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v0 v cot θ
tanθ = t= 0 …(iii)
gt g
2
v 0 cot θ
x = v0 t =
g
2 2
1 2 1 v cot 2 θ v 0 cot 2 θ
y= gt = g × 0 2 =
2 2 g 2g
In ΔAOB,
h–y
tanθ = v0
x
x tanθ = h – y
y
2
v 0 cot θ 2 A h
(v0t) tanθ = h – v sinθ B
2g θ
v v cosθ
v cot θ v cot θ
2 2 θ
O
v 0 × 0 tan θ = h – 0 x
g 2g
2 2
v0 v cot 2 θ
=h – 0
g 2g
v0
2
2 + cot 2 θ
=h
g 2
2gh
v 02 =
2 + cot 2 θ
1/2
2gh
v0 = 2
2 + cot θ
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116 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2v 0 cot θ
t′ =
g
2 2gh
t′ = g 2
cot θ
2 + cot θ
2gh cot 2 θ
t′ = 2 2
g2
2 + cot θ
2h
t′ = 2
g (2 tan 2 θ + 1)
2h 1
t′ = 2
g (tan θ + sec 2 θ)
2
2h cos 2 θ
t′ = 2
g (1+ sin2 θ)
2
v 0 cot θ 2gh × cot θ
(c) x = v0t = =
g g ( 2 + cot 2 θ)
cos θ cos θ
2h 2h
sin θ = sin θ
=
cos 2 θ (2 sin 2 θ + cos 2 θ)
2+
sin 2 θ sin2 θ
2h cos θ sin θ 2h cos θ sin θ
= 2 2 2
=
(sin θ + sin θ + cos θ) 1+ sin 2 θ
h sin 2θ
x = 2
1+ sin θ
2
v 0 cot 2 θ 2gh cot 2 θ h cot 2 θ
y= = =
2g 2g (2 + cot 2 θ) (2 + cot 2 θ)
h cos 2 θ
2 2
h cot θ sin2 θ = h cos θ
y= =
(1+ 1+ cot 2 θ) 1+ 1 1+ sin2 θ
2
sin θ
2. Unit vector in the direction of motion will be a unit vector in the direction of tangent to the path
y = x 3 – 9x 2
dy
⇒ = 3x 2 – 18x
dx
⇒ tanθ = 3x 2 – 18 x
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 117
3 x 2 – 18 x y
⇒ sinθ = tangent
2 2
1+ (3 x – 18 x ) motion
1 Path
cosθ = (x, y)
1+ (3 x – 18 x )2
2
θ
Unit vector is cos θ iˆ + sin θ ˆj x
1 3 x 2 – 18 x
⇒ â = iˆ + ˆj
1+ (3 x 2 – 18 x )2 1+ (3 x 2 – 18 x )2
3. The distance AC is moved in time t1 with uniform acceleration f and CD with constant velocity v (which will
be the maximum velocity) in time t2 and DB is travelled with constant retardation f ′ in time t3
Let the total distance AB = S
For AC ; s 1 1 s
m (
s 1– m – n ) n
s 1 A ( f, t1) C constant D (f ′, t 3) B
A = v . t1 velocity
m 2
2s
∴ = vt1 …(i)
m
s 1
For BD ; = v .t3
n 2
2s
⇒ = vt 3 …(ii)
n
s s
CD ; s – – = vt 2
m n
1 1
∴ s 1– – = vt 2 …(iii)
m n
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
1 1
s 1+ + = v (t1 + t 2 + t 3 )
m n
v v 1 1
⇒ = max = 1+ +
s v average m n
( t1 + t 2 + t 3 )
4. (a) a = α – βx
dv
= α – βx
dt a (amax) = α
dv dx
⇒ × = α – βx
dx dt
vdv = (α – βx )dx x= α
β
x
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118 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
v2 βx 2
= αx – +c
2 2
where c is integration constant at x = 0, c = 0
⇒ v2 = (2α – βx)x
⇒ v= ( 2α – β x) x
α
where velocity will be maximum acceleration will be zero. From the graph at x = , acceleration will be
β
zero
α α2
∴ vmax = 2α × – β× 2
β β
2α 2 α 2 α
= – =
β β β
(b) The two stations are marked by zero velocity.
2α
Put v = 0, we get x = 0, x = .
β
2α
So distance is .
