kabir and [E] None of these
the one who attends History. Q5. Which of the following statement(s)
[C] As many persons between Mangesh is/are not true?
and the one who attends Physics. 1. Three persons are attending the lecture
[D] Three between Jignesh and Mangesh.
[E] None of these 2. Shikha attends the lecture two persons
before the one who teaches Hindi.
ANSWERS
3. Kabir attends the lecture just after the
[A] E
Raunak.
[B] B
[A] Only I
[C] C [B] Both II and III
[D] E [C] All I, II and III
[E] A [D] Both I and II
[E] None of these
10;30-
TIME 11:00-11:30 11:30-11:45 11:45-12:15 12:15-12:45 12:45-01:00 1:00-1:30 1:30-2:00
11:00
J9IGNES
NAME SHIKHA ----- DEEPTI MANGESH ----- RAUNAK KABIR
H
S Six friends Arun, Dipankar, Mohit, Parveen, Ravi and Sahil got married within
a year in the months of March, May, August, October, December and January
E and in the cities of Kanpur, Mumbai, Kochi, Chandigarh, Indore and Delhi
but not necessarily following the above order. The brides’ names were
T Saraswati, Jhanvi, Jyoti, Bhanu, Pallavi and Zoya, once again not following
any order. The following are some facts about their weddings. Mohit’s
(23) wedding took place in Kochi, however he was not married to Saraswati or
Zoya. Arun’s wedding took place in Kanpur and Ravi’s in Chandigarh;
however neither of them was married to Jhanvi or Bhanu. The wedding in
Delhi took place in March. Jyoti’s wedding took place in May, but not in
Kanpur.Saraswati and Pallavi got married in March and December in Kochi
and Delhi but not necessarily in the same order. Parveen wedding took
place in January but not in Mumbai.Sahil was married to Jhanvi in October.
Q1. In Indore, at which of the following Q2. Who is Dipankar’s wife and where does
month does the wedding of one of the their wedding took place repectively?
friends took place?
[A] Bhanu, Delhi
[A] May
[B] Jyoti, Chandigarh
[B] October
[C] Zoya, Indore
[C] March
[D] Saraswati, Delhi
[D] January
[E] Jhanvi, Indore
[E] August
Q3. Which of the following combination is Q4. In which city does the wedding of Sahil
true? held?
[A] Parveen – Bhanu – Delhi – March. [A] Indore
[B] Ravi – Jyoti – Chandigarh – May. [B] Kanpur
[C] Mohit – Zoya – Kochi – December. [C] Delhi
[D] Sahil – Jhanvi – Indore – October. [D] Mumbai
[E] Ravi – Zoya – Chandigarh – May. [E] Chandigarh
Q3. Which of the following statement is Q4. Who is the youngest in the group?
true? [A] W
[A] Two persons are born between P & W [B] U
[B] V is 28 years old [C] Q
[C] U is born in 1984 [D] T
[D] S is born immediately before R [E] P
[E] More than one is true
Q5. In which of the following year does V ANSWERS
born? [A] B
[A] 1992 [B] A
[B] 2013C. 1997
[C] E
[C] 1975
[D] C
[D] 2004
[E] 2003 [E] A
S Seven persons from the same family viz., T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z bought the
Remdesivir vaccine on different days of the same week starting from Sunday
E to Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. W’s father bought three
days after Z’s spouse. W’s father does not buy on the last day. W’s only sibling
T bought immediately after W. U is the only daughter of Y who is the mother-
in-law of Z. W’s spouse is the sister-in-law of U, vice versa. Z does not have
(25) any siblings and is not married to U. The mother-in-law of V’s father bought
immediately before Y’s spouse. Y is the paternal grandmother of Z’s only son.
X is of opposite gender of V. The number of persons bought before X’s son-
in-law is the same as the number of persons bought after Z’s mother. The
mother-in-law of W’s spouse bought one of the days after U’s father. The
grandson of Z’s mother does not buy on Monday.
Q1. How many persons bought the vaccine Q2. Which of the following statement is/are
after V’s mother? false?
[A] Five 1. Z bought on Tuesday
[B] Four 2. Only two persons bought between Y
[C] Three and U
[D] Two 3. U is the daughter of X.
[E] One 4. No one bought after W’s mother
Q3. As many persons bought the vaccine [A] Only I and IV
before V is same as that of after___. [B] Only III and IV
[A] U [C] Only I and III
[B] The one who bought immediately [D] Only II and IV
before Z [E] None of the statement is false
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[C] The one who bought immediately Q4. Who among the following person
after X bought the vaccine on Friday?
[D] D.Y [A] One who bought immediately after Z
[E] T’s son [B] One who bought immediately before X
Q5. Which of the following day did U’s [C] Z
nephew buy the vaccine? [D] X
[A] Tuesday [E] Y’s spouse
[B] Monday ANSWERS
[C] Sunday
[A] A
[D] Wednesday
[B] C
[E] Thursday
[C] D
[D] E
[E] C
S Five banks viz. – SBI, PNB, BOB, HDFC, and ICICI are there in the five floors
building from bottom to top respectively, such that the lowermost floor is
E marked as 1 and the topmost floor is marked as 5. Three employees from
each bank who are designated as Manager, Assistant Manager, and Clerk
T takes three lift I, II, and III to go up or down to their respective floors. Note:-
None of the three persons from the same bank takes the same lift. Also, a
(26) person on the adjacent floors who holds the same designation is not taking
the same lift. B, who is an Assistant Manager, works on an even number floor
takes lift II. H who works three floors above B and is neither Assistant
Manager nor takes the same lift as of B. Clerk from SBI takes lift I and works
three floors below L, who neither works in the same bank along with C nor
takes lift III. The designation of H and L is the same, but not an Assistant
Manager. The one who is a Manager from ICICI is not taking lift III. E works
on one of the floors below H and designated as Manager. I and O work in the
same bank along with E, who doesn’t take lift II. L and D who is a Clerk works
in the same Bank. The designation of I and C are the same, but none of them
takes the lift III. C and K, who is an assistant manager are working on the
same floor. N works on the same floor along with F, who takes lift II. G works
as a Manager and works three floors below J, who doesn’t take the same lift
as of A.
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Q1. What is the designation and bank of A? Q2. Four of the five are related to each
[A] Manager – PNB other in a certain way and thus form a
[B] Clerk – BOB group, find out which of the following is
[C] Assistant Manager – ICICI odd out?
[D] SBI – Clerk [A] C
[E] None of these [B] B
Q3. Who among the following person [C] M
works asManager in BOB? [D] D
[A] E [E] N
[B] H Q4. Which of the following persons are
[C] O working in SBI?
[D] G [A] CKE
[E] None of these [B] GKF
Q5. Which among the following [C] CGO
combination is not true? [D] AMB
[A] ICICI – N – CLERK [E] None of these
[B] B – AM – PNB ANSWERS
[C] M – Manager – SBI
[A] A
[D] I – Clerk – BOB
[B] B
[E] L – Manager – HDFC
[C] A
[D] E
[E] C
There are four floors in a building in which the ground floor is numbered as
S 1, floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost floor
E numbered as 4. Each of the floors consists of 3 flats as flat-1, flat-2 and flat-3.
Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below
T flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately
above flat-2 of floor1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-2
(27) is in east of flat-1 and flat-3 is in east of flat2. Twelve persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G,
H, I, J, K and L live in different flats of different floors. Only two floors are -
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there between J and K. J lives above K. A is to the east of I but none of them
lives on same flat and same floor number on which J and K live. No one lives
in the west of J. Only one floor is there between C and G. L lives to the east of
G. F lives immediately above B’s flat. B lives in odd numbered flat. D is to the
west of H. L lives below E in the same flat and H does not live on the top
floor. E does not live in flat-2.
Q1. Who among the following person lives Q2. I lives in which of the following flat
on 4th floor? number?
[A] B [A] FLAT 1
[B] K [B] FLAT 2
[C] I [C] FLAT 3
[D] L [D] EITHER FLAT 1 OR FLAT 2
[E] C [E] EITHER FLAT 2 OR FLAT 3
Q3. Who among the following lives to the Q4. Who among the following lives
west of G? immediately above F in the same flat
[A] F number?
[B] B [A] J
[C] K [B] K
[D] C [C] I
[E] None of these [D] H
Q5. Four of the following are alike in a [E] None of these
certain way so form a group, which of the ANSWERS
following does not belong to that group? [A] E
[A] E [B] B
[B] A [C] B
[C] I
[D] A
[D] H
[E] E
[E] J
S Seven persons viz. T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are born in different years. Their ages
are calculated based on the year 2020. None of them is born before 1960
E and after 2000. Each person owns different cars viz. Benz, BMW, Bugatti,
Ferrari, Lamborghini, Rolls Royce and Mercedes. All the information is not
T necessarily in the same order. Note: If it is mentioned that one person’s age
is equal to the last two digits of another person’s birth year, then it can be at
(28) any sequence. For example, if the age of ‘A’ is equal to the last two digits of
the birth year of ‘B’ which is 1976, then the age of ‘A’ might be either 76 or 67.
The age of X is 43 years and he owns Lamborghini. The difference between
the age of X and Y is 5 years. The age of Y is equal to the last two digits of the
birth year of Z who own Mercedes.T is 6 years younger than Z and 5 years
elder than W. The one who owns Benz is twice the age of W. The one who
likes BMW is the eldest person. Neither V nor Y is the eldest among
them.The age of U is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of W. The
person who owns Bugatti is elder to the person who owns Ferrari where
neither of them was owned by the youngest person.
Q1. Who among the following person is 38 Q2. Who among the following person owns
years old? Rolls Royce?
[A] V [A] The one whose age is 26
[B] Y [B] The one who is born in 1990
[C] Z [C] The one who is the second eldest
[D] X [D] The one who is the youngest
[E] No such person or none of these [E] None of these
Q3. What is the age of the person who owns Q4. Who among the following is born in
Ferrari? 1983?
[A] 43 [A] The one who owns Bugatti car
[B] 30 [B] The one who owns Benz car
[C] 48 [C] The one who owns Lamborghini car
[D] 36 [D] The one who owns Mercedes car
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q5. Which of the following car is owned by
ANSWERS
the one who is born in 1972?
[A] E
[A] Bugatti
[B] D
[B] Benz
[C] BMW [C] B
[D] Ferrari [D] E
[E] None of these [E] A
S Seven persons having exams namely – Shreya, Shyam, Ankita, Zeshan, Babu,
Madhu, and Raunak was scheduled in a week from Monday to Sunday.
E Exam of different subjects was scheduled on each day viz.- English, Biology,
Hindi, Chemistry, Computer, History, and Geography. All the information is
T not necessary in the same order. The exam of Chemistry was scheduled
immediately next day to Ankita, whose exam was not scheduled on
(29) Monday. The exam of Computer was scheduled three days after Ankita, but
not on Saturday. The exam of Raunak was scheduled on any day before
Ankita but not on Tuesday. Two persons attend the examination between
Raunak and the examination of English. The examination of Shyam was
immediately preceded by anexamination of English. Madhu attends the
exam of Hindi and was scheduled before the exam of Ankita. The number of
exams scheduled between Shreya and English is one less than the number
of exams scheduled between Babu and Hindi. The number of persons
attending the exam before Geography is one more than the number of
persons attending the exam after Shreya. At least one person attends an
exam between Zeshan and the exam of History.
Q1. Who among the following person Q2. If Zeshan is related to Chemistry, and
appeared for the Chemistry exam? Babu is related to Geography, then who
[A] The one whose exam was scheduled among the following person is related to
immediately preceding to Zeshan. Hindi?
[B] Shyam [A] The one who appeared for Computer.
[C] Babu [B] Raunak
[D] Raunak [C] Madhu
[E] None of these [D] The one who appeared from English.
Q3. Which of the following exam is [E] None of these.
scheduled for Wednesday?
Q4. Which of the statement is true?
[A] The one scheduled just after History.
Geography [A] As many persons were attended the
[B] One immediately preceding day to exam after Babu as before Hindi.
[C] Babu. [B] The computer exam was scheduled just
[D] English before Shreya.
[E] Either B or C [C] As many persons were attended the
Q5. In which of the following day does exam after Biology is the same before
Biology exam was scheduled? Shyam.
[D] Two persons have attended the exam
[A] Saturday
between Ankita and Madhu.
