Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition Kolb Test Bank

Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition Kolb

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1. Neuroimaging studies of brain development have revealed that children from families
with low SES (socioeconomic status) show _____ and score _____ on tests of cognitive
performance.
A) decreased cortical surface area; lower
B) decreased cortical surface area; the same as high SES peers
C) the same cortical surface area as their high SES peers; lower
D) increased cortical surface area; higher

2. The ability to plan efficiently is a cognitive behavior controlled by the:

A) parietal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) occipital lobes.
D) frontal lobes.

3. You can test planning capability by using the:

A) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale.
B) digit span test.
C) Tower of Hanoi test.
D) mirror drawing test.

4. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about development?

A) The brain of a child is the same as that of an adult, only smaller.
B) Because there are behaviors that develop late, there must be neural structures that
develop late.
C) Because some brain structures develop late, there must be some behaviors that
develop late.
D) The brains of children at different ages are not comparable.

5. The frontal lobes are fully developed:

A) at birth.
B) around age 5.
C) around age 10.
D) None of the answers is correct.

6. The idea of preformation would imply that:

A) an embryo is a miniature adult.
B) embryos of different species look different.
C) embryos should look nothing like an adult.
D) embryos of different species look different and embryos should look nothing like
an adult.

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 7. A primitive brain can be seen in a human embryo by the _____ week after conception.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

8. After the second week of prenatal development the _____ progresses to become a(n)
_____.
A) zygote; embryo
B) embryo; zygote
C) zygote; fetus
D) embryo; fetus

9. After 9 weeks of prenatal development the_____ is considered a(n) _____.

A) embryo; fetus
B) zygote; egg
C) zygote embryo
D) embryo; zygote

10. The forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are first visible in a human embryo after about:
A) 10 days.
B) 14 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 35 days.

11. The central nervous system originates from:

A) the neural crest.
B) the neural tube.
C) the neural envelope.
D) the neural palace.

12. In human embryos, gyri and sulci first start to form after about:
A) 30 days.
B) 5 months.
C) 7 months.
D) 9 months.

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13. Sexual differentiation occurs by the end of the _____ month of gestation.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

14. Testosterone:
A) is present only after the testes are formed.
B) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics but not the development of the brain.
C) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in
males.
D) is responsible for the pigmentation of cell walls inside neurons.

15. Male and female genitalia become differentiated at around:

A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C) 4 months.
D) 6 months.

16. _____ have an extensive capacity for self-renewal.

A) Stem cells
B) Progenitor cells
C) Glial cells
D) Neuroblasts

17. In an adult, stem cells are found in:

A) the hippocampus.
B) the ventricles.
C) the pia mater.
D) the CSF.

18. Progenitor cells come from:

A) neuroblasts.
B) stem cells.
C) glioblasts.
D) glial cells.

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19. Neuroblasts and glioblasts are formed directly from:
A) pyramidal cells.
B) progenitor cells.
C) the ventricles.
D) the neural tube.

20. Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) stem, progenitor, blast, glia
B) progenitor, stem, blast, glia
C) blast, stem, progenitor, glia
D) stem, progenitor, glia, blast

21. _____ is the process that works to suppress gene expression during development.
A) Methylation
B) Mutation
C) Translation
D) Transcription

22. Prenatal stress _____ gene methylation.

A) can increase
B) can reduce
C) can reverse
D) has no influence on

23. Compounds that signal brain cells to develop in certain ways are called:
A) progenitors.
B) neurotropic factors.
C) somites.
D) chemical factors.

24. If you want to stimulate the production of progenitor cells in a stem cell culture, you
should add the compound:
A) nerve growth factor.
B) fibroblast growth factor.
C) epidermal growth factor.
D) testosterone.

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25. _____ can be used to stimulate progenitor cells to produce neuroblasts.
A) Nerve growth factor
B) BDNF
C) bFGF
D) EGF

26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of brain development?

A) cell birth, cell differentiation, cell migration, myelogenesis
B) cell birth, cell migration, cell differentiation, cell maturation
C) cell birth, cell maturation, cell differentiation, cell migration
D) cell birth, cell maturation, myelogenesis, cell migration

27. Neurogenesis (the process of forming neurons) is largely complete after about _____
months of gestation.
A) one
B) two
C) five
D) seven

28. Neuronal differentiation is largely complete by:

A) 8 weeks.
B) 23 weeks.
C) 29 weeks.
D) 11 weeks.

