Professional Documents
Culture Documents
GP 2
GP 2
1. A 38-year-old man presents with acute infection of skin in the leg. Diagnosis of cellulitis has been made.
What should be prescribed?
Ceftriaxone + Flucloxacillin
Vancomycin + Metronidazole
Metronidazole + Erythromycin
Ceftriaxone + Terbinafine
Penicillin + Flucloxacillin
Explanation:
Penicillin + Flucloxacillin. Cellulitis is usually caused by bacteria, such as staphylococci or streptoc are commonly present
on the skin. So Penicillin + Flucloxacillin should be given
2. A 28-year-old man presents with a 2 hours’ history of rapid palpitations. He feels a little light headed but is other
exam: pulse=170 bpm and regular, BP=100/68 mmHg. He has had 2 similar episodes in the past.
What is the most disturbance?
SVT
VF
A-fibrillation
VT
Ventricular-ectopic
Explanation:
Palpitation, light headedness with a tachycardia of 170 bpm that is regular are most likely a SVT.
3. A 29-year-old lady who is a bank manager is referred by the GP to the medical OPC due to a long history of tin in the
joints. An autoimmune screen result showed smooth muscle antibodies positive.
What is the most appropriate investigation?
Jejunal biopsy
Thyroid function test
Liver function test
Serum glucose
ECG
Explanation:
Autoimmune hepatitis. Definitive investigation is liver biopsy Steroid [start with high dose prednisolone]. Azathioprine is
commonly added with steroid to reduce its dose as more side effects than azathioprine.
1|Page
4. A 65-year-old man presents with significant weight loss and complains of cough, SOB and chest pain. Exam
constricted, drooping of left eyelid.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Cervical rib
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Pancoast tumor
Pneumonia
Explanation:
Pancoast tumor. Pancoast tumour is the apical lung cancer that is associated with destructive lesion thoracic inlet and
involvement of the brachial plexus and cervical sympathetic nerves (the stellate ganglion) le horner’s syndrome.
5. A 26-year-old political refugee has sought asylum in the UK and complains of poor concentration. He keeps his family
whom he saw killed in a political coup. He is unable to sleep and feels hopeless about his survival. But he is afraid to go
out.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
PTSD
Acute stress disorder
OCD
Social phobia
GAD
Explanation:
PTSD. Keep getting thoughts of his family disaster, insomnia, to avoid similar circumstances he is out these are
suggestive of PTSD.
6. Victim of RTA came with multiple injuries to abdomen, chest and limbs. BP is 80/ 50. upper limb has upper third near
amputation that bleeds profusely, what is your first thing to do:
Tourniquet the limb to stop the bleeding
Check the airway and breathing
Five IV fluid
Call orthopedic
Explanation:
As rule ABC also in description near amputation so difficult to make tourniquet enough which stops bleeding.
2|Page
7. lady presents with hot flashes and other symptoms of menopause.
What is the treatment option?
Topical estrogen
Conbined Oral Contraceptive
Biosphosphonate
Raloxifen
Hormone Replacement Therapy
8. 40-year-old manual worker presents with a swelling in the groin. Exam: mass is found to be just above and l pubic
tubercle. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse seen.
What probable diagnosis?
Direct inguinal hernia
Indirect inguinal hernia
Femoral hernia
Femoral aneurysm
Strangulated hernia
Explanation:
Indirect inguinal hernia. [Swelling in the groin; mass just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle mea hernia. It is
reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse; it means the hernia through deep ring,
and enters scrotum passing through the Superficial ring. That means it is indirect inguinal hernia.
9. During a basketball match, one of the players suddenly collapsed to the ground with coughing and SOB.
What choice?
V/Q
CTPA
MRI
CT scan
CXR
Explanation:
CXR. Likely diagnosis is pneumothorax. So investigation of choice is CXR
10. A 27-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. He says his urine is dark. Exam: BP=160/105mmHg.
What is investigation?
3|Page
Urine microscopy
Renal biopsy
Urine protein
US
CT
Explanation:
US. Abdominal pain, Dark urine (hematuria and hypertension suggests ADPKD. The sensitivity of ult ADPKD1 is 99% for
at-risk patients older than 20 years.
11. A 70-year-old man with prostatic cancer has had severe acute back pain waking him up at night for 6wks.
12. A 62-year-old man diagnosed with T2DM with BMI=33. Lifestyle modifications have failed to control blood. Labs:
urea=3.6mmol/l, creatinine=89mmol/l.
