Test Bank for Abnormal Psychology: An Integrative Approach 5th Edition

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Chapter 5 - Anxiety, Trauma-Related, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders

1. Which of the following psychological disorders is anxiety most closely related to?
a. psychosis
b. depression
c. schizophrenia
d. dementia
ANSWER: b

2. In an interview, performer Alanis Morissette said she was once returning home from Los Angeles to Canada for the
holidays, when she suddenly began crying and shaking uncontrollably, and she felt as if she was going to faint. What was
she most likely experiencing?
a. an unexpected panic attack
b. a situationally bound panic attack
c. a specific panic attack
d. a situationally predisposed panic attack
ANSWER: a

3. George has episodes of sheer terror when riding on subway trains. He breaks into a cold sweat and often feels like he is
about to have a heart attack. George imagines he is losing control of himself during these attacks. What is George most
likely experiencing?
a. compulsion
b. alarm response
c. panic
d. anxiety
ANSWER: c

4. Roberta is standing in a shopping mall when she begins having difficulty breathing. She feels her heart pounding, feels
weak and dizzy, and notices that she is perspiring heavily. She thinks she might be having a heart attack. At the very least,
she senses she is losing control and is afraid that if she’s not having a heart attack, she is going “crazy.” What does this
situation illustrate?
a. alarm response
b. a panic attack
c. dissociation
d. anxiety
ANSWER: b

5. When a person feels intense fear, which of the following will activate to cause a surge of energy?
a. the somatic nervous system
b. the parasympathetic nervous system
c. the peripheral nervous system
d. the autonomic nervous system
ANSWER: d

6. Recent research has increasingly focused on the role of a neurotransmitter system associated with both anxiety and
depression. What neurotransmitter system is this?
a. the GABA-benzodiazepine system
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b. the corticotropin-releasing factor system
c. the serotonergic system
d. the noradrenergic system
ANSWER: b

7. What area of the brain is most often associated with anxiety?

a. the reticular activating system
b. the left frontal lobe
c. the temporal lobe
d. the limbic system
ANSWER: d

8. According to British neuropsychologist Jeffrey Gray, what part of the brain regulates the fight/flight system?
a. the hippocampus
b. the amygdala
c. the brain stem
d. the temporal lobe
ANSWER: c

9. Johnson and colleagues (2000) found an increased risk of developing anxiety disorders among certain teenagers. What
was significant about these teenagers?
a. They smoked 20 or more cigarettes daily.
b. They used anabolic steroids for six months or more.
c. They drank alcohol every day.
d. They smoked marijuana more than once per week.
ANSWER: a

10. What does research by Johnson and colleagues (2000) on cigarette smoking by teenagers and anxiety disorders
suggest?
a. the possibility that brain circuits are permanently “wired”
b. the possibility that sensitivity of brain circuits can be affected by environmental factors
c. the possibility that respiratory disorders cause changes in neurotransmitter systems
d. the possibility that neurotransmitter systems operate independently of nonbiological influences
ANSWER: b

11. Research by Barlow (2002) and others suggests that parents may play an important role in helping to reduce their
children’s risk of developing anxiety disorders. How do parents do this?
a. by receiving treatment for their own problems with anxiety
b. by ensuring that their children experience as few unexpected negative events as possible
c. by teaching their children early in life that they have control over their environment and thereby increasing
their sense of control
d. by praising their children frequently and thereby increasing their self-esteem
ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Anxiety, Trauma-Related, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders

12. According to your textbook, how is fear experienced?
a. as a neurotic response
b. as culturally specific phenomenon
c. as a future-oriented mood state
d. as an immediate emotional reaction to danger
ANSWER: d

13. A teenage girl had been feeling depressed and having panic attacks. Her doctor prescribed medication. She was sitting
in her room feeling very depressed, so to cheer her up, a friend suggested that they go to an exercise class. Shortly after
the warm-up started, however, she had another panic attack. What is the best explanation for this occurrence?
a. She was angry with the friend for insisting that she go out.
b. The physical sensations experienced during exercise had become an internal cue for panic to occur.
c. The medication that had been prescribed for her was treating only the depression not the anxiety.
d. The exercise class was an unconditioned stimulus that resulted in a panic attack.
ANSWER: b

