NDA PYQs by Team Shaurya

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NDA CUT OFF MARKS
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NDA EXAM QUESTION PAPER DETAILS
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NDA EXAM SYLLABUS
NDA exam has two papers – Mathematics and General Ability Test.
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The Paper – 1 i,e. Mathematics comprises topics including (1) Algebra, (2) Matrics and
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Determinants, (3) Trigonometry, (4) Analytical Geometry of Two and Three Dimensions,
(5) Differential Calculus. (6) Integral Calculus and Differential Equations, (7) Victor
Algebra and (8) Statistics and Probability.
The Paper – 2 i,e. General Ability Test comprises topics including (Part A) English and
(Part B) General Knowledge. The syllabus for English covers several aspects such as
comprehension, cohesion, grammar and usage and vocabulary. The syllabus for
General Knowledge is broadly divided into Social Studies, Current Events, Chemistry,
Physics, Geography and General Science.
HOW TO USE THIS eBOOK
1. DOWNLOAD THE BOOK AND KEEP IT IN YOUR SMARTPHONE.
2. EVERYDAY AFTER YOU WAKEUP, TAKE 10 QUESTIONS EACH FROM

MATHS AND GENERAL ABILITY TEST PAPERS.
3. TRY TO SOLVE THEM ON A PAPER AND CROSS CHECK THE ANSWERS.
4. IF YOU ARE NOT ABLE TO FIND THE SOLUTION, REFER THE eBOOK
AGAIN AND SOLVE IT.
SLEEP.
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5. REPEAT THE SAME IN THE EVENING AND AT NIGHT BEFORE YOU
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6. SLOWLY INCREASE THE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS YOU SOLVE.
7. IF YOU SOLVE 50 QUESTIONS IN A DAY, YOU CAN SOLVE AROUND

1500 QUESTIONS IN A MONTH AND MAY BE MORE.
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8. REMEMBER THESE ARE ACTUAL QUESTIONS, WHAT YOU WILL FACE
IN THE NDA EXAM WILL BE SIMILAR TO THESE QUESTIONS.
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9. SOLVING THESE QUESTIONS WILL HELP YOU TO BOOST YOUR
PREPARTING IN NO TIME.
GET LET'S CRACK NDA EXAM BOOK

NDA/NA EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER 2019 - I
ENGLISH & GENERAL ABILITY

PART-A
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions: Each item in this section has a 3. Rabindranath Tagore,

sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a)
(a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out a Nobel laureate and the author of the national
whether there is any error in any underlined anthem,
part and indicate your response in the Answer (b)
Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or
(b) or (c). If you find no error, your response
should be indicated as (d).
found Shantiniketan.
4.
(c)
c k No error.
(d)
1. Opening his letters,

(a)
reading them carefully and sending for his clerk,
(b)
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The art of printing was introduced into England
(a)
during the reign of Edward IV
(b)
he dictated answers with them.
(c)
2. He was my school-friend
No error.
(d)
B C by William Caxton, a native of Kent.

(c)
No error.
ends.
(a)
but becoming a great man,
(b)
S S
He has grown proud enough to forget his old fri
(d)
5. From thirty years
(a)
he devoted himself to public affairs
(b)
(c) without taking a holiday. No error.
No error. (c) (d)
(d)
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NDA &NA 1 /2019 : Solved Paper
6. If Ramesh will be promoted (c) (d)

(a) 9. One of most widely spread
he will get a higher salary. No error. (a)
(b) (c) (d) bad habits is the use of tobacco.
7. My brother goes to the office (b) (c)
(a) (b) No error.
five day week. No error. (d)
(c) (d) 10. A great part of Arabia is desert.
8. If you lend Mohan a pen (a) (b) (c)
(a) No error.
he will lend it to someone else (d)
(b)
and never you will get it back. No error.
SYNONYMS
Directions: Each item in this section consists of

a sentence with an underlined word/words
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13. A glance at a beautiful object gives us
delight.
followed by four words. Select the option that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined
word/words and mark your response in your
(a) wisdom
(c) purity
r a (b) happiness
(d) peace
14. It is terrible for people to die of starvation.
Answer Sheet accordingly.
11. Some people complain when they encounter
a small misfortune in the course of their
thoroughly happy life.
B C (a) starch
(c) plenty
(b) staple
(d) hunger
15. The university has constituted a grievance
redressal committee to look into the matter.
(a) run into
(c) run down
(a) Indifferent love S S

(b) run away
(d) run with
12. This world is full of miseries.
(a) depression
(c) abrasion
(b) complaint
(d) gratefulness
16. Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech.
(a) abusive (b) praiseworthy
(b) Perfect happiness (c) moderate (d) inspiring
(c) Great suffering 17. Suddenly the sky was darkened by a gigantic
(d) Moderate sympathies bird.
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(a) winged (b) small 19. The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the
(c) tiny (d) enormous desert throughout the year, shifting from one
18. To abolish poverty would be to destroy the oasis to another.
soil upon which mankind produces the virtues (a) sandbank (b) mound
conductive to higher civilization. (c) dune (d) spring
(a) detest (b) eradicate 20. The various facets of life can be found
(c) nurture (d) assimilate reflected in a large city.
(a) several (b) similar
(c) valuable (d) singular
ANTONYMS
Directions: Each item in this section consists of 25. He has deeper hostility towards Mohan.
a sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words. Select the option that is opposite in
meaning to the underlined word/words and
mark your response in your Answer Sheet
(a) animosity
(c) malice
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(b) belligerence
(d) friendship
c
26. His life is rather monotonous.
(a) exciting (b) dreary
accordingly.
21. Ramesh is a very dubious character.
(a) shady (b) suspicious
(c) tedious
r a (d) uneventful
27. Macbeth is a morally repulsive character.
(a) abominable (b) attractive
(c) trustworthy (d) doubtful
22. Do not indulge in unmindful activities,
please.
B C (c) obnoxious (d) ugly

28. The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing
effect on his mind.
(a) vigilant
(c) stupid
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(b) careless
(d) fatuous
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23. He is suffering from a curable disease.
(a) remediable
(c) terminal
(b) treatable
(d) operable
(a) placid
(c) tranquil
(b) pleasing
(d) turbulent
29. Life is transient in nature.
(a) brief
(c) eternal
(b) momentary
(d) short-lived
24. He was born on a very auspicious day. 30. Sohan is a vain person.
(a) propitious (b) fortunate (a) modest (b) arrogant
(c) ominous (d) opportune (c) conceited (d) proud
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IDIOMS AND PHRASES
Directions: Given below are some 33. A jack of all trades

idioms/phrases followed by four alternative (a) someone who has many skills
meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (b) a confident and not very serious young man
(c) or (d) which is the most appropriate (c) someone who has hit the jackpot
expression. (d) a great businessman
31. A dark horse 34. Fight tooth and nail
(a) a black coloured horse (a) to quarrel with someone
(b) a person who wins a race or competition (b) to attack someone with a lot of force
although no one expected him to (c) to try hard to prevent something from
(c) a person who keeps secrets happening
(d) an ignorant person (d) to try very hard to achieve something
32. A show-stopper
(a) someone who stops the show
(b) someone who organizes the show
35. Fair and square
(a) in an honest way
(b) in a critical way
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(c) a performance that is extremely good
(d) a fashionable person
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
a
(c) neither very good nor very bad
(d) in a foolish way
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Directions: In this section each item consists of
six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth
sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and
B C S6: In the course of time they may rule over us
altogether.
P: For example, we are unable to manage our
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S6. The middle four sentences in each have been
jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are
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required to find the proper sequence of the four
sentences and mark your response accordingly
on the Answer Sheet.
machines.
Q: We already find it difficult to do without
machines.
R: Machines should be fed properly and waited
upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work
36. S1: We do not know what to do with our or cause destruction.
knowledge. S: Science has given us superhuman powers,
which we do not use properly.
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The proper sequence should be P: I regard this rule as a curse.

(a) S P R Q (b) P S Q R Q: Sedition has become my religion.
(c) Q R P S (d) S R P Q R: Ours is a non-violent battle.
37. S1: The British rule in India has brought S: I am out to destroy this system of Government
about moral, material, cultural and spiritual The proper sequence should be
ruination of this great county. (a) S P R Q (b) P S Q R
S6: We are not to kill anybody but it is our (c) Q R P S (d) S R P Q
dharma to see that the curse of this Government
is blotted out.
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions: Each of the following items in this 39. both intense political and
section consists of a sentence, the parts of which P
have been jumbled. These parts have been this state has a history of
labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each
sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c)
and (d). You are required to rearrange the
Q
of syncretic accomplishments
R
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jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your
response accordingly.
38. the urban local body elections
S
(a) S Q P R
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religious contestation and
(b) P Q S R
unidentified gunmen
Q
and injured another during
P
B C (c) S Q R P
P
(d) Q P S R
40. the father also in his quest for justice
by the system feels let down.

Q
R
shot dead two workers
S
(a) Q S R P
(c) S P R Q
S S
(b) P Q S R
(d) R P S Q
R
(a) S Q P R
(c) S Q R P
S
(b) P S R Q
(d) P Q R S
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COMPREHENSION
Directions: In this section you have a passage. as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and
After the passage, you will find some items others who consider ourselves civilized and
based on the passage. First, read the passage superior persons imagine that we are many
and answer the items based on it. You are nations. It was after the advent of railways that
required to select your answers based on the we began to believe in distinctions, and you are
contents of the passage and opinion of the at liberty now to say that it is through the
author only. railways that we are beginning to abolish those
PASSAGE – 1 distinctions. Ail opium-eater may argue the
I do not wish to suggest that because we were advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he
one nation we had no differences, but it is began to understand the evil of the opium habit
submitted that our leading men travelled after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider
throughout India either on foot or in-bullock-
carts. They learned one another's languages and
there was no aloofness amongst them. What do k
well what I had said on the railways.
41. According to the author, India
(a) has never been one nation
c
a
you think could have been the intention of those (b) has been an aggregate of several nations
farseeing ancestors of ours who established (c) has always been one nation along with
Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South,
Jagannath in the East and Hardwar in the North
as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they
C
differences
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(d) became a nation after the British came
42. Why did the great sages of Indian establish
B
were no fools. They knew that worship of God pilgrimages in the different corners of the
could have been performed just as well at home. country?
S
They taught us that those whose hearts were
aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in
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their own homes. But they saw that India was
one undivided land so made by nature. They,
therefore, argued that it must be one nation.
(a) Because they wanted to push people to
travel to different places
(b) Because they could observe the underlying
unit of the country as made by nature
(c) Because they themselves had travelled to
Arguing thus, they established holy places in these places
various parts of India, and fired the people with (d) Because they wanted people to be religious
an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in everywhere
other parts of the world. And we Indians are one
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43. In the passage, the author’s attitude towards (b) The Ganges has been polluted, so one should
the railways is bath at home
(a) critical (c) One should take a holy dip in the Ganges to
(b) sympathetic purify one’s heart
(c) indifferent (d) The purity of heart is superior to observance
(d) apathetic of any ritual
44. What does the author mean when he says 45. The paragraph is written in a
that “whose hearts were aglow with (a) dialogic style
righteousness has the Ganges in their own (b) prescriptive style
homes”? (c) descriptive style
(a) One need not visit the Ganges to take holy (d) analytical style
bath
FILL IN THE BLANK
Directions: Each of the following sentences in

this section has a blank space and four words or
(c) discovered
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(d) busted
48. A woman got into the car and _________.
group of words given after the sentence. Select
the word or group of words you consider most
appropriate for the blank space and indicate
(a) drove off
(c) rode in
r a (b) broke down

(d) drove in
49. The lecture was not very interesting, in fact I
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your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. _________ in the middle of it.
46. _________ forests prevent erosion. (a) showed off (b) put off
(a) Lean
(c) Sparse
(b) Dense
(d) Tidy
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47. Three people were arrested and an illegal
arms unit was _________ by the police in a raid.
B (c) dozed off (d) plugged off
50. The cops _________ murder by kin.
(a) suspect
(c) manage
(b) afford
(d) administer
(a) revealed
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(b) searched
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PART-B
51. Which one of the following cell organelles (d) Counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun
does NOT possess nucleic acid? to that of Moon
(a) Nucleolus (b) Chloroplast 57. Which one of the following energy is stored
(c) Ribosome (d) Plasma Membrane in the links between the atoms?
52. Which one of the following cell organelles (a) Nuclear energy (b) Chemical energy
does NOT possess its own genetic material (c) Potential energy (d) Thermal energy
encoding proteins? 58. The light energy escaping from the Sun can
(a) Ribosome (b) Nucleus be spread by
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast (a) a shower of rain drops
53. Which one of the following is NOT a (b) a plane mirror
component of conducting tissue in plants? (c) a convex lens
(a) Fibers (b) Tracheids (d) a combination of a convex lens and a concave
(c) Pericycle (d) Sieve tubes
54. Which one of the following organisms has
vascular tissues?
lens
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59. The correct sequence of energy transfer that
occurs when an apple falls to the ground is
(a) Cladophora
(c) Marsilea
(b) Penicillium
(d) Anabaena
55. Which one of the following organisms
r a
(a) Gravitational potential energy → heat energy
to air → kinetic energy → heat energy to ground
and apple →sound energy
(b) Gravitational potential energy → sound
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represents the primary consumer category in an
ecosystem? energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air →
(a) Caterpillar
(c) Frog
(b) Crabapple tree
(d) Sparrow hawk
56. Spring tides refer to a
S
(a) Greatest difference in the sea level at high
B
heat energy to ground and apple
(c) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic
energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to
ground and apple → sound energy
and low tides
low tides
S
(b) Lowest difference in the sea level at high and
(c) No difference in the sea level at high and low

(d) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic
energy → sound energy → heat energy to air →
heat energy to ground and apple
60. Which one of the following minerals is used
as a fuel in nuclear power stations?
tides (a) Bauxite (b) Quartz
(c) Feldspar (d) Pitchblende
61. Which one of the following is NOT a 67. National Water Academy, a centre of
synthetic detergent? excellence in training and capacity building in
(a) CH3 (CH2 )10 CH2 OSO− 3 Na
+
water resource, is located at
(b) [CH3 (C H2 )15 − N − (CH3 )3 ]+ Br − (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata
(c) CH3 (CH2 )16 COO− Na+ (c) Pune (d) Chennai
(d CH3 (CH2 )16 COO(CH2 CH2 O)n CH2 CH2 OH) 68. “Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna
62. Which one of the following is an example of grasslands are generally found in?
a clean fuel? (a) Australia (b) Central Africa
(a) Coke (b) Propane (c) South America (d) East Asia
(c) Petrol (d) Wax 69. “Viticulture” is a common feature of which
63. Which one of the following metals does NOT one of the following Australian cities?
react with cold water? (a) Adelaide (b) Darwin
(a) Calcium (Ca) (b) Potassium (K) (c) Hobart (d) Brisbane
(c) Magnesium (Mg) (d) Sodium (Na) 70. “Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local”
64. In which of the following pairs are the ions
isoelectronic?
(a) Mg 2+ , Ar (b) Na+ , O2−
wind found in
(a) East Asia
(c) Sahara of Africa
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(b) West Coast of Africa
(d) Mesopotamia
(c) Al3+ , Cl− (d) K + , Ne
65. Which one of the following is used as a
binder in paints? a
71. “Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with?
(a) Orographic rainfall
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(b) Convectional rainfall
(a) Titanium dioxide
(b) Novolac
(c) Phthalocyanine
(d) Silicones
B C
(c) Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical)
(d) Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate)
72. Who was the author of the book ‘History of
British India’?
reference to Air mass?

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66. Which one of the following is NOT true in
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(a) Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar
region
(a) Charles Grant
(c) James Mill
(b) John Stuart Mill
(d) William Jones
73. The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25,
1857 stressed on which one of the following
(b) Air mass develops on continents as well as issues?
over ocean (a) Hindu-Muslim divide
(c) Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition (b) Support to the English Government
(d) Air mass changes the weather conditions (c) The return of the Badshahi
(d) The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue 80. Let us consider a copper wire having radius r
demand) and length 𝑙. Let its resistance be R. If the radius
74. Which Viceroy has made the observation, of another copper wire is 2r and the length is 𝑙/2
“It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi….”? then the resistance of this wire will be
(a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Wavell (a) R (b) 2R
(c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Lord Willingdon (c) R/4 (d) R/8
75. Which Indian businessman favored ‘healthy 81. Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear
capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards reactor is
a ‘common object’? (a) Nuclear fusion
(a) Ghanshyam Das Birla (b) Controlled nuclear fusion
(b) Ambalal Sarabhai (c) Uncontrolled nuclear fission
(c) Sir Biren Mookerjee (d) Controlled nuclear fission
(d) T.T.K. Krishnamachari 82. Which one of the following statements is
76. The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation NOT correct for the given reaction?
of which one of the following European
painters?
(a) Thomas Jones Barker
(a) Iron is the reducing agent
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𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) → 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑢(𝑠)
(b) The solution turns green in colour after the

(b) Joseph Noel Paton
(c) Thomas Daniell
(d) Charles D’Oyly
reaction
r a
(c) Copper is a more reactive metal than iron
(d) The reaction is an example of a redox
77. Which one of the following can charge an
insulator?
(a) Current electricity (b) Static electricity
(c) Magnetic field (d) Gravitational field
B C
reaction
83. Which one of the following is an organic
acid?
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid
(a) 330 m/s

(c) 1500 m/s
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78. At 20ᵒ𝐶, the speed of sound in water is
approximately
S
(b) 800 m/s
(d) 5000 m/s
(c) Acetic acid (d) Sulphuric acid
84. Dinitrogen (𝑁2) and dioxygen (𝑂2) are the
main constituents of air but they do not react
with each other to form oxides of nitrogen
79. Which one of the following could be the because
melting point of iron? (a) The reaction requires initiation by a catalyst
(a) 25ᵒC (b) 37ᵒC (b) oxides of nitrogen are unstable
(c) 500ᵒC (d) 1500ᵒC
(c) The reaction is endothermic and requires 1. Daily or diurnal rhythm in daylight and air
very high temperature temperature
(d) The stoichiometry of 𝑁2 and 𝑂2 in air is not 2. Flow path of both air and water are turned
ideal for the reaction to take place consistently in a side-ward direction
85. Who among the following has explained the 3. The movement of the tides
phenomenon of photoelectric effect? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Max Planck (b) Albert Einstein below:
(c) Neils Bohr (d) Ernest Rutherford (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
86. The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
𝐶2 𝐻2 𝑂4 . 2𝐻2 𝑂 is 92. Who among the following historians have
(a) 45 (b) 63 described the Quit India movement as a
(c) 90 (d) 126 ‘spontaneous revolution’?
87. Which one of the following is NOT a west (a) Gordon Johnson (b) David Arnold
(c) F G Hutchins (d) Peter Robb
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flowing river?
(a) Periyar (b) Bharatpuzha The following 3 (three) items consist of two
(c) Pamba
known as “Vitasta”?
(a) Tista
(d) Tamraparni
88. Which one of the following rivers was earlier
(b) Jhelum below:

a c
statements, Statement I and Statement II.
Examine these two statements carefully and
select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Tungabhadra (d) Bharatpuzha

89. River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of
Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains,
Code:
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(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of
Sarda is known as
(a) Saraswati
(c) Kali
(b) Bhagirathi
S
(d) Pindar B
Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of
(b) Agriculture development

(c) Women empowerment
(d) Full immunization
S
90. “Mission Indradhanush” is related to
(a) Bullet train project
Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
93. Statement I: Abul Fazl shaped, represented
and articulated the ideas associated with the
91. Which of the following is/are environmental reign of Akbar
effects of Rotation of the Earth?
Statement II: The qualities of Abul Fazl 2. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid
impressed Akbar who found the former suitable depends upon the current flowing in the wire of
as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies. the solenoid
94. Statement I: The Kisan manifesto adopted by 3. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid
the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 depends upon the diameter of the solenoid
contained radical demands Which of the statements given above are
Statement II: The All India Kisan Sabha was a correct?
part of the Congress and maintained close (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
relationship with the Provincial Congress (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Committees 98. Light year is a unit of measurement of
95. Statement I: The British ruled India through (a) very large distances
a modern through a modern bureaucracy (b) time interval in years
headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose (c) amount of light received on earth in a year
members were recruited through merit based (d) mass of atoms
on open competition
Statement II: The Indian Civil Service was based
on the whole hearted participation of Indians.
k
99. The focal length of the objective lens of a
c
telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the
telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eye-
96. Two metallic wires A and B are made using
copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length
is 𝑙. A dc voltage V is applied across the wire A,
piece is
(a) 12.5 cm
(c) 2 cm
r a (b) 5 cm
(d) 10 cm
causing power dissipation P. The radius of wire
B is 2r and its length is 2𝑙 and the same dc
voltage V is applied across it causing power
dissipation 𝑃1 . Which one of the following is the
B C
100. Which one of the following forces is non-
central and non-conservative?
(a) Frictional force (b) Electric force
(c) Gravitational force (d) Mechanical force
(a) 𝑃 = 2𝑃1
(c) 𝑃 = 4𝑃1
S
(d) 𝑃 = 𝑃1
S
correct relationship between P and 𝑃1 ?
(b) 𝑃 = 𝑃1 /2
97. Consider the following statements about a

101. On exposure to moist air, copper gains a
green coat on its surface due to formation of
which one of the following compounds?
(a) Copper carbonate (b) Copper oxide
solenoid: (c) Copper sulphate (d) Copper nitrate
1. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid 102. Which one of the following will NOT
depends upon the number of turns per unit produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an
length in the solenoid aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(a) Limestone (b) Quick Lime (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Chalk (d) Marble 107. Which one of the following ocean currents
103. Which one of the following substances is is NOT a cold ocean current?
NOT a mixture? (a) Canary current (b) California current
(a) Ice (b) Ice-cream (c) Kuroshio current (d) Oyashio current
(c) Air (d) Honey 108. What is the time gap in occurrence of two
104. Which one of the following is an example of successive tides at a given place on the ocean
Salt-Crystal growth? surface?
(a) Chemical weathering (a) 12 hours (b) 12 hours 26 minutes
(b) Physical weathering (c) 24 hours (d) 24 hours 52 minutes
(c) Biological weathering 109. Tooth enamel is made up of which one of
(d) Bio-chemical weathering the following calcium compounds?
105. Which one of the following is the correct (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium sulphate
sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian (c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Calcium phosphate
states in decreasing order?
(a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West
Bengal
k
110. Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2,
c
having the same density but their radii are R1
and R2 respectively, where R1>R2. The
(b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West
Bengal
(c) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, a
accelerations due to gravity on the surface of
this planet are related as
(a) 𝑔1 > 𝑔2
r
Chhattisgarh
(d) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal,
Jharkhand
106. Consider the following statements relating
B C
(b) 𝑔1 < 𝑔2
(c) 𝑔1 = 𝑔2
(d) Can’t say anything
111. The sun is seen little before it rises and for
to Richter scale:
S S
1. It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter
2. It describes the quantity of energy released by
a single earthquake
a short while after it sets. This is because of
(a) Total internal reflection
(b) Atmospheric refraction
(c) Apparent shift in the direction of sun
3. Richter Scale has no upper limit (d) Dispersion
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
112. In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph,
accelerated and decelerated motions are
respectively represented by line segments
(a) CD and BC (b) BC and AB
(c) CD and AB (c) AB and CD
115. Which one of the following statements
regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct?
(a) The walls of flask are separated by vacuum
and made of glass which is a poor conductor of
heat
The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus (b) The glass walls themselves have shiny
position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. surfaces
Which one of the following is the correct (c) The surface of inner wall radiates good
relation between their speeds 𝑉𝐴 , 𝑉𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉𝐶 , amount of heat and the surface of outer wall
respectively at any instant (t>0)?
(a) 𝑉𝐴 < 𝑉𝐵 < 𝑉𝐶
(b) 𝑉𝐴 > 𝑉𝐵 > 𝑉𝐶
the inner wall
k
absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from
c
(d) The cork supports are poor conductors of
(c) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐶 ≠ 0
(d) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐶 = 0
113. 1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equal
heat
a
116. ‘Black hole’ is a
r
(a) huge black star which has zero acceleration
to
(a) 103 𝑔 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2
(c) 105 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠 2
114.
(b) 10−3 𝑔 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2
(d) 10−5 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠 2
B C
due to gravity on its surface
(b) star which has moderate acceleration due to
gravity on its surface
(c) star which has collapsed into itself and has
S S large acceleration due to gravity on its surface

(d) star which has collapsed into itself and has
zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface
117. The formula for conversion between
Fahrenheit and Celsius is °𝐹 = 𝑋 + (1.8 × °𝐶)
What is factor X?
(a) 32 (b) 22
(c) 98 (d) 42
118. When a beam of white light passes through (b) Tropical Cyclone
a glass prism, the colour of light beam that (c) Temperate Cyclone
deviates the least is (d) Inter Tropical Convergence
(a) Blue (b) Red 124. Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are
(c) Green (d) Violet antecedent rivers. Which one of the following
119. LIGO stands for may be the true definition of an antecedent
(a) Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave drainage?
Observatory (a) Which follows the initial slope of the
(b) Light Interferometer Gravitation wave Himalaya
Observatory (b) Which existed before the Himalayan range
(c) Light Induced Gravity Observatory came into existence
(d) Laser Induced Gaseous Optics (c) Which followed the dip or rock beds of the
120. A fuse wire must be Himalaya
(a) Conducting and of low melting point (d) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of
(b) Conducting and of high melting point
(c) Insulator and of high melting point
(d) Insulator and of low melting point
the Himalaya
c k
125. The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931
advocated which one of the following issues?
121. Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001
to handle thermal coal requirements. It is
situated along the coast of which Indian State?
and services
r a
(a) State shall not own or control key industries
(b) State shall handover the key industries and

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(d) Karnataka
122. Which one of the following Union
Territories of India is the smallest in terms of
C
services to the Indian business groups
(c) State should allow the Indian business group
B
to invest fifty per cent of the capital
(d) State shall own or control key industries and
geographical area?
(a) Daman and Diu
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli S S services
126. The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was
signed after which one of the following battles?
(a) Battle of Austerlitz (b) Battle of Tilsit
(d) Lakshadweep (c) Battle of Wagram (d) Battle of Lisbon
123. Which one of the following can be said to 127. Which of the following statements about
be essentially related to ‘Polar Front Theory’? The New Model Unions is/are correct?
(a) Anticyclone
1. The New Model Unions were formed in the 130. Who among the following presented ‘The
1850s April Theses’ to the Russian people in 1917?
2. The New Model Unions were formed in the (a) Stalin (b) Trotsky
1880s (c) Bukharin (d) Lenin
3. The New Model Unions comprised a Labour 131. An Election Commissioner can be removed
Party idea from office on the recommendation of
4. The New Model Unions excluded women in (a) The Chief Justice of India
the 1920s (b) The Chief Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) The President of India
below: (d) The Parliament
(a) 1 (b) 2 132. Which one of the following statements
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?
128. The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was (a) Its members are elected by the elected
announced to achieve which one of the members of the Legislative Assembly of a State
following?
(a) Containment of the USSR
(b) Increasing agricultural production in the USA
k
(b) The election follows the system of
c
proportional representation by means of a
single transferable vote
(c) Offering friendship to Europe
(d) Strengthening the UNO
129. Which of the following statements is/are
years
r a
(c) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two
(d) It is permanent body, but can be dissolved

correct?
1. In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United
Nations and immediately supported the USA in
the Cold war
B C
earlier by the President
133. Fundamental right guaranteed under which
one of the following Articles of the Constitution
of India is available only to the citizens of India?
the Korean War

S S
2. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but
refused to denounce China as the aggressor in
Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(b) Article 20
(d) Article 22
134. The treaty of Yandabo was signed in
(a) 1826 (b) 1825
below: (c) 1824 (d) 1823
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 135. In the Manusmriti which form of marriage
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden
and her lover”?
(a) Eighth form (b) Fifth form after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps
(c) Seventh form (d) Sixth form for augmenting collections?
136. Consider the following description of the (a) Himanta Biswa Sharma
Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India: (b) Thomas Isaac
Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square (c) Sushil Modi
black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped (d) Capt Abhimanyu
with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine 140. The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was
holds significance and represents the navarasas, held in
navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of (a) New Delhi (b) Gandhi Nagar
the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus (c) Prayagraj (d) Varanasi
shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is 141. Which one of the following cities was
accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways named by UNESCO as World Capital of
made in white composite tiles so that the floor Architecture for 2020?
does not get heated. (a) Tokyo (b) Johannesburg
Identify the Samadhi:
(a) Shakti Sthal
(c) Sadaiv Atal
(b) Shantivan
(d) Veer Bhumi
(c) Rio de Janerio
k
(d) New Delhi
c
142. Who among the following was named ICC’s
emerging player of the year 2018?
137. IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted
regularly between Armies of India and
(a) Malaysia (b) Maldives
(c) Hasan Ali
r a
(a) Rishabh Pant (b) Josh Hazlewood
(d) Mustafizur Rahman
143. India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-
(c) Mauritius (d) Myanmar
138. Who among the following was awarded
The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year
2018?
B C
making unit is located at
(a) Jamshedpur
(c) Hazira
(b) Kolkata
(d) Gwalior
144. Which of the following pairs of old names
(a) Neelum Saran Gour
(b) N Kalyan Raman
(c) Manoranjan Byapari
(d) Arunav Sinha S S and new names of islands in India is/are
correctly matched?
1. Ross Island
2. Neil Island
: Shaheed Dweep
: Netaji Subhas
139. Who among the following was appointed Chandra Bose Dweep
as head of the seven member committee to look 3. Havelock Island : Swaraj Dweep
into revenue shortfall being faced by the states Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 representation of electrical activity of heart
(b) 2 and 3 only 148. Which one of the following statements
(c) 1 and 2 only regarding Penicillin is correct?
(d) 3 only (a) Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this
145. Who among the following was antibiotic in vacuole
posthumously conferred with the Ashoka (b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this
Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase
award, in 2019? (c) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this
(a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid
(b) Nazir Ahmad Wani dehydrogenase
(c) Hangpan Dada (d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so
(d) Mohan Nath Goswami most bacteria are resistant
146. As per code of the nomenclature, which 149. Which one of the following organelles of
one of the following is the correct way of writing mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?
a biological name?
(a) Amoeba Proteus
(b) Amoeba proteus
(a) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosome
k
(b) Ribosomes
c
(d) Nucleus
(c) amoeba proteus
(d) Amoeba Proteus
147. Which one of the following statements a
regarding Cholera is correct?
(a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of
memory
r
regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?
(a) Electrocardiogram is graphical
representation of electrical activity of cornea
(b) Electrocardiogram is graphical
B C
(b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to
consumption of alcohol
(c) Cholera is a disease due to consumption of
contaminated food or water
representation of activity of kidney
(c) Electrocardiogram is graphical
S
representation of activity of brain
(d) Electrocardiogram is graphical
S (d) Cholera is a genetic disease
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) The meaning of the “delight” is “happiness”.
The option (c) has an error in that sentence. 14. (d)
Correct answer is “he dictated answers to The meaning of “starvation” means “hunger”.
them”. 15. (b)
2. (b) The meaning of the “grievance” is “complaint”.
The option (b) has an error in that sentence. It 16. (a)
should be “became” instead of becoming. The meaning of the “slanderous” is “abusive”.
3. (c) 17. (d)
The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It The meaning of the “gigantic” is “enormous”.
should be “founded” instead of found. 18. (b)
4. (a) The meaning of the “abolish” is “eradicate”.
The option (a) has an error in that sentence. It 19. (d)
should be “The art of printing was introduced in The meaning of the “oasis” is “spring”.
England”. 20. (a)
5. (a) The meaning of the “various” is “several”.
The option (a) has an error in that sentence. It 21. (c)
should be “since” instead of “from”.
6. (a)
c k
The meaning of “dubious” is “hesitating or
doubting”. So, the Antonyms of it will be “trust
The option (a) has an error in that sentence. worthy”.
Instead of “if” it should be “when”.
7. (c)
22. (d)
r a
The meaning of “unmindful” is “not conscious or
The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It aware”. So, the Antonyms of it will be “fatuous”.
should be “five days a week”
8. (c)
B C
23. (c)
The meaning of “curable” is “remediable,
The option (c) has an error in that sentence. It treatable, medicable”. So, the antonyms of it will
should be “and you will never get it back” be “terminal”.
9. (d)
10. (d) S
There is no error in this sentence.
S
There is no error in this sentence.
11. (a)
The meaning of the “encounter” is “Run into”.
24. (c)
The meaning of “auspicious” is “favorable,
propitious, and promising”. So, the antonyms of
it will be “ominous”.
25. (d)
12. (c) The meaning of “hostility” is “blood feud, feud,
The meaning of the “miseries” is “Great score, vendetta hate, hatred, and loathing
suffering”. vindictiveness”. So, the antonyms of it will be
13. (b) “friendship”.
26. (a) or attractive the gold crown was the show-
The meaning of “monotonous” is “aseptic, stopper of the exhibition.
barren, blah, and dullish”. So, the antonyms of it 33. (a)
will be “exciting”. Someone who has many skills. The phrase 'Jack
27. (b) of All Trades, Master of None' refers to a person
The meaning of “repulsive” is “abhorrent, who is competent in many skills but is not
abominable, appalling, awful, and disgusting”. outstanding in any of them. Example of use: Josh
So, the antonyms of it will be “attractive”. refuses to study one profession. He fails to
28. (d) understand that a jack of all trades is a master of
The meaning of “serene” is “arcadian, calm, and none.
hushed”. So, the antonyms of it will be 34. (d)
“turbulent”. To try hard to achieve something. Fight tooth
29. (c) and nail. Engage in vigorous combat or make a
The meaning of “transient” is “brief, deciduous, strenuous effort, using all one's resources. For
ephemeral, and evanescent”. So, the antonyms
of it will be “eternal”.
30. (a)
k
example, I'm going to fight tooth and nail for
c
that promotion. This expression, with its allusion
to biting and scratching, was first recorded in
The meaning of “vain” is “assured, biggity”. So,
the antonyms of it will be “modest”.
31. (b)
1576.
35. (a)
r a
In an honest way. Fair and square phrase if you
A person who wins a race or competition
although no one expected him to. A dark horse
is a person, in regards to a certain field, sport,
political race etc., whose experience and
B C
say that someone won a competition fair and
square, you mean that they won honestly and
without cheating. There are no excuses. We
were beaten fair and square.
abilities are unknown but who could
S S
unexpectedly win or achieve success over
others; an unknown and unexpected winner of
a race or other contest.
36. (a)
S P R Q. Science has given us superhuman
powers, which we do not use properly. For
example, we are unable to manage our
32. (c) machines. Machines should be fed properly and
A performance that is extremely good. waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse
Something or someone exceptionally arresting to work or cause destruction. We already find it
difficult to do without machines.
37. (b) 45. (c)
P S Q R. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to The paragraph is written in a descriptive style.
destroy this system of Government. Sedition has 46. (b)
become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. In dense forests, the tree cover (canopy)
38. (a) prevents rainwater from directly falling on the
Q S R P. Unidentified gunmen shot dead two ground/soil. Also roots of the vegetation bind
workers and injured another during the urban the soil particles and hold them together.
local body elections. 47. (d)
39. (d) Three people were arrested and an illegal arms
Q P S R. This state has a history of both intense unit was busted by the police in a raid.
political and religious contestation and of 48. (a)
syncretic accomplishments. To leave in a car: I got in the car and drove off.
40. (b) On the road: driving & operating road vehicles.
P S R Q. The father also feels let down by the 49. (c)
system in his quest for justice.
41. (c)
According to the author, India has always been
k
Dozed off means to start to sleep, especially
c
during the day and without intending to.
50. (a)
one nation along with differences.
42. (b)
The great sages of Indian establish pilgrimages a
Suspect means have an idea or impression of the
existence, presence, or truth of (something)
r
without certain proof.
in the different corners of the country because
they could observe the underlying unit of the
country as made by nature.
43. (a)
B C
51. (d)
The cell membrane or plasma membrane is a
biological membrane that separates the interior
of all cells from the outside environment which
the railways is critical.

