MARKS : 480 REGULAR XIITH- NEET - WEEK TEST- 1 TIME :02 Hrs

PART-A (PHYSICS)
1. One million electrons are added to a glass rod. The total charge on the rod is
a) 10-13C b) -1.6×10-13C c) +1.6×10-12C d) 10-12C
2. a body has a charge of 5 × 10-19 coulomb. It is
a)possible b) not possible
c)may or may not be possible d) equivalent to charge of 5 electrons
0
3. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 60 with an electric field of intensity 105 NC-1. It experiences a
torque equal to 8√3 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
a) −8.5 × 103 C b) 8.54 × 10−4 C c) 8 × 10−3 C d) 0.85 × 10−6 C
4. Given that 𝑞1 + 𝑞2 = 𝑞. For what ratio 𝑞1 /𝑞 will the force between 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 be maximum?
a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2
5. The force between two charges 0.06𝑚 apart is 5𝑁. If each charge is moved towards the other by 0.01𝑚, then
the force between them will become
a) 7.20𝑁 b) 11.25𝑁 c) 22.50𝑁 d) 45.00𝑁
6. Two charges 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 are placed in vacuum at a distance 𝑑 and the force acting between them is 𝐹. If a
medium of dielectric constant 4 is introduced between them, the force now will be
𝐹 𝐹
a) 4𝐹 b) 2𝐹 c) d)
2 4
7. The magnitude of electric field intensity 𝐸 is such that, an electron placed in it would experience an electrical
force equal to its weight is given by
𝑚𝑔 𝑒 𝑒2
a) 𝑚𝑔𝑒 b) c) d) 𝑔
𝑒 𝑚𝑔 𝑚2
8. Two identical charges repel each other with a force equal to 10 N when they are 0.6 m apart in air . The value
of each charge is
a) 2mC b) 2 × 10−7 C c) 2 nC d) 2𝜇 C
9. An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point charges q and –q separated by a distance2𝑥. The axis
of the dipole is defined as
a) Direction from positive charge to negative charge
b) Direction from negative charge to positive charge
c) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing upward direction
d) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction
10. An electric dipole of moment 𝑝 is placed in the position of stable equilibrium in uniform electric field of
intensity 𝐸. It is rotated through an angle 𝜃 from the initial position. The potential energy of electric dipole in
the final position is
a) 𝑝𝐸 cos 𝜃 b) 𝑝𝐸 sin 𝜃 c) 𝑝𝐸(1 − cos 𝜃) d) −𝑝𝐸 cos 𝜃
11. Two similar spheres having +𝑞 and – 𝑞 charge are kept at a certain distance. 𝐹 force acts between the two. If
in the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +𝑞 charge is kept, then it experience a force in
magnitude and direction as
a) Zero having no direction b) 8𝐹 towards +𝑞 charge
c) 8𝐹 towards −𝑞 charge d) 4𝐹 towards +𝑞 charge
12. A neutral water molecule (𝐻2 𝑂) in it’s vapor state has an electric dipole moment of magnitude 6.4 ×
10−30 𝐶 − 𝑚. How far apart are the molecules centres of positive and negative charge
a) 4 𝑚 b) 4 𝑚𝑚 c) 4 𝜇𝑚 d) 4 𝑝𝑚
13. A charged particle of mass 𝑚 and charge 𝑞 is released from rest in a uniform electric field 𝐸. Neglecting the
effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after ′𝑡′ second is
𝐸𝑞2 𝑚 2𝐸 2 𝑡 2 𝐸 2 𝑞2 𝑡 2 𝐸𝑞𝑚
a) b) c) d)
2𝑡 2 𝑚𝑞 2𝑚 𝑡
14. A body can be negatively charged by
a) Giving excess of electrons to it b) Removing some electrons from it
c) Giving some protons to it d) Removing some neutrons from it
15. Under the action of a given coulombic force the acceleration of an electron is 2.5 × 1022 𝑚/𝑠 2 . Then the
magnitude of the acceleration of a proton under the action of same force is nearly
a) 1.6 × 10−19 𝑚/𝑠 2 b) 9.1 × 1031 𝑚/𝑠 2 c) 1.5 × 1019 𝑚/𝑠 2 d) 1.6 × 1027 𝑚/𝑠 2
16. The force of interaction between two charges 𝑞1 = 6𝜇 C and 𝑞2 = 2𝜇C is 12 N. If charge 𝑞 = −2𝜇C is added to
