Osce Certification Exam Question Bank With Answers

BANK OF POTENTIAL QUESTIONS FOR THE
CERTIFICATION EXAM - OSCE
COMPETENCE I: PUBLIC MANAGEMENT
1. Which of the following sanctions applies to a public servant who violates the ethical
principles of public service and who maintains an employment relationship with a public
entity? Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) Dismissal and reprimand.

b) Dismissal, reprimand and contractual termination.
c) Dismissal and contractual termination.
d) Warning and contractual termination.
2. It is the principle of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must act with
rectitude, honesty and honesty, seeking to satisfy the general interest and discarding any
personal profit or advantage, obtained by himself or through an intermediary:
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Suitability.
d) Probity.
3. It is the principle of the Civil Service that states that the Public Servant should strive for a
solid training according to reality, being permanently trained for the proper fulfillment of
their duties:
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Suitability.
d) Probity.
4. It is the principle of the Civil Service that states that the Public Servant must adapt his
conduct to respect the Constitution and the Laws, guaranteeing that in all phases of the
decision-making process or in the compliance of administrative procedures, the rights to
defense and due process are respected:
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Suitability.
d) Truthfulness.
5. It is the duty of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must act with
absolute political, economic or any other kind of impartiality in the performance of his
duties, demonstrating independence of his ties with individuals, political parties or
institutions:
a) Transparency.
b) Discretion.
c) Responsibility.
d) Neutrality.
6. When it is stated that Public Servants are prohibited from maintaining relationships or
accepting situations in which their personal, labor, economic or financial interests could be
in conflict with the fulfillment of their duties and functions, we are referring to the Ethical
Prohibition of Public Service:
a) Obtaining undue advantages.

b) Maintain conflicting interests.
c) Misuse of privileged information.
d) Conducting political proselytizing activities.
7. It is the principle of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must express
himself/herself with authenticity in the functional relations with all the members of his/her
institution and with the citizenship, and contributes to the clarification of the facts:
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Truthfulness.
d) Suitability.
8. It is the duty of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must keep
confidential facts or information of which he/she has knowledge on the occasion or in the
exercise of his/her functions, without prejudice to the duties and responsibilities that
correspond to him/her by virtue of the rules governing access to and transparency of public
information:
a) Transparency.
b) Discretion.
c) Responsibility.
d) Neutrality.
9. Cuando se señala que el Servidor Público está prohibido de participar en transacciones u

operaciones financieras utilizando información privilegiada de la entidad a la que pertenece
o que pudiera tener acceso a ella por su condicióWhen it is stated that the Public Servant is
prohibited from participating in financial transactions or operations using privileged
information that he/she belongs to or that he/she could have access to due to his/her
condition or the exercise of his/her position, nor should he/she allow the improper use of
such information for the benefit of any interest, we are referring to the Ethical Prohibition
of the Public Function:
a) Obtaining undue advantages.

b) Maintain conflicting interests.
c) Misuse of privileged information.
d) Conducting political proselytizing activities.
10. The principles of the Civil Service Code of Ethics are as follows:
a) Neutrality
b) Responsibility
c) Transparency
d) Loyalty and Obedience
11. It is not a duty of the Civil Service Code of Ethics:

a) Neutrality
b) Discretion
c) Truthfulness
d) Proper Exercise of Office
12. The prohibition against "maintaining conflicting interests" refers to:

a) To obtain or procure undue benefits or advantages, for oneself or others, through the
use of one's position, authority, influence or appearance of influence.
b) Does not constitute a prohibition

c) Maintain relationships or accept situations in which their personal, work, economic or
financial interests could be in conflict with the fulfillment of the duties and functions
of their position.
d) Exerting pressures, threats or sexual harassment against other public servants or
subordinates that may affect the dignity of the person or induce the performance of
fraudulent actions.
13. Point out the correct alternative in which the following management instruments are
elaborated for the Strategic Planning of a District Municipality: 1.Concerted Local
Development Plan, 2.Institutional Strategic Plan, 3.
a) 3,1,2
b) 3,2,1
c) 1,3,2
d) 1,2,3
14. Point out the correct alternative in which the following management instruments are
elaborated for the Strategic Planning of a Regional Government: 1.Institutional Strategic
Plan, 2.Concerted Regional Development Plan 3.
a) 3,1,2
b) 3,2,1
c) 1,3,2
d) 1,2,3
15. Point out the correct alternative in which the following management instruments for INEI's
Strategic Planning are elaborated: 1.PEI, 2.PESEM, 3.POI.
a) 3,1,2
b) 3,2,1
c) 1,3,2
d) 2,1,3
16. PEDN, 2.PESEM and 3.PDRC; a) Regional Government, b) National Government, c)

Ministry.
a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b)

b) 1-b); 2-c); 3-a)
c) 1-c); 2-a); 3-b)
d) 1-c); 2-b); 3-a)
17. PESEM and 3.PDLC; a) INEI, b) Municipality, c) MINSA.
a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b)

b) 1-b); 2-c); 3-a)
c) 1-c); 2-a); 3-b)
d) 1-c); 2-b); 3-a)
18. PEDN, 2.POI and 3.PESEM; a) JNE, b) CEPLAN, c) MINCETUR.
a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b) b) 1-b); 2-c); 3-a) c) 1-b); 2-a); 3-c)

d) 1-c); 2-b); 3-a)
19. Of the following elements, indicate the sequence with respect to the Institutional Strategic
Plan in accordance with the National Policy of Modernization of Public Management: 1
Phase Prospective Analysis reviews the causal diagnosis of the strategic variables. 2
Strategic Phase is the articulating element with other administrative systems 3 Institutional
Phase results in the approval of the Institutional Strategic Plan.
a) 1,2,3
b) 3,1,2
c) 2,3,1
d) 1,3,2
20. Which of the following is not an ethical duty of the Public Function that all Public Servants
must take into account in their actions?
a) Justice and equity

b) Discretion
c) Responsibility
d) Proper use of state assets
21. Which of the elements of the Institutional Strategic Plan is defined as a set of ordered
activities that contribute to the achievement of an objective that involve the use of
resources, and that have a determined unit of measurement and physical goal? Please
indicate the correct alternative:
a) Institutional strategic actions

b) The vision
c) The mission
d) Institutional strategic objectives
22. The Institutional Operational Plan of the Regional Government's Tourism Directorate
establishes as an institutional objective "To promote the Region's tourist destinations"; in
this regard, the User Area responsible for the fulfillment of this objective requires in its
Schedule of Requirements the contracting of a service for the production of videos to
promote tourist attractions and the acquisition of buses for tourism. In this regard, indicate
the correct alternative.
a) The requirement to contract the video production service is linked to the institutional
strategic objective, but the acquisition of buses for tourism is not linked to this
objective.
b) Both the requirement to contract the video production service and the requirement to
acquire buses for tourism is linked to the institutional strategic objective.
c) The requirement to contract the video production service and the requirement to
acquire buses for tourism are not linked to the institutional strategic objective.
d) The requirement to acquire buses for tourism is linked to the institutional strategic
objective, but the requirement to contract the video production service is not.
23. The Institutional Operational Plan of the Regional Government's Department of Education
establishes as an institutional objective "To reduce the learning difficulties of students in
special basic education". In this regard, the User Area responsible for the fulfillment of this
objective requires in its table of needs the contracting of the design and development of
teaching materials and the acquisition of school furniture. In this regard, please indicate the
correct alternative.
a) The requirement to contract the design and development of teaching materials is linked
to the institutional strategic objective, but the requirement to purchase school furniture
is not linked to this objective.
b) Both the requirement to contract the design and development of teaching materials and
the requirement to purchase school furniture are linked to the strategic objective.
c) The requirement to contract the design and development of teaching materials and the
requirement to purchase school uniforms are not linked to the institutional strategic
objective.
d) The requirement to purchase school furniture is linked to the institutional strategic
objective, but the requirement to contract the design and development of didactic
material is not linked to this objective.
24. In a contract for a document digitalization service subscribed by a District Municipality, a

penalty of S/. 50.00 for each day that personnel not in formal attire are used.
a) The penalty is proportional, but it is subjective, which violates the ethical principle of
appropriateness.
b) The penalty is objective, but it is disproportionate, which violates the ethical principle
of appropriateness.
c) The penalty is objective and proportional to the purpose of the contract, so it does not
violate any ethical principle.
d) The penalty is disproportionate and subjective, which violates the ethical principle of
appropriateness.
25. An officer did not calculate the penalty correctly, the penalty was 30 thousand and I
charged only 10 thousand, he has responsibility:
a) Administrative and civil

b) Civil
c) Penal
d) Administrative, civil and criminal
26. An official of a municipality took 40 days to make the payment to the contractor that was
granted the conformity for the delivery of video surveillance cameras, which the
Municipality had to pay the corresponding legal interests. Indicate the responsibility that
the Officer would assume.
a) The Municipality must charge the official the amount of legal interest paid to the
contractor.
b) The Municipality must refer the matter to the Public Prosecutor's Office for the
corresponding legal actions.
c) The Municipality must sanction the official by initiating an administrative process.
d) The official does not assume any civil, criminal or administrative liability because it is
not provided for in the state contracting law.
27. Which of the following is not an ethical prohibition on public service? Please indicate the
a) Misuse of privileged information.

b) Discretion.
c) Exercising sexual harassment with other public servants or subordinates.
d) Obtaining undue advantage.
28. Which of the following is not an ethical principle that every public servant should take into
account? Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) Truthfulness.
b) Suitability.
c) Fairness and equity.
d) Discretion.
29. In a public bidding process for the acquisition of medical material, the procedure was
declared null and void because the bidder's experience was included in the bidding
conditions as an evaluation factor. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) The ethical principle of efficiency and the ethical principle of justice and equity of the
public servant were violated.
b) No ethical principles were violated because the bidder's experience can be considered
as an evaluation factor.
c) The ethical principle of efficiency of the public servant was violated.
d) The ethical principle of efficiency, the ethical principle of justice and equity, and the
principle of truthfulness of the public servant were violated.
30. A sanitation service provider was to apply a penalty of S/. 100,000 for unjustified delay in
the delivery of water meters. However, the responsible official mistakenly applied a
penalty of S/. 70,000 What responsibility would the official who calculated this penalty
assume?
a) Administrative and civil

b) Civil
c) Penal
d) Administrative, civil and criminal
31. It is the duty of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must not retaliate in
any way or exercise any coercion against other public servants or other persons:
a) Transparency.
b) Discretion.
c) Adequate exercise of the position.
d) Neutrality.
32. It is the duty of the Public Function that states that the Public Servant must protect and
conserve the assets of the State, using those assigned to him/her for the performance of
his/her duties in a rational manner, avoiding their abuse, waste or squandering, without
using or allowing others to use the State's assets for private purposes or purposes other than
those for which they were specifically intended:
a) Transparency.
b) Proper use of State assets.
c) Adequate exercise of the position.
d) Neutrality.
33. A public servant does not process a request for an extension of time within ten (10)
working days, so the Entity does not make a decision and the contractor considers his
request approved. Which principle has been violated?
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Suitability.
d) Probity.
34. The members of the Committee prepare the Rules and Regulations of the selection
procedure. Which principle has been violated?
a) Respect.
b) Efficiency.
c) Suitability.
d) Probity.
35. Correlation:
a) Defines the raison d'être of the Entity within the framework of the competencies and
functions established in its law of creation; in accordance with the criteria of the
modernization of the State and within the framework of the sectorial or, if applicable,
territorial vision.
b) A set of orderly activities that contribute to the achievement of an institutional strategic

objective and involve the use of resources. They also have a unit of measurement and a
specific goal. They make it possible to articulate the achievement of the objectives in a
coherent and integrated manner with other institutional strategic actions.
c) It is the description of the purpose to be achieved measured through indicators and

their corresponding goals, which are established according to the period of the strategic
plan. It is composed of the purpose, indicators and goals.
d) It is the situation of the sector or territory that is expected to be achieved in the future.
It is established according to the betting scenario and taking the optimal scenario as a
reference.
Con:
1. Vision.
2. Mission.
3. Strategic objectives.
4. Strategic actions.
Alternatives:
a) a)-2; b)-4; c)-3; d)-1

b) a)-1; b)-3; c)-4; d)-2
c) a)-2; b)-4; c)-1; d)-3
d) a)-1; b)-3; c)-2; d)-4
36. One Entity purchased food for the Glass of Milk Program. Upon receiving the food, the
personnel stored it until it was distributed, without taking into account the required
conditions, which caused the food to spoil. Which principle do I violate?
a) Probity
b) Suitability
c) Truthfulness
d) Justice and Equity
37. A contractor bribes the Warehouse Manager of an Entity to declare that 500 bags were
brought into the warehouse when 200 bags of rice were actually brought in. Which
principle does it violate?
a) Suitability
b) Truthfulness
c) Probity
d) Justice and Equity
38. Mention which are the phases of strategic planning.

a) The institutional phase prospective analysis phase and strategic phase.
b) The institutional phase, prospective analysis phase, strategic phase and evaluation
phase.
c) The institutional phase, evaluation phase and prospective analysis phase.
d) The institutional phase, prospective analysis phase, strategic phase and follow-up
phase.
39. In which of the strategic planning phases is the "country vision" established?
a) Strategic phase
b) Institutional phase
c) Evaluation phase
d) Prospective phase
40. What would be the sequence for the District Municipality "San Agustin" to elaborate its
strategic planning.
a) National Strategic Development Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - Concerted Local

Development Plan.
b) Institutional Operational Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - Annual Contracting Plan.
c) Multiannual Sector Strategic Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - National Development
Plan.
d) National Strategic Development Plan - Concerted Local Development Plan -
Institutional Strategic Plan.
41. What would be the sequence for the Ministry of Culture to develop its strategic planning?
a) National Development Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - Concerted Local

Development Plan.
b) Plan Institutional Strategic Plan - Plan Institutional Operational Plan - Plan
Annual from
Hiring.
c) Plan Multiannual Sector Strategic - Institutional Strategic Plan - Plan
from
National Development.
d) National Strategic Development Plan - Multiannual Sectorial Strategic Plan -
Institutional Strategic Plan.
42. What is the strategic planning phase that results in the approval of the institutional strategic
plan.
a) Strategic phase
c) Prospective phase
d) Follow-up phase
43. At what stage of strategic planning does the PESEM result.
a) Strategic phase
c) Prospective phase
d) Follow-up phase
44. Correlate:
a) PEI () is performed by the following sectors
b) PESEM () duration of 8 years
c) POI () duration of 3 years
d) PDRC () establishes the activities to be carried
out
45. The server "José" of a Ministry took twenty (20) days to pay the contractor, so the Entity
had to pay the corresponding legal interest, before this should be done.
a) A disciplinary process should be opened.

b) An administrative process must be opened.
c) The server should be charged legal interest.
d) Nothing should be done.
46. Ten tomographs were purchased for a hospital in Huaraz; however, when they were
installed, they realized that they did not have the required environment.
a) Principleethicalfromefficiency
b) Principleethicalfromjustice
c) Principleethicalfromveracity
d) Principleethicalfromefficiency and fairness
47. In an LP, the server "Javier" was part of the Selection Committee, at the time of evaluating
the bids his immediate boss ordered him to disqualify all bids except for the company "EL
SOL SAC", and this order is fulfilled by the server, before this principle has been violated.
a) Ethical principle of efficiency

b) Ethical principle of loyalty and obedience
c) Ethical principle of probity
d) Ethical principle of probity and veracity
48. In an EA for an environmental impact assessment consultancy, the proposed methodology

was included as a factor in the evaluation.
a) Principlefromefficiencyand veracity
b) Principlefromefficiencyand suitability
c) Principlefromefficiency
d) No principles have been violated
49. What are the penalties to be applied to a public servant who maintains a relationship with
a public official?
labor
a) Warning and contractual termination.