14. An individual who suffers from panic disorder might become anxious about climbing stairs, exercising, or being in hot
rooms because these activities produce sensations similar to those accompanying a panic attack. In psychological terms,
what have the exercise and hot rooms become?
a. conditioned stimuli
b. unconditioned responses
c. conditioned responses
d. unconditioned stimuli
ANSWER: a

15. Why are the rates of comorbidity (co-occurrence) among various anxiety disorders and depression high?
a. because the same psychological interventions should be used on all of them
b. because they share some of the same biological and psychological vulnerabilities for developing them
c. because the diagnostic criteria for these disorders are too ambiguous
d. because they may not be distinct disorders at all
ANSWER: b

16. Eddie is walking down a dark alley. Suddenly, a dark figure jumps out from behind a trash bin and points a gun at
him. Eddie turns and runs away extremely quickly. What does this example illustrate?
a. anxiety
b. compulsion
c. panic
d. alarm response
ANSWER: d

17. What is the risk of someone with panic disorder attempting suicide?
a. It is comparable to that for individuals with major depression.
b. It is less than that for individuals with panic disorder who also demonstrate agoraphobic avoidance.
c. It is higher than that for individuals with major depression.

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d. It is less than that for individuals with agoraphobia alone.
ANSWER: a

18. Which of the following terms is MOST associated with generalized anxiety disorder?
a. depression
b. panic
c. emotion
d. worry
ANSWER: d

19. Which of the following is a symptom of generalized anxiety disorder?

a. impulsivity
b. muscle tension
c. multiple specific phobias
d. paranoia
ANSWER: b

20. Which physiological measure consistently distinguishes individuals with generalized anxiety disorder from
nonanxious normal subjects?
a. increased heart rate
b. decreased EEG beta activity
c. increased muscle tension
d. heightened autonomic arousal
ANSWER: c

21. Jack constantly worries about his health, finances, job security, and the stability of his marriage. Often, his worries
keep him awake at night, causing him so much fatigue he cannot perform his work duties adequately. His preoccupation
with his worries has left his wife feeling frustrated. What would be the most likely diagnosis of Jack’s problem?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. simple phobia
d. panic disorder
ANSWER: b

22. Which of the following groups is generalized anxiety disorder most prevalent in?
a. teenage girls
b. young adult males
c. middle-aged males
d. the elderly
ANSWER: d

23. Which of the following is NOT included in the model of generalized anxiety disorder developed by researchers
Dugas, Ladouceur, and others?
a. intolerance of uncertainty

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b. erroneous beliefs about worry
c. poor problem orientation
d. focus on internal images of the threat
ANSWER: d

24. Your friend Samantha has been diagnosed with a generalized anxiety disorder. Which category of drugs is the typical
pharmacological treatment for her condition?
a. SSRIs
b. benzodiazepines
c. phenothiazines
d. MAO inhibitors
ANSWER: b

25. “Something might go wrong, and I’m not sure I can deal with it, but I’ve got to be ready to try.” Which aspect of
anxiety does this statement reveal?
a. future-oriented mood state
b. immediate control reaction
c. fight/flight response
d. panic attack
ANSWER: a

26. How does cognitive-behavioural treatment help someone with generalized anxiety disorder?
a. It helps the patient confront anxiety-provoking thoughts and images.
b. It helps the patient analyze the unconscious sources of the anxiety.
c. It helps the patient avoid feelings of anxiety as well as the negative images associated with those feelings.
d. It helps the patient adjust medication levels as needed to cope with the anxiety.
ANSWER: a

27. In Barrett and colleagues’ (1996) research of children with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), they found that after
using a certain type of treatment, 95 percent of the children no longer met the criteria for a GAD diagnosis. What type of
treatment did they use?
a. cognitive-behavioural procedures combined with family therapy
b. family therapy combined with benzodiazepines
c. benzodiazepines combined with play therapy
d. benzodiazepines combined with cognitive-behavioural procedures
ANSWER: a

28. The term “agoraphobia” is derived from the Greek word agora. What does agora mean?
a. home
b. workplace
c. people
d. marketplace
ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Anxiety, Trauma-Related, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders

29. A university student was attending a horror movie when he started to experience anxiety symptoms (rapid heartbeat,
sweating, and shallow breathing). He was so upset that he went to a psychologist who told him that he probably had had a
panic attack. In the following weeks, he became apprehensive about sitting in lecture halls, crowded rooms, and even
classrooms. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, what also would have to happen?
a. He would also need to become severely depressed about his problem.
b. He would also need to interpret unexpected physical sensations as dangerous to his well-being.
c. He would also need to repress the anxious feelings and pretend the experience never happened.
d. He would also need to achieve a high score on the anxiety sensitivity index.
ANSWER: b

30. According to Barlow (2002) and others, all the evidence now points to what conclusion about agoraphobic avoidance
behaviour?
a. It is conceptually unrelated to panic disorder; it is a coincidence that they often occur together.
b. It is similar to the behaviour of people with generalized anxiety disorder.
c. It is a complication of severe unexpected panic attacks.
d. It is a principle cause of panic disorder.
ANSWER: c

31. What does agoraphobic avoidance behaviour appear to be determined by?

a. the number of panic attacks the person has had in the past
b. the extent to which the person expects another panic attack to occur
c. how recently the last panic attack occurred
d. how severe the panic attacks have been
ANSWER: b

32. Rob reports being terrified to go anywhere that does not have a bathroom, for fear that he will begin vomiting and not
be able to stop. He had one panic attack, and a week later, he felt no residual effects from the attack. Which of the
following DSM 5 diagnoses would Rob most likely receive?
a. agoraphobia
b. interoceptive agoraphobia
c. panic disorder
d. panic disorder and agoraphobia
ANSWER: a

33. What kind of factors determine whether agoraphobia actually develops following panic attacks and how severe it
becomes?
a. biological factors
b. psychological factors
c. medical factors
d. sociocultural factors
ANSWER: b

34. Jason has just recently been diagnosed as having panic disorder. Which of the following describes what we will know
about Jason?
a. Jason is rare because only a small percentage of individuals with this disorder are male.
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b. Jason is in his late 50s.
c. Jason will cope with the panic associated with agoraphobia by drinking alcohol because men choose this as a
means of coping more so than women.
d. Jason will be much more fearful of anxiety symptoms, compared to a woman.
ANSWER: a

35. Studies have found that individuals with panic disorder may be more susceptible than others to the anxiety-reducing
effects of alcohol when they are experiencing panic-like bodily sensations. Which of the following might this finding
explain?
a. why alcohol-based medications are so effective in treating panic disorder
b. why these individuals are more likely to experience panic attacks while they are consuming alcohol
c. why these individuals are more likely to develop alcohol abuse and dependence
d. why people with a history of alcoholism rarely go on to develop panic disorder
ANSWER: c

36. What does “interoceptive avoidance” refer to?

a. the phenomenon in which individuals with severe agoraphobia reduce panic-like symptoms through the use of
alcohol
b. the phenomenon in which individuals with severe agoraphobia avoid internal physical sensations
c. the phenomenon in which individuals with severe agoraphobia avoid situations where panic attacks may occur
d. the phenomenon in which individuals with severe agoraphobia avoid new situations because they are unsure if
panic-like symptoms will occur
ANSWER: b

37. Which of these is an example of an interoceptive avoidance activity that may be observed in someone with
agoraphobia?
a. eating heavy meals
b. fishing from docks but not in lakes or streams
c. standing slowly from a sitting position
d. staying indoors in nice weather
ANSWER: c

38. Which of the following people is at greatest risk of having panic attacks with agoraphobia?
a. A male who is between the ages of 25 and 40
b. A female who is between the ages of 25 and 40
c. A female who is over the age of 60
d. A male who is over the age of 60
ANSWER: b

39. Mary has a fear of snakes and is having a panic attack because her science teacher is handling a snake in class as part
of a lesson on reptiles. Mary claims she feels like she is going to faint. What is the likelihood that Mary will pass out in
class?
a. zero
b. about 50/50
c. about 70/30
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d. 100%
ANSWER: d

40. Mandeep had a panic attack while he was asleep last night. What sleep event was Mandeep MOST likely experiencing
when the attack occurred?
a. a dream
b. a nightmare
c. deep sleep
d. REM sleep
ANSWER: c