4|Page
13. A 65-year-old man presents with significant weight loss and complains of cough, SOB and chest pain. Exam
constricted, drooping of left eyelid.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pancoast tumor
Cervical rib
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Pneumonia
Question was not answered
5|Page
15. A 2-year-old baby with atrophy of the buttocks, distended abdomen with frequent offensive smelly stool.
What is the most likely investigation?
Upper GI endoscopy
Colonoscopy
Stool culture
Sweat test
Endomysium/alpha gliadin antibody
Explanation:
Endomysium/alphagliadin antibody. Atrophy of buttock due to fat malabsorption and distended abdo (sometimes with
everted umbilicus) with frequent offensive smelly stools are seen in coeliac disease. Hence gliadin antibody should be
done.
16. A 57-year-old man having hypertension on oral anti-HTN. However, he is finding it difficult to mobilize as he tries to
get up.
What is the most appropriate investigation for him?
ECG
CXR
Ambulatory BP
CT SCAN
MRI
Explanation:
Ambulatory BP. Ambulatory BP to document low BP as cause of presenting symptom. The case sees hypotension and
low BP as a result of given anti-hypertensive.
17. A new screening test has been devised to detect early stages of prostate cancer.
However, the test tends t of people with no cancer, although they do have cancer as diagnosed by other standard tests.
What is this flaw?
True Cve
False +ve
Poor specificity
True +ve
False -ve
Question was not answered
6|Page
18. A 24-year-old woman known to be suffering from panic disorder presents to the hospital with tingling and nu fingers.
ABG: pH=7.52, PCO2=2.2kPa, PO2=11kPa, Bicarbonate-20.
What is the most likely condition?
Acute respiratory alkalosis
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Acute metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:
In panic attack there occurs hyperventilation which causes washout of acute respiratory alkalosis resulting in raised pH
>7.45 (here 7.52), low PCO2 (here 2.2 kPa) with compensatory HCO3 (here 20meq/l).
19. 19-year-old sexually active lady came for her annual check-up, she is otherwise healthy using no contraceptive, her
pap smear and all investigations are normal.
What will you suggest regarding her next check-up?
After 6 months
After 5 years
After 1 year
After 3 years
Explanation:
Usually pap smear should be started after 21 years of age regardless of sexual activeness but if a female is sexually active
and u suspect any abnormality then u can do pap smear before 21 years of age as in this case. Pap Smear = Negative,
then should be followed for screening after 3 years. Pap smear + HPV Testing = Negative, then should be followed after 5
years
20. An 8 year’s boy has his tonsils and adenoids removed. On the 7th post-op day, he comes back to the hemoptysis and
fever.
What is the most appropriate management?
Reassurance
Packing
Admit for IV antibiotics
Surgery
Prescribe oral antibiotics and discharge
Explanation:
Most secondary hemorrhage occurs due to infection which erodes a vessel. S be admitted for IV antibiotics.
7|Page
21. Which type of contraceptive is contraindicative in lactation?
UID
Depo-Provera
Mini pills
OCPs
Condom
Explanation:
Based on the available evidence, expert opinion in the United States holds that the risks of combination contraceptive
products usually outweigh the benefits before 4 weeks postpartum. Between 4 weeks and 6 months postpartum, the
advantages of using the method generally outweigh the theoretical or proven risks, although the evidence of lack of
effect on lactation is poor and does not include preterm or ill infants. Introduction of a combined oral contraceptive
containing 30 mcg of ethinyl estradiol on day 42 or beyond may not affect milk intake or infant growth. After 6 months
postpartum, combination contraceptives, including oral tablets, the transdermal patch and vaginal ring, can be used, but
progestin-only methods are preferred if breastfeeding will be continued.
22. A 2-days baby’s mother is worried about the baby’s hearing. Mother has a history of conductive hearing lo most
appropriate test?
MRI
Fork test
CT scan
Reassure
Brain stem evoked response
Explanation:
Brain stem evoked response. A BAER (brainstem auditory evoked response) test can help to diagnose nervous system
disorders, especially in newborns, young children, and others who may not be able to participate hearing test.
23. A study was done amongst 2 hospitals for the equal number of cancer patients. It was noted that hospital A higher of
mortality than hospital B for treated cancer patients.
8|Page
Retrospective
Case study
Explanation:
A cohort is a group of people who share a common characteristic or experience within (e.g., are born, are
exposed to a drug or vaccine or pollutant, or undergo a certain medical procedure].