each of the charges, then the new force of interaction is
a) 2 × 10−7 N b) Zero c) 30 N d) 2 × 10−3 N
−10
17. Two protons are a distance of 1 × 10 𝑐𝑚 from each other. The forces acting on them are
a) Nuclear force and coulomb force b) Nuclear force and gravitational force
c) Coulomb force and gravitational force d) Nuclear, coulomb and gravitational force
18. A sample of 𝐻𝐶𝑙 gas is placed in an electric field of 3 × 104 𝑁𝐶 −1 . The dipole moment of each 𝐻𝐶𝑙 molecule is
6 × 10−30 𝑐 × 𝑚. The maximum torque that can act on a molecule is
a) 2 × 10−34 𝐶 2 𝑁−1 𝑚 b) 2 × 10−34 𝑁𝑚
c) 18 × 10−26 𝑁𝑚 d) 0.5 × 1034 𝐶 −2𝑁 −1 𝑚−1
𝑁
19. For a dipole 𝑞 = 2 × 10−6 𝐶 and 𝑑 = 0.01 𝑚. Calculate the maximum torque for this dipole if 𝐸 = 5 × 105 𝐶
a) 1 × 10−3 𝑁𝑚−1 b) 10 × 10−3 𝑁𝑚−1 c) 10 × 10−3 𝑁𝑚 d) 1 × 102 𝑁𝑚2
20. An electron of mass 𝑚𝑒 initially at rest moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric field in time 𝑡1 .
A proton of mass 𝑚𝑝 also initially at rest takes time 𝑡2 to move through and equal distance in this uniform
electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the ratio of 𝑡2 /𝑡1 is nearly equal to
1/2 1/2
a) 1 b) (𝑚𝑝 /𝑚𝑒 ) c) (𝑚𝑒 /𝑚𝑝 ) d) 1836
21. Two unlike charges of the same magnitude 𝒬 are placed at a distance 𝑑. The intensity of the electric field at
the middle point in the line joining the two charges.
3𝒬 6𝒬 4𝒬
a) Zero b) c) d)
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑑 2 2𝜋𝜀0 𝑑 2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑑 2
22. Equal charges 𝑞 are placed at the vertices 𝐴 and 𝐵 of an equilateral triangle 𝐴𝐵𝐶 of side 𝑎. The magnitude of
electric field at the point 𝐶 is
𝑞 √2𝑞 √3𝑞 𝑞
a) 4𝜋𝜀 2 b) c) d)
0𝑎 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎 2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎 2 2𝜋𝜀0 𝑎 2
23. The electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance 𝑟 from its centre in axial position is 𝐸. If the dipole is
rotated through an angle of 90° about its perpendicular axis, the electric field at the same point will be
𝐸 𝐸
a) E b) 4 c) 2 d) 2E
24. An electric dipole in a uniform electric field experiences (When it is placed at an angle 𝜃 with the field)
a) Force and torque both b) Force but no torque
c) Torque but no force d) No force and no torque
25. Electric field strength due to a point charge of 5 𝜇𝐶 at a distance of 80 𝑐𝑚 from the charge is
a) 8 × 104 𝑁/𝐶 b) 7 × 104 𝑁/𝐶 c) 5 × 104 𝑁/𝐶 d) 4 × 104 𝑁/𝐶
26. A given charge situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end on opposition, experiences a
force F. If the distance of charge is doubled, the force acting on the charge will be
a) 2 F b) F /2 c) F /4 d) F /8
27. The distance between two point charges is increased by 10%. The force of interaction between them
a) Increased by 10% b) decreased by 10% c) decreased by 17% d) decreased by 21%
10
28. If 10 electrons are acquired by a body every second, the time required for the body to get a total charge of 1
C will be
a) Two hours b) Two days c) Two years d) 20 years
29. Electric field strength due to a dipole at a point on the axial line of dipole is
a) From positive charge to negative charge b) From negative charge to positive charge
c) Along the equatorial line d) At an angle to axial line
30. The electric dipole moment of an electron and a proton 4.3 nm apart is
10−29 𝑐 2 10−14 𝑐 10−46 𝑐 2
a) 6.88 × 10−28 𝑐𝑚 b) 2.56 × c) 3.72 × d) 11 ×
𝑚 𝑚 𝑚
PART-B (CHEMISTRY)
31. 40% by weight solution will contain how much mass of the solute in 1L solution, density of the solution is
1.2 g/mL?
a)480 g b)48 g c)38 g d) 380 g
32. What is the molality of pure water?
a)1 b) 18 c) 55.5 d) None of these
33. 2.5 L of NaCl solution contain 5 moles of the solute.What is the molarity ?
