Test Bank for Psychology, 11th Edition 11th Edition

Test Bank for Psychology, 11th Edition 11th Edition

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1. Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and ________ changes
throughout the human life span.
A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) genetic
D) social

2. Dr. Birkin's major research interest is the development of motor skills in children. It is
most likely that Dr. Birkin is a ________ psychologist.
A) cognitive
B) developmental
C) biological
D) psychodynamic

3. Efforts to identify the interactive influences of inherited personality traits and culturally
prescribed educational practices on the intellectual development of children is most
central to the major issue of
A) stability and change.
B) extraversion and introversion.
C) continuity and stages.
D) nature and nurture.

4. One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology involves a focus on

A) conception and prenatal development.
B) continuity and stages.
C) embryonic and fetal development.
D) individualism and habituation.

5. Distinguishing between very gradual and very abrupt developmental changes over the
life span is most central to the major issue of
A) prenatal and postnatal development.
B) stability and change.
C) continuity and stages.
D) nature and nurture.

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 6. Mary believes that cognitive development is a matter of gradual and almost
imperceptible changes over time. Her viewpoint is most directly relevant to the issue of
A) nature and nurture.
B) genes and environment.
C) continuity and stages.
D) stability and change.

7. Psychologists who view the developmental process as a sequence of distinct stages

generally believe that ________ is(are) the same for everyone.
A) both the order and the timing of the stages
B) the order but not the timing of the stages
C) the timing but not the order of the stages
D) neither the order nor the timing of the stages

8. Theories of human development have been most susceptible to criticism for

overemphasizing
A) discrete age-linked stages.
B) the interaction of nature and nurture.
C) maturation during adolescent development.
D) cognitive changes during adulthood development.

9. A belief that adult personality is completely determined in early childhood would be

most relevant to the issue of
A) stability and change.
B) nature and nurture.
C) cognition and morality.
D) conception and prenatal development.

10. A child's temperament is likely to be

A) difficult to observe.
B) stable over time.
C) a product of parenting style.
D) a reflection of his or her thinking.

11. Questions about whether anxious children will grow up to be either fearful or relaxed
adults most directly highlight the issue of
A) continuity and stages.
B) stability and change.
C) identity and temperament.
D) nature and nurture.

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12. The fact that many happy and well-adjusted adults were once rebellious and unhappy as
adolescents is most relevant to the issue of
A) continuity and stages.
B) childhood and life-span development.
C) stability and change.
D) habituation and attention.

13. As compared with the production of egg cells, sperm cell production
A) begins later in life.
B) involves a jellylike outer covering.
C) begins earlier in life.
D) occurs at a slower rate.

14. Human females begin forming all the eggs they will ever have during
A) conception.
B) prenatal development.
C) early childhood.
D) puberty.

15. Human sperm cells ________ than egg cells.

A) are larger
B) contain more genes
C) are smaller
D) contain fewer genes

16. During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n)
A) zygote and finally develops into an embryo.
B) embryo and finally develops into a fetus.
C) zygote and finally develops into a fetus.
D) fetus and finally develops into an embryo.

17. Cell division and differentiation first begins during the ________ stage of prenatal
development.
A) fetal
B) placental
C) zygotic
D) embryonic

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18. The organ that transfers nutrients and oxygen from mother to embryo is called the
A) ovary.
B) zygote.
C) placenta.
D) teratogen.

19. When a placenta is first developed, it transfers nutrients and oxygen from mother to
A) egg cell.
B) fetus.
C) embryo.
D) zygote.

20. During a routine prenatal exam, Janet's obstetrician detected the heartbeat of her future
baby. The earliest possible period of development medically indicated at this point
would be the ________ period.
A) embryonic
B) zygotic
C) fetal
D) epigenetic

21. The placenta develops from the outer cells of the

A) ovary.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) embryo.

22. Immediately after birth, newborns prefer their own mother's voice to that of another
woman's voice. This is best explained by the interaction of heredity and environment
that takes place inside the
A) mother's egg.
B) placenta.
C) teratogen.
D) uterus.

23. A preference for our mother's voice over our father's voice has been detected
A) during embryonic development.
B) immediately after birth.
C) one week after birth.
D) one month after birth.

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24. At about 30 hours old, American and Swedish newborns were observed to pause more
in their pacifier sucking when listening to
A) familiar vowels from their mother's language.
B) unfamiliar words from their father's language.
C) the voice sounds of a sibling.
D) musical instruments over a radio.

25. Just after birth, the cries of newborns typically bear the intonation of
A) identity.
B) an epigenetic effect.
C) habituation.
D) their mother's native language.

26. Four weeks after having been exposed to a vibrating, honking device placed on its
mother's abdomen, a fetus demonstrates
A) habituation.
B) a stress response.
C) an epigenetic effect.
D) impulsiveness.

27. A teratogen is a(n)

A) fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division.
B) unborn child with one or more physical defects or abnormalities.
C) chromosomal abnormality.
D) substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child.

28. Melissa suffered a severe viral infection during her fourth month of pregnancy that
caused her baby to be born with an abnormal heart valve. In this instance, the virus was
clearly a(n)
A) stress hormone.
B) digestive enzyme.
C) teratogen.
D) zygote.

29. One of the most consistently damaging teratogens is

A) blood.
B) oxygen.
C) testosterone.
D) alcohol.

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30. When pregnant rats drink alcohol, their young offspring later display a(n)
A) immunity to fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) aversion to the taste of alcohol.
C) unusually rapid development of bladder control.
D) liking for the taste and odor of alcohol.

31. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include
A) visual impairments.
B) mental abnormalities.
C) habituation.
D) hearing problems.

32. Alcohol may cause fetal damage by leaving chemical marks on DNA that switch genes
abnormally on or off. This best illustrates
A) habituation.
B) reflexive rooting.
C) an epigenetic effect.
D) neural networking.

33. If a pregnant woman experiences chronic and extreme stress, the stress hormones
flooding her body may damage the developing fetus. In this situation, the mother's stress
hormones are most clearly
A) enzymes.
B) neural networks.
C) placentas.
D) teratogens.

34. A reflex refers to

A) decreasing responsiveness to repeated stimulation.
B) an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth.
C) an automatic response to sensory stimulation.
D) the consistency of temperament over time.

35. Babies are born with several reflexes for getting food. One of these is to
A) withdraw a limb to escape pain.
B) turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face.
C) open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek.
D) look longer at face-like images.

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36. Mr. Hersch triggered a rooting reflex in his infant son by touching him on the
A) foot.
B) knee.
C) arm.
D) cheek.

37. Habituation refers to the

A) awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed.
C) adjustment of current thinking to make sense of new information.
D) the tendency to gaze longer at face-like images.

38. With repeated presentations of a bright red toy, 2-month-old Anita began to respond
with less visual attention to the toy. Her decreasing responsiveness best illustrates
A) an epigenetic effect.
B) a reflex.
C) habituation.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.

39. Infant visual preferences have been discovered by assessing infants'

A) reflexes.
B) habituation.
C) genetic inheritance.
D) stage of development.

40. Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a
A) rectangular shape.
B) circular shape.
C) bull's-eye pattern.
D) face-like image.