24. An 8-week baby boy is noted to be jaundiced. He is breast-feeding well and has gained 300g since birth. His s and his
urine is pale straw colored.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Breast milk jaundice
G6PD deficiency
Galactosemia
Congenital viral infection
Biliary atresia
Explanation:
Biliary atresia causes obstructive picture where stools are pale and urine becomes da disorder like G6PD or
spherocytosis causes appearance of jaundice in 1st 24 hours. In breast milk jaundice, ja develops in 2nd week. Also
congenital viral infection (TORCH) occurs in 1st 24 hours. So likely cause in the p is Galactosemia.
25. After starting Antidepressant drug, if patient is not improving then when you decide to stop drugs?
3-4 weeks
1 day
1 week
2 weeks
Explanation:
Some people notice an improvement within a few days of starting treatment.
However, an antidepressant often takes 2-4 weeks to build up its effect and work fully. Some people stop treatment
after a week or so thinking it is not helping. It is best to wait for 3-4 weeks before deciding if an antidepressant is helping
or not. If poor sleep is a symptom of the depression, it is often helped first, within a week or so. With some types of
tricyclic antidepressant, the initial dose that is started is often small and is increased gradually to a full dose. (One
problem that sometimes occurs is that some people remain on the initial dose which is often too low to work fully.) If
you find that the treatment is helpful after 3-4 weeks, it is usual to continue. A normal course of antidepressants lasts at
least six months after symptoms have eased. If you stop the medicine too soon, your symptoms may rapidly return.
Some people with recurrent depression are advised to take longer courses of treatment (up to 2 years or longer)
9|Page
26. A young woman fell and hit her knee. Exam: valgus test +ve.
What ligament was most probably injured?
Lateral collateral
Ant cruciate
Post cruciate
Medial collateral
Meniscus
Explanation:
Medial collateral. The valgus stress test involves placing the leg into extension, with one hand place on the knee. With
the other hand placed upon the foot applying an abducting force, an attempt is then made to at the knee into valgus. If
the knee is seen to open up on the medial side, this is indicative of medial collateral damage.
27. A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia and a history of violence and distressing auditory hallucinations was a ward
with aggressive behavior and has already smashed his room. He is refusing any oral meds.
28. A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea and a short stature.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Down’s syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
10 | P a g e
Turner’s syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome
Normal finding
Explanation:
Down’s syndrome and Fragile x syndrome don’t have primary amenorrhea. Klinefelter’s patients are tall males. So the
likely diagnosis is Turner’s syndrome.
29. A 65-year-old lady who is on thiazide suffers from falls in the morning.
What is the cause for her symptoms?
Epilepsy
Orthostatic hypotension
TIA
Explanation:
Thiazide diuretic is associated with orthostatic hypotension.
30. A patient with gross hematuria after blunt abdominal trauma has a normal-appearing cystogram after the int
instillation of 400 ml of contrast. You should next order:
A retrograde urethrogram.
A voiding cystourethrogram.
An intravenous pyelogram.
A cystogram obtained after filling, until a detrusor response occurs.
Explanation:
A Urethrography refers to the radiographic study of the urethra using iodinated contrast media and is generally carried
out in males. Also referred to as ascending urethrography/urethrogram (ASU) or retrograde urethrography/urethrogram
(RUG). Indications • pelvic trauma in the emergency department • diminished urinary stream • urethral strictures •
urethral diverticula • urethral obstruction • suspected urethral foreign bodies • urethral mucosal tumors • suspected
urethral fistula
31. A 10-year-old child has got progressive bilateral hearing loss. He has started to increase the TV volume. All other is
normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Wax
Bilateral OM with effusion
11 | P a g e
Foreign body
Meningitis due to meningococcus
32. A 27-year-old lady after C-section developed epigastric pain after 8h.
What is the appropriate investigations?
Liver enzyme
Liver biopsy
ABG
Coagulation
Explanation:
Epigastric pain is a warning sign of HELLP syndrome. So to rule out HELLP syndrome should be done.
33. Healthy parents have 2 children, a child with Cystic fibrosis and a healthy child.
They want to have another are the chances of that child being a carrier?
1:2
1:4
1:8
1:16
2:3
Explanation:
As the parents have a child with cystic fibrosis and they are healthy both of them are carrier. autosomal recessive
disease where if both parents are carrier mode of inheritance is as follows: Chance of being child 1:4, Chance of being
diseased 1:4 and chance of being carrier 1:2.