b) Fine and contractual termination.
c) Reprimand and temporary suspension for up to two years.
d) Reprimand, temporary suspension and dismissal.
50. What are the sanctions to be applied to a public servant who does not have an employment
relationship?
a) Reprimand and dismissal
b) Fine and temporary suspension for one year
c) Fine and contract termination
d) Fine and dismissal.
51. Which of the following is not an ethical principle?
a) Respect
b) Probity
c) Transparency
d) Suitability
52. Which of the following is an ethical principle?
a) Responsibility
b) Respect
c) Discretion
d) Neutrality
53. Which of the following is not an ethical duty?
a) Respect
b) Neutrality
c) Responsibility
d) Discretion
54. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the code of ethics?
a) Maintain conflicting interest

b) Obtaining undue advantages
c) Misuse of privileged information
d) Adequate exercise of the position
55. With the ___________ the strategic planning process begins
a) Institutional phase
b) Prospective phase
c) Strategic phase
d) Follow-up phase
56. What is the correct sequence.
a) Strategic phase, institutional phase and prospective phase

b) Institutional phase, prospective phase and follow-up phase
c) Prospective phase, institutional phase and strategic phase

d) Prospective phase, strategic phase and institutional phase
57. Which of the phases of the strategic planning process is transversal.
a) Prospective phase
c) Follow-up phase
d) Strategic phase
58. An entity was to apply a penalty of S/. 50,000 for unjustified delay; however, by mistake
they apply a penalty of S/30,000 What responsibility would be assumed?
a) Administrative liability
b) Criminal and civil liability
c) Administrative and civil liability
d) Administrative, civil and criminal liability
59. An entity was to apply a penalty of S/ 180,000 for unjustified delay; however, it is charged
a penalty of S/ 200,000 What type of liability would be assumed?
a) Administrative liability
b) Criminal and civil liability
c) Administrative and civil liability
d) Administrative, civil and criminal liability
60. It is defined as the raison d'être of the entity.
a) The mission
b) The vision
c) Strategic objectives
d) Strategic actions
61. It is defined as a set of ordered activities that contribute to the achievement of a strategic
objective, involve the use of resources and have a unit of measurement.
a) The mission
b) Strategic objectives
c) Strategic actions
d) The vision
62. Which of the following is not an ethical duty of the Public Function that all Public Servants
must take into account in their actions?
a) Proper use of state assets

b) Neutrality
c) Responsibility
d) Loyalty and obedience.
63. Which of the following is not a prohibition of the public function that all public servants
must take into account in their actions? Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) Obtaining undue advantage.

b) Adequate exercise of the position.
c) Pressuring, threatening and/or harassing.

d) Maintain conflicting interests.
64. What are the penalties applicable to those persons who maintain an employment
relationship? Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) Reprimand, temporary suspension and dismissal.

b) Reprimand and dismissal.
c) Fine and Termination of Contract.
d) Termination of contract.
65. An entity contracts for the purchase of water drums. When the contractor delivers the
drums, they are temporarily stored in a physical space and then delivered to the user areas
that require them. Which macro process of the supply chain are we referring to?
a) Distribution
b) Storage
c) Inventory
d) Maintenance
COMPETENCE II: PREPARATORY ACTIONS
1. In a __________________ for the contracting of consulting services, the consulting

committee shall
selection must be made up of ____________________ Mark the correct alternative for
fill in the blanks.
a) Direct contracting, one (01) member of the contracting body.

b) Selection of individual consultants, one (01) member of the contracting body.
c) Price comparison, two (02) members of the contracting body.
d) Selection of individual consultants, two (02) members of the contracting body.
2. Establish the correct relationship between the number and the letter with respect to
determining the appropriate procurement method:
1. Electronic Reverse Auction

2. Electronic Catalog of Framework Agreement
3. Simplified Award
a. Acquisition of cement in the amount of S/ 200 000.00.

b. Hiring of the Compulsory Traffic Accident Insurance (SOAT) in the amount of S/.
60,000.00.
c. Acquisition of blankets for the amount of S/ 80 000.00.
d. Hiring of the Complementary Risk Work Insurance (SCTR) in the amount of S/
100,000.00.
COMPETENCE II: PREPARATORY ACTIONS 13

COMPETENCE III: SELECTION PROCEDURES 33
COMPETENCE IV: CONTRACTUAL EXECUTION 55
a)
3. State the correct relationship between the number and the letter with respect to determining
the appropriate method of procurement:

2. Electronic Catalog of Framework Agreement
3. Public Bidding
a. Superior piled rice in the amount of S/ 50 000.00.

b. Construction of an educational center in the amount of S/. 7,500,000.00
c. Liquefied petroleum gas in the amount of S/. 60 000.00.
d. Service of domestic airline tickets in the amount of S/ 80,000.00

4. From the review of the request, it is noted that one (1) 4 x 4 double cab pickup truck is
required; however, the characteristics of the pickup truck are not specified. Which
principle has been violated?
a) Principle of Publicity
b) Principle of Freedom of Competition
c) Principle of Transparency
d) Principle of equal treatment
5. From the review of the requirements for the execution of the contract, it is noted that the
presentation of a "sworn statement from each proposed personnel stating that they are not
working in another Public or Private Entity and that they will not do so during the
performance of their services in the execution of this work, attaching a legible copy of their
DNI (National Identity Card)" is required.The review of the requirements for the execution
of the contract shows that a "sworn statement of each proposed personnel stating that they
are not working in another Public or Private Entity and that they will not do so during the
provision of their services in the execution of the present work, attaching a legible copy of
their National Identity Card (DNI)" is required. Which principle has been violated?
a) Principle of Competition
d) Principle of equal treatment
6. The principle of equity is applicable during:
a) Thephasefrom preparatory actions

b) Thephase from selection
c) Thephasefrom execution contractual
d) Thephasefrom payment
7. In which cases, fractionation is incurred.
a) An unforeseeable requirement arises in addition to the scheduled requirement.

b) There were not enough resources available to carry out the contracting process
c) It is carried out through the Framework Agreement Electronic Catalogues.
d) When a consolidated purchase is not made with available resources.
8. Who is barred from being a member of a Selection Committee?
a) The Logistics Manager

b) The server who, by delegation, has approved the contracting file of the selection
procedure.
c) The Administrator, who is in charge of approving the requirements.
d) That member of the user area who is directly involved in the determination of the
technical characteristics.
9. In the market inquiry, the contracting body determines that the quantities are not perfectly
defined, and therefore informs the user area to specify their technical characteristics,
indicating:
a) That the lump sum system should be used.

b) That it is appropriate to use the turnkey system.
c) That the unit price system should be used.
d) That it is appropriate to use the competitive bidding process.
10. When the requirements include services of a different nature, such as goods and services,
the object of the contract is determined according to the service provided:
a) Of greater percentage incidence in the referential value or estimated value of the
contracting.
b) Of major importance to the Entity.

c) Of lesser percentage incidence in the referential value or estimated value of the
contract.
d) Of lower percentage incidence to acquire.
11. It does not belong to the contracting systems:
a) Rates
b) Percentage basis
c) Lump Sum
d) Turnkey
12. In the case of an inter-institutional agreement provided for in paragraph c) of Article 5 of

the TUO of the State Procurement Law, which does not require a Budget Credit Certificate,
since it does not represent any cost for the entity, is there an obligation to include the
referred agreement in the entity's Annual Procurement Plan (PAC)?
a) Depends on the entity.

b) Yes
c) No
d) It reports to the organ in charge of Contracting.
13. It is not a management document for government contracting.
a) Annual hiring plan.

b) Opening Institutional Budget.
c) Institutional Operating Plan.
d) Internal Labor Regulations.
14. About Hiring Requirements (check the correct option):
a) The requirement of goods or services in general of a permanent nature, whose

provision is required on a continuous or periodic basis is made for periods of not less
than one (1) year.
b) The Technical Specifications and Terms of Reference, which are different formal
instruments, are not part of the requirement.
c) In the definition of the requirement, reference may be made indistinctly to manufacture
or origin, manufacturing process of brands, patents or types of product, origin or
production, to the extent that they make the contracting with a given supplier more
efficient.
d) The requirement may not include qualification requirements of any kind.
15. Indicate which of the following types of contracts does not apply to Law 30225 State
Contracting Law and its Regulations:
a) Preparation of a pre-investment study for the construction of a police station.

b) Acquisition of computer equipment.
c) Hiring of consulting services for the analysis of a standard.
d) Concession of a road.
16. In relation to the Selection Committee, check the true statement.

a) The selection committee will only conduct the Consultant Selection and Price
Comparison.
b) The Selection Committee in the case of contracting of works and consulting services
must be formed by one (1) member with technical knowledge in the object of the
contracting.
c) The selection committee must conduct mandatoryBids, Competitive Bidding and
Selection of individual Consultants.
d) The Selection Committee will conduct all selection mechanisms.
17. Please indicate the correct answer.
a) In the unit price system, the quantities or magnitudes required must be known exactly
or precisely.
b) The mixed lump sum and unit price system is applicable only for general consulting
and construction supervision.
c) The lump sum system does not apply to the execution of work.
d) In the system based on a fixed fee and a success fee, the fixed fee and commission can
be calculated on a percentage basis.
18. In the case of procurement of goods, the Administrative Bidding Terms and Conditions
state that bidders must demonstrate bidder's experience equivalent to 2.5 times the
estimated value of the contract.
a) The process is null and void, as reference value should be mentioned.

b) It is correctly formulated, since it is within the limit of three (3) times the estimated
value allowed in the Standard Bidding Terms and Conditions.
c) The process is null and void, since the bidder's experience is a qualification
requirement considered optional.
d) It is not correctly formulated, since the amount corresponding to the Bidder's
Experience to be credited should be indicated in number and letters.
19. It is necessary to establish the Referential Value when the contracting of the following is
determined:
a) Goods, Services in general, Consulting and Execution of Works.

b) General Consulting and Construction Consulting.
c) General Services and General Consulting.
d) Construction Consulting and Execution of Works.
20. In the absence of a member of the Selection Committee, his or her respective alternate
shall act:
a) Until the date of execution of the respective contract.

b) Only while the incumbent is absent, and shall automatically reinstate him/her when the
reason for his/her absence ceases to exist.
c) Only while the incumbent is absent, reinstated upon justification of the reason for
absence.
d) Thereafter until completion of the selection procedure.
21. Regarding the Selection Committee, indicate the false answer:
a) The members of the selection committee may only be removed due to an act of God or
force majeure, termination of service, or any other justified reason, by means of a duly
motivated document.
b) In order to meet and adopt valid resolutions, the quorum for the operationof the
Selection Committee is the presence of the majority of full members.
c) The designation of the selection committee is notified by the Entity to each one of the
members.
d) The selection committee is composed of three (3) members, of which one (1) must
belong to the entity's contracting body and at least one (1) must have technical
knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
22. Can provisions of voluntary technical standards be included in the requirement?
a) No, because the OSCE has indicated in a Pronouncement that this is prohibited.
b) No, since they are not part of the national legal system.
c) Yes, as long as they serve to ensure compliance with functional or technical
requirements, it is verified that there is an organization in the market that can accredit
compliance with said technical standard, and they do not contravene mandatory
standards.
d) Yes, as long as it does not contravene any mandatory national regulation and is
expressly authorized by INACAL (INDECOPI).
23. Are the qualification requirements intended to improve the characteristics of the product
required by the entity?
a) Yes, because they are part of the minimum technical requirements.

b) The documents of the procedure must include the qualification requirements,
according to which suppliers will be verified as having the necessary capabilities to
perform the contract.
c) All qualification requirements are optional and are therefore not intended to improve
product characteristics.
d) Yes, the qualification requirements play a similar role as the evaluation factors.
24. For the procurement of goods and services, the Selection Committee must be formed.
a) One member of the contracting body and one member of the user area.
b) Two members of the contracting body and one member of the user area.
c) One member of the contracting body and at least one member with technical
knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
d) One member of the contracting body and two members of the user area.
25. The stages of the contracting process with the State are as follows:
a) Preparatory actions, selection and contractual execution.

b) Pre-investment, preparatory actions, the selection process and the contract.
c) Pre-investment, selection process and contractual execution.
d) Planning, pre-investment, contracting methods and contractual execution.
26. How can the representation of the person who subscribes the offer be accredited in the case
of a natural person?
a) With a legalized copy of the DNI.

b) No accreditation is required, 18 years of age is sufficient.
c) With a simple copy of the DNI or similar document.
d) With a legalized copy of the DNI and authorization of the spouse, if married.
27. Regarding qualification requirements:

a) In all selection procedures the bidder's experience must be required, with the exception
of the contracting of goods, which does not review complexity.
b) The Entity may impose requirements other than those indicated in the standard
documents approved by the OSCE.
c) The Entity may not impose requirements other than those indicated in the standard
documents approved by the OSCE.
d) It is at the Entity's discretion to establish qualification requirements.
28. The brother of a Vocal of the Supreme Court subscribes a contract with a Ministry to
provide the service of photocopying files for the amount of S/. 100,000.00
a) There is a cause for the contract to be declared null and void, because it was signed by
a person who was prohibited from contracting with the ministry.
b) There is a cause for the contract to be partially terminated, because it was signed by a
person who was barred from contracting with the ministry.
c) A cause for the contract to be totally terminated is configured, because it was
subscribed by a person who was barred from contracting with the ministry.
d) There are no grounds for the contract to be terminated or declared null and void
because the member's brother is not barred from contracting with the ministry.
29. The .......................... must necessarily contain the Budget Certification being this the last
step for its .............................................................................
a) Basis, approval
b) Request, pass to OEC
c) Contracting file, approval,
d) Annual Contracting Plan, approval.
30. In a ................................................. for the contracting of works consultancy, the selection

committee must be formed by .............................. Indicate the correct alternative to fill in
the blanks.
a) Public Bidding, (02) members must be from the user area and (01) from the OEC.
b) Public Tender, (02) members must have technical knowledge in the object of the
contract and (01) must be OEC.
c) Selection of individual consultants, (01) member must have technical knowledge in the
object of the contract and (01) must be OEC.
d) Direct contracting, (02) members must be from the user area and (01) from the OEC.
31. In order for a procurement to be considered in the draft Annual Procurement Plan, what
characteristics should it NOT have?
a) It should be prepared on the basis of the draft POI.

b) Indicate the estimated amount of the contract
c) Indicate the quantity of goods
d) Make reference to brand
32. For the acquisition of a scanning electron microscope, the requirement has not established
the qualification requirement of technical and professional capacity. In this regard, the
following should be noted:
a) The requirement of qualification of technical and professional capacity is optional.

b) The Selection Committee cannot determine any qualification requirements, because
These are set by the user area in the request.

c) The Selection Committee must request a letter of commitment from the key personnel
with a legalized signature to guarantee the proper execution of the contracting, since it
is a sophisticated equipment.
d) The Selection Committee must complete the qualification requirement noted under the
results-based management approach, regardless of whether or not it is in the
procurement file, under responsibility.
33. Article 35 of the Regulations of the State Contracting Law establishes the Contracting
Systems, which system corresponds to: "The bidder shall formulate its bid for a fixed
integral amount and for a determined term of execution".
a) Unit Price System

b) Lump Sum System
c) Mixed Lump Sum and Unit Price System
d) Percentages
34. In which of the following cases must a Selection Committee necessarily be appointed?
a) Purchases equal to or less than eight (8) Unidades Impositivas Tributarias (Tax Units)
b) Direct Contracting for Lease of Real Property
c) Simplified Award for the Construction of a Highway
d) Electronic Reverse Auction for Fuel Procurement
35. In the case of goods, the minimum technical specifications should not consider:
a) The goals and objects of the POI.

b) Place of delivery.
c) The term of execution of the service
d) The public purpose
36. A collegiate body competent to prepare the documents of the selection procedure, as well
as to adopt decisions and carry out any act necessary for the development of the procedure
until its completion:
a) Special Standing Committee

b) Special Committee
c) Selection Committee
d) Administration Office
37. This is the new approach of the State Contracting Law (Law No. 30225):
a) Product Management
b) Knowledge Management
c) Management by Results
d) Administrative Management
38. It is responsible for the registration of the information in the SEACE:
a) In all cases, only from the Entity's Head of the Entity.

b) Of the official who had requested the activation of the SEACE certificate and of the
SEACE CERTIFICATE (the one with user and password) that had registered the
information.
c) Only of the official who had requested the activation of the certificate.
d) Of the person who has registered the information.