[B] Tuesday
[E] All the above statements are not true.
[C] Wednesday
[D] Sunday
[E] None of these
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ANSWERS
[A] C
[B] D
[C] B
[D] E
[E] A
S In alphabet series A – Z, all the vowels are removed, and then, the
consonants are coded as 2 – 9 like B is coded 2, c is coded 3, and so on. Now,
E the next letter after the letter coded as 9 will again be coded as 2 – 9. This
continues till Z. All the vowels are coded as %, $, #, ^, and ! respectively. Note:
T If more than one conditions satisfy, then apply only one as per the order
(which comes first will be applied). 1. If a word starts with a consonant and
(30) ends with a vowel, then the codes for the first and last letters get
interchanged. 2. If a word starts with a consonant and ends with a
consonant, then the consonants in that word are replaced by the codes of
the just next consonants according to the English alphabetical series. 3. If a
word starts with a vowel and ends with a consonant, then mark both as Y. 4.
If two successive letters in the word are the same then they are coded as &.
Q1. What will be the code for ‘OCTOBER’?
[A] Y392^$Y
Q2. What will be the code for ‘MONDAY’?
[B] Y39^2$Y
[A] 3^44%5
[C] Y$2^93Y
[B] 425525
[D] Y$^293Y
[C] 525524
[E] None of these
Q3. What will be the code for ‘ALL THE [D] 4655&6
BEST’? [E] 4^55%6
[A] %&& 97$ 3$92
[B] %&& $79 3$92 Q4. What will be the sum of the digits that
[C] Y2Y 97$ 3$92 will come in the code of ‘HAPPY NEW
[D] Y2Y $79 3$92 YEAR’?
[E] Y2Y $79 3$95 [A] 49
Q5. What will be the code for ‘DANCING’? [B] 50
[A] 534#56 [D] 5%4#66 [C] 51
[B] 5%4#77 [E] 54#578 [D] 41
[C] 5%4#57 [E] 42
ANSWERS
[A] B
[B] E
[C] D
[D] A
[E] C
Nine letters are arranged from left to right and all are facing north. Each
S letter is decoded from number sets which is either single or double digit.
E Letters are decoded by the last digit of the numbers from 1 to 10 to match
the alphabet in the alphabetical order. Note: If after condition for 1st place of
T the number we get as 16 then the letter F is decoded by identifying the last
digit 6 in the alphabetical order wise. If it is 0 then code it as J. Nine number
(31) sets are arranged in 1st to 9th places from left to right end. Numbers are
both in single and double values only. Number in 7th place is product of the
digits in 6th place number. Number in 3rd place is cube of the number in 1st
place. Number in 9th place is the product of 2nd and 3rd place numbers.
Number which is in 6th place is double of the number in 7th. 2nd from the
right end number is square of 3rd number from left end. Number at left end
is double from the difference between 5th and 4th place numbers. Number
4th from left end is product of the digits of number in the 8th place.
Number which is 2nd to the right of perfect cube is square of the number
which is 2nd from left end.
Q1. How many letters appears twice in the Q2. Which letter is 3rd to the right of F?
arrangement? [A] D
[A] 1 [B] E
[B] 2 [C] F
[C] 3 [D] J
[D] None [E] None of these
[E] Cannot be determined
Q4. What is the sum of two numbers at the
Q3. How many English alphabet letters are
both end of the line?
between the letter 2nd from left end and
3rd from right end? [A] 64
[A] 6 [B] 42
[B] 3 [C] 38
[C] 5 [D] 16
[D] 4 [E] None of these
S There are three floors in a given building such that floor 2 is above floor 1 and
floor 3 is above floor 2. In the building there are two flats in each floor such
E that Flat A is in the west of Flat B. In the building each Flat has an area of
1008 ft and each flat has some certain number of rooms and no two flat has
T same number of rooms. All the rooms of particular flat on particular floor
have same area. The area of each rooms of one of the Flat B is 112ft, but not
(32) on even number floor. The flat which has rooms of area 72 ft is on the even
number floor. The total no rooms on the third floor is 13. The flat having each
room area of 252ft on 3rd floor is not just above the floor having 14 rooms.
The flat having area of each rooms 168ft is just below the flat having each
room area of 72 ft. The area of each room in Flat A of the first floor is 32 ft
more than the area of each room in Flat B of third floor. The area each room
of Flat A on 2nd floor is 84 ft more than the area of each room of Flat A on
the third floor. (Note: Just above or just below is considered as in same flats.
i.e either both are in flat A or both in flat B.)
Q1. What is the area of a room in Flat A on Q2. What is the total number of rooms on
floor 2? floor 2nd?
[A] 336 ft [A] 14
[B] 72 ft [B] 16
[C] 96 ft [C] 17
[D] either (a) or (b) [D] 15
[E] None of these [E] None of these
Q3. Which statement is true? Q4. What is the total number of rooms of
[A] Total number of rooms on floor 2 is 16 flat B on Floor 2nd?
[B] Area of each room is 144 ft of flat A on floor 1 [A] 11
[C] Total rooms in Flat A of all three floors is 15. [B] 12
[D] All are correct [C] 13
[D] 14
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S Eight persons - A to H are sitting on a linear row such that some of them are
facing towards south while some are facing towards north. All of them like
E different colors – Purple, Green, Grey, Black, Pink, White, Blue and Red. The
consecutive alphabetically named persons doesn’t sit adjacent to each
T other. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. H, who likes
blue color, sits third from one of the extreme ends and faces towards south.
(33) Only three persons are sitting between H and the one who likes pink color. C
sits second from one of the extreme ends but does not like pink color. E likes
black color and sits to the immediate right of the one who likes Pink color
and both are facing opposite directions. Both H and G are immediate
neighbors of D and are facing in opposite directions. The number of persons
sitting between A and H is the same as between B and the one who likes
grey color. Both B and F are facing opposite directions. Only three persons
are sitting between the persons who like green and white color, where the
former one doesn’t sit at the extreme ends. The persons who like purple and
red color are adjacent to each other. The persons sitting at the corners face
the same direction. The one who likes white color faces the opposite
direction to the persons who like red and green color. The one who likes
purple color doesn’t face towards south.
Q1. Who among the following is/are facing Q2. Which of the following statement is/are
towards south with respect to the final correct about G?
arrangement? [A] G sits to the immediate right to D
I. The one who likes red color. [B] G sits second to the left B
II. The one who likes grey color. [C] G sits third to the right of F
III. F [D] G sits fourth to the right of A
[E] Both (a) and (d)
[A] Only I
[B] Only II Q3. Who among the following person sits
[C] Only III third to the right of the one who sits
[D] Only I and II second to the left of E?
[E] Only II and III [A] The one who likes red color
[B] The one who likes White color
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Q2. How many persons are sitting between Q3. Who among the following person was
W and V?. born in 2004?
[A] As many persons are sitting between P [A] The one who sits immediate left of R
and the one who was born in 2001. [B] The one who sits second from the right
[B] Four end
[C] As many persons are sitting to the right [C] P
of R [D] The one who sits fourth to the right of U
[D] Both a) and c) [E] None of these
[E] None of these Q5. What is the distance between R and Q?
Q4. Four of the five are related to each [A] 36
other in a certain way and form a group, [B] 60
find the odd one out? [C] 68
[A] The one who sits immediate left of U. [D] 44
[B] Q [E] 88
[C] The one who sits second to the right of ANSWERS
S
[A] C
[D] V
[B] C
[E] The one who sits immediate left of T
[C] A
[D] D
[E] C
The person facing C sitting third to the left of Q. One person sits between C
and E, none of them are sitting adjacent to the vacant chair. The Person sits
immediate right of E sits facing R, who sits third to the right of P. P sits facing
the vacant chair. A sits third to the left of F. F neither sits adjacent to C nor sits
adjacent to E. C doesn't sit facing the vacant chair. A neither sits facing the
vacant chair nor sits facing U. One person sitting between U and S, who sits
facing D. V sits immediate left of T and the person three places away from T
sits facing B.
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Q1.What is the position of U with respect to Q2. If all the persons in outer circular table
T? are rearranged within the same position in
[A] Second to the Left alphabetical order in the clockwise
[B] Immediate Right direction from A, then how many persons
[C] Third to the Right remain unchanged except A?
[D] Third to the Left [A] Three
[E] None of These [B] One
Q3. Who among the following persons are [C] Two
sitting third to the right of the vacant chair [D] None
in both tables? [E] More Than Three
[A] B and P Q4. Which of the statement is/are true?
[B] Q and C [A] C sits second to the right of the one who
[C] G and V sits facing Q
[D] U and S [B] Two persons are sitting between V and
[E] None of These persons facing B when counted from the
Q5. How many persons are sitting between left of V
V and S, when counted from the right of S? [C] As many persons are sitting between R and
[A] As many persons between G and F V is the same as the number of the persons
[B] As many persons between the person sitting between C and D when counted to
facing C and Q when counted to the the left of C and to the right of R
right of Q [D] G sits second to the left of the vacant chair
[C] As many persons between the person [E] More than one statements are true
facing R and A when counted to the ANSWERS
left of A
[A] E
[D] As many persons between the person
[B] B
facing U and D when counted to the
right of D [C] E
[E] None of These [D] E
[E] C
S Six persons i.e. M, N, O, P, Q, and R who all are sitting around the corners of a
hexagonal table facing towards the center. They all are of different height and
E weight such that the one who is the tallest is not the lightest among all. They
all are of different age i.e. 14, 22, 28, 30, 35, and 60 but not necessarily in the
T same order. The one who is the heaviest among all sits third to the right of N,
(36) who is 60 years of age. The one who is twice the age of Q is the third lightest
among all. The one who is 35 years of age is the second tallest, who sits
second to the right of Q, who is not the immediate neighbour of N. Only one -
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person sits between N and the one who is the third heaviest among all, who is
14 years of age. The one who is younger than Q is not the lightest. Q is shorter
than only two people. O's age is half the age of M. M sits third to the right of
the one who is the shortest in height among all. The one who is older than P is
taller than Q. The one who is 30 years old is the heaviest among all. The one
who sits opposite to R is the second heaviest among all. R sits second to the
right P. M is taller than the one who is 14 years old.
Q1.Who among the following is the third Q2.Which of the following statement is/are
shortest person? correct ?
[A] Age of O is an even number
[A] Person whose age is 30 years
[B] The heaviest person is six years younger
[B] Person who is 5yrs elder than Q
than P
[C] third-youngest Person
[C] Age of R is a prime number
[D] Person whose age is 60yrs
[D] Both A and B
[E] None of These
Q3. How many persons are lighter than the [E] Both A and C
Q4. What is the difference between the age
second shortest person?
[A] Three of the tallest person and the second
[B] Four lightest person?
[C] Two [A] 48 Years
[D] None [B] 38 Years
[E] One [C] 40 Years
[D] 31 Years
Q5.Which of the following combination is
[E] 42 Years
not correct?
[A] M - 28 Years ANSWERS
[B] N - 60 Years [A] C
[C] O - 14 Years [B] A
[D] P - 22 Years [C] A
[E] All are Correct [D] B
[E] D
S Six persons are travelling by a train to all over cities. Two of them are travelling
for domestic purpose and other two for business. One is travelling for tourism
E and remaining one is on study purpose. Two of them boarded at Patna, while
one each boarded at Chennai, Ranchi, Kolkata and Bangalore. One of them is
T going to Mumbai and another one is going to Hyderabad. In the Remaining,
(37) two goes to Chennai and two goes to Kolkata. Three of them are engineers,
one is MP, one is professor and the remaining one is a computer engineer. Suji
is a professor, she boarded at Chennai. Sham goes to Kolkata but he neither
boarded at Patna nor Bangalore. Sumar went to Kolkata for domestic
purpose. Computer Engineer boarded at Bangalore. The person who boarded
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S Ten persons are sitting in a linear line facing north. All the persons have some
specific numbers 25, 43, 46, 47, 48, 50, 51, 52, 54 and 64. Each person was born
E in different month such as January, February, March, April, June, July, August,
September, October and November. All the information is not necessary to be
T in the same order. The person who was born in January sits fifth from the left
end. The person born in June sits second from one of the ends (Either left or
(39) right).The person who was born in March sits third from the end and second
to the right of Q, who was born in July and has number as forty eight. Q
doesn’t sit at extreme end. The one who was born in July doesn’t sit at any
extreme end. T was born in November and is an immediate neighbour of the
person who was born in January and sits immediate right of the person
whose number is 54.The one who was born in June has a number which is a
square of eight. S sits third to the left of the person who was born in
November. S was born in April. B sits at one end and was born in October.