34. A 30-year-old female has chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags. She complains of visual problems, low
morning stiffness. Inv: ESR & CRP=raised, Hgb=10mg/dl.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
SLE
Seronegative arthritis
Gout
Reactive Arthritis
Explanation:
Chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags are features of IBD. There is a w association between IBD and seronegative
12 | P a g e
arthritis (particularly AS). Here low back pain, visual problem, morn raised ESR and CRP, low hemoglobin indicates the
diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.
35. 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. 5days later he presents with flank pain, hem urea
levels. A diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis is made.
What is the most likely cause for renal vein thrombo?
Loss of anithrombin III
Stasis
Protein C deficiency
High estrogen levels
Vasculitis
36. A 33 year’s man has a temp-38.5C, cough and chest pain on the right side on inspiration. He also has puru.
What is the most likely organism to cause pneumonia in this patient?
PCP cold agglutinins
AFB
Gram Cve doplicoccic
Gram +ve doplococcic
Coagulase +ve cocci
Explanation:
It is a case of community acquired pneumonia caused by streptococcus pneumonia.
37. A 54-year-old patient wakes up with right sided weakness. His current medication is bendroflumethiazide for
BP=160/90mmHg. CT shows left cerebral infarct.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
Alteplase
Aspirin
Simvastatin
Dipyridamole
Clopidogrel
38. A 45-year-old man has developed an annular rash with a scaly edge on his thigh. The rash has been spreading. He has
some general aches and pains.
What is the single most useful investigation?
13 | P a g e
ANA
Skin scrap for mycology
Skin swab for bacteria
Biopsy lesion
Lyme antibodies
Explanation:
Explanation Spreading annular rash suggests erythema migrans of lyme disease.
14 | P a g e
acute and chronic administration), leads to significant accumulation of these active species in chronic use. After 30 days
of dosing at 40 mg/day, plasma concentrations of fluoxetine in the range of 91 to 302 ng/mL and nor fluoxetine in the
range of 72 to 258 ng/mL have been observed. Plasma concentrations of fluoxetine were higher than those predicted by
single dose studies, presumably because fluoxetine’s metabolism is not proportional to dose. Nor fluoxetine, however,
appears to have linear pharmacokinetics. Its mean terminal half-life after a single dose was 8.6 days and after multiple
dosing was 9.3 days.
41. 72-year-old lady is drowsy and her relatives want to take her home.
She has been prescribed diazepam 2.5m delivery route?
Per rectal
Intra Muscular
Subcutaneous
Oral
Intravenous
42. A 53-year-old lady presents with hot flash and night sweats. Her LMP was last year. She had Myocardial infarction.
What is the most appropriate management for her?
Raloxifene
COCP (Combined OCP)
Evening primrose
Clonidine
Estrogen
43. A 64-year-old man complains of increasing dyspnea and cough for the past 18months. He coughs up a Table
mucopurulent sputum with occasional specks of blood.
What is the most likely underlying cause?
Acute bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
Chronic bronchitis
Lung cancer
Pneumonia
Explanation:
Chronic bronchitis. There may be specks of blood in sputum in both bronchiectasis, acute and chronic. Duration of
15 | P a g e
disease is 18 months, so it is not acute bronchitis. Again only one tablespoonful sputum does not term copious sputum
of bronchiectasis in which sputum will be much more in amount.
44. A 25-year-old girl saw a tragic RTA in which a young boy was killed. The night of the event she couldn’t sleep after
she suddenly lost her vision. She was previously fine and there was no history of medical or psychologic
What is the diagnosis?
Dissociation
Generalize Anxiety disorder
Post-traumatic Stress disorder
Somatization
Conversion
Explanation:
Conversion reaction. Conversion reaction is sometimes applied to patients who present with neurol such as numbness,
blindness, paralysis, or fits, which are not consistent with a well-established organic cause significant distress. It is
thought that these symptoms arise in response to stressful situations affecting mental health
45. Best method to maintain air way in conscious multiple injury is _______________________.
Intubation
Oropharyngeal device
Nasopharyngeal device
46. You are supposed to keep a child NPO he’s 25 kgs, how much you will give:
1500
1300
1400
1600
Explanation:
For first 10kg 100×10=1000 For next 10 kg 50×10=500 For next 5 kg 5×20= 100 So the total is 1600 ml.
47. A 73-year-old man who is recovering from surgery on the left carotid artery in his neck. He has slurred speech of his
tongue, the tip deviated to the left.
16 | P a g e
Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Facial nerve
Vagus nerve
Explanation:
Testing function of the nerve is performed by asked the subject to stick their ton out. If there is a loss of innervation to
one side, the tongue will curve toward the affected side, due to unopposed the opposite genioglossus muscle. If this is
the result of. A lower motor neuron lesion, the tongue will be curve damaged side, combined with the presence of
fasciculations or atrophy.