β
α
(c) As shown in part A, velocity becomes maximum, when x = .
β
5. Here x is the separation between centre of hemisphere and the end of rod. Rate of change of x can be taken
as the relative velocity of end of rod and hemisphere centre i.e., (v1 + v2). We are required to find the rate of
change θ and rate of change x. Thus
x = R cosecθ
dx dθ dx R
= –R cosecθ cotθ ; = v1 + v 2 v1 v2
dt dt dt θ
x
dθ (v + v ) sin 2 θ
or =– 1 2
dt R cos θ
6. Let v be the velocity of A relative to B making an angle θ with AB and it is the velocity of A reversed velocity
of B.
∴ v cosθ = u cosα
u sin θ – v
v sinθ = u sinθ – v ∴ tanθ =
u cos α
c
Now = sin θ = sin β (given)
a u
∴ θ=β v
α v
sin β u sin α – v A θ
∴ =
cos β u cos α B
v
v cosβ = u(sinα cosβ – cosα sinβ)
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 119
v cos β
∴ u=
sin( α – β)
Pitch 1 mm
7. Least count = = = 0.01 mm
CSD 100
8.
a8 + a2
a0 =
2
2T
T
a8 2T a0
8 T
a2 2
4T
4 kg a4
By constraint relation,
a0 a8 + a2
a4 = =
2 4
Also, 8g – T = 8a8
2g – T = 2a2
4T – 4g = 4a4. The answers have been rounded off
9. By constraint, ar = a4 + A …(1) a4
T T
For 4 kg block, 4 kg
T
T = 4 × a4 …(2)
N, 2A sin53 T
T
For wedge T – T cos 53° + N sin 53° = 6A …(3) ar
2A
g
A
2k
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120 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2a ar
2g sin 37°
2g cos 37°
11. Tcosα = μN
and Tsinα + N = mg N
μ
But μ = tanλ ∴ sinλ =
1+ μ 2
μ mg
∴ Tmin =
1+ μ 2
α = λ = tan–1(μ)
12. (i) For translational equilibrium
∑FX = 0 and ∑FY = 0
For ∑FX = 0 we have
R2 μ R2
mg R1 + R2 (cos θ + μ sin θ)
R 2 sin θ = μ(R1 + R2 cos θ)
mg sin θ(1– μ 2 )
or R2 = …(iii)
μ
OP r
Now, OP = AP tanθ or AP = =
tan θ tan θ
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 121
mg cos θ
R2 AP =
2
mg 2 AP
R 2 = cos θ …(iv)
sin θ (1– μ 2 ) 2 AP
=
μ cos θ
sin θ (1– μ 2 ) 2r
=
μ sin θ
2r sin 2 θ(1– μ 2 )
=
μ
(ii) x = , θ = 30°, then
2
2×
2 = sin 2 (30°) 1– μ
2
μ
1 1– μ 2
1=
4 μ
4μ = 1 – μ2
μ2 + 4μ – 1 = 0
– 4 ± 16 + 4
μ=
2
– 4 ± 20
μ=
2
PS = 2r S
θ
P Q P O′
2 3 2r
PO′ = 3 × 2 ( 2r ) =
3
Q
2r
cos θ = PO ′ =
3
= 1
PS 2r 3
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122 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
⇒ 3 R sin θ = W θ
R cosθ
W W 3 W
⇒ R = 3 sin θ = =
3 2 6
R cosθ
mg
Now considering the equilibrium of sphere with centre R.
T
R cos θ = 2 T cos 30º
R cos θ = W × 1 = 0.136 W
T= 30°
3 18 3 R cosθ
30°
Given W = 100 N
T = 13.6 N
T
ˆ ˆ
14. Let v be the velocity of wedge and v x i + v y j is the velocity of ball after collision
vy
37°I y
v vx
I sin37° 5 m/s
x
37°
37°
I cos37º
1500
Solving, we get I= kg m/s.