Three persons are sitting between the person who was born in July and the
person who was born in October. W’s number is ten more than P’s whose
number is eight more than S. Only possibility is 64 and 54. S is 8 less than P
means S has number as 46.The number of persons sitting between T and S is
same as the number of persons sitting between T and U. The number of
persons sitting between the persons who were born in September and
February is one more than the number of persons between the persons who
were born in January and June. The one who was born in February sits right to
the one who was born in September whose number is three more than that -
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from July. The only remaining month is August. A’s number is double of B’s
number. Two persons sit between A and R, whose number is 52. A’s number is
a multiple of five and sits on the immediate right of the person whose
number is one more than that of S.A’s was not born in March.
Q1.How many persons sit between A and Q2.Who among the following is born on
the person born in June? February?
[A] Four [A] V
[B] Three [B] R
[C] Two [C] U
[D] Five [D] Q
[E] Six [E] None of the above
Q3. Who among the following is sitting Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a
between the persons who is born on July certain way thus form a group. Find the one
and March? who does not belong to the group?
[A] The one who has the number 52 [A] U
[B] W [B] R
[C] The one who is born on January [C] W
[D] The one who has the number 43 [D] A
[E] None of these [E] S
Q5.What is the sum of the specific number
of T and S? ANSWERS
[A] 93 [A] B
[B] 90 [B] C
[C] 88 [C] D
[D] 55
[D] A
[E] 76
[E] A
S Directions (1-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E QOP MAP WAD DAS NLY
T Q1. If the 1st and 3rdletters of all words are changed to their reverse letter as per the
alphabetical series and then the words are arranged as per the dictionary format,
(1) then which is the 3rd letter of the word which is 2nd from the right end?
[A] N
[B] M
[C] K
[D] H
[E] None of these
Q2. How many letters are there between the 1st and 3rd letter of the word which is
second from the left end, after the arrangement of all letters of the word in
alphabetical order?
[A] 15
[B] 17
[C] 21
[D] 14
[E] 19
Q3. If the 2ndletter of all words is changed to next letter in the alphabetical order,
then how many words are having at least one vowel letter?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
[E] None
Q4. If all the letters in all the words are changed to its next alphabets according to
the alphabetical series then how many vowels are there in the newly formed series?
[A] 1
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 2
[E] 5
Q5. How many meaningful words are formed if we add “O” in the first from the left
end of each word?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 4
[D] None
[E] 3
S Directions (6-10):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E NOTE: Step 1 is followed by step 2 which is followed by step 3 and so on… and
step4 is the final step.
VUBADGKMPQZOLSFERTYHI
T [STEP 1] Arrange the letters which are in between the second vowel
(2) and fourth vowel from the left end in alphabetical order. And
the positions of the remaining letters remain the same.
[STEP 3] Replace the letters which are in the same position as in the
original series given above with their immediate next
alphabet as in the alphabetical series.
[STEP 4] Compare the series obtained after step1 with the series
obtained after step 3. If there are any letters in the same
position, then replace them with the alphabet immediate
preceding them as in the alphabetical series.
Q8. If all letters which are immediately followed by a vowel and the vowels present
in the series are dropped from the series obtained in step3, then how many letters
are left in that series?
[A] 14
[B] 15
[C] 16
[D] 17
[E] None of these
Q9. How many letters are there in the series obtained in step 3 are in the same
position as in the series obtained in step 2?
[A] 12
[B] 16
[C] 13
[D] 15
[E] None of these
Q10. If the final series is written in reverse order, then which letter will be 5th to the
right of 16th letter from the right end?
[A] Q
[B] L
[C] O
[D] P
[E] None of these
S Directions (11-15):
Following questions are based on four words given below.
BKOQ DEFS RPAC TUWJ
E (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may
not necessarily be meaningful English words)
T
Q11. If all the letters are arranged in the reverse English alphabetical order within the
(3) word, how many words will have the consonant at the beginning?
[A] Two
[B] Three
[C] One
[D] Four
[E] None of these
Q12. How many letters are there in the series obtained in step 3 are in the same
position as in the series obtained in step 2?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
[E] More than Two
Q13. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary
from right to left, which of the following will be third from left?
[A] BKOQ
[B] DEFS
[C] TUWJ
[D] RPAC
[E] None of these
Q14. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to next letter
and each vowel is changed to previous letter in the English alphabetical series, in
how many words thus formed will have at least one vowel?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
[E] None of these
Q15. How many alphabets are there between the second letter of the first word from
the left and first letter of the third word from the right end in the alphabetical
series?
[A] One
[B] Six
[C] Nine
[D] Four
[E] More than Two
S Directions (16-20):
Study the following Information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
E IDIOSYNCRATIXY
T [STEP 1] Consider the word given above and interchange every two
letters of the word.
(4) [STEP 2]
The immediate preceding letter in alphabetical series of all
the consonants of the word are arranged from left to right
after X without replacing step 1 and in the same order
followed by the immediate succeeding letter in alphabetical
series of all the vowels of the word from left to right.
[STEP 4] If any letter is repeated more than twice, then remove the
letter from the arrangement and replaced all the letters with
its succeeding letter except (Z). Step 4 is the last and the final
step and the outcome in this step is the final series. As per
the steps given above, find out the final alphabet series and
answer the following questions given below.
Q16. How many letters are there in the Step 3?
[A] 24
[B] 25
[C] 26
[D] 23
[E] None of these
Q17. If a four-letter word is formed using the letters 1st , 3rd, 4th, and 6th from the
left end of the seriesin step 4, then what will be the third letter of that word? If no
such word is formed, mark as ‘$’ else if more than one words are formed mark as ‘@’.
[A] S
[B] T
[C] P
[D] $
[E] @
Q18. How many vowels are immediately preceded by the consonants which is
present in the first half of the English alphabets in the Step II?
[A] 1
[B] 3
[C] 2
[D] None
[E] Cannot be determined
Q19. Which of the following letter is third to the left of thirteenth from the right end
in the final step?
[A] M
[B] C
[C] S
[D] P
[E] None of these
Q20. How many vowels are there in the final step?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
[E] None of these
S Directions (21-23):
Following questions are based on five words given below.
S Directions (24-25):
Study the series of five 5-letter words given below and answer the Qs below.
Q25. If all the letters of the words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left to
right and thus newly formed words are arranged as they appears in the dictionary,
then which of the word is third from the left end?
[A] DROWN
[B] IMAGE
[C] HEARD
[D] RANGE
[E] TABLE
S Directions (26-30):
Study the following 5-letter word followed by 4-digit numbers carefully and
answer the questions given below it.
E
EVENT 8912, STORY 4817, POWER 1925, YOUNG 3384, STATE 7498
T Q26. If in the given words, the second alphabet from right end of each word is
(7) removed and the immediate succeeding letter of the rest of the letters in english
alphabetical order is written, then how many words will have all letters as
consonants?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
[E] 0
Q27. If 1st and 3rd& 2nd and 4th digits within 4-digit number are interchanged, then
1st and 3rd& 2nd and 5thletter within 5-letter word are interchanged. If the 4-digit
number is an odd number then the last letter of the word is replaced by immediate
succeeding letter in English alphabetical order and if the 4-digit number is an even
number then the first letter of the word is replaced by immediate previous letter in
English alphabetical order, then how many such words are there in which same
letter appears more than once?
[A] 1
[B] More than three
[C] None of these
[D] 3
[E] 0
Q28. If in the given words, each letter is replaced by its previous letter and then the
sum of each letter in a word by place value (A-1, B-2, C-3…..Y-25, Z26), then which
word denotes the maximum sum among the following?
[A] EVENT
[B] STATE
[C] YOUNG
[D] POWER
Q29. If the sum of last three digits of each number is multiplied by 9 and then, how
many resultant numbers are odd number?
[A] 1
[B] 3
[C] 2
[D] 5
[E] 0
Q30. How many numbers are divisible by three in the given series?
[A] 0
[B] 1
[C] 2
[D] 3
[E] 4
Answers
1 C 11 D 21 A
2 D 12 B 22 D
3 E 13 B 23 E
4 B 14 B 24 E
5 B 15 B 25 B
6 D 16 E 26 B
7 A 17 E 27 D
8 D 18 A 28 E
9 B 19 D 29 C
10 D 20 C 30 B
S Directions (1-3):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E ^ - North
% - South
T @ - West (i) A ^¥ F
# - East (ii) H @$ G
(1) $ - Either 12 meter or 15 meter
(iii) D #£ B
£ - Either 25 meter or 20 meter
(iv) C @ A
¥ - Either 10 meter or 30 meter i.e P ^ Q means P is north of Q.
P ^@ Q means P is North-West of Q. (v) B ^ E
P ^$ Q means P is either 12 meter or 15 meter north of Q. (iv) E @¥ F
Distance between CA is equal to distance between AF. (vii) C %£ D
Distance between BD is more than that of AF.
(viii) G ^£ E
Distance between DB and GE is not same.
Distance between CD and GE is same.
Q1. If point Z is 35m north of point F, then what is distance between point Z to B?
[A] 30m
[B] 10√5m
[C] 25m
[D] 35m
[E] None of these
Q2. What is position of point B with respect of point G?
[A] 15m, South-west
[B] 10m, North
[C] 12m, South
[D] 15m, north-west
[E] None of these
Q3. What is position of point E with respect to point C?
[A] North
[B] South-West
[C] West
[D] South-East
[E] North-East
ANSWERS
[Q1] A
[Q2] B
[Q3] B
S Directions (4-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E I%L means Point I is 8m north of Point L
I@L means Point I is 12m east of Point L
T I*L means Point I is 12m south of Point L
I&L means Point I is 15m west of Point L
(2) Q4. If P@J&T%S*R, then how far and in which direction Point R with respect to Point
P?
[A] 5m, North West
[B] 4m, South east
[C] 5m, North east
[D] 3m, North
[E] None of these
Q5. If Y*S@K%B&Q, then Point Y is in which direction with respect to Point Q?
[A] North east
[B] South west
[C] South east
[D] North west
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[Q4] C
[Q5] B
S Directions (6-8):
In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @ and * are used with the
E following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and
answer the given questions:
S Directions (9-10):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E In certain coding language, the directions are coded as per below conditions.
A@B means – A is North of B
T A%B means – A is South of B
A#B means – A is East of B
(4) A$B means – A is West of B
@ and $ means the distance between the two points is either 4m or 8m.
% and # means the distance between the two points is either 3m or 7m.
AB > CD Means the distance between point A and
B is greater than that of between point C and D.
Example: A @ B means A is north of B and the distance between A and B is either 4m or
8m and so on.
Condition:
M#B, U%B, R@V, D#V, R$U, D@W, P#W, MB > WP, VD > RU
Q9. In which direction is point P with respect to point M?
[A] North
[B] West
[C] South
[D] North-East
[E] South-West
Q10.What may be the maximum possible total distance between point R and point
P?
[A] 15m
[B] 26m
[C] 24m
[D] 23m
[E] 25m
ANSWERS
[Q9] E
[Q10] B
S Directions (11-13):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E “A % B (8)” means “A is 14m north of B”.
“A @ B (16)” means “A is 12m south of B”.
T “A & B (21)” means “A is 13m east of B”.
“A # B (12)” means “A is 17m west of B”.
(5)
Note: - If A %# B means A is north-west of B.
Statement: T # V (19), W & S, P % S (42), Q @ T (20), R % U (22), P %# Y % Q, U # W (18), Q &
S (23), Y # R (7).
Q11.What is the direction and distance between Y with respect to T?
[A] 14m, South
[B] 8m, North-east
[C] 12m, North
[D] 12m, North-East
[E] Can’t be determined.
Q12.What is the direction and distance between V with respect to U?
[A] 14m, south-east
[B] 15m, North-east
[C] 12m, North-West
[D] 20m, North-East
[E] None of these
Q13.If Sameer walks 16m north from point V and then takes a left turn of 18m, then
what is the direction of Sameer with respect to point Y?