44. (d)
S S
In the passage, the author’s attitude towards
“The purity of heart is superior to observance of

protects the cell from its environment. It does
not even possess the nucleic acid.
52. (a)
The ribosome is a complex molecule made of
any ritual” the author means when he says that ribosomal RNA molecules and proteins that
“whose hearts were aglow with righteousness form a factory for protein synthesis in cells.
has the Ganges in their own homes”. 53. (c)
Pericycle: A thin layer of plant tissue between When apple falls, its gravitational potential
the endodermis and the phloem. It is not a energy converts to kinetic energy. Kinetic energy
component of conductive tissue. converts to heat energy to air. Kinetic energy
54. (d) converts to heat energy to ground and apple.
Anabaena is a genus of filamentous Kinetic energy converts to sound energy.
cyanobacteria that exist as plankton. They are 60. (d)
known for nitrogen-fixing abilities, and they Uranium in the mineral pitchblende is used in
form symbiotic relationships with certain plants, nuclear power plant.
such as the mosquito fern. Anabaena has 61. (d)
vascular tissue. CH3 (CH2 )16 COO(CH2 CH2 O)n CH2 CH2 OH is
55. (a) not a synthetic detergent because it is a natural
Caterpillar represents the primary consumer detergent. Where others are anionic detergent
category in an ecosystem. Consumers are and cationic synthetic detergent.
categorized into primary consumers, secondary 62. (b)
consumers, tertiary consumers. Primary
consumers are herbivores, feeding on plants.
56. (a)
63. (c)
k
Propane is the example of clean fuel.
c
Mg has almost no reaction with cold water. It
A spring tide is a common historical term that
has nothing to do with the season of spring.
Spring tides occur twice each lunar month all
64. (b)
r a
reacts with steam (hot water).
The ions isoelectronic in Na+ , O2−

year long without regard to the season. Spring
tides refers to the greatest difference in the high
and low tide just after new or full moon.
57. (b)
B C
65. (a)
Titanium dioxide is the most important white
pigment used in the coatings industry. It is used
because it efficiently scatters visible light,
energy stored in the nucleus.

58. (a) S S
Chemical energy is stored in the bonds between
atoms and molecules. Nuclear energy is the
thereby imparting whiteness, brightness and
opacity when incorporated into a coating.
66. (a)
The border between two air masses at the
The light energy from the Sun can be spread by Earth's surface is called weather front. For
a shower of rain drops. example, if an air mass forms over a tropical
59. (c) ocean, it is called maritime tropical. If an air
mass forms over land in the far north it is called
continental polar. Option (a) is not true about air Sir Biren Mookerjee was the Indian businessman
mass. favored ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji
67. (c) to work towards a ‘common object’.
National Water Academy, a center of excellence 76. (b)
in training and capacity building in water Sir Joseph Noel Paton FRSA, LL. D. was a Scottish
resource, is located at Pune in Maharashtra. artist, illustrator and sculptor. He was also a
68. (c) poet and had a deep-seated interest in, and
“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna knowledge of, Scottish folklore and Celtic
grasslands are generally found in South America. legends. “In memoriam” was created by him.
69. (a) 77. (b)
“Viticulture” is a common feature of Adelaide in Insulator can be charged by methods of friction
Australia. and induction. Charge stored in this process will
70. (d) be static.
“Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind 78. (c)
found in Mesopotamia.
71. (a)
“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with
79. (d)
k
Speed of sound in water is close to 1500 m/s.
c
Melting Point of iron is 1538° 𝐶, Hence the
Orographic rainfall.
72. (c)
“History of British India” was written by James
80. (d)
𝑅=
r
𝜌𝑙a
closest option is 1500° 𝐶
𝜋𝑟2
Mill. James Mill was born in 1773. He was a
Scottish historian, economist, political theorist,
and philosopher. His greatest literary
achievement was this book.
B C 𝑅 =
𝑅
′
=
𝜌
𝜋(2𝑟)2
𝜌𝑙
𝜋𝑟2
𝑙
𝑙
2
S
𝑅′ 𝜌
2
73. (a) 𝜋(2𝑟)2
𝑅
𝑅′ =
stressed on Hindu-Muslim divide.
74. (d) S
The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857
In Lord Willingdon Viceroy has made the

observation, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t
81. (d)
8
Basic principle behind a nuclear reactor is

controlled nuclear fission.
82. (c)
for Gandhi.” The given reaction is a redox reaction where iron
75. (c) gets oxidized while copper is getting reduced.
Hence iron is reducing agent. Since 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 is pale through the Kashmir Valley. Jhelum was earlier
green colour. Hence solution will turn green. known as “Vitasta”
Iron is more reactive as compared to copper 89. (c)
based on electrochemical series. River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar
83. (c) Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is
𝐻𝐶𝑙, 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 are inorganic acids while known as Kali.
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (Acetic acid) is organic acid. 90. (d)
84. (b) Mission Indradhanush aims to increase full
N2 and O2 are main constituents of air but they immunization coverage in India to at least 90%
do not react with each other because N2 forms children by December 2018.
Pπ−Pπ bond which is stronger. So, to break that 91. (c)
bond high energy is needed. So, it requires very Daylight and air temperature, Flow path of both
high temperature. air and water and movement of the tides are
85. (b) environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth.
Albert Einstein explained the phenomenon of
photoelectric effect.
86. (b)
92. (c)
c k
F G Hutchins is the historians have described the
Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous
Equivalent weight of oxalic acid
=
Molecular weight
n′ factor
Molecular weight of Oxalic acid
revolution’.
93. (a)
r a
Both the statements are individually true and
𝐶2 𝐻2 𝑂4 . 2𝐻2 𝑂 =126
n’ factor for oxalic acid = 2
Hence equivalent weight =
126
=63
C
Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
B
94. (d)
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
87. (d)
2
S S
Tamraparni is the river which is not the west
flowing river.
88. (b)
95. (c)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
96. (b)
Resistance of a wire,
𝜌𝑙
The Jhelum River is a river in northern India and 𝑅 = 𝜋𝑟2
eastern Pakistan. It is the westernmost of the If Ro is the resistance of first wire, the resistance
five rivers of the Punjab region, and passes of second wire.
𝜌2𝑙 𝑅 as both marble and chalk have chemical
R′ = 𝜋(2𝑟)2
= 20
formula. 𝐶𝑎𝐶 𝑂3 .
𝑉2 𝑉2
𝑃= 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃1 = 𝑅0 = 2𝑃 103. (a)
𝑅0
2 Ice is a pure substance, as it is simply frozen
97. (d) water.
Magnetic field strength in a solenoid, B is 104. (b)
directly proportional to n and also B is directly Physical weathering is the weakening and
proportional to I. subsequent disintegration of rock by physical
B does not depend upon diameter of the forces. These physical forces include
solenoid. temperature fluctuation and salt crystal growth.
98. (a) Salt crystal growth can cause the breakup of
One light year is defined as distance covered by rock materials. Crystal growth often occurs
light in one year. when ground water moves into empty pores or
99. (c) spaces of rock by capillary action.
k
𝑓
Magnification M=|𝑓𝑜| 105. (b)
𝑒
50 Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal is
100. (a)
𝑓𝑒 =
25
= 2 𝑐𝑚
Friction force is a non-central and non-

c
the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in
the Indian states in decreasing order.
106. (b)
a
conservative force.
101. (a)
Copper metals when exposes to air turns green
C r
Richter scale was devised in 1935 by Charles F.
Richter and it describes the quantity of energy
released by a single earthquake. These both
options are correct.
B
in colour due to corrosion. When copper vessel
is exposed to air, metal reacts with gases and 107. (c)
moisture to form a mixture of copper carbonate
and copper hydroxide.
102. (a)
Limestone
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐶𝑂2 ↑ +𝐻2 𝑂 S S Kuroshio current is the ocean currents is NOT a
cold ocean current.
108. (d)
24 hours 52 minutes is the time gap in
occurrence of two successive tides at a given
𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐶𝑎 (𝑂𝐻) place on the ocean surface.
𝐶𝑎 𝑂𝐻)2 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶 𝑙2 + 2 𝐻2 𝑂
( 109. (d)
Marble + HCl → 𝐶𝑂2 ↑ Calcium phosphate is the compound which
Chalk + HCl → 𝐶𝑂2 ↑ makes the tooth enamel.
110. (a) velocity is increasing with time; therefore, CD
𝐺𝑀 represents acceleration.
Acceleration due to gravity 𝑔 =
𝑅
4 2 115. (c)
𝐺𝜌 3 𝜋𝑅 The walls of thermos flask are separated by
𝑔=
𝑅 vacuum and made of glass which is poor
4
𝑔 = 𝜋𝐺𝜌𝑅 conductor of heat. The glass walls themselves
3
⇒𝑔∝𝑅 have shiny surfaces. The radiation emitted by
As 𝑅1 > 𝑅2 inner wall and that absorbed by outer wall, both
⇒ 𝑔1 > 𝑔2 are negligible. The cork supports are poor
111. (b) conductors of heat. So, option (c) is correct.
Due to refraction, rays from sun bends along the 116. (c)
atmospheric layers and gives the illusion of early Black hole is a star which has collapsed into itself
sunrise and late sunset. The sunrise or the with large density and large acceleration due to
gravity.
sunset is early and delayed by nearly 2 minutes.
112. (b)
From the given graph,
1
117. (a)
c k
The relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius is
𝐹 = 32 + (1.8 × °𝐶)
a
𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒
= 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
118. (b)
1
∴ 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 ∝ 𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 The visible colour spectrum is arranged as
⇒𝑉𝐶 < 𝑉𝐵 < 𝑉𝐴
i.e. 𝑉𝐴 > 𝑉𝐵 > 𝑉𝐶
113. (d)
C r
VIBGYOR, V(Violet) being deviated most and
R(Red) being deviated least.
119. (a)
We know that, 1 𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒 = 1 𝑔 𝑐𝑚 𝑠 −2
= (10−3 𝑘𝑔) (10−2 𝑚) (𝑠 −2 )
= 10−5 kgm s−2
S B
LIGO stands for Laser Interferometer
Gravitational Wave Observatory.
120. (a)
114. (c) S
Therefore, in CGS system, 1 dyne is equal to
10−5 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠 2
In path A→B velocity is decreasing with time;

therefore, AB represents deceleration. In path
When large current flows through the circuit,
fuse has to be melted first to break the circuit to
avoid damage to the electric circuit.
121. (b)
Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to
B→C velocity is constant with time. In path C→D handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated
along the coast of Odisha.
122. (d) 128. (a)
Lakshadweep is the Union Territories of India is Containment of the USSR is the Truman Doctrine
the smallest in terms of geographical area. of 1947 was announced to achieve.
123. (c) 129. (b)
Temperate Cyclone can be said to be essentially Only statement 2 is correct. In 1948, Burma
related to ‘Polar Front Theory’. joined the United Nations but refused to
124. (c) denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean
Antecedent drainage means the stream that War. So, answer is b.
maintains its original course and pattern despite 130. (d)
the changes in underlying rock topography. So, Of the many voices to propose a path for Russia,
answer c is correct. the strongest ended up being that of Vladimir
125. (d) Lenin (1870-1924). Lenin helped define the
The important aspects of resolution were: objectives of 1917 and the future of the nation,
1. Equality before law and his first step to doing so was publishing his
2. Basic civil rights
3. Government ownership of industries,
mines and transport.
the April Theses.
131. (b)
k
ideas in a brief collection of notes known as
c
4. Protection of women and peasants, etc.
126. (c)
The Treaty of Schönbrunn sometimes known as
r a
The President appoints the Chief Election
Commissioner and Election
Commissioners after the law ministry initiates
the file for their appointment. A Chief Election
the Peace of Schönbrunn or Treaty of Vienna,
was signed between France and Austria at
Schonbrunn Vienna on 14 October 1809.
The treaty ended the Fifth Coalition during
C
Commissioner can be removed from
the office only through impeachment by
B
Parliament. The President can remove the ECs
based on the recommendation of the CEC.
S
the Napoleonic Wars, after Austria had been
S
defeated at the decisive Battle of Wagram on 5-
6 July.
127. (c)
132. (d)
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not
subject to dissolution. However, one third of the
members retire every second year, and are
replaced by newly elected members. Each
New Model Union was formed in 1860s. So, member is elected for a term of six years. The
option 1 and 2 are both wrong. 3 and 4 are Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman
correct. of Rajya Sabha. So, option (d) is the wrong
So, answer is c. statement.
133. (a) 141. (c)
Article 19 is the Fundamental right guaranteed Rio de Janerio was named by UNESCO as World
under which one of the following Articles of the Capital of Architecture for 2020.
Constitution of India is available only to the 142. (a)
citizens of India. Rishabh Pant was names ICC’s emerging player
134. (a) of the year 2018.
The treaty of Yandabo was signed in 1826. 143. (c)
135. (d) India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making
Sixth form is Manusmriti which form of marriage unit is located at Hazira.
results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden 144. (d)
and her lover”. Havelock Island and Swaraj Dweep only match
136. (c) properly. All others are wrongly matched.
The Sadaiv Atal is spread over 1.5 acres of land 145. (b)
and was site of former Prime minister's last rites Nazir Ahmad Wani was posthumously
on August 17. The memorial has been built to conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s
highlight various talents and personalities of the highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019.
former PM, including the poet, humanitarian,
politician and leader.
The memorial has been funded by Atal Smriti
146. (b)
c k
Amoeba proteus is the correct way of writing a
biological name.
Nyas Society.
137. (d)
IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly
between Armies of India and Myanmar.
147. (d)
r a
Electrocardiogram (ECG) is graphical
representation of electrical activity of heart.
148. (b)
138. (a)
Neelum Saran Gour was awarded The Hindu
Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018.
139. (c)
B C
Only the statement “Penicillin resistant
bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an
enzyme called β-lactamase” is correct. All
other statements are wrong.
seven-member committee to look into
S S
Sushil Modi was appointed as head of the
revenue shortfall being faced by the states

after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps
for augmenting collections.
140. (d)
149. (c)
Lysosome is the organelles of mammalian cell is
rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
150. (c)
Cholera is a disease caused due to consumption
of contaminated food or water. There is no
The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held connection of Cholera with loss of memory,
in Varanasi. alcohol and genetics.
MATHEMATICS
1. What is the nth term of the sequence 25, -125, 𝐵 = (𝑥 𝜖 𝑍 ∶ 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 = 0), where Z is set of
625, -3125, ...? complex numbers, then what is 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 equal to?
(a) (−5)2𝑛−1 (a) Null set
(b) (−1)2𝑛−1 5𝑛+1 {
−1+√3𝑖 −1−√3𝑖
}
(b) ,
(c) (−1)2𝑛−1 5𝑛+1 2 2
−1+√3𝑖 −1−√3𝑖
(d) (−1)𝑛−1 5𝑛+1 (c) { , }
4 4
2. Suppose X = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R is a relation on 1+√3𝑖 1−√3𝑖
(d) { , }
X. If R = [(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 3), 2 2
5. Consider the following statements for the
(3, 2)}, then which one of the following is
two non-empty sets A and B:
correct?
(a) R is reflexive and symmetric, but not 1. (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵̅ ) ∪ (𝐴̅ ∩ 𝐵) = 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
transitive 2. (𝐴 ∪ (𝐴̅ ∩ 𝐵̅)) = 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
(b) R is symmetric and transitive, but not
reflexive
(c) R is reflexive and transitive, but not
(a)
(b)
1 only
2 only
c k
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
symmetric
(d) R is neither reflexive nor transitive, but
symmetric
(c)
(d)
a
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
r
6. Let X be a non-empty set and let A, B, C be
subsets of X. Consider the following statements:
3. A relation R is defined on the set N of natural
numbers as 𝑥𝑅𝑦 ⇒ 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑦 + 3𝑦 2 = 0. Then
which one of the following is correct?
(a) R is reflexive and symmetric, but not
B C
1. 𝐴 ⊂ 𝐶 ⇒ (𝐴∩𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶∩𝐵), (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶 ∪ 𝐵)
2. (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶 ∩ 𝐵) for all sets B ⇒ A ⊂ C
3. (A ∪ B) ⊂ (𝐶 ∪ 𝐵) for all sets B ⇒ A ⊂ C
transitive
S S
(b) R is reflexive and transitive, but not
symmetric
(c) R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) R is reflexive, but neither symmetric nor
3 2 0
transitive
7. If B = [2 4 0], then what is adjoint of B
4. If 𝐴 = (𝑥 𝜖 𝑍 ∶ 𝑥 3 − 1 = 0) and 1 1 0
equal to?
0 0 2 (c) −1, 𝜔2
(a) [ 0 0 0] (d) 𝜔, 𝜔2
−2 −1 8
0 0 −2 12. If 𝐶(20, 𝑛 + 2) = 𝐶(20, 𝑛 − 2), then
(b) [0 0 −1] what is n equal to?
0 0 8 (a) 8
0 0 2 (b) 10
(c) [0 0 1]
(c) 12
0 0 0
(d) It does not exist (d) 16
8. What are the roots of the equation |𝑥 − 𝑥 − 13. There are 10 points in a plane. No three of
2
6| = 𝑥 + 2? these points are in a straight line. What is the

(a) −2, 1, 4 total number of straight lines which can be
(b) 0, 2, 4 formed by joining the points?
(c) 0, 1, 4 (a) 90
(b) 45
(d)
(a)
−2, 2, 4
9. If A = [
0 1
1 0
], then the matrix A is a/an
Singular matrix
(c)
(d)
40
30
c k
14. The equation p𝑥 2 + 𝑞𝑥 + 𝑟 = 0 (where p, q,
(b)
(c)
(d)
Involutory matrix
Nilpotent matrix
Idempotent matrix
𝑥 −3𝑖 1
a
r, all are positive) has distinct real roots a and b.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a)
r
a > 0, b > 0
10. If [𝑦
0 2𝑖 −𝑖
1 𝑖 ]= 6 + 11i, then what are the
values of x and y respectively?

(a) –3, 4
B C(b)
(c)
(d)
a < 0, b < 0
a > 0, b < 0
a < 0, b > 0
15. If 𝐴 = {𝜆, {𝜆, 𝜇}}, then the power set of A is
(b)
(c)
(d)
3, 4
3, –4
–3, –4
S S (a) {𝜙, {𝜙}, {𝜆}, {𝜆, 𝜇}}
(b) {𝜙, {𝜆}, {{𝜆, 𝜇}}, {𝜆, {𝜆, 𝜇}}}
(c) {𝜙, {𝜆}, {𝜆, 𝜇}, {𝜆, {𝜆, 𝜇}}}
11. The common roots of the equations 𝑧 3 + (d) {{𝜆}, {𝜆, 𝜇}, {𝜆, {𝜆, 𝜇}}}
Consider the following for the next 02 (two)
2𝑧 2 + 2𝑧 + 1 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑧 2017 + 𝑧 2018 + 1 = 0
are items that follow:
(a) −1, 𝜔 In a school, all the students play at least one of
(b) 1, 𝜔2 three indoor games – chess, carrom and table
tennis. 60 play chess, 50 play table tennis, 48 of ways this can be done so as to recruit at least
play carrom, 12 play chess and carrom, 15 play one typist?
carrom and table tennis, 20 play table tennis and (a) 209
chess. (b) 210
16. What can be the minimum number of (c) 246
students in the school? (d) 242
(a) 123 21. What is the number of terms in the
(b) 111 expansion of [(2𝑥 − 3𝑦)2 (2𝑥 + 3𝑦)2 ]2 ?
(c) 95 (a) 4
(d) 63 (b) 5
17. What can be the maximum number of (c) 8
students in the school? (d) 16
(a) 111 22. In the expansion of (1 + 𝑎𝑥)𝑛 , the first
(b) 123 three terms are respectively 1, 12x and 64𝑥 2 .
(c)
(d)
125
135
18. If A is an identity matrix of order 3, then its
What is n equal to?
(a)
(b)
6
9
c k
inverse (𝐴−1 )
(a)
(b)
is equal to null matrix
is equal to A
(c)
(d)
10
12
r a
23. The numbers 1, 5 and 25 can be three terms
(c)
(d)
is equal to 3A
does not exist
19. A is a square matrix of order 3 such that its
determinant is 4. What is the determinant of its
B C
(not necessarily consecutive) of
(a)
(b)
only one AP
more than one but finite numbers of
APs
transpose?
(a)
(b)
(c)
64
36
32 S S (c)
(d)
infinite number of APs
finite number of GPs
24. The sum of (𝑝 + 𝑞)𝑡ℎ and (𝑝 − 𝑞)𝑡ℎ terms
of an AP is equal to
(d) 4 (a) (2𝑝)𝑡ℎ term
20. From 6 programmers and 4 typists, an office (b) (2𝑞)𝑡ℎ term
wants to recruit 5 people. What is the number (c) Twice the 𝑝𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
(d) Twice the 𝑞𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
25. If A is a square matrix of order n > 1, then (c) 1
which one of the following is correct? 1
(d)
2
(a) det (–A) = det A 30. What is the principal argument of z?
(b) det (–A) = (−1)𝑛 det A (a) 0
(c) det (−𝐴) = − det 𝐴 𝜋
(b)
(d) det (−𝐴) = 𝑛 det 𝐴 4
𝜋
26. What is the least value 25 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 + (c) 2
36 sec 2 𝑥? (d) π
(a) 1 31. What is the value of
(b) 11 sin34°cos236° − sin56°sin124°
?
(c) 120 cos28°cos88° + cos178°sin208°
(a) –2
(d) 121
(b) –1
(c) 2
items:
Let A and B be (3×3) matrices with det A = 4 and
det B = 3
27. What is det (2AB) equal to?
(d)
(a)
1
32. tan 54° can be expressed as
sin9°+cos9°
sin9°−cos9°
c k
(a)
(b)
(c)
96
72
48
(b)
(c)
r a
sin9°−cos9°
sin9°+cos9°
cos9°+sin9°
cos9°−sin9°
sin36°
(d)
(a)
(b)
36
28. What is det (3𝐴𝐵−1 ) equal to?
12
18
B C
(d)
items:
cos36°
Consider the following for the next 03 (three)
If p = Xcos𝜃 − Ysin𝜃, q = Xsin𝜃 + Ycos𝜃

(c)
(d)
36
48
S S
items:
1+2𝑖
and 𝑝 2 + 4𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞2 = 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2 , 0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤
33. What is the value of θ?
(a)
(b)
𝜋
2
𝜋
𝜋
2
A complex number is given by 𝑧 = 1−(1−𝑖)2 3

𝜋
(c) 4
29. What is the modulus of z? 𝜋
(a) 4 (d) 6
(b) 2 34. What is the value of A?
𝜋
(a) 4 (b) 2
(b) 3 (c) 𝜋
(c) 2 (d) 0
(d) 1 2𝑝 1−𝑞 2 2𝑥
40. If sin−1 1+𝑝2 − cos −1 1+𝑞2 = tan−1 1−𝑥 2 ,
35. What is the value of B?
(a) –1 then what is x equal to?
𝑝+𝑞
(b) 0 (a) 1+𝑝𝑞
(c) 1 𝑝−𝑞
(b) 1+𝑝𝑞
(d) 2 𝑝𝑞
(c)
Consider the following for the next 02 (two) 1+𝑝𝑞
𝑝+𝑞
items: (d) 1−𝑝𝑞
It is given that 𝑐𝑜𝑠(Ɵ − α) = a, cos(Ɵ − 𝛽) = 𝑏 1 1
41. If tan𝜃 = and tan𝜙 = then what is the
36. What is 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝛼 – 𝛽) equal to? 2 3
value of (𝜃 + 𝜙)?
𝑎𝑏 + √1 − 𝑎2 √1 − 𝑏2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑎𝑏 − √1 − 𝑎2 √1 − 𝑏2
𝑎√1 − 𝑏2 − 𝑏√1 −
𝑎√1 − 𝑏2 + 𝑏√1 − 𝑎2
𝑎2
(a)
(b)
(c)
0
𝜋
6
𝜋
c k
a
4
𝜋
37. What is sin2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) + 2𝑎𝑏cos(𝛼 − 𝛽) (d) 2
equal to?
(a)
(b)
(c)
𝑎2 + 𝑏2
𝑎2 − 𝑏2
𝑏2 − 𝑎2
C
𝐴
r
3𝐴
sin ( ) sin ( ) ?
(a)
2
5
2
3
42. If cos𝐴 = , then what is the value of
4
(d)
equal to?
– (𝑎2 + 𝑏2 )
S
38. If sin α + cos α = p, then what is cos2 (2𝛼)
B
(b)
(c)
8
5
16
5
24
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑝2
𝑝2 − 1
𝑝2 (2 − 𝑝2 )
𝑝2 +1
4
S 5 𝜋
39. What is the value of sin−1 5 + sec −1 4 − 2 ?
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
2
4
2√3
7
32
43. What is the value of tan75° + cot75°?
𝜋 (d) 4√3
(a) 4 44. What is the value of
cos46°cos47°cos48°cos49°cos50° … cos135°? 49. If p = cosec𝜃 − cot𝜃 and 𝑞 = (cosec𝜃 +
(a) –1 cot𝜃)−1 , then which one of the following is
(b) 0 correct?
(c) 1 (a) pq = 1
(d) Greater than 1 (b) p=q
𝜋
45. If sin2𝜃 = cos3𝜃, where 0 < 𝜃 < 2 , then (c) p+q=1
what is sin θ equal to? (d) p+q=0
√5+1 50. If the angles of a triangle ABC are in the ratio
(a) 4 1 : 2 : 3, then the corresponding sides are in the
√5−1
(b) ratio
4
√5+1 (a) 1:2:3
(c) 16 (b) 3:2:1
√5−1
(d) (c) 1: √3: 2
16
k
2 (d) 1: √3: √2
46. If the roots of the equation 𝑥 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 =
0 are tan19° and tan26°, then which one of the 51. Consider the following statements:
following is correct?
(a)
(b)
q– p = 1
p– q = 1
a c
1. For an equation of a line, x cos θ + y sin θ = p,
in normal form, the length of the perpendicular
form the point (α, β) to the line is |α cos θ + β
r
(c) p + q = 2 sin θ + p|.
(d) p + q = 3 2. The length of the perpendicular from the
47. What is the fourth term of an AP of n terms
whose sum is n(n + 1)?
(a)
(b)
6
8
B C x y
point (α, β) to the line a + b = 1 is |
aα+bβ−ab
√a2 +b2
(a) 1 only
|.
(c)
(d)
12
20
S S
48. What is (1 + tan𝛼 tan𝛽)2 + (tan𝛼 −
tan𝛽)2 − sec 2 𝛼sec 2 𝛽 equal to?
(b)
(c)
(d)
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
52. A circle is drawn on the chord of a circle
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑎2 as diameter. The chord lies on the
(a) 0
line x + y = a. What is the equation of the circle?
(b) 1
(a) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑎𝑦 + 𝑎2 = 0
(c) 2
(b) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑎𝑦 = 0
(d) 4
(c) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎𝑦 = 0
(d) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎𝑦 − 2𝑎 2 = 0 (c) 6
53. The sum of the focal distances of a point on 1
(d)
2
an ellipse is constant and equal to the 58. What is the equation of the straight line
(a) length of minor axis which is perpendicular to y = x and passes
(b) length of major axis through (3, 2)?
(c) length of latus rectum (a) x–y=5
(d) sum of the lengths of semi-major and (b) x+y=5
semi-minor axes (c) x+y=1
54. The equation 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 2 − 6 = 0 (d) x–y=1
represents 59. The straight lines x + y – 4 = 0, 3x + y – 4 = 0
(a) a circle and x + 3y – 4 = 0 form a triangle, which is
(b) a parabola (a) Isosceles
(c) an ellipse (b) Right-angled
(d) a hyperbola
55. The two parabolas 𝑦 2 = 4𝑎𝑥 and 𝑥 2 = 4𝑎𝑦
intersect
(a) at two points on the line y = x
(c)
(d)
Equilateral
Scalene
c k
60. The circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 − 7𝑦 + 12 = 0,
cuts an intercept on y-axis equal to
(b)
(c)
only at the origin
at three points one of which lies on y + x
=0
(a)
(b)
(c)
1
3
4
r a
(d) only at (4a, 4a)
56. The points (1, 3) and (5, 1) are two opposite
vertices of a rectangle. The other two vertices lie
on the line y = 2x + c. What is the value of c?
C
(d) 7
61. The centroid of the triangle with vertices A(2,
B
–3, 3), B(5, –3, –4) and C(2, –3, –2) is the point
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2
–2
4
–4 S S (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(−3, 3, −1)
(3, −3, −1)
(3, 1, −3)
(–3, –1, –3)
62. What is the radius of the sphere 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 +
57. If the lines 3y + 4x = 1, y = x + 5 and 5y + bx =
𝑧 2 − 6𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 10𝑧 + 1 = 0?
3 are concurrent, then what is the value of b? (a) 5
(a) 1 (b) 2
(b) 3 (c) 7
(d) 3 (b) √29
63. The equation of the plane passing through (c) √43
the intersection of the planes 2x + y + 2z = 9, 4x (d) √53
–5y –4z = 1 and the point (3, 2, 1) is 68. If in a right-angled triangle ABC, hypotenuse
(a) 10𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 28 AC = p, then what is ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AB · ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AC + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
BC. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
BA + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
CA. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
CB
(b) 10𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 28 equal to?
(c) 10𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 28 (a) 𝑝2
(d) 10𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 24 (b) 2𝑝2
64. The distance between the parallel 𝑝2
(c)
planes 4𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 4𝑧 + 9 = 0 and 8x – 4y + 8z + 2
21 = 0 is (d) p
1 69. The sine of the angle between vectors a⃗⃗ =
(a)
4
1 2î − 6ĵ − 3k̂ and ⃗⃗
b = 4î + 3ĵ − k̂ is
(b) 2 1
(a)
(c)
(d)
3
2
7
4
65. What are the direction cosines of z-axis?
(b)
(c)
√26
5
√26
5
26
c k
(a)
(b)
(c)
< 1, 1, 1 >
< 1, 0, 0 >
< 0, 1, 0 >
(d)
1
26
r a
70. What is the value of λ for which the vectors
3î + 4ĵ − k̂ and−2î + 𝜆ĵ + 10k̂ are
(d)
what is (b
< 0, 0, 1 >
66. If 𝑎⃗ = î − 2ĵ + 5k̂ and ⃗⃗
b = 2î + ĵ − 3k̂ then
⃗⃗ − a⃗⃗) · (3a⃗⃗ + b ⃗⃗) equal to?
B C
perpendicular?
(a)
(b)
1
2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
106
–106
53
–53
S S
67. If the position vectors of points A and B are
(c)
(d)
3
4
71. What is the derivative of sec 2 (tan−1 𝑥) with

respect to x?
3î − 2ĵ + k̂ and 2î + 4ĵ − 3k̂ respectively, then (a) 2𝑥
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗? (b) 𝑥2 + 1
what is the length of 𝐴𝐵
(c) 𝑥+1
(a) √14
(d) 𝑥2
72. If 𝑓 (𝑥) = log10 (1 + 𝑥), then what is 77. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 31+𝑥 , then 𝑓(𝑥)𝑓(𝑦)𝑓(𝑧) is equal
4𝑓(4) + 5𝑓(1) − log 10 2 equal to? to
(a) 0 (a) 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧)
(b) 1 (b) 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 + 1)
(c) 2 (c) 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 + 2)
(d) 4 (d) 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 + 3)
73. A function f defined by 78. The number of real roots for the equation
𝑓 (𝑥) = ln(√𝑥 2 + 1 − 𝑥) is 𝑥 2 + 9|𝑥| + 20 = 0 𝑖𝑠
(a) an even function (a) Zero
(b) an odd function (b) One
(c) both even and odd function (c) Two
(d) neither even nor odd function (d) Three
74. The domain of the function f defined by 79. If 𝑓(𝑥) = sin(cos𝑥), then 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) is equal to
(a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥)
𝑓(𝑥) = log 𝑥 10 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
x > 10
x > 0 excluding x = 10
x ≥ 10
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑠𝑖𝑛 (– 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥)
(𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥)
(– 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥)
c k
(d)
75. lim
(a)
𝑥→0
0
1−cos34𝑥
𝑥2
is equal to
(a) (0, ∞)
[0, ∞)
a
80. The domain of the function
𝑓 (𝑥) = √(2 − 𝑥)(𝑥 − 3) is
r
C
(b)
(b) 12 (c) [2, 3]
(c)
(d)
24
36
S
76. For 𝑟 > 0, 𝑓(𝑟) is the ratio of perimeter to
area of a circle of radius r. Then 𝑓(1) + 𝑓(2) is
B
(d) (2, 3)
81. The solution of the differential equation
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
= cos(𝑦 − 𝑥) + 1 is
equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
1
2
3
S (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝜋
𝑒 𝑥 [sec(𝑦 − 𝑥) − tan(𝑦 − 𝑥)] = 𝑐
𝑒 𝑥 [sec(𝑦 − 𝑥) + tan(𝑦 − 𝑥)] = 𝑐
𝑒 𝑥 sec(𝑦 − 𝑥) tan(𝑦 − 𝑥) = 𝑐
𝑒 𝑥 = 𝑐sec(𝑦 − 𝑥)tan(𝑦 − 𝑥)
82. ∫02 |sin𝑥 − cos𝑥|𝑑𝑥 is equal to
(d) 4
(a) 0
(b) 2(√2 − 1)
(c) 2√2 87. What is ∫ ln(𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥 equal to?
(d) 2(√2 + 1) (a) 2𝑥ln(𝑥) − 2𝑥 + 𝑐
2
83. If 𝑦 = 𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥, then (b) +𝑐
𝑥
𝑑2 𝑦
(a) +𝑦 = 0 (c) 2𝑥ln(𝑥) + 𝑐
𝑑𝑥 2
2ln(𝑥)
𝑑2 𝑦 (d) − 2𝑥 + 𝑐
(b) 𝑑𝑥 2
+ 2𝑦 = 0 𝑥
𝑑2 𝑦 88. The minimum distance from the point (4, 2)