41. When placed between a gauze breast pad from their nursing mother's bra and one from
another nursing mother, week-old nursing babies are likely to
A) move their eyes in a visual search for their mother.
B) turn their head toward the smell of their mother's pad.
C) open their mouth in a vigorous search for a nipple.
D) habituate more quickly to the smell of the pad taken from another nursing mother.

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42. French toddlers preferred playing with chamomile-scented toys if
A) they had never before experienced the scent of chamomile.
B) they had been diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome.
C) their mothers had once used a skin balm with a chamomile scent.
D) their fathers were devoted chamomile tea drinkers.

43. Maturation refers to

A) the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviors.
B) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.
C) any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development.
D) the physical and sexual development of childhood.

44. Maturation is to education as ________ is to ________.

A) accommodation; assimilation
B) nature; nurture
C) conservation; object permanence
D) environment; learning

45. The brain's development of increasingly complex neural networks during infancy is
made possible by the formation of billions of new
A) schemas.
B) secure attachments.
C) synapses.
D) epigenetic marks.

46. From ages 3 to 6, the brain's neural networks are sprouting most rapidly in the
A) frontal lobes.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) brainstem.

47. When 10-year-old children repeatedly practice the precise motor skills involved in
texting, the cortical areas directly controlling these motor skills are likely to develop
more complex
A) imprinting.
B) neural networks.
C) object permanence.
D) formal operations.

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48. The association areas are the last cortical areas to fully develop their
A) schemas.
B) theory of mind.
C) neural networks.
D) object permanence.

49. A failure to practice important motor skills can result in a loss of agility because unused
neural connections
A) become insecurely attached.
B) assimilate.
C) accommodate.
D) are pruned.

50. Infant motor development is typically characterized by individual differences in

________ of the major developmental milestones.
A) both the sequence and the age-related timing
B) the sequence but not the age-related timing
C) the age-related timing but not the sequence
D) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing

51. Miguel, the youngest child of a high school athletic director, was able to roll over at 3
months, crawl at 6 months, and walk at 12 months. This ordered sequence of motor
development was largely due to
A) the baby's temperament.
B) maturation.
C) responsive parenting.
D) imprinting.

52. In comparisons of 20 experienced crawlers and 20 novice walkers, all of whom were 12
months old, the novice walkers fell ________ and they traveled ________ distances
than the experienced crawlers.
A) more; shorter
B) less; shorter
C) more; longer
D) less; longer

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53. Putting babies to sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of crib death has been associated
with a slight delay in children's
A) walking.
B) crawling.
C) bladder control.
D) stranger anxiety.

54. The concept of maturation is most relevant to understanding the absence of

A) secure attachments among infants.
B) bladder control among 2-year-olds.
C) self-esteem among kindergarten students.
D) moral behavior among adolescents.

55. Our earliest conscious memories seldom predate our third birthday. This best illustrates
A) egocentrism.
B) imprinting.
C) assimilation.
D) infantile amnesia.

56. Three-year-olds who experienced a fire evacuation caused by a burning popcorn maker
were unable to remember the cause of this vivid event when they were 10-year-olds.
This best illustrates
A) accommodation.
B) assimilation.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) a critical period.

57. Conscious recall of lasting memories most directly depends on the childhood maturation
of the
A) hypothalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) hippocampus.
D) thalamus.

58. Four-year-old Karen can't remember anything of the first few months of her life. This is
best explained by the fact that
A) the trauma of birth interferes with the early formation of memories.
B) most brain cells do not yet exist at the time of birth.
C) experiences shortly after birth are a meaningless blur of darkness and light.
D) the hippocampus and frontal lobes are immature during early infancy.

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59. Babies as young as ________ month(s) learned that their own kicking moves a mobile;
and they retained that learning without later practice for as long as ________ month(s).
A) 1; 1
B) 3; 1
C) 1; 6
D) 3; 12

60. One study found that English-speaking adults could relearn subtle sound contrasts in the
Hindi or Zulu language they had spoken as children even though they had no ________
the language they had once spoken.
A) personal curiosity about
B) conscious memory of
C) basic trust regarding
D) schemas associated with

61. Cognition refers to

A) an emotional tie linking one person with another.
B) the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and
communicating.
C) any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain.
D) any process of change that accompanies maturation.

62. Which psychologist was most influential in shaping our understanding of cognitive
development?
A) Konrad Lorenz
B) Jean Piaget
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Erik Erikson

63. Piaget was convinced that the mind of a child

A) is like a blank slate at birth.
B) is not heavily influenced by maturation.
C) develops through a series of stages.
D) is heavily dependent on the child's personality.

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64. According to Piaget, schemas are
A) fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages.
B) children's ways of coming to terms with their sexuality.
C) people's conceptual frameworks for understanding their experiences.
D) problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal
operational stage.

65. Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called

A) egocentrism.
B) assimilation.
C) imprinting.
D) accommodation.

66. The first time that 4-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was
simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the
process of
A) assimilation.
B) conservation.
C) accommodation.
D) maturation.

67. Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ________ as modifying

existing theories in light of new information is to ________.
A) conservation; egocentrism
B) imprinting; maturation
C) sensorimotor stage; preoperational stage
D) assimilation; accommodation

68. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to

A) parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure.
B) incorporating new experiences into existing schemas.
C) developmental changes in a child's behavior that facilitate social acceptance by
family and peers.
D) adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.

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69. Nageeb thought all nurses were young females until a middle-aged male nurse took care
of him. Nageeb's altered conception of a “nurse” illustrates the process of
A) conservation.
B) assimilation.
C) accommodation.
D) attachment.

70. Which of the following represents the correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development?
A) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor
B) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
D) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational

71. Olivia understands her world primarily by grasping and sucking easily available objects.
Olivia is clearly in Piaget's ________ stage.
A) preoperational
B) concrete operational
C) sensorimotor
D) formal operational

72. Object permanence is the understanding that

A) developmental stages occur in a predictable sequence.
B) biological growth processes enable orderly development.
C) things continue to exist even when they are not perceived.
D) the mass and volume of objects remain the same despite changes in their form.

73. During which of Piaget's stages does a person develop an awareness that things continue
to exist even when they are not perceived?
A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

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74. When Tommy's mother hides his favorite toy under a blanket, he acts as though it no
longer exists and makes no attempt to retrieve it. Tommy is clearly near the beginning
of Piaget's ________ stage.
A) sensorimotor
B) formal operational
C) concrete operational
D) preoperational

75. Infants stare longer than usual at unexpected events such as a ball stopping in midair.
This suggests that Piaget
A) overestimated the continuity of cognitive development.
B) underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants.
C) overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence.
D) underestimated the impact of object permanence on infant attachment.

76. When researcher Karen Wynn showed 5-month-old infants a numerically impossible
outcome, the infants
A) stared longer at the outcome.
B) displayed rapid imprinting.
C) demonstrated an obvious lack of object permanence.
D) showed signs of formal operational reasoning.

77. Infants accustomed to a puppet jumping three times on stage show surprise if the puppet
jumps only twice. This suggests that Piaget
A) overestimated the continuity of cognitive development.
B) underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants.
C) overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence.
D) underestimated the impact of object permanence on infant attachment.

78. According to Piaget, a child can represent things with words and images but cannot
reason with logic during the ________ stage.
A) concrete operational
B) sensorimotor
C) formal operational
D) preoperational

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79. According to Piaget, imagining an action and mentally reversing it would be an example
of a
A) pruning process.
B) critical period.
C) mental operation.
D) sensorimotor action.

80. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to
A) deal with the discipline of toilet training.
B) see things from the point of view of another person.
C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its
shape.
D) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences.

81. Mrs. Pearson cut Judy's hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia's into six pieces. Sylvia
cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that
Sylvia doesn't understand the principle of
A) object permanence.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) accommodation.

82. Three-year-olds were shown a model of a room with a miniature stuffed dog placed
behind a miniature couch. By using the model to locate an actual stuffed dog behind a
couch in a real room, the children demonstrated their capacity for
A) egocentrism.
B) symbolic thinking.
C) conservation.
D) concrete operational reasoning.

83. The egocentrism of preschoolers was most strongly emphasized by

A) the Harlows' attachment theory.
B) Baumrind's parenting style theory.
C) Piaget's cognitive development theory.
D) Erikson's psychosocial development theory.

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84. According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
A) a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced by thumb sucking.
B) young children's exaggerated interest in themselves and their own pleasure.
C) the difficulty perceiving things from another person's point of view.
D) a failure to realize that things continue to exist even when they are not visible.

85. Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a toy
doll as a Christmas present. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
A) accommodation.
B) object permanence.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.

86. Incorrectly assuming that something that is clearly understood by us will also be clearly
understood by others illustrates
A) basic trust.
B) the curse of knowledge.
C) object permanence.
D) imprinting.

87. Ideas about one's own and others' feelings, perceptions, and thoughts along with the
behaviors these might predict are said to constitute
A) formal operational thinking.
B) a theory of mind.
C) the principle of conservation.
D) a secure attachment.

88. Preschoolers' acquisition of a theory of mind suggests that Piaget overestimated young
children's
A) egocentrism.
B) infantile amnesia.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) sense of object permanence.

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89. Five-year-olds who were surprised to discover that a Band-Aid box contained pencils
were able to anticipate their friend's false belief about the contents of the box. This best
illustrates that the children had developed a
A) secure attachment.
B) conventional morality.
C) theory of mind.
D) concept of conservation.

90. Chloe can clearly sense when her sister's teasing is intended to be friendly fun or a
hostile put-down. This best illustrates that Chloe has developed a(n)
A) sense of object permanence.
B) insecure attachment.
C) concept of conservation.
D) theory of mind.

91. According to Piaget, the ability to think logically about events first develops during the
________ stage.
A) sensorimotor
B) formal operational
C) concrete operational
D) preoperational

92. According to Piaget, children come to understand that the volume of a substance
remains constant despite changes in its shape during the ________ stage.
A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

93. Cameron counted a total of eight blocks stacked in a single pile of blocks. When the pile
was knocked over and the blocks scattered in front of him, he knew that there were still
eight blocks. This indicates that Cameron has reached the ________ stage of
development.
A) sensorimotor
B) concrete operational
C) preoperational
D) formal operational

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94. According to Piaget, egocentrism is to conservation as the ________ stage is to the
________ stage.
A) concrete operational; preoperational
B) sensorimotor; preoperational
C) concrete operational; formal operational
D) preoperational; concrete operational

95. According to Piaget, a person first comprehends that division is the reverse of
multiplication during the ________ stage.
A) preoperational
B) concrete operational
C) formal operational
D) sensorimotor

96. According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people begin to
A) reason abstractly.
B) adhere to social norms.
C) distinguish between helpful and harmful behaviors.
D) experience object permanence.

97. The Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky suggested that children's ability to solve
problems is enhanced by
A) basic trust.
B) inner speech.
C) conservation.
D) imprinting.

98. According to Vygotsky, parents who say “No, no!” when pulling a child's hand away
from a cake are giving the child a tool for
A) imprinting.
B) self-control.
C) object permanence.
D) a secure attachment.

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 99. Six-year-old Ashley effectively restrained herself from touching a burning candle by
inaudibly whispering the word “hot.” The advantage of her verbal self-control tactic was
most clearly highlighted by
A) Erik Erikson.
B) Lev Vygotsky.
C) Jean Piaget.
D) Harry Harlow.

100. Vygotsky suggested that new words provide a temporary ________ from which children
can step to higher levels of thinking
A) preoperational stage
B) neural network
C) critical period
D) scaffold

101. If Piaget pictured the developing child as a young ________, Vygotsky pictured the
developing child as a young ________.
A) empathizer; systemizer
B) postoperational child; preoperational child
C) scientist; apprentice
D) athlete; artist

102. Four-year-olds are not completely egocentric and 5-year-olds can exhibit some
understanding of conservation. This indicates that Piaget may have underestimated the
A) importance of critical periods in early life.
B) role of motivation in cognitive development.
C) continuity of cognitive development.
D) importance of early attachment experiences.

103. A disorder that appears in childhood involving deficiencies in communication, rigidly

fixated interests, and repetitive behaviors is known as
A) stranger anxiety.
B) autism spectrum disorder.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) an insecure attachment.

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104. An impaired theory of mind is most closely associated with
A) infantile amnesia.
B) concrete operational thought.
C) the concept of conservation.
D) autism spectrum disorder.

105. Recognizing whether someone's facial expression is a happy smile or a self-satisfied

smirk is especially difficult for those with
A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) infantile amnesia.
C) a secure attachment.
D) high oxytocin levels.

106. Zach has difficulty understanding whether a friend's pouting facial expression signals
sadness or affection. Zach's difficulty would be especially common for those with
A) a secure attachment.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) autism spectrum disorder.

107. From age 2 months on, as other children spend more and more time looking in others'
eyes, those who later develop ________ do so less and less.
A) stranger anxiety
B) infantile amnesia
C) mumps or measles
D) autism spectrum disorder

108. Based on a fraudulent 1998 study, some parents were misled into thinking that the
childhood MMR vaccine increased the risk of
A) childhood obesity.
B) autism spectrum disorder.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) stranger anxiety.

109. Children with high levels of prenatal testosterone develop more

A) infantile amnesia.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) ASD-related traits.
D) secure attachment.

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110. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has proposed that autism spectrum disorder is
indicative of an inborn
A) stranger anxiety.
B) pruning process.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) male systemizing tendency.

111. ASD rates are ________ among elite math students and they are ________ among the
children and grandchildren of engineers.
A) lower; higher
B) higher; lower
C) lower; lower
D) higher; higher

112. The connectivity of brain regions that facilitates the integration of visual and emotional
information appears to be deficient among those with
A) stranger anxiety.
B) infantile amnesia.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) schemas for familiar faces.

113. When people with autism spectrum disorder watch another person's hand movements,
they display less than normal signs of
A) insecure attachment.
B) egocentrism.
C) mirroring activity.
D) stranger anxiety.

114. Animations that grafted emotion-conveying faces onto toy trains have been developed
to alleviate symptoms of
A) stranger anxiety.
B) MMR vaccinations.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) autism spectrum disorder.

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115. At about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears
and distress. This best illustrates
A) assimilation.
B) insecure attachment.
C) egocentrism.
D) stranger anxiety.

116. Lilianne is beginning to develop a fear of strangers and will reach for her mother when
she sees someone who is unfamiliar. It is likely that Lilianne has also just
A) mastered the principle of conservation.
B) overcome the limitation of egocentrism.
C) developed a sense of object permanence.
D) lost her sense of secure attachment.