67
m m
× v = × nu + mv …(1)
2 2
1 m 2 1m 1 1
By conservation of energy, (u ) = ( nu ) 2 + mv 2 + kx 2 …(2)
2 2 2 2 2 2
2
m (1+ 2n – 3n )
Substituting the value of v from (i), we get x = u
k 4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 123
16. This is a case of perfectly inelastic collision.
1 mM
The loss of kinetic energy is (u – 0) 2
2 m + M
1 mM 2
⇒ F×x= u
2 M + m
1 mM u 2
⇒ F=
2 M + m x
17. The potential energy lost by the chain = gain in kinetic energy
m 2R M πR
Ui = g× × g –
2 π 2 4
R πR
= mg –
πR
π 8
/2
CM
πR
Uf = – mg 2R/π
2
Datum
Ui + 0 = Uf + mv 2
1
2 πR/2 π/R
1 R πR πR
mv 2 = mg – + mg
2 π 8 2
1 R πR πR
mv 2 = mg – +
2 π 8 2
8 – π 2 + 4π 2
v = 2gR
8π
gR
v= [8 + 3 π 2 ]
4π
18. We can use the principle of superposition where we consider the spherical cavity as a sphere of negative mass.
We denote the position vector of a point inside the cavity as r ′ and the position vector as measured from
the solid sphere’s centre O as r .
M0 b
R
O
R0
r r′
F = F0 − F1 …(1)
O′
O R
Where F0 is the force of the solid sphere and F1 is the force of the cavity (which is filled with negative mass)
GM (r )m
F0 = ( −rˆ ) …(2)
r2
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124 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
Where M(r) is the mass upto radius r. Note that this is the only mass which can affect ‘m’ positioned at r.
The mass density is uniform.
M0
Thus ρ=
4 3
πR0
3
3
4 3 M0 r
Therefore M(r) = 3 πr 4π = M 0
R0
R03
3
GM 0 m GM 0 m
F0 = − r rˆ = − r
R03 R03
GM 0 m
Now F = F0 − F1 = − (r − r ′ )
R03
Since R = n − r ′
GM 0 m
F = – R
R03
mv 2
T – mg cosθ =
r
Where r = length of the string. From the principle of conservation of energy,
total energy at any point B = total energy at the highest point C when (θ = θ0 )
1
mv 2 + mgr (1– cos θ) = a constant
2 θ0
θ C
= mgr(1 – cosθ0)
or mv 2 = 2 mgr(cosθ – cosθ0 )
v B
mv 2 A
or = 2mg (cos θ – cos θ0 ) mg
mg cosθ
r mg sinθ
∴ T = mg cosθ + 2mg cosθ – 2mg cosθ0
= 3mg cosθ – 2mg cosθ0
Obviously T is maximum when cosθ is maximum.
But maximum value of cosθ is 1
Hence T is maximum when cosθ = 1 or θ = 0°
θ 0 2
and Tm = 3mg – 2mg cosθ0 = mg 3 – 21–
2
θ2 θ 4
expansion of cosθ is cosθ = 1– + +…
2! 4 !
∴ Tm = mg[3 – 2 + θ02 ] = mg(1 + θ02 )
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 125
20. The C.M of cylinder moves up when f > mg sinθ or μmg cosθ > mg sinθ or μ > tanθ
Torque about cm τ = fR
2fR 2μg cos θ
α= 2
=
mR R
Angular speed of cylinder at time t is
2μgt cos θ
ω = ω0 − αt = ω0 −
R
f − mg sin θ
acm = = μg cos θ − g sin θ
m
v = at = (μ cosθ–sinθ)gt
ω0 R
for pure rolling, v = ωR ⇒ t =
g (3μ cos θ − sin θ)
21. Torque about pivot
L
m2 g sin θ + m1g (L + r ) sin θ = Iα
2
m2L
2 + m1 (L + r ) g sin θ
α=
2 2
m2L mr
+ 1 + m1 (L + r )2
3 2
2R
22. At equilibrium position, CM lies beneath O and CD = as shown
π
CD O
then tan α =
OC
α
2R
tan α =
πR C R
2R
2 −1 2 D π
tan α = or α = tan
π π
I
T = 2π
Mgd
2 2
mR 2 2R 2R
− m + m
T = 2π
2 π π sin α
2g
mg
π sin α
1
23. Kt = mv 2
2
1 2 1
KR = Iω =mv 2 ( v = rω)
2 5 R
7
K = kt + KR = mv 2
10
Kt 5 KR 2
= and =
K 7 K 7
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126 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
mv 2 7
Now, N = mg + . Also, mv 2 = mg (R − r ) (By energy conservation)
R −r 10
17
N= mg
7
A
MgL sin θ
24. (a) = Iα
2
45º
2
MgL sin θ ML dω
=
2 3 dt
3g
α = (when θ = 45°) mg
2L 2
π/4 ω
3g
(b)
2L
0
sin θ . dθ = ωd ω
0
3g 1
ω= 1 −
L 2 y
25. According to the superposition principle Me x
R/2 m
F0 = F1 + F R
Where
F0 is the force exerted on m due to the solid sphere of radius R and mass M0
F1 is the force exerted on m due to the sphere of radius R/2 and negative mass M1
F is the force exerted on m due to the solid sphere of radius R in which the cavity of radius R/2 was
made.