[A] North-East
[B] South-East
[C] North
[D] South-West
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[Q11] C
[Q12] D
[Q13] A
S Directions (14-15):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A @ B means A is to the North of B
A $ B means A is to the South of B
T A % B means A is to the East of B
A & B means A is to the West of B
(6)
NOTE: A 15 % B means A is 15m East of B There are 3 men travelling from A to D.
Man 1: G 18 % A, E 17 % H, D 12 @ E, H 16 @ I, I 24 & F, F 10 $ G
Man 2: T 29 % A, U 6 @ T, U 7 & V, W 10 @ V, X 25 & W, D 2 @ X
Man 3: M 6 & A, L 19 @ M, N 7 & L, O 3 @ N, P 45 % O, Q 4 $ P, D 21 & Q
ANSWERS
[Q14] B
[Q15] D
S Directions (16-17):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E P#Q(18m) -> P is 20m north of Q
P?Q(11m) -> P is 16m south of Q
T P%Q(15m) -> P is 22m east of Q
P@Q(20m) ->P is 30m west of Q
(7)
P#M(20); O?E(34); G?J(2); I#T(22); O@T(22); J@I(2); G%M(8)
Q16.What is the shortest distance between E and P?
[A] 60
[B] 10m
[C] 9m
[D] 8m
[E] 5m
Q17.What is the shortest distance between I and O?
[A] 40m
[B] 18m
[C] 16m
[D] 15m
[E] 10m
ANSWERS
[Q16] E
[Q17] A
S Directions (18-20):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A person rides in a bicycle from point K to A by following the given route map. Initially,
the person rides 9m north and reaches point J where he takes a left turn and rides 6m
T to reach point I. Then he takes a left turn again and rides 3m to reach point H where he
takes a right turn. He then rides 13m and takes a left turn at point G to ride 6m. At point
(8) F, he takes a right turn and rides 5m to reach point E. He then rides 12m after taking a
right turn and reaches point D where he takes a right turn to ride 11m. At point C, he
takes a left turn and rides 3m to reach point B from where he takes a right turn and
rides 7m to reach point A.
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ANSWERS
[Q18] B
[Q19] D
[Q20] C
S Directions (21-23):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E % --> North A % B means A is north of B
# --> South A#@B means A is southwest of B
T @ --> West A*B means A is either 4 meters or 11
& --> East meters from B
(9) * --> Either 4 meters or 11 meters A&?B means A is east of B with either 5
? --> Either 5 meters or 12 meters meters or 12 meters
ANSWERS
[Q21] C
[Q22] E
[Q23] A
S Directions (24-25):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A@B(9m) --> A is 5m north of B
A#B(15m) --> A is 18m south of B
T A$B(8m) --> A is 15m east of B
A%B(11m) --> A is 9m west of B
(10)
@% --> north-west, #$ --> Southeast
L@P(18); Y%T(12); J$L; Z#E(20); P%V(20);
E%X(11); Y@K(16); X#J(11); V@T(15); E$V; Z$K(10)
Q24.What is direction of Z with respect to V?
[A] @%
[B] #$
[C] Can’t be determined
[D] #%
[E] @$
Q25.What is the direction and shortest distance of V with respect to E?
[A] V$E(9)
[B] E$V(9)
[C] E%V(7)
[D] V%E(7)
[E] None of the above
ANSWERS
[Q24] B
[Q25] D
S Directions (1-5):
Relation between different elements is given in the form of a statement. Study
the following information carefully and decide which of the following
E conclusion logically follows.The conclusion only follows if both inequality and
syllogism are true.
T Q1. STATEMENT: A > B = D; E < D ≥ F; E ≤ G
(1) Only E are A.
Only a few E are D.
Few F are D.
100% F are B.
No B is G.
CONCLUSION: I. G >B; Few D can never be G.
II. E < A; Some E are not G.
[A] Only I follows
[B] Only II follows
[C] Either I or II follows
[D] Neither I nor II follows
[E] Both I and II follow
Answers
[Q1]: B
[Q2]: D
[Q3]: B
[Q4]: E
[Q5]: D
S Directions (6-8):
Each of the questions below consists of some statements followed by some
E conclusion. You have to decide which of the option correctly fill the blanks such
that the conclusion must be definitely true:
Answers
[Q6]: C
[Q7]: A
[Q8]: B
S Directions (9-10):
E In the following questions, the symbols $, #, & and @ are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the
T given questions. In each of the questions given below statements are followed
by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
(3) conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
A$B – All A is B.
A#B - Some B is A.
A@B – No B is A.
A&B – Some A is not B.
* - possibility case
Answers
[Q9]: A
[Q10]: B
S Directions (11-13):
In the following questions, the symbols #, @, $, %, &, !and ^ are used with the
E following meaning as illustrated below. In each of the questions given below
statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
T known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding
(4) commonly known facts
A % B – All Aare B.
A # B – Some A are B.
A & B – No A is B.
A ! B – Some A are not B.
A @ B – Only a few B are A.
A $ B – Some A can never be B.
^– possibility case.
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Note: if ^ is placed after any of the symbols mentioned above then it will be
considered as possibility case of the symbol. E.g. A %^ B means all A being B is a
possibility.
Q11. STATEMENT: Dumb # Bell !Buzzer % Sound; Ring @ Sound
[A] Sound#Bell
[B] Dumb&Ring
[C] Buzzer # Ring
[D] Bell %^ Sound
[E] Ring&Buzzer
Q12. STATEMENT: Steel # Metal; Charcoal @ Metal; Charcoal % Mining&Coal
[A] Mining #^ Metal
[B] Steel !Charcoal
[C] Charcoal $ Coal
[D] Metal %^ Coal
[E] Mining&Steel
Answers
[Q11]: D
[Q12]: C
[Q13]: D
S Directions (14-15):
Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
E follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Q14 STATEMENT: Only a few Ball is Bat
T All Bat is Gloves
Some Gloves is Helmet
(5) Only a few Helmet is Stumps
Only stumps are Leg pad
CONCLUSION:
[A] Somestumps is not a Bat
[B] SomeLeg padare Bat
[C] All Ball being Gloves is not a possibility
[D] All Helmet can be Stumps
[E] No Bat is Helmet
Q15 STATEMENT: Only a few Soccer is Tennis
Some Tennis is Golf
All Golf is Badminton
Some Badminton is Basketball
Only Basketball is Cricket
CONCLUSION: All ____(P)____ can never be ___(Q)___.
No __(Q)____ is ____(R)____.
Some ____(P)___ are not ___(R)____.
[A] All Cricket can be Tennis
[B] No Golf is Badminton
[C] Some Soccer is not a Tennis
[D] Some Basketball is Golf
[E] No Tennis is Basketball
Answers
[Q14]: A
[Q15]: C
S Directions (16-20):
Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude Read the conclusions and then
E decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
CONCLUSION:
[A] Some hour being Distance is a possibility
[B] All minute being kilometer is not a possibility
[C] All Time can be the distance
[D] Some distance is not a speed
[E] None of the above
Q20 STATEMENT: Only a few Area is Volume
All Area is Surface
No Surface is height
All height is Perimeter
No Circumference is Perimeter
All Circumferences is Length
CONCLUSION:
[A] All volume can be height
[B] Some height is not length
[C] No height is circumference
[D] Some Surface is Length
[E] Atleast some Area is height
Answers
[Q16]: B
[Q17]: D
[Q18]: C
[Q19]: B
[Q20]: D
S Directions (21-25):
E In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to
T be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
(7)
Q21 STATEMENT: All Duck is Bird.
All Bird is Sparrow.
Only a few Crow are Sparrow.
CONCLUSION: I. All Crow are Bird.
II. Some Duck are Sparrow.
[A] If only conclusion I follows.
[B] If only conclusion II follows.
[C] If either conclusion I or II follows.
[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
[E] If both conclusions I and II follow.
Answers
[Q21]: B
[Q22]: A
[Q23]: B
[Q24]: E
[Q25]: A
S Directions (1-3):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A family consists of ten members and three generations. There are three married
couples. They are receiving a different number of gifts for the New year. X is the
T father of P who is the only son of T who received 19 gifts which are 6 less than the
spouse of T. C and L are of the same gender. M is a sibling of Q who is the sister of P. A
(1) is the bro ther-in-law of M who is the parent of L. Z is the father of R and son-in-law
of Q’s mother. C is the cousin of L who receives 18 gifts which is one more than her
brother R. The difference between the gift of M’s father and M’s mother is equal to
M’s brother. M receives one more than her brother. Qreceives 11 gifts which are two
less than that of her spouse. A’s daughter receives ten more than A. Z receives two
less than C.
Q1. How is M related to C?
[A] Can’t be determined
[B] Father
[C] Mother
[D] Uncle
[E] Aunt
Q2. How many male members are there in the family?
[A] Three
[B] Five
[C] Four
[D] Can't be determined
[E] Two
Q3. What is the sum of the gifts received by R, A, T, and Z?
[A] 75
[B] 70
[C] 80
[D] 64
[E] 72
ANSWERS
[Q1] E [Q3] B
[Q2] B
S Directions (4-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A#B means A is the father of B
A?B means A is the daughter of B
T A&B means A is the son of B
A!B means A is the mother of B
(2) A%B means A is the sister of B
AB means A and B are a married couple
ANSWERS
[Q4] E
[Q5] E
S Directions (6-8):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E There are eight members in a family of three generations. Only three married
couples are there in the family. Each has different numbers of one rupee coins. No
T two members of the family have the same number of coins. No single parent in the
family. P has 324 coins, she takes 18 and gives the remaining to her brother’s only
(3) daughter R. R takes 32 coins and gives the remaining to grandmother E, who has
only two children. E gives 223 coins to her only son-in-law H and also gives 34 coins
to her husband. H’s father-in-law has only 34 coins and C is his only male child. F is
M’s mother and takes 142 coins from H. Either both or none of the parents are alive.
F’s son takes 73 coins from his mother and is the grandson of B.M gives 54 coins to
his father.
Q6. How M is related to R?
[A] Brother
[B] Sister
[C] Brother-in-law
[D] Can't be determined
[E] Sister-in-Law
Q7. How B is related to the one who has 18 coins?
[A] Mother-in-law
[B] Uncle
[C] Sister-in-law
[D] Father
[E] None of these
Q8. If C gives 2/3rd of his coin to F’s mother-in-law then how many coins does F’s
mother-in-law have now?
[A] 53
[B] 70
[C] 105
[D] 66
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[Q6] E
[Q7] D
[Q8] A
S Directions (9-10):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E “P @ Q” means “Q is the mother of P”.
“P % Q” means “P is the daughter of Q”.
T “P # Q” means “Q is the brother of P”.
“P & Q” means “P is the husband of Q”.
(4) “P ^ Q” means “Q is the son of P”.
Q9. Which of the following expression indicates G is the aunty of C?
[A] C @ D % E & F # G
[B] C @ D % E ^ F & G
[C] C ^ D & E % F # G
[D] C # D & E % F # G
[E] None of these
Q10. How M is related to V in the given expression? Z ^ B # V & H @ M
[A] Sister
[B] Brother-in-law
[C] Mother-in-law
[D] Can’t be determined
[E] None of these.
ANSWERS
[Q9] B
[Q10] C
S Directions (11-13):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Seven persons from three generations of family – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V. They belong to
different profession viz.- Teacher, Lawyer, Dancer, Banker, Singer, Poet, and Writer.
T Three married couples are there in the family, at least one married couple has no
child. Q is the only son of P, who is a Lawyer. The one who is the poet is married to Q
(5) and is the mother of the Teacher. R is the mother of U, who is neither Banker nor
Dancer. U’s brother is the father of T. The gender of U and T is the same. The writer is
the mother-in-law of S, who is the mother of a Teacher. V is married to a Singer but
not a teacher by profession.
ANSWERS
[Q11] E
[Q12] A
[Q13] D
S Directions (14-15):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E H, I, N, O, M, K and L are seven persons of three generation family living in the same
house. There are two married couples in the house. L is the only daughter of I, who is
T the paternal grandfather of M. H is the son of N. K is the daughter of O. H is the father
of M. K is the sister of M.
(6) Q14. How is L related to O?
[A] Mother-in-law
[B] Sister-in-law
[C] Father-in-law
[D] Cannot be determined
[E] Sister
Q15. How is M related to H?