a)5M b) 2M c) 2.5M d) 12.5M
34. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is
a)23.077% b) 230.77% c) 2.3077% d) 0.23077%
35. 100 cc of 0.6 N 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 and 200 cc of 0.3 N HCl were mixed together. The normality of the solution will
be
 a)0.2 N b) 0.4 N c) 0.8 N d) 0.6 N
36. Mole fraction (𝒳) of any solution is equal to
no.of moles of solute no.of gram−equivalent of solute
a)volume of solution in litre b) volume of solution in litre
no.of moles of solute no.of moles of any constituent
c)mass of solvent in kg d) total number of moles of all constituents
37. The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid is
a)1 N b) 1.3 N c) 1.7 N d) 1.9 N
38. A 5% solution of cane sugar (molar mass 342) is isotonic with 1% of a solution of an unknown solute. The
molar mass of unknown solute in g/mol is
a)136.2 b) 171.2 c) 68.4 d) 34.2
39. Which of the following solutions has the highest normality?
a)6 g of NaOH/100 mL b) 0.5 M H2 SO4 c) N phosphoric acid d) 8 g of KOH/L
40. 100 mL of 0.3 HCl is mixed with 200 mL of 0.6 NH2 SO4 . The final normality of the resulting solution will
be
a)0.3 N b) 0.2 N c) 0.5 N d) 0.1 N
41. 3.65 g of HCl is dissolved in 16.2 g of water. The mole fraction of HCl in the resulting solution is
a)0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.3 d) 0.4
42. How many moles of 𝐴𝑙2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 would be in 50 g of the substance?
a)0.083 mol b) 0.952 mol c) 0.481 mol d) 0.140 mol
43. A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1L solution. The
molarity of NaOH in the solution is
(Given, that molar mass of NaOH = 40.0 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
a)1000 g of solvent b) 1 L of solvent c) 1 L of solution d) 1000 g of solution
44. Molarity of 0.2 N 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 is
a)0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.1
45. When 𝑊𝐵 g solute (molecular mass 𝑀𝐵 ) dissolves in 𝑊𝐴 g solvent, the molality 𝑀 of the solution is
𝑊 1000 𝑊 1000 𝑊 𝑀𝐴 𝑊 𝑀𝐵
a) 𝑀𝐵 × 𝑊 b) 𝑀𝐴 × 𝑊 c) 𝑊𝐵 × 1000 d) 𝑊𝐴 × 1000
𝐵 𝐴 𝐵 𝐵 𝐴 𝐵
46. The amount of anhydrous Na2 CO3 present in 250 mL of 0.25 M solution is
a)6.625 g b) 66.25 g c) 662.5 g d) 6625 g
47. What the total number of moles is of 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 needed to prepare 5.0 L of a 2.0 M solution of H2 SO4 ?
a)2.5 b) 5.0 c) 10 d) 20
48. The density (𝑖n g mL−1 ) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 (molar mass =
98 g mol−1 ) by mass will be
a)1.64 b) 1.88 c) 1.22 d) 1.45
𝑤
49. How many gram of NaOH will be required to prepare 500 g solution containing 10% 𝑤 NaOH solution?
a)100 g b) 50 g c) 0.5 g d) 5.0 g
50. Conc H2 SO4 has a density of 1.98 g/mL and is 98% H2 SO4 by weight. Its normality is
a)19.6 N b) 29.6 N c) 39.6 N d) 49.6 N
51. When a crystal of the solute is introduced into a super saturated solution of the solute :
a) The solute dissolves b) The excess solute crystallizes out
c) The solution becomes unsaturated d) The solution remains super saturated

52. Which of the following concentration term is/are independent of temperature?

a)Molarity b) Molarity and mole fraction
c)Mole fraction and molality d) Molality and normality
53. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
a)Decrease in molarity b) Decrease in molarity
c)Decrease in mole fraction d) Decrease in % 𝑤/𝑤
54. Which of the following concentration units is independent of temperature?
a)Normality b) Molarity c) Molality d) ppm
55. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
a)3.9732 b) 2.9732 c) 1.9732 d) 0.9732
56. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is
a)1.14 mol 𝑘𝑔−1 b) 3.28 mol 𝑘𝑔−1 c) 2.28 mol 𝑘𝑔−1 d) 0.44 mol 𝑘𝑔−1
57. x gram of water is mixed in 69 g of ethanol. Mole fraction of ethanol in the resultant solution is 0.6. What
is the value of x in grams?