Thus
F = F0 – F1
−GM 0 m
F0 =
L2
−GM1m
F1 = 2
R
L −
2
3
4π R M
M1 = ρ= 0
3 2 8
−GM 0 m
F1 = 2
R
8 L −
2
− GM 0 m 1
F = 2 1 − 2
L R
81 − 2L
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 127
1 2 1
26. Initial energy E1 = mv 0 + Iω2 + mgR
2 2 N
3 2
E1 = mv 0 + mgR α
4
mg
1 1
E 2 = mv 2 + Iω′2 + mgR cos α
2 2
3 2
E 2 = mv + mgR cos α
4
From energy conservation,
4
mv 2 = mv 0 2 + mgR (1 − cos α )
3
7Rg cos α 4 7 3 4
∴ v0 ≤ − gR ⇒ V0 ≤ − gR
3 3 6 3
2GM r2
⇒ v1 =
(r1 + r2 ) r1
GMm 1 2
Total energy is TE = – + mv1
r1 2
GMm GMm r2
= – +
r1 (r1 + r2 ) r1
GMm GMm
= – =–
(r1 + r2 ) 2a
28. In equilibrium
Mg + 2πrT1 = ρg(V + Ah1 ) …(i)
T1 is surface tension of water
ρ is density of liquid
V is volume of the non-cylindrical tube
A is area of aerometer tube
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128 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2πr (T1 – T2 )
Δh = h1 – h2 =
ρgπr 2
2(0.073 – 0.02)
= = 2.35 ×10 – 3 m
10 3 ×10( 4.5 ×10 – 3 )
1
29. Weight of mercury displaced when one-third of the volume is submerged = Vρ m
3
1 ρ
Then Vρg = Vρ m ρ = m
3 3
1
ρ m = xρ m + (1– x )ρw
3
1 ρ ρm
– x m = 1– x = 13.6
3 ρw ρ
w
1
– x ×13.6 = 1– x
3
∴ x = 0.25
30. Consider an elementary strip of thickness dr at a distance r from point O (centre)
dm = mass of elementary strip
M dr
= × 2πr 2 dr
2 3 r
πR
3 O
3M
= r 2dr
R3
Gdm
Let the potential at O due to this strip dr is dV =
r
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 129
G3M 2 3GM
= r dr = rdr
R3 × r R3
R
3GMm
Thus the potential energy =
R3 rdr
0
R
3GMm r 2
=
R 3 2 0
3 GMm
=
2 R
3 GMm
0– =W
2 R
3 GMm
W = −
2 R
K
31. ω = 10 =
M
⇒ K = 100 N/m
Now for collision –60 + 30 = – v1 – v2 conservation of momentum.