41. Amy was just given a prescription. Her father, who is a psychiatrist, asks for the name of the drug. Amy tells him, and
he says, “But I thought you were getting treatment for your panic disorder?” Which of the following drugs would Amy
have been prescribed?
a. a tricyclic antidepressant
b. a benzodiazepine
c. a phenothiazine
d. an SSRI
ANSWER: c

42. To address panic symptoms, a panic-control treatment (PCT) was developed at one of Barlow’s clinics. Which of the
following would be included in this therapy?
a. exposure to the interoceptive sensations
b. minimizing heart rate at all times
c. anti-anxiety medication
d. psychoanalysis
ANSWER: a

43. A friend stated that when she went to a clinic, she had to spend 30- to 60-second sessions shaking her head from side
to side, spinning in a chair, tensing all her muscles, hyperventilating, or breathing through a narrow straw. What is she
receiving treatment for?
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. specific phobia
c. social phobia
d. panic disorder
ANSWER: d

44. In a major double-blind NIMH research study looking at the separate and combined effects of both psychological and
drug treatments (Barlow et al., 2000), patients were randomized into five different treatment conditions. Which of the
following was one of these treatment conditions?
a. psychoanalysis
b. hypnosis
c. flooding
d. placebo
ANSWER: d
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45. A relative who suffers from panic disorder asks you what treatment would have the most long-lasting benefits.
Because you have just read about the double-blind NIMH research study evaluating psychological treatments with and
without medication, what would you say?
a. First, try any available treatment, since patients in all treatment conditions achieved the same long-lasting
gains.
b. First, try the drug imipramine.
c. First, try psychological treatment along with medication.
d. First, try panic-control treatment that includes cognitive-behavioural therapy.
ANSWER: d

46. What is the main difference between situational phobia and panic disorder with agoraphobia?
a. People with situational phobia experience phobias at random times, and people with panic disorder with
agoraphobia experience panic attacks only at specific times.
b. People with situational phobia experience panic attacks when confronted with the phobic situation as well as at
other times, and people with panic disorder with agoraphobia only experience panic when in public places.
c. People with panic disorder with agoraphobia experience panic attacks only in specific situations, and people
with situational phobia can experience phobias anywhere.
d. People with situational phobia never experience panic attacks outside the context of the phobic situation, and
people with panic disorder with agoraphobia can experience panic even when not in a public place.
ANSWER: d

47. Cedella just fainted as a result of her phobia. What type of phobia does Cedella have?
a. a blood-injury-injection phobia
b. a situational phobia
c. a natural environment phobia
d. an animal phobia
ANSWER: a

48. In the type of specific phobia called “blood-injury-injection,” there is an inherited vasovagal response and a tendency
to faint. What causes this tendency?
a. a decrease in blood pressure
b. an increase in blood pressure
c. a decrease in body temperature
d. an increase in body temperature
ANSWER: a

49. For which type of phobia does the age of onset peak at about seven years of age?
a. social phobia
b. agoraphobic avoidance
c. choking and illness phobias
d. animal and natural environment phobias
ANSWER: d

50. While more women than men experience fear of snakes, for which of the following phobias is the sex ratio
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approximately equal?
a. fear of flying
b. fear of heights
c. fear of illness
d. fear of water
ANSWER: b

51. Even though phobias may interfere with an individual’s functioning, only the most severe cases come for treatment.
Why?
a. Affected people tend to arrange their life to avoid the phobic object or situation.
b. Less extreme phobias tend to fade over time without treatment.
c. The continuing shame and stigma surrounding mental disorders results in affected people avoiding treatment.
d. Most people with less severe cases tend to believe their fears are normal and reasonable.
ANSWER: a

52. Which of the following “normal” childhood fears correctly matches the corresponding approximate age of onset?
a. age ten: fear of evaluation by others and anxiety over physical appearance
b. age five: fear of separation from parents, of animals, and of the dark
c. age four: fear of loud noises and strangers
d. infancy: fear of monsters and other imaginary creatures
ANSWER: a

53. A culture-bound syndrome in Chinese cultures is known as Pa-leng. What characterizes those who have this disorder?
a. They appear naked in public.
b. They wear many layers of clothing.
c. They exercise compulsively.
d. They hoard food.
ANSWER: b