(c) − 4𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2 to 𝑦 2 = 8𝑥 is equal to
𝑑2 𝑦
(d) + 4𝑦 = 0 (a) √2
𝑑𝑥 2
84. A given quantity of metal is to be cast into a (b) 2√2
half cylinder (i.e. with a rectangular base and (c) 2
semicircular ends). If the total surface area is to (d) 3√2
be minimum, then the ratio of the height of the 89. The differential equation of the system of
half cylinder to the diameter of the semicircular circles touching the y-axis at the origin is
ends is
(a)
(b)
𝜋 ∶ (𝜋 + 2)
(𝜋 + 2) ∶ 𝜋
(a)
(b)
𝑑𝑦
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 0
𝑑𝑦
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 0
c k
a
𝑑𝑦
(c) 1:1 (c) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥𝑦 =0
𝑑𝑥
(d) None of the above 𝑑𝑦
𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 0
r
(d)
𝜋
85. ∫0 𝑒 sin𝑥 cos𝑥𝑑𝑥 is equal to
2 90. Consider the following in respect of the
(a)
(b)
(c)
e+1
e–1
e+2
B C
differential equation:
𝑑2 𝑦
𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 2
+ 2 ( ) + 9𝑦 = 𝑥
𝑑𝑥
(d)
equal to?
(a)
e
86. If 𝑓(𝑥) =
4(𝑥+2)
𝑥−2
𝑥−2
𝑥+2
S
, 𝑥 ≠ −2, then what is 𝑓 −1 (𝑥)
S
1. The degree of the differential equation is 1.
2. The order of the differential equation is 2.
(a)
(b)
1 only
2 only
𝑥+2
(b) (c) Both 1 and 2
4(𝑥−2)
𝑥+2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 𝑥−2
2(1+𝑥)
(d) 1−𝑥
91. What is the general solution of the (d) 4c
𝑑𝑦 𝑥
differential equation 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0? 96. If sin𝜃 + cos𝜃 = √2cos𝜃, then what
is (cos𝜃 − sin𝜃) equal to?
(a) 𝑥2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑐
(b) 𝑥2 − 𝑦 2 = 𝑐 (a) −√2cos𝜃
(c) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑐𝑥𝑦 (b) −√2sin𝜃
(d) 𝑥+𝑦 = 𝑐 (c) √2sin𝜃
92. The value of k which makes (d) 2sin𝜃
sin𝑥 𝑥 ≠ 0 97. In a circle of diameter 44 cm, the length of a
𝑓 (𝑥) = { continous at 𝑥 = 0 is
𝑘 𝑥=0 chord is 22 cm. What is the length of minor arc
(a) 2 of the chord?
(b) 1 484
(a) cm
(c) –1 21
242
(d) 0 (b) 21
cm
93. What is the minimum value of 𝑎2 𝑥 + 121
k
(c) cm
21
𝑏2 𝑦 where 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 2 ? 44
(d) cm
c
(a) abc 7
1 1
(b) 2abc 98. If sin𝜃 = − 2 and tan𝜃 = then in which
√3
(c)
(d)
3abc
4abc (a)
(b)
First
Second
r a
quadrant does θ lie?
C
𝑥ln(𝑎) (c) Third
94. What is ∫ 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 equal to?
𝑎𝑥 (d) Fourth
(a) +𝑐
(b)
(c)
ln(𝑎)
𝑒𝑥
ln(𝑎)
𝑒𝑥
ln(𝑎𝑒)
+𝑐
+𝑐
S B
99. How many three-digit even numbers can be
formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 when
repetition of digits is not allowed?
(d)
𝑎𝑒 𝑥
ln(𝑎)
+𝑐
S
95. What is the area of one of the loops between
the curve y = c sin x and x-axis?
(a) c
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
36
30
24
12
100. The angle of elevation of a tower of height
(b) 2c h from a point A due South of it is x and from a
(c) 3c
point B due East of A is y. If AB = z, then which 104. A pair of fair dice is rolled. What is the
one of the following is correct? probability that the second dice lands on a
(a) ℎ 2 (cot 2 𝑦 − cot 2 𝑥) = 𝑧 2 higher value than does the first?
(b) 𝑧 2 (cot 2 𝑦 − cot 2 𝑥) = ℎ 2 (a)
1
4
(c) ℎ 2 (tan2 𝑦 − tan2 𝑥) = 𝑧 2 1
(b)
(d) 𝑧 2 (tan2 𝑦 − tan2 𝑥) = ℎ 2 6
5
101. From a deck of cards, cards are taken out (c)
12
with replacement. What is the probability that (d)
5
18
the fourteenth card taken out is an ace?
1
105. A fair coin is tossed and an unbiased dice is
(a) 51 rolled together. What is the probability of
4
(b) getting a 2 or 4 or 6 along with head?
51
1 1
(c) (a) 2
52 1
1 (b)
k
(d) 3
13 1
102. If A and B are two events such that (c) 4
c
1
𝑃(𝐴) = 0.5, 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.6 and 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = (d)
6
0.4, then what is 𝑃(A̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
∪ 𝐵) equal to? 106. If A, B, C are three events, then what is the
(a)
(b)
(c)
0.9
0.7
0.5
occur together?
r a
probability that at least two of these events
(a) 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴)

(d) 0.3
103. A problem is given to three students A, B
and C whose probabilities of solving the problem
B C
(b) 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) −
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
(c) 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) −
2𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
S
1 3 1
are ,
2 4
and 4
respectively. What is the
(d) 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) −
probability that the problem will be solved if
(a)
(b)
(c)
29
32
27
32
25
S
they all solve the problem independently?
(a)
(b)
3𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
107. If two variables X and Y are independent,
then what is the correlation coefficient between
them?
1
–1
32
23 (c) 0
(d) (d) None of the above
32
108. Two independent events A and B are such 3
(a) 18
2 1
that 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = and 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = . If 𝑃(𝐵) < (b)
2
3 6
9
𝑃(𝐴), then what is P(B) equal to? 5
1 (c)
18
(a) 4 1
1 (d) 3
(b) 3 112. There are n socks in a drawer, of which 3
1
(c) 2 socks are red. If 2 of the socks are chosen
1
(d) randomly and the probability that both selected
6 1
109. The mean of 100 observations is 50 and the socks are red is 2, then what is the value of n?
standard deviation is 10. If 5 is subtracted from (a) 3
each observation and then it is divided by 4, (b) 4
then what will be the new mean and the new (c) 5
standard deviation respectively? (d) 6
(a)
(b)
(c)
45, 5
11.25, 1.25
11.25, 2.5 k
113. Two cards are chosen at random from a
deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability
c
that both of them have the same value?
a
(d) 12.5, 2.5 1
(a)
17
110. If two fair dice are rolled then what is the 3
conditional probability that the first dice lands
on 6 given that the sum of numbers on the dice
is 8?
(b)
(c)
C
(d)
17
5
17
7
17
r
B
1
(a) 3
1
114. In eight throws of a die, 5 or 6 is considered
S
(b) 4
1 a success. The mean and standard deviation of
(c)
S
5 total number of successes is respectively given
1
(d) by
6
111. Two symmetric dice flipped with each dice 8 16
(a) 3 9
,
having two sides painted red, two painted black, 8 4
(b) ,
one painted yellow and the other painted white. 3 3
4 4
What is the probability that both land on the (c) 3 3
,
same colour? 4 16
(d) 3
, 9
115. A and B are two events such that 𝐴̅ and (b) 0.2
̅ are mutually exclusive. If P(A) = 0.5 and P(B) =
𝐵 (c) 0.36
0.6, then what is the value of P(A|B)? (d) 0.6
1 118. If all the natural numbers between 1 and 20
(a) 5
1 are multiplied by 3, then what is the variance of
(b) 6 the resulting series?
2
(c) 5 (a) 99.75
1 (b) 199.75
(d) 3
(c) 299.25
116. Consider the following statements:
(d) 399.25
1. The algebraic sum of deviations of a set of
119. What is the probability that an interior
values from their arithmetic mean is always
point in a circle is closer to the centre than to the
zero.
circumference?
2. Arithmetic mean > Median > Mode for a
1
symmetric distribution.
(a)
(b)
1 only
2 only
(a)
(b)
(c)
4
1
2
3
4
c k
(c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
117. Let the correlation coefficient between X
(d)
a
It cannot be determined
120. If A and B are two events, then what is the
r
probability of occurrence of either A or event B?
and Y be 0.6. Random variables Z and W are
𝑌
defined as 𝑍 = 𝑋 + 5 and W = . What is the
3
correlation coefficient between Z and W?
B C
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑃 (𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵)
𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵)
𝑃 (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
𝑃(𝐴) 𝑃(𝐵)
(a) 0.1
S S
SOLUTIONS
1. (d) (𝑥 − 𝑦)(𝑥 − 3𝑦) = 0
Substituting n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, on option (d), we If we take, (1, 1) ⇒ (1 − 1)(1 − 3) = 0
obtain ⇒ (1,1) ∈ 𝑅
𝑎5 = (−1)5−1 55+1 = 56 = 15625. Similarly, for (2, 2) ∈ 𝑅, (3, 3) ∈ 𝑅.
Therefore, the required terms are So, R is reflexive.
25, – 125, 625, – 3125, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 15625. If we take, (1, 3) ⇒ (3 − 1)(3 − 3) = 0
2. (d) ⇒ (1,3) ∈ 𝑅
Given X = {1, 2, 3, 4} For (3, 1) ⇒ 1 − 3)(1 − 9) = 16 ≠ 0
(
and R = [(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 3), ⇒ (3,1) ∉ 𝑅
(3, 2)} So, R is not symmetric.
Reflexive Property states that for every real For (9,3) ∈ 𝑅, (3,1) ∈ 𝑅, (9,1) ∉ 𝑅
number x, x=x. So, R is not transitive.
Here (1,1) ∈ 𝑅, (2,2) ∈ 𝑅, (3,3) ∈ 𝑅,
but (4,4) ∉ 𝑅. So, R is not Reflexive.
Symmetric Property states that for all real
numbers x and y, if x=y, then y=x.
reflexive.
4. (b)
𝐴 = {𝑋 ∈ 𝑍: 𝑥 3 − 1 = 0}
c k
Hence, R is neither symmetric nor transitive, but
(1, 2) ∈ 𝑅, (2, 1) ∈ 𝑅
and, (2, 3) ∈ 𝑅, (3, 2) ∈ 𝑅
So, R is symmetric.
r a
𝑖. 𝑒. 𝐴 = { 𝑥 ∈ 𝑍; 𝑥 = 1,
−1 + 𝑖√3 −1 − 𝑖√3
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = { 𝑥 ∈ 𝑍: 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 = 0}
2
,
2
}
Transitive Property states that for all real

numbers x, y and z, if x=y and y=z, then x=z.
Here (1, 2) ∈ 𝑅, (2, 1) ∈ 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (1, 1) ∈ 𝑅,
B C
𝐵 = { 𝑥 ∈ 𝑍: 𝑥 =
Cube root of unity
−1 − √3𝑖 −1 + √3𝑖
2
,
2
𝑥 3 − 1 = (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1)
So, R is not transitive.
S S
Similarly, (2, 3) ∈ 𝑅, (3, 2) ∈ 𝑅, (2, 2) ∈ 𝑅
But for (1, 2) ∈ 𝑅, (2, 3) ∈ 𝑅, (1, 3) ∉ 𝑅
Thus, R is neither reflexive nor transitive, but

symmetric.
A={𝜔, 𝜔2 }
Hence, 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = {
𝑥 = 1, 𝑥 = 𝜔, 𝜔2
𝐵 = {𝜔, 𝜔2 }
−1−√3𝑖
2
,
−1+√3𝑖
2
}
3. (d)
Given: R = {(𝑥, 𝑦): 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ 𝑁 and 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑦 +
5. (a)
3𝑦 2 = 0} By drawing venn diagram
By solving 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑦 + 3𝑦 2 = 0, we get
(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵̅ ) ∪ (𝐴̅ ∩ 𝐵) = 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
This statement is possible

On analysing the venn diagram of (𝐴 ∪ (𝐴̅ ∩
𝐵̅)) = 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
7. (a)
𝑎11 = (−1)1+1 × 0 = 0
𝑎12 = (−1)1+2 × 0 = 0
𝑎13 = (−1)1+3 (−2) = −2
𝑎21 = 0
c k
The second statement is impossible.
6. (d)
𝑎22 = 0
𝑎23 = −1
𝑎31 = 0
𝑎32 = 0
r a
1. 𝐴⊂𝐶⇒ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶 ∩ 𝐵), (𝐴∪𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶∪𝐵)
B C
𝑎33 = 8
adj B = [ 0
0
−2 −1 8
0 0
0 0]
S S 8. (d)
|𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 6| = 𝑥 + 2
⇒𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 6 = 𝑥 + 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 𝑥
2+𝑥+6=𝑥+2
First solving 𝑥
2−𝑥−6=𝑥+2
⇒ x = –2, 4 ….(1)
2. (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ⊂ (𝐶 ∩ 𝐵) for all sets B ⇒ A ⊂ C Now solve −𝑥
3. (A ∪ B) ⊂ (𝐶∪𝐵) for all sets B ⇒ A ⊂ C
2+𝑥+6=𝑥+2 ⇒𝑛 + 2 + 𝑛 − 2 = 20
⇒ x = + 2, –2 ….(2) ⇒ 2𝑛 = 20
From (1) & (2) ⇒ n = 10
x = 4, 2, – 2 13. (b)
9. (b) A straight line can be drawn by joining two
0 1 0 1 points.
𝐴2 = [ ][ ]
1 0 1 0 Hence the number of possible straight lines is
1 0
= [ ] 10 × 9
0 1 10
𝐶2 = = 45
=1 1×2
14. (b)
Hence matrix A is an Involutory matrix.
Given
10. (a)
𝑞
𝑥 −3𝑖 1 𝑎+𝑏 =
[𝑦 1 𝑖 ]= 6 + 11i 𝑝
𝑟
0 2𝑖 −𝑖 𝑎𝑏 =
(−𝑖 + 2) + 3(−𝑦𝑖) + 1(2𝑖𝑦) = 6 + 11𝑖
−𝑥𝑖 + 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 2𝑖𝑦 = 6 + 11𝑖
By comparison both sides, we get
𝑝
c k
Here sum is negative & product is positive this is
possible only when both the roots are negative.
i.e. a < 0, b < 0.
2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6
And −𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 11
….(1)
….(2)
By Solving (1) & (2), we get
x = –3
15. (b)
r a
Let A be a set, then the of all the possible subsets
of is called the power set of A and is denoted by
and y = 4
11. (d)
Given,
B C
P(A).
𝑝 = {𝜙, {𝜆}, {𝜆, 𝜇}}
P(A) = {ϕ,{λ},{{λ,μ}},{λ,(λ,μ}}}
16. (b)
𝑧 3 + 2𝑧 2 + 2𝑧 + 1 = 0
𝑧 2017
+𝑧 2018
i.e. 1, –1, 𝜔, 𝜔2
+1= 0
S
….(1)
….(2)
S
Now according to options there are four roots
But 1 and –1 are not satisfying the given

equations. Hence 𝜔, 𝜔2 are the required roots.
12. (b)
C(20, 𝑛 + 2) = 𝐶(20, 𝑛 − 2)
⇒ 20 𝐶𝑛+2 = 20 𝐶𝑛−2
⇒ 50 + 28 + 𝑥 + 12 − 𝑥 + 21 + 𝑥 10! 6!
= −
⇒ 111 + 𝑥 (total) 5! 5! 5! 1!
Minimum value when x=0 will be The number of ways this can be done so as to
111 + 0 = 111 recruit at least one typist= 252 – 6 = 246
17. (b) 21. (b)
⇒ 50 + 28 + 𝑥 + 12 − 𝑥 + 21 + 𝑥 Given expression is [(2𝑥 − 3𝑦)2 (2𝑥 + 3𝑦)2 ]2
⇒ 111 + 𝑥 (total) = [(2𝑥 − 3𝑦)(2𝑥 + 3𝑦)]4
The maximum value for x=12 = [4𝑥 2 − 9𝑦 2 ]4
111 + 𝑥 = 0 Number of terms = 4 + 1 = 5
111 + 12 = 0 22. (b)
The maximum value = 123 Given:
𝑛 (
18. (b) 𝐶0 𝑎𝑥)0 = 1
𝑛 (
A is an identity matrix of order 3, then its inverse 𝐶1 𝑎𝑥)1 = 12𝑥
(𝐴−1 ) 𝑛 × 𝑎𝑥 = 12𝑥
1 0 0
𝐴 = [0 1 0]
0 0 1
−1
𝐴 =𝐴
⇒ 𝑛𝑎 = 12
And 𝑛 𝐶2 (𝑎𝑥)2 = 64𝑥 2
𝑛(𝑛 − 1) 2 2
𝑎 𝑥 = 64𝑥 2
c k
𝐴 .𝐵 = 𝐼 = 𝐵 .𝐴
𝐴 .𝐴 = 𝐼 = 𝐴 .A
Similarly, for 𝐴 = 𝐼, 𝐴−1 = 𝐴
2
1
(1 − ) =
r a
𝑛(𝑛 − 1) 144
64 8
2
= = 1−
× 2 = 64
𝑛
1
19. (d)
A is a square matrix of order 3 𝐴 = [ ]3×3
Determinant |𝐴| = 4
Since, we know that |𝐴′ | = |𝐴|
B C 𝑛
23. (c)
72 9
Therefore, n = 9
9
The numbers 1,5 and 25 can be three terms (not
to transpose, since both are equal.

Transpose |𝐴′ | = 4
20. (c)
S
So, there is no value change when determinant
S
necessarily consecutive) of one or many
numbers of Arithmetic and Geometric
Progressions.
To check the Arithmetic Progression:
From 6 programmers and 4 typists, an office Let us assume that given number series 1, 5 and
wants to recruit 5 people. 25 are 𝐼 th, 𝐽th and 𝑄th terms in the AP series
i.e. 10 𝐶5 −6 𝐶5 whose distance is equal to d.
Therefore,
(𝐽 – 𝐼)𝑑 = 5 − 1 = 25(1 + cot 2 𝑥) + 36(1 + tan2 𝑥)
(𝑄 − 𝐼)𝑑 = 25 – 1 = 61 + 25cot 2 𝑥 + 36tan2 𝑥
(𝐽 – 𝐼) (𝑄 − 𝐼) 25
= = 61 + + 36tan2 𝑥
4 24 tan2 𝑥
(𝐽 – 𝐼) (𝑄 − 𝐼) We know,
= = 𝑥
1 6 AM ≥ G. M.
So, 𝐽 − 𝐼 = 𝑥 25 2
tan 2 𝑥 + 36tan 𝑥 25
𝐽 = 𝐼 + 𝑥 ⇒ ≥ √ 2 × 36tan2 𝑥
𝑄 = 𝐼 + 6𝑥 2 tan 𝑥
Here x is a natural number. 25
+ 36tan2 𝑥 ≥ 60
So, the given three numbers can be terms in one tan2 𝑥
or many numbers of Arithmetic Progressions. 25
61 + + 36tan2 𝑥 ≥ 61 + 60 = 121
24. (c) tan2 𝑥
27. (a)
(𝑝 + 𝑞)𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 + (𝑝 − 𝑞)𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚
Given det A = 4 and det B = 3
= 𝑎 + 𝑑(𝑝 + 𝑞 − 1) + 𝑎 + 𝑑(𝑝 − 𝑞 − 1)
= 𝑎 + 𝑝𝑑 + 𝑞𝑑 − 𝑑 + 𝑎 + 𝑝𝑑 − 𝑞𝑑 − 𝑑
= [𝑎 + 𝑑(𝑝 − 1)] + [𝑎 + 𝑑(𝑝 − 1)]
= 2[𝑎 + 𝑑(𝑝 − 1)]
det(2𝐴𝐵) = 23 det 𝐴 det 𝐵
=8×4×3
= 96
c k
= Twice the 𝑝𝑡ℎ term.
25. (b)
A is a square matrix of order n > 1.
28. (c)
= 27
det𝐴
r a
det(3𝐴𝐵−1 ) = 33 det𝐴 𝑑𝑒𝑡(𝐵−1 )
C
det𝐵
det (–A) = (−1)𝑛 det A is correct because, when 27 × 4
1 is substituted with I and if we multiplied the = = 36
RHS then eventually equals to LHS
S
𝑑𝑒𝑡(𝐴𝐵) = 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝐴 ⋅ 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝐵 for any two square
matrices A, B
B 3
29. (c)
1+2𝑖
Given complex number, 𝑧 = 1−(1−𝑖)2
1 + 2𝑖
Notice that −𝐴 = (−𝐼)𝐴
S
where −𝐼 is the matrix with −1 on the diagonal
and 0 elsewhere. Clearly, 𝑑𝑒𝑡(−𝐼) = (−1)𝑛
More generally, 𝛼𝐴 = (𝛼𝐼)𝐴
and hence 𝑑𝑒𝑡(𝛼𝐴) = 𝛼 𝑛 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝐴 for any scalar α.
⇒ 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦 = 1
⇒ 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 0
|𝑧| = √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2
𝑧=
1 + 2𝑖
=1
= √12 + 02 = 1
26. (d)
25𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 + 36sec 2 𝑥
30. (a) (𝑋cos𝜃 − 𝑌sin𝜃)2 + 4(𝑋cos𝜃 − 𝑌sin𝜃)(𝑋sin𝜃
We know that, Principal argument of z is + 𝑌cos𝜃) + (𝑋sin𝜃 + 𝑌cos𝜃)2
𝑦 = 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2
𝜃 = tan−1
𝑥 𝑋 2 cos2 𝜃 + 𝑌 2 sin2 𝜃 − 2𝑋𝑌sin𝜃cos𝜃
0
= tan −1 + 4𝑋 2 sin𝜃cos𝜃
1
−1 − 4𝑌 2 sin𝜃cos𝜃
= tan 0 = 0
+ 4𝑋𝑌(−sin2 𝜃 + cos2 𝜃)
31. (a)
sin34°cos236° − sin56°sin124° + 𝑋 2 sin2 𝜃 + 𝑌 2 cos2 𝜃
+ 2𝑋𝑌sin𝜃cos𝜃 = 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2
cos28°cos88° + cos178°sin208°
sin(90°−56°)cos(360°−124°)−sin56°sin124° 𝑋 2 + 𝑌 2 + 4𝑋 2 sin𝜃cos𝜃 − 4𝑌 2 sin𝜃cos𝜃 +
=
cos28°cos88°+cos(90°+88°)sin(180°+28°) 4 × 𝑋𝑌(−sin2 𝜃 + cos2 𝜃)= 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2
cos56°cos124° − sin56°sin124° 𝑋 2 (1 + 4sin𝜃cos𝜃) + 𝑌 2 (1 − 4sin𝜃cos𝜃)
=
cos28°cos88° + (−sin88°)(−sin28°) + 4𝑋𝑌(cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝜃)
cos56°cos124° − sin56°sin124°
= = 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2
=
cos28°cos88° + sin88°sin28°
cos(56° + 124°)
cos(88° − 28°)
cos(180°) −1
Comparing both sides, we get,
A = 1 + 4sin𝜃cos𝜃
B = 1 − 4sin𝜃cos𝜃
c k
=
cos(60°)
32. (c)
=
1/2
= −2
tan(54°) = tan(45° + 9°) a

4𝑋𝑌(cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝜃) = 0
Here, 𝑋𝑌 ≠ 0, so, cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝜃 = 0
tan2 𝜃=1
𝜋
r
=
tan45° + tan9°
1 − tan45°tan9°
[∵ tan(𝐴 + 𝐵) =
tan 𝐴 + tan 𝐵
1 − tan 𝐴 tan 𝐵
]
𝜃=
C 4
34. (b)
B
A = 1 + 4sin𝜃cos𝜃
S
1 + tan9° 𝐴 = 1 + 2sin 2𝜃
= 𝜋
1 − tan9° = 1 + 2sin
=
cos9° + sin9°
cos9° − sin9°
33. (c)
Given p = Xcos𝜃 − Ysin𝜃
q = Xsin𝜃 + Ycos𝜃
S ⇒ 𝐴 = 1+2 = 3
35. (a)
2
B = 1 − 4sin𝜃cos𝜃
𝐵 = 1 − 2sin2𝜃
𝜋
and 𝑝2 + 4𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞2 = 𝐴𝑋 2 + 𝐵𝑌 2 = 1 − 2sin
2
= 1 − 2 = −1
36. (a) =0
Given, 𝑐𝑜𝑠(Ɵ − α) = a, cos(Ɵ − 𝛽) = 𝑏 40. (b)
cos (α – β) = cos [(θ – β) – cos (θ – α)] 2𝑝 1 − 𝑞2 2𝑥
sin−1 2
− cos −1
2
= tan−1
= cos (θ – β) cos (θ – α) + sin (θ – β) sin (θ – α) 1+𝑝 1+𝑞 1 − 𝑥2
−1 −1 −1
= ab + √1 − cos2 (𝜃 − 𝛽) · √1 − cos2 (𝜃 − 𝛼 ) 2tan 𝑝 − 2tan 𝑞 = 2tan 𝑥
tan−1 𝑝 − tan−1 𝑞 = tan−1 𝑥
= ab + √1 − 𝑎 2 √1 − 𝑏2 𝑝−𝑞
37. (a) = tan−1 ( ) = tan−1 𝑥, P > 0, 𝑞 > 0
1 + 𝑝𝑞
sin2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) + 2𝑎𝑏cos(𝛼 − 𝛽) 𝑝−𝑞
= 1 − cos2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) = =𝑥
1 + 𝑝𝑞
+ 2𝑎𝑏cos(𝛼 − 𝛽) 41. (c)
2
= 1 − [𝑎𝑏 + √1 − 𝑎2 √1 − 𝑏2 ] + 2𝑎𝑏[𝑎𝑏 + Given,
1 1
√1 − 𝑎2 √1 − 𝑏2 ] tan𝜃 = ⇒ 𝜃 = tan−1
2 2
= 1 + 𝑎2 𝑏2 − (1 − 𝑎 2 )(1 − 𝑏2 ) 1 1
= 1 + 𝑎2 𝑏2 − 1 + 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑎2 𝑏2
= 𝑎2 + 𝑏2
38. (c)
&𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜙 = ⇒ 𝜙 = tan
3
Now consider,
1
(𝜃 + 𝜙) = tan−1 + tan−1
−1
3
c1k
Given, sinα + cosα = p
Squaring on both sides, we get
sin2 𝛼 + cos2 𝛼 + 2sin𝛼cos𝛼 = 𝑝 2
⇒ 2sin𝛼cos𝛼 = 𝑝2 − 1
r a
1 1
+
2
= tan−1 ( 2 3 ) if · < 1
1−2·3
1 1
1 1
2 3
3
Now consider,
cos2 (2𝛼 ) = [cos2 𝛼 − sin2 𝛼]2
= (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 )2 (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 (−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 )2 )
B C
= tan−1 (
5/6
5/6
= tan−1 (1)
)
= 𝑝2 [cos2 𝛼 + sin2 𝜃 − 2sin𝛼cos𝛼]

= 𝑝2 [1 − 𝑝2 + 1]
= 𝑝2 [2 − 𝑝2 ]
39. (d)
4 5 𝜋 S S 42. (b)
𝜋
= tan−1 (tan 4 ) =
Given, cos𝐴 = 4
𝐴 3
⇒ 1 − 2sin2 =
3
𝜋
4
sin−1 + sec −1 − 2 4
5 4 2
4 4 𝜋 𝐴 1
= sin−1 + cos −1 − ⇒ sin =
5 5 2 2 √8
𝜋 𝜋 𝐴 𝐴
= − Now, sin ( ) sin (3 )
2 2 2 2
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴 −2 ± √4 + 16
= sin [3sin − 4 sin3 ] ⇒ sin𝜃 =
2 2 2 8
[∵ sin3𝑥 = 3sin𝑥 − 4sin3 𝑥] −2 ± √20
1 3 4 =
= [ − ] 8
√8 √8 8√8 −1 ± √5
3 4 =
= − 4
8 64 46. (a)
24 − 4 20 5
= = = Given,
64 64 16
43. (b) tan19°& 𝑡𝑎𝑛26° are the roots of 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 =
√3+1 0
tan75° = tan(45° + 30°) = ⇒ tan19° + tan26° = −p
√3−1
√3 − 1 tan19°tan26° = 0
⇒ cot75° =
√3 + 1 Consider,
Now, tan19° + tan26°
tan(19° + 26°) =
tan75° + cot75°
=
√3 + 1 √3 − 1
+
√3 − 1 √3 + 1
tan(45°) =
⇒1=
−𝑝
−𝑝
1−𝑞
c k
1 − tan19°tan26°
=
(√3 + 1)2 + (√3 − 1)2
3−1
3 + 1 + 2√3 + 3 + 1 − 2√3
2
1−𝑞
⇒ 1 − 𝑞 = −𝑝
⇒ 1 = 𝑞−𝑝
47. (b)
r a
8
= =4
2
44. (b)
B C
We know, 𝑛𝑡ℎ term = sum upto n terms – sum
upto (n – 1) terms.
𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)d = (𝑛 + 1) − (𝑛 − 1)𝑛
cos46°cos47°cos48° … . . cos89° × 0
45. (b)
S S
cos46°cos47°cos48°cos49°cos50°…cos135°
× cos91° … … cos135° = 0
Given, sin2𝜃 = cos3𝜃

𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)d = [𝑛 + 1 − 𝑛 + 1]n
𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)d = 2n
For n = 4
a + 3d = 8.
48. (a)
⇒ 2sin𝜃cos𝜃 = 4cos3 𝜃 − 3cos𝜃 (1 + tan𝛼tan𝛽)2 + (tan𝛼 − tan𝛽)2
⇒ 2sin𝜃 = 4cos2 𝜃 − 3
− sec 2 𝛼sec 2 𝛽
⇒ 2sin𝜃 = 4 − 4sin2 𝜃 − 3
⇒ 4 sin2 𝜃 + 2sin𝜃 − 1 = 0
cos𝛼cos𝛽 + sin𝛼sin𝛽 2 By sine Rule,
=( ) 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
cos𝛼cos𝛽 = = =𝑘
sin 𝛼 sin 𝛽 2 sin𝐴 sin𝐵 sin𝐶
+( − ) 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
cos 𝛼 cos 𝛽 ⇒ = = =𝑘
1 sin30° sin60° sin90°
− 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
cos2 𝛼cos2 𝛽 ⇒ = = =𝑘
1 √3 1
(cos𝛼cos𝛽 + sin𝛼sin𝛽)2 2 2
=
cos2 𝛼cos2 𝛽 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 1
⇒ = = =
(sin𝛼cos𝛽 − sin𝛽cos𝛼)2 1 √3 2 2
+
cos2 𝛼cos2 𝛽 ⇒ 𝑎: 𝑏: 𝑐 = 1: √3: 2
1 51. (d)
−
cos 𝛼cos2 𝛽
2 𝛼cos𝜃+𝛽sin𝜃−𝑝
1. d = | |
cos2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) sin2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) 1 √cos2𝜃+sin2𝜃
= + − = |α cos θ + β sin θ – P|
cos 𝛼cos 𝛽 cos 𝛼cos 𝛽 cos 𝛼cos2 𝛽
2 2 2 2 2
=
cos2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) + sin2 (𝛼 − 𝛽) − 1
1−1
cos2 𝛼cos2 𝛽
=0
d=|
𝑥 𝑦
√𝑏2 + 𝑎 2
|
c k
2. Line 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 1 ⇒ 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑎𝑦 − 𝑎𝑏 = 0
𝛼𝑏 + 𝑎𝛽 − 𝑎𝑏
cos2 𝛼cos2 𝛽
49. (b)
P = cosec θ – cot θ
1
52. (b)
r a
So, neither (1) nor (2) is correct.
=
q = (cosec𝜃 + cot𝜃)−1 =
1
×
(cosec𝜃 + cot𝜃) (cosec𝜃 − cot𝜃)
(cosec𝜃 + cot𝜃)
(cosec𝜃 − cot𝜃)
B C
=
cosec𝜃 − cot𝜃
cosec 2 𝜃 − cot 2 𝜃
50. (c)
∠A : ∠B : ∠C = 1 : 2 : 3
We know, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° S S
= cosec𝜃 − cot𝜃 = 𝑝
0+𝑎 𝑎+0 𝑎 𝑎
x + 2x + 3x = 180° 0′ = , =( , )
6x = 180° 2 2 2 2
Equation of the circle whose centre
x = 30° 𝑎 𝑎
is , and radius
⇒∠A = 30°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 90° 2 2
2𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 2 − 6 = 0
𝑎 2 𝑎 2 𝑎
𝑟 = √(𝑎 − ) + (0 − ) = 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 2 = 6
2 2 √2
2𝑥 2 3𝑦 2
𝑎 2 𝑎 2 𝑎 2 − =1
(𝑥 − ) + (𝑦 − ) = ( ) 6 6
2 2 √2 𝑥2 𝑦 2
2 2
⇒ 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑎𝑦 = 0 − =1
3 2
53. (b) It is equation for hyperbola.
The sum of the focal distance of any point on an 55. (a)
ellipse is constant and equal to the length of the
major axis of the ellipse.
Let P (x, y) be any point on the ellipse
𝑥2 𝑦 2
+ = 1
𝑎2 𝑏2
Let MPM' be the perpendicular through P on
directrices ZK and Z'K'. Now by definition we get,
𝑆𝑃 = 𝑒 ∙ 𝑃𝑀
⇒ 𝑆𝑃 = 𝑒 ∙ 𝑁𝐾
⇒ 𝑆𝑃 = 𝑒 (𝐶𝐾 − 𝐶𝑁)
c k
The two parabolas 𝑦 2 = 4𝑎𝑥 and 𝑥 2 = 4𝑎𝑦
⇒ 𝑆𝑃 = 𝑒(𝑎/𝑒 − 𝑥)
⇒ 𝑆𝑃 = 𝑎 – 𝑒𝑥
and
…….. (i) line 𝑥 = 𝑦.
r a
intersect at two points (0, 0) and (4a, 4a) on the
𝑆′𝑃 = 𝑒 ∙ 𝑃𝑀′
⇒ 𝑆′𝑃 = 𝑒 ∙ (𝑁𝐾′)
⇒ 𝑆′𝑃 = 𝑒 (𝐶𝐾′ + 𝐶𝑁)
⇒ 𝑆′𝑃 = 𝑒 (𝑎𝑒 + 𝑥)
B C
56. (d)
We know, the diagonals of a rectangle bisect
each other.
i.e. the mid point of (1, 3) and (5, 1) lie on the
⇒ 𝑆′𝑃 = 𝑎 + 𝑒𝑥
axis.
…….. (ii)
S S
Therefore, SP + S'P = a - ex + a + ex = 2a = major
Hence, the sum of the focal distance of a point P

line y = 2x + c.
0=(
1+5 3+1
2
,
2
) = (3,2)
Since, (3, 2) lie on the line y=2x+c
𝐶 = −4
𝑥2 𝑦2
(x, y) on the ellipse 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 1 is constant and 57. (c)
equal to the length of the major axis i.e., 2a of If the lines 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 1 = 0, 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 5 = 0, 𝑏𝑥 + 5𝑦
the ellipse. − 3 = 0 are concurrent, then.
54. (d)
4 3 −1
|1 −1 5 | = 0
𝑏 5 −3
⇒ 4(3 − 25) − 1(−9 + 5) + 𝑏(15 − 1) = 0
⇒ −88 + 4 + 14𝑏 = 0
⇒ 14𝑏 = 84
⇒𝑏=6
58. (b)
Y intercept = 4 – 3 = 1
The slope of the straight line which is
61. (b)
perpendicular to x = y (here 𝑚1 = 1) is –1
Given vertices are A(2, –3, 3), B(5, –3, –4) and
As 𝑚1 𝑚2 = −1
C(2, –3, –2)
1 × 𝑚2 = −1
Centroid of the triangle
𝑚2 = −1
2 + 5 + 2 −3 − 3 − 3 3 − 4 − 2
The equation of line whose slope is –1 & passing =( , , )
3 3 3
through (3, 2) is
(y – 2) = –1(x – 3)
y + x = 5.
59. (a)
=( ,
9 −9 −3
3 3 3
62. (c)
, ) = (3, −3, −1)
c k
We know that the general equation of the
By solving these three lines x + y – 4 = 0, 3x + y –
4 = 0, and x + 3y – 4 = 0 we get three intersection
points
sphere is
r a
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2ℎ𝑦 + 2𝑘𝑧 + 𝑑 = 0
According to Question,
i.e. A = (0, 4), 𝐵 = (1, 1), 𝐶 = (4, 0)
⇒𝐴𝐵 = √10
𝐵𝐶 = √10 C
−𝑔 = 3
−ℎ = −4
B
−𝑘 = 5
𝐴𝐶 = √32
60. (a)
S S
Put x = 0 in the given equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 −
7𝑦 + 12 = 0
⇒ 𝑦 2 − 7𝑦 + 12 = 0
𝑟 = √𝑔2 + ℎ 2 + 𝑅2 − 𝑑
= √9 + 16 + 25 − 1
= √49 = 7
63. (a)
(2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2𝑧 − 9) + 𝜆(4𝑥 − 5𝑦 − 4𝑧 − 1)
⇒𝑦 = 4, 3 =0
Put (3, 2, 1)
6 + 2 + 2 − 9 + 𝜆(12 − 10 − 4 − 1) = 0
1 + (−3)𝜆 = 0
So, = 5 − 15 – 96 = −106
4 5 4 1 67. (d)
2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2𝑧 − 9 + 𝑥 − 𝑦 − 𝑧 − = 0
3 3 3 3 Given, position vector of point A = 3î − 2ĵ + k̂
10 2 2 28
⇒ 𝑥− 𝑦+ 𝑧= and position vector of point B = 2î + 4ĵ − 3k̂
3 3 3 3
⇒ 10𝑥– 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 28 𝐴𝐵 = √(2 − 3)2 + (4 + 2)2 + (−3 − 1)2
64. (a) = √(−1)2 + (6)2 + (−4)2
Given, 4𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 4𝑧 + 9 = 0 = √1 + 36 + 16
⇒ 8𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 8𝑧 + 18 = 0 = √53
and 8𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 8𝑧 + 21 = 0 68. (a)
+18 − 21 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑=| | AB · ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AC + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
BC · ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
BA + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
CA · ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
CB
√64 + 16 + 64 = 𝐴𝐵 ⋅ 𝐴𝐶 cos𝜃 + 0 + 𝐵𝐶 ⋅ 𝐴𝐶 sin𝜃
−3
=| | = 𝐴𝐵. 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐵𝐶 ⋅ 𝐵𝐶
√144 = 𝐴𝐵2 + 𝐵𝐶 2
k
−3
=| | = 𝐴𝐶 2 = 𝑃 2
12
69. (b)
−1
=| |=
4
65. (d)
1
4
Direction cosines of z-axis, assuming a three

and ⃗⃗
a
b = 4î + 3ĵ − k̂
𝑎·𝑏
c
Given vectors, a⃗⃗ = 2î − 6ĵ − 3k̂
dimensional Cartesian coordinate system: (0, 0,

1). Meaning that the cosine of the angle
between:
cos𝜃 = |
=|
C
|𝑎||𝑏|
r
|
8 − 18 + 3
√4 + 36 + 9√16 + 9 + 1
−7
|
1. the z-axis and the x-axis is 0 (90 degrees);

2. the z-axis and the y-axis is 0 (90 degrees );
66. (b)
S
3. the z-axis and the z-axis is 1 ( 0 degrees). B
=|
=
7√26
1
√26
|
Given, 𝑎⃗ = î − 2ĵ + 5k̂ and ⃗⃗

⃗⃗ − a⃗⃗) · (3a⃗⃗ + b
(b ⃗⃗)
S
b = 2î + ĵ − 3k̂
= [(2î + ĵ − 3k̂) − (î − 2ĵ

+ 5k̂)] · [3î − 6ĵ + 15k̂ + 2î
From this, we can find the opposite side x,
𝑥 2 + 12 = (√26)
⇒ 𝑥 2 = 26 − 1 = 25
⇒𝑥=5
2
+ ĵ − 3k̂]
= [î + 3ĵ − 8k̂] · [5î − 5ĵ + 12k̂]
log5 log2
=4 +4
log10 log10
log 5 × 2 log10
= 4[ ]=4 =4
log10 log10
73. (b)
𝑓 (𝑥) = ln (√𝑥 2 + 1 − 𝑥)
𝑓 (−𝑥) = ln (√𝑥 2 + 1 + 𝑥)
5 (√𝑥 2 + 1 + 𝑥)(√𝑥 2 + 1 − 𝑥)
Then, sin𝜃 = = ln ( )
√26 (√𝑥 2 + 1 − 𝑥)
70. (d) 1
For perpendicular, = ln ( ) = −ln (√𝑥 2 + 1 − 𝑥)
2
√𝑥 + 1 − 𝑥
𝑎1 𝑎2 + 𝑏1 𝑏2 + 𝑐1 𝑐2 = 0 = −𝑓(𝑥)
3 × (−2) + 4 × 𝜆 + (−1) × 10 = 0 Hence it is an odd function.
−6 + 4𝜆 − 10 = 0
4𝜆 = 16
𝜆=4
71. (a)
74. (d)
𝑓 (𝑥) = log 𝑥 10
=
log10
c k
𝑑
𝑑𝑥
sec 2 (tan−1 𝑥)
= 2sec(tan−1 𝑥) · sec(tan−1 𝑥)tan(tan−1 𝑥)
log𝑥
𝑓 (𝑥) =
1
log𝑥
r a
·
= 2sec 2 (tan−1 𝑥) ·
1
1 + 𝑥2
𝑥
1 + 𝑥2
B C
75. (b)
lim
𝑥→0
1 − cos3 4𝑥
𝑥 2
0
= ( ) form
0
S
𝑥 Apply L' Hopital rule
= 2[1 + tan2 (tan−1 𝑥)] ·
1 + 𝑥2 −3cos2 4𝑥(−sin4𝑥).4
𝑥
= 2(1 + 𝑥 2 ) ·
= 2x
72. (d)
1 + 𝑥2
Given, 𝑓(𝑥) = log10 (1 + 𝑥)

S lim
𝑥→0
lim 6 [
2𝑥
0
= ( ) form
0
Again apply L' Hopital rule.
4cos3 𝑥 − 8sin2 4𝑥 cos4𝑥
]
Then 4𝑓 (4) + 5𝑓 (1) − log10 2 𝑥→0 2
log 5 log2 log2
=4 +5 − = 6[2] = 12
log10 log10 log10
76. (c) 81. (a)
2𝜋𝑟 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑓 (𝑟) = 2 = = cos(𝑦 − 𝑥) + 1
𝜋𝑟 𝑟 𝑑𝑥
𝑓 (1) = 2 Let 𝑦 − 𝑥 = 𝑡
𝑓 (2) = 1 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑡
−1=
𝑓(1) + 𝑓(2) = 2 + 1 = 3 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
77. (c) 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑡
⇒ =1+
Given 𝑓(𝑥) = 31+𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑡
𝑓 (𝑦) = 31+𝑦 ⇒1+ = cos 𝑡 + 1
𝑑𝑥
𝑓 (𝑧) = 31+𝑧 𝑑𝑡
𝑓 (𝑥)𝑓 (𝑦)𝑓(𝑧) = 31+𝑥 · 31+𝑦 · 31+𝑧 ⇒ = cos 𝑡
𝑑𝑥
= 31+(2+𝑥+𝑦+𝑧) ⇒ sec t dt = dx
= 𝑓 (2 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) Integrate both sides
78. (a) ⇒ log (sec 𝑡 + tan 𝑡) = 𝑥 + 𝑎
Given 𝑥 2 + 9|𝑥| + 20 = 0
⇒ 𝑥 2 + 9𝑥 + 20 = 0 or 𝑥 2 − 9𝑥 + 20 = 0
By solving these equation we get x= 4, 5, –4, –5
⇒
⇒
𝑒𝑥
sec 𝑡 + tan 𝑡
= 𝑒 −𝑎
𝑒 𝑥 (sec 𝑡 − tan 𝑡)
sec 𝑡 + tan 𝑡
= 𝑒 −𝑎
c k
a
but these values of x does not satisfy the given
equation as |x| will always give positive value. ⇒ 𝑒 𝑥 (sec (𝑦 − 𝑥) − tan (𝑦 − 𝑥) = 𝑐
Where c = 𝑒 −𝑎
Hence the number of real roots of the given
equation is zero.
79. (d)
𝑓 (𝑥) = sin(cos𝑥)
82. (b)
C 𝜋/2
r
|sin𝑥 − cos𝑥|𝑑𝑥
B
0
𝜋/4 𝜋/2
𝑑
𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = cos(cos𝑥) (cos𝑥) =∫ (cos𝑥 − sin𝑥)𝑑𝑥 + ∫ (sin𝑥
= (−sin𝑥)cos(cos𝑥)
80. (c)
𝑑𝑥
S
𝑥)(𝑥 − 3) must be positive. Hence
S
For f(x) to have real values, the radicand (2 −
=
0
= [(sin𝑥 + cos𝑥]0
1
√2 √2
+
1
− cos𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝜋/4
−1−1−(
−1
√2
𝜋/4
+ [−cos𝑥 − sin𝑥]𝜋/4
−
1
√2
)
𝜋/2
(2 − 𝑥)(𝑥 − 3) ≥ 0
𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 = 3 = 2(√2 − 1)
Domain is [2, 3]
83. (d) Let sin𝑥 = 𝑡
𝑦 = 𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥 cos𝑥𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑦 at 𝑥 = 0 ⇒ t = 0
= −2𝑎 sin 2𝑥 + 2𝑏 cos 2𝑥 𝜋
𝑑𝑥 at 𝑥 = ⇒ 𝑡 = 1
𝑑2 𝑦 2
= −4𝑎 cos 2𝑥 − 4𝑏 sin 2𝑥 1
𝑑𝑥 2 ⇒ 𝐼 = ∫ 𝑒 𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑2 𝑦 0
= −4(𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥)
𝑑𝑥 2 = [𝑒1 ]10
𝑑2 𝑦 = 𝑒1 − 1
+ 4𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2 86. (d)
84. (a) 𝑥−2
Let 𝑦 =
𝑥+2
𝑥 − 2 = 𝑦𝑥 + 2𝑦
𝑥 − 𝑦𝑥 = 2𝑦 + 2
Surface area S = 𝜋𝑟ℎ + 𝜋𝑟 2 + 2𝑟ℎ

𝑥 (1 − 𝑦) = 2𝑦 + 2
𝑥=
2𝑦 + 2
1−𝑦
2(𝑦 + 1)
c k
a
=
𝑑𝑠 1−𝑦
= 𝜋ℎ + 2𝜋𝑟 + 2ℎ 2(𝑥 + 1)
r
𝑑𝑟 ⇒ 𝑓 −1 (𝑥) =
𝑑𝑠
Put 𝑑𝑟 = 0 1−𝑥
87. (a)
⇒ 2𝑟 =
⇒
2𝑟
ℎ
=−
−(𝜋ℎ + 2ℎ )
𝜋
(𝜋 + 2)
𝜋
B C
I = ∫ ln(𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥
Since there are no limits
𝐼 = 2𝑥ln(𝑥) − 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑐
⇒
ℎ
2𝑟
=−
negative.
ℎ
𝜋+2
𝜋
𝜋
S S
Neglecting '-‘ sign as h and r cannot be
= 2𝑥ln(𝑥) − 2𝑥 + 𝑐
88. (b)
Let (𝑥, 𝑦) be any point on 𝑦 2 = 8𝑥
Then the distance between (x, y) and (4, 2) is
𝐷2 = (𝑥 − 4)2 + (𝑦 − 2)2
⇒ = 2
2𝑟 𝜋 + 2 𝑦2
85. (b) 𝐷 = ( − 4) + (𝑦 − 2)2
2
8
𝜋/2
𝑦2
𝐼=∫ 𝑒 sin𝑥 cos𝑥𝑑𝑥 [∵ 𝑦 2 = 8𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥 = ]
0 8
𝑑(𝐷2 ) 𝑦2 2𝑦 The degree of the differential equation is 1.
= 2 ( − 4) ( ) + 2(𝑦 − 2)
𝑑𝑦 8 8 The order of the differential equation is 2.
3 91. (a)
𝑦
= − 2𝑦 + 2𝑦 − 4 𝑑𝑦 𝑥
16
𝑑(𝐷 2)
+ =0
Put =0 𝑑𝑥 𝑦
𝑑𝑦
2 This is a First Order Separable Differential
⇒ 𝑦 = 64 ⇒ 𝑦 = 4
Equation, we can "separate the variables" to
16
⇒x= =2 give;
8
D = √(2 − 4)2 + (4 − 2)2 ∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫ −𝑦𝑑𝑥
= √4 + 4 = 2√2 Integrating we get:
89. (c) 1 2 1
Equation of circle is 𝑥 = − 𝑦2 + 𝐴
2 2
(𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑎2 ∴ 𝑥 2 = −𝑦 2 + 2𝐴
𝑥 2 + 𝑎2 − 2𝑥𝑎 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑎2
𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑎 + 𝑦 2 = 0
2𝑥 − 2𝑎 + 2𝑦𝑦 ′ = 0
….. (1)
Differentiate with respect to 𝑥
∴ 𝑥 2 = −𝑦 2 + 𝐶
𝑥2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑐
92. (d)
c k
For f to be continuous lim−𝑓 (𝑥) = lim 𝑓 (𝑥)
𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 ′ = 𝑎
Put this value in equation (1)
𝑥 2 − 2𝑥(𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 ′ ) + 𝑦 2 = 0 𝑥→0
r a 𝑥→0
𝑥→0
𝑥→0
= lim+𝑓 (𝑥)
lim−𝑓 (𝑥) = lim− sin(−𝑥) = lim sin(−(0 − ℎ ))
ℎ→0
𝑥→0
𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑦𝑦 ′ + 𝑦 2 = 0
𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥𝑦𝑦 ′ = 0
90. (c)
B
=0
C
= lim sin ℎ
ℎ→0
lim 𝑓(𝑥) = lim−𝑓 (𝑥)

𝑥→0 𝑥→0
S
The order is the highest numbered derivative in
the equation, while the degree is the highest
S
power to which a derivative is raised. For
example: 𝑦′′ + 𝑦′ = 𝑦 is a first degree second
order differential equation, while (𝑦 ′ )2 = 𝑦 is a
lim 𝑘 = 0
𝑥→0
⇒k=0
93. (b)
Given xy = 𝑐 2
𝑐2
second degree first order differential equation. ⇒𝑦= 𝑥
..… (1)
In the equation, Now, 𝑧 = 𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦
2
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑧 = 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2
𝑐2
[from (1)]
+ 2 ( ) + 9𝑦 = 𝑥 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
Differentiate with respect to x, = 2[−𝑐 cos 𝜋 + 𝑐 cos 0]
𝑑𝑧 𝑏 2𝑐 2 = 2[𝑐 + 𝑐]
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑎2 − 𝑥2
….(2)
= 4𝑐
𝑑𝑧
Put =0 96. (c)
𝑑𝑥
𝑏2 𝑐 2 sin𝜃 + cos𝜃 = √2cos𝜃
𝑎2 − 2 = 0 ⇒ sin𝜃 = (√2 − 1)cos𝜃
𝑥
𝑏2 𝑐 2 Now, cos𝜃 = sin𝜃
= 𝑎2
𝑥2 = cos𝜃 − [(√2 − 1)cos𝜃] [from (1)]
𝑏2 𝑐 2
= 𝑥2 = cos𝜃[1 − √2 + 1]
𝑎2
𝑏𝑐 = cos𝜃[2 − √2]
± =𝑥
𝑎 = √2(√2 − 1)cos𝜃
Now again differentiate eq (2) √2sin𝜃 [ from (1)]
𝑑2 𝑧 2𝑏2 𝑐 2 97. (a)
=
𝑑𝑥 2
at 𝑥 =
at 𝑥 −
𝑏𝑐
𝑎
𝑏𝑐
𝑥3
,
,
𝑑2 𝑧
𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑2 𝑧
=
=−
2𝑎 3
𝑏𝑐
2𝑎 3
> 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚
< 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚
c k
a
𝑎 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑏𝑐
Hence the minimum value is
𝑍| 𝑏𝑐 = a2 +
𝑥=
= 2𝑎𝑏𝑐
𝑎
= 𝑎𝑏𝑐 + 𝑎𝑏𝑐
𝑏𝑐 𝑏2 𝑐 2
𝑎 𝑏𝑐
×𝑎
C 60°
= 360° ×
2×22
7
r
Length of minor arc of the chord
× 22
94. (a)
∫ 𝑒 𝑥ln(𝑎) 𝑑𝑥
𝑥
= ∫ 𝑒 ln𝑎 𝑑𝑥
S B
=
484
21
98. (c)
cm
= ∫ 𝑎 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
=
𝑎𝑥
ln(𝑎)
95. (d)
𝜋
+𝐶
S
𝐼 = 2 ∫ 𝑐 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
0
= 2[−𝑐 cos𝑥]𝜋0
As this diagram shows: ℎ2 2
ℎ2
+ 𝑧 =
i) Every trigonometric function is positive in the tan2 𝑥 tan2 𝑦
first quadrant. ℎ2 ℎ2
𝑧2 = −
ii) In the second quadrant only sin is positive tan2 𝑦 tan2 𝑥
2 [cot 2
(and its inverse, cosec). Rest are negative. =ℎ 𝑦 − cot 2 𝑥]
iii) Third quadrant gives positive value only for 101. (d)
4 1
tan (and again its inverse). = 13 [As ace are 4 in 52 cards]
52
iv) Fourth quadrant means positive value only 102. (d)
for cos. 𝑃 (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃 (𝐵) − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
1 1
Hence, sin𝜃 = − and tan𝜃 = lie in third = 0.5 + 0.6 − 0.4 = 0.7
2 √3
quadrant. 𝑃(A̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
∪ 𝐵) = 1 − 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 1 − 0.7 = 0.3
99. (c) 103. (a)
1 3 1
Required probability = 1 − 2 × 4 × 4
=1−
=
29
32
32
3
c k
i.e. 4 × 3 × 2 = 24.
104. (c)
r a
Required probability =
105. (c)
15
36
=
5
12
100. (a)
Let the length of the tower OA = h
Given AB= z
C
𝑥={
B
(1, 𝐻)(2, 𝐻)(3, 𝐻)(4, 𝐻)(5, 𝐻)(6, 𝐻)
(1, 𝑇)(2, 𝑇)(3, 𝑇)(4, 𝑇)(5, 𝑇)(6, 𝑇)
Required probability =
3
12
=
1
4
}
S S 106. (c)
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶

In 𝛥OAB, OA2 + z 2 = 𝑂𝐵2 ∩ 𝐴)– 2𝑃 (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 )
107. (c) 10
Now the new standard deviation = 4
= 2.5
Variables X and Y are independent. [As addition and subtraction does not affect σ].
Correlation and independence as it approaches 110. (c)
zero there is less of a relationship (closer to Sample space,
uncorrelated). S = {(2, 6), (6, 2), (3, 5), (5, 3), (4, 4)}
If the variables are independent, Pearson's 1
Probability (that the first dice lands on 6) =
correlation coefficient is 0, but the converse is 5
not true because the correlation coefficient 111. (c)

Required probability
detects only linear dependencies between two
2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1
variables. = × + × + × + ×
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
The correlation coefficient between them is 0. 4+4+1+1
108. (c) =
6×6
2 1 10
Given 𝑃 (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = & 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) =
3 6 =
36
⇒ 𝑃 (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑃 (𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) − 𝑃 (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
2
⇒ = 𝑃 (𝐴) + 𝑃 (𝐵) −
3
2 1
⇒ + = 𝑃 (𝐴) + 𝑃 (𝐵)
1
6
=
5
18
112. (b)
c k
a
3 2 1
3 6 × =
5 𝑛 𝑛−1 2
⇒ = 𝑃 (𝐴) + 𝑃 (𝐵)
6
P(A)P(B) =
1
……(2)
1
Also, given P(A ∩ B) = 6 ……(1)
12 = 𝑛2 − 𝑛
0 = 𝑛2 − 𝑛 − 12
C r
(𝑛2 − 4𝑛) + (3𝑛 − 12) = 0
𝑛(𝑛 − 4) + 3(𝑛 − 4) = 0
B
6
From (1) & (2) (𝑛 − 4)(𝑛 + 3) = 0
1 1 𝑛 = 4, −3
P(A) or P(B) = or
⇒ P(B) =
109. (c)
1
2
2
Given P(A) < 𝑃 (B)
3
S S 113. (a)
Two cards are chosen at random from a deck of
52 playing cards
Probability that both of them have the same
52 3 1
Given, 𝑥 = 50 value= × =
52 51 17
50−5 45
Now the new mean = 4
= 4
= 11.25
Given 𝜎 = 10
114. (b) 117. (d)
1 1 1 The correlation coefficient between X and Y be
𝑃= + =
6 6 3 0.6.
1 2 𝑌
⇒𝑞 =1− = 𝑍 = 𝑋 + 5 and W =
3 3 3
Given 𝑛 = 8 Correlation coefficient between Z and W = 0.6
1 8 118. (d)
We know Mean = 𝑛𝑝 = 8 × =
3 3
All the natural numbers between 1 and 20 are
1 2 4 multiplied by 3
𝜎 = √𝑛𝑝𝑞 = √8 × × =
3 3 3 1
Using var x = 𝑛 ∑𝑛𝑖=1 (𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥̅ )2 is the variance
115. (b) of the resulting series 399.25
Given 𝑃(A ̅∩B̅) = 0
119. (a)
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
P(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 0 First of all, consider the radius of circle as r, then
P(A ∪ B) = 1 − P(𝐴̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
∪ 𝐵) = 1 − 0 = 1 the points closer to center then boundary will lie
We know,
𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
1 = 0.5 + 0.6 − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
within the radius of
𝑟
𝜋
2
c k
. So, the favourable
outcome would be the points inside the area of
circle with radius 2. Whereas the total possible
a
1 = 1.1 − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
𝑃 (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.1 outcomes could be all the points inside the area
Consider,
P(A/B)=
116. (a)
𝑃(𝐴∩𝐵) 1
𝑃(𝐵)
=
6
C r
of circle with radius r.
Therefore, the probability is =

120. (b)
𝑟 2
𝜋( )
2
𝜋𝑟2
=
1
4
1. The sum of the deviations from the mean is

zero.
S
2. In a perfectly symmetrical, non-skewed B
If 𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 are two events, the probability of
occurrence of either A or event B is probability
of having A or B.
S
distribution the mean, median and mode are Thus, the correct answer is union of A and B i.e.
equal. 𝑃 (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵).
Since 1 is alone correct, so, option (a) is correct.
NDA/NA EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER 2018 - II
ENGLISH & GENERAL ABILITY

PART-A
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions: Each item in this section has a by one of the ablest persons
sentence with three underlined parts (b)
labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence who has written on this subject. No error.
to find out whether there is any error in (c) (d)
any underlined part and indicate your 4. Slow and steady owns the race
response in the Answer Sheet against the (a) (b)
corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If as the wise would say. No error.
you find no error, your response should be
indicated as (d).
1. He appears
(a)
to be
(b)
a honest man
(c)
(c)
5. We often hear people say
(a)
c k(d)
that most human beings have not evolved

No error.
(d)
2. One of the members
(a)
expressed doubt if
(b)
(b)
violence
(c)
a
or grow up enough to stick to truth or non-
r
the Minister was an atheist
(c)
3. This view has been taken
(a)
No error.
(d)
B C
No error.
(d)
of a sentence with an underlined

S S
word/words followed by four words. Select
SYNONYMS
Directions: Each item in this section consists
the option that is nearest in meaning to the

(a) enormous
(c) hazardous
(b) erroneous
(d) perilous
7. I had some deepest convictions reflected in
my work.
underlined word/words and mark your (a) ideas and opinions (b) firm beliefs
response in your Answer Sheet accordingly. (c) prejudices (d) biases
8. This boy is very timid.
6. The Industrial Revolution saw a massive rise
(a) courageous (b) shy
in the population of Europe.
(c) clever (d) dull 10. His behaviour was deliberately provocative.
9. My friend is as stubborn as a mule (a) exciting desire (b) infuriating
(a) observant (b) obnoxious (c) pitiable (d) creating frustration
(c) obstinate (d) corpulent
ANTONYMS
Directions: Each item in this section (a) open (b) prejudiced
consists of a sentence with an underlined (c) liked (d) impartial
word/words followed by four words. 13. It is easy to be an orthodox.
Select the option that is opposite in (a) idolatrous (b) intelligent
meaning to the underlined word/words (c) malignant (d) heterodox
and mark your response in your Answer 14. Permit me to present you with a book
Sheet accordingly. (a) allow (b) enclose
(c) prohibit (d) persuade
11. Too many cooks spoil the broth.
15. None but the brave deserves the fair.
(a) tarnish (b) wreck
(c) embellish (d) upset
12. He is biased against the students from
cities.
(a) ugly person
(c) jealous person
c k
(b) coward
(d) weak person
Directions: In this section you have two

COMPREHENSION
short passages. After each passage, you will

r a
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh,
how wonderful! How does he do it?”
find some items based on the passage. First,
read a passage and answer the items based
on it and mark your response on the
Answer Sheet accordingly. You are required
B C
But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a
big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-it-
up-his sleeve.”
Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick
author only.
PASSAGE -1
S
to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the
S
“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the
Man and said, “Oh, of course”; and everybody
whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-his-
sleeve.”
“My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the
famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that
the rings are apparently separate; at a blow
conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is
they all join (clang, clang, clang) – Presto!”
absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it
There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the
a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He- must-
have-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve.”
Again, everybody nodded and whispered, “The- (d) created an illusion of things with his magic
rings-were-up-his-sleeve.” 19. The author believes that the Quick Man was
The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a really.
gathering frown. (a) foolish (b) clever
“I will now,” he continued, “show you a most (c) wrong (d) right
amusing trick by which I am enabled to take 20. The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs
any number of eggs from a hat. Will some from the hat of
gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank (a) the Quick Man
you – Presto!” (b) his own
He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five (c) one gentleman from the audience
seconds the audience began to think that he (d) None of the above
was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered
along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-his- PASSAGE -2
sleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. Magda: Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet,
“He-has-a-lot-of-hens-up-his-sleeve.” isn’t it?
The egg trick was ruined. Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you
It went on like that all through. It transpired
from the whispers of the Quick Man that the
conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in
c k
today? All right? You haven’t been studying too
hard, have you? You look a bit pale.
Magda: I don’t, do I? Well, I haven’t been out
much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why,
addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several
packs of cards, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a
live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking
chair.
r a
we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we?
Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s
see, you’ll be going back home next month,
16. “The brow of the conjuror was clouded with
a gathering frown.” The sentence means that
the conjuror
(a) was very pleased (b) was very sad
B C
won’t you?
Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My
sister’s coming over first. Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is
she? You’re looking forward to that, I expect.
(c) was rather angry
(a) eggs were all broken

(b) people were unconvinced
(c) conjuror was disappointed
(d) the trick could not be performed
S
(d) was very afraid
17. “The egg trick was ruined.” This means that.
S
How long is it since you saw her?
Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking
forward to it very much.
Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study?
Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home
until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought
18. According to the Quick Man, the conjuror to, ought I?
(a) had everything bought for production Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you
(b) produced things with the magic he knew are, is she?
(c) had things in the large sleeves of his coat Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen
21. Magda had not been out much lately (a) expecting with pleasure
because (b) preparing hard for
(a) she had not been keeping well (c) thinking greatly about
(b) she was busy with her studies (d) watching with joy
(c) the weather had been unpleasant 24. Magda’s sister was coming to
(d) her sister had come over to stay (a) visit her sister
22. Magda was not going back home yet (b) help Mrs. Smiles
because (c) settle down in England
(a) it had been raining heavily (d) pursue her studies
(b) her sister was coming over 25. Mrs. Smiles and Magda
(c) her studies were not completed (a) classmates
d) she was not feeling well (b) school friends
23. Mrs. Smiles says, “You’re looking forward to (c) neighbours
that.” This means, Magda was ________ her (d) sisters-in-law
sister’s arrival
FILL IN THE BLANKS