Coefficient of Restitution equation gives
−V1 + V2
1= , v = –60 cm/s
− 90
∴ Vmax = Aω ⇒ New amplitude = A cm
⇒ A′ = 6 cm
∴ Equation of SHM is
x = 10 + 6sin(10t + π)
32. Total energy of SHM is constant
E = kT + kR + U M k
R
1 1 1
E= mv 2 + Iω2 + kx 2
2 2 2
1 1 v2 1
E= mv 2 + I 2 + kx 2
2 2 R 2
dE dv Iv dv dx
= 0 ⇒ 0 = vm + + kx
dt dt R 2 dt dt
I
m + 2 a = −kx
R
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130 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
−k
a= x
I
m+
R2
I
k m+
ω= ⇒ T = 2π R2
I k
m+
R2
7m 3m
Tsphere = Tcylinder =
5k 2k
2m
TRing =
k
7 3 2
Ratio is : :
5 2 1
33. Let the centre be displaced by a distance x A k2
Total energy in displaced position is k1 C
1 1 1 1
E= k1x 2 + K 2 4 x 2 + mv 2 + Iω2
2 2 2 2
dE 7
= 0 ∴ 0 = k1xv + 4k2xv + mv 2a
dt 10
7m
a = −( k1 + 4k 2 ) x
5
5
a = −(k1 + 4k 2 ) x
7m
5(k1 + 4k 2 ) 5 × 90
ω= =
7m 7×2
15
ω= rad/s
7
2π 7
T = s
15
34. At equilibrim
MBgR sinθ = MAgR
1
sin θ =
2
θ
π mAg
θ=
6
Now for small displacement mBg
MR 2
2 2
MAgR – MBgR sin(θ + dθ) = 2 + M A R + M B R ) α
Putting values and cos dθ = 1 and sin dθ = dθ
α = −2 3 d θ
1
ω = (12) 4 s −1
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 131
35. Displacement of wave w.r.t. moving frame is
x ′ = x + vt
So equation of wave in moving frame is
y = A sin (ωt – k(x′–vt)
∴ y = A sin[( ω + kv ) t – kx ′]
Speed of wave in moving frame is
ω
v′ = v +
k
36. v = f λ
γRT f 2λ2M
f λ = =γ=
M RT
λ
= 9.57 × 10–2, f = 1000,
2
R = 8.31 J/mol/K
T = 400 K
Putting the value, we get atomicity 1.4
37. Let the waves emitted by the source after to seconds from the start reach the observer at t = 9s.
At this instant to, source moves with vs = 3t1
When the receiver receives the waves, the velocity is VR = dt = 18 m/s
Now,
1 1
330(a – t1) = × 3t12 + ( 2 × 9 ) 2 start
3 2 1 2 1 2
× 3t1 ×2×9
⇒ t1 = 8.435 3 2
V − VR
∴ f ′ = f
V + VS
330 − 18
f ′ = 1000 = 878.156 Hz
330 + 25 − 29
38. Effective length = l + 0.6r = [16 + 0.3 × 5] = 12.5 cm
v
f = ⇒ v = f × 4L′
4L
17.5
v = 480 × 4 = 336 m/s
100
39. F.B.D. for Block
F N F
α
h
x
mg
A f
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132 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
F = mg sinα + f
F = mg sinα + μN [N = mg cosα]
F = mg sinα + μmg cosα
F = mg sinα + tanα mg cosα [as μ = tanα]
F = mg sinα + mg sinα
F = 2mg sinα
dw = F ⋅ d r
W= dw = F . dr
dr
F . d r = 2mg sinα . dr dy
h h α
W = 2mg sin α dr
0
= 2mg dy dr sinα = dy dx
0
W = 2mgh
40. Let us assume that friction on 4 kg block is sufficient to resist relative slipping.
μ = 0.3
N N F
4 kg
A B f
3 kg 5 kg 4 kg F 3 kg
F f
N1 10 N N2 F = 15 N
Smooth μ = 0.2
40 N 30 N 50 N
Maximum friction possible between 4 kg and 3 kg blocks
f1 = 0.3 × 40 = 12 N
Maximum possible friction between horizontal surface and 5 kg block
f2 = 0.5 × 50 = 10 N
For causing relative slipping for 5 kg block friction required on 3 kg block will be
f = 10 N < f1 (12 N)
Hence, friction between 4 kg and 3 kg block is not sufficient to prevent relative slipping.
Consider equilibrium of 4 kg block
F = f = 10 N
Hence relative slipping will occur between 3 kg and 4 kg blocks and actual acceleration will be given as
For 3 kg and 5 kg blocks
12 – 10 = 8a
⇒ a = 0.25 m/s2
and for 4 kg block
15 – 12 = 4a ′
3
⇒ a′ = m/s 2
4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 133
41. When the developed frictional force (fr ), between both the blocks is ≤ (f s )max both the blocks will move with
the same acceleration.