117. Infants develop a fear of strangers at about 8 months of age because they can't assimilate
unfamiliar faces into their
A) schemas.
B) insecure attachments.
C) impaired theory of mind.
D) critical period.

118. The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is
called
A) attachment.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) pruning.

119. Little Karen will approach and play with unfamiliar animals only if her mother first
reassures her that it is safe to do so. This best illustrates the adaptive value of
A) conservation.
B) attachment.
C) egocentrism.
D) authoritarian parenting.

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120. Studies of monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that mother-infant emotional
bonds result primarily from mothers providing infants with
A) adequate nourishment.
B) body contact.
C) the opportunity to explore.
D) permissive parenting.

121. The Harlows' infant monkeys used an artificial cloth mother as a secure base for
A) conservation.
B) delay of gratification.
C) exploration.
D) object permanence.

122. Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to
A) conservation.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) object permanence.
D) secure attachment.

123. A critical period is a phase during which

A) children frequently disobey and resist their parents.
B) children become able to think hypothetically and reason abstractly.
C) parents frequently show impatience with a child's slowness in becoming toilet
trained.
D) exposure to certain experiences is needed for proper development.

124. The process of imprinting involves the formation of a(n)

A) attachment.
B) identity.
C) epigenetic effect.
D) theory of mind.

125. Which of the following is an example of imprinting?

A) A 2-year-old poodle approaches a stranger who calls it.
B) A 4-year-old boy imitates aggression he sees on television.
C) A duckling demonstrates attachment to a bouncing ball.
D) A 3-year-old girl is simultaneously learning two different languages.

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126. Carol is distressed because post-childbirth complications prevented her from being in
close physical contact with her child during its first few hours of life. Carol should be
told that
A) human infants do not have well-defined critical periods for the formation of a
mother-infant attachment.
B) physical contact with her infant immediately after birth would not contribute to the
development of mother-infant attachment.
C) infants should be left physically undisturbed during the first few hours of life so
they can rest.
D) as long as she can breast-feed her baby, no lasting damage will be done.

127. Unlike ducklings, children do not imprint. Their fondness for certain people, however, is
fostered by
A) conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) mere exposure.
D) infantile amnesia.

128. To assess attachment differences among infants, Mary Ainsworth placed them in a
laboratory setting called a
A) formal operation stage.
B) secure base.
C) strange situation.
D) safe haven.

129. One-year-old Eunice is not overly fearful of strangers but she clearly prefers being held
by her mother than by anyone else. Her behavior best illustrates
A) accommodation.
B) secure attachment.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.

130. Instead of happily exploring the attractive toys located in the pediatrician's waiting
room, little Sandra tenaciously clings to her mother's skirt. Sandra most clearly shows
signs of
A) conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) insecure attachment.
D) accommodation.

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131. Aaron cried when his mother left him in the infant nursery at church, and he was not
reassured or comforted by her return a short while later. Aaron showed signs of
A) egocentrism.
B) assimilation.
C) conservation.
D) insecure attachment.

132. In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting, infants with a secure maternal attachment are most
likely to
A) act as though their mothers are of little importance to them.
B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings.
C) cling to their mothers and ignore the new surroundings.
D) show hostility when their mothers approach them after a brief absence.

133. Infants in a strange situation who appear not to notice or care about their mother's
departure or return show signs of
A) anxious attachment.
B) basic trust.
C) avoidant attachment.
D) imprinting.

134. Some mothers feed their infants when they show signs of hunger, whereas others fail to
respond predictably to their infants' demands for food. These different maternal feeding
practices are most likely to contribute to differences in infant
A) accommodation.
B) attachment.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.

135. A mother who is slow in responding to her infant's cries of distress is most likely to
encourage
A) conservation.
B) insecure attachment.
C) object permanence.
D) egocentrism.

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136. Which of the following factors contributes most positively to the development of secure
attachment between human infants and their mothers?
A) egocentrism
B) responsive parenting
C) stranger anxiety
D) authoritarian discipline

137. Two-year-old Anna perceives her parents as cold and rejecting. This is most indicative
of
A) conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) insecure attachment.

138. When placed in strange situations without their artificial mothers, the Harlows' infant
monkeys demonstrated signs of
A) insecure attachment.
B) egocentrism.
C) basic trust.
D) curiosity.

139. Children's sense that their parents are trustworthy and dependable is most indicative of
A) maturation.
B) accommodation.
C) secure attachment.
D) object permanence.

140. Evidence that easy, relaxed infants develop secure attachments more readily than
difficult, emotionally intense babies would illustrate the importance of
A) egocentrism.
B) temperament.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.

141. A person's characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity is called their

A) social identity.
B) temperament.
C) maturation level.
D) schema.

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142. Pat is normally very restless and fidgety; Shelly is usually quiet and easygoing. The two
children most clearly differ in
A) maturation.
B) egocentrism.
C) temperament.
D) object permanence.

143. Difficult babies with an intense and highly reactive temperament tend to be
A) intelligent and imaginative.
B) irritable and unpredictable.
C) fearless and assertive.
D) extraverted and cheerful.

144. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament?

A) Ruth and Ramona, identical twins
B) Philip and Paul, fraternal twins
C) Larry and Laura, brother and sister
D) Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son

145. Nature is to nurture as ________ is to ________.

A) secure attachment; imprinting
B) heredity; maturation
C) accommodation; assimilation
D) temperament; responsive parenting

146. In a British study following more than 7000 people from birth to adulthood, those
individuals whose fathers were most involved in parenting tended to demonstrate
greater
A) egocentrism.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) object permanence.
D) academic achievement.

147. Children's anxiety over separation from parents peaks at around ________ months and
then gradually declines.
A) 7
B) 13
C) 21
D) 30

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148. From 1960 to 2010, the number of children in the United States living apart from their
fathers ________. Among couples cohabiting when their first child is born, the odds of
their relationship ending during the child's first years are ________ the odds of parental
breakup among those married when their first baby is born.
A) decreased; no greater than
B) increased; no greater than
C) decreased; greater than
D) increased; greater than

149. Marlys is a sensitive, responsive parent who consistently satisfies the needs of Sara, her
infant daughter. According to Erikson, Sara is likely to
A) form a lifelong attitude of basic trust toward the world.
B) encounter some difficulty in overcoming the limitation of egocentrism.
C) encounter some difficulty in forming an attachment to her father.
D) achieve formal operational intelligence more quickly than the average child.

150. At 15 months of age, Justin already strongly senses that he can rely on his father to
comfort and protect him. According to Erikson, this most clearly contributes to
A) egocentrism.
B) conservation.
C) object permanence.
D) basic trust.

151. Many researchers believe that adult styles of romantic love correspond with childhood
patterns of
A) accommodation.
B) attachment.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.

152. Some individuals constantly crave acceptance in romantic relationships but remain
highly vigilant and sensitive to any signs of possible rejection. These people are said to
demonstrate an insecure
A) avoidant attachment style.
B) egocentric attachment style.
C) anxious attachment style.
D) preoperational attachment style.