[A] Son
[B] Father
[C] Daughter
[D] Cannot be determined
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[Q14] B
[Q15] D
S Directions (16-18):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E There are nine members in a family of three generations. Each has a different
amount of chocolates. Married couples must have children. M has 31 chocolates and
T he gives 7 chocolates more than O to K. N is married to P and he has five times the
number of chocolates than J's brother.The sum of the number of chocolates of Q and
(7) R is four more than K. O's father's mother-inlaw is the only sister-in-law of L who has
3 chocolates. L is the only sibling of J. The only couple of 1st generation has a total of
52 chocolates and gives 17 chocolates to their daughter-in-law and 15 chocolates to
their son-inlaw. P's only child has twicethe number of chocolates than P who has
thrice the number of chocolates than L. R's only daughter has the highest number of
chocolates among all family members. The gender of O and L is the same. R is
married to M.
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Q16. What is the square of the difference between the number of R's chocolates and
J's chocolates and how is R's daughter related to J's daughter?
[A] 81, niece
[B] 121, daughter
[C] 144, siblings
[D] 100, cousin
[E] 49, granddaughter
Q17. Sum of the number of Q's chocolates and M's chocolates is the same as the
number of chocolates of_____?
[A] K
[B] N
[C] O
[D] P
[E] R
Q18. What is the product of R's sister-in-law's chocolates and M's father’s chocolates
and how is L related to Q's daughter?
[A] 27, grandfather
[B] 24, father-in-law
[C] 36, brother
[D] 54, Husband
[E] 72, uncle
ANSWERS
[Q16] A
[Q17] C
[Q18] E
S Directions (19-20):
E Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
T ‘P‘P @^ Q’Q’means
means ‘P is brother of Q’.
‘P is mother of Q’.
(8) ‘P‘P #& Q’
Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
means ‘P is son of Q’.
‘P % P’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’.
Q20. How many unmarried female member is/are there in given statement?
M^G*D#T%U#P&R^F^K%A&B
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 1
[E] None of these
ANSWERS
[Q19] C
[Q20] B
S Directions (21-22):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
T ‘P‘P ^# Q’Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
means ‘P is father of Q’.
(9) ‘P‘P &%Q’P’means ‘P is son of Q’.
means ‘P is sister of Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’.
ANSWERS
[Q21] C
[Q22] B
S Directions (23-27):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A#B- A is father of B
A$B- A is daughter of B
T A&B- A is son of B
A@B- A is brother of B
(10) A+B-A is mother of B
A^B-A is sister of B
A*B-A and B are married couple
P#K; D&L; Y@K; M&K; K*D; L+X; X^D
ANSWERS
[Q23] A
[Q24] A
[Q25] E
[Q26] E
[Q27] B
S Directions (1-3):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E In a certain code language, Alphabets B-Z are coded as 1-7 except the vowel (After 7,
start the numbering from 1 again, for example, B-1, C-2 and so on.) All vowels a, e, i, o,
T u are coded as @, #, $, % and & respectively.
Conditions
(1) (i) If the word begins and ends with consonants the first and last letter is coded as
“+”
(ii) If in the word first letter is the vowel and the last letter is consonants, codes of
both are interchanged
(iii) If in the word first and the last letter is a vowel, both are coded as “?”
(iv) If the word consists of more than two vowels, all vowels are coded as “*”
NOTE: If the word is starting with a vowel then we does not consider condition (iv).
S Directions (4-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E
T
(2) Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, then code of the both
letters is interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, then both are coded as
the code of vowel.
(iii) If both first and the last letters are vowels, then both the letters are coded as the
code of the first letter.
(iv) If both first and the last letters are consonants, then both the letters are coded as
the code of the last letter.
(v) If a vowel is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by
another vowel, then that vowel is coded as the code of the opposite letter in
alphabetical order.
NOTE: If more than one condition follows then consider both the conditions one after
other. For example: If condition 3 and condition 5 follows together then first apply
condition 3 then condition 5.
(3) ‘Butterfly Hawkins Elgi Bosch’ means ‘jab jap jew jiz’,
‘Bosch LG Pigeon Prestige’ means ‘jiz joy jaw jow’
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Q6. What is the code for 'Pristine'in the given code language?
[A] jap
[B] jew
[C] jam
[D] jow
[E] None of these
Q7. What is the code for ‘Hawkins Elgi’in the given code language?
[A] Jap Jaw
[B] Jam Jaw
[C] Jab Jaw
[D] Jab Jap
[E] Jiz Jab
Q8. What does "Jew" represent in the coding language?
[A] Elgi
[B] Hawkins
[C] Prestige
[D] Butterfly
[E] None of the above
Q9. If “Pigeon Bosch” represents a code “Joy Jiz” then what does “Jow Jaw Jew”
represent in a code language?
[A] LG Prestige Butterfly
[B] Prestige LG Pristine
[C] Butterfly Bosch Elgi
[D] Hawkin Prestige Butterfly
[E] None of the above
Q10. If the code for “Bosch Hawkins Whirlpool” is “Jiz Jim Jap” then what is the code
for “Whirlpool”?
[A] jap
[B] jew
[C] jim
[D] jow
[E] None of these
S Directions (11-13):
E Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
T In an alphabetical series each consonant is assigned a different number from 1-7
(for ex- B is coded as 1, C-2………. J-7) and again those numbers get repeated (for
(4) ex- K-1, L-2…….so on). Besides the above information, the following operations
are to be applied for coding the words given in the questions below. Each letter
of the given questions will be coded as per the given conditions:
Conditions
I. Vowels appearing before ‘M’ in the Alphabetical series will be coded as ‘9’.
II. Vowels appearing after ‘M’ in the alphabetical series will be coded as ‘11’.
III. If the consonant immediately preceded by vowel will be coded as ‘#%’.
IV. If the consonant immediately followed by the vowel will be coded as ‘%&’.
Q11. What will be the possible code for ‘PICKLE’?
[A] %&9#%1%&9
[B] 5%&112%&9
[C] %&5211%&9
[D] 5%&511#%9
[E] None of these
Q12. What will possibly be the code for ‘AIRDREAM’?
[A] #%9#%#%99%&
[B] #%93#%%&99%&
[C] #%9%&3%#99%&2
[D] ‘99#%3%&99#%
[E] None of these
Q13. What will possibly be the code for ‘SURROUNDING’?
[A] #%11%&#%111%&4#%9%&5
[B] #%11%&#%1231%&4#%9%&5
[C] #%11%&#%11114#%&%9%&5
[D] ‘%&11#%%&1111#%%&9#%5’.
[E] None of these
S Directions (14-15):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E In a certain code language, Alphabets B-Z are coded as 1-7 except the vowel
T (After 7, start the numbering from 1 again, for example, B-1, C-2 and so on.) All
vowels a, e, i, o, u are coded as @, #, $, % and & respectively.
(5) Conditions
(i). If the word begins and ends with consonants the first and last letter is coded as “+”
(ii). If in the word first letter is the vowel and the last letter is consonants, codes of both
are interchanged
(iii). If in the word first and the last letter is a vowel, both are coded as “?”
(iv). If the word consists of more than two vowels, all vowels are coded as “*”
NOTE: If the word is starting with a vowel then we does not consider condition (iv).
Q14. What is the code for "FRIDAY"?
[A] 47*3*6
[B] +7$3@+
[C] 47$3@6
[D] 48@2@6
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S Directions (16-20):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Numbers arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
T rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Q16. What is the position of “566” in step III of the given input?
[A] 4th from the left end
[B] 3rd from the right end
[C] Immediate right of 185
[D] 2nd left of 216
[E] There is no such number
Q17. What is the sum of all the numbers in step V?
[A] 33
[B] 29
[C] 35
[D] 32
[E] 26
Q18.Absolute difference between 2nd lowest number in step II and 3rd highest
number of step IV?
[A] 52
[B] 44
[C] 50
[D] 53
[E] 47
Q19. When all the numbers of step I are arranged in descending order then which of
the following arrangement is correct?
[A] 564 453 376 356 165 157 132
[B] 564 453 367 356 165 156 123
[C] 564 453 376 356 165 156 123
[D] 564 453 367 356 165 156 132
[E] 564 453 367 356 165 157 123
Q20. Absolute difference between 2nd lowest number in step II and 3rd highest
number of step IV?
[A] 5
[B] 4
[C] 6
[D] 13
[E] 17
S Directions (21-25):
E Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Nine letters are arranged from left to right and all are facing north. Each letter is
T decoded from number sets which is either single or double digit. Letters are
decoded by the last digit of the numbers from 1 to 10 to match the alphabet in
Answers
1 B 6 C 11 A 16 B 21 C
2 D 7 D 12 D 17 D 22 D
3 C 8 D 13 D 18 E 23 E
4 D 9 A 14 B 19 C 24 B
5 B 10 C 15 D 20 E 25 D
S Directions (1-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A machine rearrange given input line having numbers in a particular set of rules in
step by step. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.
T
INPUT: 588 763 978 317 439 628 952 625
(1) STEPS: Step I: 36 38 763 978 439 628 952 625
Step II: 48 46 36 38 763 978 952 625
Step III: 63 42 48 46 36 38 763 978
Step IV: 28 73 63 42 48 46 36 38
Step V: 12 52 45 34 16 22 18 14
Step VI: 12 14 16 18 22 34 45 52
Step VI is the final output of given input.
As per rules followed in the given steps, find appropriate step for given Input.
Input: 962 625 271 846 738 981 463 624
Q1. Which of the following number is fourth from the left end from step III?
[A] 46
[B] 962
[C] 846
[D] 43
[E] None of these
Q2. Which of the following is final output of given input?
[A] 14 16 23 26 29 31 34 45
[B] 14 16 22 26 28 31 34 45
[C] 14 22 26 28 31 34 45 61
[D] 14 16 22 26 28 31 36 45
[E] None of these
Q3. Which of the following number is third from the right end from step II?
[A] 846
[B] 26
[C] 962
[D] 625
[E] None of these
Q4. What is the difference between third lowest and third highest number of step V?
[A] 8
[B] 5
[C] 12
[D] 6
[E] None of these
Q5. What is the sum of the first four numbers from the left end in stepVI?
[A] 58
[B] 95
[C] 78
[D] 66
[E] None of these
ANSWERS INPUT: 962 625 271 846 738 981 463 624
[Q1] D STEPS: Step I: 26 44 962 625 846 738 981 463
[Q2] B Step II: 48 43 26 44 962 625 846 981
Step III: 63 46 48 43 26 44 962 981
[Q3] D
Step IV: 32 97 63 46 48 43 26 44
[Q4] E
Step V: 26 34 45 22 16 31 14 28
[Q5] C Step VI: 14 16 22 26 28 31 34 45
S Directions (6-10):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E INPUT: 38269 72836 64581 93724 83572
STEPS: Step I: 69238 27863 81564 39742 38527
T Step II: 27863 38527 39742 69238 81564
Step III: 989 1159 2778 54224 8524
(2) Step IV: 26 16 24 17 19
Step V: 8 12 13 34 38
Step V is the final output of the above given input.
As per rules followed in the given steps, find appropriate step for given Input.
Input: 27634 28913 39276 81764 39527
Q6. What is the third number from the right end of step V?
[A] 18
[B] 39
[C] 42
[D] 34
[E] None of these
Q7. What is the sum of digits of the second number from the left end of step II?
[A] 26
[B] 21
[C] 24
[D] 29
[E] None of these
Q13. What is the product of the last digits of B and C in step II from the left end?
[A] 24
[B] 15
[C] 21
[D] 18
[E] None of these
Q14. How many letters are there between B and D in step IV according to the English
alphabetical series?
[A] Seven
[B] Five
[C] None of these
[D] Two
[E] Three
Q15. Which of the following number is third to the left of D in step III?
[A] 34
[B] 27
[C] 09
[D] 31
[E] none of these
ANSWERS
[Q11] B
[Q12] B
[Q13] A
[Q14] C
[Q15] A
S Directions (16-20):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E INPUT: 76 Goal 29 Made High 84 Fade Copy 95 79
STEPS: Step I: 18 76 Goal Made High 84 Fade 95 79 xqkb
T Step II: ucwg 18 76 Goal Made High 95 79 xqkb 32
Step III: 42 ucwg 18 Made High 95 79 xqkb 32 tqco
(4) Step IV: skts 42 ucwg 18 Made 79 xqkb 32 tqco 45
Step V: 63 skts 42 ucwg 18 xqkb 32 tqco 45 ncwg
Step V is the last step of the input.