However, if the deficit is caused by a neuron lesion, the tongue will be curved away from the side of the cortical damage,
without the presence of fa or atrophy.
48. 33-year-old female complains of diplopia on upright gaze. Exam: ptosis can be seen. There are no other co significant
Past medical history.
What is the most appropriate test for him?
Ophthalmoscopy
Checking red reflex
Thyroid function test
Visual field test
Explanation:
This is a wrong key. Right key should be D. CT. A case of 3rd nerve palsy. So to cause CT should be done. Red reflex is
seen to diagnose cataract.
49. A 6-year-old boy fell in the playground and has been holding his forearm complaining of pain. Exam: no sign swelling.
However, there is minimal tenderness on exam.
What is the diagnosis?
Green stick fx of distal radius
Fracture neck of humerus
Fracture mid ulnar
Fracture mid radius
50. A 37-year-old woman presents with heavy bleeding. Investigation shows subserosal fibroid-4cm and intramu.
Which is the most appropriate treatment?
Abdominal Hysterectomy
17 | P a g e
Vaginal Hysterectomy
Abdominal Myomectomy
Hysteroscopic Myomectomy
Explanation:
As patient is young we should go for myomectomy. As hysteroscopic myo mainly sub mucosal fibroids we should go for
abdominal myomectomy which will deal with both subserosal a fibroids.
52. A 32-year-old woman presents with malaise fatigue and fever. She complains about weight loss. Exam: malar
nasolabial fold can be seen.
What is the most appropriate investigation?
Anti-histone
18 | P a g e
Anti-centromere
Anti-ds DNA
Anti Jo
Anti Scl70
Explanation:
Features are suggestive of SLE. So most appropriate investigation from the given option DNA.
53. 23-year-old man presents with severe pain in the right flank radiating to his groin. He is rolling about on the an IVU
confirms a stone in the ureter which is 8mm in size.
Which transfusion modality will be most effective?
ESWL (Lithotipsy)
Dormier basket
Fluids and alpha blockers
PCNL
54. A 72years presents with polyuria and polydipsia. The fasting blood sugar is 8 and 10mmol/l.BP=130/80mm
cholesterol=5.7mmol/l. There is microalbuminuria.
What is the single most appropriate next management?
Statin and glitazone
ACEi and sulfonylurea
Statin and Biguanide
Statin and ACEi
55. A middle aged woman has some weakness of hand after an injury.
Which vertebra will be the lowest to be x-ray to diagnosis the injury?
C7/T1
C5/C6
c8/T1
C6/C7
Question was not answered
56. A 80 year’s man with prostatic cancer has confusion, thirst, abdominal pain and an abnormal ECG.
What is appropriate investigation?
DEXA scan
Redionuclide bones scan
19 | P a g e
Serum calcium concentration
MRI spine
57. A 20 year’s man presents with painful swallowing. Exam: trismus and unilateral enlargement of his tonsils
Peritonsillar region is red, inflamed and swollen.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
Oral antibiotics
Analgesics with antipyretics
I&D with antibiotics
IV antibiotics and analgesics
Tonsillectomy
58. An 18years female has periorbital blisters. Some of them are crusted, others secreting pinkish fluid.
What likely diagnosis?
Rubella
Shingles
Measles
Chicken pox
Varicella
Explanation:
Shingles Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve. Typically, shingles is unilateral.
59. A patient presented to you who is known case of hypothyroidism and on thyroxin, he also has increase PT normal
Vitamin D, Creatinine is very high.
On examination tapping of the angle of jaw produce facial spasms, what diagnosis?
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
DiGeorge syndrome
Chronic renal failure
Uncontrolled thyroid functions
Explanation:
Secondary hyperparathyroidism Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, inc creatinine.
60. An 82-year-old man has woken up with incoherent speech and difficulty in finding the right words. Exam: good
comprehension.
Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
20 | P a g e
Pons
Wernicke’s area
Broca’s area
Midbrain
Parietal cortex
Explanation:
A person with expressive aphasia will exhibit halting and effortful speech. Speech m important content words. Word
comprehension is preserved. The person may still be understood, but sentence grammatical. This contrasts with
receptive or Wernicke’s aphasia, which is distinguished by a patient’s inability comprehend language or speak with
appropriately meaningful words though fluency, may be preserved.