54. Which of the following is an example of how a phobia may develop?

a. experiencing a panic attack in a variety of settings
b. observing someone else experience severe fear
c. inheriting a gene related to the phobia
d. having a terrifying experience and not talking about it very much
ANSWER: b

55. A man who has an extreme snake phobia was told repeatedly as a child about the dangers of snakes in high grass. He
also was encouraged to wear rubber boots to protect himself, even on city streets. What mode of developing a phobia does
this example illustrate?
a. adaptive preparedness
b. interoceptive communication
c. developmental shaping
d. information transmission
ANSWER: d
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56. What psychological disorder in children is characterized by unrealistic and persistent worry that something will
happen to the child’s parents, and may result in a child refusing to leave home?
a. separation anxiety
b. school phobia
c. situational phobia
d. globus hystericus
ANSWER: a

57. Which of the following would be considered an example of social phobia?

a. a student who is reluctant to ride in elevators
b. a male who has difficulty urinating in a public washroom when others are present
c. an individual who is invited to a party but decides to stay home because she’s afraid she will embarrass herself
d. a person who has a fear of blood
ANSWER: c

58. What is the approximate sex ratio of individuals who experience social phobia at some point in their lives?
a. Slightly more males than females experience social phobia.
b. About twice as many males as females experience social phobia.
c. Slightly more females than males experience social phobia.
d. About three times as many females as males experience social phobia.
ANSWER: c

59. What is the most prevalent psychological disorder in the general population?
a. panic disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. school phobia
d. social phobia
ANSWER: d

60. At what age does social phobia usually begin, and when does it end?
a. It usually begins in young adulthood and ends in middle age.
b. It usually begins in childhood and ends in middle age.
c. It usually begins in middle age and ends in old age.
d. It usually begins in adolescence and ends in old age.
ANSWER: d

61. What did the Heinrichs and colleagues (2006) cross-cultural study of social phobia find?
a. The more that attention-avoiding behaviours were accepted in a given culture, the greater were the levels of
social anxiety.
b. There was no relationship between social acceptance of attention-avoiding behaviours and levels of social
anxiety.
c. The more that attention-avoiding behaviours were accepted in a given culture, the lower were the levels of
social anxiety.

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d. The less that attention-avoiding behaviours were accepted in a given culture, the greater were the levels of
social anxiety.
ANSWER: a

62. In Japan, what does the anxiety syndrome termed taijin kyo fusho involve?
a. a fear of embarrassing oneself
b. a fear of personally offending others
c. a fear of performing onstage
d. a fear of speaking to females
ANSWER: b

63. According to research, what area of the brain was activated in people with social anxiety disorder who viewed angry
and contemptuous faces?
a. the temporal lobe
b. the frontal lobe
c. the hippocampus
d. the amygdala
ANSWER: d

64. Which of the following is a diagnostic symptom associated with social phobias?
a. strong and persistent feeling of worry
b. significant attempts by the anxious individual to avoid going outdoors
c. recognition by the person with the phobia that the anxiety is excessive or unreasonable
d. heightened activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
ANSWER: c

65. Who is most likely to avoid all contact with other people?
a. someone with a situational phobia
b. someone with panic disorder
c. someone with blood-injury phobia
d. someone with an illness phobia
ANSWER: d

66. Which of the following is a common symptom of people with post-traumatic stress disorder?
a. memories and nightmares of the event
b. chronic worrying
c. excessive emotional responsiveness
d. difficulty learning to do new things
ANSWER: b

67. When they are part of post-traumatic stress disorder, what are symptoms such as feelings of unreality and/or amnesia
for all or part of the traumatic event called?
a. psychotic symptoms
b. neurotic symptoms

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c. dissociative symptoms
d. reactive symptoms
ANSWER: c

68. Darrel is a Vietnam veteran. He wakes up in the middle of the night in a cold sweat due to dreams in which he relives
his most frightening war experiences. He refuses to talk about the war with anyone and is constantly fidgety and “on
edge.” He is unable to enjoy himself or develop intimacy with friends or romantically. What disorder does Darrel appear
to have?
a. adjustment reactive disorder
b. dissociative disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. post-traumatic stress disorder
ANSWER: d