39. In the full screen of the "Home" tab of the SEACE Web Portal, you have the following
sections.
a) Reverse Auctions, Framework Agreements, Tutorial Videos, Draft Approval Forms

and Standardized Bases for selection procedures.
b) Framework Agreements, Tutorial Videos, Corporate Procurement, Contracts and
Standardized Bases.
c) Reverse Auction, Annual Plans, Tutorial Videos, Project Cards
homologation and CUBSO.
d) Selection Processes, Contracts, Documents and Publications, Tutorial Videos and
Corporate Purchases.
40. These are the officers, departments and bodies in charge of the Entity's contracting
processes:
a) The User Area, the Contracting Body and the designated Selection Committees.
b) The Head of the Entity, the User Area, the Body in charge of Contracting and the
Selection Committees that may be appointed.
c) The User Area and the Contracting Body.
d) The Head of the Entity is in charge of the Entity's contracting processes, but must
delegate his authority, as established by law.
41. Regarding the age of the Referential Value to convene a selection procedure for the
execution of works (check the correct option):
a) In the case of execution and consulting works, the referential value cannot be older
than three (3) months, counted from the date of consignment of said value in the PAC.
b) In the case of execution and consulting works, the reference value may not be older
than nine (9) months, counted from the date of determination of the construction
budget or the construction consulting budget.
c) In the case of goods, services and works, the referential value cannot be older than six
(6) months, counted from the date of determination of the work budget or the work
consulting budget.
d) The reference value may be updated even after the call for proposals, but before the
participant registration stage.
42. On the Estimated Value, check the correct option:
a) It is determined by the User Area, based on the technical specifications of goods or

terms of reference of services, different from the ones described in the previous
section.
b) The OEC is required to conduct market research to determine the estimated value of
the procurement.
c) When conducting the market research, the OEC should only resort to existing
information on public sector procurements for goods or services that are similar to the
requirement.
d) None of the above
43. It is not a selection procedure document:
a) Framework Agreement
b) Basis
c) Request for quotation
d) Request for expression of interest
44. The acts carried out through the SEACE during the selection procedures are understood to
be notified:
a) The same day of its publication.

b) On the business day following its publication.
c) On the calendar day following its publication.
d) On the day the Selection Committee or the OSCE, as the case may be, so decides.
45. On the purpose of the State Contracting Law:
a) Promote performance under the results-based management approach.

b) To enable the fulfillment of public purposes
c) Establish rules aimed at maximizing the value of public resources.
d) All alternatives are correct.
46. The contracting management corresponds to the:
a) National Public Budget System

b) Supply System
c) National Public Investment System
d) National System for the Administration of State Assets
47. The composition of the members of the Selection Committee for the contracting of works
execution, general consulting and works consulting is as follows:
a) Of the three (03) members, at least one (01) must have technical knowledge in the
subject matter of the contract.
b) Of the three (03) members, at least one (01) must be from the user area.
c) Of the three (03) members, at least two (02) must have knowledge of government
contracting.
d) Of the three (03) members, at least two (02) must have technical knowledge in the
subject matter of the contract.
48. Who is barred from being a member of a Selection Committee?
a) The Logistics Manager

b) The server who, by delegation, has approved the contracting file of the contracting
process.
c) The Administrator, who is in charge of approving the requirements.
d) That member of the user area who is directly involved in the determination of the
technical characteristics.
49. The budget certification must be in:
a) The Basis
b) The requirement
c) Contracting File
d) Annual Contracting Plan
50. What hiring should not be foreseen in the CAP?
a) Procurements made through framework agreements, provided that the amount of the
contract exceeds 8 UIT.
b) Contracting carried out under the scope of a legal contracting regime that so
establishes.
c) Contracting carried out by other Entities in charge of the selection procedure or
corporate purchases.
d) The hiring of notaries public to perform the functions set forth in the LCE and its
Regulations.
51. In accordance with article 11, paragraph o) of the TUO of the Law, what is understood by
"other verifiable circumstance" to prevent a supplier from contracting with the state?
a) Any other situation that makes it possible to determine that a natural or legal person is
the front man of an impeded supplier.
b) Any other situation that does not allow determining that a natural or legal person is a
derivation, succession or has the status of front man of an impaired supplier, being that,
through this, the supplier does not intend to evade its non-impaired status.
c) Any other situation that allows determining that a natural or legal person is a
derivative, successor or has the status of front man of an impaired supplier, being that,
through this, the supplier does not intend to evade its condition of impaired.
d) Any other situation that allows determining that a natural or legal person is a
derivation, succession or has the status of front man of an impaired supplier, being that,
through this, the supplier intends to evade its condition of impaired.
52. "The conduct of the participants in any stage of the contracting process is guided by
honesty and truthfulness, avoiding any improper practice, which in case of occurrence,
must be communicated to the competent authorities in a direct and timely manner",
corresponds to the principle of:
a) Transparency
b) Honesty and truthfulness
c) Morality
d) Integrity
53. One of the following cases excluded from the application of the State Contracting Law are
subject to OSCE supervision:
a) Service leasing contracts entered into with the presidents of boards of directors, who
perform full-time functions in the State Entities or Companies.
b) Contracts entered into by the Peruvian State with another State.
c) The contracting of public services, provided that there is no possibility of contracting
with more than one supplier.
d) The hiring of notaries public to perform the functions provided for in this rule and its
regulations.
54. Check the correct statement regarding the Referential Value:
a) The reference value must include all applicable items that affect the value of the goods
and services to be contracted.
b) The reference value for works is established in the construction budget.
c) The referential value for a work consultancy must be signed by the consultants and/or
servers involved in the preparation, evaluation and/or approval.
d) For the contracting of works, the user area provides the components or items necessary
for the structure of the work budget, which allows the OEC to determine the reference value of
the work.
55. Establish the correct relationship between the number and the letter with respect to
determining the appropriate procurement method:
1. Electronic Framework Agreement Catalog
3. Simplified Award
a. Acquisition of oil in the amount of S/ 150,000.00.

b. Purchase of white sugar in the amount of S/. 35,000.00.
c. Hiring of domestic airline tickets in the amount of S/. 10,000.00.
d. Security and surveillance service contract for the amount of S/. 500,000.00.
COMPETENCE II: PREPARATORY ACTIONS........................................................13

COMPETENCE III: SELECTION PROCEDURES.....................................................33
COMPETENCE IV: CONTRACTUAL EXECUTION................................................55
a)
56. In a _________________ for the contracting of services for the development of the POI of
a
Entity, the selection committee must be formed by _______________________. Point out
the
correct alternative to fill in the blanks.
a) Direct contracting, one (1) member of the contracting body.

b) Selection of individual consultants, one (01) member of the contracting body.
c) Price comparison, two (2) members of the contracting body. d) Consultancy in general,
one (1) member of the contracting body and two (2) members with technical knowledge.
57. It is not part of the Annual Contracting Plan format:
a) Reference value
b) Estimated amount of the contract
c) Type of purchase or selection
d) Type of process
58. The budget credit certification is requested by:
a) User area
b) Body in charge of procurement
c) Budget Office
d) Administration Office
59. The terms and conditions of the selection process for the purchase of 4x4 pickup trucks did
not establish the delivery of advances to the contractor. However, for the signing of the
contract, a clause is included indicating that a 15% advance payment will be granted to the
contractor. With this conduct, has the Selection Committee violated any principle of the
State Contracting Law?
a) Freedom of competition
b) Advertising
c) Equity
d) Equal treatment
60. The Selection Committee calls for a Public Bidding but at the time of registering the
Bidding Terms and Conditions in the SEACE it makes a mistake and considers the Bidding
Terms and Conditions for a Simplified Award. In this regard, please indicate which
principle of the State Contracting Law is being violated:
b) Transparency
c) Competition
d) Equal treatment
61. The Ministry "LOS ANGELITOS" calls for a Simplified Award for the manufacture of
uniforms, establishing that those bidders whose factory is located in certain districts of
Lima will obtain an additional bonus. Does this provision violate any principle of the State
Contracting Law?
b) Transparency
c) Advertising
d) Equal treatment
62. Which principle of the State Contracting Law is violated when a right is not recognized to
the contractor, for example: the extension of the term is denied even though the contractor
is right or the price increase is not recognized despite the increase in the Minimum Living
Wage?
b) Transparency
c) Equity
d) Equal treatment
63. In order to be approved, the contracting file must contain:

The
requirement,_______________________________________________________________
a) Determination of the selection procedure, qualification requirements.

b) Determination of the selection procedure, evaluation factors.
c) Qualification requirements, evaluation factors.
d) Qualification requirements, selection procedure.
64. In relation to the number of times an entity may modify its CAP, indicate which is the
correct alternative:
a) State procurement regulations establish that the annual procurement plan may only be
modified during the first half of the fiscal year.
b) Government procurement regulations do not establish a limit on the number of times an

entity may modify its annual procurement plan.
c) State procurement regulations establish that the annual procurement plan may be
modified only once per month.
d) State procurement regulations establish that the annual procurement plan may be
modified a maximum of 10 times during the fiscal year.
65. In the event that an entity wants to call for direct contracting for the lease of real estate,
such procedure ______________________________________________ be in charge
from______________________________________.
a) A selection committee may.
b) It can, the body in charge of contracting.
c) Must, a selection committee.
d) The body in charge of contracting must
66. An Entity issues an internal directive for contracts under 8 UIT, and establishes that when
the amount of the contract is greater than 3 UIT, before proceeding with the contract it
must verify that the supplier is registered in the National Register of Suppliers and is not
disqualified from contracting with the State. In this regard, please indicate the correct
alternative:
a) The directive issued by the Entity should have contemplated the verification of
compliance with the registration in the National Registry of Suppliers when the amount
of the contract is greater than 1 UIT; in addition to the verification that the supplier is
not disqualified from contracting with the State for any amount.
b) The directive issued by the Entity should have included the verification that the
supplier is not disqualified when the amount of the contract is greater than 1 UIT.
c) The directive issued by the Entity should not have included verification that the
supplier is not disqualified from contracting with the State.
d) The directive issued by the Entity should have included the verification that the
supplier is not registered in the National Register of Suppliers, when the amount of the
contract is greater than 3 UIT.
67. Mr. Perez, a regular member of a selection committee, did not participate in a public
bidding process for the contracting of a courier service, without any justification; and his
alternate, Mr. Padilla, acted in his absence, integrating the bidding process. At the date of
the bid presentation ceremony, Mr. Perez wants to resume his responsibilities as a member
of the Selection Committee; however, the other members oppose his return to the
committee because his absence was unjustified. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) The members of the selection committee did not act correctly, because they should
have allowed Mr. Perez to resume his responsibilities as an alternate member, but not
as a full member of the selection committee.
b) The members of the selection committee did not act correctly, because they should
have allowed Mr. Perez to resume his responsibilities as a full member of the selection
committee.
c) The members of the selection committee did not act correctly, because they should
have allowed Mr. Perez to resume his responsibilities as a full member, nor as an
alternate member of the selection committee.
d) The members of the selection committee acted correctly in not allowing Mr. Perez to
resume his responsibilities as a full member of the selection committee because his
absence was unjustified.
68. Within a maximum period of _ In the SEACE, an Entity must register and publish in the
SEACE, the
information on their contracting, the amounts of which are of ___________that would have
during the month. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) 5 working days of the following quarter, 1 to 8 UITs

b) 5 business days of the following month, 1 to 8 UIT.
c) 10 working days of the following month, 1 to 8 UIT.

d) 10 working days of the following quarter, 1 to 8 UIT.
69. The Production Management of an entity, after preparing the request, indicates in a
memorandum that it will be in charge of the custody of the procurement file for the
acquisition of chemical supplies. In this regard, it should be noted:
a) The procurement file must be kept in the custody of the contracting body at all times.
b) The custody of the procurement file corresponds to the head of the entity, except in the
period in which such custody is in charge of the selection committee.
c) Custody of the procurement file is the responsibility of the contracting body, except
during the period when such custody is the responsibility of the selection committee.
d) The selection committee must have custody of the procurement file at all times.
70. In the event that an entity wishes to carry out a public tender for the contracting of the
service of publication of notices, such procedure shall be carried out by __be in charge of
____________. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) debit, selection committee

b) You may, selection committee.
c) May, the body in charge of contracting.
d) Must, the body in charge of contracting.
71. An entity wants to call a public tender for the hiring of a consultant for the hiring of a
consultant to formulate a public investment project. How should the selection committee be
composed?
a) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one of the members must
belong to the user area.
b) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one of the members must
have technical knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
c) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least two of the members must
belong to the user area.
d) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least two of the members must
have technical knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
72. The single catalog of goods, services and works has the following levels: , ,
,______________e_______to determine the code to be used
can be recorded in the consolidated requirements table format. In this regard, please
a) Group, family, class, commodity, item.

b) Group, segment, family, commodity, item.
c) Segment, family, class, commodity, item.
d) Segment, category, family, commodity, item.
73. One year after the delivery of a front loader, an entity initiates an arbitration claim for
hidden defects against the company that sold the machinery. Will this arbitration process be
part of the procurement file?
a) Yes, because the contracting dossier must include the means of solving
controversies.
b) No, because the procurement file only contains the actions that take place during a
selection procedure.
c) No, because the procurement file only includes preparatory actions.
d) No, because the procurement file does not include arbitration proceedings.
74. Which of the following items can be included in the consolidated schedule of requirements
format:
a) Object of contracting and qualification requirements.

b) The code of the catalog of goods, services and works, and the qualification
requirements.
c) The code of the catalog of goods, services and works, the object of contracting and the
qualification requirements.
d) The code of the catalog of goods, services and works, and the object of the contract.
75. In which of the following documents of the selection procedure can the bidder's
commercial guarantee factor be included?
a) Bases for the contracting of services and consulting in general.

b) Bases for the contracting of goods and consulting services in general.
c) Bases for the procurement of goods and services in general.
d) Bases for the contracting of services, services in general and consulting in general.
76. Mr. Mario, a full member of a Selection Committee, leaves on vacation on the day the
committee was to evaluate the bids. Mr. Javier, alternate member of the Committee, acts in
his absence. As of the date on which the award is due to be granted, Mr. Mario has already
returned to work.
a) Mr. Mario must rejoin the committee as a regular member to award the good pro and
for the other stages, until the selection procedure is completed; and Mr. Javier may
rejoin as an alternate member of the committee.
b) Mr. Javier must continue to be a regular member for awarding the good pro and for the
other stages, until the selection process is completed; and Mr. Mario may rejoin as an
alternate member.
c) Mr. Javier must continue to be a regular member for awarding the good pro and for the
other stages, until the selection process is completed; and Mr. Mario cannot rejoin as an
alternate member.
d) Mr. Javier can continue to be a regular member for the awarding of the good pro and
for the other stages, until the selection process is completed; and Mr. Mario must be
reinstated as an alternate member.
77. In relation to the CAP, indicate the correct alternative.