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153. Romanian children raised in orphanages with untrained and overworked staff were
found to have ________ than found in children assigned to quality foster care settings.
A) less egocentrism
B) lower intelligence scores
C) more secure attachments
D) greater infantile amnesia

154. Most victims of childhood sexual abuse become normal adults. This best illustrates
A) egocentrism.
B) object permanence.
C) conservation.
D) resilience.

155. Harlow observed that most monkeys raised in total isolation

A) were totally apathetic and indifferent to the first monkeys they encountered.
B) were incapable of mating upon reaching sexual maturity.
C) showed slower social development but more rapid cognitive development.
D) showed no lasting adverse effects when placed in a socially enriched environment.

156. Edith abuses both her 3-year-old and 1-year-old daughters. Her behavior is most likely
related to a lack of
A) childhood experience with younger brothers and sisters.
B) maturation.
C) an early and secure attachment to her own parents.
D) formal operational intelligence.

157. When golden hamsters were repeatedly threatened and attacked while young, they
suffered long-term changes in
A) object permanence.
B) brain chemistry.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.

158. Children who suffer chronic abuse and become aggressive teens and adults have been
found to have
A) lower-than-normal levels of serotonin.
B) higher-than-normal levels of testosterone.
C) lower-than-normal levels of testosterone.
D) lower-than-normal levels of adrenal hormones.

Page 29
159. Children who have survived severe or prolonged physical abuse are at increased risk for
A) criminality.
B) substance abuse.
C) attempted suicide.
D) all of these conditions.

160. For several months following a sudden and unexpected divorce, Henry was excessively
preoccupied with thoughts of his ex-wife. His reaction resulted from the disruption of
A) a critical period.
B) conservation.
C) object permanence.
D) attachment.

161. Your understanding and awareness of who you are is your

A) temperament.
B) egocentrism.
C) self-concept.
D) theory of mind.

162. Researchers have studied the beginnings of self-awareness by noting when infants first
A) experience stranger anxiety.
B) demonstrate egocentrism.
C) develop a sense of object permanence.
D) recognize themselves in a mirror.

163. Mrs. Carmichael secretly dabs some lipstick on the nose of her 2-year-old son and then
allows him to see his face in a mirror. The child is most likely to
A) touch his own nose.
B) touch the mirror at the point where the lipstick shows.
C) wave at his mirror image as if it were another child.
D) assimilate the lipstick mark into his existing self-concept.

164. Compared with others their own age, children who form a positive self-concept are
more likely to be
A) obedient.
B) egocentric.
C) sociable.
D) systemizers.

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165. Two characteristics of authoritarian parents are that they
A) expect obedience but are responsive to their children's needs.
B) submit to their children's desires but are unresponsive in times of need.
C) impose rules and expect obedience.
D) exert control by setting rules and explaining the reasons for those rules.

166. The McDougals use harsh discipline on their children and demand unquestioning
obedience. Psychologists are likely to characterize the McDougals as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) egocentric
C) permissive
D) authoritative

167. Brad and Jane exercise very little control over their two young children, and they
usually allow them to do whatever they want. Psychologists would characterize Brad
and Jane as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) authoritative
C) conventional
D) permissive

168. Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be
A) authoritarian.
B) conservative.
C) permissive.
D) authoritative.

169. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who

A) are obedient but have low self-esteem.
B) have high self-esteem and are self-reliant.
C) have high self-esteem but are somewhat dependent.
D) are rebellious and have low self-esteem.

170. At age 12, Sean is happy, self-reliant, and has a positive self-image. It is most likely that
Sean's parents are
A) permissive.
B) conservative.
C) authoritarian.
D) authoritative.

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171. Compared with authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be
A) more conservative.
B) less educated.
C) more responsive.
D) less trusting.

172. If warmly supportive parents are especially likely to have children with high
self-esteem, this would most clearly indicate that
A) authoritative parenting is more effective than authoritarian parenting.
B) permissive parenting is more effective than authoritative parenting.
C) children's self-esteem stimulates warmly supportive parenting.
D) warmly supportive parenting and children's self-esteem are correlated.

173. Claims that adult personality traits are completely determined by childhood experiences
are most clearly disputed by the ________ perspective.
A) psychosocial
B) life-span
C) intuitionist
D) psychoanalytic

174. Adolescence extends from

A) the beginning of concrete operations to the end of formal operations.
B) 12 to 15 years of age.
C) the beginnings of sexual maturity to independent adulthood.
D) the beginning to the end of the growth spurt.

175. The development stage of adolescence is likely to be most brief in cultures where teens
are
A) preoccupied with peer approval.
B) seldom married.
C) experiencing role confusion.
D) financially self-supporting.

176. The period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of
reproducing, is called
A) the formal operational stage.
B) emerging adulthood.
C) pruning.
D) puberty.

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177. People experience rapid physical development and sexual maturation
A) during late adolescence.
B) at puberty.
C) when the frontal lobe matures.
D) during emerging adulthood.

178. Menarche is a maturational milestone most directly associated with

A) postconventional morality.
B) dual processing.
C) role confusion.
D) puberty.

179. Boys who mature at an early age tend to be more

A) physically uncoordinated.
B) sexually inhibited.
C) popular and self-assured.
D) academically successful.

180. Ten-year-old Heidi is maturing early and already towers over all the girls and most of
the boys in her fifth-grade class. Heidi is likely to be
A) the most popular student in class.
B) self-assured and independent.
C) challenging her teacher's authority.
D) the object of some teasing.

181. The selective loss of unused connections among brain cells is called
A) pruning.
B) menarche.
C) autonomy.
D) generativity.

182. As teens mature, the growth of myelin facilitates

A) the development of impulsive risky behaviors.
B) feelings of attraction toward those of the opposite (or the same) sex.
C) the birth of new nerve cells in the hippocampus.
D) communication between the frontal lobes and other brain regions.

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183. Young teens are not fully equipped for curbing risky behavior or making long-term
plans because of the incomplete maturation of their
A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) frontal lobes.
D) somatosensory cortex.

184. The improving emotion regulation during one's late teen years partially results from
improved connections between the frontal lobes and the
A) limbic system.
B) brainstem.
C) cerebellum.
D) thalamus.

185. The ability to think logically about hypothetical situations is indicative of the ________
stage of development.
A) conventional
B) preconventional
C) preoperational
D) formal operational

186. Adolescents begin to use abstract reasoning skills when they achieve the intellectual
summit that Piaget called
A) an intuitionist perspective.
B) formal operations.
C) dual processing.
D) generativity.

187. Fourteen-year-old Lisa was asked, “What would happen if everyone in the world
suddenly went blind?” She responded, “Those who had previously been blind would
become leaders.” Lisa's answer indicates she is in the ________ stage of development.
A) concrete operational
B) postconventional
C) formal operational
D) preoperational

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188. Lawrence Kohlberg focused on the development of
A) a sense of identity.
B) self-awareness.
C) moral reasoning.
D) moral intuitions.

189. Kohlberg emphasized that human behavior becomes less selfish as we mature due to
A) social development.
B) physical development.
C) cognitive development.
D) economic development.