69. Your friend was a recent victim of a sexual assault. According the DSM 5, at what point can a diagnoses of PTSD be
made?
a. immediately following the traumatic event
b. one month after the trauma
c. three months after the trauma
d. six months after the trauma
ANSWER: d

70. What is the minimum time needed to treat most specific phobias?
a. a day
b. two days
c. a week
d. a month
ANSWER: a

71. What are the most common traumatic events experienced by the 8 percent of the Canadian population who have
experienced post-traumatic stress disorder?
a. sexual assault and auto accidents that included fatalities
b. combat and sexual assault
c. aggravated assault and sexual assault
d. aggravated assault and combat
ANSWER: b

72. Why were there lower rates of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in citizens who endured bombing and shelling in
wartime England compared to victims of crime?
a. Many people may not have directly experienced the horrors of death or direct attack during the wartime air
raids.
b. Social cohesion during wartime minimizes its traumatic impact.
c. Effective treatments for PTSD were made available immediately following the bombings.
d. Crime is perceived as more personal than war.
ANSWER: a
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73. The “alarm reactions” experienced in both post-traumatic stress disorder and panic disorders are very similar and
result in conditioned responses. However, which of the following describes the alarm in panic disorder?
a. It is more prolonged.
b. It is physically painful.
c. It is more intense.
d. It is false.
ANSWER: d

74. What is an important factor in determining whether an individual will develop post-traumatic stress disorder following
a traumatic event?
a. the individual’s gender
b. the individual’s age at time of the trauma
c. the number of relatives with psychological disorders
d. the extent of emotional support from family and friends
ANSWER: d

75. Which of the following symptoms often accompanies obsessive-compulsive disorder?

a. panic attacks
b. delusions
c. specific phobia
d. social anxiety disorder
ANSWER: a

76. What do we call actions, or sometimes thoughts, that an individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder uses to reduce
anxiety?
a. perseverative movements
b. conditioned responses
c. compulsions
d. obsessions
ANSWER: c

77. Compulsions can be behavioural in nature. What else could they be?
a. mental
b. emotional
c. positive
d. unconscious
ANSWER: a

78. What is the term for behaviours that people with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) perform because they believe
they will help their obsession, when in reality the behaviours have no effect?
a. imagined
b. superstitious
c. magical

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d. placebo
ANSWER: c

79. For months, Greg has been plagued by worries as he drives to work. He thinks he forgot to lock the door, close the
windows, or turn off the stove. Often, he returns home and double-checks the house before he can rid himself of these
worries. Which of the following describes Greg’s worries?
a. obsessive
b. impulsive
c. compulsive
d. magical
ANSWER: a

80. The obsession in tic-related OCD is almost always related to:

a. self-harm
b. cleaning
c. symmetry
d. unacceptable behaviour
ANSWER: c

81. With regard to the obsessions seen in patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, what does the term “need for
symmetry” refer to?
a. the need to put everything on one’s right and nothing on the left
b. the need to keep things in perfect order
c. the need to do something a number of different ways
d. the need to touch some things before others
ANSWER: b

82. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, certain types of obsessions lead to certain types of compulsions. Which of the
following matches an obsession and its consequent rituals?
a. symmetry: hoarding
b. sexual obsessions: checking
c. contamination: checking
d. aggression obsessions: hoarding
ANSWER: b

83. A woman was obsessed with the idea that if she did not eat in a consistent calculated way, some disaster would befall
her family. What is the symptom subtype of this aspect of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. checking thinking
b. forbidden thinking
c. contamination thinking
d. symmetrical thinking
ANSWER: d

84. A man who has obsessive-compulsive disorder was compelled to take very small steps as he walked and to look back
repeatedly. What was he trying to do?
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a. reduce the possibility of contamination
b. ward off an imagined disaster
c. make sure he didn’t make a mistake
d. restore a sense of safety and control
ANSWER: b

85. Ordinary people have occasional intrusive thoughts with bizarre, sexual, or aggressive content, but they would not be
considered to have obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). What is required for someone to be diagnosed with OCD?
a. The person must find the thoughts unacceptable or even dangerous, and experience panic symptoms at the
thought of carrying them out.
b. The person must find the thoughts unacceptable or even dangerous, and try to resist or eliminate them.
c. The person must find the thoughts unacceptable or even dangerous, and develop insomnia and nightmares.
d. The person must find the thoughts unacceptable or even dangerous, and seek help to eliminate them.
ANSWER: b