a) It is not necessary to modify the CAP in order to include and/or exclude procurements.
b) The PAC must be modified to include and exclude contracts.
c) The CAP must be modified to include recruitments, but not to exclude.
d) The CAP must be modified to exclude recruitments, but not to include.
78. Which of the following general data of the procurement, corresponding to the procurement
file, is registered in the console of preparatory acts of the SEACE.
a) The description of the object, the nomenclature, and the estimated value or reference
value.
b) The description of the object, and the estimated value or reference value, but it is not
necessary to record the nomenclature.
c) The nomenclature, estimated value or reference value, but it is not necessary to record
the description of the object.
d) The description of the object and the nomenclature, but it is not necessary to record the
estimated value or reference value.
79. The institutional operational plan establishes as an institutional objective "to improve the
learning of students in the region". In this regard, the user area requires in its table of needs,
the contracting of a consulting firm to develop reading comprehension materials, and the
purchase of school uniforms.
a) The requirement to hire the consulting firm is linked to the institutional strategic
objective, but the requirement to purchase school uniforms is not.
b) Both the requirement to hire the consulting firm and the requirement to purchase
school uniforms are linked.
c) The requirement to hire the consulting firm and the requirement to purchase school
uniforms are not linked.
d) The requirement to purchase school uniforms is linked to the institutional strategic
objective, but the requirement to hire the consulting firm is not linked.
80. In a surveillance service contract, it is established that the operators will earn the RMV.
Three months into the contract, the Government increases the RMV by 3%. In view of this
situation, the Entity rejects the contractor's request to amend the contract to incorporate this
increase to the contract.
a) The entity would violate the principle of fairness by rejecting the contractor's request.
b) The entity would violate the principle of fairness, the principle of competition and the
principle of integrity by rejecting the contractor's request.
c) The Entity would violate the principle of fairness and the principle of competition by
rejecting the contractor's request.
d) The Entity would violate the principle of fairness and the principle of integrity by
rejecting the contractor's request.
81. A regional government has stated in its terms of reference for preventive vehicle
maintenance services that technicians must have at least 20 years of experience. What do
you think about this?
a) It is an unreasonable requirement that does not comply with public procurement

regulations.
b) This is a way to ensure that the contractor provides a good programming service and
does not harm the entity's management.
c) This requirement is correct because it complies with the principle of Effectiveness and
Efficiency.
d) The requirement is correct because the user area has the right to establish the terms of
reference for the services it needs to meet its needs.
82. A regional government has stated in its terms of reference for the painting of its
headquarters that the painters must have at least 10 years of experience. What do you think
about this?
a) This is an unreasonable requirement that does not comply with public procurement
regulations.
b) This is a way to ensure that the contractor provides a good programming service and
does not harm the entity's management.
c) The requirement is correct because it complies with the principle of Effectiveness.
and efficiency.
d) The requirement is correct because the user area has the right to establish the terms of
reference for the services it needs to meet its needs.
83. The Ministry "DEFENSA NACIONAL" requires consulting services for the preparation of
directives, for which the user area sends the respective request to the body in charge of
contracting. The head of said body referred and requested or a servant to carry out the
market research. Once the estimated value has been determined, the server forwards the
market inquiry to the planning office without the authorization of his boss, requesting the
budget credit certification. In this regard, indicate the correct alternative.
a) The server did not act correctly by sending the market inquiry, without the
authorization of his boss; and by not requesting the budget office to certify the budget
credit.
b) The server acted correctly in submitting the market inquiry, without the authorization
of his boss; and in requesting the budget credit certification from the planning office.
c) The server acted correctly in submitting the market inquiry, without the authorization
of his boss; but he should not have requested the budget credit certification from the
planning office.
d) The server acted correctly in requesting the budget credit certification from the
planning office, but he should not have sent the market research without the
authorization of his boss.
84. Which items can be included in the consolidated schedule of requirements?
a) Unit of measure
b) Unit of measure and object of procurement
c) The unit of measure, the object of procurement and the system of procurement
d) Subject of contracting and contracting system
85. It is required to contract the acquisition of 5 vans, how should the selection committee be
composed?
a) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least two (2) of the members
must belong to the user area.
b) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one (1) of the members
c) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one (1) of the members
must have technical knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
d) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least two (2) of the members
86. It is required to hire a consulting service for the environmental impact study. How should
the selection committee be composed?
c) One member must be a member of the contracting body and at least one member must
be a member of the contracting body and at least one member of the contracting body must be a
member of the contracting body.
one (1) of the members must have technical knowledge in the subject matter of the
contract. d) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least two (2) of the
members must have technical knowledge of the subject matter of the contract.
87. A contract is required for the construction of a hospital. How should the selection
committee be composed?
c) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one (l) of the members
88. A meat procurement contract is required. How should the selection committee be
composed?
c) One member must belong to the contracting body and at least one (1) of the members
89. The user area includes in the terms of reference for hiring an individual consultant to
conduct a tariff study, requesting as a qualification requirement the presentation of a
certificate of studies from a foreign university, which can only be presented by a relative of
the head of the user area. In this regard, please indicate which principle of the State
Contracting Law is being violated:
b) Transparency
c) Advertising
d) Equal treatment
90. The Municipality "SAN GREGORIO" has published its PAC in the SEACE 8 working
days after its approval. Does this provision violate any principle of the State Contracting
Law?
a) Advertising
b) Freedom of competition
c) Competition
d) Equal treatment
91. In one Ministry, 20 selection procedures were declared void, but were not called again
during the year. How should the Entity act?
a) The 20 selection procedures declared deserted that are not included in the selection
process can be excluded.
The company was reconvened later in the year.

b) The 20selection proceduresthat were declared void and were not reconvened during the
year should be cancelled.
c) No selection procedures should be included.
d) No selection procedure should be excluded.
92. In the "TODOS JUNTOS" Municipality, 10 selection procedures were declared null and
void, going back to the call for applications stage, and were not called again during the
year. How should the Entity act?
a) The 10 selection procedures that were declared null and void and were not reconvened
during the year may be included.
b) No selection procedures should be included.
c) The 10 selection procedures that were declared null and void and were not reconvened
during the year can be excluded.
d) No selection procedure should be excluded.
93. The PAC included 160 selection procedures, of which 120 concluded with the conclusion
of the contract. Of the remaining 40, 20 were declared null and void and were backdated to
the development of bases, but were not reconvened. The rest of the selection procedures
were not convened because some budget items were reprogrammed. How should the Entity
act?
a) The 20 selection procedures declared null and void may be included.

b) No selection procedures should be included.
c) No selection procedure should be excluded.
d) The 20 uncalled selection procedures may be excluded.
94. An Entity needs to purchase scales, for which the user area submits the corresponding
technical specifications. The Head of Logistics notes that the specifications do not mention
mandatory compliance with a metrological standard and a Peruvian technical standard, and
therefore requests the user area to reformulate its requirement to include mandatory
compliance with both standards. Do you agree with this decision?
a) Yes, because the metrological standard and the Peruvian technical standard are
mandatory.
b) No, because the metrological standard is of optional compliance and the Peruvian
technical standard is of mandatory compliance.
c) No, because the metrological standard is mandatory and the Peruvian technical
standard is optional.
d) No, because the metrological standard and the Peruvian technical standard are optional.
95. An Entity approves a procurement file for the development of process mapping. This file
contained the request, the certification of budget appropriation, the upper and lower limits
of the estimated value, but not the evaluation factors, nor the determination of the selection
procedure What observations should be made?
a) None, because the entire content of the contracting file is correct.

b) The contracting file must include the upper and lower limits of the estimated value, but
not the evaluation factors or the determination of the selection procedure.
c) The contracting file should not include the upper and lower limits of the estimated
value, but should include the evaluation factors and the determination of the selection
procedure.
d) The contracting file should not include the upper and lower limits of the estimated
value, nor the evaluation factors, but it should include the determination of the
96. Dos de Mayo hospital needs to purchase disposable syringes. When conducting the market
research, it requests quotations from suppliers that sell X-ray equipment, without
including in the requirement the qualification requirements and evaluation factors. Is that
correct?
a) Yes, everything is correct.

b) It is not correct to request quotations from suppliers that are not in the field, but it is
correct not to include in the requirement the qualification requirements and evaluation
factors.
c) It is not correct to request quotations from suppliers that are not in the field, and it is
not correct not to include in the requirement the qualification requirements; but it is
correct not to include in the requirement the evaluation factors.
d) It is correct to request quotations from suppliers that are not in the field, as well as not
to include in the requirement the qualification requirements, but it is not correct not to
include in the requirement the evaluation factors.
97. The Head of Logistics delegates a specialist to carry out the market research for the
contracting of the cleaning service. At the time of reviewing the inquiry made and before
requesting the budget credit certification, the Chief of Logistics notes that the quotations
that served as a source to determine the estimated value come from suppliers that provide
security and surveillance services. He also notes that at the time of requesting quotations,
the qualification requirements were not sent to these suppliers, so he asked the specialist
to carry out a new market research. Is this correct?
a) If it is correct to carry out a new market survey, because quotations should have been
requested from suppliers in the area, and the qualification requirements should have
been included in the requirement.
b) It is not correct to carry out a new market research, because it is fine to request
quotations from suppliers that are not in the field, as well as not to include in the
requirement the qualification requirements.
c) It is correct to carry out a new market research, but I consider that it is correct to
request quotations from suppliers that are not in the field, and that qualification
requirements should not be included in the requirement.
d) None of the above.
98. The Entity requires the purchase of computer equipment, the treasury area requests the
purchase of 10 computers that are in the Electronic Catalog of Framework Agreement,
and the IT area requests the purchase of 9 computers that are not in said Catalog. Can the
OEC consolidate them and call for a single selection procedure?
a) Whether it should consolidate and convene a single selection procedure.

b) You should not consolidate, you should contract separately.
c) If it should consolidate, after inclusion in the CAP.
d) It should not consolidate, after inclusion in the CAP.
99. An Entity requires the purchase of Oat Flakes and Quinoa Flakes for the Glass of Milk
Program, the first one is in the List of Common Goods and Services, but the other one is
not. In view of this, can the OEC consolidate them and call a single selection procedure?
a) Whether it should consolidate and convene a single selection procedure.

b) If it should consolidate, after inclusion in the CAP.
c) It should not consolidate, after inclusion in the CAP.
d) You should not consolidate, you should contract separately.
COMPETENCE III: SELECTION PROCEDURES
1. The _______________ establishes provisions for the formulation and approval process,
publication, modification, execution and follow-up of the Annual Procurement Plan and
the ___________ establishes provisions for the application of the rules regarding the
participation of suppliers in consortia.
a) Directive No. 001-2019-OSCE/CD, Directive No. 004-2017-OSCE/CD

b) Directive No. 002-2019-OSCE/CD, Directive No. 006-2019-OSCE/CD
c) Directive No. 002-2019-OSCE/CD, Directive No. 005-2019-OSCE/CD
d) Directive No. 004-2015-OSCE/CD, Directive No. 008-2016-OSCE/CD
2. A regional government announces a public tender for the contracting of Internet service.
One participant notes that the bidding conditions only allow suppliers domiciled in that
region to participate, which it considers to be a violation of the principle of freedom of
competition, the principle of competition and the principle of equity. In this regard, please
indicate the correct alternative.
a) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that in the case
in question the principle of freedom of competition and the principle of competition
are violated, but not the principle of equity.
b) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that the
principle of fairness and the principle of competition are violated in the case in
question, but not the principle of freedom of competition.
c) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that in this case
the principle of freedom of competition and the principle of equity are violated, but not
the principle of competition.
d) The participant's observation should be accepted to the extent that in this case the
principle of freedom of competition, the principle of competition and the principle of
equity are violated.
3. You are a member of a selection committee that is carrying out a procedure to purchase
construction materials, which was once declared deserted because the winning company
did not show up to sign the contract. Can you include in the selection procedure documents
an indication that a bidder who has not previously presented himself to sign the contract
will not be allowed to apply?
a) If possible, because the possibility of generating economic damage to the entity must
be avoided.
b) It is not possible, but if the company that did not sign a contract is presented, it will be
allowed to participate, but it will be disqualified in the technical evaluation under the
assumption that it did not sign the contract in the first call for bids.
c) It is not possible. However, in case the company that did not sign the contract is
presented to the process, the special committee must suspend the process and wait for
the OSCE tribunal's sanction.
d) It is not possible. The special committee should allow it to participate since there is no
express sanction from the OSCE court that disqualifies it from participating and
contracting with the State.
4. What is the deadline for requesting the submission of the questioned documents to the
OSCE in a simplified award?
a) In the case of works and consulting works, the term is 3 working days.
b) In the Simplified Award there is no possibility of requesting the elevation of the
questions to the bidding documents for the resolution of consultations, observations and
integration of the bidding documents.
c) In the case of goods and services in general, the term is 3 business days.
d) In the case of a Reverse Auction Simplified Award, the term will be 2 business days.
5. The terms and conditions of a public bidding process for the preparation of a technical file
for a construction project have not considered the evaluation factor "price". In this regard,
it should be noted:
a) If no one observed it, it is valid.

b) There is no problem since this factor is optional in the case of services in general.
c) There is no problem since this factor is optional in the case of consulting services.
d) The nullity should be declared.
6. This is the type of selection procedure called to hire a natural person to provide consulting
services in general. Such a natural person does not require staff teams or additional
professional support:
a) Public Bidding.
b) Public bidding.
c) Price Comparison.
d) Selection of Individual Consultants.
7. In order to award the bid for works whose proposals exceed the referential value, it is
correct to state:
a) The term for awarding the good pro will not exceed five (5) working days from the
date set forth in the calendar for the Awarding of the Good Pro, under the
responsibility of the Head of the Entity.
b) The bidder that obtained the highest total score may reduce its economic offer to an
amount equal to or less than the reference value.
c) In selection procedures, the acceptance to reduce the amount of the proposal must be
made within a maximum period of 10 days after the award of the bid.
d) In the selection procedures in private act, the acceptance will be recorded in the
SEACE.
8. On the date set for the presentation of bids, only two of the three members of the selection
committee were present. This act was carried out with two members, who indicated that
the majority of the members are present. In this regard, it is appropriate to state the
following:
a) The act of presentation of bids may continue if so permitted by the bidders.

b) In order to carry out the act with two members of the selection committee, the
authorization of the Institutional Control Organ is required to avoid future
observations.
c) According to the results-based management approach, the act of submitting bids may
be declared null and void ex officio.
d) The act of presentation of bids should be declared null and void ex officio sincethe
quorum for the meeting is the totality of the members of the selection committee.
9. Which selection procedure is not announced through the SEACE?
a) Public Bidding.
b) Price comparison.
c) Public bidding.
d) Simplified Award.
10. In order to convene a selection procedure as a general rule, the following must be verified
beforehand:
a) That the Bases be published at the time of the call for applications.
b) That the selection procedure is included in the PAC.
c) That the executive summary is published at the time of the call for proposals, except in
the case of works.
d) All are correct.
11. A university wants to convene __________________ for the hiring of a consultant

to conduct a work climate survey. The sequence of the selection procedure is as follows:
________________, ___________________ y ____________. Please indicate the correct
alternative
to fill in the blanks:
a) A public tender, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation of bids.

b) A Simplified award, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification of
technical bids.
c) A public call for bids, submission of bids, acceptance, evaluation and qualification of
technical offers
d) A simplified award, submission of bids, evaluation, acceptance and qualification of
technical bids.
12. The price comparison can be used in:
a) Goods
b) Goods and services in general
c) Goods, services and works.
13. In the Simplified Award, there is an elevation of questions to the bidding documents for
the resolution of consultations, observations and integration of the bidding documents.
Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) True
b) False
c) False, only in goods
14. Through the Individual Consultant Selection procedure, natural persons may be hired for
consulting works. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) True
b) False
c) False, only in services
15. For goods and services, in the event of a tie in a public bidding, the lot is drawn by lot.
a) True
b) False
c) False, only in services
16. The lack of a legalized signature can be corrected. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) True
b) False
c) True only in goods
17. In the economic offer, if there is an inconsistency between the number and the letters, the
number prevails. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) True
b) False
c) False, only in consulting
18. Mark the incorrect alternative, with respect to the elements that determine a selection
procedure:
a) Subject matter of the contract

b) Estimated or reference value
c) Percentage incidence
d) The delay time of the process
19. Indicate the area that determines the technical, economic and/or administrative feasibility
for contracting by items.
a) Body in charge of contracting

b) Special Committee
c) Head of the Entity
20. In case of raising questions to the bidding documents, the entity must register in the
SEACE the documents foreseen in the OSCE's TUPA, within 3 working days after the
expiration of the deadline for requesting the raising of questions to the bidding documents.
a) False
b) True
c) True only in construction sites
21. The selection procedure is determined solely on a case-by-case basis:
a) The purpose of the procurement, the amount of the estimated value or reference value,
and the other conditions of use provided for in the Law and the Regulations.
b) The object of the contracting and the amount of the reference value or estimated value.
c) To the object of the contract, and to the other conditions for its use provided for in the
Law and the Regulations.
d) To the procurement system, the amount of the reference value or the estimated value
and to the
object of the procurement
22. In a public bidding process for the execution of a work, is the bid evaluation stage
subsequent to qualification?
a) The statement is correct since the bid must first be qualified and then evaluated.
b) It is not correct since both Stages are developed jointly.
c) The statement is correct as long as it is a sanitation work.
d) In a public bidding for works, the Evaluation Stage is prior to the qualification of the
Bid.
23. The following are requirements to call for a selection procedure in the case of works.
a) Not necessarily the appointment of the Selection Committee, since the procedure may
be in charge of the OEC.
b) Technical file, but not necessarily the physical availability of the land, since it may be
established in the contract that the Entity is committed to deliver it within a certain
period of time.
c) Inclusion in the Annual Plan is not necessary if the process derives from donations
made by an international organization.
d) Technical file and physical availability of the land.
24. The _______________ establishes provisions for the application of the faithful
performance guarantee
performance for ancillary services and the ________________ establishes provisions for
registration and publication in the SEACE.