190. According to Kohlberg, morality based on the avoidance of punishment and the
attainment of concrete rewards represents ________ morality.
A) conventional
B) preconventional
C) concrete operational
D) postconventional

191. Regis thinks it's wrong to drive over the speed limit simply because he might get
punished for doing so. He is demonstrating Kohlberg's ________ stage of morality.
A) conventional
B) postconventional
C) preconventional
D) preoperational

192. Juanita suffers from a painful back condition. Smoking marijuana would reduce her
pain, but she thinks it would be wrong because it is prohibited by the laws of her state.
Juanita is demonstrating Kohlberg's ________ level of morality.
A) conventional
B) unconventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional

193. According to Kohlberg, postconventional morality involves

A) behavior based on self-interest.
B) affirmation of self-defined ethical principles.
C) strong concern for social approval.
D) unquestioning obedience to authority figures.

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194. Mr. Lambers refuses to pay income taxes because his conscience will not allow him to
support a government that spends billions of dollars on military weapons. Mr. Lambers'
reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg's ________ stage.
A) postconventional
B) concrete operational
C) preconventional
D) conventional

195. Avoiding physical punishment is to ________ morality as respecting the laws of society
is to ________ morality.
A) conventional; postconventional
B) preconventional; postconventional
C) conventional; preconventional
D) preconventional; conventional

196. Critics have noted that Kohlberg's ________ level of moral reasoning is culturally
limited, appearing mostly among people who prize individualism.
A) preconventional
B) postconventional
C) concrete operational
D) conventional

197. Haidt's intuitionist perspective highlights the impact of automatic gut-level feelings on
A) intimacy.
B) role confusion.
C) moral judgments.
D) social identity.

198. Psychologist Jonathan Haidt has described our moral intuitions as

A) formal operations.
B) a pruning process.
C) quick gut feelings.
D) postconventional judgments.

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199. Laboratory games reveal that people's desire to punish wrongdoing is driven mostly by
automatic emotional reactions rather than by deliberate conscious calculations that
punishment will deter crime. This most clearly supports the ________ perspective on
morality.
A) psychosocial
B) intuitionist
C) postconventional
D) concrete operational

200. Many people would find it more morally repulsive to kill someone by thrusting a knife
into his or her body than by shooting him or her with a gun from a distance. This is best
explained in terms of
A) Erikson's psychosocial perspective.
B) Piaget's cognitive development perspective.
C) Haidt's intuitionist perspective.
D) Kohlberg's moral development perspective.

201. Moral judgments are sometimes based on our moral reasoning and other times based on
our intuitive moral emotions. This best illustrates the impact of
A) individualism.
B) dual processing.
C) role confusion.
D) delay of gratification.

202. The corrupt behavior of many ordinary people who served as Nazi concentration camp
guards best illustrates that immorality often results from
A) social influence.
B) a pruning process.
C) abnormal cognitive development.
D) postconventional moral thinking.

203. In service-learning programs where teens have tutored children or assisted older adults,
the teens have experienced
A) a decreased sense of peer approval.
B) increased school absenteeism.
C) a decreased sense of competence.
D) an increased willingness to serve.

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204. Psychological researcher Walter Mischel gave preschoolers a choice between one
marshmallow now or two marshmallows when he returned a few minutes later. Children
who chose to wait for two marshmallows demonstrated
A) a pruning process.
B) formal operational thinking.
C) delay of gratification.
D) postconventional morality.

205. Learning to delay gratification promotes

A) maturation.
B) preconventional morality.
C) impulse control.
D) an intuitionist perspective.

206. According to Erikson, achieving a sense of identity is the special task of the
A) toddler.
B) preschooler.
C) elementary schoolchild.
D) adolescent.

207. Which psychologist most clearly emphasized that adolescents often try out different
“selves” in different situations as part of the process of forming an identity?
A) Jonathan Haidt
B) Lawrence Kohlberg
C) Erik Erikson
D) Jean Piaget

208. According to Erikson, trust is to infancy as identity is to

A) late adulthood.
B) childhood.
C) young adulthood.
D) adolescence.

209. According to Erikson, teens who suffer role confusion have not yet
A) experienced a sense of basic trust.
B) achieved a sense of autonomy.
C) strived for a sense of competence.
D) solidified a sense of identity.

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210. Zian can't decide what he wants to do with his life. He has tried several different jobs,
but has been fired for lack of effort each time. According to Erikson, Zian best
illustrates
A) a pruning process.
B) preconventional morality.
C) role confusion.
D) delay of gratification.

211. Erikson would have suggested that adolescents can most effectively develop a sense of
identity by
A) seeking a lifelong romantic relationship.
B) severing the emotional ties between themselves and their childhood friends.
C) investigating the personal suitability of various occupational and social roles.
D) adopting whatever values and expectations their parents recommend.

212. Erikson suggested that adolescents who simply take on their parents' values or conform
to their parents' expectations have failed to work on
A) developing a sense of basic trust.
B) delaying gratification.
C) achieving a conventional morality.
D) refining their sense of identity.

213. Sixteen-year-old Brenda questions her parents' values but does not fully accept her
friends' standards either. According to Erikson, her confusion about what she really
wants and values in life suggests that Brenda is struggling with the issue of
A) autonomy.
B) identity.
C) initiative.
D) integrity.

214. An awareness of your distinctive status as an international student in a university far

from your homeland best illustrates a sense of
A) stagnation.
B) postconventional morality.
C) social identity.
D) menarche.

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215. The “we” aspect of our self-concept that comes from our group membership is our
A) moral intuition.
B) role confusion.
C) social identity.
D) preconventional morality.

216. Which of the following best describes adolescent self-esteem?

A) It rises through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.
B) It falls through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
C) It rises through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
D) It falls through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.

217. During late adolescence people show a(n) ________ in agreeableness and a(n)
________ in emotional stability.
A) decrease; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; decrease
D) increase; increase

218. Compared with their counterparts in more collectivist countries, 17-year-olds in North
America are more likely to experience
A) moral intuition.
B) concrete operations.
C) social identity.
D) romantic relationships.

219. Teens' search for identity is especially likely to be prolonged in cultures that value
A) conformity.
B) individualism.
C) preconventional morality.
D) a strong sense of basic trust.

220. Erikson suggested that the adolescent search for identity is followed by a developing
capacity for
A) competence.
B) intimacy.
C) autonomy.
D) trust.

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221. Compared with disagreements between parents and adolescent sons, the disagreements
between parents and adolescent daughters are more likely to center on issues such as
A) personal hygiene.
B) dating and friendships.
C) household chores.
D) illegal drug use.

222. Research indicates that the high school girls who have the most affectionate
relationships with their mothers also tend to
A) have the most intimate relationships with girlfriends.
B) have somewhat less intimate relationships with girlfriends.
C) take longer than normal to establish their own independence and separate identity.
D) have difficulty forming intimate relationships with boys.

223. Adolescence is typically a time of

A) diminishing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.
B) growing parental influence and growing peer influence.
C) diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence.
D) growing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.

224. Although Adam didn't care for the taste of fried green tomatoes, he began eating them
when he saw that his classmates were doing so. His behavior best illustrates the impact
of
A) temperament.
B) role confusion.
C) a pruning process.
D) peer influence.

225. An elaborate ceremony used to celebrate a person's emergence into adulthood is an

example of a
A) postconventional morality.
B) role confusion.
C) pruning process.
D) rite of passage.

226. A rite of passage is most similar to a(n)

A) moral intuition.
B) preoperational stage.
C) initiation ceremony.
D) sense of basic trust.