Directions: Each of the following sentences
c k
28. The British _________ all over Africa and
in this section has a blank space and four
words or group of words given after the
sentence. Select whichever word or group
of words you consider most appropriate for
century.
(a) hegemony
r
(c) residence a
Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth
(b) domicile
(d) inheritance
the blank space and indicate your response
on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
26. We fail to understand your reasons for
_________ the college without completing the
C
29. The football match has to be _________
because of the weather
B
(a) called off
(c) put off
(b) continued
(d) turned off
degree.
(a) attending
(c) leaving
(b) joining
S S
(d) refusing
27. She _________ her energy and started
shouting only when she heard the noise of
30. If I were rich, _________ a lot.
(a) I’ll travel
(c) I would travel
happened
(a) to
(b) I can travel
(d) I travelled
31. They apologized _________ me for what
(b) at
bulldozers and cranes.
(c) for (d) with
(a) checked (b) conserved
32. If you are tired of swimming, just
(c) maintained (d) controlled
_________ for a while.
(a) struggle (b) stroke
(c) float (d) streak (a) of (b) to
33. He had _________ spoken for two minutes (c) by (d) with
when there was a commotion in the crowd. 35. The soldiers waiting to go into battle for the
(a) even (b) hardly first time were full of _________.
(c) often (d) little (a) apprehension (b) consideration
34. I would not commit myself _________ that (c) anticipation (d) frivolity
course of action.
IDIOMS AND PHRASES
Directions: Given below are some (d) Gift from a sacred institution
idioms/phrases followed by four alternative 38. Walk a tightrope
meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (a) To be forced to leave your job
(b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate (b) To be ready to fall
expression. (c) To act very carefully
(d) To invite danger
36. A red-letter day
(a) A trivial day
(b) A very important or significant day
(c) A day of bloodshed and violence
39. To be in a fix
(a) To receive strong criticism
(b) To support oneself
(c) To fix problems
c k
(d) A mourning day
37. The gift of the gab
(a) Ability to speak easily and confidently
r a
(d) To be in a difficult situation
40. To fish in troubled waters
(a) To borrow money
(b) To steal belongings of
(b) Ability to spoil something
(c) Ability to sell things
C
(c) To get benefit in bad situation
(d) To extend a helping hand
B
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
S
Directions: Each of the following item in this
section consists of a sentence the parts of
S
which have been jumbled. These parts have
been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below
each sentence are four sequences namely
41. Domestic fires in Indian villages
P: as the heat is dispersed
Q: an unhealthy smoke accumulates in
unventilated houses
R: are wasteful
(a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to S: lit in Chulhas
rearrange the jumbled parts of the The correct sequence should be
sentence and mark your response on the (a) PQSR (b) PQRS
Answer Sheet accordingly. (c) SPQR (d) SRPQ
42. Bold rocks near at hand
P: makes a fine forest for the imagination 44. The knocking
Q: than distant Alps P: were still in the house
R: are more inspiring Q: for some time
S: and the thick fern upon a heath R: although the echoes of it
The correct sequence should be S: ceased
(a) QRSP (b) RSQP The correct sequence should be
(c) RQSP (d) SRQP (a) SRPQ (b) SQRP
43. Newton discovered that (c) PQSR (d) RSPQ
P: due to the gravitational pull 45. The history of mankind is
Q: of the earth P: and steady progress
R: the apple falls Q: continuous change
S: on the ground R: the history of
The correct sequence should be S: from barbarism to refinement
(a) QPRS (b) RSPQ The correct sequence should be
(c) QSPR (d) SQRP (a) PQRS (b) RQPS
(c) QSPR
CLOZE COMPREHENSION k
(d) SQRP
c
Directions: In the following passage there are
some blank spaces with four words or groups of
words given. Select whichever word or group of
words you consider most appropriate for the
r a
of a community. These bees live together in
what is known as a bee ______ 48. (a) house
(b) home
(c) army
blank space and indicate your response
accordingly.
The honeybee is a very unusual kind of insect
_____ 46. (a) Unlike
B C
She is ______ 49. (a) heaviest
(b) heavier
(d) colony
The head of the bees is called the queen bee.
(b) Similar to
(c) With
(d) Like
S S
other insects which live alone, the honeybee
lives as a/an ______ 47. (a) group
(c) largest
(d) larger
than the rest of the bees. Her main task is to
_______ 50. (a) lay
(b) hatch
eggs.
(b) individual (c) make

(c) member (d) bear
(d) troop
PART-B
Directions: The following six (6) items consists 54. Statement I:
of two statements, Statements I and Statement Mughal painting reached its climax during the
II. Examine these two statements carefully and reign of Jahangir.
select the correct answer using the code given Statement II:
below. Aurangzeb's court was adorned by some of the
Code: best known artists of the Mughal school of
(a) Both the statements are individually true painting.
and Statement II is the correct explanation of 55. Statement I:
Statement I Phytoplankton produces most of the organic
(b) Both the statements are individually true carbon in the ocean.
but Statement II is not the correct explanation Statement II:
of Statement I Algae are produced in the cold water biome
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
51. Statement I:
The pitch of the sound wave depends upon its
56. Statement I:
c k
Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 600
metres, parallel to the isobars
Statement II
frequency.
Statement II:
The loudness of the sound wave depends upon
a
Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind
r
velocity, in which the Coriolis force exactly
balances the horizontal pressure force.
its amplitude.
52. Statement I:
Sound wave cannot propagate in vacuum. C
57. Which one of the following groups of
cellular organelles contains DNA?
B
(a) Mitochondria, nucleus, chloroplast
Statement II:
medium to propagate.
53. Statement I:
S
Sound waves are elastic waves and require a
S
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced
(b) Mitochondria, Golgi bodies, nucleus
(c) Mitochondria, plasma membrane, nucleus
(d) Chloroplast, nucleus, ribosomes
58. One of the additional functions of Smooth
Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is?
dyarchy at the centre. (a) Protein synthesis
Statement II: (b) Lipid synthesis
The provincial autonomy was granted to the (c) Storage of biomolecules
provinces. (d) Detoxification of toxic substances
59. Damage to the apical meristem of a 65. What is the molar mass of anhydrous
growing young plant will affect the sodium carbonate? (Given that the atomic
(a) Length of the plant masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23 u,
(b) Colour of the flower 12 u and 16 u respectively)
(c) Colour of the leaves (a) 286 u (b) 106 u
(d) Taste of the fruits (c) 83 u (d) 53 u
60. Which of the following kingdoms has/have 66. Which one of the following is called
only unicellular organisms? ‘syngas’?
(a) Monera only (a) C(s) + H2O (g) (b) CO(g) + H2O (g)
(b) Protista only (c) CO(g) + H2(g) (d) NO2(g) + H2(g)
(c) Monera and Protista both 67. The frequency of ultrasound waves is
(d) Protista and Fungi both (a) Less than 20 Hz
61. Which one of the following is a waterborne (b) Between 20 Hz and 2 kHz
disease?
(a) Jaundice
(c) Rabies
(b) Tuberculosis
(d) Arthritis
62. The atomic number of an element is 8. How
(c) Between 2 kHz and 20 kHz
(d) Greater than 20 kHz
c k
68. The magnetic field strength of a current-
carrying wire at a particular distance from the
many electrons will it gain to form a compound
with sodium?
(a) One (b) Two
r a
axis of the wire?
(a) Depends upon the current in the wire
(b) Depends upon the radius of the wire
(c) Three (d) Four
63. A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes
of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u
respectively. The proportion of these isotopes
C
(c) Depends upon the temperature of the
surroundings
B
(d) None of the above
(a) 17.5 u
(c) 16 u S
(b) 17 u
S
in the sample is 3 : 1. What will be the average
atomic mass of oxygen in this sample?
(d) 16.5 u
69. A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at
a temperature T and pressure P. The total
number of Ar atoms in the chamber is n. Now
Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by 𝐶𝑂2 gas
and the total number of 𝐶𝑂2 molecules in the
64. Which one of the following is a chamber is n/2 at the same temperature T. The
heterogeneous mixture? pressure in the chamber now is P’. Which one
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Vinegar of the following relations holds true? (Both the
(c) Milk (d) Soda water gases behave as ideal gases)
(a) P’ = P (b) P’ = P Which one of the following is the correct order
(c) P’ = P/2 (d) P’ = P/4 of the above Wildlife sanctuaries in term of
70. Which one of the following is the correct their location from South to North?
relation between Å and nm? (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-4 -3-1
(a) 1 nm = 10-1Å (b) 1 nm = 10Å (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3 -1-2-4
(c) 1 nm = 1Å (d) 1 nm = 10-2Å 76. Which one of the following statements
71. The full form of LED is about temperature is correct?
(a) Light Emitting Diode (a) Temperature decreases with height in the
(b) Light Emitting Device stratosphere.
(c) Light Enhancing Device (b) Temperature is constant at different Heights
(d) Light Enhancing Diode in the stratosphere.
72. If a free electron moves through a potential (c) Temperature increases with height in the
difference of 1 kV, then the energy gained by troposphere at the average rate of 6.5°C per
the electron is given by kilometre.
(a) 1.6 × 10-19J
(c) 1 × 10-19J
(b) 1.6 × 10-16J
(d) 1 × 10-16J
73. Consider the following places in India.
k
(d) Temperature decreases with height in the
c
troposphere at the average rate of 6.4°C per
kilometer.
1. Itanagar
3. Agartala
2. Imphal
4. Aizawl
Which one of the following is the correct a
77. Which one of the following is known as a
zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical
r
section of ocean?
chronological order of the above places in
terms of sunrise time?
(a) 3-2-1-4
(c) 1-4-3-2
(b) 2-1-4-3
(d) 4-3-2-1
B C
(a) Thermocline
(c) Photic zone
(b) Halocline
(d) Pycnocline
78. Permanent hardness of water cannot be
removed by which one of the following
uplands of delta region?

(a) Bef
(c) Peh S
(b) Bils
(d) Chars
S
74. Which one of the following is known as methods?
(a) Treatment with washing soda
(b) Calgon’s method
(c) Boiling
75. Consider the following Wildlife sanctuaries (d) Ion exchange method
in India: 79. Which one of the following reactions will
1. Shikari Devi 2. Bhadra give NO (nitric oxide) gas as one of the
3. Simlipal 4. Pachmarhi products?
(a) 3Cu + 8HNO3 (dilute)→ (a) Left auricle (b) Left ventricle
(b) Cu + 4HNO3 (conc.) → (c) Right auricle (d) Right ventricle
(c) 4Zn + 10HNO3 (dilute) → 85. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis
(d) Zn + 4HNO3 (conc.) → comes from splitting of?
80. Which one of the following is a tribasic (a) Water (b) Carbon dioxide
acid? (c) Oxygen (d) Light
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid 86. Which one of the following depicts the
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Phosphoric acid correct circuit of a reflex arc?
81. Which one of the following statements is (a) Effector-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor
not correct? neuron-receptor
(a) All carbons in diamond are linked by (b) Receptor-sensory neuron-effector cord-
carbon-carbon single bond. motor neuron-effector
(b) Graphite is layered structure in which layers (c) Receptor-sensory neuron- brain-motor
are held together by weak van der Waals neuron-effector
forces.
(c) Graphite layers are formed by hexagonal
rings of carbon atoms.
motor neuron
k
(d) Sensory neuron-receptor-brain-effector-
c
87. If one set of chromosomes for a given plant
(d) Graphite layers are held together by
carbon-carbon single bond
82. Which one of the following is called dry ice? a
is represented as N; in case of double
fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm
r
nucleus of a diploid plant would have how
(a) Solid carbon dioxide
(b) Liquid carbon dioxide
(c) Liquid nitrogen
(d) Liquid ammonia
B C
many sets of chromosomes respectively
(a) N and 2N
(c) N and 3N
(b) 2N and 3N
(d) 2N and 3N
88. Consider the following circuit:
of the stomach is neutralized by:

(a) Pancreatic juice
(b) Duodenal secretion
S
83. The acidic semi digested food coming out
S
(c) Large intestine secretion
(d) Bile juice Which one of the following is the value of the
84. The oxygenated blood from the lungs is resistance between points A and B in the circuit
received by the given above?
2 3 black. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) 5 𝑅 (b) 5 𝑅
3 colour code?
(c) 𝑅 (d) 4R
2 (a) Red-live wire, Green-neutral wire, Black-
89. The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. ground wire
In °C unit, which one of the following is the (b) Red-neutral wire, Green-ground wire, Black-
absolute zero temperature? live wire
(a) 0°C (b) –100°C (c) Red-live wire, Green-ground wire, Black-
(c) –273.15°C (d) –173.15°C neutral wire
90. Consider the following statements about (d) Red-ground wire, Green-live wire, Black-
visible light, UV light and X-ray: neutral wire
1. The wavelength of visible light is more than 93. The graphs between current (I) and voltage
that of X-rays. (V) for three linear resistors 1, 2 and 3 are given
2. The energy of X-ray photons is higher than below?
that of UV light photons.
3. The energy of UV light photons is less than
that of visible light photons.
c k
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
91. The time period of oscillation of a simple
r a
pendulum having length L and mass of the bob
m is given as T. If the length of the pendulum is
increased to 4L and the mass of the job is
C
If R1, R2, and R3 are the resistances of these
resistors, then which one of the following is
B
correct?
(a) R1 > R2 >R3 (b) R1 < R3 <R2
(a) T
(c) 4T
(b) 2T
(d) T/2
S
increased to 2m, then which one of the
following is the new time period of oscillation?
S
92. The connecting cable of electrical
(c) R3 < R1 <R2 (d) R3 > R2 >R1
94. Consider the following statements about a
microscope and a telescope:
1. Both the eyepiece and the objective of a
microscope are convex lenses.
appliances like electric iron, water heater or
2. The focal length of the objective of a
room heater contains three insulated copper
telescope is larger than the focal length of its
wires of three different colours-red, green and
eyepiece.
3. The magnification of a telescope increases (c) A B C D
with the increase in focal length of its objective. 2 4 1 3
4. The magnification of a microscope increases (d) A B C D
with increase in focal length of its objective. 2 1 4 3
Which of the statements given above are 97. Match List-I with List-II and select
correct? the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 below the lists:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 List-I List-II
95. A planet has a mass M1 and radius R1. The (Local wind) (Place)
value of acceleration due to gravity on its A. Yamo 1. Sudan
surface is g1. There is another planet 2, whose B. Black Roller 2. France
mass and radius both are two times that of the C. Bise 3. Japan
first planet. Which one of the following is the D. Haboob 4. North America
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Code:
planet 2?
(a) 𝑔1
(c) 𝑔1 /2
(b) 2𝑔1
(d) 𝑔1 /4
(a) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(b) A B C D
c k
96. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
1 2 4 3
(c) A B C D
34 2 1
r a
List I
(River Basin)
A. Bhagirathi
B. Alaknanda
List II
(Town)
1. Lansdowne
2. Narendra Nagar
B C
(d) A B C D
3 2 4 1
98. ‘Majuli’, the river island, is located in which
one of the following rivers?
C. Nayar
D. Ganga
Code: S
4. Pauri
S
3. Uttarkashi (a) Jamuna
(c) Ganga
(b) Padma
(d) Brahmaputra
99. Which one of the following Indian States has
recorded negative growth of population as per
(a) A B C D Census 2011?
3 1 4 2 (a) Manipur (b) Mizoram
(b) A B C D (c) Tripura (d) Nagaland
3 4 1 2
100. Which one of the following types of cloud is (c) FeCl3
characterized by continuous precipitation? (d) NaCl
(a) Cirrocumulus 104. Which one of the following is an
(b) Cumulus oxidation-reduction reaction?
(c) Nimbostratus (a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(d) Cumulonimbus (b) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
answer using the code given below the lists: (d) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
List-I List-II 105. Which one of the following is not used as
(Major Port) (Location) fertilizer
A. Kolkata 1. Landlocked area (a) Ammonium nitrate
B. Mormugao 2. In the delta region (b) Ammonium sulphide
C. Vishakhapatnam 3. On the riverside (c) Ammonium phosphate
D. Paradip 4. On the entrance of (d) Ammonium sulphate
Code:
(a) A B C D
the estuary
formula of gypsum?
(a) CaSO4.2H2O
k
106. Which one of the following is the chemical
c
(b) Ca2SiO4
3 1 4 2
(b) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(c) 2CaSO4.H2O
a (d) CaSO4
r
about the law of conservation of mass is
(c) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(d) A B C D
2 1 4 3
B C
correct?
(a) A given compound always contains exactly
same proportion of elements
(b) When gases combine in a reaction, they do
metamorphism?
(a) Heat
(c) Decomposition S S
102. Which one of the following is not an agent of
(b) Compression
(d) Solution
so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all
gases are at room temperature.
(c) Matter can neither be created nor
destroyed.
103. The solution of which one of the following (d) Equal volume of all gases at same
will have pH less than 7? temperature and pressure contain equal
(a) NaOH number of molecules
(b) KCI
108. The wavelength of X-ray is of the order 112. The coefficient of area expansion of a
of? material is 1.6 × 10−5 𝐾 −1 which one of the
(a) 1Å (b) 2µm following gives the value of coefficient of
(c) 1mm (d) 1 cm volume expansion of this material?
109. Consider the following velocity and time (a) 0.8 × 10−5 𝐾 −1 (b) 2.4 × 10−5 𝐾 −1
graph: (c) 3.2 × 10−5 𝐾 −1 (d) 4.8 × 10−5 𝐾 −1
113. The refractive indices of two media are
denoted by n1 and n2 and the velocities of light
in these two media are respectively v1 and v2. If
n2/n1 is 1.5, which one of the following
statements is correct?
Which one of the following is the value of
(a) v1 is 1.5 times v2
average acceleration from 8 s to 12 s?
(b) v2 is 1.5 times v1
(a) 8 m/s2 (b) 12 m/s2
k
(c) v1 is equal to v2
(c) 2 m/s2 (d) -1 m/s2
(d) v1 is 3 times v2
110. If the focal length of a convex lens is 50
cm, which one of the following is its power?
(a) +2 dioptre
(c) –0.5 dioptre
(b) +0.02 dioptre
(d) +0.5 dioptre
atmosphere? c
114. Which one of the following greenhouse
gases is in largest concentration in the
a
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon (b)Nitrous oxide
111. A ball is released from rest and rolls down
an inclined plane, as shown in the following
figure, requiring 4s to cover a distance of 100
C r
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
115. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the
cm along the plane:
S B
lists:
List I
(Koppen’s Climatic
List II
(Letter Code)
S
Which one of the following is the correct value
of angle θ that the plane makes with the
horizontal? (g = 1000cm/s²)
desert
Type)
A. Tropical wet
B. Mid-latitude
C. Mediterranean
1. Af
2. Cs
3. Df
(a) Ɵ = sin-1(1/9.8) (b) Ɵ = sin-1(1/20) D. Humid 4. BWk
-1
(c) Ɵ = sin (1/80) (d) Ɵ = sin-1(1/100) continental
Code: (b) Tripura – Manipur – Meghalaya - Mizoram
(a) A B C D (c) Meghalaya – Manipur – Mizoram - Tripura
1 4 2 3 (d) Manipur – Meghalaya – Tripura - Mizoram
(b) A B C D 118. Steppe (temperate continental) climate is
1 2 4 3 not experienced in which one of the following
(c) A B C D places?
3 2 4 1 (a) Pretoria (b) Saskatchewan
(d) A B C D (c) Perth (d) Buenos Aires
3 4 2 1 119. Which one of the following is not a
116. Match List-I with List-II and select the process of chemical weathering?
correct answer using the code given below the (a) Solution (b) Carbonation
lists: (c) Oxidation (d) Exfoliation
List I List II 120. Which one of the following statements is
(Railway zone) (Headquarters) correct for a plane mirror?
A. Western Central 1. Jabalpur
B. South East Central 2. Gorakhpur
C. East Central 3. Bilaspur
(a) Its focal length is zero.
c k
(b) The size of the image of an object placed in
front of the mirror is slightly less than that of
D. North Eastern
Code:
4. Hajipur the object.
a
(c) The image is virtual, erect and laterally
inverted.
r
(a) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(b) A B C D
1 4 3 2
B C
(d) Its focal length is 200 cm
121. An object is placed in front of a convex
mirror. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(c) A B C D
2 4 3 1
(d) A B C D
1 3 4 2 S S (a) It will never form an inverted image
(b) The image moves towards the focus when
the object moves towards the mirror.
(c) Depending on the position of the object
117. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the mirror, the image can be
descending order of Indian States in terms of inverted and real
sex ratio as per Census 2011?
(a) Mizoram – Manipur – Tripura – Meghalaya
(d) The size of the image becomes larger than Which of the statements given above is/are
that of the object when the object is placed at a correct?
distance equal to half the focal length (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
122. A circular coil of radius R having N number (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of turns carries a steady current I. The magnetic 126. Which one of the following pairs is
induction at the centre of the coil is 0.1 tesla. If correctly matched?
the number of turns is doubled and the radius Bhakti Saint Philosophy
is halved, which one of the following will be the (a) Shankara Avadhuta
correct value for the magnetic induction at the (b) Ramananda Kevaladvaita
centre of the coil? (c) Ramanuja Vishishtadvaita
(a) 0.05 tesla (b) 0.2 tesla (d) Chaitanya Advaita
(c) 0.4 tesla (d) 0.8 tesla 127. When did the Stamp Act Congress
123. Which among the following is not a consisting of delegates from 9 of the 13
Fundamental Right under the Constitution of
India?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(a) 1763
(c) 1765
c k
colonies of America meet in New York City?
(b) 1764
(d) 1766
128. Who among the following travelers was
(c) Right to citizenship
(d) Right against exploitation
124. Which one of the following crops was (a) Nikitin
r a
from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in
the fifteenth century?
(b) Fa-Hien
introduced by the Portuguese in India?
(a) Opium
(b) Coffee
(c) Betel leaf
B C
(c) Bernier (d) Nicolo Conti
129. Where did the French East India Company
first establish its factory in India?
(a) Calicut (b) Surat
(d) Chili
S S
125. Consider the following statements about
merchant guilds of South India:
1. Ayyavole merchant guild was originally
(c) Pondicherry (d) Masulipatnam
130. The Central Vigilance Commission was
established on the recommendation of which
one of the following Committees?
established in Aihole. (a) Santhanam Committee
2. Manigraman merchant guild was (b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
subordinated to the Anjuvannam merchant (c) Tarkunde Committee
guild in the 13th century. (d) Narasimham Committee
131. Match List-I with List-II and select the 134. Sentosa Island, which was in news
correct answer using the code given below the recently, is located in
lists: (a) Singapore (b) China
List I List II (c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka
(Author) (Book) 135. India, in June 2018, asserted that any
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 1. The Arctic mega connectivity project must respect
Home in the Vedas sovereignty and territorial integrity of the
B. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Hind Swaraj countries. The project referred to above is:
C.Mahatma Gandhi 3. The discovery of (a) North-South Corridor Project
India (b) Belt and Road Initiative
D.Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Poverty and Un- (c) Chabbar Port
British Rule in India (d) Panama Canal Expansion
Code: 136. Who among the following is not a member
of G7?
(a) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(b) A B C D
3 2 4 1
(a) France
(c) Russia
c k
(b) Germany
(d) Japan
137. Which among the following leaders
(c) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(d) A B C D
r a
started the Indian Home Rule League?
(a) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
1 2 4 3
132. Which one of the following is the Official
Mascot of the FIFA World Cup, 2018?
B C
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) J.B. Kripalani
138. Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India
is appointed by
S
(a) Fuleco (b) Zakumi
(c) Pille (d) Zabivaka (a) the Supreme Court Collegium
S
133. The Headquarters of the proposed
National Sports University (as per the National
Sports University Ordinance, 2018) will be set
up in?
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Manipur
(b) the Cabinet
(c) the President of India
(d) the Lok Sabha
139. The Nehru-Mahalanobis Strategy of
Development was implemented for the first
(c) Kerala (d) West Bengal time by which one of the following Five-Year
Plans?
(a) First Five-Year Plan (a) The President of India
(b) Second Five-Year Plan (b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) Third Five-Year Plan (c) The Union Home Minister
(d) Seventh Five-Year Plan (d)The Union Minister of State (Independent
140. Which of the following is not a part of the charge), Ministry of Development of North
Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined Eastern Region
in the Constitution of India? 145. Which one of the following is the theme of
(a) Equal justice and free legal aid the World Blood Donor Day, 2018?
(b) Protection of monuments and places and (a) Blood connects us all
objects of national importance (b) Be there for someone else. Give blood.
(c) Protection of personal law Share life.
(d) Separation of Judiciary from Executive (c) Give blood. Give now. Give often
141. The word ‘socialist’ was inserted into the (d) Thank you for saving my life
Preamble to the Constitution of India through 146. ‘Seva Bhoj Yojana’, a scheme of the
which one of the following Amendment Acts?
(a) 41st Amendment Act
(b) 42nd Amendment Act
k
Government of India that seeks to reimburse
c
Central share of CGST and IGST on
Food/Prasad/Langar/Bhandara offered by
(c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
142. The place of English East India Company a
religious institutions, is introduced recently by
which one of the following ministries?
r
(a) The Ministry of Culture
settlement in Madras was known as
(a) Fort William (b) Fort St. George
(c) Elphinstone Circle (d) Marble Palace
143. Which one of the following Indian States
B C
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution
(d) The Ministry of Social Justice and
S S
(other than Himalayan or NE States) ranked
first in the Composite Water Management
Index as per the report issued by the NITI
Aayog in June 2018?
Empowerment
147. Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded
Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018 for Culture and
Community, is the founder of
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka (a) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra (b) PRS Legislative Research
144. Who among the following is the ex officio (c) Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform
Chairman of the North Eastern Council? Movement
(d) Smile Foundation (c) Annie Besant
148. Article 352 of the Constitution of India (d) Lord Dufferin
contains provisions related to 150. Which one of the following statements
(a) Financial emergency about Bipin Chandra Pal is correct?
(b) Failure of constitutional machinery in States (a) He was the member of the moderate group
(c) Suspension of the enforcement of rights of Congress
conferred in Part III of the constitution (b) He was the member of the extremist group
(d) General emergency of Congress
149. The Theosophical Society was led by (c) He was the Minister of Defence in the first
(a) A.O. Hume Government of independent India
(b) Arthur Griffith (d) He was the Chief Minister of West Bengal
c k
r a
B C
S S
SOLUTIONS
1. (C) 5. (C)
Article ‘a’ should be replaced with article Replace “grow” by “grown”. Note the use
‘an’ since honest gives a sound of ‘o’ which of “... have not evolved” in part (b). The
is a vowel and before vowel sounding auxiliary verb is common to the next verb
words, we put article ‘an’ before it. “grow”. The auxiliary verb “have” is used
2. (B) only before a past participle. So, the verb
Say “expressed/voiced a doubt that”. In this “grow” should be changed to “grown”. Part
sentence, “doubt” is a countable noun. (c) of the sentence means “or (have) grown
When we wish to use the plural form up enough ...”. The repetition of the
“doubts”, we express/voice doubts (=say auxiliary verb “have” is not required.
that you have doubts). Also, the noun 6. (A)
“doubt” has a negative connotation in One meaning of the adjective “massive” is
some uses. In such cases, it is better to use “exceptionally large”. Some words that
“that” instead of “whether/if”.
3. (C)
k
convey a similar sense are: huge,
enormous, gigantic, very large, great,
Replace “has” with “have”. The pronoun extraordinary and substantial
“who” can take a singular verb if it has a 7. (B)
c
r a
singular sense. However, in this sentence, One meaning of the noun “conviction” is “a
the relative pronoun “who” refers to the firmly held belief or opinion as in “she takes
preceding plural noun “persons”. So, a pride in stating her political convictions”.
verb.
4. (B)
C
plural verb is required. A plural noun or a This is the intended sense. A firmly held
pronoun with a plural sense takes a plural belief or opinion. SYN: belief, opinion, view,
B thought, persuasion, idea, position, stance.

8. (B)
S S
Replace “owns” by “wins”. The proverb is Timid means “showing a lack of courage or
“slow and steady wins the race”. If you confidence; easily frightened”. The
work slowly but constantly, you will adjective “timid” is usually taken to convey
succeed better than if you work fast for a the sense of: cowardly, pusillanimous, lily-
short while and do not continue. The livered, pigeon-hearted, spineless and
proverb is associated with Aesop's fable of craven. However, the adjective “timid” also
"The Tortoise and the Hare." The wordings conveys the sense: shy, diffident, bashful,
of a proverb are not changed. self-effacing, shrinking, unassuming,
unassertive, reserved, retiring, reticent,
quiet, timorous, nervous, modest, demure, effectively conveys the opposite sense of
coy, meek and humble. “spoil”.
9. (C) 12. (D)
The adjective “stubborn” means “having or The adjective “biased” means “unfairly
showing dogged determination not to prejudiced for or against someone or
change one's attitude or position on something”. The similar sense is conveyed
something, especially in spite of good by: partial, partisan, prejudiced. The
arguments or reasons to do so”. The opposite sense is conveyed by:
informal phrase “as stubborn as a mule” disinterested, equal, equitable,
means “extremely stubborn”. Some evenhanded, fair, impartial, neutral,
synonyms are: obstinate, stubborn as a nonpartisan, objective, unbiased and
mule, mulish, headstrong, willful, strong- unprejudiced.
willed, self-willed, pig-headed, bull-headed, 13. (D)
obdurate, awkward, difficult, contrary, One meaning of “orthodox” is “following or
perverse, recalcitrant and refractory.
10. (B)
One meaning of the adjective “provocative”
is “causing anger or another strong
c k
conforming to the traditional or generally
accepted rules or beliefs of a religion,
philosophy, or practice”. Some words that
convey a similar sense are: conservative,
reaction, especially deliberately”. Some
words that convey a similar sense are:
annoying, irritating, a
traditional, observant, conformist, devout,
strict, true, true blue, of the faith and of the
r
true faith. The opposite sense is conveyed
exasperating, infuriating, provoking, madde
ning, goading, vexing, galling, etc.
11. (C)
The verb “spoil” means “diminish or
B C
by:
adjective
unconventional,
nonconformist and heterodox. The
“heterodox”
unorthodox,
means
conforming with accepted or orthodox
“Not
synonyms are: mar, damage, impair,
S S
destroy the value or quality of”. Some
blemish, disfigure, blight, flaw, deface, scar,

injure, harm. The opposite sense is
conveyed by: ameliorate, better, enhance,
standards or beliefs” and some synonyms
are: unorthodox, heretical, dissenting,
dissident, blasphemous, nonconformist,
apostate, freethinking, iconoclastic,
schismatic, rebellious, renegade, separatist,
enrich, improve, meliorate. The verb sectarian and revisionist
“embellish” means “make (something) 14. (C)
more attractive by the addition of One meaning of “permit” is “provide an
decorative details or features”. This word opportunity or scope for (something) to
take place; make possible”. Some 18. (C)
synonyms are: allow, let, authorize, The conjurer had things in the large sleeves
empower, enable and entitle. The opposite of his coat. Quick Man gave the explanation
sense is conveyed by: ban, forbid and of each trick by saying “He-had-it-up-his-
prohibit. sleeve.” This is possible if the sleeves are
15. (B) large.
The adjective “brave” means “Ready to 19. (A)
face and endure danger or pain; showing The constant comments by the Quick Man
courage” and some words that convey this made the audience feel that the tricks were
sense are: courageous, plucky, fearless, nothing special. The Quick Man was a
valiant, valorous, intrepid, heroic, heckler. He wanted to embarrass the
lionhearted, manful, macho, bold, daring, conjuror who was performing in public. This
daredevil, adventurous, audacious, was a foolish action as while the conjurer
deathor-glory. The opposite sense is was making efforts to make his magic
conveyed by: coward, cowardly, chicken,
chickenhearted, chicken livered, craven,
dastardly, fainthearted, fearful, gutless, lily-
livered, milk-livered [archaic], nerveless,
c k
shows enjoyable for the audience, the
Quick Man was constantly trying to pull him
down by adopting a fault – finding and
doubt creating approach. This was a foolish
poltroon, poor-spirited, pusillanimous,
spineless,
uncourageous,
spiritless,
ungallant,
timorous,
unheroic,
action.
20. (C)
r a
The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs
weakhearted and yellow
16. (C)
The conjurer was rather angry. The verb
“clouded” is occasionally used to refer to
B C
from the hat of one gentleman from the
audience. The conjuror requested for a hat
from someone in the audience and thanked
the giver of the hat.
17. (B) S
someone's face or eyes to mean “show an
emotion such as worry, sorrow, or anger”.
S
The conjuror was endeavouring to make
the magic show enjoyable for the audience.
21. (C)
The weather had been unpleasant. Refer
the second dialogue of Magda wherein she
says “Well, I haven’t been out much lately. I
don’t like this weather a bit. ...”
The “egg” trick was ruined because the 22. (B)
audiences were swayed by the explanations Her sister was coming over. The phrase
provided by Quick Man. “going back home” refers to the hometown
of Magda. Magda replies that she would
not be going home yet because her sister 28. (A)
was coming over to stay with her. Hegemony. The meaning of “hegemony” is
23. (A) “leadership or dominance, especially by
Magda was Expecting with pleasure her one state or social group over others”.
sister’s arrival. The phrasal verb “look 29. (A)
forward to” means “await eagerly”. This Called off. The phrasal verb “call off” means
sense is conveyed by option (a). “cancel an event or agreement”. It means
24. (D) that an event has been canceled off.
Magda’s sister was coming to pursue her 30. (C)
studies. To Mrs. Smiles query, Magda I would travel. The sentence is a
replies in the affirmative by saying “Yes, Conditional sentence Type 2. When the
that’s right. I shan’t go back home until verb in the “if-clause” is in the past tense,
she’s settled down. ...” the verb in the main clause is in the
25. (C) conditional tense. The modals will, can are
Note the first sentence wherein Magda
says “Good morning, Mrs. Smiles”. This is
not the way to address one’s classmates or
school friends or for that matter even one’s
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not used in this type of conditional
sentence. Similarly, the simple past tense is
not used in the main clause. The past tense
in the if-clause is not a true past but a
sister-in-law. The use of “Mrs.” Before the
name “Smiles” provides the clue that the
two are neighbours. The use of “Mrs” a
subjunctive, which indicates unreality or
improbability.
31. (A)
r
provides the required degree of formality in
British society.
26. (C)
Leaving. The meaning of “leaving” is
B C
To. Remember that you apologize to
someone to convey that you are sorry that
you have done something wrong. You
apologize for (doing) something as in “He
college.
27. (B)
S
“departing from a place permanently”.
Here, leaving means to leave from the
S
Conserved. In this sentence, “conserved”
later apologized for his behaviour” and “I
apologize for losing my temper”.
32. (C)
Float. The meaning of the verb “float” is
“rest or move on or near the surface of a
means “prevented the wasteful overuse of liquid without sinking” as in “she relaxed,
(a resource)”. floating gently in the water”.
33. (B)
Hardly. The adverb “hardly” means “only a which means “mouth”. The Irish have a
very short time before”. reputation as good talkers. “Gab”, dating
34. (B) from the late 18th century, was an informal
To. You commit yourself to (doing) word for ‘conversation or chatter’. Two
something. example sentences are: “His gift of gab
35. (A) made him a wonderful salesman” and
Apprehension. The noun “apprehension” “Noel really has the gift of gab, so he
means “anxiety or fear that something bad should be the one to address the potential
or unpleasant will happen”. investors”.
36. (B) 38. (C)
A very important or significant day. A red- To act very carefully. A tightrope is a tightly
letter day is a day that you will always stretched piece of rope high up in the air on
remember because something good which an acrobat balances and performs
happens to you then. The expression refers tricks in a circus. This idiom transfers the
to a memorably happy or noteworthy day.
This term alludes to the practice of
marking/printing feast days and other holy
days in red on church calendars, dating
c k
balancing act performed on a tightrope or
high-wire by acrobats. You can use
tightrope in expressions such as
“walk/tread a tightrope”, “live on a
from the 1400s. Two example sentences
are: “My college graduation was a real red-
letter day for my whole family” and “The a
tightrope” and “be on a tightrope” to
indicate that someone is in a difficult
r
situation and has to be very careful about
scheduled day of release of my debut film
could mean the difference between a red-
letter day and an empty basket”.
37. (A)
B C
what they say or do. One has to navigate in
the situation with extreme care and
precision since it allows very little or no
error. Two example sentences are: “I’m
S
Ability to speak easily and confidently. If
someone has “the gift of (the) gab”
S
(American English a gift of/for gab), the
individual is able to speak confidently,
clearly, and in a glib way. The informal
walking a tightrope at the moment; one
more mistake and I might lose my job” and
“The general was on a tightrope as to
whether he should advance or retreat”.
39. (D)
expression refers to an individual’s talent To be in a difficult situation. If someone is
for verbal fluency, especially the ability to “in a fix”, the person is in a difficult,
talk persuasively. This expression may be troublesome, dangerous or awkward
related to the Irish and Gaelic word `gab', situation from which it is hard to extricate
oneself. We sometimes say “in a pickle or becomes meaningful now. Part (P) does not
spot” to refer to the difficult situation fit after the introductory part. Part (R) does
which puts one in a dilemma or not fit after part (Q). This eliminates option
predicament. “Pickle” in the sense of a (c) from consideration
mess or quandary, sometimes put as “in a 42. (C)
pretty pickle”, dates from the 1500s. RQSP. “More inspiring” is a comparative
“Spot”, often put as “in a bad/tough/tight degree adjective. It is followed by “than”.
spot”, dates from the early 1900s. Some The part sequence RQ exists only in option
more expressions that convey a similar (c). The sentence is read by using option (c)
sense are: “spot of trouble”, “bit of and is found to be both meaningful and
bother”, “in a bind/ box/ hole/ jam”, “in grammatically correct. (Word meaning
deep water”, “in a soup” and “in a tight “Heath” = vegetation dominated by dwarf
corner”. shrubs of the heather family.
40. (C) 43. (B)
To get benefit in bad situation. If someone
fishes in troubled waters the person tries to
capitalize on or benefit from a situation,
circumstance, or experience that is fraught
c k
RSPQ. The “gravitational pull” is exerted by
the earth. So, it is logical to place part (Q)
after (P). Part-sequence PQ is mentioned
only in option (b). The complete sentence is
with disorder, difficulty, confusion, stress,
etc. This term, first recorded in 1568,
expresses the even older notion that fish a
read by using option (b). The sentence is
meaningful. The adverb phrase of place “on
r
the ground” is positioned after the verb
bite more readily when seas are rough. Two
example sentences are: “All they wanted
was to make bad blood between them and
fish in troubled waters” and “The company
B C
“falls”. It is followed by part (P) which
mentions the reason. There is no need to
waste time in checking other options.
44. (A)
could make more money by selling
fishing in troubled waters”.