25. In a public bidding called by a Provincial Municipality for the acquisition of cabinets, there
is a tie in the total score among three bidders. What information must the municipality
register and publish in the SEACE?
a) The municipality must record and publish the minutes and the comparative table
showing the corporate name of the bidders who tied.
b) The municipality may record and publish the minutes and the comparative table
showing the corporate name of the bidders who tied.
c) The Municipality must register and publish the minutes stating the corporate name of
the bidders that tied, but is not obliged to register the comparative table.
d) The municipality must register and publish the comparative table, but is not obliged to
register the record of the corporate name of the bidders who tied.
26. For the acquisition of glass partitions in the amount of S/. 500,000.00, a Public University
must invite............................, and for the acquisition of S/ 150,000.00 it must
invite...................... Please indicate the correct alternative to fill in the blanks:
a) A simplified award, a public bidding process

b) A public bid, a public bid
c) A public bidding process, a simplified award
d) One simplified award, one simplified award

27. For the contracting of cleaning and fumigation services for S/.620,000.00, a Regional
Government must summon .......................... and for the execution of works, for an amount
of S/. 550,000.00 must convene................................Signal the correct alternative to fill in
the blanks.
a) A public tender, a simplified award

b) A simplified awarding, a public bidding process
c) One simplified award, one simplified award
d) A public contest, a public contest.
28. A District Municipality wants to invite......................................... for the procurement of

blankets the correct sequence of such procedure to
be..................................................and..............................Signal the correct alternative to fill
in the blank.
a) A public bidding process for the submission of bids, admission, evaluation and
qualification of bids.
b) A public bidding process for the submission of bids, admission, qualification and
evaluation of bids.
c) A simplified award, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation of
bids.
bids.
29. The selection procedure called price comparison is used for:
a) The acquisition of customer service modules according to the attached plan.

b) The preparation of a technical dossier
c) The purchase of 1" PVC pipes for cold water
d) The purchase of cereals containing a total of 450 calories per serving.
30. Regarding appeals, check the correct alternative:
a) The Tribunal may request additional information from the Entity, the contesting party
and third parties in order to obtain the necessary documentation for a better decision.
b) The Tribunal is competent to resolve appeals filed against nullities and cancellations,
but only in procedures with estimated or referential values higher than 65 UIT.
c) Appeals for reconsideration and review may be filed against decisions issued by the
Tribunal.
d) The Entity may decide on the appeal without notice to the bidders who have a direct
interest in the resolution of the appeal.
31. Which of the following is not an evaluation factor for the procurement of goods?
a) Staff Training
b) Social Sustainability
c) Bidder's Experience
d) Price
32. The electronic reverse auction selection procedure is carried out for the:
a) Procurement of common goods and services, including consulting, except for

construction consulting.
b) Contracting of common goods and services
c) Contracting of goods, services and common works
d) Contracting of services, including consulting
33. In Direct Contracting, which of the following is not delegable:
a) Specialized services for the defense of civil servants.

b) Single-source supplier.
c) When contracted with another entity.
d) Training services.
34. What are the evaluation factors for public works bids?
a) Price, environmental and social sustainability, social protection and human

development, integrity of public procurement, and in the case of the turnkey modality,
training for the Entity's personnel.
b) Price, environmental and social sustainability, and in the case of the turnkey modality,
assisted operation.
c) Legal Capacity, Technical and Professional Capacity, and Bidder's Experience
d) Training, Infrastructure and Bidder's Price and Experience
35. The raising of questions to the document for the resolution of consultations, observations
and integration of the bidding documents, so that the OSCE Risk Management Directorate
may issue a pronouncement, is appropriate:
a) When the observations presented in any procedure were not accepted.

b) When the acquittal is contrary to good morals.
c) Under the new regulations, the elevation is not applicable in any case.
d) Only in the case of LP and CP.
36. With respect to Public Bids, please indicate the correct answer:
a) In a public bidding process, the period between the integration of the bidding
documents and the submission of bids must not be less than four (4) business days.
b) The minimum period for the consultation and comments stage is 05 working days.
c) In an LP, for procurement of goods, the correct sequence of the acts to be carried out
by the selection committee is as follows: presentation of bids, verification of minimum
content, admission of the proposal, application of evaluation factors, verification of
qualification requirements, and awarding of the good pro.
d) The term for the consent of the Public Bidding is 05 working days after the notification
of the good pro, if more than one bid is submitted.
37. In a public bidding process for the execution of a work, is the bid evaluation stage
subsequent to qualification?
a) The statement is correct since the bid must first be qualified and then evaluated.
b) It is not correct since both Stages are developed jointly.
c) The statement is correct as long as it is a sanitation work.
d) In a Public Bidding for works, the Evaluation Stage is prior to the Bid Qualification.
38. From the review of the Bidding Documents, it is noted that the execution term indicated in
letters reads (one hundred and twenty) but in numbers it is indicated (180). Which
principle has been violated?
a) Principle of Competition
d) Principle of Equity
39. If an electronic reverse auction is declared deserted for the second time, the following
bidding process is carried out under the following procedure:
a) Electronic Reverse Auction

b) Public Bidding
c) Under electronic reverse auction, unless the Entity, as a result of the analysis made in
the report declaring the bid to be void, determines to call the bid through a Simplified
Award.
d) Price Comparison
40. Please indicate the correct answer. During the simplified award, what is the first tie-
breaker criterion?
a) Electronic lottery through the SEACE.

b) To the bidder with the highest total score.
c) In favor of micro and small enterprises made up of people with disabilities
d) In favor of micro and small enterprises.
41. In which procurement object can the Evaluation Factor include the qualifications and/or
experience of key personnel?
a) Only in goods
b) Under construction
c) Only in general consulting
d) Services
42. The OEC is in charge of the following procedures:
a) Public Tender
b) Public Bidding
c) Price Competition
d) Simplified Award
43. Can the legalization of the signatures of the formal consortium promise be remedied?
a) Not remediable
b) It can only be remedied when the presentation of bids is made in a public act.
c) Yes, it is remediable
d) Only the signatures, not the legalization, can be corrected.
44. In which case is it appropriate to apply the case of direct contracting called: "Contracting
derived from a terminated or declared null and void contract"?
a) When a contract is terminated and there is a need to complete the performance of the
services derived therefrom.
b) When a contract is terminated and there is an urgent need to complete the performance
of the services derived therefrom, it is possible to contract with suppliers other than
those who were bidders.
c) When a contract is terminated and there is an urgent need to complete the performance
of the services derived therefrom, and the termination shall not be subject to any means
of dispute resolution.
d) When a contract is terminated and there is an urgent need to complete the performance
of the services derived therefrom, even if such termination is subject to any of the
means of dispute resolution.
45. In order to convene a selection procedure, as a general rule, the following must be verified
beforehand:
a) That the Administrative Bases are published at the time of the call for proposals.
b) That the procedure is included in the CAP.
c) That the Executive Summary be published at the time of the call for proposals, except
in the case of works.
d) All are correct.
46. What are the optional qualification requirements in public works consulting tenders?
a) Infrastructure
b) Equipment
c) Equipment and experience of key personnel
d) Equipment, Experience in the Activity and Experience in the Specialty
47. It is not a bid qualification requirement:
a) Legal Capacity
b) Technical Capacity
c) The Professional's Capability
d) Delivery time
48. What are the evaluation factors for the public bidding process for construction consulting?
a) Bidder's Legal Capacity, Technical and Professional Capacity, and Experience

b) Price, environmental and social sustainability, and training of the entity's personnel.
c) Bidder's experience in the specialty; Proposed Methodology; Knowledge of the project
and identification of facilities, difficulties and proposed solutions; Environmental and
Social Sustainability, Social Protection and Human Development; and Integrity in
Public Procurement.
d) Methodology Proposal, Qualification and Key Personnel Experience and Social and
Environmental Sustainability
49. The officer delegated by the Head of the Entity approves the contracting file by means of
an order, which must be signed:
a) In all cases the approval had to be made by means of a resolution.

b) In all cases the approval did not necessarily have to be by resolution.
c) The approval had to be made by resolution of the delegated officer.
d) Approval has been successful
50. The selection procedures that submit bids in one envelope are:
a) Simplified Award for construction consulting services

b) Simplified Procurement for general goods and services
c) Price comparison
d) Public bidding for construction consultancy
51. Relate with respect to the competencies to resolve the appeal: 1. Head of the Entity, 2.
Tribunal de Contrataciones del Estado, a) Declare nullity in the contracting of services in
general for an estimated value of S/. 180,000.00, b) Declare the appeal on the contracting
of consulting services in general for an estimated value of S/. 250,000.00, c) Declare
unfounded the appeal in the contracting of goods for an estimated value of S/. 80,000.00,
d) Declare the appeal against the contracting of works execution for a referential value of
S/. 3,500,000.00 inadmissible.

a)
52. The _______________ establishes provisions for the application of the procedure of
selection of Electronic Reverse Auctions and the ___________ establishes provisions for
the application of the special method of contracting through the electronic catalogs of the
Framework Agreement.

53. Relate with respect to the good pro: 1. Good pro consented, 2. Good pro
a) It is published in the SEACE that the appeal has been declared as not filed or not
admissible, b) The bidders did not exercise their right to file the appeal, c) The appeal is
denied, d) The resolution granting and/or confirming the award is published in the SEACE.

Please point out the correct alternative to fill in the blanks:
a) A Simplified award, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification of

technical bids.
b) A public call for bids, submission of bids, acceptance, evaluation and qualification of
technical offers
c) A public tender, admission, submission of bids, qualification and evaluation of bids.
technical bids.
54. Regarding the Electronic Reverse Auction, this is not correct:
a) The goods or services must have approved technical data sheets and be included in the
List of Common Goods and Services.
b) It is declared void when there are not two valid bids.
c) Awarded if there is only one valid bid
55. With respect to the Appeal, it is correct to state:
a) The filing of the appeal does not suspend the procedure for the incorporation of
suppliers to the Framework Agreement Electronic Catalogs nor the procedure for the
extension of the validity of said catalogs.
b) No warranty required
c) It is filed before the Court when the estimated value or referential value is less than or
equal to 50 UIT.
56. The act declaring the nullity of a selection procedure must be registered and published in
the selection console of the SEACE, with the indication of ______, _______ y _______.
a) The data of the head of the entity or the chamber of the contracting court, the cause of
the nullity, the stage to which the procedure will be returned.
b) The data of the head of the entity or the chamber of the contracting court, the reason
for the nullity, the date of the new procedure.
c) The cause of nullity, the date of convening the new proceeding, the date of convening
the new proceeding.
d) The data of the head of the entity or the chamber of the contracting court, the stage to
which the procedure will be returned, the date of the new procedure.
57. At __________the time limit for answering the consultations and comments may not
exceed
a) Simplified Award, 5 working days.

b) Public Bidding, 5 working days.
c) Simplified Award, 7 business days
d) Public Tender, 7 working days
58. An Entity cancels an electronic reverse auction with an estimated value of S/. 150,000.00,
due to an act of God or force majeure. A bidder who does not agree with the cancellation of
such procedure files an appeal to the Procurement Tribunal. How should the appeal be
resolved?
a) The appeal must be declared admissible because the cancellation of the selection
procedure was carried out correctly.
b) The appeal must be declared unfounded because it was filed before the Contracting
Tribunal.
c) The appeal must be declared well-founded, because there were no grounds to cancel
the selection procedure.
d) The appeal must be declared inadmissible because it was filed before the Contracting
Tribunal.
59. For the contracting of photocopying services for documents in the amount of S/. 380,000,
an Entity must convene __________________and for the acquisition of pickup trucks for a
total of
amount of S/. 250,000, must convene ____________.
a) Public bidding, public tender.
b) Simplified award, public bidding.
c) Simplified award, simplified award.
d) Public bidding, simplified award.
60. In a public bidding process for the contracting of a feasibility study of a protected area,
called by an entity, the awarding of the contract is done in a private act. Upon verification
of this situation, the Entity declares the procedure null and void. In view of this, a
participant filed an appeal because he did not agree with the declaration.
(
a) The appeal should be declared inadmissible because the appeal cannot be filed by the
bidders, but only by the bidders.
b) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the Entity should have cancelled the
c) The appeal must be declared well-founded because the Entity did not act correctly in
declaring the nullity of the selection procedure.
d) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the Entity acted correctly in declaring
the nullity of the selection procedure.
61. In the _________ for the contracting of goods, the period between the integration of the
bidding conditions and the
submission of bids, may not be less than __________________________
a) Simplified award, 5 working days.
b) Public bidding, 3 working days.

c) Simplified award, 2 working days.
d) Public bidding, 7 working days.
62. For the contracting of the document digitalization service for an amount of S/. 410,000, an
entity must convene ____________________________and for the purchase of materials
in the amount of S/. 450,000, must convene __________________
a) Public bidding, public tender.

b) Public bidding, simplified award.
c) Simplified award, simplified award, simplified award
d) simplified award, public bidding
63. An Entity wants to convene _____________forthe purchase of blankets. The sequence

The correct procedure for such a selection procedure is: ____________, ____________ y
a) Simplified award, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation of bids.

b) Simplified award, submission of bids, evaluation, acceptance and qualification of bids.
c) Public bidding, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation of bids.
d) Public bidding, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification of bids.
64. In the simplified procurement for the procurement of ________the time limit for acquittal
consultations and comments may not exceed ____________. Mark the correct alternative
to fill in the blanks.
a) Goods, 5 working days
b) Services in general, 2 working days.
c) Services in general, 5 working days.
d) General consulting, 3 business days.
65. An entity announces an LP for the purchase of tires. One participant notes that the Bidding
Terms and Conditions only allow the participation of suppliers domiciled in that region,
which it considers to be in violation of the principle of freedom of competition, the
principle of competition and the principle of equity. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that in the case
in question, the principle of freedom of competition and the principle of competition
are violated, but not the principle of equity.
b) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that in the case
in question, the principle of freedom of competition and the principle of equity are
violated, but not the principle of competition.
c) The participant's observation should be accepted to the extent that in this case, the
principle of freedom of competition, the principle of competition and the principle of
equity are violated.
d) The participant's observation should be partially accepted to the extent that in this case,
the principle of fairness and the principle of competition are violated, but not the
principle of freedom of competition.
66. An entity declares the nullity of a PC before awarding the good pro because it verified that
the procedure had been called without the budget certification. A participant files an appeal
because he does not agree with such declaration. How should the appeal be resolved?
a) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the entity should have cancelled the
selection procedure because the award had not yet been granted.
b) The appeal must be declared well-founded because the Entity did not act correctly in
c) The appeal should be declared inadmissible because a participant cannot file such an
appeal, only the bidders can.
d) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the entity acted correctly in declaring
67. An entity wants to convene ____________________ for photocopying services. The

correct sequence of such selection procedure is:____________________, _____________ y
a) A public bidding process, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation

of technical bids.
b) A Simplified award, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification of
bids.
c) A public bidding process, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification
of bids.
bids.
68. An entity declares a SIE null and void before awarding the bid because it verified that the
goods being procured were not included in the list of common goods and services. A
participant files an appeal because he does not agree with such declaration. How should the
appeal be resolved?
a) The appeal must be declared inadmissible because an SIE cannot be challenged.
b) The appeal must be declared well-founded because the entity did not act correctly in
c) The appeal should be declared unfounded because the entity should have cancelled the
d) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the entity acted correctly in declaring
69. In the __________________forthe hiring of ________________________the period

between the
the integration of the bases and the submission of bids, cannot be less than _____________
a) AS- goods and services in general-3 calendar days.
b) AS- goods and services in general-5 calendar days.
c) CP-consulting in general-5 business days.
d) AS- goods and services in general-3 business days.
70. An Entity wants to convene ______________________forthe supervision of the

"Manantial" project. The correct sequence of such selection procedure is:
a) ALP,presentation ofoffers,admission, qualification and evaluation of technical bids.