F.B.D. for 2kg block F.B.D. for 4kg block
N1 N2
2 kg N1
0.5 t
4 kg 0.5 t
fr fr
2g = 20 4g = 40
(fs ) max = μN1
= 0.1 × 20 = 2N
Thus for 2 kg block
0.5t – 2 = 2a ... (i)
For 4 kg block
fr = 4a ... (ii)
2 = 4a
1
a = m/s 2
2
1
Hence 0.5t – 2 = 2 ×
2
0.5t = 3
t=6s
When t ≤ 6 both the blocks will move simultaneously. Therefore they are considered as a single system of
mass 6 kg. Hence
0.5t 0.5t = 6a
6 kg t
a = 12 m/s
a
For t > 6 the block will separately move i.e. their accelerations will be different and as the time increase the
applied force will increase but friction remains constant and the velocity of 2 kg block increases where as
the acceleration of 4 kg block remains constant
For 2 kg block
⇒ 0.5t – 2 = 2a
0.5t
a = – 1
2 1.5
The area of acceleration versus time graph will represent the change in velocity 0.5
1 1
= × 6 × 0.5 + × 4 × (1.5 + 0.5)
2 2
0 6 10 t
= 1.5 + 4 = 5.5 m/s (s)
The velocity of 2 kg block at t = 10 s will be 5.5 m/s.
42. For net force to be zero
2 kg
kx = 20
x = 0.2 m
2v 2 2v 2 1 2
0 + 0 + 20 × 0.2 = + + kx
2 2 2 2 kg
v = 1 m/s P.E = 0
x
P.E = 0
Now the block lying on the horizontal surface will move will same velocity.
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134 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1 1
20 × x + × 2 × (1)2 = × 100 × x 2
2 2
50x2 – 20x – 1 = 0
20 ± 400 + 200
x =
100
20 ± 600 20 ± 10 6
x = =
100 100
x = 0.2 ± 0.1 6
∴ as x > 0
x = 0.2 + 0.1 6 = 0.45
x = 0.45 m
So, maximum campression is 0.45 m.
F = 20t
43.
20t = 2T
T = 10t
T T
T = 30 N = 10t or t = 3 s
For 2 ≤ t ≤ 3
equation of motion for 2 kg block
2dv
10t − 20 =
dt
v t t
5t 2
0
dv = (5t − 10)dt =
2 2
− 10t
2
5t 2
⇒ v = − 10t − (10 − 20)
2
5t 2
− 10t + 10
2
V(3) = 2.5 m/s
but
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 135
y 3
5t 2
0
dy =
2
2
− 10t + 10 dt
5
or y= m
6
(2 × 2.5 + 3 × 0)
Vc· m (at t = 3 s) = = 1 m/s
5
5
2 × + 3 × 0
6 =1m
y0 (at t = 3 s) =
5 3
Now considering the common system as a single system equation of motion for the complete system
v t
5dv
20t − 50 =
dt
1
dv = ( 4t − 10 )dt
3
or (v – 1) = 2t 2 + 12 – 10t
or v = 2t 2 – 10t + 13
or v(5) = 13 m/s
dy
but v =
dt
y 5
Y
dy = (2t 2 − 10t + 13)dt y (5) = 11.67 m
1/ 3 3 m 2m
44. Initial position of COM
X
L0
mx0 + 2mL0 2L0 x=0
x0 = =
3m 3
F
(a x )cm =
3m
(v x )cm = 0
xcm at t = t0 is
Ft02
L0 + 2 x2 = 2L0 +
2m
1 Ft 2
⇒ x2 = L0 + 0
2 2m
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136 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
45. There will be two contacts with the block one is with the floor and other is with the wall of the cylinder.
Therefore two normal contacts forces act on the block
Ny
ω
R Nx
R N
Y
fr X
mg
Z
μN
Top view
Nx provide necessary centripetal force and Ny balance its weight. Block will rotate about the axis of cylin-
der. Due to friction with the wall the velocity of block decrease gradually and hence angular velocity reduces.