As per rules followed in the given steps, find appropriate step for given Input.
Input: 78 Road 93 Long 63 Side Dare 76 28 Hire
Q16. Which of the following element is second from the right end in step IV?
[A] skig
[B] oqtm
[C] 16
[D] oqmt
[E] None of these
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Q17. What is the difference between the third number from the left end and the
sixth number from the right end in step V?
[A] 24
[B] 9
[C] 11
[D] 14
[E] None of these
Q18. Which of the following element is immediately followed by the second-lowest
number in step III?
[A] 78
[B] wcig
[C] 76
[D] oqmt
[E] None of these
Q19. Which of the following element is immediately preceded by the second-highest
number in step V?
[A] hkwg
[B] skig
[C] 27
[D] iqcw
[E] None of these
Q20. How many steps are required to complete the series?
[A] Five
[B] Three
[C] Four
[D] Six
[E] None of these
ANSWERS INPUT: 78 Road 93 Long 63 Side Dare 76 28 Hire
[Q16] D STEPS: Step I: 16 78 Road 93 Long 63 Side 76 Hire wcig
[Q17] Step II: skig 16 78 Road 93 Long Side 76 wcig 18
C
Step III: 27 skig 16 78 Road Side 76 wcig 18 oqmt
[Q18] D
Step IV: iqcw 27 skig 16 78 Side wcig 18 oqmt 42
[Q19] E Step V: 56 iqcw 27 skig 16 wcig 18 oqmt 42 hkwg
[Q20] A
S Directions (21-25):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Numbers arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
T INPUT: 32654 73821 49621 54382 81356
(5) STEPS: Step I: 3647 7815 4612 5323 8366
Step II: 6104 8121 6061 3082 3146
Step III: 101 129 067 085 149
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S Directions (1-5):
Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following
conclusion logically follows.
E “A@B” means “A is greater than B/some A are not B”.
“A&B” means “A is lesser than B/All A are B”.
T “A%B” means “A is neither lesser nor equal to B/No A is B”.
“A#B” means “A is neither greater than B nor equal to B/some A are B”.
(1) “A$B” means “A is neither lesser than nor greater than B/A can never be B”.
Note: The given conclusions will be true when both syllogism and inequality are
logically follows.
Q1. STATEMENT: P@H, H#D, K%D, K&U
CONCLUSION: I. U@H
II. P%K
III. U@D
[A] Only III
[B] Both II and III
[C] Both I and II
[D] Only II
[E] None of these
Q2. STATEMENT: D#L, G@T, L&G, M%G
CONCLUSION: I. D#M
II. M@T
III. G$D
[A] Only III
[B] Both II and III
[C] Both I and II
[D] Only II
[E] None of these
Q3. STATEMENT: P@L, R#U, L%R, U%J
CONCLUSION: I. P@U
II. J$L
III. U$L
[A] Only III [C] Both I and II [E] None of these
[B] Both II and III [D] Only II
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Answers
[Q1]: A
[Q2]: E
[Q3]: E
[Q4]: E
[Q5]: E
S Directions (6-10):
Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following
E conclusion logically follows.
A%B means ‘A is smaller than B’
A$B means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’
T A#B means ‘A is equal to B’
A&B means ‘A is greater than B’
(2) A@B means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’
Note: Assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the following
conclusions follow and give answers accordingly.
Q6. STATEMENT: B@M@N#O&T; N%K$G
[A] K & T
[B] M @ G
[C] M & B
[D] B @ G
[E] G @ T
Q7. STATEMENT: T $ K # L % M @ C; C & A @ B # D
[A] K @ C [D] T % B
[B] M & D [E] M @ A
[C] L @ C
Connect with Smriti Mam Level Up your preparation with:
ANSWERS
[Q11] C
[Q12] B
[Q13] E
S Directions (14-15):
In the questions given below, the statement based on the addition and
E subtraction denoted by ‘+’ and ‘-’ respectively is followed by two
conclusions. Find which of the conclusion(s) satisfy the given statements
T Q14. STATEMENT: M ≤ (K +Z) ≤ U ≥ (R – S) > Z ≥ A
CONCLUSION: I. (M –Z) ≤ U
(4) II. R > (A + S)
[A] Only I follows
[B] Only II follows
[C] Both I and II follow
[D] Either I or II follow
[E] Neither I nor II follow
ANSWERS
[Q14] C
[Q15] E
S Directions (16-17):
Below question consists of some statements followed by some
E conclusions in two columns. Study the following information carefully and
decide which of the following combination of conclusions matches.
T Q16. STATEMENT: B ≥ G = O; G > T = M; R < Q ≤ F; M ≤ R = W
CONCLUSION:
(5)
ANSWERS
[Q16] E
[Q17] C
S Directions (18-19):
E In each of the following questions relationship between different
elements are given in the statement followed by three set of conclusions.
T Study the following information carefully and decide which of the
following conclusion follows logically.
(6) “P @ Q” means “P is greater than Q”.
“P % Q” means “P is not greater than Q”.
“P # Q” means “P is less than Q”.
“P & Q” means “P is not less than Q”.
“P ^ Q” means “P is neither greater than nor less than Q”.
ANSWERS
[Q18] C
[Q19] B
S Directions (20-24):
E In each of the following questions, relationship between different
elements are shown in the statement followed by three sets of conclusion.
T Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
Q20. STATEMENT: R ≥ H > T < M; H > W = U < Q; U = B > F = S
(7) CONCLUSION: I). Q > T
II). R ≥ B
III). S < Q
[A] Only I follows
[B] Only II and III follows
[C] Only I and III follows
[D] Only III follows
[E] None follows
Q21. STATEMENT: W < Z = Y; D > H ≤ W < U; H ≥ B = T < Q; B > S ≤ F
CONCLUSION: I). D > S
II). Y ≥ T
III). T < U
[A] Only I follows
[B] Only II and III follows
[C] Only I and III follows
[D] Only III follows
[E] None follows
Q22. STATEMENT: M < G = E; U = Q > B; K = M < U ≤ D; Q < F = R
CONCLUSION: I). E > B
II). K = F
III). R > K
[A] Only III follows
[B] Either II or III follows
[C] Only I and II or III follows
[D] Only I and III follows
[E] None follows
Q23. STATEMENT: B < Q = L ≥ G; Q ≤ T = V > Z; G > M = H ≤ W; B ≥ Y > S
CONCLUSION: I). S < T
II). L > Z
III). Q ≥ W
[A] Only III follows
[B] Only II and III follows
[C] Only I follows
[D] Only I and III follows
[E] None follows
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ANSWERS
[Q20] D
[Q21] C
[Q22] A
[Q23] C
[Q24] A
S Directions (1-5):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Seven tables viz. - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G of different lengths are kept in the
decreasing order of their length from left to right. Only one table is placed
T between the tables D and E, which is not placed at either of the ends. Either the
length of the two tables is less or more than the table D, which is shorter than the
(1) table B. The length of the table C is more than the table F but not as much as the
tables B and G. The length of the table B is not the highest. The length of the table
A is 42cm which is more than the table C but immediately less than the table E.
The length of the table which is second from the left end is 56cm. The difference
between the lengths of tables C and F is 7cm. The difference between the lengths
of the tables A and F is 7cm more than the difference between the lengths of
tables B and A.
Q1. How many tables have more lengths than the table E?
[A] Three
[B] As many tables placed between A and B
[C] As many tables placed between C and E
[D] Either B or C
[E] None of these
Q2. What is the possible length of the table E?
[A] 48cm
[B] 35cm
[C] 63cm
[D] Either A or B
[E] 72cm
Q3. If the sum of the lengths of tables A and D is 77cm and the difference between
the lengths of tables G and D is 25cm, then what is the sum of the lengths of tables G
and B?
[A] 105cm
[B] 121cm
[C] 158cm
[D] 116cm
[E] 72cm
Q4. Which of the following table has the length which is less than D?
[A] A
[B] E
[C] F
[D] G
[E] B
Q5. What is the sum of the lengths of tables F and G, if the sum of the length of C and
G is 88?
[A] 87
[B] 53
[C] 83
[D] 81
[E] 89
S Directions (6-8):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Six persons P, R, D, K, Q and H are typing different number of pages. Only two
persons type less number of page than H.P types more number of page than R
T but less number of page than K. D types more number of page than Q. At least
two persons type less number of page than D. Q types less number of page than
(2) H. K does not type highest number of page. K types 300 pages. R types 100 page
less than K, but not type lowest number of page.
S Directions (9-10):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Seven persons E, F, G, H, P, Q and R, are standing according to their weight in
descending order from left to right but not necessarily in the same order. G is
heavier than only one person. E is lighter than R but heavier than H. F is lighter
T than H. F is not the lightest. P is heavier than Q but lighter than F. The one who is
the lightest is 51kg and the one who is the third heaviest is 84kg.
(3) Q9. What may be the possible weight of P?
[A] 48kg
[B] 91kg
[C] 65kg
[D] 87kg
[E] None of these
Q10. Who among the following person is the heaviest?
[A] R
[B] H
[C] P
[D] F
[E] None of these
S Directions (11-12):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Six persons – G, H, M, P, R, and W have different heights. G is not the tallest but
taller than R. P is taller than W but not as much as G and H. R is taller than only
three persons. The one who is the second shortest is 4 feet and the second tallest
T one is 7 feet.
Q11. What is the possible height of R?
(4) [A] 6 feet
[B] 8 feet
[C] 5 feet
[D] Either A or C
[E] None of these.
Q12. Which of the following statement is true?
[A] R is the third shortest person than M.
[B] Possible height of M is 8 feet
[C] P is the third tallest person
[D] H is the third tallest person than W
[E] None of these
S Directions (13-15):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E A @ B means A is lighter than B ? Means not
A # B means A is heavier than B
T A & B means A is taller than B % Means but
! Means and
A $ B means A is shorter than B
(5) * Means who
Note:
If ? is placed after any of the symbols mentioned above then it will be considered
as not case.
E.g. A?&B means A is not taller than B.
If % is placed after any of the symbols mentioned above then it will be considered
as but case. E.g. A@ B %?& C means A is lighter than B but not taller than C.
Among seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G have different heights and weights
such that the tallest one is not the heaviest one.
D&A%?#G.
B #E%?&C.
F#B!E%$C! B.
D?&F.
G?&A!?#E.
A?@C *# B.
F @ C.
C is shorter than only one person. F is not the second heaviest.
S Directions (16-18):
E Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Six persons – G, H, M, P, R, and W have different heights. G is not the tallest but
T taller than R. P is taller than W but not as much as G and H. R is taller than only
three persons. The one who is the second shortest is 4 feet and the second tallest
one is 7 feet.
(6) Q16. How many persons are heavier than the one who is second shortest?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
[E] None of these
Q17. Who among the following is the second lightest person?
[A] E
[B] C
[C] A
[D] D
[E] G
Q18. Who among the following is taller than D?
I) A
II) E
III) F
[A] Only II
[B] Only I
[C] Both II and III
[D] Both I and II
[E] All I, II & III
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S Directions (19-20):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Six persons – G, H, M, P, R, and W has a different height. G is not the tallest but
taller than R. P is taller than W but not as much as G and H. R is taller than only
three persons. H is shorter than R and M but not as much as P. The one who is the
T second shortest is 4 feet and the second tallest one is 7 feet.
Q19. What is the possible height of R?
(7) [A] 6 feet
[B] 8 feet
[C] 5 feet
[D] Either A or C
[E] None of these.
Q20. Which of the following statement is true?
[A] R is third shorter person than M.
[B] Possible height of M is 8 feet
[C] P is the third tallest person
[D] H is third taller person than W
[E] None of these
S Directions (21-23):
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
E Seven persons– P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have different weight not necessary in same
order. Each person is sitting in the order of their weight from left to right in
decreasing order. Only two persons are lighter than the one whose weight is 48kg.
T Weight of V is more than S and U but not as much as T and P. Weight of P is more
than V and Q but not as much as R and T. Weight of P is 54kg and that of S is 36kg.
(8) Weight of U is more than Q and S but not as much as T and P. Weight of T is not
highest and weight of Q is lowest among all.
Q21. Which of the following is the possible weight of V?