29. Cell differentiation:

A) occurs after neuron maturation.
B) occurs after migration.
C) occurs before neuron generation.
D) is not complete until well after birth.

30. The brain can cope with injury more easily during:
A) differentiation.
B) cell migration.
C) neurogenesis.
D) neuron maturation.

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31. The _____ is thought to contain a primitive map or blueprint of the cortex that tells
developing neurons to which location to migrate.
A) brainstem
B) thalamus
C) subventricular zone
D) hippocampus

32. Cells find their appropriate location by following a road laid down by:
A) astrocytes.
B) oligodendrocytes.
C) radial glial cells.
D) epithelial cells.

33. Cells in layer _____ of the cortex develop first.

A) I
B) III
C) IV
D) VI

34. The majority of glial cells migrate to their correct locations via:
A) neurotrophic factors.
B) radial glial cells.
C) chemical signals.
D) EGF.

35. Neuronal maturation involves _____ and _____.

A) migration; specialization
B) dendrite growth; synapse formation
C) migration; synapse formation
D) specialization; dendrite growth

36. The process of dendrite growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life is referred to as:
A) arborization.
B) extension.
C) sprouting.
D) shaping.

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37. The dendritic field in _____ starts off very simply, but becomes increasingly complex
until about 2 years of age.
A) the visual cortex
B) Broca's area
C) the auditory cortex
D) the somatosensory cortex

38. Dendrites develop on cells:

A) before differentiation.
B) before migration.
C) after cell maturation.
D) during cell maturation.

39. Jane is 7 years old. She has very poor language skills and is incredibly clumsy with her
hands. Jane may have:
A) autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
B) Asperger syndrome.
C) Rett syndrome.
D) William syndrome

40. In the 1990s, rates of autism were approximately 1 in 2000. However, recent estimates
suggest that as many as _____ children has some form of autism.
A) 1 in 198.
B) 1 in 76,000.
C) 1 in 68.
D) 1 in 1988.

41. Jeffrey is 6 years old. He is socially awkward and did not learn to walk until he was
almost 2. In addition, he still has a hard time using a fork or spoon to feed himself. He is
obsessed with model airplanes (he has more than 200 models and can name each one).
Playing with his model airplanes is the only activity he engages in unless he is pressured
into doing something else. Jeffrey MOST likely has:
A) Asperger syndrome.
B) Autism spectrum disorder.
C) Rett's syndrome.
D) William syndrome.

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42. Which of the following guide growth cones to their appropriate destination?
A) tropic molecules
B) neurotrophic factors
C) adhesion molecules
D) tropic and adhesion molecules

43. The number of synaptic contacts in the human cerebral cortex is estimated to be on the
order of:
A) 1010.
B) 108.
C) 1014.
D) 10100.

44. _____ is(are) molecules that help(s) cells bind to one another to aid in migration.
A) Tropic molecules
B) Nerve growth factor
C) Cell adhesion molecules
D) Trophic molecules

45. It is estimated that synaptic pruning eliminates approximately _____ percent of

synapses in the human cortex.
A) 10
B) 40
C) 50
D) 65

46. One reason why cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain die during synaptic pruning
is that they must compete for limited amounts of:
A) radial glial cells.
B) cell adhesion molecules.
C) nerve growth factor.
D) tropic molecules.

47. Most neurons that die during synaptic pruning die as a result of:
A) apoptosis.
B) necrosis.
C) structural damage.
D) the death of sodium-potassium pumps.

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48. In an experiment examining the ability of children to discriminate speech sounds of
various languages, Werker and Tees found:
A) that children younger than 2 years had no discrimination ability.
B) that children could discriminate, but the ability declines over the first year of life.
C) that children begin to discriminate during the first year and this ability continues to
grow until they begin to speak at around age 2.
D) that children are better at discriminating sounds than adults.

49. Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is NOT true?
A) Synaptic pruning probably can be influenced by drugs.
B) Synaptic pruning is proportionally larger in smaller-brained animals.
C) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by hormones.
D) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by experience.

50. Research has demonstrated that aversive childhood experiences (e.g., physical abuse)
are linked with:
A) increased rates of mental illness in middle age.
B) increased rates of suicide in middle age.
C) increased rates of addiction in middle age.
D) All of the answers are correct.

51. Children who score high on intelligence tests show the greatest plastic changes in their
_____ over time.
A) parietal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) hippocampus

52. The dendritic spine density on the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) is greatest in:
A) children.
B) teenagers.
C) adults.
D) older adults (i.e., age 65+).