mv 2
Fx = N x = ... (i)
R
Fy = N y = mg ... (ii)
Fz = fr = μN x = – ma ... (iii)
– μmv 2 mdv ds
from equation (iii) = ×
R ds dt
– μv 2 dv
= v
R ds
– μv dv
=
R ds
V S
dv μ
V0
v
= –
R
ds
0
v μs
ln = –
v0 R
– μs
or v = v 0 e R
mv 2
P = – fr ⋅ v = – μ v = – μm v 3
R R
μm 3 –3μs R
P = – v0 e
R
1 2 1W 2
46. (a) (K.E.)1 = 0 and (K.E.)2 = mv 2 = v
2 2 g 2
K.E.1 + U1 → 2 = (K.E.)2
1W 2
0 + 40 W = v
2 g 2
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 137
–W + N = man
N
W v 22
–W + N = ×
g ρ
W v2
N= +W
g ρ
v2
= W + 1
ρg
80 g
= W + 1
ρg
= W(4 + 1) = 5 W
N = 5 × 2000 = 10,000 N
1W 2
(b) 0 + W × 25 m = v
2 g 3
v32 = 50 g = 50 × 10 = 500
v3 = 22.36 m/s
∑Fn = man W
W v 32 =
W =
g ρ
man
N=0
W 50 g
W = ×
g ρ
ρ = 50 m
47. (a) ax = 0
T
T – W = m ay acord
T −W
ay =
m ay
A G ax
α
180 − 147.9
ay = = 2.19 m/s 2
15 W
1 2
(b) − Tr = Iα −Tr = mr α
2
2T 2 × 180
α=− =− = −48.0 rad/sec 2
mr 15 × 0.5
α = 48 .0 rad/sec 2 (clockwise)
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138 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
(c) a cord = (a A ) T = a + (a A, G )t
Ma
f 2
=
N (Mg cos θ)
g
sin θ
3
= = tan θ
g cos θ
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 139
1
Cylinder will slip instead of rolling if tan θ ≥ μ
3
−1
f 1 + Mr 2
Thus in general, this relation becomes = tan θ ≥μ
N I
cm
49. Mv0 = Fdt ...(i)
2
or MR 2 ω0 = hv 0 M ...(iii)
5
5 hv
ω0 = 20 ...(iv)
2 R
v = v0 – ft ...(v)
MfR
ω = ω0 + t ...(vi)
I
9v 0
v = Rω = ...(vii)
7
5 (v − v )
or ω = ω0 + 0 ...(viii)
2 R
Substituting the values ω and ω0 from equation (vi) and equation (iv) and equation (vii) in equation (viii) we
4R
obtained that h = .
5
mv 2 1 2
mgnR = + Iω + mgR
2 2
v
As these is no slipping ω = using the value I = 2 mR 2 .
R 5
We obtained,
mv 2 mv 2 7
mgnR = + + mgR = mv 2 + mgR
2 5 10
1
10gR (n − 1) 2
or v=
7
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140 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
mμgR μg
51. (a) a = μg , α = =2
mR
2 R
2
2μgt Rω0
The final velocity v = Rω. Also v = at = μgt = R ω0 − or 3μgt = Rω0 i.e., t =
R 3μg
(b) The acceleration of the wheel = μg.
μ g
52. (a) dv = 2bt . Therefore f = 2mbt = μsmg which yields t = s . This is the time for slipping
dt (2b )
Fh
(b) We have R = mg. The torque equation is = Rx = mgx .
2
But F = 2mbt
The time required for tipping is obtained when x = r (radius of cylinder). R
h
Thus m( 2bt ) = mgr
2
gr x
t = . h
bh mg
3 sin θ
53. mgr sin θ = mr 2 α or α = 2g r F
2
(3 r )
= R + r θ
Therefore α = β ...(i)
r
2g sin θ R + r β
= θ f
3r r p
Multipying equation (i) by θ and integrating, we obtain N
mg
θ
2g sin θ (1 − cos θ)
θ2 = 2 [3(R + r )] dθ = 4g [3(R + r )]
0
mR 2 RT 2g
ICM = . Then α = =
2 I R
Let the final angular velocity be ω. The work done is equal to the change in the kinetic energy i.e.,
ICM ω2 mR 2 ω2
W = =
2 4
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 141
(b) Also, as ω0 = 0, we have ω2 = ω02 + 2αθ, which gives
4gθ ω2 R
ω2 = 2αθ = or θ =
R 4g
θ ω2R
Now the number of windings of the string is n = =
2π (8πg )
ω2 R 2
Thus the length of the string unwound is l = n( 2πR ) =
4g
1 1
0+ mgL = mgL(1 − cos θ) + mv 2