41. (D)
SRPQ. The sentence can easily be
S
armaments abroad, but they would be
S
SRPQ. The subject of the sentence is “the
knocking”. It is required to be followed by a
verb. So, the focus is on options starting
with a verb i.e. (S) and (P). Consequently,
option (d) is not considered. “Knocking” is a
understood by inserting the words “which singular noun and cannot take the plural
are” before part (S). The original question verb “were”. So, option (c) is also not
has a typographical error. “An” in part (Q) considered. The sense of the sentence is
should be replaced by “and”. The sentence that first the knocking ceased. Thereafter,
the echoes (echo = a sound or sounds 49. (D)
caused by the reflection of sound waves Larger. Note the use of “than”. It implies
from a surface back to the listener) that the adjective should be in comparative
continued to exist for some time before degree. This rules out options (a) and (c)
eventually fading away. This sequence of from consideration. A queen bee is larger
actions does not fit with option (b). A final than other bees in the hive
reading of the sentence is done by using 50. (A)
option (a). The sentence has a flow and the Lay. One meaning of the verb “lay” with an
sequence of events is correct. ensuing object refers to a female bird,
45. (B) insect, reptile, or amphibian that produces
RQPS. The verb “is” in the opening part an egg or eggs from inside the body.
cannot be followed by the conjunction 51. (B)
“and”. This eliminates option (a) from The pitch and loudness of sound depend
consideration. Part (R), which ends with a upon the frequency and amplitude
preposition, cannot be placed at the end of
the sentence. This eliminates option (c)
from consideration. Neither does part (S) fit
after the opening part nor does (R) fit after
c
explanation of statement I.
52. (A)
k
respectively. Both are individually correct
but statement II is not the correct
(Q). This eliminates option (d) from

consideration. The only remaining option
(b) is used to complete the sentence and it a
Sound cannot travel through a vacuum. A
vacuum is an area without any air, like
r
space. So, sound cannot travel through
is found to be grammatically correct.
46. (A)
Unlike. Here, the preposition “unlike”
means “different from; not similar to”.
B C
space because there is no matter for the
vibrations to work in. Both the statements
are individually true and statement II is the
correct explanation of Statement I.
47. (C)
S
Member. The noun “member” refers to a
S
person, animal, or plant belonging to a
particular group.
48. (D)
53. (B)
The Government of India Act, 1935
introduced dyarchy at the centre. Dyarchy
system means division of subjects of
provincial government into reserved and
Colony. In Biology, the noun “colony” refers transferred subjects. The Government of
to a community of animals or plants of one India Act, 1935 granted the provincial
kind living close together or forming a autonomy in India. Both the statements are
physically connected structure.
individually true and statement II is not the The nucleus is the control center of the cell
correct explanation of Statement I. and houses genetic information. The
54. (C) mitochondria and chloroplasts both
The great painters in Aurangazeb’s court produce energy, in animal and plant cells,
were Bishan Das, Mohammad Nadir and respectively.
Ustad Mansur. With Aurangazeb, paintings 58. (B)
and other art forms ceased to be Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum’s (SER)
importance in the Mughal Court leading to main functions are the synthesis of lipids,
migration of many of the artists to different steroid hormones, the detoxification of
parts of the country. harmful metabolic byproducts and the
55. (B) storage and metabolism of calcium ions
Photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the within the cell. The smooth ER is
sunlit ocean transforms dissolved inorganic distinguished from the other parts of the
carbon and nutrients into organic matter. endoplasmic reticulum by the absence of
Also, algae are found both in hot and cold
water. But the existence of algae has got
nothing to do with the organic carbon
production of phytoplankton.
membrane-bound ribosomes.
59. (A)
c k
Apical meristem causes primary growth,
the growth resulting plant to get longer. So,
So, answer is (b). Both the statements are
individually true but statement II is not the
correct explanation of statement I. a
if apical meristem is either damaged or cut,
the process of growth would no longer take
r
place and the plant will stop growing in
56. (A)
When a wind, usually above a height of 600
meters, blows parallel to the isobars, it is
called geostrophic wind. It is the horizontal
B C
length.
60. (C)
Monera are unicellular organism's having
prokaryotic cellular structure. Protista are
S
wind velocity in which the Coriolis force
exactly balances the horizontal pressure
S
force. Both these opposing forces reach a
state of equilibrium called geographic
balance. Statement I is true and statement
also unicellular organisms though possess
eukaryotic cellular organisation. Well
defined as well membrane-bounded
cellular organelles are present. Monera are
simple in structure, with no complexity.
II is true also II is correct explanation of I. 61. (A)
57. (A) Jaundice is a waterborne disease. It is a
The three organelles that contain DNA are yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous
the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts. membranes, and the whites of the eyes
caused by increased amounts of bilirubin in Na = 23
the blood. Jaundice is a sign of an C = 12
underlying disease process. Normally, the O = 16
liver metabolizes and excretes the bilirubin Molar mass of Anhydrous Sodium
in the form of bile. Carbonate → Na₂CO₃
62. (B) ⇒ (2 × Na) + C + (3 × O)
O has 6 electrons in its outermost orbit and ⇒ (2 × 23) + 12 + (3 × 16)
is short of two electrons to obtain octate ⇒ 46 + 12 + 48
configuration. So, in Na2O each sodium ⇒ 106 u
atom releases 1 electron and those two 66. (C)
electrons are caught by 1 oxygen atom and Syngas is an abbreviation for synthesis gas,
thus forming Na2O. Sodium oxide is a which is a mixture comprising of carbon
chemical compound with the formula monoxide, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen.
Na₂O. The syngas is produced by gasification of a
63. (D)
First Isotopes → 16u
Second Isotopes → 18u
Proportion of Isotopes = 3 : 1
67. (D)
c k
carbon containing fuel to a gaseous product
that has some heating value.
The range of human hearing is about 20 Hz

Now, Average atomic Oxygen =
=
(48𝑢+18𝑢)
66𝑢
4
16𝑢×3+18𝑢×1
3+1
r a
to 20,000 Hz. Ultrasound waves have
frequencies above about 20,000 Hz (which
is 20 kHz). As this is above the normal
= 4
= 16.5u
64. (C)
Milk is an example of a heterogeneous
B C
hearing range for humans, we cannot hear
ultrasound.
68. (A)
Ampere’s Law states that a current (i) in a
S S
mixture. Mixtures can be separated into
two or more individual substances by
physical means. Our glass of ice water is a
mixture because we can easily separate the
ice from the liquid water by filtration.
wire induces a magnetic field (B) around
the wire proportional to that current.
69. (C)
The pressure increase is caused by the
number of particles hitting against the walls
65. (B) of the container. So, if number of
Molar mass molecules decrease than the pressure also
Given: decreases.
70. (B)
An angstrom = 0.1 nanometer. There are 10 76. (D)
angstroms in a nanometer. There are also The temperature of the troposphere is
related as both units are used to measure highest near the surface of the Earth and
distances. declines with altitude. On average, the
71. (A) temperature gradient of the troposphere is
LED's full form is Light Emitting Diode which 6.5°C per 1,000 m (3.6°F per 1,000 feet) of
means the screen of LED is made up of altitude.
millions of diodes fabricated electronically 77. (B)
to create a screen for visualization. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and
72. (B) there is a distinct zone called the halocline
Potential Energy, PE = q × ∆V (compare this with thermocline), where
= 1.6 × 10¯¹ × 1000 salinity increases sharply.
⇒PE = 1.6 × 10¯¹⁶ J 78. (C)
73. (B) Permanent hardness in water is hardness
The sun rises in the east and sets in the
west direction due to the Earth’s rotation
around the sun towards the east direction.
Hence, the eastern most regions receive
c k
due to the presence of the chlorides,
nitrates and sulphates of calcium and
magnesium, which will not be precipitated
by boiling. The lime scale can build up on
the sunrise first. Accordingly, the
chronological order of the given cities
based on their timings of sunrise are: a
the inside of the pipe restricting the flow of
water or causing a blockage.
79. (A)
r
Imphal, Itanagar, Aizwal, Agartala.
74. (D)
In deltaic plain, the uplands are called as
Chars. It is made up of flood plain
B C
Copper upon reacting with dilute nitric acid
produces nitric oxide gas as one of the
products along with blue colored aqueous
copper nitrate.
called bils.
75. (C)
S S
sediments. The marshy areas of delta are
Bhadra is down south in Karnataka, Simlipal

in Odisha comes next, Pachmarhi in Satpura
8HNO3 (dil) + 3Cu → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO
+4H2O
80. (D)
A tribasic acid is an acid that has three
hydrogen ions to donate to a base in an
Ranges of Madhya Pradesh comes next, acid-base reaction. Therefore, a tribasic
Shikari Devi in Himachal Pradesh in the molecule has three replaceable hydrogen
North stands last in the order from south to atoms; Phosphoric acid and citric acid are
north. examples of tribasic acids.
81. (D) influence of light during the light reaction
Carbon forms a double covalent bond, of photosynthesis.
which means that two pairs of bonding 86. (B)
electrons are shared. The bonds between The reflex arc is a special type of neural
atoms of carbon in the layers of graphite circuit that begins with a sensory neuron at
may be strong, but the bonds that are a receptor (e.g., a pain receptor in the
formed by carbon atoms between layers fingertip) and ends with a motor neuron at
are quite weak. These atoms are held an effector (e.g., a skeletal muscle).
together by Van Der Waal's forces 87. (D)
82. (A) If one set of chromosomes for a given plant
Dry Ice is the common name for solid is represented as N; in case of double
carbon dioxide (CO2). It gets this name fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm
because it does not melt into a liquid when nucleus of a diploid plant, it would have 2N
heated. and 3N sets of chromosomes respectively.
83. (D)
The liver secretes bile into the duodenum
to neutralize the acidic conditions from the
stomach, and the pancreatic duct empties
88. (B)
To find RAB:
1
𝑅1
c
1 1
= + =
𝑅 𝑅
k 2
𝑅
into the duodenum, adding bicarbonate to
neutralize the acidic chyme, thus creating a
neutral environment.
r a
Now R1 and R in series
𝑅1 =
𝑅
2
𝑅 3𝑅
84. (A)
The left atrium (or auricle) receives the
oxygenated blood from the left and right
pulmonary veins, which it pumps to the left
B C 1
𝑅2 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅 = + 𝑅 =
1
Now,𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅 = 𝑅⋅𝑅
𝐴𝐵 2
1
2
𝑅+𝑅2
2
3𝑅
2
S
ventricle (through the mitral valve) for
pumping out through the aorta for systemic
circulation.
85. (A)
S
Due to photolysis of water, oxygen is 89. (C)
𝑅𝐴𝐵 =
𝑅 ⋅ 𝑅2
=
∴ 𝑅𝐴𝐵 = 𝑅
𝑅⋅ 2
𝑅 + 𝑅2 𝑅 + 3𝑅
3
5
2
=
3𝑅
5
released during photosynthesis. It is the Absolute zero temperature at which a

process of breakdown of water molecule thermodynamic system has the lowest
into hydrogen and oxygen under the energy. It corresponds to −273.15°C on the
Celsius temperature scale and to −459.67°F microscope will decrease and but that of
on the Fahrenheit temperature scale. telescope will increase.
90. (B) 95. (C)
𝐺𝑀
The energy of UV light photons is higher Acceleration due to gravity, 𝑔 = 𝑅2
than that of visible light photons, UV light g = acceleration due to gravity (units m/𝑠 2 )
photons. Visible light has a wavelength G = the universal gravitational constant,
range from ~400 nm to ~700 𝐺 = 6.673 × 10−11 𝑁 · 𝑚2 𝑘𝑔−2 .
nm. Electromagnetic waves with shorter m = mass of a large body (for example,
wavelengths and higher frequencies Earth)
include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma r = the distance from the center of mass of
rays. X-rays are a high-energy type of the large body
electromagnetic radiation that has a much 𝑀1 = M, 𝑀2 = 2M, 𝑅1 = R and 𝑅2 = 2R
shorter wavelength than visible light so x- 𝐺𝑀
ray photons have much higher energies 𝑔2 ( 𝑅2 )2 𝐺𝑀2 𝑅12
= ⇒ ×
than photons of light.
91. (B)
Time period= 2𝜋
√𝑡
𝑔
𝑔1 (𝐺𝑀)
𝑔2
𝑅 1
=
2𝑀
𝑔1 (2𝑅)2 𝑀
c×k
𝑅22
𝑅2
𝑀1
New time period = T1/T2 = 𝑇√L2 /L1
T2 = 2T
= 𝑇√4𝐿/𝐿 = 2𝑇
96. (B)
r a 𝑔2 =
𝑔1
2
The Bhagirathi is the source of the river

92. (C)
The correct colour coding of the wires are:
Red-live wire, Green-ground wire, Black-
neutral wire.
B C
Ganga in the Uttarkashi district of
Uttarakhand. The Alaknanda system drains
parts of Chamoli, Tehri, and Pauri Districts.
93. (B)
S
According to the Ohm’s law current I is
S
inversely proportional to the resistance R,
so when current increases, the resistance
will decrease. Now, the correct sequence is
River Nayar flows through Lansdowne.
Narendra Nagar is a charming hamlet
offering panoramic views of the Ganga
River.
97. (C)
R1 < R3 <R2. Yamo is a warm and dry wind in Japan.
94. (D) Black Roller is a warm wind in the Great
If the focal length of the objective lens is Plains of the USA. Bise is an extremely cold
increased than magnifying power of
wind that blows in France. Haboob is a cold Decomposition does not cause
wind in Sudan. metamorphism.
98. (D) 103. (C)
Majuli is the biggest river island in the FeCl3 is an acidic salt that is able to produce
world which is located on the Brahmaputra protons (H+) in aqueous solution through
River in the state of Assam. hydrolysis. Fe3 + ion acts as a Lewis acid in
99. (D) water. So FeCl3 having pH less than 7.
Nagaland only state to record negative 104. (C)
population growth. While all the north An oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction is a
eastern states recorded the decadal type of chemical reaction that involves a
population growth more or less around the transfer of electrons between two species.
national average of Nagaland recorded the An oxidation-reduction reaction is any
same at minus 0.40%. chemical reaction in which the oxidation
100. (C) number of a molecule, atom, or ion change
Nimbostratus clouds form a dark gray, wet
looking cloudy layer associated with
continuously falling rain or snow. They
often produce precipitation that is usually
2Mg→2Mg+2 + 2e-
105. (B)
c k
by gaining or losing an electron.
2Mg + O2 →2MgO
light to moderate.
101. (B)
Kolkata Port is a riverine port situated on a
Ammonium sulphide solutions are used
occasionally in photographic developing, to
r
apply patina to bronze, and in textile
the bank of the Hooghly River. Mormugoa
Harbor is at the estuarine system formed
by the Zuari and Mandovi rivers.
Visakhapatnam Port in Andhra Pradesh is
B C
manufacturing. Also, due to its offensive
smell, it is the active ingredient in a variety
of pranks including the common stink
bomb.
S
the landlocked port encircled by land with
an opening into the sea. Mahanadi Paradip
S
Port is located at the confluence of river
Mahanadi in Bay of Bengal in Odisha.
102. (C)
106. (A)
Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed
of calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the
chemical formula CaSO4.2H2O. It is widely
mined and is used as a fertilizer, and as the
There are 3 main agents that cause main constituent in many forms of plaster,
metamorphism. Factors that cause an blackboard chalk and wallboard.
increase in temperature, pressure, and 107. (C)
chemical changes are the three agents.
The Law of Conservation of Mass dates 112. (B)
from Antoine Lavoisier's 1789 discovery Coefficient of area Expansion, β = 1.6 × 10¯⁵
that mass is neither be created nor K¯¹
destroyed in chemical reactions. In other Now Coefficient of volume Expansion
words, the mass of any one element at the 3
𝑦 = ×𝛽
beginning of a reaction will equal the mass 2
of that element at the end of the reaction. 3
= × 1.6 × 10¯⁵
108. (A) 2
X-ray is an electromagnetic radiation of = 2.4 × 10¯5 K¯¹
extremely short wavelength and high 113. (A)
Speed of light in air
frequency, with wavelengths ranging from Refractive Index =
Speed of light in medium
about 0.1 nanometer to 10 nanometer n=v
c
equal to 1 Å and corresponding frequencies 1

from about 1016 to 1020 Hertz (Hz). Now n α v
c n1 v1 v1
109. (D)
Average acceleration,
𝑎=
∆𝑣
∆𝑡
=
4−8
12 − 8
= −1𝑚/𝑠 2
⇒ =⇒=
v n2
Or v1 = 1.5 v2
114. (C)
=
v2
= 1.5 =
v2
c k
110. (A)
100
Power = focal length in cm dioptre
Given focal length = 50 cm
r a
The presence of four major greenhouse
gases, namely water vapor (H2O), carbon
dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and nitrous
oxide (N2O) in the Earth's atmosphere
Power= 100/50 = +2 dioptre
111. (C)
Given:
T = 4s
B C
keeps the average temperature of 15ᵒC
(59ᵒF), whereas without the greenhouse
effect the average temperature would be a
frosty -18ᵒC (0ᵒF).
S = 100 cm
G = 1000 cm/s²
Now, S = ut + gt²
S = 1/2at² S S 115. (A)
The Koppen’s climate classification scheme
divides climates into five main climate
groups: A (tropical), B(dry), C(temperate), D
a =2S/t2 = 2×100/42= 200/16= 12.5 cm²/S (continental), and E (polar). Af = Tropical
Now acceleration, a = g sin θ rainforest climate; BWk = Cold desert
⇒ sin θ = a/g= 12.5/1000 = 1/80 climate, Csa = Hot-summer Mediterranean
θ = sin–1(1/80)
climate, Dfa = Hot-summer humid 120. (C)
continental climate. A virtual image is a copy of an object
116. (D) formed at the location from which the light
West Central Railway Zone is rays appear to come. Plane mirrors are the
headquartered at Jabalpur. Southeast only type of mirror for which a real object
Central Railway Zone is headquartered at always produces an image that is virtual,
Bilaspur. East Central Railway Zone is erect and of the same size as the object.
headquartered at Hajipur. North Eastern 121. (A)
Railway Zone is headquartered at An image in which up and down, as well as
Gorakhpur left and right, are interchanged; that is, an
117. (C) image that results from rotating the object
The correct descending order of Indian 180° about a line from the object to the
States in terms of sex ratio as per Census observer; such images are formed by most
2011 is: astronomical telescopes.
Meghalaya – Manipur – Mizoram – Tripura.
Manipur with sex ratio of 987, Meghalaya
with 989, Mizoram with 976, and Tripura
with 960.
122. (C)
𝛣 = 2𝑎
𝜇0 𝑛𝐼
, where,
c k
Magnetic Induction B₁ = 0.1 tesla
118. (C)
Perth has Mediterranean climate as Perth,
Western Australia is in or near the
a = Radius
I = current
r
n
a
n = No. of turns
β n a
β α 𝑥 = 𝑎 ⇒ = β2 ⇒ a 2 n1 = 4
subtropical dry forest biome. It does not fall
in
119. (D)
steppe climate.
The two main types of physical weathering:

B C
123. (C)
1 2
β2 = 4 × 0.1= 0.4 tesla
1
According to the Indian Constitution, there
S
Freeze-thaw occurs when water continually
seeps into cracks, freezes and expands,
S
eventually breaking the rock apart.
Exfoliation occurs as cracks develop parallel
to the land surface a consequence of the
are six basic Fundamental Rights of Indian
Citizens, which are right to equality, right
to freedom of religion, cultural and
educational rights, right to freedom, right
to constitutional remedies and right against
reduction in pressure during uplift and exploitation.
erosion. 124. (D)
The spread of Chili peppers to Asia was
most likely a natural consequence of its
introduction to Portuguese traders, who 127. (C)
aware of its trade value would have likely The Stamp Act Congress, or First Congress
promoted its commerce in the Asian spice of the American Colonies, was a meeting
trade routes then dominated by held between October 7 and 25, 1765, in
Portuguese and Arab traders. Chilies were New York City, consisting of representatives
brought from South America to India by the from some of the British colonies in North
Portuguese through their trading colony of America; it was the first gathering of
Goa. India is now the largest producer and elected representatives from several of the
exporter of chilies in the world, growing a American colonies to devise a unified
wide variety of different types. In India two protest against new British taxation
types of pepper existed before the arrival 128. (D)
of chili pepper – Black pepper and Pippali. The Italian traveler Nicolo Conti, who
Black pepper was called round pepper and visited Vijayanagara in 1420 during the
Pippali was called the long Pepper. reign of Deva Raya I. An Italian traveller,
125. (A)
Southern Indian trade guilds were formed
by merchants in order to organize and
expand their trading activities. Ayyavole
c k
Nicolo Conti (1420-1421 AD) visited
Vijayanagar Empire during the reign of
Devaraya-I (theTuluva dynasty ruler). He
gave a comprehensive account of the Hindu
were a group of 500 Swamis who
constituted themselves into a board of
merchants in Aihole.
129. (B)
r a
kingdom of Vijayanagar.
Jean-Baptiste Colbert founded the French

Manigramam flourished in Tamil Nadu in
the Pallava and Chola periods and was
active in South-east Asia. Anjuvannam
merchant guild was active in the 9th
B C
East India Company in 1664. The initial
attempts of the company to find a
successful colony on Madagascar got failed.
In 1667, under Francis Caron, the company
century not in 13th century.
126. (C)
S S
Adi Shankara or Shankara, was an early 8th
century Indian philosopher and theologian
who consolidated the doctrine of Advaita
established first factory at Surat and second
factory was established at Masulipatnam a
year later.
130. (A)
The Central Vigilance Commission was set
Vedanta. Philosophy of Ramanuja is known up by the Government in February, 1964 on
as Vishishtadvaita Vedanta. the recommendations of the Committee on
Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Santhanam, to advise and guide Central
Government agencies in the field road, cable car, pedestrian boardwalk and
of vigilance. monorail. A home to a popular resort that
131. (C) receives more than twenty million visitors
‘The Arctic Home in the Vedas’ is a book on per year. Attractions include long sheltered
the origin of Aryanic People by Bal beach, Fort Siloso, two golf courses, the
Gangadhar Tilak, Dadabhai Naoroji wrote Merlion, the Resorts World Sentosa, which
‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ features the Universal Studios Singapore
brought attention to the draining theme park and one of Singapore's two
of India's wealth into Britain. ‘Hind Swaraj casinos.
or Indian Home Rule’ is a book written by 135. (B)
Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. ‘The Government officials in India have
Discovery of India’ was written by India's repeatedly objected to China's Belt and
first Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Road Initiative (BRI), specifically because
Nehru during his imprisonment in 1942–46 they believe the "China–Pakistan Economic
at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra, India
by British during the British Raj before
independence of India.
132. (D)
and territorial integrity.
136. (C)
c k
Corridor" (CPEC) project ignores New
Delhi's essential concerns on sovereignty
The Official Mascot of 14th FIFA World Cup,

Russia 2018 is a wolf named Zabivaka, who
was a hit with fans at the 2017 FIFA
r a
The Group of Seven (G7) is a group consisting
of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the
United Kingdom, and the United States.
C
Confederations Cup. The animal's name is Russia is not a member of G7.
said to mean “the one who scores.” As part 137. (C)
of his look, the soccer-playing animal sports
goggles.
133. (B)
S
National Sports University. National Sports
B
Indian Home Rule League & Home Rule
League. The Indian Home Rule League and
Home Rule League were not simultaneously
launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie
S
University is a sports university in Manipur
in India. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has
laid foundation stone for National Sports
University on 16 March 2018.
134. (A)
Besant. Indian Home Rule League of Tilak
was launched in April 1916, while the Home
Rule League of Annie Besant came into
existence in September that year. As per a
common informal understanding between
Sentosa is an island resort off Singapore’s the two leaders, the Indian Home Rule
southern coast, connected to the city by league had to work in Maharashtra and
Central Provinces, while Home Rule League people by securing and protecting as
had to work in all India except Maharashtra effectively as it may, a social order, in
and Central Provinces. Commonweal and which justice-social, economic and political-
New India were the papers of Home Rule shall form in all institutions of national life.
League, while those of the Indian Home The State shall direct its policy in such a
Rule league were Kesari and Mahratta. manner as to secure the right of all men
138. (C) and women to an adequate means of
The Judges of the Supreme Court are livelihood, equal pay for equal work and
appointed by the President under clause (2) within limits of its economic capacity and
of Article 124 of the Constitution. a judge is development, to make effective provision
appointed to the supreme court by the for securing the right to work, education
president on the recommendation of the and to public assistance in the event of
collegium — a closed group of the Chief unemployment, old age, sickness and
Justice of India, the four most senior judges disablement or other cases of undeserved
of the court and the senior-most judge
hailing from the high court of a prospective
appointee.
139. (B)
141. (B)
c
The 42nd Amendment changed the
k
want. The protection of personal law does
not fall under the directives of state policy.
Mahalanobis strategy of development

emphasising basic heavy industries which
was adopted first of all in the Second Plan a
description of India from a "sovereign
democratic republic" to a "sovereign,
r
socialist secular democratic republic", and
also continued to hold the stage in Indian
planning right up to the Fifth Plan which
was terminated by the Janata Government
in March 1978, a year before its full term of
B C
also changed the words "unity of the
nation" to "unity and integrity of the
nation".
142. (B)
five years.
140. (C)
S S
The Constitution lays down certain
Directive Principles of State Policy, which
though not justiciable, are 'fundamental in
The place of East India Company settlement
in Madras was known as Fort St. George.
143. (C)
NITI Aayog's Composition
Management Index (CWMI) report ranked
Water
governance of the country', and it is the all the states in India on the basis of their
duty of the State to apply these principles composite water management. Gujarat was
in making laws. These lay down that the ranked the best state on the water
State shall strive to promote the welfare of management index followed by Madhya
Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka while human rights, environmental sanitation, non-
Rajasthan was ranked the lowest on the index. conventional sources of energy, waste
144. (C) management and social reforms through
According to the Ministry of Development of education.
North Eastern Region (DoNER), the Union 148. (D)
Home Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of The provision for National Emergency is
North Eastern Council (NEC), a statutory body provided for under the Article 352 of the
with Governors and Chief Ministers of all the constitution. The Union may decide to suspend
eight North Eastern States as its Member. The some, or all of the fundamental rights
Minister of State (Independent Charge), guaranteed by Part III (Articles 12 through 35)
Ministry of DoNER is the Vice Chairman of the of the constitution.
Council. 149. (C)
145. (B) The founders of the Theosophical Society,
World Blood Donor Day, 14 June 2018. Be there Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott, established
for someone else. Give blood. Share life. The the headquarters of the Society at Adyar near
slogan, “Be there for someone else. Give blood. Madras. In 1888, Mrs. Annie Besant joined the
Share life”, to draw attention to the roles that
voluntary donation systems play in encouraging
people to care for one another and generate k
Society in England. In 1907, after the passing of
c
Col. H. S. Olcott, one of the founders of the
Theosophical Society, Annie Besant became the
social ties and a united community.
146. (A)
Seva Bhoj Yojna is a Central Sector Scheme of
the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It
r a
second International President of the
Theosophical Society, an office which she held
until her death in 1933. In 1908 she announced
the formation of a Theosophical Order of
envisates to reimburse the Central Government
of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and
Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) so as
to less the financial burden of such Charitable
B C
Service. From 1908 onwards Dr. Besant
proceeded to enlarge the Headquarters estate
at Adyar. Her membership proved an asset of
greatest value to the Society.
Devotee.
147. (C)
S
Religious Institutions who provide Food/ Prasad
/Langar (Community Kitchen)/ Bhandara free of
S
cost without any discrimination to Public/
Bindeshwar Pathak is an Indian sociologist. He

150. (B)
Bipin Chandra Pal (1858-1932) was a noted
politician, journalist, an eminent orator and one
of the three famous patriots, known as the
trilogy of Lal Bal Pal. He got inspired by the
extremist patriotism of Tilak, Lala and
established the Sulabh International Social Aurobindo. As a member of Indian National
Service Organization in 1970, combining Congress, he founded the Brahmo Samaj. At
technical innovation with humanitarian the 1887 Madras session of the Congress, Pal
principles. The organization works to promote made a strong plea for repealing the Arms Act.
MATHEMATICS
1. What is the value of log 7 log 7 √7√7√7 equal Where A’ is the transpose of A.
to?
(a) 3 log 2 7 5. If A, B and C are subsets of a Universal set,
(b) 1 – 3 log 2 7 then which one of the following is not correct?
(c) 1 − 3 𝑙𝑜𝑔7 2 (a) 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶 )
7 (b) 𝐴′ ∪ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = (𝐵 ′ ∩ 𝐴)′ ∪ 𝐴
(d) 8 (c) 𝐴′ ∪ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶 ) = ( 𝐶 ′ ∩ 𝐵)′ ∩ 𝐴′
(d) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶) ∩ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶)
2. If an infinite GP has the first term x and the Where A’ is the complement of A.
sum 5, then which of the following is correct?
(a) x < –10 6. Let x be the number of integers lying
(b) –10 < x < 0 between 2999 and 8001 which have at least
(c) 0 < x < 10 two digits equal. Then x is equal to
(d) x > 10
3. Consider the following expressions:

1
1. 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 − 𝑥
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2480
2481
2482
2483
c k
3. 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑎𝑏
2
𝑑 𝑒
2. √𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑥 − 𝑐 + 𝑥 − 𝑥 2
equal to a 1 1
7. The sum of the series 3 − 1 + 3 − 9 + ⋯is
r
C
4. 2 20
𝑥 −𝑎𝑥+𝑏 3 (a) 9
1 2
5. − (b)
9
B
𝑥 𝑥+5
20
Which of the above are rational expressions? 9
(c)
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only 4
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
S S
4. A square matrix A is called orthogonal if
(d)
4
9
Consider the information given below and

answer the two (02) items that follow:
A survey was conducted among 300 students. If
(a) 𝐴 = 𝐴2 was found that 125 students like to play cricket,
(b) 𝐴’ = 𝐴–1 145 students like to play football and 90
(c) 𝐴 = 𝐴–1 students like to play tennis. 32 students like to
(d) A = A’ play exactly two games out of the three games.
8. How many students like to play all the three 3. (𝜆𝐴)–1 = 𝜆𝐴–1 where 𝜆 is a scalar
games? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 14 below:
(b) 21 (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 28 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 35 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. How many students like to play exactly
only one game? 13. Which one of the following factors does the
(a) 196 expansions of the determinant
(b) 228 𝑥 𝑦 3
2 3
(c) 254 (𝑥 5𝑦 9 )contain?
3 5
(d) 268 𝑥 10𝑦 27
10. If 𝛼 and 𝛽(≠ 0) are the roots of the (a) x–3

quadratic Equation 𝑥 2 + 𝛼𝑥 − 𝛽 = 0, then the
quadratic expression−𝑥 2 + 𝛼𝑥 + 𝛽 = 0, where
𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 has
(a)
1
Least value − 4
(b)
(c)
(d)
x –y
y–3
x – 3y
c k
(b)
(c)
Least value − 4
Greatest value
9
1
4
9
(
a
14. What is the adjoint of the matrix
𝑐𝑜𝑠 (−𝜃) −𝑠𝑖𝑛(−𝜃)
r
−𝑠𝑖𝑛(−𝜃) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (−𝜃)
( 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 −𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃)
)?
(d) Greatest value