53. The pincer grasp:

A) is a reflex present at birth.
B) is not evident until age 2.
C) develops between 8 and 11 months of age.
D) disappears as the motor cortex develops.

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54. Increases in cortical thickness in the hand area of the primary motor cortex are
associated with:
A) increases in hand size.
B) increases in grip strength.
C) increases in manual dexterity.
D) increase in tendon brittleness.

55. The typical 6-year-old has a:

A) 300- to 600-word vocabulary.
B) 600- to 1000-word vocabulary.
C) 1000- to 2000-word vocabulary.
D) 2000- to 2500-word vocabulary.

56. Which of the following statements regarding language areas of the cortex is NOT
correct?
A) Changes in dendritic complexity in speech areas are among the most impressive in
the brain.
B) Language areas are the earliest regions of the cortex to complete myelination.
C) Between 15 and 24 months of age there is a dramatic increase in the density of
dendrites and axons in the language areas.
D) By age 2 cell division and migration are complete in the language zones of the
cerebral cortex.

57. Language development in children aged 2 to 4 years has been linked with:
A) pruning of neurons in the left inferior frontal gyrus.
B) pruning of neurons in superior temporal gyrus.
C) thickening of the cortex in the left inferior frontal cortex areas.
D) thinning of the cortex in the mouth region of the primary motor cortex.

58. Which of the following sequences is correct according to Piaget's theory of cognitive
development?
A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
B) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational
C) sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational, preoperational
D) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational

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59. Kristen likes it when her mom cuts her sandwich into four pieces because she likes
having four sandwiches instead of just one. Based on what you know about Piaget's
theory of cognitive development (assuming Kristen is a normally developing child),
pick the age that most accurately represents how old Kristen might be.
A) 5
B) 13
C) 9
D) 11

60. William is playing a game with his little brother, and he takes his brother's favorite
stuffed animal and hides it underneath a blanket. His little brother then grabs the blanket
to reveal the hidden toy. It appears as though William's little brother has progressed past
the:
A) preoperational period.
B) concrete operational period.
C) sensorimotor period.
D) formal operational period.

61. According to Piaget, in which development stage do children first begin to understand
mathematical transformations?
A) preoperational period
B) concrete operational period
C) sensorimotor period
D) formal operational period

62. Growth spurts up to age 16 account for large increases in brain weight. This is MOST
likely due to increases in:
A) the number of neurons and glial cells.
B) the number of glial cells and larger blood vessels.
C) myelination.
D) neural pruning.

63. Which of the following is NOT associated with brain growth up to age 16?
A) an increase in the number of neurons
B) an increase in the number of glial cells
C) an increase in the number of synapses
D) an increase in the number of blood vessels

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64. The nonmatching-to-sample task described in your text is thought to measure the
functions of the:
A) frontal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) basal ganglia.
D) limbic system.

65. The concurrent discrimination task described in your text is thought to measure the
functions of the:
A) frontal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) basal ganglia.
D) brainstem.

66. Studies have shown that children are able to solve the _____ prior to the _____.
A) nonmatching-to-sample task; concurrent discrimination task
B) nonmatching-to-sample task; displacement task
C) concurrent discrimination task; nonmatching-to-sample task
D) concurrent discrimination task; displacement task

67. Rats raised in "stimulating" environments solve mazes:

A) more slowly than rats raised in laboratory environments.
B) faster than rats raised in laboratory environments.
C) just as quickly as rats raised in laboratory environments.
D) None of the answers is correct.

68. In rats _____ has (have) been shown to lead to enhanced motor and cognitive skills and
recovery from brain injury.
A) an injection of growth hormones
B) a low-fat diet
C) tactile stimulation
D) high dosages of vitamin C

69. Brain imaging studies that investigated native and second languages revealed that
second languages tend to result in great activation in:
A) the auditory cortex.
B) the striatum and cerebellum.
C) the inferior parietal cortex.
D) All of the answers are correct.

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70. The _____ is the notion that neurons or their axons and dendrites are drawn toward a
chemical that indicates the correct pathway.
A) chemical biomarker hypothesis
B) chemo-gradient hypothesis
C) chemoaffinity hypothesis
D) genetic blueprint hypothesis

71. The condition in which vision in one eye is reduced as a result of disuse is known as:
A) hemianopia.
B) macular degeneration.
C) astigmatism.
D) amblyopia.