b) ACP,presentation ofoffers,admission, qualification and evaluation of technical bids.
c) ALP,presentation ofoffers,admission, evaluation and qualification of bids.
d) AAS,presentation ofoffers,evaluation, admission and qualification of the offer.
71. Sanitation Services wants to convene ___________________________ for taking

physical inventory of patrimonial assets. The correct sequence of such selection procedure
is:___________________________________________________. Please indicate the
alternative
correct:
a) A public bidding process, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification
of bids.
b) A simplified award, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and pre-qualification of
bids.
c) A public bidding process, submission of bids, admission, qualification and evaluation
of bids.
technical bids.
72. A Charitable Society convenes an Electronic Reverse Auction for the purchase of fuel in
the amount of S/. 390,000.00 and makes a price comparison to purchase water cans for the
amount of S/. 44,000.00 What is the maximum period that bidders would have to file an
appeal against the declaration of nullity of both selection procedures?
a) In the case of the Electronic Reverse Auction and in the case of Price Comparison the
term would be five (5) business days.
b) In the case of the Electronic Reverse Auction the term would be five (5) working days
and in the case of Price Comparison the term would be eight (8) working days.
c) In the case of the Electronic Reverse Auction the term would be eight (8) working days
and in the case of Price Comparison it would be five (5) working days.
d) In the case of the Electronic Reverse Auction and in the case of Price Comparison, the
term would be eight (8) working days.
73. In which of the following selection procedures does the following sequence apply?
l) Convocation, 2. Registration of participants, 3. Formulation of queries and comments,
4. Response of consultations and observations and Integration of bases, 5. Submission of
bids, 6. Opening of technical bids, 7. Admission of technical bids, 8.Qualification of
technical bids, 9. Evaluation of technical offers, 10. Opening of financial bids, 11.
Awarding of the good pro.
a) The sequence is applicable to public tenders and simplified awards, both for general
consulting and construction consulting.
b) The sequence is applicable to public tenders for the procurement of services in general
and consulting works; as well as simplified awards for the procurement of consulting
services in general and services in general.
c) The sequence is applicable to public bidding processes for the contracting of consulting
works and mixed modality; as well as simplified awards for the contracting of
consulting services in general.
d) The sequence is applicable to public bidding processes for general and mixed-modality
consulting contracts, as well as simplified awards for construction consulting contracts.
74. Establish the correct relationship between the number and the letter with respect to the
evaluation factors and the documents that serve to prove them. 1.- Environmental
Management System, 2.- Quality Management System, 3.- Training of the Entity's
personnel, 4.- Improvements to the terms of reference, a. ISO 14001 certified, b. ISO 9001
Certificate, c. Affidavit.
a) 1a,2b,3c,4c
b) 1b, 2a, 3c,4c
c) 1e, 2c, 3c, 4a
d) 1e, 2c, 3c, 4b
75. Who is competent to hear and resolve an appeal when in a public bidding process for the
execution of works according to a list of items, whose referential value is greater than 50
UIT, an item whose referential value is equal to or less than 50 UIT is challenged?
a) Contracting Tribunal.
b) Arbitral Tribunal.
c) The head of the Entity, being a non-delegable power.
d) Head of the Entity, with the power to delegate.
76. The filing of an appeal suspends the selection procedure. Please indicate the correct
alternative:
a) In all cases, except in the case of a procedure for the incorporation of suppliers to the
Framework Agreement Electronic Catalogs or a procedure for the extension of the
validity of such catalogs.
b) In all cases without exception.
c) In all cases, except in the case of a procedure for the incorporation of suppliers to the
Electronic Catalogs of Framework Agreement or a procedure for the extension of the
validity of such catalogs and in a procedure by order.
d) In all cases, except in the case of a procedure for the incorporation of suppliers to the
Framework Agreement Electronic Catalogues or a procedure for the extension of the
validity of such catalogs and a mandatory corporate purchase.
77. A regional government called for a simplified tender for the elaboration of an industrial
park development plan. At the time of reviewing the bids submitted by the bidders, the
selection committee did not accept the bid of one (1) of the bidders who submitted the
consortium promise without stating the percentage of the obligations of the consortium
members. Likewise, the committee did not accept the bid of another bidder because the
bidder's e-mail address was not correctly entered in the bidder's affidavit. Mark the correct
alternative regarding the verification of bid eligibility requirements.
a) The selection committee acted correctly in not admitting the bid of the bidder that
submitted the consortium promise without indicating the percentage of obligations of
the consortium members, but should have granted a term for the other bidder to include
the e-mail address in the affidavit.
b) The selection committee acted correctly in not admitting the bid of the bidder that did
not include the e-mail address in its sworn statement, but should have granted a
deadline for the other bidder to present the consortium promise with the percentage of
obligations of the consortium members.
c) The selection committee did not act correctly by not admitting the bid of the bidder
who did not include the e-mail address in his sworn statement and by not admitting the
bid of the bidder who presented the consortium promise without indicating the
percentage of obligations of the consortium members.
d) The selection committee acted correctly in not admitting the bid of the bidder that did
not include the e-mail address in its sworn statement, and in not admitting the bid of
the bidder that presented the consortium promise without including the percentage of
the obligations of the consortium members.
78. In the event that two (2) or more bids that tie for the total score in the case of ___________
the order of precedence is determined by
and in the case of _________________ the determination of the order of priority is
carries out_______. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) Public bidding for general services, by lottery, public bidding for consulting services,
to the bidder with the highest technical score.
b) Public bidding for consulting services, by lottery, public bidding for consulting
services, to the bidder with the highest economic score.
c) Public bidding for general services, by lot, public bidding for consulting services, by
lot.
d) Public bidding for services in general, to the bidder with the highest technical score,
public bidding for services in general, by lottery
79. Establish the correct relationship between the number and the letter in relation to the
competence to resolve an appeal: 1. Head of the Entity, 2. Tribunal de Contrataciones del
Estado, a) Cancellation of a price comparison in the amount of S/. 40,000.00, b) Nullity of
an electronic reverse auction for the amount of S/. 100,000.00, c) Declaration of a selection
of individual consultants in the amount of S/. 38,000.00, d) Awarding of the simplified
award in the amount of S/. 190,000.00

a)
80. The regional government "VERANO ETERNO" requires the acquisition of vans for the
Civil Defense area. The selection committee has also considered the evaluation factor
"Availability of services and spare parts" with a score of 50 points.
a) The evaluation factor is incorrect because the maximum score is 10 points.

b) The evaluation factor is correct because it does not exceed 50 points.
c) This is incorrect because the service and spare parts availability evaluation factor does
not exist for goods.
d) The evaluation factor is incorrect because it should have been a qualification
requirement.
81. The Ministry "TRANSPARENT EDUCATION" has called for an SCI to hire a consultant
for the elaboration of the pedagogical curriculum. Likewise, the Selection Committee has
included "Bidder's Experience" as an evaluation factor with 60 points.
a) This is incorrect since the bidder's experience is a qualification requirement.

b) This is incorrect as the maximum score should be 50 points.
c) This is incorrect because the maximum score should be 10 points.
d) That is correct.
82. The Ministry "SIN DELINQUENCY" has called for an AS for the vehicle maintenance
service. In addition, the Selection Committee has included "Improvements" as an
evaluation factor with a score of 10 points.
a) That is correct.
b) This is incorrect because the factor "Improvements" does not exist for the case of
services.
c) This is incorrect because the "Improvements" factor does not exist for the AS.
d) It is correct because it does not exceed 10 points.
83. The regional government "LOS SANTOS" in the SEACE has rectified the bases and the
executive summary, correcting the erroneous data. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) The entity did not act correctly because it is not possible to rectify the content of the
bases or the executive summary.
b) The Entity acted correctly because the information registered in the SEACE can be
rectified, as long as it is done before the beginning of the bid submission period.
c) The entity did not act correctly because it is not possible to rectify any information of
the selection procedure registered in the SEACE.
d) The Entity did not act correctly because it is not possible to rectify the information
registered in the SEACE, as long as it is done before the beginning of the integration of
the bases.
84. For the contracting of the Internet service, the Head of the Entity declared the nullity of the
procedure because the selection committee included the availability of service and spare
parts as evaluation factors in the bidding conditions. In this regard, please indicate the
a) The ethical principle of efficiency of the public servant was violated by establishing the
availability of service and spare parts as an evaluation factor.
b) No ethical principles of public servants were violated.
c) The ethical principle of suitability of the public servant was violated by establishing the
bidder's experience as an evaluation factor.
d) The ethical principle of truthfulness of the public servant was violated by establishing
the availability of service and spare parts as an evaluation factor.
85. In relation to the opinions and pronouncements of the OSCE, and the resolutions of the
State Contracting Tribunal, please indicate the correct alternative.
a) The opinions issued bythe OSCE are binding for all selection procedures.
b) The resolutions of the Tribunal and the opinions issued by the OSCE are binding for all
selection procedures.
c) The opinions and pronouncements issued by the OSCE are binding for all selection
procedures.
d) The pronouncements and opinions issued by the OSCE and the resolutions of the
Tribunal are binding for all selection procedures.
86. A provincial municipality declares the nullity of a public bidding process before awarding
the good pro, because the object of the contracting corresponded to a service in general. A
participant files an appeal because he does not agree with such declaration. How should the
appeal be resolved?
a) The appeal must be declared well-founded because the Entity did not act correctly in
b) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the Entity should have cancelled the
c) The appeal must be declared unfounded because the Entity acted correctly in declaring
d) The appeal should be declared inadmissible because a participant cannot file such an
appeal, only the bidders can.
87. A university wants to convene __________________ for the contracting of security and
surveillance. The correct sequence of such selection procedure is: ____________________,
_________________ y _________________
of bids.
b) A public bidding process, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification
of bids.
bids.
bids.
88. A university wants to convene __________________________ for the hiring of a

purchase of uniforms. The correct sequence of such selection procedure is: , y
_____________

of bids.
b) Apublic bidding process, submission of bids, admission, evaluation and qualification of
bids.
bids.
bids.
89. At _________the time limit for answering the consultations and comments may not
exceed
a) AS, 5 working days

b) CP, 5 working days
c) AS, 7 working days
d) CP, 7 working days
90. What data must be registered and published in the SEACE selection console when a total
or partial cancellation of a selection procedure is made
a) The file of the resolution or the cancellation agreement may be attached.

b) The file of the resolution can be attached and the cancellation agreement must be
registered. c) The file of the resolution or cancellation agreement must be attached.
d) The file of the resolution must be attached and the cancellation agreement may be
attached.
91. An Entity cancels a simplified award whose estimated value is S/. 100,000, due to the
disappearance of the need. A bidder who disagrees with the cancellation files an appeal to
the Procurement Tribunal. How should such an appeal be resolved?
a) The appeal must be declared well-founded, because there were no grounds to cancel
the selection procedure.
b) The appeal must be declared inadmissible because it was filed before the Contracting
Tribunal.
c) The appeal must be declared admissible because the cancellation of the selection
procedure was carried out correctly.
d) The appeal must be declared unfounded because it was filed before the Contracting
Tribunal.
92. If an Entity contracts a construction supervision for a referential value of S/. 700,000.00
What selection procedure should you call for?
a) Public Bidding.
b) Public bidding.
c) Price comparison.
d) Simplified award.
93. If an Entity contracts the construction of a school for a referential value of S/. 800,000.00
What selection procedure should you call for?
a) Public Bidding.
b) Public bidding.
94. If an entity contracts a painting service for an estimated value of S/. 400,000.00 What
selection procedure should you call for?
a) Public Bidding.
b) Price comparison.
c) Public bidding.
95. If an Entity contracts the construction of a bridge for a referential value of S/.
1,800,000.00 What selection procedure should you call for?
a) Public Bidding.
b) Public bidding.
96. In the SA for the contracting of goods and services in general, the time period between
the stage for the resolution of consultations and observations and the integration of the
bidding documents, and the submission of bids, shall not be less than .......................
a) 5 working days.
b) 3 working days.
c) 7 working days.
d) 10 working days.
97. In the PC for the contracting of consultancies, the term to formulate consultations and
observations should not be less than .......................
a) 5 working days.
b) 3 working days.
c) 7 working days.
d) 10 working days.
98. In the SA for contracting the execution of works, the term to resolve consultations and
observations and to integrate the bidding conditions must not be longer
than .......................
a) 5 working days.
b) 3 working days.
c) 7 working days.
d) 10 working days.
99. An Entity wants to convene ___________________forthe preparation of an environmental

impact study. The correct sequence of such selection procedure is:
a) One LP,presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical

bids.
b) One LP,presentation of offers, admission, evaluation and qualification of bids.
c) One CP,presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical
bids.
d) An AS, presentation of offers, evaluation, admission and qualification of the offer.
100. An Entity wants to convene ___________________forthe purchase of products for the

glass of milk program. The correct sequence of such selection procedure is:
a) One LP,presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical

bids.
b) One LP,presentation of offers, admission, evaluation and qualification of bids.
c) One CP,presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical
bids.
d) An AS, presentation of offers, evaluation, admission and qualification of the offer.
101. An Entity wants to convene ___________________forthe construction of a school. The

correct sequence of such selection procedure is:
a) One LP, presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical

bids.
b) One CP, presentation ofoffers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical
bids.
c) An AS, presentation of offers, evaluation, admission and qualification of the offer.
d) One LP, presentation of offers, admission, evaluation and qualification of bids.
102. An Entity wants to convene forthe supervision of the work for the improvement of
the risk infrastructure. The correct sequence of this procedure
from selection__________es:
a) One LP, presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical

bids.
b) One CP, presentation of offers, admission, qualification and evaluation of technical
bids.
c) An AS, presentation of offers, evaluation, admission and qualification of the offer.
d) One LP, presentation of offers, admission,evaluation and qualification of bids.
103. For the contracting of security and surveillance services for an amount of S/520,000.00, a
Municipality must summon.......................... and for the acquisition of construction
materials for the execution of the works for an amount of S/. 220,000.00 should
convene................................Signal the correct alternative to fill in the blanks.
a) A public tender, a simplified award

c) One simplified award, one simplified award
104. For the preparation of the technical file for the project to expand and improve the potable
water system in the amount of S/520,000.00, a Municipality must
convene .......................... and for the purchase of fuel in the amount of S/. 6,000,000.00
should be convened................................. Indicate the correct alternative to fill in the
blanks.
a) A public tender, a public bidding process

c) A public bidding process, an Electronic Reverse Auction
105. For the acquisition of food consumption vouchers for an amount of S/. 750,000.00, a
Municipality must summon.......................... and for the renewal of security licenses for an
amount of S/. 84,000.00 must convene................................Signal the correct alternative to
fill in the blanks.

b) One public bidding, one simplified award
c) A public tender, an Electronic Reverse Auction
106. For the rental of front loaders for an amount of S/. 420,000.00, a Municipality should
convene .......................... and for the construction of a multipurpose sports field for an
amount of S/. 400,000.00 should convene................................Signal the correct
alternative to fill in the blanks.

b) A public bidding process, an Electronic Reverse Auction
c) A public competition, a public competition
d) A public tender, a simplified award
107. For the elaboration of a pre-investment study for the "water for all" project for an amount
of S/. 380,000.00, a Municipality must convene .......................... and for the realization of
tomography studies for an amount of S/. 480,000.00 must
convene................................Signal the correct alternative to fill in the blanks.
a) One simplified award, one competitive bidding

b) A public bidding process, an Electronic Reverse Auction
c) A simplified award, a public tender
d) A public competition, a public competition
108. Which suppliers can file an Appeal?
a) Contractors
b) Bidders
c) Participants
d) Participants and bidders
109. Who can have access to the procurement file after the award of the bid?
a) Contractors
b) Participants and bidders
c) Bidders
d) Participants
110. What is the deadline for accessing the procurement file?
a) 8 working days before the awarding of the bid.

b) Within the day following the written request, prior to the awarding of the bid.
c) Within the next day of the written request, after the awarding of the bid.
d) 8 working days after the awarding of the bid.
111. In what cases is an appeal to the State Contracting Tribunal filed, regardless of the
amount?
a) Ex officio nullity and cancellation of the selection procedure.

b) When the estimated or referential value is greater than 50 UIT.
c) When the estimated or referential value is equal to or less than 50 UIT.
d) Cancellation only.
COMPETENCE IV: CONTRACTUAL EXECUTION
1. In a periodic contract for the supply of goods for S/. 1'200,00.00 (One million two hundred
thousand and 00/100 Soles) to be executed in 12 months, being monthly deliveries, a micro
and small company requested the benefit of the retention of the performance bond How
much should the Entity retain?
a) S/. 20,000.00 in alternating months during the term of the contract.