[A] 42kg
[B] 56kg
[C] 32kg
[D] 52kg
[E] 48Kg
Q22. Who among the following person weight is 48kg?
[A] U
[B] Q
[C] V
[D] T
[E] Can’t be determined.
Q23. Who among the following person weight is just more than the one whose
weight is 48kg?
[A] U
[B] P
[C] R
[D] V
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Answers
1 C 6 D 11 D 16 D 21 D
2 A 7 C 12 B 17 B 22 A
3 D 8 B 13 D 18 D 23 D
4 C 9 C 14 E 19 A
5 D 10 A 15 C 20 D
S Directions (1-5):
(1) (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient in
answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
1. Four boxes are kept between boxes F and I, which is kept just below box B.
Neither box F nor box I is kept at the top or at the bottom. Two boxes are kept
between box B and box G.
2. Box E is kept above box C but not immediately above. Box H is not kept in the
bottom five. More than three boxes are kept below box F. Only one box is kept
between box A and box D, and both are placed above box B. Box E is kept
below box H which is not kept at the topmost position.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q2. Six students are sitting around a triangular table such that three of them sits at
the corners and the remaining are sitting at the middle of each side of the triangular
table. Those students who are sitting at the corners facing towards the centre of the
table and the remaining others facing outside the table. Who among the following is
sitting third to the left of M?
1. R sits second to the right of Q. M is not sitting at the middle of the table.
2. O is sitting second to the right of N who is sitting second to the right of P. R is
sitting exactly between N and O.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q3. Seven person P, Q, R, S, T, V and X were born in seven different months viz.
January, March, April, May, June, July and August of the same year but not
necessarily in the same order. How many persons were born between T and R?
1. V was born in the month having 30 days. Two persons were born between V
and Q. More than three persons were born between X and P.
2. P was born after Q. T was born before V in the month of 31 days. S was born
immediately before R. T was not born in July and June.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q4. Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons in each row
such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first
row, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing south. In the second row M,
N, O, P and Q are seated and all of them are facing north. Who among the following
faces the one who sits immediate right of D?
1. M doesn’t sit at any of the extreme ends. M faces the one who sits second to
the right of C. E sits at one of the extreme ends.
2. N sits third to the right of P. D sits second to the right of B. Both B and D are
not sitting opposite to P and N. There are two persons sit between M and Q.
[A] a [D] d
[B] b [E] e
[C] c
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ANSWERS
[A] E
[B] E
[C] D
[D] E
[E] E
S Directions (6-10):
E Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
T data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give the answer.
(2) Q6. The conclusion of “Some Rain is not Storm” is followed by which of the following
statements?
1. Only a few Rain is heavy; No Heavy is Storm; All Storm is Cyclone
2. Some Rain is Heavy; No heavy is Cyclone; Some Strom is Cyclone
[A] Statement I is sufficient
[B] Statement II is sufficient
[C] Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
[E] Both statementI and statement II together are sufficient
Q7. Five persons-A, B, C, D, and E are working in the same office. They took off on
consecutive days from Monday to Friday but not necessarily in the same order. Who
among the following person took off on Friday?
1. E takes off immediately before A. E takes off on Tuesday. Only one person
takes off between D and A. B takes off before C.
2. B took off three days before C. E took off neither adjacent to C nor D. A took off
on two days before D.
Q10. Six persons- L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting on a triangular table facing towards
the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Three of them sit in the corner of
the table and three of them sit in the middle of each side of the table. Who among
them sits third to the left of P?
1. "O sits at the corner of the table. Only one person sits between O and M. P is
neither adjacent to O nor M.
2. N sits second to the left of L who sits at the middle of the side of the table. O
sits adjacent to L.
[A] Statement I is sufficient
[B] Statement II is sufficient
[C] Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
[E] Both statementI and statement II together are sufficient
Answers
[Q6]: A
[Q7]: B
[Q8]: E
[Q9]: C
[Q10]: D
S Directions (11-15):
E Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
T data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give the answer.
(3) Q11. First 10 natural numbers are written from right to left. The letters of the word
“PERPETUAL” are written in such a way that each vowel is written against prime
numbers. Which of the following letter is arranged immediately left of P?
1. There are three natural numbers between both PL and LE. Letter P is left of
the letter L. Number of letters between P and U is one less than the number of
letters between L and E.
2. Letter U is placed immediately left of L, which is at sixth position from the
right end.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q12. Six friends A1, A2, A3, A4, A5 and A6 are living in a three floored building where
the bottom floor is numbered 1 and top floor is number 3. Each floor has two flats,
Flat 1 is east of Flat 2. Flat 1 of Floor 2 is immediately above Flat 1 of Floor 1 and
immediately below Flat 1 of Floor 3 and flat 2 follows the same pattern. Who lives
immediate north of A5?
1. A2 lives North East of A1 and North of A5, who lives on odd floor having odd
flat number. A6 lives East of A1.
2. A4 lives on odd floor having even flat number. A1 lives immediately below A4.
A6 lives in an even numbered floor immediately below A2. A6 lives north east
of A3.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q13. Six persons i.e. Amit, Babita, Chandu, Deepak, Elish and Fres are sitting around
an equilateral triangular table such that three of them are sitting at the corner and
the rest are sitting at the middle of each side of the table and all are facing towards
the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
1. Babita sits second to the right of Amit. Two persons sit between Amit and
Deepk. Fres sits next to Deepak.
2. Elish is an immediate neighbour of both Fres and Amit. Chandu sits at the
corner of the table.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q14. What is the code for ‘pranks’ in a certain code language?
1. In that code language, ‘for good pranks’ is coded as ‘dc tp wa’ and ‘pranks are
good too’ is coded as ‘gk tp wa qm’
2. In that code language, ‘pranks are new’ is coded as ‘wa qm fo’ and ‘pranks are
good for’ is coded as ‘wa tp dc qm’
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q15. What is the direction of N with respect to O?
1. O is 5m east of P which is 3m north of R. M is 2m north of N and 3m east of R.
2. N is 2m south M and west of P which is south of
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Answers
[Q11]: A
[Q12]: C
[Q13]: E
[Q14]: E
[Q15]: C
S Directions (16-20):
Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
E statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give the answer.
T Q16. What is the shortest distance between P and Q?
1. Point Q is South of point P, which is 5m south of Point S. Point P is 13m north
(4) east of Point R. Point Q is 10m west of Point T and 12m east of Point R.
2. Point P is 5m north east of Point R, which is 3m west of Point Q, which is south
of Point P.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
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Q17. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are arranged one above the other but not in the
same order. Which among the following box is placed in the middle of the stack?
1. Four boxes are placed between box B and boxBD, which is placed second
from the top. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C. There is only
one box between box A and box C.
2. There is equal number of boxes above and below box E.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Q18. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting around a rectangular tablebut not
in the same order. Four of them sit at the corner while remaining sit at the middle of
each side of the table. All of them are facing towards the centre.Who sits third to the
right of the one who faces U?
1. Three persons sit between R and T. U sits third to the left of T.
2. Two persons sit between S and V, who sits in the middle of the table. Q sits
second to the left of V. U sits third to the left of S.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Q19. Seven persons L, M, N, O, P, Q and R go to the market on different days of week
starting from Monday but not in the same order. Who goes to the market at last?
1. O goes to the market on Wednesday. Two persons go between O and P. Three
persons go between P and R. Two persons go between M and L who goes to
the market on Monday. N doesn’t go on Sunday.
2. M goes on Friday. Two persons go between L and M. Four persons go between
L and Q.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Q20. First 10 natural numbers are written from right to left. The letters of the word
“PERPETUAL” are written in such a way that each vowel is written against prime
numbers. Which of the following letter is arranged immediately left of P?
1. There are 3 natural numbers between both PL and LE. Letter P is left of the
letter L. The number of letters between P and U is one less than the number of
letters between L and E.
2. Letter U is placed immediately left of L, which is at 6th position from right end.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Answers
[Q16]: C
[Q17]: C
[Q18]: A
[Q19]: C
[Q20]: A
S Directions (21-25):
E Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
T data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give the answer.
Q21. Six persons-P, W, E, R, T, and N are sitting in a row but not necessarily in the
(5) same order. Who among the following person sits third from the right end?
(All of them are facing north)
1. W sits third to the right of P. Either W or P sits at the end of the row. E sits
second to the left of the one who sits immediate left of R. T is the only
neighbor of R.
2. Three persons are sitting between N and R who sits immediate right of T. N
does not sit at the end of the row.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Q22. What is the direction of point M with respect to point S?
1. Point N is north of Point H which is west of point T. Point L is east of Point M
which is northeast of point N
2. Point M is north of point T. Point S is west of Point N
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Q23. There are five persons-Ani, Ash, Amar, Amu, and Akhil are getting a different
amount of Diwali bonus. Who among them gets the least amount as a bonus?
1. Ani gets more amount than Amu but less than Amar. Akhil gets more amount
than Ash.
2. Only two persons are between Ani and Ash who gets the amount just less
than Akhil. Neither Ani nor Akhil gets the highest amount as a bonus.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Q25. What is the code for “and” in the given code language?
1. “ end ant and” is coded as “22 33 44” “buy end and” is coded as “55 22 44”.
2. “row eA and sit” is coded as “ 77 22 66” “ant the but” is coded as “33 11 88”.
[A] Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
[B] Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[C] Either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question
[D] Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
[E] Both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question
Answers
[Q21]: A
[Q22]: E
[Q23]: B
[Q24]: D
[Q25]: E
S Directions (26-30):
E Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
T data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give the answer.
(6)
Q26. Eight alphabetical letters are arranged from left to right in such a manner to
form a meaningful word. The word contains five consonants and three vowels.
Which among the following letter is 1st from the right end of the meaningful word?
1. L is placed 3rdto the left of H. Only two letters placed between H and T.
2. P is placed exactly between E and H.A is placed adjacent to N.
3. L is placed to the immediate right of E and also to the immediate left of E.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q27. Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W sit around a square table in such a way
that four of them sit at four corners while four sits in the middle of each of the four
sides. The one who sits at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the
middle of the sides face outside (Opposite to the centre). How many people sit
between R and T?
1. V sits second to the right of R. R sits in the middle of one of the sides of table. T
sits second to the left of S. V is not an immediate neighbour of U.
2. W sits at one of the corners. Only one person sits between S and R. U sits
immediate right of S. V is not an immediate neighbour of Q.
3. Only two people sit between V and P. V is the immediate neighbours of U and
Q. P sits second to the left of U.Q sits second to the left of W.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q28. Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above the other but not
necessarily in the same order. No two boxes are placed adjacent to each other
according to the English alphabet (i.e. box A is not kept immediately above or below
box B, B is not kept immediately below or above box A and box C and so on).
Which of the following boxes is kept immediately above box H?
1. I. Four boxes are kept between boxes F and I, which is kept just below box B.
Two boxes are kept between box B and box G.
2. II. Box E is kept above box C but not immediately above. Box H is not kept in
the bottom five. Only one box is kept between box A and box D, and both are
placed above box B.
3. III. Neither box F nor box I is kept at the top or at the bottom.More than three
boxes are kept below box F.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q29. Six persons i.e. Jaya, Jiya, Rama, Pramila, Usha and Priya are sitting around a
triangular table with three persons sit at the corner side of table and they are facing
towards the centre of table and rest sitting at the middle of each side of the table
and facing away from the centre of table but not necessarily in the same order. Who
sits 2nd to the right of Priya?
1. Rama sits 2ndto right of Jiya. Jiya sits in the middle sides.
2. Usha sits 2nd to the right of Rama, who sits at the corner. Pramila sits 2nd to
the left of Jaya.Pramila does not sit next to Jiya.
3. Jiya is an immediate neighbour of neither Rama nor Usha. Jaya sits next to Jiya.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q30. Six persons- U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting at the triangular table facing the
centre but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit at the corner and the
remaining three sit at the middle of each side. Who among the following person sits
second to the right of W?
[A] Z sits third to the left of U who sits adjacent to X. Only one person sits
between W and Y
[B] Only two persons are sitting between V and W. Only one person sits between
V and Z.
[C] Y sits third to the right of the one who sits immediate left of W. Only one
person sits between W and U.
[D] The number of persons sitting between Y and W is the same as W and U. U
sits adjacent to V.
[E] None of the above.