72. The results of Horn's electron microscopic studies show that synapses in a specific
_____ region enlarge with imprinting.
A) forebrain
B) basal ganglia
C) midbrain
D) hindbrain

73. Dogs that are deprived of stimulation during rearing:

A) seek out human affection.
B) seek out other dogs.
C) have an abnormal response to pain.
D) perform better on intelligence tests than dogs reared in stimulating settings.

74. Masculinization refers to the effects of:

A) testosterone on brain cells.
B) too little estrogen on female embryos.
C) testosterone on female embryos.
D) too little estrogen on brain cells.

75. Romanian orphans who were adopted before _____ later tested at the same IQ level as
children born and raised in North America.
A) 24 months of age
B) 36 months of age
C) 5 years of age
D) 8 years of age

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76. Jocelyne Bachevalier trained infant male and female monkeys on both the concurrent
discrimination task and the object reversal task. She found that the female monkeys
were:
A) superior to the males on the object reversal task and equal on the concurrent
discrimination task.
B) superior to the males on the concurrent discrimination task and equal on the object
reversal task.
C) better on the concurrent task and the males were better on the object reversal task.
D) better on the object reversal task and the males were better on the concurrent task.

77. Complex environmental housing:

A) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of female rats more than in males.
B) increases dendritic growth in the visual cortex of both sexes equally.
C) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of male rats more than in females.
D) has no effect on dendritic growth in the visual cortex of either sex but does produce
an increase in the number of glial cells.

78. Male and female brains are:

A) different only in size.
B) different in response to environmental events.
C) different only during early development.
D) unaffected by gonadal hormones.

79. Children who have brain injuries to language areas in the first 2 years of life:
A) never recover language function.
B) recover function over many years.
C) almost never show severe language disturbances.
D) show lack of further development of language while maintaining their pre-injury
level of function.

80. In utero the fetus's gut:

A) has the same microbiome as the mother.
B) has a microbiome that is half from the mother and half from the father.
C) is sterile.
D) has a microbiome that is determined by what the mother eats.

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81. Some researchers suggest that prenatal exposure to caffeine or nicotine may lead to a
child developing:
A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) William syndrome
C) ADHD.
D) developmental dyslexia.

82. Anencephaly is a result of:

A) acute brain injury.
B) failure of the back end of the neural tube to close.
C) failure of the front end of the neural tube to close.
D) a spinal cord abnormality.

83. Abnormal brain development that results in behavioral effects:

A) is immediately evident.
B) may not be evident until adolescence.
C) may not be evident until the brain starts to lose neurons in the third decade.
D) cannot be detected until autopsy.

84. Research has linked sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) with:
A) genes that regulate serotonin transporters.
B) genes that regulate dopamine transporters.
C) genes that regulate norepinephrine transporters.
D) genes that regulate acetylcholine transporters.

85. Down syndrome is caused by:

A) a hormonal abnormality.
B) a brain injury.
C) a neurological disease.
D) a genetic abnormality.

86. Cerebral palsy can be caused by:

A) a genetic abnormality.
B) a neurological disease.
C) a hormone imbalance.
D) oxygen deprivation.

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87. Phenylketonuria is caused by:
A) anoxia.
B) metabolic error.
C) infection.
D) abnormal brain development.

88. Kwashiorkor syndrome is caused by:

A) chronic malnutrition.
B) birth trauma.
C) a genetic abnormality.
D) sensory deprivation.

89. In a study examining the brains of developmentally disabled children, Dominique

Purpura found:
A) fewer dendrites than normal.
B) fewer neurons than normal.
C) fewer glial cells.
D) more glial cells.

90. Brain scans and autopsies of the brains of patients with schizophrenia have shown:
A) smaller ventricles.
B) heavier brains because of increased glial growth.
C) a decrease in the number of neurons in the prefrontal cortex.
D) a larger parahippocampal gyrus.

91. Some researchers have suggested that schizophrenia results from the abnormal
development of the:
A) amygdala.
B) frontal cortex.
C) hippocampus.
D) temporal cortex.

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Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. D
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. C

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45. B
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. B
50. D
51. C
52. A
53. C
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. A
60. C
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. B
65. C
66. C
67. B
68. C
69. B
70. C
71. D
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. A
76. C
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. C
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. D
86. D
87. B
88. A
89. A
90. C

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Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition Kolb Test Bank

91. B

Page 19

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