b) S/. 120,000.00 only in the first payment.
c) No withholding should be made since each delivery amounts to S/. 100,000.00.
d) S/. 20,000.00 during the first six (6) payments.
2. Regarding the formality and requirements for the execution of the contract, identify the
correct answer:
a) The contract can also be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or service order,
when the estimated value exceeds one hundred thousand Nuevos Soles (S/.
100,000.00), in the case of reverse auctions.
b) In the case of selection procedures by item ratio, the contract may be perfected with the
receipt of a purchase order, when the amount of the estimated value of the item
corresponds to the simplified award.
c) In the electronic reverse auction and simplified awarding procedures for goods and
services in general, the contract may be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or
service order, provided that the amount of the estimated value does not exceed one
hundred thousand soles (S/ 100,000.00).
d) The contract can also be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or service order,
when the estimated value exceeds one hundred thousand Nuevos Soles (S/.
100,000.00), in the case of reverse auctions.
3. Disputes arising between the parties regarding the execution, interpretation, termination,
non-existence, ineffectiveness or invalidity of the contract are resolved by:
a) Conciliation only.
b) Arbitration only.
c) Conciliation or Arbitration.
d) Appeal.
4. On a supplemental procurement, identify the correct answer:
a) Supplementary procurements are not allowed only for contracts for the execution of
works.
b) In order to formalize a supplementary contract, the corresponding addendum must be
signed.
c) Up to 30% of the amount of the current contract may be contracted additionally.
d) This proceeds within three (3) months after the end of the contract execution term.
5. Six (6) months after the approval was granted and payment was made for the 100
humanitarian assistance mattresses provided by MI HOGAR S.A., the Entity notices that
the goods are not filled with the requested material; therefore, the Entity initiates an
arbitration process. What is your position on this matter?
a) It is not possible, since the contract has expired.
b) It is not possible, having granted the conformity.

c) It is possible only if an arbitration agreement has been included verbatim in the
contract.
d) It is possible insofar as hidden defects are involved.
6. How is the contractor notified of its non-compliance that warrants the termination of the
contract, in the Framework Agreement modality?
a) By fax.
b) By e-mail.
c) By notarized letter.
d) Through the SEACE.
7. Who is responsible for the application of penalties for non-compliance by the contractor?
a) The Treasury Office.

b) The User Area.
c) The Head of the Entity.
d) The Contracting Authority.
8. Which of the following documents are an integral part of the contract?
a) Only the document containing it and the selection procedure document establishing
final rules.
b) The document containing it, the selection procedure document establishing final rules,
the winning bid and the market research.
c) The document containing it, the selection procedure document establishing final rules,
the winning bid and the executive summary.
d) The document containing it, the document of the selection procedure that establishes
final rules, the winning bid and the documents derived from the selection procedure
that establish obligations for the parties.
9. During the execution of Contract No. 005-2017-APORTE PERU, a controversy arises in its
interpretation, on which the Entity deems it appropriate to apply the General
Administrative Procedure Law. In this regard, what is your position on the supplementary
application of the provisions contained in Law 27444, on the legal relations originated in
the contracts entered into under the scope of the Contracting Law.
a) If they are of supplementary application.

b) They are not of supplementary application.
c) They are of supplementary application only in the section corresponding to
Administrative Silence.
d) They are not of supplementary application; on the contrary, they must be applied in the
first order of priority.
10. During the execution of a contract signed by a Ministry for text printing services, a
contractor submits a performance bond for renewal. Subsequently, the Ministry verifies
that the guarantee is false. In this case, is there a crime and an assumption of application of
penalties?
a) In this case, a crime was committed for submitting false documentation. But it does not
constitute a case of application of penalties.
b) In this case, a crime was committed for submitting false documentation and constitutes
a case for the application of penalties.
c) In this case, there is an assumption of application of penalties, but no crime was
committed.
d) In this case, there was no crime for submitting false documentation and it does not
constitute a case for the application of penalties.
11. Which of the following cases is a cause for the Entity to declare the nullity of a purchase
order that perfects the contract for an amount of less than S/. 100,000.00?
a) When it is accredited that the contractor has attempted to pay a bribe in the selection
procedure.
b) When the contractor unjustifiably fails to comply with its contractual obligations
despite being required to do so.
c) When the contractor has complied with the clause of the contract
d) When the contractor stops or unjustifiably reduces the performance of the service,
despite being requested to correct such situation.
12. The services outstanding in the event of termination of the contract are performed.
a) Declaring the selection procedure null and void and calling for a new one to hire.
b) Hiring any of the bidders that participated in the selection process.
c) Contracting the supplier through direct contracting due to shortages.
d) It is mandatory to contract with the second place winner, being obliged to contract.
13. With respect to subcontracting, the essential services of the contract related to the aspects
that determined the selection of the contractor may be subcontracted. Please indicate the
a) True
b) False
c) True only in goods
14. The period for the execution of the contract will be calculated from the day following the
date of publication of the award of the contract. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) True
b) False
c) True on purchase orders only
d) None of the above.
15. When the contract is terminated and the Entity has the urgent need to continue with the
execution of the pending services, without prejudice to the fact that such termination is
subject to the corresponding means of dispute resolution, the Entity may invite the bidders
who participated in the selection procedure to sign a contract for the execution of such
services. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) True
b) False
c) False, only in goods
16. Check the correct statement regarding additional services, reductions, subcontracting and
assignment of rights and contractual position.
a) The Contractor may assign in favor of third parties only its right to payment.
b) The quantitative limit for the contracting of additional benefits or for the reduction of
benefits is 20% of the amount of the contract in force at the date of such decision.
c) When additional services are contracted and/or services are reduced, the contractor
may increase or reduce the performance bond proportionally.
d) Only up to 40% of the original contract amount may be subcontracted, regardless of
whether they are essential contract services related to the aspects for which the
contractor was selected.
17. With respect to the exception of presenting a performance bond, it is not true that:
a) It is not presented in leases of movable property.

b) It is not presented in contracts for the execution and consultancy of works for amounts
less than S/100,000.
c) It is not presented in contracts for goods and services, other than consulting works,
whose amounts are less than S/. 100,000.
d) It is not presented in the acquisition of real estate.
18. The Entity Ayuda Perú has contracted the cleaning service for its national warehouses
throughout Peru with the company "La Escobita SA", since its term of execution is about
to expire. In this regard, the Head of the User Area asks if it is possible to sign an
Addendum in order to have this service for one more year?
a) Yes, for the Principle of Economy and Efficiency.

b) Yes, to the extent that the Civil Code states that everything that the law does not
prohibit can be done, considering that the State Contracting Law does not prohibit the
subscription of such addendum.
c) No, since Public Entities may only contract services of a permanent nature for a
maximum term of one year.
d) No, inasmuch as, under the principle of legality, the public servant performs his
functions within the powers conferred to him, and the subscription of such addendum
is not included in the state contracting regulations.
19. In relation to compliance, identify the incorrect statement.
a) Reception and conformity is the responsibility of the user area.

b) Compliance requires a report from the official responsible for the user area.
c) In the case of goods, reception is the responsibility of the warehouse area and
conformity is the responsibility of whoever is indicated in the selection procedure
documents.
d) The conformity of the performance is the responsibility of the management body or of
the official expressly designated by the Entity, who alone is authorized to grant it to the
contractor.
20. About Complementary Contracting it can be stated.
a) It is not a new contract insofar as it depends on the original contract.

b) Benefits can be contracted for up to 25%.
c) The contractor is obliged to sign such a contract.
d) N.A.
21. Check the true statement regarding contract modification:
a) Reductions are not contract modifications.

b) When the modification implies a variation in the price, it must be approved by the
Head of the Entity.
c) Whenever there is a contract modification, an addendum to the contract must be made.
d) The modification of the contract is only admissible by virtue of additions, reductions
and extensions of the term.
22. Regarding the formality and requirements for the execution of the contract, identify the
correct answer:
a) The contract may also be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or service order,
when the value exceeds one hundred thousand nuevos soles (S/100,000.00) in the case
of a reverse auction.
b) In the case of selection procedures by relation of items, the contract may be perfected
with the receipt of a purchase order, when the amount of the value of the item
corresponds to the simplified award.
c) In the electronic reverse auction and simplified awarding procedures for goods and
services in general, the contract may be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or
service order, provided that the amount of the value does not exceed one hundred
thousand soles (100,000.00).
d) The contract may also be perfected with the receipt of the purchase or service order,
when the value exceeds one hundred thousand Nuevos Soles (S/ 100,000.00), in the
case of reverse auctions.
23. Is the entity's decision to approve additional performance in a contract for goods
arbitrable?
a) No, the Entity's decisions to approve or not the execution of additional services cannot
be submitted to arbitration.
b) It may be submitted to arbitration, provided that a conciliation procedure has been
previously followed, which has been concluded without a total agreement or a partial
agreement.
c) Yes, it is arbitration, although it will have to support such situation before the Arbitral
Tribunal.
d) No, they cannot be submitted to arbitration, they can only be conciliated.
24. For the execution of a work balance of a contract terminated because of a contractor.
a) The Entity shall settle and pay the terminated contract prior to the execution of the
balance of the work.
b) The Entity will have to resort to a supplementary contract.
c) The Entity must follow the procedure set forth in the regulations in force to initiate the
contracting for the execution of such balance.
d) The Entity shall convene a selection procedure.
25. When there is an urgent need to complete outstanding services in the event of contract
termination, identify the correct answer:
a) Any of the bidders who participated in the selection procedure may be hired, provided
that they have not submitted to arbitration for the termination of the contract.
b) The Entity must compulsorily carry out a new selection procedure for the
benefits pending execution.

c) The second in the order of priority of the selection procedure must be invited to sign
the contract, considering the same price of its offer.
d) The Entity invites the bidders that participated in the selection procedure to express
their intention to perform the outstanding services for the price and conditions
established in the invitation.
26. On contract termination, identify the correct answer:
a) The entity may terminate the contract without previously requiring the contractor's
compliance, when the contractor has accumulated the maximum amount of the penalty.
b) Contracts entered into under the contracting regulations cannot be terminated due to
acts of God or force majeure that make it impossible to continue the contract.
c) The contractor may not request the termination of the contract in cases where the
Entity unjustifiably fails to pay.
d) If either party fails to comply with its obligations, the aggrieved party must request that
it perform them by simple letter.
27. The quantitative limit for additional goods and services is:
a) 15% of the original contract amount.

b) 15% of the amount of the current contract.
c) 50% of the original contract amount.
d) 25% of the original contract amount.
28. A contractor does not comply within the term granted by a Provincial Municipality with
the correction of three (3) of the fifteen (15) observations made by the Entity to the
inventory of patrimonial assets submitted. In view of this situation, the Entity proceeds to
grant the approval because it urgently needs to send the inventory. Please indicate the
correct alternative:
a) The Entity did not act correctly because it should not have granted conformityuntil the
contractor had corrected all the observations made.
b) The Entity did not act correctly because it should have granted an additional period of
time to correct the missing observations, but did not apply any penalty.
c) The Entity acted correctly in granting the approval because it urgently needed to send
the inventory, but then applied the legal penalties.
d) The Entity acted correctly in granting the approval because the contractor did not
remedy one fifth of the observations made by the Entity.
29. In a contract for the transportation of didactic material, whose execution term is 5 days, the
contractor requests an extension of 3 days, because it no longer has the vehicles to
transport the didactic material, due to the expiration of the technical review. The entity
takes more than 10 business days to resolve and notify the resolution denying the
extension. Point out the correct alternative:
a) The entity did not generate economic damage to the state because it denied the
extension of time.
b) By delaying the entity in resolving the request for extension of time, it caused
economic damage to the state, because it lost the power to apply penalties but should
not pay the contractor general expenses.
c) The Entity's delay in resolving the request for the extension of the term caused
economic damage to the State because it must pay the contractor duly accredited
general expenses, but it should not apply penalties.
d) By delaying the Entity in resolving the request for extension of the deadline, it caused
an economic loss because it had to pay the contractor general expenses and lost the
power to apply penalties.
30. Disputes regarding payments on account or final payments may be submitted to:
a) Appeal.
b) Dispute Resolution Board.
c) Reconciliation
d) Conciliation and Arbitration
31. Regarding the registration of contract execution in the SEACE select the incorrect
alternative
a) Additional contracts are recorded.

b) Complementary contracts are recorded.
c) All selection procedure contracts must be registered in the SEACE.
d) Contracts and purchase or service orders must be executed within a maximum period
of 20 working days following their execution.
32. In a contract for the acquisition of desks, whose execution term is 30 days, the contractor
requests an extension of 10 days, because it did not have time to manufacture them. The
entity takes more than 10 business days to resolve and notify the resolution denying the
a) By delaying the Entity in resolving the request for the extension of the term, it caused
economic damage to the State because it had to pay the contractor duly accredited
general expenses and lost the power to apply penalties to the contractor.
c) By delaying the Entity in resolving the request for extension of the deadline, it caused
d) The entity did not generate economic damage to the state because it denied the
extension of time.
33. In a contract for the transportation of didactic material, whose execution term is 5 days, the
contractor requests an extension of 3 days, because it no longer has the vehicles to
transport the didactic material, due to the expiration of the technical review. The entity
takes more than 10 business days to resolve and notify the resolution denying the
a) The entity did not generate economic damage to the state because it denied the
extension of time.
c) The Entity's delay in resolving the request for the extension of the term caused
economic damage to the State because it must pay the contractor duly accredited
general expenses, but it should not apply penalties.
d) By delaying the Entity in resolving the request for extension of the deadline, it caused
34. The contract includes, under liability, clauses referring to:
a) Warranties, anti-corruption, penalties, dispute resolution and termination for non-

compliance.
b) Warranties, anti-corruption, dispute resolution and termination for non-compliance. c)
Guarantees, anti-corruption, extension of term and termination for non-compliance.
d) Guarantees, fringe benefits, dispute resolution and reduction of benefits.
35. A Regional Government signed a contract for S/. 350,000.00, subsequently a reduction is
subscribed for an amount of S/. 50,000.00. Up to how much the maximum penalty would
apply:
a) S/. 35,000.00
b) S/. 70,000.00
c) S/. 30,000.00
d) S/. 50,000.00
36. The contract may be perfected by receipt of the purchase or service order, for an
estimated value of ____
a) In the case of the contracting of goods and services in general, greater than S/. 100,000
b) In any contracting object, not greater than S/. 100,000
c) In the case of contracting goods and services in general, no more than S/. 100,000
d) In the case of contracting of goods, services in general and consulting services, not
exceeding S/. 100,000.
37. The winning bidder ___________ when it does not comply with the observations
The Entity shall not be responsible for any errors or omissions made and notified by the
Entity with respect to the documents submitted, within the established time period, .
Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) It does not lose the good pro, because the Entity may grant it an additional term as long
as the contract is perfected through a purchase or service order.
b) The bidder automatically loses the award because the Entity cannot grant it an
additional term.
c) It does not lose the good pro, because the Entity may grant it an additional term.
d) The successful bidder does not lose the bid if the winning bidder submits all the
documents correctly the following day.
38. A contractor did not comply with the deadline to correct one (1) of the 10 observations
made by the Entity regarding the delivery of X-ray equipment. In view of this, the Entity
proceeds to grant the approval because it urgently needed to have such equipment. Please
a) The Entity acted correctly in granting the approval because it urgently needed the
equipment, but then should have applied the penalties until the contractor complies
with the requirements.
b) The Entity did not act correctly because it should not have granted conformity until the
contractor had corrected all the observations made by the Entity.
c) The Entity acted correctly because it should not have granted the approval because the
contractor did not correct the observations made by the Entity.
d) The Entity did not act correctly because it should have granted an additional period of
time to correct the missing observations, but without applying any penalty.
39. An Entity subscribes a contract for the study on learning achievements for an amount of
S/200,000; then an additional S/. 10,000. What is the maximum amount of penalty for late
payment?
a) S/. 21,000
b) S/. 42,000
c) S/. 20,000
d) S/. 19,000
40. Which of the following is a cause for an Entity to terminate the contract?
a) When the contract has not included a clause of non-participation in corrupt practices.
b) When goods, services or works are contracted without the corresponding prior
c) When the procedures foreseen in the Law have not been used, despite the fact that the
contracting was under its scope of application.
d) When the contractor has accumulated the maximum amount for penalties other than
the late payment penalty.
41. An Entity enters into a contract and after more than half of the services have been
performed, it verifies that the contractor forged the letter of guarantee submitted as
advance payment guarantee. Please indicate the correct alternative:
a) A cause for partial termination of the contract is configured, because the principle of
presumption of veracity has been transgressed.
b) A cause for the total termination of the contract is configured, because the principle of
c) A cause for declaring the contract null and void is configured, because the principle of
d) This is not grounds for terminating the contract or for declaring it null and void,
because the principle of presumption of veracity was not transgressed during the
42. Which of the following is a cause for an Entity to terminate the service order that perfected
the contract.
a) When the service order has been subscribed despite the fact that an appeal is pending.
b) When the procedures foreseen in the Law have not been used, despite the fact that the
contracting was under its scope.
c) When services are contracted without the corresponding prior selection procedure.
d) When the contractor has accumulated the maximum amount of the late payment
penalty.
43. The winning bidder of an LP, has a maximum term of ___________________ following
the
____________________ to present all the documentation to sign the contract. Please
a) 8 calendar days, consent of the good pro.
b) 8 working days, registration in the SEACE of the consent of the good pro.
c) 8 business days, consent of the good pro.
d) 8 calendar days, registration in the SEACE of the consent to the award of the good pro
44. An Entity to enter into an LP contract develops the following sequence:

a) Consent to bid, submission of documents, awarding of the contract
pro, subscription of the contract.