61. A HTN patient on bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg/d has come for his routine checkup.
Exam: BP=145/85mmHg.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Continue same dose
Stop meds
Repeat the blood test
Increase the dose
Explanation:
Bendroflumethiazide causes hyponatremia and hypokalemia. But the findings is probably error of test. Hence blood test
should be repeated to confirm the level of potassium and sodium.
63. A terminally ill with metastatic carcinoma presents with dysphagia and difficulty in swallowing.
What is possible treatment?
Analgesic
21 | P a g e
Cotrimazole
PO fluconazole
Nystatin suspension
Amphotericin B IV
Explanation:
PO fluconazole. Treatment of carcinoma can predispose to development of esophageal candidiasis as follows: Oral
fluconazole (200 C 400mg) daily for 14 to 21 days (if needed IV fluconazole can also be given).
65. A 55 year’s man who is hypertensive suddenly lost his vision. The retina is pale and fovea appears as a spot.
What is the single most appropriate treatment?
Corticosteroids
Pan retinal photocoagulation
Press over eyeball
Scleral buckling
Explanation:
In central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) retina becomes pale and fovea. Hypertension is a major cause of CRAO. Apply
direct pressure for 5-15 seconds, then release. Repeat several massage can dislodge the embolus to a point further
down the arterial circulation and improve retinal perfusion.
66. A mother presents with her 14months child. He holds furniture and other things to help him stand and says ‘mama’
and ‘papa’. He makes eye contact and smiles. He can transfer objects from one hand to another.
What do you interpret from his development?
Normal development
Delayed social development
Delayed fine motor development
Delayed gross motor development
22 | P a g e
delayed verbal development
67. A 28-weeks pregnant woman presents with uterine bleeding after sexual intercourse.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Placental abruption
Missed abortion
Placental previa
Ectropion
Explanation:
Post coital bleeding can be either placenta previa or cervical ectropion. But as ectropion pregnancy so it is the option
here.
68. A 48-year-old woman always socially withdrawn has stopped going out of the house. She is afraid to socialize fears
that people will criticize her.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
PTSD
GAD
Social anxiety
Agoraphobia
OCD
Explanation:
Social anxiety disorder is a type of complex phobia. This type of phobia has a disrupt disabling impact on a person’s life.
It can severely affect a person’s confidence and self-esteem, interfere with relationships and impair performance at
work or school.
69. 33-year-old lady who is a drug addict wants to quit. She says she is ready to stop the drug abuse.
What drug treatment would you give her?
Benzodiazepines
Methadone
Disulfiram
Lithium
Diazipoxide
23 | P a g e
70. A patient with Type-1diabetes has a fundus showing micro-aneurysm and hard exudate.
What is the single diagnosis?
Hypertensive retinopathy
Diabetic background
MS
Macular degeneration
Proliferative DM retinopathy
Explanation:
Diabetic background retinopathy. Microanurysm, hard exudates are seen in background diabetic ret
71. A 3-month-old female infant is brought in because her parents say she will not eat anymore. Upon physical
examination, a loud pansystolic murmur is appreciated. The child also appears small for her age, but her records show
no maternal or delivery complications.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on EKG?
ST segment elevation
Right ventricular hypertrophy
QT interval elongation
Right bundle branch block
Explanation:
The key to this case is understanding that a child who was otherwise healthy but presents with a holosystolic murmur
and symptoms of failure to thrive most likely has a VSD. Right ventricular hypertrophy occurs from blood shunting from
the high pressure left system to the low pressure right system. This could later lead to Eisenmenger syndrome (ES). ES is
defined as the process in which a left-to-right shunt caused by a VSD reverses into a right-to-left shunt due to
hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
72. 70 year’s woman is admitted with diarrhea, vomiting and dehydration. Exam: yellow visual halos in her e
ECG=bradycardia. She has a history of chronic Atrial-fib.
Which drug causes the above mentioned side effects?
Nifedipine
Digoxin
Ramipril
Atenolol
24 | P a g e
73. 17 year’s female with lump in the breast, freely mobile, not attached to the skin.
What is the next investigation?
Ultrasound
Mammogram
FNA
Biopsy
74. A 20 year’s woman with no previous history of ear complains, presents with 1day history of severe pain in is
extremely tender to examine.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Chondromalasia
Myringitis
Furuncle
Otitis media
Otitis Externa
Explanation:
Extreme tenderness to examine indicate otitis externa.
75. 60 year’s old patient has only HTN best drug to start with:
Beta blocker
ACEI
Diuretics
ARB
Alpha blocker
Explanation:
Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or
diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older
patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular
disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low-
dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme
inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be
selected based on comorbidities and risk factors.