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227. Which of the following is true of adolescence in contemporary industrialized societies,
as compared with previous centuries?
A) It begins earlier in life and ends earlier in life.
B) It begins later in life and ends earlier in life.
C) It begins earlier in life and ends later in life.
D) It begins later in life and ends later in life.

228. A period from about age 18 to the mid-twenties when many in Western cultures have
not yet achieved full independence as adults is called
A) puberty.
B) a rite of passage.
C) emerging adulthood.
D) the formal operational stage.

229. Physical abilities such as muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and
cardiac output reach their peak during
A) late childhood.
B) early adulthood.
C) puberty.
D) middle adulthood.

230. As men advance through middle adulthood they experience a gradual decline in
A) testosterone level.
B) sperm count.
C) ejaculation speed.
D) all of these things.

231. Menopause refers to

A) the cessation of menstruation.
B) the loss of male sexual potency.
C) irregular timing of menstrual periods.
D) the loss of sexual interest in late adulthood.

232. Between the middle of the last century and the early years of the current century
A) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has increased.
B) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
C) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
D) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has increased.

Page 42
233. The ratio of males to females first begins declining during
A) prenatal development.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.

234. Aging cells may die without being replaced due to the shortening of
A) immune system antibodies.
B) menopause.
C) distance perception.
D) telomeres.

235. A shortening of telomeres is accelerated by

A) aerobic exercise.
B) vaginal intercourse.
C) neurogenesis.
D) obesity

236. In one 15-year period, more Americans died on the two days after Christmas than on the
two days before Christmas. It has been suggested that this illustrates
A) a death-deferral phenomenon.
B) lack of generativity.
C) terminal decline.
D) shortened telomeres.

237. Lewis is a 70-year-old retired college professor. In contrast to when he was 30, he now
probably
A) does not hear as well.
B) is more susceptible to catching the flu.
C) has significantly fewer neural connections.
D) has all of these problems.

238. Mrs. Wilson is 78 years old and over the past few years she has become increasingly
susceptible to bouts of pneumonia. This can most clearly be attributed to
A) slower neural processing.
B) a weakening immune system.
C) the brain's plasticity.
D) neurogenesis.

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239. Older people are NOT increasingly susceptible to
A) pneumonia.
B) terminal decline.
C) common cold viruses.
D) neurocognitive disorder.

240. Most 20-year-olds outperform most 70-year-olds on video games due to age-related
differences in
A) menopause.
B) longitudinal study.
C) crystallized intelligence.
D) information-processing speed.

241. Research on older people has shown that

A) they grow increasingly fearful of death.
B) they become increasingly prone to car accidents.
C) they experience less life satisfaction than younger adults.
D) all of these statements are true.

242. In late adulthood, Mr. Klondike has become increasingly likely to make socially
impolite remarks about other people's appearance or mannerisms. His blunt comments
are most likely to indicate late life shrinkage of the ________ lobes.
A) temporal
B) occipital
C) parietal
D) frontal

243. The aging brain partly compensates for a loss of brain cells by recruiting and
reorganizing existing neural networks. This best illustrates
A) neurogenesis.
B) terminal decline.
C) plasticity.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.

244. Sedentary older adults randomly assigned to aerobic exercise programs exhibit
A) reduced risk of significant cognitive decline.
B) increased risk of shortened telomeres.
C) reduced risk of neurogenesis.
D) increased risk of upper respiratory flu.

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245. Physical exercise in later life promotes ________ in the hippocampus, a brain region
that is important for memory.
A) a reduction of myelin
B) the shortening of telomeres
C) the process of neurogenesis
D) reduced plasticity

246. When asked to recall the one or two most important events over the last half century,
older adults tend to name events that occurred when they were in their
A) preadolescent years.
B) teens or twenties.
C) thirties or forties.
D) fifties and sixties.

247. When adults of varying ages were tested for their memory of a recently learned list of
24 words, the older adults demonstrated
A) no decline in either recall or recognition.
B) a decline in recognition but not in recall.
C) a decline in recall but not in recognition.
D) a decline in both recognition and recall.

248. On which of the following tasks is a 20-year-old most likely to outperform a

70-year-old?
A) recalling previously presented nonsense syllables
B) recognizing previously presented foreign language words
C) recalling previously presented names of cities
D) recognizing previously presented names of fruits and vegetables

249. Remembering to take your prescribed medications at a specific time of day best
illustrates
A) the social clock.
B) a longitudinal study.
C) prospective memory.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.

Page 45
250. A British study involving more than 11,000 participants indicated that brain training
activities over a period of six weeks ________ subsequent performance of the practiced
mental skills, and ________ overall cognitive fitness.
A) improved; did not improve
B) did not improve; improved
C) improved; improved
D) did not improve; did not improve

251. A cross-sectional study is one in which

A) the same people are retested over a period of years.
B) different age groups are tested at the same time.
C) different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time.
D) the behavior of a group is assessed by different researchers.

252. Professor Kuilema compared the moral intuitions of one group of children, a second
group of adolescents, and a third group of adults by assessing their reactions to a variety
of moral dilemmas. Professor Kuilema conducted a ________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) postconventional
C) cross-sectional
D) concrete operational

253. The same people are retested over a long period in a ________ study.
A) concrete operational
B) longitudinal
C) postconventional
D) cross-sectional

254. Researchers studied the effects of exercise on the physical health of over 5000 residents
in one locale throughout their middle and late adulthoods. The research best illustrates a
________ study.
A) working memory
B) cross-sectional
C) prospective memory
D) longitudinal

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255. The terminal decline phenomenon involves a decrease in mental ability that
accompanies the approach of
A) menopause.
B) retirement.
C) death.
D) a midlife crisis.

256. A series of small strokes can progressively damage the brain and cause enduring
cognitive deficits that are indicative of
A) menopause.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) a death-deferral phenomenon.
D) a neurocognitive disorder.

257. The risk of developing a neurocognitive disorder in late adulthood is more than doubled
by ________ in midlife.
A) upper respiratory flu
B) menopause
C) heavy smoking
D) breast cancer

258. A neurocognitive disorder caused by neural plaques and marked by a progressive

decline in memory is called
A) terminal decline.
B) brain plasticity.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) neurogenesis.

259. During the last few years, 75-year-old Mrs. Yamaguchi has gradually become so
mentally disoriented that she can't find her way around her own house and often fails to
recognize her husband. It is most likely that Mrs. Yamaguchi is suffering the effects of
A) a death-deferral phenomenon.
B) menopause.
C) terminal decline.
D) Alzheimer's disease.

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260. Alzheimer's disease involves a deterioration of neurons that produce
A) dopamine.
B) telomeres.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.

261. A telltale sign of ________ consists of protein fragments that accumulate as plaque at
neuron tips where synaptic communication usually occurs.
A) neurogenesis
B) menopause
C) brain plasticity
D) Alzheimer's disease

262. A diminishing sense of smell and slowed or wobbly walking may foretell
A) neurogenesis.
B) brain plasticity.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.

263. Researchers have detected unusually diffuse brain activity while people at risk for
________ are trying to memorize words.
A) alcohol use disorder
B) weak immune systems
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) pneumonia

264. Researchers have discovered that the midlife transition between early and middle
adulthood is characterized by unusually high levels of
A) job dissatisfaction and career change.
B) marital dissatisfaction and divorce.
C) anxiety and emotional instability.
D) none of these feelings or events.