Answers
[Q26]: D
[Q27]: A
[Q28]: C
[Q29]: B
[Q30]: C
Just a few hours remain for social media platforms Facebook, WhatsApp and
Twitter - to comply with the government's new Information Technology Rules, 2021.
If they fail to fall in line, they risk losing 'intermediary' status. The new rules come
into effect soon. Social media intermediaries were given three months to comply
with India's new Information Technology (IT) rules that were notified in February.
There is considerable apprehension among businesses and users regarding the
potential operability of these platforms and data safety.
1. The government has mandated that the social media platforms comply with the
rules
2. The Social Media Platforms risk losing their 'intermediary' status
3. The platforms will be seen as a publisher and will directly be responsible for
anything published on the website
4. Giving a deadline would induce the social media platforms to comply with the
norms
5. The social media platforms must issue a statement that they will make sure the
data safety is not compromised
Q3. Which of the following sentences can be classified as a probable effect of a
certain cause mentioned in the paragraph?
[A] A
[B] C
[C] B
[D] D
[E] E
Q4. Statement A can be labeled as which of the following options given below?
[A] An inference that can be drawn from the facts mentioned above
[B] Conclusion based on the given details in the paragraph
[C] Course of Action that makes the situation less severe
[D] An assumption that could lead to a particular conclusion
[E] Cause of a certain effect mentioned above
Q5. Other than being an essential source of water for Indian agriculture, the
monsoon plays a critical role in flushing out pollutants over Asia. However, recently
increased pollution — particularly from coal burning — could potentially weaken this
ability of the monsoon.
Which of the following can be deduced from the given statement?
[A] The unusually high concentration of particulate matter in the last few days in
India clearly shows that air pollution is emerging as a big problem.
[B] As the climate gets warmer and frequency of rains reduces, such spurts in
coarse particles making breathing difficult will become a new normal and
the government is not waking up to the alarm.
[C] Both the periodicity and duration of dry spells in the country were rising as
total rainfall events in a year had fallen even though the average rainfall in a
year has not changed much, a direct consequence of climate change
[D] The annual average rainfall has remained the same because the frequency of
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Q6. With respect to the two statements (A) and (B) highlighted above, which of the
following options is true?
[A] Statement B is the effect and A is the cause
[B] Statement A is the effect and B is the cause
[C] Both statements A and B are independent causes
[D] Both statements A and B are effects of independent causes
[E] Both statements are neither causes nor effects
Q8. Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row facing north. Information
about only a few are known. Five persons are sitting between P and B.B sits third to
the left of W.The person sitting to the immediate left of W, sits three places away
from M.Only two persons are sitting to the right of M.The number of persons sitting
between W and P is the same as between B and Y.The number of persons sitting to
the right of B is the same as to the left of Q.At least two persons are sitting between
P and Q, who sits to the right of P.B sits fourth to the right of R but does not adjacent
to Q.Q sits exactly between B and R, who sits third to the right of H.
How many persons are sitting in the row?
[A] 19
[B] 16
[C] 17
[D] 21
[E] Can’t be determined
S Directions (9-13):
Read the information given below and choose the correct option.
E Q9. The Central Railway (CR) has decided to block foot overbridges (FOBs) at
Mumbai's railway stations for short time spans during the monsoon if they get
T overcrowded.
(4) Which of the following objection(s) may be a probable reason(s) for the above-taken
step by the Central Railway?
1. To prevent stampedes.
2. To prevent over crowdedness.
3. To reduce the number of commuters on the railway station.
4. To reduce the incidents of murders in the monsoon at the railway station.
[A] Only II and III
[B] Only I and II
[C] Only II and IV
[D] Only IV
[E] None of these
Q10. NASA launches world’s smallest satellite designed by 18-year old Tamil Nadu
student. With the launch of this first 3-D printed satellite, India has created a global
space record.
Which of the following is not in line with the given statement?
1. This smallest satellite is named as Kalamsat, after former President APJ Abdul
Kalam, the tiny satellite weighs around 64 grams.
2. According to news agency ANI, this smallest satellite was flown into the space in
a NASA sounding rocket from a NASA facility in Wallops Island.
3. It is for the first time that 3D printing technology is being used in space.
[A] Only I [D] Only III
[B] All I, III and II [E] None of these
[C] Only II and III
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Q11. The government has held internal preliminary discussions over a possible
infusion of fresh capital in debt-laden IDBI by Life Insurance Corporation of India
(LIC) but no decision has been taken on selling its stake in the bank to the insurer,
said a senior official. LIC would use that amount to capitalize the bank to maintain
its capital adequacy ratio. It would not be a stake sale by government. The
government is expected to hold discussions with banking, insurance and market
regulators before taking a final call.
Which of the following can be logically deduced from the statement above?
[A] IDBI will need more capital infusion and LIC can put that money towards further
strengthening the bank. The government may hold informal consultations with
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of
India (IRDA) and market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
[B] The government had in 2015 announced its intention to transform IDBI Bank on
the lines of Axis Bank. Issuance of new equity will raise more capital and also
dilute the government’s stake in the bank
[C] The insurer already has a 10.82% stake in IDBI Bank and would require regulatory
clearance to increase this beyond 15%
[D] The government is considering a preferential capital issue by IDBI Bank to bring
its holding below 50% as part of plans to transform its fortunes, along the lines of
Axis Bank.
[E] All can be deduced.
Q12. After GST and demonetisation, rising interest rates are set to hurt SMEs. Interest
rates for loans against property (LAP) extended to small and medium sized
enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in the coming months of 2018 ‘ Rising interest rates,
in addition to the muted operating environment for small businesses in India, will
lead to an increase in delinquencies on LAP extended to SMEs’. The introduction of
the goods and services tax (GST) in July 2017 and the government's demonetization
policy have placed stress on the SME sector, which rising interest rates will
exacerbate.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?
[A] In addition to rising delinquencies over the last few years would force lenders
to be more cautious while underwriting loans. This would limit refinancing
options, adversely affecting existing borrowers.
[B] But losses will be limited because these loans are secured and have relatively
low loan-to-value ratios.
[C] Rising interest rates will limit refinancing options and increase repayment
amounts, increasing risks for asset backed securities (ABS) backed by LAP to
SMEs.
[D] The ABS (asset backed securities) backed by LAP extended to SMEs have
non-amortizing cash reserves, substantial excess spread and the possibility
to extend the life of the loans and hence the life of the transactions
[E] None can be inferred
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Q13. The US Department of Justice has launched a criminal probe into whether
traders are manipulating the price of crypto currencies like Bit coin, according to
reports.
Which of the following objection(s) may not be a probable reason(s) for the above-
taken step by the US Department of Justice to launch the probe?
1. Crypto currencies should be banned as they are not legal and cannot be afforded
by everyone.
2. The probe focuses on illegal practices such as spoofing or flooding the market
with fake orders to trick other traders into buying or selling.
3. US Department conducts regular probes and it is not something big.
4. The probe focuses on identifying the crypto currencies and launches them into
the market so that market is not affected.
[A] Only I, III and IV
[B] Only II, I and IV
[C] Only I, II and III
[D] Only II, III and IV
[E] None of these
S Directions (14-18):
Study the following information carefully and answer the question:
E STATEMENT: Due to high jet fuel costs, airline carriers are looking for new ways to
increase revenues and thereby counteract declining profits. Airline X
T has proposed increasing the number of passengers that can fit on its
(5) airplanes by creating several standing rooms only “seats” in which
passengers would be propped against a padded backboard and held
in place with a harness. This proposal, since it relates to passenger
safety, cannot be implemented without prior approval by the
Aviation Administration
Q14. Which of the following is the exact conclusion of the above statement?
[A] The addition of standing room only “seats” will generate more revenue than the
cost of ensuring that these seats meet safety standards.
[B] The Aviation Administration will approve Airline X’s specific proposal.
[C] The revenue generated by the addition of standing room only “seats” is greater than
the current cost of jet fuel.
[D] There are no safer ways in which Airline X can increase revenues.
[E] Passenger safety is less important than increasing revenue.
STATEMENT: All the employees of Law Prep Tutorial must enroll in the company’s
medical insurance programme. Some, but not all of the employees’
spouses have enrolled in the same programme. No one who is not
enrolled in the company’s medical insurance programme may enter
the Bhopal centre.
Q17. Which of the above, if true, provides the best inference for the given statement?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
[E] 5
STATEMENT: From 1983 to 1999 total energy use in this country increased less than
10 percent. However, the use of electrical energy in this country
during this same period grew by more than 50 percent, as did the
gross national product— the total value of all goods and services
produced in the nation.
Q18. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must be the
assumption?
[A] Most of the energy used in this country in 1999 was electrical energy.
[B] From 1983 to 1999 there was a decline in the use of energy other than electrical
energy in this country.
[C] From 1983 to 1999 there was an increase in the proportion of energy use in this
country that consisted of electrical energy use.
[D] In 1999 electrical energy constituted a larger proportion of the energy used to
produce the gross national product than did any other form of energy.
[E] In 1983 the electrical energy that was produced constituted a smaller proportion of
the gross national product than did all other forms of energy combined.
S Directions (19-23):
E In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I and
II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
T consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of
those are implicit in the statement.
(6)
Give Answer:
a) If Only Assumption I is implicit.
b) If Only Assumption II is implicit.
c) If either Assumption I or II is implicit.
d) If Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
e) If both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
Q19. STATEMENT: Government proposes five year jail and Rupee 50 lakhs fine for
ads promoting un-fair or untrustworthy products.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q20. STATEMENT: The residents of the locality submitted a memorandum to the
corporation officer for allowing them to convert a vacant plot
in the locality into a park at their own cost.
ASSUMPTION: 1. Money collected as penalty may set off the loss due to delayed
payment.
2. Maximum number of peoples pays their bills by the due date
to avoid penalty.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
Q22. STATEMENT: An advertisement of a bank in digital platform-“wants to open
a bank account? Just click the given below link. Open an
account in 5 minutes.
ASSUMPTION: 1. To cover the peoples in the digital way and make them to feel
easy account process without pen and paper.
2. Competition in the banking sector is very high to secure their
costumers and increasing new customers.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
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Q23. STATEMENT: In Australia the sales of the Toilet Paper is increased 200% in
two day. Majority of the super markets are runs out of stock.
Peoples are unaware to purchase over to sales in online
platform by the issue of novel corona
ASSUMPTION: 1. Production of the stocks to be increased quickly and permit
each customer to purchase only 4.
2. Government takes action against the spam creators and
distributes more stocks to all places.
[A] a
[B] b
[C] c
[D] d
[E] e
S Directions (24-25):
Study the information given carefully and answer the questions that follow:
E
It is a fact that the global travel industry is one of the, if not the, hardest hit
T industries in the COVID19 pandemic. At the peak of the lockdown measures
across Europe, several countries experienced a staggering 99% decrease in
(7) bookings on popular accommodation sites such as Airbnb, Expedia and
Booking.com compared to 2019. As countries shut their borders to protect their
citizens, global tourism came to a complete halt. This hugely impacted the
entire tourism ecosystem, resulting in a significant drop of movement and
occupancy in the airline and hospitality industries.
Q24. Which of the following can strengthen the arguments being made above?
[A] Hotel occupancy is down 42% year-over-year (YoY) with roughly 80% of hotel
rooms empty. Air travel demand is forecasted to fall.
[B] The numbers have improved as compared to the early days of the pandemic,
primarily as a result of local tourism activities
[C] As the industry shifts towards the new normal, there is a new value that is of great
importance– the feeling of safety.
[D] Decline in the global tourism will be good for our country eventually in the long run
[E] Airlines and hotels are expected to be more digitally-enabled than ever before,
leveraging this digital transformation
Q25. Find the best line that concludes the given para. in most appropriate manner
[A] New lockdown measures and travel restrictions have been introduced in several
European countries in recent weeks
[B] The airlines and hotels are not sitting ideal waiting for the pandemic to end
[C] The global pandemic has disturbed the travel industry and its impact is clearly
visible on the hotel and airline bookings
[D] Both (a) and (c)
[E] None of the above
Answers
1 D 6 B 11 B 16 B 21 D
2 D 7 A 12 E 17 E 22 A
3 C 8 C 13 A 18 C 23 B
4 B 9 A 14 A 19 D 24 E
5 A 10 C 15 A 20 C 25 A
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