86. In which country have researchers found obsessive-compulsive behaviours to be most often related to religious
rituals?
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Ireland
c. Russia
d. Somalia
ANSWER: a

87. Brian, who has obsessive-compulsive disorder, holds fundamentalist religious beliefs. Which of the following
concerns is he most likely to present with?
a. nonequivalence of obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions
b. an attitude of inflated responsibility
c. both checking and hoarding rituals
d. a reduced sense of responsibility for his actions
ANSWER: b

88. What does the term “thought-action fusion” mean when used to describe the obsessional thinking pattern of persons
with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. using rituals to suppress or eliminate unacceptable or persistent thoughts
b. being unable to put one’s thoughts into action without severe anxiety
c. equating thoughts with the specific activity represented by the thoughts
d. behaving compulsively even when no obsession has been identified
ANSWER: c

89. A young child has thoughts about hating her younger brother and wishing he would die. She becomes very anxious
about these thoughts because she has developed the idea that if anything really happened to him, it would be her fault.
Which pattern of thinking is she exhibiting?
a. fundamental responsibility
b. intentional thought
c. neutralizing
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d. thought-action fusion
ANSWER: d

90. Tony has thoughts about hating his younger brother and wishing he would die. He becomes anxious about these
thoughts because he now thinks if anything really happened to his brother, it would be his fault. For no explainable
reason, Tony starts mentally counting by odd numbers each time he walks past his brother’s room and discovers that this
activity makes him less anxious. How would you describe Tony’s behaviour?
a. Tony is attempting to stop himself from actually hurting his brother.
b. Tony has a mental compulsion developed to neutralize his bad thoughts.
c. Tony has a phobia of going into his brother’s room because he is afraid his hatred will actually hurt him.
d. Tony has a compulsive ritual designed to make him like his brother more.
ANSWER: b

91. Some people with obsessive-compulsive disorder attempt to neutralize or suppress disturbing, intrusive thoughts. How
successful do these strategies tend to be?
a. These strategies usually cause other kinds of obsessive thinking to occur.
b. These strategies are usually effective in permanently reducing the obsessive thoughts.
c. These strategies usually increase the frequency of the obsessive thoughts.
d. These strategies usually have no effect on the obsessive thoughts.
ANSWER: c

92. What did Clark and Purdon’s research show had a link to obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. inflated responsibility and compulsive rituals
b. attempted thought suppression and obsessional thinking
c. attempted thought suppression and thought-action fusion
d. attempted thought suppression and compulsive rituals
ANSWER: b

93. According to one model of the etiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), what is necessary for an individual
to develop OCD?
a. both psychological vulnerability and social vulnerability
b. both biological vulnerability and social vulnerability
c. the presence of OCD in other family members
d. both biological vulnerability and psychological vulnerability
ANSWER: d

94. With regard to pharmacological treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder, the most effective drugs are those that
inhibit the reuptake of a certain neurotransmitter. What is this neurotransmitter?
a. dopamine
b. epinephrine
c. serotonin
d. noradrenaline
ANSWER: c

95. Drugs that inhibit the reuptake of serotonin have been found to be moderately effective in treating obsessive-
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compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following is a problem with using pharmacological treatments?
a. Relapse frequently occurs when the drug is discontinued.
b. The drugs have extreme side effects.
c. Many patients develop a physical dependency on the drugs.
d. There is a very high rate of noncompliance (not taking the drug) among patients with OCD.
ANSWER: a

96. In which behavioural treatment are patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder NOT permitted to carry out their
compulsions while in the presence of the anxiety-producing stimulus or situation?
a. behavioural inhibition conditioning
b. anxiety-reduction therapy
c. exposure and ritual prevention
d. thought-stopping technique
ANSWER: c

97. Which of the following treatments teaches the person with obsessive-compulsive disorder that no harm will result if
they do not perform the ritual?
a. hypnosis
b. exposure therapy
c. drug therapy
d. psychoanalytic therapy
ANSWER: b