a)54 b) 36 c) 180 d) 18
58. Molarity is expressed as
a)L/mol b) Mol/L c) Mol/1000 g d) g/L
59. What is the molarity of 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 solution if 25 mL is exactly neutralised with 32.63 mL of 0.164 M NaOH?
a)0.107 M b) 0.126 M c) 0.214 M d) -0.428 M
60. What is the molarity of H2 SO4 solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35℃ and contains 98% solute by
weight?
a)4.18 M b) 1.84 M c) 8.41 M d) 18.4 M
PART-C (BOTANY)
61. What would be the ploidy of cells of tetrad ?
a) n b) 2n c) 3n d) 4n
62. From outer to inner what is the sequence of wall layers in anther lobes?
a) Epidermis, middle layers, tapetum, endothecium
b) Epidermis, endothecium, tapetum, middle layers
c) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, tapetum
d) Tapetum, middle layers, endothecium, epidermis
63. Select the odd one (w.r.t. wall layers of microsporangium in flowering plants).
a) Endothecium b) Tapetum c) Hilum d) Middle layers
64. A typical angiospermic anther is bilobed and tetragonal consisting of
a) Two microsporangia b) Four microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia d) Only one microsporangium
65. Which of the following option about tapetum is correct?
a) Nutritive tissue b) Protective and haploid tissue
c) Sporogenous tissue d) External layer of microsporangium wall
66. A typical angiosperm anther is__________ and ____________
a) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate b) Bilobed, monosporangiate