2 2
mv 2
T − mg cos θ = maR = aR
L
T v
v 0 = gL
aT
mgsinθ
Since T = mg mgcosθ
2 mg
mgL(1 − cos θ) = mv
P.E.=0
1 mv 2
mgL = mv 2 +
2 2
gL mg
v = and mg (1 − cos θ) =
3 3
2 VL g
cos θ = aR = =
3 L 3
mgsinθ = maT
5
sin θ =
3
5g
aT =
3
Fnet = manet
1
g 2 5g 2 2
= m +
9 9
2g 2 2
=m = mg
3 3
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142 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
56. The angular momentum of the cylinder about the origin will not change at any time. Since net torque about 0
is zero. ∴ Initial angular momentum
mR 2 mR 2
L0 = ω0 + 0 = ω0
2 2
2h
57. Error in weighing is mΔg = m g 1 – – g
R
2mgh 2mh GM 8 4 3
The magnitude of error is = × 2 = πρmhG m = 3 π R ρ
R R R 3
λ λ 4L
58. (a) + =L λ=
4 2 3
Y
2π 3 π Pressure node
k= = Pressure
λ 2L anti node A X
N N
P = Pmsin(kx + δ1) cos (ωt + δ2)
L
3π X=0
P = Pm sin x + δ1 cos( 2πνt + δ 2 )
2L
3π
O = Pm sin + δ1 cos( 2πνt + δ 2 )
2
y
3π
sin + δ1 = 0
2
3π x
+ δ1 = 2π
2
π L
δ1 =
2
x=0
3πx
P = Pm cos cos( 2πv + δ 2 )
2L
Pm
At t = 0, x = 0, P = (pressure antinode)
2
Pm
= Pm cos 0º cos δ 2
2
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 143
1
cos δ 2 =
2
π
δ2 =
3
3π π
P = Pm cos x cos 2πνt +
2L 3
L
(b) At x =
2
3π 1
Pressure amplitude = Pm cos .
2L 2
Pm
=−
2
Pm
Hence amplitude =
2
dv d(i) v
59. (a) a =
dt v0
v t
dv dv
− kv =
dt
v0
v
= −k dt
0
O
v v t
ln = −kt = e − kt
v0 v0
v = v 0e −kt
dx
(b) v =
dt
dx d(ii)
v 0 e – kt = x
dt v0
x t k
0
dx = v 0 e – kt dt
0
O
x=–
k
e [ ]
v 0 – kt t
0
t
v 0 – kt
x=– (e – 1)
k
v0
x= (1 – e – kt )
k
d(iii) v
dv
(c) – kv = v v0
dx
v x
dv = – k dx
v0 0
O v0 x
v – v0 = –kx k
v = v0 – kx
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144 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
60. N – W = 0
Fk = μkN = μkmg
–μkmg = ma
W
a = –μkg
f
N
Fr = Iα
2
(μ k mg )r = mr 2 α
5
5 μk g
α=
2 r
v = v0 + at = v0 – μkgt …(1)
5 μk g
ω = ω0 + αt = 0 + t …(2)
2 r
The sphere will start rolling without sliding when the velocity vc of the point of contact c is zero. At that time
t = t1, point c becomes instantaneous centre of rotation and we have
v1 = rω1 …(3)
Substituting in eqn. (3) the values of v1 and ω1 by making t = t1 in eqn. (1) and (2) respectively we write
5 μk g
v 0 – μ k gt1 = r t1
2 r
2 v0
⇒ t1 = 7 μ g
k ω1
v1
Substituting t1 into (2) we have G
C
5 μk g
ω1 = t
2 r 1
5 μk g 2 v 0
=
2 r 7 μk g
5 v0
ω1 = =5
7 r
5 v0 5
v 1 = rω1 = = v0
7 r 7
61.
A
GmBvB
G
msvs
B
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 145
Moments about A :
Since the rod rotates about A, we have v ′R = rω′ = (0.6) ω′. Also
1 1
I= mL2 = × (8 kg) × (1.2 m)2 = 3.84 kg·m2
3 3
Relative velocities
T1 T2
62.
r
Iα
W
mg.r – T2 (2r) = mar + Iα …(1)
T2 = T0 + kS
1
When the cylinder is in its position of equilibrium, the tension in the cord is T0 = W
2
1 1
or T2 = W + Ks = W + K (2r θ) …(2)
2 2
1 1 2
Thus mg – mg + 2kr θ (2r ) = m(r θ)r + mr θ
2 2
d 2θ 8 k
2
+ θ=0
dt 3m
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146 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
8 k
ω2 =
3m
8k
ω=
3m
2π 3m
T = T = 2π
ω 8 k
ω 1 8k
f = f =
2π 2π 3m
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