25 | P a g e
76. A 78 year’s retired teacher was admitted for a hernioplasty procedure. After the operation he became agitate and
confused.
What is the most appropriate management?
Diazepam
Clozapine
Chlordiazepoxide
Thiamine
Vitamin B
77. A woman with sickle cell disease complains of heavy menstrual blood loss.
What is the most appropriate combined oral contraceptive pills?
Depot provera
Transdermal patch
Copper IUCD
Mirena
78. A 28 year’s woman has been on treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis for 3yrs. She has gradual loss of vision Her ocular
pressure is normal. Red reflex is absent in both eyes.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Hypermetropia
Cataract
Macular degeneration
HTN retinopathy
DM retinopathy
79. A young girl presented to gynecologist for assessment with lower abdominal pain and per vaginal bleedin of
hysterosalpingograph as a part of her infertility treatment. Observation: BP=90/50mmHg, pulse-120bpm, and revealed
rigid abdomen.
What is the most appropriate next investigation?
Coagulation profile
Chest X ray
Ultrasound abdomen
X-ray erect and supine
CT SCAN
26 | P a g e
Explanation:
Likely cause of bleeding and shock is ruptured fallopian tube for which appropriate ne is US abdomen.
81. A patient presents with mild dyskaryosis. 1 year ago smear was normal.
What is the most appropriate next test?
Cone biopsy
Cauterization
Repeat smear
Colposcopy
Swab and culture
Explanation:
For mild, moderate or severe dyskaryosis the next step is colposcopy.
82. Patient with major depression what is the first line treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressant
SSRIs
MAOI
Explanation:
A SSRIs are the initial antidepressants of choice for uncomplicated depression because of their minimal anti-cholinergic
effects
27 | P a g e
83. 65years man had a bowel resection 5days ago. He is anuric and breathless. His BP=150/110mmHg.He has lung bases
and sacral edema. Bloods: K+=6.8mmol/l, urea=58mmol/l, creatinine=600umol/l.
What is the single immediate management?
Bolus of 20U insulin
5% dextrose infusion
Calcium resonium enema
10U insulin, 50ml of 50% dextrose infusion
Dextrose-saline infusion
Question was not answered
84. 45 year’s female looking pale has bluish discoloration of hands whenever she goes out in the cold. She has reddish
spots on her body. She has symmetrical peripheral arthroplasty for the last year.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Limited systemic sclerosis
Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoms
Diffuse systemic sclerosis
RA
85. A 64 year’s man believes a female newscaster is communicating directly with him when she turns a page.
Where is he suffering from?
Delusion of Reference
Nihilistic
Grandeur
Control
Persecutory
Explanation:
A delusion of reference is a type of delusion wherein the individual perceives unrelated events or objects in his/her
surroundings to be of significance for himself/herself. For example, a person with schizophrenia might believe a
billboard or a celebrity is sending a message meant for them.
28 | P a g e
Cystoid body in retina
Lung cavitations
87. A 61year man was found with K+=7.5 and ECG with prolong QRS complex.
What is the best possible treatment?
IV calcium gluconate
Dialysis
Loop diuretics
Salbutamol nebulizer
IV insulin and dextrose
Explanation:
In this high level of potassium, we have to shift this potassium into cells to red level and save heart from arrest or life
threatening arrhythmia. For keep the heart safe option of first choice in emergency is IV calcium gluconate! However, it
does not shift or reduce potassium level but protects heart from buy time for definitive measure to take place.
88. The patient passed a 4 mm stone in his urine. Does he have a 3mm stone in the renal pelvis found on an ultrasound?
ESWL
None
Surgery
Dormia basket
PCNL
Explanation:
Stones less than 5 mm in diameter pass spontaneously in up to 80% of people. -Stones between 5 mm and 10 mm in
diameter pass spontaneously in about 50% of people. -Stones larger than 1 cm in diameter usually require intervention.
89. A young man comes up with a headache, which he describes that this headache is the most severe headache in his
life.
Which of the following will be less useful?
Lumbar Puncture
Do MRI or CT scan
Skull X ray
Asking more details about headache
29 | P a g e
90. An asymptomatic 56years man who has never consumed alcohol came for a routine checkup. Exam: increase spider
angioma, Cardiomegaly, S3 gallop, liver firm with 8cm span, no ascites.
91. A 75-yearold man has been attending the clinic for lower urinary tract symptoms. His mood is very low and he is
unhappy, anxious and unable to sleep. He has been diagnosed with moderate depression.
What treatment would you use for this patient?