c) Bilobed, bisporangiate d) Tetralobed, monosporangiate
67. The innermost wall layer of anther
a) Is nutritive in function b) Helps in dehiscence of anther
c) Is haploid and protective in function d) Forms microspores
68. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell is called
a) Megasporogenesis b) Microsporogenesis
c) Megagametogenesis d) Microgametogenesis
69. The pollen grain represents
a) Male gamete b) Microsporophyll
c) Male gametophyte d) Microsporangium
70. Select the odd one out w.r.t. wall layers of microsporangium in flowering plants
a) Endothecium b) Middle layers c) Integument d)Tapetum
71. Androgens are
a) Male sex hormones b) Female sex hormones
c) Both a and b d) Growth promoting hormones
72. Nurse cells are also called as
a) Germ cells b) spermatogonia cells c) Oogonia cells d) Sertoli cells
73. Male can become as father from
a) infant to adult b) Adult to until death
c) Adult to until 50 years d) None of these
74. Which undergoes meiotic division to produce sperms in testis?
a) Oogonia b) Sertoli cells c) Spermatogonia d) Interstitial cells
75. Which of the following secretion release helps in lubrication of urethral tract before ejaculation of sperms?
a) prostate gland b) seminal vesicle
c) bulbourethral gland d) Bartholin gland
76. Head of epididymis is
a) Caput b) Corpus c) Cauda d) Corpora
77. Semen contains
a) Sperms b) Androgens c) Seminal plasma d) Both a and c
78. Penis of human male is/are
a) copulatory organ b) External genitalia
c) Both a and b d) Accessory duct
79. Gestation period follows
a) fertilization b) implantation c) Lactation d) Parturition
80. Human testes contain
a) 250 testicular lobules b) 500 testicular lobules
c) 750 testicular lobules d) None of these
81. Humans are
a) Monoecious b) Dioecious c) Hermaphrodites d) Bisexuals
82. Development in humans is
a) indirect b) direct c) Hemimetabolous d) Holometabolous
83. Which duct loops over urinary bladder of humans?
a) vasa efferentia b) vas deferens c) ejaculatory duct d) urethra
84. Outermost cover of testis dense cover is
a) tunic vaginalis b) tunic albuginea c) tunic vascularis d) tunic nervosa
85. Through which muscular bundle urethra passes in penis?
a) Corpora covernosum b) corpora spongiosum
c) Both a and b d) None of these
86. Rete testis receive sperm from
a) vasa efferentia b) vasa deferens
c) ejaculatory duct d) seminiferous tubule
87. Insemination is a
a) release of sperms in to female genital tract through peins by male
b) release of sperms in to vasa deferens
c) release of sperms in to rete testis
d) release sperms in to scrotum
88. Human testis acts as
a) primary sex organ b) Endocrine organ
c) Both a and b d) Secondary sex organ
89. Menopause occurs in females at the age of about
a) 10 years b) 20 years c) 30 years d) 45 Years
90. Which organ malfunctioning may lead to infertility in human males?
a) urinary bladder b) Scrotum c) Testis d) epididymis

PART-D (Z00LOGY)
91. Which of the following lists correct constituents of mammalian testes?
a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells
b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules
c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leydig cells
d) Graafian follicles, Leydig cells, Seminiferous tubules
92. Mark the incorrect statement.
a) Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules
b) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and Sertoli cells
c) Interstitial cells (Endocrine cells) are present in seminiferous tubules
d) The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
93. Length and width of testis is
a) 4 - 5 cm and 2 - 3 cm b) 5 - 6 cm and 3 - 4 cm
c) 6 - 7 cm and 4 - 5 cm d) 7 - 8 cm and 8 - 9 cm
94. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and opens into the ___(1)___ located along the ___(2)___ surface
a) (1) - rete testis; (2) – epididymis b) (1) - epididymis; (2) - rete testis
 c) (1) - epididymis; (2) – posterior d) (1) - epididymis; (2) – anterior
95. The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
a) Leydig cells b) Atretic follicular cells
c) Sertoli cells d) Chromaffin cells
96. The correct order of the reproductive tract of a male human being is
a) Rete Testis, Epididymis, Vasa efferentia, Urethra
b) Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Urethra
c) Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Urethra, Rete testis
d) Urethra, Rete testis, Epididymis, Vasa efferentia
97. Seminal fluid
a) Maintains the viability of sperms b) Maintains motility of sperms
c) Provides proper pH and ionic strength d) All of these
98. The temperature of the testes sacs is how much lower than the body temperature?
a) 2-5°C b) 2- 2.5° C c) 5-8° C d) 10° C
99. Inguinal-canal is a connection between
a) Scrotum and testes b) Scrotum and vas deferens
c) Testes and abdominal cavity d) Scrotum and abdominal cavity
100. The fore skin covering the end of penis is also called
a) Meatus b) Pubis c) Prepuce d) Glans penis
101. Which of the following male accessory gland is unpaired?
a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate c) Bulbourethral d) Cowper's gland
102. Sperms feed upon ___________ after maturation
a) Glucose b) Prostaglandins c) Fructose d) Sertoli proteins
103. Semen contains
a) Sperms, fructose, calcium but no enzymes
b) Sperms, fructose, glucose and calcium
c) Sperms, fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
d) Sperms, glucose, galactose and ions
104. Urethra acts as urinogenital duct in
a) Males only b) Female only
c) Both males and females d) None of these
105. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose
served is for
a) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
b) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
c) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
d) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
106. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
a) epididymis b) ejaculatory duct c) efferent ductule d) ureter
107. Which of the following is incorrect about themale reproductive system?
a) The testes are present within theabdomen during the embryonic stage
b) The testes descend into the scrotumshortly after birth
c) Failure of testes to descend into thescrotum causes infertility
d) Penis is primary sex organ in human males
108. Primary sex organ of a human male is
a) Testes b) Vas deferens c) Seminal vesicle d) Penis
109. Leydig cells is also known as
a) Male sperm cells b) Sertoli Cells
b) Interstitial cells d) Supportive Cells
110. Gametogenesis involves
a) Production of haploid gametes b) Production of sperm
c) Production of ovum d) All of these
111. Which gland is responsible for most of these men released in an ejaculation?
a) Seminal vesicles b) Bulbourethral gland
c) Prostate gland d) Glans penis
112. Urethral meatus refers to the:
a) Urogenital duct
b) Opening of vas deferens into urethra
c) External opening of the urogenital duct
d) Muscles surrounding the urogenitalduct
113. Find the odd one with respect to malereproductive system
a) Seminal vesicles b) Bartholin’s gland
c) Prostate gland d) Bulbourethral gland
114. The head of the epididymis at the head of the testis is called
a) cauda epididymis b) corpus epididymis
c) caput epididymis d) gubernaculum
115. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is
a) Urethra b) Ureter c) Vas deferens d) Vasa efferentia
116. Assertion: In human male, testes are extra-abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
Reason: Scrotum acts as thermoregulatory and keeps testicular temperature lower by 2°C for normal
spermatogenesis.
a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
d) If both the assertion and reason are false
117. Delivery of baby from uterus to outside of the body is called
a) Gestation b) Parturition c) Implantation d) None of these
118. Which process leads to pregnancy?
a) Gestation b) Parturition c) Implantation d) None of these
119. Zygote formed by
a) Gestation b) Parturition c) Implantation d) Fertilization
120. Ejaculatory duct is a
a) primary sex organ b) Accessary duct
c) Accessory gland d) external genitalia