265. People have been most likely to describe themselves as a “sandwich generation” during
their
A) adolescence.
B) early adulthood.
C) middle adulthood.
D) late adulthood.

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266. The age at which people are expected to leave home, get a job, and marry has changed
dramatically in Wallonia over the past 50 years. Developmentalists would say that the
country's ________ has been altered.
A) social clock
B) developmental norm
C) maturation cycle
D) family calendar

267. Professor Polinski suggested that humans pair-bond because this practice encouraged
the cooperative nurture and survival of children. The professor's suggestion best
illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.
A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) intuitionist
D) evolutionary

268. Compared with their counterparts of 50 years ago, American men today are marrying
A) at a younger age and American women are marrying at an older age.
B) at an older age and American women are marrying at a younger age.
C) at an older age and American women are marrying at an older age.
D) at a younger age and American women are marrying at a younger age.

269. After living together for a year without any long-term commitment to their relationship,
Sylvia and Yefim have decided to marry. Research on premarital cohabitation most
strongly suggests that
A) they have more positive attitudes toward the institution of marriage than the
average couple.
B) their marriage will have a higher-than-average probability of being successful.
C) most of their college friends and acquaintances have viewed their cohabitation
negatively.
D) their marriage will have a higher-than-average probability of ending in divorce.

270. A ________ of Americans say that love counts as a very important reason to marry and
a ________ of Americans say that financial stability counts as a very important reason
to marry.
A) majority; majority
B) minority; minority
C) majority; minority
D) minority; majority

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271. The best predictor of a couple's marital satisfaction is the
A) frequency of their sexual intimacy.
B) intensity of their passionate feelings.
C) ratio of their positive to negative interactions with each other.
D) experience or nonexperience of a prior marriage.

272. Among employed women, the task of raising children is especially likely to be
associated with ________ marital satisfaction. The departure of mature children from
the home is typically associated with ________ marital satisfaction.
A) increasing; decreasing
B) decreasing; increasing
C) increasing; further increasing
D) decreasing; further decreasing

273. When children grow up and leave home, parents most frequently report feeling
A) depressed.
B) bored.
C) happy.
D) anxious.

274. Marie feels socially useful in her career as a financial investment advisor. Erik Erikson
would have suggested that Marie experiences a sense of
A) attachment.
B) autonomy.
C) generativity.
D) plasticity.

275. People typically experience an increasing sense of confidence and self-esteem

A) from the early to mid-teen years.
B) from the mid-teen years to midlife.
C) from middle adulthood through the very final weeks prior to death.
D) during all of these periods.

276. There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her
A) risk of neurocognitive disorder.
B) ability to recall meaningless information.
C) level of life satisfaction.
D) risk of accidental physical injury.

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277. As people progress into late adulthood, they increasingly use words that convey
________ emotions, and the amygdala shows diminishing activity in response to
________ events.
A) negative; negative
B) positive; positive
C) negative; positive
D) positive; negative

278. Compared with teens and young adults, older adults have ________ friendships and
experience ________ attachment anxiety.
A) more; less
B) fewer; more
C) more; more
D) fewer; less

279. Compared with middle-aged adults, older adults experience

A) positive emotions with less intensity and negative emotions with more intensity.
B) positive emotions with more intensity and negative emotions with less intensity.
C) positive emotions with less intensity and negative emotions with less intensity.
D) positive emotions with more intensity and negative emotions with more intensity.

280. Compared with when she was an adolescent, elderly Mrs. Packer is likely to experience
a sad mood with
A) less intensity and for a longer time.
B) more intensity and for a shorter time.
C) less intensity and for a shorter time.
D) more intensity and for a longer time.

281. An integrated understanding of successful aging in terms of appropriate nutrition, family

support, and an optimistic outlook is most clearly provided by
A) a cross-sectional study.
B) an intuitionist perspective.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) an evolutionary perspective.

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282. During the time following the death of a loved one
A) those who express the strongest grief immediately do not purge their grief more
quickly.
B) those who talk frequently with others are unusually likely to prolong their own
feelings of depression.
C) grieving men are at less risk for ill health than are grieving women.
D) both men and women go through predictable stages of denial followed by anger.

283. Older adults who feel satisfied when reflecting on their lives demonstrate what Erikson
called a sense of
A) attachment.
B) maturity.
C) integrity.
D) resilience.

284. According to Erikson, adolescence is to identity as late adulthood is to

A) integrity.
B) autonomy.
C) generativity.
D) intimacy.

285. Abner, a 70-year-old retired teacher, feels that his life has not been of any real value or
significance. According to Erikson, Abner has failed to achieve a sense of
A) basic trust.
B) intimacy.
C) autonomy.
D) integrity.

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Answer Key
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. B

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45. C
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. C
51. B
52. C
53. B
54. B
55. D
56. C
57. C
58. D
59. B
60. B
61. B
62. B
63. C
64. C
65. B
66. A
67. D
68. D
69. C
70. C
71. C
72. C
73. A
74. A
75. B
76. A
77. B
78. D
79. C
80. C
81. B
82. B
83. C
84. C
85. D
86. B
87. B
88. A
89. C
90. D

Page 54
 91. C
92. C
93. B
94. D
95. B
96. A
97. B
98. B
99. B
100. D
101. C
102. C
103. B
104. D
105. A
106. D
107. D
108. B
109. C
110. D
111. D
112. C
113. C
114. D
115. D
116. C
117. A
118. A
119. B
120. B
121. C
122. D
123. D
124. A
125. C
126. A
127. C
128. C
129. B
130. C
131. D
132. B
133. C
134. B
135. B
136. B

Page 55
137. D
138. A
139. C
140. B
141. B
142. C
143. B
144. A
145. D
146. D
147. B
148. D
149. A
150. D
151. B
152. C
153. B
154. D
155. B
156. C
157. B
158. A
159. D
160. D
161. C
162. D
163. A
164. C
165. C
166. A
167. D
168. D
169. B
170. D
171. C
172. D
173. B
174. C
175. D
176. D
177. B
178. D
179. C
180. D
181. A
182. D

Page 56
183. C
184. A
185. D
186. B
187. C
188. C
189. C
190. B
191. C
192. A
193. B
194. A
195. D
196. B
197. C
198. C
199. B
200. C
201. B
202. A
203. D
204. C
205. C
206. D
207. C
208. D
209. D
210. C
211. C
212. D
213. B
214. C
215. C
216. B
217. D
218. D
219. B
220. B
221. B
222. A
223. C
224. D
225. D
226. C
227. C
228. C

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229. B
230. D
231. A
232. D
233. A
234. D
235. D
236. A
237. A
238. B
239. C
240. D
241. B
242. D
243. C
244. A
245. C
246. B
247. C
248. A
249. C
250. A
251. B
252. C
253. B
254. D
255. C
256. D
257. C
258. C
259. D
260. C
261. D
262. C
263. C
264. D
265. C
266. A
267. D
268. C
269. D
270. C
271. C
272. B
273. C
274. C

Page 58
Test Bank for Psychology, 11th Edition 11th Edition

275. B
276. C
277. D
278. D
279. C
280. C
281. C
282. A
283. C
284. A
285. D

Page 59

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