98. When treating patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, how effective is combining exposure and ritual prevention
(ERP) with medication?
a. Combining the two is better than ERP alone.
b. Combining the two causes patients to discontinue treatment.
c. Combining the two is better than drug treatment alone.
d. Combining the two does not produce any additional therapeutic advantage.
ANSWER: d

99. Mr. Jones suffers from a severe case of obsessive-compulsive disorder. His symptoms have not responded to either
medication or psychological therapies. As a last resort, his therapist suggests the possibility of a psychosurgical procedure.
What is this procedure called?
a. cingulotomy
b. lobotomy
c. limbicotomy
d. temporal lesioning
ANSWER: a

100. The neurosurgical procedure called a cingulotomy is sometimes used to relieve severe symptoms of obsessive-
compulsive disorder (OCD). Why would a cingulotomy usually be considered only after drugs and psychological
treatments had failed?
a. because only about 30 percent of patients who undergo this procedure benefit substantially
b. because there is a high risk of mortality associated with this procedure
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c. because neuroscientists still aren’t sure whether the cingulate bundle is involved in OCD
d. because there are ethical concerns over the use of neurosurgery
ANSWER: a

101. Mark has a preoccupation with his hair. Although his hair has not changed at all, he is convinced that he has begun
going bald. He checks his hair frequently throughout the day and insists on wearing a hat at all times. Both his career and
his social life have been affected by his insisting on wearing a hat and avoid direct sunlight and wind. What disorder does
Mark MOST likely have?
a. agoraphobia
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. body dysmorphic disorder
d. somatic symptom disorder
ANSWER: c

102. Aileen has twelve pet cats and takes good care of them. All the cats healthy and receive regular vet care. Donna also
has twelve cats (and would happily accept more), but her cats live in unsanitary conditions and some are not very healthy.
If interviewed, what would likely be a distinct difference between Aileen and Donna?
a. Aileen would be more attached to her cats than Donna.
b. Aileen would identify with the caretaker role more than Donna.
c. Donna is more likely to attribute human characteristics to her cats than Aileen.
d. Donna is more likely to identify herself as a pet hoarder than Aileen.
ANSWER: c

103. Micah’s doctor notices that Micah has no eyelashes. The doctor questions Micah about this and Micah admits that he
sometimes has an irresistible urge to pull out his body hair. Micah’s doctor MOST likely suspects that Micah has:
a. somatic symptom disorder
b. trichotillomania
c. body dysmorphic disorder
d. excoriation disorder
ANSWER: b

104. Why is anxiety termed “a future-oriented mood state,” and fear an “alarm reaction to actual present danger”? Discuss
biological and psychological similarities and differences between these emotional events.
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

105. Discuss the genetic factors involved in anxiety disorders. Cite current research into the neurobiology of anxiety and
panic and the role of the CRF system and other brain circuits.
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

106. Define generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Compare and contrast GAD with phobic disorders, noting how
avoidance behaviour is manifested differently in each.
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

107. Discuss panic disorder, including symptoms and causes. Explain the concepts of biological vulnerability and
generalized psychological vulnerability and their contributions to the development of this disorder.
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.
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Chapter 5 - Anxiety, Trauma-Related, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders

108. Define agoraphobia and discuss fully how and why it develops. In your answer, include gender differences in the
development of this disorder and explain what is meant by interoceptive avoidance.
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

109. Identify and give illustrative examples of the five subtypes of specific phobia. Discuss the differences between
situational phobia and agoraphobia. Also discuss the differences between separation anxiety and school phobia. What are
the specific factors involved in the development of a phobia?
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

110. Define social phobia. Explain how social phobia differs from “normal” shyness. Using illustrative examples, describe
how social anxiety impairs functioning. What types of treatments are effective for social phobia?
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

111. Discuss the criteria for a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and distinguish it from acute stress
disorder. What is the significance of biological vulnerability in the development of PTSD? What is the best approach to
treating PTSD?
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

112. Compare and contrast obsessive-compulsive disorder with the other anxiety disorders. Define the terms “obsession”
and “compulsion” and give examples. Explain how they are related to each other (i.e., why and how compulsions often
develop after obsessional thinking develops).
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

113. Explain the treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) called exposure and ritual prevention. What types of
drugs are used to treat OCD, and how effective are these treatments?
ANSWER: Student responses will vary.

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