4
11. What is the coefficient of the middle term

in the binomial expansion of (2+3x)4?
B C
(a)
(b)
(c)
(
(
−𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
)
)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6
12
108
216
S S (d) (
−𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 −𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
15. What is the value of

−1 + 𝑖√3
3𝑛
)
−1 − 𝑖√3
3𝑛
12. For a square matrix A, which of the ( ) +( )

2 2
following
where 𝑖 = √−1 ?
1. (𝐴–1 )–1 = 𝐴
1 (a) 3
2. 𝑑𝑒𝑡 (𝐴–1 ) =
𝑑𝑒𝑡 𝐴 (b) 2
(c) 1 20. What should be the value of x so that the
(d) 0 2 4
matrix ( ) does not have an inverse?
−8 𝑥
16. There are 17 cricket players, out of which 5
(a) 16
players can bowl. In how many ways can a (b) –16
team of 11 players be selected so as to include (c) 8
3 bowlers? (d) –8
(a) C(17, 11)
(b) C(12, 8) 21. The system of equations
2𝑥 + 𝑦 – 3𝑧 = 5
(c) C(17, 5) × (5, 3)
3𝑥 – 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 5 and
(d) C(5, 3) × C(12, 8) 5𝑥 – 3𝑦 – 𝑧 = 16
(a) is inconsistent
17. What is the value of log 9 27 + log 8 32?
7 (b) is consistent, with a unique solution
(a) 2 (c) is consistent, with infinitely many
19
(b)
k
6
solutions
(c) 4 (d) has its solution lying along x-axis in
(d) 7
18. If A and B are two invertible square

matrices of same order, then what is (𝐴𝐵)−1
a c
three dimensional space
22. Which one of the following is correct in

respect of the cube roots of unity?
equal to?
(a)
(b)
(c)
𝐵–1 𝐴−1
𝐴–1 𝐵–1
𝐵–1 𝐴
C r
(a) They are collinear
(b) They lie on a circle of radius √3
(c) They form an equilateral triangle
(d) 𝐴–1 𝐵
S
19. If a + b + c = 0, then one of the solutions of
𝑎−𝑥 𝑐 𝑏
B
23. If u, v and w (all positive) are the
𝑝𝑡ℎ , 𝑞𝑡ℎ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 𝑡ℎ terms of a GP, the
determinant of the matrix
| 𝑐
𝑏
(a)
(b)
𝑏−𝑥
𝑎
𝑥=𝑎
𝑥=√
𝑐−𝑥
𝑎 | = 0 is
3(𝑎 2+𝑏 2+𝑐 2)

2
S ln 𝑢 𝑝 1
(ln 𝑣 𝑞 1) is
ln 𝑧 𝑟 1
(a)
(b)
0
1
2(𝑎 2+𝑏 2+𝑐 2) (c) (𝑝 – 𝑞) (𝑞 – 𝑟) (𝑟 – 𝑝)
(c) 𝑥=√ 3 (d) 𝑙𝑛 𝑢 × 𝑙𝑛 𝑣 × 𝑙𝑛 𝑤
(d) 𝑥=0
24. Let the coefficient of the middle term of the 28. Consider the following in respect of
binomial expansion of (1 + 𝑥)2𝑛 be 𝛼 and matrices A, B and C of same order:
those of two middle terms of the binomial 1. (A + B + C)’ = A’ + B’ + C’
expansion of (1 + 𝑥)2𝑛– 1 be 𝛽 and 𝛾. Which 2. (AB)’ = A’B’
one of the following relations is correct? 3. (ABC)’ = C’B’A’
(a) 𝛼 > 𝛽 + 𝛾 Where A’ is the transpose of the matrix A.
(b) 𝛼 < 𝛽 + 𝛾 Which of the above are correct?
(c) 𝛼 = 𝛽 + 𝛾 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 𝛼 = 𝛽𝛾 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
25. Let 𝐴 = (𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 ∶ – 1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1) (d) 1, 2 and 3
𝐵 = {𝑦 ∈ 𝑅 ∶ −1 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 1}and S be the subset
of 𝐴 × 𝐵, defined by 29. The sum of the binary numbers (11011)2 ,
𝑆 = [(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝐴 × 𝐵 ∶ 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1] (10110110)2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (10011𝑥0𝑦)2 is the binary
Which one of the following is correct? number (101101101)2 . What are the values of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
S is a one-one function from A into B
S is a many-one function from A into B
S is a bijective mapping from A into B
S is not a function
x and y?
(a) x = 1, y = 1
(b) x = 1, y = 0
(c) x = 0, y = 1
c k
26. Let 𝑇𝑟 be the 𝑟 𝑡ℎ term of an AP for r = 1, 2,
r a
(d) x = 0, y = 0
3,…… If for some distinct positive integers m 30. Let matrix B be the adjoint of a square
1 1
and n we have 𝑇𝑚 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑇𝑛 = , then what matrix A, 𝑙 be the identity matrix of same order
C
𝑛 𝑚
is 𝑇𝑚𝑛 equal to? as A. 𝐼𝑓 𝑘(≠ 0) is the determinant of the
(a) (𝑚𝑛) −1 matrix A, then what is AB equal to?
(b) 𝑚−1 + 𝑛−1
(c) 1
(d) 0
S B
(a) 𝑙
(b) 𝑘𝑙
(c) 𝑘 2 𝑙
1
(d) (𝑘) 𝑙
S
27. Suppose 𝑓(𝑥) is such a quadratic
expression that it is positive for all real x. 31. If (0.2)𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 log10 2 = 0.3010, then
If 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑓 (𝑥) + 𝑓’(𝑥) + 𝑓’’(𝑥), then for any what is the value of x to the nearest tenth?
real x. Then for any real x.
(a) 𝑔(𝑥) < 0
(a) –10.0
(b) –0.5
(b) 𝑔(𝑥) > 0 (c) –0.4
(c) 𝑔(𝑥) = 0 (d) –0.2
(d) 𝑔(𝑥) ≥ 0
32. The total number of 5-digit numbers that (c) Both 1 and 2
can be composed of distinct digits from 0 to 9 is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 45360
(b) 30240 2 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
36. What is equal to?
1+tan2 𝜃
(c) 27216 (a) cos 2𝜃
(d) 15120 (b) tan 2𝜃
(c) sin 2𝜃
33. What is the determinant of the matrix
𝑥 𝑦 𝑦+𝑧 (d) cosec 2𝜃
( 𝑧 𝑥 𝑧 + 𝑥 )?
𝑦 𝑧 𝑥+𝑦 37. If 𝑠𝑒𝑐 (𝜃 − 𝛼) sec 𝜃 and 𝑠𝑒𝑐 (𝜃 + 𝛼) are in
(a) (𝑥 – 𝑦) (𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑧 – 𝑥) AP, where 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛼 ≠ 1, then what is the value
(b) (𝑥 – 𝑦) (𝑦 – 𝑥) of 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 + cos 𝛼 ?
(c) (𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑧 – 𝑥) (a) 0
(d) (𝑧 – 𝑥)2 (𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) (b) 1
34. If A, B and C are the angles of a triangle and

1
| 1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴
1
1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵
1
1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐶 |
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 + sin2 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵 + sin2 𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐶 + sin2 𝐶
(c)
(d)
1
2
–1
c k
38. If A + B + C = 180°, then what is
=0
then which one of the following is correct?
(a) The triangle ABC is isosceles
(a)
(b)
(c)
r a
sin 2A – sin 2B – sin 2C equal to?
–4 sin A sin B sin C
–4 cos A sin B cos C
–4 cos A cos B sin C
(b) The triangle ABC is equilateral
(c) The triangle ABC is scalene
(d) No conclusion can be drawn with regard
to the nature of the triangle
B C
(d) –4 sin A cos B cos C
39. A balloon is directly above one end of a
𝟏. 𝐴2 – 𝐵2 = (𝐴 + 𝐵) (𝐴– 𝐵)
𝟐. (𝐴 – 𝐼)(𝐼 + 𝐴) = 0 ⟺ 𝐴2 = 𝐼
S
35. Consider the following in respect of
matrices A and B of same order:
S
Where I is the identity matrix and O is the null
bridge. The angle of depression of the other
end of the bridge from the balloon is 48°. If the
height of the balloon above the bridge is 122 m,
then what is the length of the bridge?
(a)
(b)
122 sin 48° m
122 tan 42° m
matrix. (c) 122 cos 48° m
Which of the above is/are correct? (d) 122 tan 48° m
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
40. A is an angle in the fourth quadrant. If 44. If cos 𝛼 and 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛽(0 < 𝛼 < 𝛽 < 𝜋) are
satisfies the trigonometric equation the roots of the quadratic equation 4𝑥 2 – 3 =
( 2 ) 2
3 3– tan 𝐴– 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 = 1. which one of the 0, then what is the value of sec 𝛼 × 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝛽 ?
following is a value of A? 4
(a) −
3
(a) 300° 4
(b)
(b) 315° 3
3
(c) 330° (c) 4
3
(d) 345° (d) −
4
41. The top of a hill observed from the top and 45. Consider the following values of x:
bottom of a building of height h is at angles of 1. 8
𝜋 𝜋
elevation and respectively. What is the 2. -4
6 3
height of the hill? 1
3. 6
(a) 2ℎ 1
3ℎ 4. −4
(b)
(c)
(d)
2
ℎ
ℎ
2
(a)
𝜋
tan−1 (3𝑥) = ?
3 only
4 k
Which of the above values of x is/are the
solution(s) of the equation tan−1 (2𝑥) +
c
42. What is/are the solution(s) of the
trigonometric equation 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝑥 =
√3 , where 0 < 𝑥 < 2𝜋 ?
5𝜋
(b)
(c)
(d)
a
2 and 3 only
r
1 and 4 only
4 only
C
(a) 3
only
𝜋
(b) 3
only 46. If the second term of a GP is 2 and the sum
(c)
(d)
𝜋 only
𝜋 5𝜋
𝜋, 3 , 3
S B
of its infinite term is 8, then the GP is
(a)
(b)
1 1
8, 2, , , ….
10, 2, ,
2 8
2 2
5 25
, … ..
S
𝜋 1 1
43. If, 𝜃 = 8 , then what is the value of (c) 4, 2, 1, , , … ..
2 22
(2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 1)10 (2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 − 1)10 (2𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 − (d)
3 3
6, 3, 2 , 4 , … ..
1)10 (2𝑐𝑜𝑠 4𝜃 − 1)10 ?
(a) 0 𝑎−𝑏
(b) 1 47. If a, b, c are in AP or GP HP, then is
𝑏−𝑐
(c) 2 equal to
𝑏 𝑏
(d) 4 (a) 𝑎
𝑜𝑟 1 𝑜𝑟 𝑐
𝑐 𝑐
(b) 𝑜𝑟 𝑏 𝑜𝑟 1 (b) (𝑥 − 𝑥1 )2 + (𝑦 − 𝑦1 )2 = 𝑥2 𝑦2
𝑎
(c)
𝑎
1 𝑜𝑟 𝑏 𝑜𝑟 𝑐
𝑎 (c) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥1 𝑥2 + 2𝑦1 𝑦2 = 0
𝑎 𝑐 (d) (𝑥 − 𝑥1 )(𝑥 − 𝑥2 ) + (𝑦 − 𝑦1 )(𝑦 −
(d) 1 𝑜𝑟 𝑏 𝑜𝑟 𝑎 𝑦2 ) = 0
48. What is the sum of all three-digit numbers 52. The second degree equation 𝑥 2 +
that can be formed using all the digits 3, 4 and 4𝑦 2 – 2𝑥– 4𝑦 + 2 = 0 represents
5, when repetition of digits is not allowed? (a) A point
(a) 2664 (b) An ellipse of semi-major axis 1
(b) 3882
(c) An ellipse with eccentricity √3
(c) 4044 2
(d) 4444 (d) None of the above
49. The ratio of roots of the equations 𝑎𝑥 2 + 53. The angle between the two lines 𝑙𝑥 + 𝑚𝑦 +
𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 and 𝑝𝑥 2 + 𝑞𝑥 + 𝑟 = 0 are 𝑛 = 0 and 𝑙’𝑥 + 𝑚’𝑦 + 𝑛’ = 0 is given by
tan–1 𝜃. What is 𝜃 equal to?
equal. If D1 and D2 are respective discriminants,
(a)
𝑎2
𝑝2
𝐷
then what is 1 equal to?
𝐷2
(a)
(b)
|
|
𝑙𝑚 ′ − 𝑙 ′ 𝑚
𝑙𝑙 ′ −𝑚𝑚 ′
𝑙𝑚 ′ +𝑙 ′ 𝑚
𝑙𝑙 ′ +𝑚𝑚 ′
𝑙𝑚 ′ −𝑙 ′ 𝑚
|
|
c k
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑏2
𝑞2
𝑐2
𝑟2
None of the above
(c)
(d)
|
|
r a
𝑙𝑙 ′ +𝑚𝑚′
𝑙𝑚 ′ +𝑙 ′ 𝑚
𝑙𝑙 ′ −𝑚𝑚 ′
|
|
50. If 𝐴 = sin2 𝜃 + cos4 𝜃, then for all real 𝜃,

B C
1. The distance between the lines 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 +
1
𝑐1 and 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐2 is √1+𝑚2
2
|𝑐 −𝑐 |
2. The distance between the lines 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 +

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1≤𝐴≤2
3
4
13
16
3
4
≤𝐴≤1
≤𝐴≤1
≤𝐴≤
13
16 S S 𝑐1 and 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 is √𝑎12
3. The distance between the lines 𝑥 = 𝑐1
and 𝑥 = 𝑐2 is |𝑐1 – 𝑐2 | .
|𝑐 −𝑐2 |

+𝑏 2
(a) 1 and 2 only

51. The equation of a circle whose end points (b) 2 and 3 only
of a diameter are (𝑥1 , 𝑦1 ) and (𝑥2 , 𝑦2 ) is
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) (𝑥 − 𝑥1 )(𝑥 − 𝑥2 ) + (𝑦 − 𝑦1 )(𝑦 −
(d) 1, 2 and 3
𝑦2 ) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2
55. What is equation of straight line passing 1. The angle between the planes
𝜋
through the point of intersection of the lines 2x – y + z = 1 and x + y + 2z = 3 is 3 .
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
2
+ 3 = 1 and 3 + 2 = 1 and parallel to the line 2. The distance between the planes
4x + 5y – 6 = 0? 6x – 3y + 6z + 2 = 0 and 2x – y + 2z + 4 = 0 is
10
(a) 20x + 25y – 54 = 0
9
(b) 25x + 20y – 54 = 0 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 4x + 5y – 54 = 0 (a) 1 only
(d) 4x + 5y – 45 = 0 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
56. What is the distance of the point (2, 3, 4) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
from the plane 3x – 6y + 2z + 11 =0?
(a) 1 unit 60. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 units Statement I: If the line segment joining the
(c) 3 units points P(m, n) and Q(r, s) subtends an angle 𝛼
(d) 4 units 𝑚𝑠−𝑛𝑟
57. Coordinates of the points O, P, Q and R are

respectively (0, 0, 0), (4, 6, 2m), (2, 0, 2n) and
(2, 4, 6). Let L, M, N and K be points on the
at the origin, then cos 𝛼 =
𝑎2 = 𝑏2 + 𝑐 2 – 2𝑏𝑐 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴.
2
k 2 2 2
.
√(𝑚 +𝑛 )(𝑟 +𝑠 )
Statements II: In any triangle ABC, it is true that
c
Which one of the following is correct in respect
sides OR, OP, PQ and QR respectively such that
LMNK is a parallelogram whose two adjacent
sides LK and LM are each of length √2. What
(a)
r a
of the above two statements?
Both Statement I and Statement II are
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
are the values of m and n respectively?
(a)
(b)
(c)
6, 2
1, 3
3, 1
B C
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true, but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
S
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
(d) None of the above false
58. The line

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
𝑥−1
2
−
𝑦−2
3
=
𝑧−3
3
x + y + z = 6, x + 2y – 3z = – 4
S
is given by
x + 2y – 2z = –1, 4x + 4y – 5z – 3 = 0
3x + 2y – 3z = 0, 3x – 6y + 3z = – 2
3x + 2y – 3z = – 2, 3x – 6y + 3z = 0
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
true
61. What is the area of the triangle with

1 1 1
vertices (𝑥1 , ) , (𝑥2 , ) , (𝑥3 , ) ?
𝑥1 𝑥2 𝑥3
(a) |(𝑥1 – 𝑥2 ) (𝑥2 – 𝑥3 ) (𝑥3 – 𝑥1 )|
(b) 0
(x1−x2 )(x2− x3 )(x3− x1 ) 1 1 1
(c) | | (b) 𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂ + 2 𝑘̂
𝑥1 𝑥2 𝑥3 √2
1 1 1
(d) |
(x1−x2 )(x2− x3 )(x3− x1 )
| (c) 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂
2𝑥1𝑥2 𝑥3 √3 √3 √3
1 1 1
(d) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
√3 √3 √3
2 2
62. If y-axis touches the circle 𝑥 + 𝑦 +
𝑐
𝑔𝑥 + 𝑓𝑦 + = 0 , then the normal at this 66. If |𝑎⃗| = 3, |𝑏⃗⃗| = 4 and |𝑎⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗| = 5 then
4
point intersects the circle at the point what is the value of |𝑎⃗ + 𝑏⃗⃗| =?
𝑔 𝑓
(a) (− , − )
2 2
(a) 8
(b) (−𝑔, − )
𝑓 (b) 6
2
𝑔 (c) 5√2
(c) (− , 𝑓)
2 (d) 5
(d) (−𝑔, −𝑓)
67. 𝑎 𝑏⃗⃗ and 𝑐⃗ be three mutually
Let ⃗⃗⃗⃗,
→ →
63. Let |a | ≠ 0, |b | ≠ 0. perpendicular vectors each of unit magnitude.
→ → →
→ → → → → →
(a + b ) · (a + b ) = |a |2 + |b | 2 | holds if and
only if
→ →
⃗⃗
𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗, B = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
If A = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑏 − 𝑐⃗ then which one of the following is
correct?
(a) |𝐴⃗| > |𝐵⃗⃗| > |𝐶⃗|
c k
𝑎 − 𝑏⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗ and C = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎−
(a)
(b)
(c)
a and b are perpendicular
→
→
→
a and b are parallel
→
a and b are inclined at an angle of 45°
→
(b)
(c)
(d)
⃗
|𝐴| = |𝐵
r
|𝐴⃗| = |𝐵
|𝐴⃗| ≠ |𝐵
a
⃗⃗| ≠ |𝐶⃗|
⃗⃗| = |𝐶⃗|
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗|
⃗⃗| ≠ |𝐶
C
→
(d) a and b are anti-parallel
68. What is (𝑎⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗) × (𝑎⃗ + 𝑏⃗⃗) equal to?
→
64. If r = x𝑖̂ + y𝑗̂ + z𝑘̂ then what is r · ( 𝑖̂ +
𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂) equal to?
(a) x
S
→
B
(a)
(b)
(c)
𝑜⃗
𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗
2 (𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗)
2
(b)
(c)
(d)
x+y
–(x + y + z)
(x + y + z)
65. A unit vector perpendicular to each of the

vectors 2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and 3𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ is
S (d) |𝑎⃗|2 − |𝑏⃗⃗|
69. A spacecraft at 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ is subjected to a

force 𝜆𝑘̂ by firing a rocket. The spacecraft is
subjected to a moment of magnitude
(a) 𝜆
1 1 1
(a) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ (b) √3𝜆
√3 √3 √3
(c) √5𝜆 sin 2𝑥
if 𝑥 ≠ 0
(d) None of these 𝑓(𝑥) = { 5𝑥
2
if 𝑥 = 0
70. In a triangle ABC, if taken in order, consider 15
the following statements: Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the function?
1. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐵 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐶 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐶𝐴 = ⃗0⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 0
⃗⃗ (a) It is not continuous at x = 0
2. 𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶 − 𝐶𝐴
(b) It is continuous at every x
3. 𝐴𝐵 − 𝐵𝐶 + 𝐶𝐴 = 0⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗
(c) It is not continuous at x = 𝜋
4. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐴 − ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐶 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐶𝐴 = ⃗0⃗
How many of the above statements are (d) It is continuous at x = 0
correct?
(a) One 74. For the function 𝑓 (𝑥) = |𝑥 − 3|, which of
(b) Two the following is not correct?
(c) Three (a) The function is not continuous at x = – 3
(d) Four (b) The function is continuous at x = 3
71. Let the slope of the curve 𝑦 = cos −1 (sin𝑥)

be tan𝜃 Then the value of 𝜃 in the interval
(0, 𝜋) is
(c)
(d)
c k
The function is differentiable at x = 0
The function is differentiable at x = –3
2𝑥−sin−1𝑥
75. If the function 𝑓 (𝑥) = 2𝑥+tan−1 𝑥 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
𝜋
6
3𝜋
𝜋
4
what is the value of f(0)?
1
(a) − 3
a
continuous at each point in its domain, then
r
(d)
4
𝜋
2
72. If 𝑓(𝑥) =
√𝑥−1
defines a function of R, then
B C
(c) 3
(d) 2
(b) 3
2
1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
[4, ∞)
𝑥−4
what is its domain?
(−∞, 4) ∪ (4, ∞)
(1,4) ∪ (4, ∞)
[1,4) ∪ (4, ∞) S S 76. If 𝑓 (𝑥) = √25 − 𝑥 2 , then what is
lim
𝑥→1
𝑓(𝑥)−𝑓(1)
𝑥−1
(a) − √24
1
1
equal to
(b) √24
73. Consider the function 1
(c) − 4√3
1
(d) 4√3
5−2tan√𝑥 𝑑𝑦 𝑏 𝑏
77. If 𝑦 = tan−1 (2+5tan√𝑥 ) then what is 𝑑𝑥 81. What is ∫𝑎 [𝑥]𝑑𝑥 + ∫𝑎 [−𝑥]𝑑𝑥 equal to,
equal to? where [. ] is the greatest integer function?
1
(a) − 2√𝑥 (a) b–a
(b) a–b
(b) 1 (c) 0
(c) −1
1 (d) 2(b – a)
(d) 2√𝑥
8
82. What is ∫2 |𝑥 − 5|𝑑𝑥 equal to?
78. Which one of the following is correct in
(a) 2
respect of the function
1 (b) 3
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥sin𝑥 + cos𝑥 + cos2 𝑥? (c) 4
2
𝜋
(a) It is increasing in the interval (0, 2 ) (d) 9
(b) It remains constant in the interval
𝜋 83. What is ∫ sin3 𝑥 cos𝑥 𝑑𝑥 equal to?
(0, )
2
𝜋
(c) It is decreasing in the interval (0, 2 )
𝜋 𝜋
(d) It is decreasing in the interval ( 4 , 2 )
(a)
(b)
(c)
cos4 𝑥 + 𝑐
sin4 𝑥 + 𝑐
(1−sin2𝑥)
4
2
+𝑐
c k
a
2
(1−cos2𝑥)
√1−cos𝜃 (d) 4
+𝑐
79. What is lim equal to?
r
𝜃→0 𝜃 Where c is the constant of integration.
(a) √2
C
(b) 2√2 ln(tan𝑥)
84. What is ∫ e dx equal to?
1
(c) (a) ln|tanx| + c
√2
1
(d) − 2√2
S
80. A function 𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝑅 is defined by the
equation 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5 where A = (1, 4).
B
(b) ln|secx| + c
(c) tanx + c
(d) e tan x + c
Where c is the constant of integration.
What is the range of the function?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2, 5)
(1, 5)
[1, 5)
[1, 5]
S (b)
(c)
−
−2
π
4
π
1 d 1
85. What is ∫−1 {dx (tan−1 x)} dx equal to?
(a) 0
π
(d) 2
86. In which one of the following intervals is the 90. What is the solution of the differential
function f(x) = x 2 − 5x + 6 decreasing? dy
equation ln ( ) = ax + by?
dx
(a) (−∞, 2]
(a) a𝑒 𝑎𝑥 + b 𝑒 𝑏𝑦 = c
(b) [3, ∞] 1 ax 1
(b) e + b eby = c
(c) (−∞, ∞) a
(d) (2,3) (c) aeax + be−by = c
1 ax 1
(d) e + e−by = c
a b
87. The differential equation of the family of where c is an arbitrary constant.
curves y = pcos(ax) + qsin(ax), where p, q
are arbitrary constants, is 91. If u = 𝑒 𝑎𝑥 sinbx and v = eax cosbx then
d2 y du dv
(a) − a2 y = 0 what is u +v equal to?
dx2 dx dx
d2 y
(b) − ay = 0 (a) a e 2ax
dx2
d2 y (b) (a2 + b2 ) 𝑒 𝑎𝑥
(c) dx2
+ ay = 0 (c) ab e 2ax
d2 y
(d) + a2 y = 0 (d) (a + b) 𝑒 𝑎𝑥
dx2
88. The equation of the curve passing through

the point (−1, −2) which satisfies
dy
= −x 2 −
d2 y
k
92. If 𝑦 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑙𝑛 𝑥) then which one of the
c
a
dx
1 (a) dx2
+y = 0
x3 is d2 y
(b) =0
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17x 2 y − 6x 2 + 3x 5 − 2 = 0
6x 2 y + 17x 2 + 2x 5 − 3 = 0
6xy − 2x 2 + 17x 5 + 3 = 0
17x 2 y + 6xy − 3x 5 + 5 = 0
(c)
C
(d)
dx2
x
d2 y
x2 2
dx
2
2d y
dx2
r +x
−x
dy
dx
dy
dx
+y = 0
+y = 0
89. What is the order of the differential
S
equation whose solution is y = a cosx +
b sinx + ce−x + d where a, b, c and d are
B
93. A flower-bed in the form of a sector has
been fenced by a wire of 40 m length. If the
flower-bed has the greatest possible area, then
arbitrary constants?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1
2
3
4
S what is the radius of the sector?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
25 m
20 m
10 m
5m
94. What is the minimum value of [x(x − 1) +
1 98. Let f(x + y) = f(x)f(y) and f(x) = 1 +
1]3 where 0 < x < 1? 𝑥𝑔(x)ϕ(x), where lim (x) = a and limϕ(x) =
1 x→0 x→0
3 3 b. Then what is f(x) equal to?
(a) ( )
4
(a) 1 + abf(x)
(b) 1
1 (b) 1 + ab
(c) 2
1
(c) ab
(d) ( )
3 3 (d) abf(x)
8
dy
99. What is the solution of the differential
95. If y = |sinx||x| , then what is the value of dx x+y+1
π
dx equation = ?
dy x+y−1
at x = 6?
−π
(a) y − x + 4ln(x + y) = c
(a)
2 6 (6ln2−√3π) (b) y + x + 2ln(x + y) = c
6
π (c) y − x + ln(x + y) = c
k
2 6 (6ln2+√3π)
(b) (d) y + x + 2ln(x + y) = c
6
−
π where c is an arbitrary constant.
2 6 (6ln2+√3π)
(c)
(d)
π
2 6 (6ln2−√3π)
6
6
(a) − 2
1
x→
a 6 c
2sin2x+sinx−1
100. What is limπ 2sin2x−3sinx+1 to?
96. What is
x < 2?
(a)
π
cosx + sinx
d√1−sin 2x
dx
π
equal to, where 4 < (b) − 3
C
(c) −2
(d) −3
1
r
(b)
(c)
(d)
−(cosx + sinx)
±(cosx + sinx)
None of the above
dx
S B
101. If two dice are thrown and at least one of
the dice shows 5, then the probability that the
sum is 10 or more is
S
97. What is ∫ equal to? 1
a2 sin2 x+b2 cos2 x
1 𝑎 𝑡𝑎𝑛x (a) 6
(a) c + ab tan−1 ( b ) 4
1 b tanx
(b) 11
(b) c − ab tan−1 ( a ) 3
1 b tanx
(c) 11
(c) c + tan−1 ( ) 2
ab a (d) 11
Where c is the constant of integration.
102. The correlation coefficient computed from random experiment. If P(B) = 1.5P(A) and
a set of 30 observations is 0.8. Then the P(C) = 0.5P(B) then P(A) is equal to
3
percentage of variation not explained by linear (a) 4
regression is 4
(b) 13
(a) 80% 2
(b) 20% (c) 3
(c) 64% 1
(d) 2
(d) 36%
106. In a bolt factory, machines X, Y, Z
103. The average age of a combined group of
manufacture bolts that are respectively 25%,
men and women is 25 years. If the average age
35% and 40% of the factory’s total output. The
of the group of men is 26 years and that of the
machines X, Y, Z respectively produce 2%, 4%
group of women is 21 years, then the
and 5% defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at
percentage of men and women in the group is
random from the product and is found to be
respectively
defective. What is the probability that it was
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20, 80
40, 60
60, 40
80, 20
manufactured by machine X?
(a)
(b)
5
39
14
39
c k
104. If sin β is the harmonic mean of sin α and
cos α, is the arithmetic mean of sin α and
cos α, then which of the following is/are
(c)
(d)
20
39
34
39
r a
correct?
4
π
1. √2sin (α + ) sinβ = sin 2α
2. √2sinθ = cos (α − )
π
B C
107. 8 coins are tossed simultaneously. The
probability of getting at least 6 heads is
(a) 64
7
57
S
4 (b) 64
Select the correct answer using the code given 37
below: (c)
S
256
229
(a) 1 only (d) 256
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 108. Three groups of children contain 3 girls
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and 1 boy; 2 girls and 2 boys; 1 girl and 3 boys.
One child is selected at random from each
105. Let A, B and C be three mutually exclusive group. The probability that the three selected
and exhaustive events associated with a consist of 1 girl and 2 boys is
13
(a) 32 (d) n(logP + logQ)
9
(b) 32 112. If the probability of simultaneous
3
(c) 32
occurrence of two events A and B is p and the
(d) 32
1 probability that exactly one of A, B occurs is q,
then which of the following is/are correct?
1. P(A) + P(B) = 2 − 2p − q
1. If 10 is added to each entry on a list, then the 2. P(A ∩ B) = 1 − p − q
average increases by 10. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. If 10 is added to each entry on a list, then the below:
standard deviation increases by 10. (a) 1 only
3. If each entry on a list is doubled, then the (b) 2 only
average doubles. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statement are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
c k
113. If the regression coefficient of Y on X is –6,
and the correlation coefficient between X and Y
then the regression coefficient of X on Y would
be
110. The variance of 25 observations is 4. If 2 is
added to each observation, then the new
variance of the resulting observations is
1
(a) 24
(b) − 24
(c) − 6
1
r a
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
B C 1
(d) 6
114. The set of bivariate observation (x1, y1),
S
111. If xi > 0, yi > 0 (i = 1, 2, 3, ...... n) are the
S
values of two variables X and Y with geometric
mean P and Q respectively, then the geometric
𝑋
mean of is
𝑌
(x2, y2),..... (xn, yn) are such that all the values
are distinct and all the observations fall on a
straight line with non-zero slope. Then the
possible values of the correlation coefficient
between x and y are
P (a) 0 and 1 only
(a) Q
(b) 0 and –1 only
P
(b) antilog (Q) (c) 0, 1 and –1
(c) n(logP − logQ) (d) –1 and 1 only
115. Two integers x and y are chosen with number of possible outcomes such that x > y >
replacement from the set {0, 1, 2,.....,10}. The z?
probability that |x – y| > 5 is (a) 14
6
(a) (b) 16
11
(b)
35 (c) 18
121 (d) 20
30
(c) 121
25
(d) 118. Which one of the following can be
121
obtained from an ogive?
116. An analysis of monthly wages paid to the (a) Mean
workers in two firms A and B belonging to the (b) Median
same industry gives the following result: (c) Geometric mean
(d) Mode
Firm A Firm B
Number of workers 500 600 119. In any discrete series (when all values are
Average monthly wage ₹ 1860 ₹ 1750
Variance of distribution 81
of wages
100
The average of monthly wages and variance of correct?

c k
not same), if x represents mean deviation
about mean and y represents standard
deviation, then which one of the following is
distribution of wages of all the workers in the

firms A and B taken together are
(a) ₹ 1860, 100
(a) y ≥ x
(b) y ≤ x
(c) x = y
(d) x < y
r a
(b) ₹ 1750, 100
(c) ₹ 1800, 81
B C
120. In which one of the following cases would
you except to get a negative correlation?
S S
117. Three dice having digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
on their faces are marked I, II and III and rolled.
Let x, y and z represent the number on die-I
die-II and die-III respectively. What is the
(a) The ages of husbands and wives
(b) Shoe size and intelligence
(c) Insurance companies’ profits and the
number of claims they have to pay
(d) Amount of rainfall and yield of crop
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) An orthogonal matrix is a square matrix whose
columns and rows are orthogonal unit vectors
√7√7√7 = 71⁄2 · 71⁄4 · 71⁄8 = 77⁄8
(i.e., orthonormal vectors), i.e. The determinant
7 of any orthogonal matrix is either +1 or −1.
log 7 log 7 (77⁄8 ) = log 7 ( )
8 By property,
= log 7 7 − log 7 23 If 𝐴–1 = 𝐴𝑇 , then A is orthogonal matrix.
= 1 − 3 log 7 2 5. (c)
Since, option (a) 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩
2. (c) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶) and option (d) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 = (𝐴 ∪
Infinite GP sum formula = ar + ar² + ar³ + ......... 𝐶) ∩ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶 ) are Distributive Laws.
Where a is the first term and r is the common Option (b) 𝐴′ ∪ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = (𝐵 ′ ∩ 𝐴)′ ∪ 𝐴 is
ratio complement law thus option (c) is incorrect.
If |r| < 1, the sum converges 6. (b)
If |r| > 1, the sum doesn't exist and series Every 100 from 3001 to 4000 will have 44
diverges.
Given:
First term = a = x
Hence from the equation of |r| < 1,
𝑥 𝑥
k
integers where digits 0 to 9 repeat except from
3301 to 3400. (Also 4401 to 4500 and 5501 to
c
5600 and so on) wherein all 100 integers will
have digits 0–9 repeating.
where |𝑟| < 1

1−𝑟
=5⇒ =1−𝑟
⇒𝑟=1−
5
𝑥
5
r a
Between 3001 and 4000
44 × 9 + 100 = 496
(Numbers with repeating digits.)
Up to 8000 it will be
⇒ −1 < 1 − 5 < 1
𝑥
⇒ −2 < − 5 < 0
⇒ −10 < −𝑥 < 0
𝑥
B C
numbers.
(or)
5 × 496 = 2480.
Considering 3000 as well, it will be 2481
⇒ 10 > 𝑥 > 0
Thus, 0 < 𝑥 < 10.
3. (a)
S S
A rational expression is nothing more than a
fraction in which the numerator and/or the
denominator are polynomials. In 2nd and 3rd
The thousands place can be filled using any of
the digits 3 to 7.
So that is 5 ways. Now, since the numbers can’t
repeat, the hundreds place, tens place, units
place can be filled by 9 ways (0 to 9 is 10 ways
minus the number used in the thousands place
expressions, there is no denominator. So, amounts to 9 ways), 8 ways and 7 ways
correct answer is (a). respectively (since the number already used
4. (b) can’t be used, the number of ways of filling any
place keeps on decreasing).
The no. with all distinct digits = 5 × 9 × ⇒ 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑛(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) + 𝑛(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) = 32 +
8 × 7 3𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) …… (ii)
= 2520 From (i) and (ii)
𝑥 = 5001 – 2520 = 2481
𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = 14
7. (c) 9. (c)
Apply the geometric sum formula to find that Exactly one = 𝑛(A) + 𝑛(B) + 𝑛(c) −
1 𝑛 9
∑∞𝑛=0 3 (− 3) = 4 2[𝑛 (A ∩ B) + 𝑛(B ∩ C) + 𝑛 (A ∩ C)] +
Given a geometric series with initial value a and +3𝑛 (A ∩ B ∩ C)
common ratio r with |𝑟| < 1 the sum is given = 125 + 145 + 90 − 2[32 + 3 × 14] + 3 × 14
by the formula = 360 − 106 = 254
𝑎
∑∞ 𝑛
𝑛=0 𝑎𝑟 = 1−𝑟
10. (d)
In the given series, the initial value is a=3 and For the quadratic equation, 𝑥 2 + 𝛼𝑥 − 𝛽 = 0
the common ratio, found by dividing any term Sum of roots, 𝛼 + 𝛽 = −𝛼,
1
by its preceding term, is 𝑟 = − . Product of roots, 𝛼𝛽 = −𝛽
∞
1
3
1 𝑛
∑ 3 (− ) =
3
3
1
=
3×3 9
=
1 − (− 3) 3 + 1 4
3
As|− | < 1 we can apply the formula to obtain
𝛼𝛽 = −𝛽 ⇒ 𝛼𝛽 + 𝛽 = 0
⇒ (𝛼 + 1)𝛽 = 0
⇒ 𝛼 = −1 (𝛽 ≠ 0)
𝛼 + 𝛽 = −𝛼 ⇒ 2𝛼 + 𝛽 = 0
c k
𝑛=0
8. (a)
Total number of students = 300
⇒𝛽=2
a
∴ −𝑥 2 + 𝛼𝑥 + 𝛽 = −𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 2
r
Greatest value = −
(1+8)
−4
=
4
9
𝑛(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 ∪ 𝐶 ) = 𝑛(𝐴) + 𝑛(𝐵) + 𝑛(𝐶 )

− 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) − 𝑛(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
− 𝑛(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) + 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
B C
11. (d)
The middle term depends upon the value of n.
When n is even, then total number of terms in
⇒ 300 = 125 + 145 + 90
S S
− [𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑛(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 )
+ 𝑛(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴)] + 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
⇒ [𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑛(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) + 𝑛(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴)] = 60 +
the expansion of (𝑥 + 𝑦)𝑛 is 𝑛 + 1
term is the middle term.