Amitryptaline
CBT
Citalopram
Dosulepin
Diasepam
Explanation:
Mild depression = CBT, Moderate depression = Antidepressant, Severe depression & Ps = ECT, Amitriptyline and
Dosulepine causes urinary retention (which is comparatively less in citalopram) so no a patient with lower urinary
symptoms. Hence Citalopram is the preferred option.
92. A 30 years’ woman presents with acute headache. She complains of seeing halos especially at night.
What is likely defect?
Mono-ocular field loss
Central scotoma
Paracentral scotoma
Cortical blindness
Tunnel vision
Explanation:
The diagnosis is glaucoma (headache and haloes especially at night). In glaucoma the vision.
30 | P a g e
93. A 75 year’s lady who had mitral valve replacement 13 years ago has developed recurrent breathlessness. There is a
prominent pulsation in her neck. She complains of abdominal pain and ankle swelling.
What is the most probably diagnosis?
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Pulmonary stenosis
94. A homeless lady presents with cough and fever. She complains of night sweats and weight loss. CXR has opacity.
What is the next appropriate management?
IFN gamma testing
Mantoux
Bronchoscopy
AFB
CT chest
Explanation:
Cough and fever and night sweat and weight loss are very suggestive of TB. She should do AF investigation.
95. A 78-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for acute pulmonary edema. She has rales to the apices
and Jugular vein distention. Her EKG shows ventricular tachycardia.
Which of the following is the best therapy?
Synchronized cardioversion
Amiodarone
Lidocaine
Unsynchronized cardioversion
Procainamide
Explanation:
Synchronized cardioversion is used when ventricular tachycardia is associated with acute pulmonary edema.
Unsynchronized cardioversion is used for ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia without a pulse. Medical
therapy, such as lidocaine, amiodarone, or procainamide, can be used for sustained ventricular tachycardia that is
hemodynamically stable.
96. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental
disability can have all of the following, except:
31 | P a g e
A polygenic syndrome
Teratogenic syndrome
A mendelian syndrome
Explanation:
The features given can occur as a part of a chromosomal / teratogenic / mendelian syndrome. Polygenic in answer of
exclusion. In a polygenic inheritance, multiple genes are involved in the phenotypic expression. of polygenic inheritance
are hypertension and diabetes.
97. A 24-year-old male with a history of gang violence presents to the emergency room with 3 stab wounds to the
abdomen. He was intubated in the field for airway protection and is barely conscious. Blood pressure is 70/30 mm Hg
and pulse is 140/min. On exam, 3 penetrating wounds covered by abdominal pressure pads are noted.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
IV fluids
Abdominal x-ray
Obtain consent for surgery
IV antibiotics
Explanation:
This patient is in hemorrhagic shock and requires immediate resuscitation. Of the choices listed, the best next step in
management is IV fluids after obtaining venous access. The best form of venous access is 2 large-bore IVs in the
periphery and/or central venous access. Applying direct pressure to the abdomen (a) does not treat the underlying
cause. Getting an abdominal x-ray (b) will take too long for a patient with this rate of blood loss. IV antibiotics (c) may be
needed later in the care of this patient, but stabilizing blood pressure is now the more urgent need. Surgical consent (e)
is implied in a life-threatening emergency in which a patient cannot communicate his wishes.
98. A 47-year old man comes to the emergency department with fever, headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck.
What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Head Ct scan
Lumbar puncture
Ceftriaxone and vancomycin
Explanation:
When you suspect bacterial meningitis, administer antibiotics quickly. Further, do blood cultures stat simultaneously
with a lumbar puncture (LP), or immediately prior. Penicillin can never be used as empiric therapy for meningitis; it is not
sufficiently broad in coverage to be effective empiric therapy. In this case, perform the LP.99. Condition not associated
with increased alpha fetoprotein:
32 | P a g e
Myelomeningocele
Down syndrome
Spina bifida
Gastroschisis
Explanation:
Down syndrome associated with DECREASED levels of alpha fetoprotein. Not increased.
100. A pregnant woman comes with weakness and elevated liver function tests. She is in her 35th week of pregnancy.
The prothrombin time is normal. The smear of blood shows fragmented red cells. Platelet count is low.
What is the treatment?
Delivery of the baby
Fresh frozen plasma
Prednisone
Explanation:
Deliver the baby with the HELLP syndrome. HELLP syndrome stands for hemolysis, elevated liver function tests, and low
platelets. This disorder is idiopathic and can be distinguished from DIC by the normal coagulation studies, such as the
prothrombin time and aPTT.
33 | P a g e