b) Consent of the good pro, awarding of the good pro, presentation of documents, signing
of the contract.
c) Awarding of the good pro, consent of the good pro, presentation of documents, signing
of the contract.
d) Awarding of the good pro, presentation of documents, consent of the good pro, signing
of the contract.
45. An entity contracts the painting service for 2 public schools, one of which is built on the
river bank. During the execution of the contract, the school was destroyed by the flooding
of the river.
a) A cause for the contract to be totally terminated is configured.

b) There are no grounds for the contract to be terminated or declared null and void.
c) A cause for the contract to be declared null and void is configured.
d) A cause for the contract to be partially terminated is configured.
46. What is the maximum amount for penalties other than late payment that an entity can apply
in the fumigation contract signed for an amount of S/. 200,000; and then the reduction of
benefits is approved for S/. 20,000.
a) S/. 22,000.00
b) S/. 20,000.00
c) S/. 18,000.00
d) S/. 36,000.00
47. Which of the following characteristics should the performance bond to be submitted by the
winning bidder for the execution of a contract have?
a) Irrevocable and self-fulfilling, but not unconditional.
b) Automatic and unconditional, but not irrevocable.
c) Unconditional and irrevocable, but not self-fulfilling.
d) Irrevocable, automatic and unconditional.
48. It is an element that does not constitute one of the requirements for making conventional
modifications to the contract:
a) That derives from an event supervening the execution of the contract that is solely
attributable to the Entity.
b) Support that the modification allows to achieve the purpose of the contract in an
efficient manner.
c) Deriving from an event occurring after the submission of the bids that is not
attributable to any of the parties.
d) Support that the modification will achieve the purpose of the contract in a timely
manner.
49. During the execution of a contract signed by an entity for text printing services, a
contractor submits a performance bond for renewal. Subsequently, the entity verifies that
the document was false. Does this case constitute a crime and a cause for penalty?
a) An offense was committed for submitting false documentation and constitutes an event
for the application of penalties.
b) There was no crime for submitting false documentation and it does not constitute a
crime for submitting false documents.
case of application of penalties.

c) It constitutes a case for the application of penalties, but no crime has been committed.
d) An offense was committed for submitting false documentation, but it does not
constitute an event for the application of penalties.
50. Which of the following is a ground for an entity to terminate the contract.
a) Due to an event supervening the execution of the contract that is attributable to the
entity.
b) Due to a supervening event that makes the continuation of the execution of the contract
temporarily impossible.
c) Due to an event supervening the execution of the contract that is not attributable to any
of the parties.
d) For an event occurring prior to the conclusion of the contract that is not attributable to
either party
51. For which of the reasons the contractor may not resort to arbitration to settle disputes
during the execution of the contract.
a) Application of penalties.
b) The decision of the Entity or the Comptroller's Office to approve or not to approve
additional benefits.
c) Termination of the contract.
d) Obligations under the contract to be fulfilled after final payment
52. What happens when the winning bidder, having submitted the documents correctly, does
not show up to sign the contract within the established term.
a) The successful bidder does not lose the bid if the winning bidder submits all the
b) It does not lose the good pro, because the Entity may grant it an additional term.
c) It does not lose the good pro, because the Entity may grant it an additional term as long
d) The bidder automatically loses the award because the Entity cannot grant it an
additional term.
53. The cohabitant of the Mayoress of a Municipality subscribes a contract with said
municipality for the amount of S/. 60,000, to provide food for a social program.
a) There is a cause for the contract to be partially terminated because it was signed by a
person who was barred from contracting with the Municipality.
b) There is a cause for the contract to be declared null and void, because it was signed by
a person who was prohibited from contracting with the Municipality.
c) A cause for the contract to be totally terminated is configured because it was entered
into by a person who was barred from contracting with the Municipality.
d) There are no grounds for the contract to be terminated or declared null and void
because the mayor's cohabitant is not barred from contracting with the municipality.
54. Which of the following is a reason why the contractor may not request arbitration to settle
disputes arising during the execution of a contract?
a) In the case of the approval or non-approval of the execution of additional services, the
decision of the entity and the decision of the Comptroller General's Office may be
submitted to arbitration.
the Republic, in this regard.

b) In the case of approval or disapproval of the execution of additional services, the
decision of the Office of the Comptroller General of the Republic cannot be submitted
to arbitration, but the decision of the Entity can be submitted to arbitration.
c) In the case of the approval or not of the execution of additional services, the decision
of the entity cannot be submitted to arbitration, but the decision of the Comptroller
General of the Republic can be submitted to arbitration.
d) In the case of approval or non-approval of the execution of additional services, neither
the decision of the entity nor the decision of the Office of the Comptroller General of
the Republic may be submitted to arbitration.
55. A contractor does not comply within the term granted by an Entity, with the correction of 3
of the 15 observations made by the Entity to the inventory of patrimonial assets submitted.
In view of this situation, the Entity proceeds to grant the approval because it urgently
needed to have this inventory. Please indicate the correct alternative.
a) The Entity did not act correctly because it should not have granted conformityuntil the
contractor had corrected all the observations made.
b) The Entity did not act correctly because it should have granted an additional period of
time to correct the missing observations, but without applying any penalty.
c) The Entity acted correctly in granting the approval because it urgently needed to have
the inventory, but then should have applied the penalties until the contractor complies
with the observations.
d) The Entity acted correctly in granting the approval because the contractor did not
remedy one fifth of the observations made by the Entity.
56. In the terms and conditions for the procurement of medical instruments, the contractor is
expressly prohibited from subcontracting. One week after the contract becomes effective,
the Entity and the contractor agree to modify the contract to allow subcontracting without
changing the price.
a) The parties are free to modify the contract as long as such modification allows the
purpose of the contract to be achieved in a timely and efficient manner.
b) The modification of the contract was carried out correctly because the subcontracting
constitutes an event supervening the execution of the contract.
c) The modification of the contract was correctly performed because subcontracting does
not imply a variation in the price.
d) The contract should not have been modified because subcontracting is a determining
element of the contractual conditions.
57. In a purchase of vans, the contractor requests a 10-day extension because it does not have
the trucks to move them; however, the entity takes more than 10 days to respond to the
request.
a) The entity did not generate any economic damage

b) Caused economic loss because general expenses must be paid and penalties will not be
applied.
c) Caused economic damage because duly accredited general expenses must be paid and
lost the power to apply penalties.
d) It caused economic damage because it lost the power to apply penalties, but it does not
have to pay general expenses.
58. An entity, in a single contract, contracts the maintenance service for thirty (30) printers.
After verifying the non-compliance with the terms of reference, the Entity formulates
observations to the maintenance service of three (3) printers. In view of this situation, the
Entity decided to partially terminate the contract.
a) The entity acted correctly in partially terminating the contract because the contractor
did not comply with the terms of reference for the service.
b) The Entity should have granted a period of no less than two (2) days and no more than
ten (10) calendar days for the contractor to correct the observations made.
c) The Entity should have granted conformity due to the fact that only one tenth of the
printers were commented on for maintenance service.
d) The entity should have granted a term of no less than five (5) days and no more than
twenty (20) calendar days.
59. What is the maximum amount for penalties other than late payment that can be applied in
the contract for the acquisition of laboratory instruments, signed for an amount of S/.
100,000.00 and then a reduction of benefits is approved for S/. 10,000.00
a) S/. 10,000
b) S/. 9,000
c) S/. 11,000
d) S/. 8,000
60. An AS is called for the contracting of painting services for a public school. During the
term to perfect the contract, an earthquake occurs that destroys the school. What should the
Entity do?
a) To sign the contract because if it is not done there would be functional responsibility in
the Head of the Entity.
b) Cancel the public bidding process because the need to contract the service has
disappeared.
c) Refuse to sign the contract because the need to contract the service has disappeared.
d) To declare the nullity of the public bidding process because the need to contract the
service has disappeared.
61. When the estimated value is ________________________the contract can be perfected

by receiving the purchase order or service order, . Please indicate the correct alternative
a) Greater than S/. 100,000.00, in the case of the contracting of goods and services in
general.
b) No more than S/. 100,000.00, in the case of the contracting of goods and services in
general.
c) No more than S/. 100,000.00, in the case of the contracting of goods and services in
general and consulting services.
d) No more than S/. 100,000.00, in any contracting object.
62. What happens when the winning bidder does not submit any of the requirements set forth
in the terms and conditions of the selection procedure in order to execute the contract
within the established term?
a) The successful bidder does not lose the bid if the winning bidder submits all the
b) The bidder automatically loses the award because the Entity cannot grant it an
additional term.
c) It does not lose the good pro, because the entity may grant it an additional term as long
d) You do not lose the good pro, because the entity may grant you an additional term.
63. For which of the following reasons may a contractor request arbitration, but not
conciliation, to settle disputes arising during the performance of a contract?
a) Nullity of contract
b) Nullity of contract and reduction of term
c) Extension of term and nullity of contract
d) Termination of contract
64. One (1) year after delivery of a vehicle, an entity initiates an arbitration claim for hidden
defects against the company that sold the vehicle. Will this arbitration process be part of
the vehicle procurement file?
a) No, because the procurement file only includes preparatory actions.

b) Yes, because the contracting file must include the means of dispute resolution.
c) No, because the procurement file does not include arbitration proceedings.
d) No, because the procurement file only contains the actions that take place during a
65. A simplified award is called for goods for an estimated value of S/. 80,000.00; however,
the contract is awarded to the bidder "Industrias S.A.C." for a value of S/. 120,000.00. In
this case, can the contract be perfected through a purchase order?
a) No, it can be perfected by contract.

b) It can be perfected by purchase order or contract.
c) Yes, it can be perfected with a purchase order.
d) No, it must be perfected with a contract.
66. A simplified award is called for goods for an estimated value of S/. 80,000.00; however,
the contract is awarded to the bidder "Industrias S.A.C." for a value of S/. 120,000.00. In
this case, can the contract be perfected through a purchase order?
a) No, it can be perfected by contract.

b) It can be perfected by purchase order or contract.
c) Yes, it can be perfected with a purchase order.
d) No, it must be perfected with a contract.
67. The individual consultant selection procedure - SCI is awarded for a value of S/. 38,000.00
Is the contract perfected by service order?
a) It is not possible to
b) If it is possible
c) It can be perfected with a service order or a contract.
d) It should always be perfected with order of service.
68. What is the correct order:
a) Submission of documents - Submission of documents - Issuance of the O/C - Receipt

of the O/C
b) Submission of documents - Submission of documents - Issuance of the O/C -
Submission of documents - Submission of documents - Submission of documents - Submission
of documents - Submission of documents
receipt of the O/C

c) Issuance of the O/C - Receipt of the O/C - Correction of documents - Submission of
documents
d) Issuance of the O/C - Substantiation of documents - Receipt of the O/C - Submission
of documents
69. The contract can be modified to vary the price, provided that such modification
a) Is approved by the Head of the Entity or by the officer delegated by the Head of the
Entity.
faculty, but a report from the budget area with the corresponding certification is not
required.
b) Is approved by the Head of the Entity and there is a report from the budget area with
the corresponding certification.
c) Be approved by the Head of the Entity, but a report from the budget area with the
corresponding certification is not required.
d) Be approved by the Head of the Entity or by the official who has delegated the
authority, and there must be a report from the budget area with the corresponding
certification.
70. An Entity enters into a contract for a learning achievement study for an amount of S/
200,000; and then an additional S/ 10,000 is tested; how much would a new additional
10% amount to?
a) S/ 21.000
b) S/ 19.000
c) S/ 20.000
d) S/ 22.000
71. In order to enter into a public bidding contract for the acquisition of sports equipment, an
Entity develops the following sequence:
a) Awarding of the good pro, presentation of documents, consent of the good pro, signing
of the contract.
b) Awarding of the good pro, consent of the good pro, presentation of documents, signing
of the contract.
c) Consent of the good pro, awarding of the good pro, presentation of documents, signing
of the contract.
d) Consent of the good pro, presentation of documents, awarding of the good pro, signing
of the contract.

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BANK OF POTENTIAL QUESTIONS FOR THE

CERTIFICATION EXAM - OSCE

COMPETENCE I: PUBLIC MANAGEMENT

a) Dismissal and reprimand.

a) Obtaining undue advantages.

9. Cuando se señala que el Servidor Público está prohibido de participar en transacciones u

a) Obtaining undue advantages.

11. It is not a duty of the Civil Service Code of Ethics:

12. The prohibition against "maintaining conflicting interests" refers to:

b) Does not constitute a prohibition

16. PEDN, 2.PESEM and 3.PDRC; a) Regional Government, b) National Government, c)

a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b)

17. PESEM and 3.PDLC; a) INEI, b) Municipality, c) MINSA.

a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b)

18. PEDN, 2.POI and 3.PESEM; a) JNE, b) CEPLAN, c) MINCETUR.

a) 1-a); 2-c); 3-b) b) 1-b); 2-c); 3-a) c) 1-b); 2-a); 3-c)

a) Justice and equity

a) Institutional strategic actions

24. In a contract for a document digitalization service subscribed by a District Municipality, a

a) Administrative and civil

a) Misuse of privileged information.

a) Administrative and civil

b) A set of orderly activities that contribute to the achievement of an institutional strategic

c) It is the description of the purpose to be achieved measured through indicators and

a) a)-2; b)-4; c)-3; d)-1

38. Mention which are the phases of strategic planning.

a) National Strategic Development Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - Concerted Local

a) National Development Plan - Institutional Strategic Plan - Concerted Local

43. At what stage of strategic planning does the PESEM result.

a) A disciplinary process should be opened.

a) Ethical principle of efficiency

48. In an EA for an environmental impact assessment consultancy, the proposed methodology

a) Warning and contractual termination.

51. Which of the following is not an ethical principle?

52. Which of the following is an ethical principle?

53. Which of the following is not an ethical duty?

54. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the code of ethics?

a) Maintain conflicting interest

55. With the ___________ the strategic planning process begins

56. What is the correct sequence.

a) Strategic phase, institutional phase and prospective phase

c) Prospective phase, institutional phase and strategic phase

57. Which of the phases of the strategic planning process is transversal.

60. It is defined as the raison d'être of the entity.

a) Proper use of state assets

a) Obtaining undue advantage.

c) Pressuring, threatening and/or harassing.

a) Reprimand, temporary suspension and dismissal.

1. In a __________________ for the contracting of consulting services, the consulting

a) Direct contracting, one (01) member of the contracting body.

1. Electronic Reverse Auction

a. Acquisition of cement in the amount of S/ 200 000.00.

COMPETENCE II: PREPARATORY ACTIONS 13

1. Electronic Reverse Auction

a. Superior piled rice in the amount of S/ 50 000.00.

COMPETENCE II: PREPARATORY ACTIONS 13

6. The principle of equity is applicable during:

a) Thephasefrom preparatory actions

7. In which cases, fractionation is incurred.

a) An unforeseeable requirement arises in addition to the scheduled requirement.

8. Who is barred from being a member of a Selection Committee?

a) The Logistics Manager

a) That the lump sum system should be used.