𝑛
𝑇 [ + 1] =
2
𝑛 𝑛 2 2
C x y
2
𝑛 𝑛
𝑛
So, there is only one middle term i.e. ( + 1)
2
th
𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) …… (i) On substituting the value of x, y in the above

Again, formulae.
𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑛(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) + 𝑛(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴) 4
C2 × 22 × 32
− 3𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 ) = 32 = 6 × 4 × 9 = 216
12. (a) −1 − 𝑖√3
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. ( ) = 𝜔2
2
Because, Properties of Inverses. 𝜔3 = 1
If A is non-singular, then so is 𝐴−1 and 1 + 𝜔 + 𝜔2 = 0
(A−1 )−1 = A 3𝑛 3𝑛
Statement 3 is incorrect because −1 + 𝑖√3 −1 − 𝑖√3
( ) +( )
1 2 2
(λA)−1 = A−1 , λ ≠ 0
λ = (𝜔)3n + (𝜔2 )3n
= (𝜔 ) + (𝜔3 )2n
3 n
13. (a) = 1𝑛 + 12𝑛 = 1 + 1 = 2
C1 → C1 − C3 16. (d)
x−3 y 3
2
Three bowlers can be selected from the five
|x −9 5y 3 9| players and eight players can be selected from
x 3 − 27 10y 5 27 12 players i.e. (17 − 5) = 12 is the number of
Now, ways of selecting the cricket eleven, then
1 y 3 𝑃 = 𝐶(5, 3) × 𝐶(12, 8)
(x − 3) | x + 3
2
5y
x + 9 − 3𝑥 10y 27
3
5
9|
So, x − 3 is the expansion of determinant.

17. (b)
Let 𝑙𝑜𝑔9 27 = 𝑥
c
Then, 9𝑥 = 27 ⇔ (32 )𝑥 = 33
So, 2𝑥 = 3
k
14. (a)
In the matrix
(
𝑐𝑜𝑠 (−𝜃) −𝑠𝑖𝑛(−𝜃)
−𝑠𝑖𝑛(−𝜃) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (−𝜃)
)
r a
Let 𝑙𝑜𝑔8 32 = 𝑦.
Then, 8𝑦 = 32
𝑜𝑟 𝑥 = .
3
2
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 ]
Matrix of coefficient of 𝐴 = [
[∵ cos(−𝜃) = cos 𝜃 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑖𝑛(−𝜃) = −𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃]
𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴 = [
cos 𝜃 −sin 𝜃]
B C
So,3𝑦 = 5
𝑜𝑟 (23 )𝑦 = 25 .
∴ 23𝑦 = 25 .
15. (b)
−sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
Cube root of unity

𝑥3 = 3
⇒𝑥=1
S S 18. (a)
𝑜𝑟 𝑦 = .
=
19
6
3
Now, 𝑙𝑜𝑔9 27 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔8 32 = ( + )
3
2
5
3
−1 + 𝑖√3 Let AB = C
( )=𝜔 𝐴−1 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐴−1 𝐶
2
𝐼𝐵 = 𝐴−1 𝐶 as the identity matrix 𝐼 = 𝐴−1 𝐴
𝐵−1 𝐵 = 𝐵−1 𝐴−1 𝐶 (pre multiply both sides by = 2 × {(−2 × −1) − (−3 × 2)} −
𝐵−1 ) 1{(3 × −1) − (5 × 2)} − 3{(3 × −3) −
𝐼 = 𝐵−1 𝐴−1 𝐶 as 𝐵−1 𝐵 = 𝐼, the identity matrix (5 × −2)}
𝐶 −1 = 𝐵−1 𝐴−1 𝐶𝐶 −1 (post multiple both sides = 2 × (2 + 6) − 1(−3 − 10) − 3(−9 + 10)
by 𝐶 −1 ) = 16 + 13 − 3
𝐶 −1 = 𝐵−1 𝐴−1 as𝐶𝐶 −1 = 𝐼, the identity matrix = 26 ≠ 0
⇒ (AB)−1 = B −1 A−1 System is consistent with unique solution.
22. (c)
3
19. (d) Assume that the cube root of 1 𝑖𝑠 𝑧 𝑖. 𝑒. √1 =
𝑎−𝑥 𝑐 𝑏 𝑧.
| 𝑐 𝑏−𝑥 𝑎 |=0 Then, cubing both sides we get, 𝑧 3 = 1
𝑏 𝑎 𝑐−𝑥 𝑜𝑟, 𝑧 3 − 1 = 0
On eliminating respective rows and columns 𝑜𝑟, (𝑧 − 1)(𝑧 2 + 𝑧 + 1) = 0
and expanding. Therefore, either 𝑧 – 1 = 0
(𝑎 − 𝑥) × {(𝑏 − 𝑥) × (𝑐 − 𝑥) − 𝑎2 } − 𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑧 = 1 𝑜𝑟, 𝑧 2 + 𝑧 + 1 = 0
𝑐{𝑐 × (𝑐 − 𝑥) − 𝑎𝑏} + 𝑏 × {𝑐𝑎 − (𝑏 × (𝑏 − √12 −4.1.1
𝑥)}
If a + b + c = 0
𝑥 = 0 is one of the solutions.
20. (b)
Therefore, 𝑧 = −1 ±
=
−1 ± √−3
2
2.1
1
= − ±𝑖
2
c k √3
2
Therefore, the three cube roots of unity are
If the matrix does not have an inverse, then
(
2 4
−8 𝑥
)=0
(2 × 𝑥) − (4 × (−8)) = 0
1 𝑖√3
r a 1 𝑖√3
1, − 2 + 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 2 − 2 among them 1 is
real number and the other two are conjugate
complex numbers and they are also known as
2𝑥 + 32 = 0
𝑥 = −16
21. (b)
C
imaginary cube roots of unity.
∆ is equilateral.
B
The equations are
2𝑥 + 𝑦 – 3𝑧 = 5
3𝑥 – 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 5 and
5𝑥 – 3𝑦 – 𝑧 = 16
Convert to matrix
2 1 −3
S S
|3 −2 2 |
5 −3 −1
Solving the matrix along the rows and columns.
23. (a) 1
𝑇𝑚 = 𝑎 + (𝑚 − 1)𝑑 = … . . (2)
Since u, v, and w are the 𝑝𝑡ℎ , 𝑞𝑡ℎ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 𝑡ℎ terms 𝑛
of a GP whose first term is A and common ratio 1
𝑇𝑛 = 𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 = … … . (3)
is R 𝑚
1
I = ARp−1 𝑎 + (𝑚 − 1)𝑑 = 𝑛
log 𝑢 = log 𝐴 + (𝑝 − 1)log 𝑅 1
𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 = 𝑚
log 𝑣 = log 𝐴 + (𝑞 − 1)log 𝑅
--------------------------
log 𝑤 = log 𝐴 + (𝑟 − 1)log 𝑅 1 1 𝑚−𝑛
log 𝑢 𝑝 1 0 + 𝑑(𝑚 − 1 − 𝑛 + 1) = 𝑛 − 𝑚 = 𝑚𝑛
| log 𝑣 𝑞 1| 𝑚−𝑛 1
𝑑= =
log 𝑤 𝑟 1 𝑚𝑛(𝑚 − 𝑛) 𝑚𝑛
1
log 𝐴 + (𝑝 − 1)log 𝑅 𝑝 1 Substitute 𝑑 = 𝑚𝑛 in equation (2), we get
= log 𝐴 + (𝑞 − 1)log 𝑅 𝑞 1|
| 𝑎 + (𝑚 − 1)
1
=
1
log 𝐴 + (𝑟 − 1)log 𝑅 𝑟 1 1
𝑚𝑛
1
𝑛
𝐶1 → 𝐶1 − [𝐶3 log 𝐴 + (𝐶2 − 𝐶3 )log 𝑅] 𝑎 = 𝑛 − (𝑚 − 1) 𝑚𝑛

0 𝑝 1 1
24. (c)
= |0 𝑞 1| = 0
0 𝑟 1
Let, 𝛼 = 2𝑛 𝐶𝑛 , 𝛽 = 2𝑛−1𝐶𝑛 , 𝛾 = 2𝑛−1𝐶𝑛−1 =

1
𝑚𝑛
𝑎=
𝑇𝑚𝑛 = 𝑎 + (𝑚𝑛 − 1)𝑑
+ (𝑚𝑛 − 1)
c1k
a
𝑚𝑛 𝑚𝑛
𝛽 + 𝛾 = 2𝑛−1𝐶𝑛 + 2𝑛−1𝐶𝑛−1 1 1
𝑇𝑚𝑛 = +1− =1
= 2𝑛−1 𝐶𝑛 +2𝑛−1 𝐶𝑛−1 = 2𝑛 𝐶𝑛 = 𝛼 𝑚𝑛 𝑚𝑛
25. (d)
Let 𝐴 = (𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 ∶ – 1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1)
𝐵 = {𝑦 ∈ 𝑅 ∶ −1 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 1}
𝑆 = [(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝐴 × 𝐵 ∶ 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1]
Thus, 𝑇𝑚𝑛
27. (b)
C
=1
r
Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, 𝑎 > 0, 𝑏2 < 4𝑎𝑐
(∵ 𝑓(𝑥) > 0)
S is not a function (By vertical line Test)
S B
Now, 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 + 2𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 + 2𝑎
= 𝑎𝑥 2 + (𝑏 + 2𝑎)𝑥 + 2𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐
Now, (𝑏 + 2𝑎)2 − 4𝑎(2𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐)
= 𝑏2 + 4𝑎𝑏 + 4𝑎2 − 8𝑎2 − 4𝑎𝑏 − 4𝑎𝑐
26. (c)
S 28. (c)
= 𝑏2 − 4𝑎𝑐 − 8𝑎2 < 0
⇒ 𝑔(𝑥) > 0
According to the rules of transposition:

(A + B + C)’ = A’ + B’ + C’ is possible.
𝑇𝑟 = 𝑎 + (𝑟 − 1)𝑑 … . (1) (AB)’ = A’B’ is not correct
(ABC)’ = C’B’A’ is possible.
29. (b) 32. (c)
101101101 There are 9 choices for the first digit, since 0
-10110110 can't be used. For the second digit, you can use
---------------- any of the remaining 9 digits. For the third digit
10110111 you can use any of the 8 digits not already
-11011 used. For the next digit, there are 7 choices.
---------------- And for the final digit there are 6 choices left.
10011100 Multiplying the values together gives the stated
⇒ x = 1, y = 0 answer: 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 = 27216
If the last 4 don't include 0, you only have 5
30. (b) choices left for the first one. Since the number
A square matrix where every element is unity is of distinct-4-digits arrangements which don't
called an identity matrix. include a 0 is 9 𝐶4 × 4!
A square matrix in which elements in the ( 9𝐶4 × 4!) × 5 + (( 10𝐶4 −9 𝐶4 ) × 4!) × 6
diagonal are all 1 and rest are all zeroes is = 9 × 8 × 7 × (30 + 60 − 36)
called an identity matrix. In other words, the
square matrix 𝐴 = [𝑎𝑖𝑗 ]𝑛×𝑛 is an identity
matrix, if 𝑎𝑖𝑗 = 1, when 𝑖 = 𝑗 and 𝑎𝑖𝑗 = 0,
when 𝑖 ≠ 𝑗
33. (d)
x y y+z
Given | z x z + x|
c k
= 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 = 27216
a
B = 𝑎𝑑𝑗A y z x+y
x + y + z x + y + z 2(x + y + z)
𝑙 = 𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑥,
| z x z+x |
|A| = k
AB = A( adj A)
= | A| 𝑙
= k𝑙
C
y
r z
R1 → R1 + R 2 + R 3
1 1
x+y
2
= (x + y + z) | z x z + x |
31. (c)
Given, (0.2)x = 2
Taking log on both sides
S B
(Replacing z by x)
34. (b)
y z x+y
= (x + y + z)(z − x)2
x log (0.2) = 0.3010,

x[0.3010 − 1] = 0.3010
x[-0.699] = 0.3010
2
xlog10 ( ) = log10 2
10
S
x[log10 2 − log 10 10] = log 10 2
[∵log 2 = 0.3010]
[ ∵ log 10=1]
Given
−sin𝐴
1
| 1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴
1
1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 + sin2 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵 + sin2 𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐶 + sin2 𝐶
−sin𝐵 −sin𝐶
| 1 + sin𝐴 1 + sin𝐵 1 + sin𝐶 | = 0
1
1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐶 |
0.3010 sin2 𝐴 − 1 sin2 𝐵 − 1 sin2 𝐶 − 1

x=− ≈ −0.43 R1 → R1 − R 2 , R 3 → R 3 − R 2
0.6990
−sin𝐴 −sin𝐵 −sin𝐶 = 2cos(𝐴 + 𝐵)sin(𝐴 − 𝐵) + 2sin(𝐴
⇒| 1 1 1 |=0 + 𝐵)cos(𝐴 + 𝐵)
−cos2 𝐴 −cos2 𝐵 −cos2 𝐶 = 2cos(A + B)[sin(A − B) + sin(A + B)]
R 2 → R 2 + R1 = −2cosC[2sinA · cosB]
sin𝐴 sin𝐵 sin𝐶 = −4sin A cos B cos C
| 1 1 1 | = 0 (𝑅3 → 𝑅3 + 𝑅2 ) 39. (b)
sin 𝐴 sin 𝐵 sin2 𝐶
2 2
⇒ sin𝐴 = sin𝐵 = sin𝐶 ⇒ 𝛥
35. (b)
Matrix product is commutative if both are
diagonal matrices of same order.
⇒ 𝐴2 − 𝐵2 = (𝐴 + 𝐵)(𝐴 − 𝐵) is not true.
Next, (𝐴 − 𝐼)(𝐴 + 𝐼) = 0
⇒ 𝐴2 + 𝐴𝐼 − 𝐼𝐴 − 𝐼2 = 0(∵ AI = 𝐼𝐴)
⇒ 𝐴2 = 𝐼2 is correct. 122
36. (c) ℓ= = 122 tan 42°
tan 48°
sin𝜃
2tan𝜃
=2
sin𝜃
=
×
2 cos𝜃
1 + tan2 𝜃 sec 2 𝜃
1
cos𝜃 sec 2 𝜃
40. (a)
Checking through options
𝐴 = 300° = −60°
c k
37. (a)
=2
sin𝜃
cos𝜃
× cos2 𝜃
= 2sin𝜃cos𝜃 = sin2𝜃
cot(−60°)]2
= 3 [3 − 3 +
r
√3
a
3(3– tan2 𝐴– 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴)2 = 3[3 − tan2 (−60°) −
1 2
]
C
1
2 cos(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) + cos(𝜃 − 𝛼 ) =3×
3
=
cos𝜃 cos(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) cos(𝜃 − 𝛼 ) =1
=
2cos𝜃 · cos𝛼
cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝛼
S
⇒ cos2 𝜃cos𝛼 = cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝛼
⇒ sin2 𝛼 = cos2 𝜃(1 − cos𝛼)
B
41. (b)
38. (d)
⇒ cos2 𝜃 =
sin2 𝛼
1 − cos𝛼
S = 1 + cos𝛼
⇒ 1 − sin2 𝜃 = 1 + cos𝛼
⇒ sin2 𝜃 + cos𝛼 = 0
sin2𝐴 − sin2𝐵 − sin2𝐶

= 2cos(𝐴 + 𝐵) · sin(𝐴 − 𝐵)
+ sin(2𝐴 + 2𝐵)
H 44. (a)
𝐵= 𝜋
tan 3 If cos 𝛼 and 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝛽(0 <∝ < 𝛽 < 𝜋) are the
H−h roots.
= 𝜋 Quadratic equation 4𝑥 2 – 3 = 0, is
tan 3
6 cos𝛼 · cos𝛽 = −
H 4
⇒ = H−h 1 4
3 ⇒ =−
2 cos𝛼 · cos𝛽 3
⇒ H=h
3 4
3 sec𝛼 · sec𝛽 = −
⇒H= h 3
2 45. (a)
42. (b) Given equation, tan−1 (2𝑥) + tan−1 (3𝑥) =
𝜋
4
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 + cot𝑥 = √3 2x + 3x 𝜋
1 −1
tan ( )=
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 − cot𝑥 = 1 − 2x · 3x 4
√3 −1
5x 𝜋
1 4 tan =
1 − 6x 2 4
⇒ 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 = √3 +
⇒ cosecx =
2
√3
=
√3 √3
⇒ sinx =
𝜋 2𝜋
√3
2
5x
c k
1 − 6x 2
2
=1
1 − 6x = 5x
6x 2 + 5x − 1 = 0
x= ,
Possible values of x= ,
∴Option (b) is correct.
3 3
𝜋 2𝜋
3 3
1
r a
x = , −1(Rejected negative value)
6
⇒x=
1
6
C
46. (c)
a
43. (b) Given, ar = 2, =8
1−r
B ar
𝜋
Given 𝜃 = 8 ⇒ =8
(2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 1)10 (2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 − 1)10 (2𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 r − r2
= (4cos 2
= (4 ×
𝜋
8
10
− 1) (2 ×
2 + √2
1
√2
10
10
− 1) (√2 − 1)10 S S
− 1)10 (2𝑐𝑜𝑠 4𝜃 − 1)10
− 1) (−1)10
⇒ 2 = 8r − 8r 2
⇒ 4r 2 − 4r + 1 = 0
⇒r=
1
2
1
∴ G. P. is 4,2,1, , ….
2
4 47. (c)
= [(√2 + 1)(√2 − 1)]10 a, b, c ∈ A. P ⇒ a − b = b − c
10
2 a−b
= ((√2) − 12 ) ⇒ =1
b−c
= (2 − 1)10 = 110 = 1
a b a−b 𝑏2 𝑞2
a, b, c ∈ G. P ⇒ = = ⇒ =
b c b−c 𝐷1 𝐷2
2ac
a, b, c ∈ H. P ⇒ b = ⇒ ab + bc = 2ac ⇒ 𝐷1 : 𝐷2 = 𝑏2 : 𝑞2
a+c
⇒ 𝑎𝑏 − 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑎𝑐 − 𝑏𝑐 50. (b)
𝑎−𝑏 𝑎
⇒ = A = sin2 𝜃 + cos4 𝜃 = sin2 𝜃 + (1 − sin2 𝜃)2
𝑏−𝑐 𝑐 Let sin2 𝜃 = x
48. (a)
⇒ 𝐴 = x 2 − x + 1, 0≤x≤1
543 + 534 + 453 + 435 + 354 + 345 = 2664
(or) 1 2 3
= (𝑥 − ) +
2 4
The total such numbers possible = 6. Each of 3, 𝐴(0) = 𝐴(1) = 1
4 and 5 will appear twice in the hundredth, 3
So , ≤ 𝐴 ≤ 1
tenth and unit place. 4
Sum = 2((300 + 400 + 500) + (30 + 40 + 51. (d)
50) + (3 + 4 + 5)) = 2664 Let 𝐴(𝑥1 , 𝑦1 ) and 𝐵(𝑥2 , 𝑦2 ) be the endpoints of
a diameter of the circle. Let P(x,y) be an
49. (b)
Let 𝛼1 , 𝛽1 are roots of 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 and
𝑎2 , 𝛽2 are roots of 𝑝𝑥 2 + 𝑞𝑥 + 𝑟 = 0
𝛼 𝛼
Given:𝛽1 = 𝛽2 𝑎𝑛𝑑
k
arbitrary point on the circumference. Then we
have angle APB = 90° (angle in a semicircle is a
c
right angle). Hence AP is perpendicular to BP.
So, slope of AP x slope of BP = -1
a
1 2
𝐷1 = 𝑏2 − 4𝑎𝑐, 𝐷2 = 𝑞2 − 4𝑝𝑟 𝑦−𝑦 𝑦−𝑦
Hence { 1 } { 2 } = −1.
Also, we know that 𝑥−𝑥1 𝑥−𝑥2
𝑏
𝛼1 + 𝛽1 = − , 𝛼1 𝛽1 =
𝑎
𝑞
𝛼2 + 𝛽2 = − , 𝛼2 𝛽2 =
𝑝
𝑎
𝑐
𝑟
𝑝
C r
⟹ (𝑥 − 𝑥1 )(𝑥 − 𝑥2 ) = − (𝑦 − 𝑦1 )(𝑦 − 𝑦2 )
⟹ (𝑥 − 𝑥1 )(𝑥 − 𝑥2 ) + (𝑦 − 𝑦1 )(𝑦 − 𝑦2 )
= 0
Which is the required equation of the circle.
Using componendo and dividendo we get
𝛼1 + 𝛽1 𝛼2 + 𝛽2
=
𝛼1 − 𝛽1 𝛼2 − 𝛽2
S
(𝛼1 + 𝛽1 )2 (𝛼2 + 𝛽2 )2
B
52. (a)
𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 – 2𝑥 – 4𝑦 + 2 = 0
(x 2 − 2x + 1) + (4y 2 − 4y + 1) = 0
⇒ (x − 1)2 + (2y − 1)2 = 0
⇒
⇒ 2𝑎
𝑏
𝑎2
𝑏2
−4
2
𝑐
𝑎
=
= 2
𝑞
𝑝2
𝑞2
𝑝2
−4
S
(𝛼1 − 𝛽1 )2 (𝛼2 − 𝛽2 )2
𝑟
𝑝
It is a point.
53. (c)
Given two lines:
⇒ x = 1, y =
1
2
𝑏2 𝑞2 Line one, 𝑙𝑥 + 𝑚𝑦 + 𝑛 = 0
⇒ 2 = 2 Line two, 𝑙’𝑥 + 𝑚’𝑦 + 𝑛’ = 0
𝑏 − 4𝑎𝑐 𝑞 − 4𝑝𝑟
Angle between =tan–1 𝜃
𝜃 =? |𝑎𝑥1 + 𝑏𝑦1 + 𝑐𝑧1 + 𝑑|
ℓm′ − ℓ′ m 𝑝=
tan−1 (𝜃) = tan−1 | ′ | √𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐 2
ℓℓ + mm′ Now, distance of the point (2, 3, 4) from the
ℓm′ − ℓ′ m plane 3x − 6y + 2z + 11 = 0 is
⇒𝜃=| ′ | |3(2) + (−6)(3) + 2(4) + 11|
ℓℓ + mm′ p=
54. (d) √(3)2 + (−6)2 + (2)2
In order to find the distance between two |6 − 18 + 8 + 11| 7
= = = 1 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
parallel lines, √9 + 36 + 4 7
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐1 and 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐2
|𝑐1 − 𝑐2 | 57. (c)
𝑑=
√1 + 𝑚 2
Considers two parallel lines
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0
Now the distance between two parallel lines
can be found with the following formula:
|𝑐1 − 𝑐2 |
√𝑎 2 + 𝑏2
General formula for distance between any line
LM = (2 − 1)2 +(3 − 2)2 + (𝑚 − 3)2 = 2
⇒ 1 + 1 + (𝑚 − 3)2 = 2
⇒ (𝑚 − 3)2 = 0
c k
is
Let any point on the line, 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 +
𝑐1 be 𝑃 (𝑥1 , 𝑦1 )
|𝑐1 − 𝑐2 |
a⇒𝑚=3
Similarly, by LK = 2, we can get 𝑛 = 1.
58. (d)
r
𝑑=
√𝑚 2 + 1
Thus, the distance between the lines 𝑥 = 𝑐1
and 𝑥 = 𝑐2 is |𝑐1 – 𝑐2 |.
B C
The line
𝑥−1
2
=
3
𝑥−1
𝑦−2
=
2
3
−
3
𝑧−3
=λ
𝑦−2
=
𝑧−3
3
S
x = 2λ+1, y = 3λ+2, z = 4λ+3
55. (a) 3x + 2y – 3z = 3(2λ+1) + 2(3λ+2) – 3(4λ+3)
6 6
Point of intersection (5 , 5)
Putting ( , ) , k = −
5 5 5 S
Let equation of line be 4x + 5y + k = 0
6 6 54
∴ Equation of line is 20x + 25y − 54 = 0

56. (a)
= 6 λ + 3+ 6 λ + 4 - 12 λ – 9 = -2
3x – 6y + 3z = 3(2λ+1) - 6(3λ+2) + 3(4λ+3)
6 λ + 3 - 18 λ – 12 +12 λ +9 = 0
So, answer (d) is correct.
59. (c)
Angle between planes
The length p of the ⊥ drawn from a point 2−1+2 1 𝜋
(x1 , y1 , z1 ) ax + by + cz + d = 0 is given by = cos−1 ( ) = cos −1 ( ) =
6 2 3
→ → → → → →
Distance between planes (a + b ) · (a + b ) = a2 + 2a · b + b2
2
| − 4|
= 3 = a2 + b2
√99 → →
10 ⇒ a·b=0
= → →
3×3 ⇒a⊥b
10 → →
= Therefore, a and b are perpendicular.
9
60. (d)
mr + ns 64. (d)
cos𝛼 = →
√m2 + n2 √r 2 + s2 r = x𝑖̂ + y𝑗̂ + z𝑘 ̂
Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true. →
̂)
r · ( 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘
61. (d) (xi + yj + z𝑘̂) · (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂)
1 1 1 1 1 = x+y+z
Area = |x1 ( − ) + x2 ( − )+
2 x2 x3 x3 x1
1 1 65. (a)
x3 (x − x )|
= 2|
1
1 2
x1(x3 −x2 )
x2x3
+
x2 (x1 −x3 )
x1 x3
+
x3 (x2−x1)
1 −x12 (x2 − x3 ) − x22 (x3 − x1 ) − x32 (x1 − x2 )

= |
2 x1 x2 x3
x1 x2
|
|
𝑖̂
|2 −1 1 |
3 −4 −1
𝑗̂ 𝑘̂
c
= 𝑖̂(1 + 4) − 𝑗̂(−2 − 3) + 𝑘̂(−8 + 3)
k
62. (b)
=|
(x1 − x2 )(x2 − x3 )(x3 − x1 )
2(x1 x2 x3 )
𝑐
|
Unit vector =
=
r1
a
= 5𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ − 5𝑘̂
5
5√3
𝑖̂ +
1
𝑖̂ +
𝑗̂ −
5
5√3
1
𝑗̂ −
𝑘̂
5
5√3
𝑘̂
The circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑔𝑥 + 𝑓𝑦 + 4 = 0 ,
B C
66. (d)
√3
2
𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗| + |⃗⃗⃗⃗
|⃗⃗⃗⃗
√3
2
𝑎 − 𝑏⃗⃗| = 2 {|⃗⃗⃗⃗
√3
𝑎|2 + |𝑏⃗⃗| }
2
63. (a) S S = 2 × 25 = 50
2
𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗| + 25 = 50
⇒ |⃗⃗⃗⃗
2
𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗| = 25
⇒ |⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗| = 5
⇒ |⃗⃗⃗⃗
→ →
| a | ≠ 0, |b | ≠ 0 67. (c)
→ → → → → 2 → 𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗,
𝐴⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
2
(a + b ) · (a + b ) = |a | + |b | | 𝑎 − 𝑏⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗ and
⃗⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵
𝑎 − 𝑏⃗⃗ − 𝑐⃗
𝐶⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ as 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂, 𝑘̂
For simplicity let us take ⃗⃗⃗⃗, 72. (d)
√𝑥−1
Now magnitude of 𝐴⃗, 𝐵 ⃗⃗ and 𝐶⃗ will be √3 . If 𝑓(𝑥) = defines a function of R
𝑥−4
f(x) is defined if x ≥ 1 and x ≠ 4
68. (c) ∴ Domain = [1,4) ∪ (4, ∞]
𝑎 − 𝑏⃗⃗) × (⃗⃗⃗⃗
(⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 + 𝑏⃗⃗)
= ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 × ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 × 𝑏⃗⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗ × ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 73. (a)
⃗⃗
+ 𝑏 × −𝑏 ⃗⃗ The function
sin2𝑥
= 0 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
𝑎 × 𝑏 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 × 𝑏⃗⃗ + 0 if 𝑥≠0
5𝑥
𝑓(𝑥) = {
= 2(⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑎 × 𝑏⃗⃗) 2
if 𝑥 = 0
15
sin2x 2 2
69. (c) lim = ≠
x→0 5x 5 15
⃗τ⃗ = 𝑟⃗ × 𝐹⃗ ⇒ f(x) is not continuous at x = 0
= (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂) × λk̂
= 2λ𝑖̂ − λ𝑗̂ 74. (a)
k
→
⇒ |τ | = √5λ For the function 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥 − 3|
f(x) = |x − 3| is continuous everywhere and
70. (a)
From ∆ law of vector addition:
Triangle law of vector addition states that when
two vectors are represented as two sides of the
not differentiable at x = 3
75. (b)
a c
Thus, Option (a) is incorrect.
triangle with the order of magnitude and

direction, then the third side of the triangle
represents the magnitude and direction of the
resultant vector.
C r
The function 𝑓 (𝑥) =
2𝑥−sin−1𝑥
2𝑥+tan−1 𝑥
each point in its domain)
f(0) = lim
(continuous at
2x − sin−1 x
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐵 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐶 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐶𝐴 = 0
Only statement (1) is correct.
S B = lim
x→0 2x + tan−1 x
2−
2− x
sin−1 x
x
tan−1 x
S
71. (b) x→0
2+ x
y = cos −1 (sinx) 2−1
π =
= cos−1 cos ( − x) 2+1
2 1
π
= −x =
2 3
tanθ = −1 76. (a)
3π If 𝑓(𝑥) = √25 − 𝑥 2
⇒θ=
4
f(x) − f(1) √2 1
lim = f ′ (1) = =
x→1 x−1 2 √2
−1
= 80. (c)
√24 f(x) = x 2 − 4x + 5 = (x − 2)2 + 1
−2x f(1) = 2, f(4) = 5
∵ f ′ (x) =
2√25 − x 2
−x
=
√25 − x 2
As x=1
−1
f ′ (x) =
√24
77. (a) ∴ Range f(x) = [1,5)

5 − 2tan√x 81. (b)
y = tan−1 ( )
2 + 5tan√x [. ]is the greatest integer function
5 b b
= tan−1 ( 2
5
− tan√x
5
1 + ( ) tan√x
2
= tan−1 − tan−1 tan√x
)
∫ [x]dx + ∫ [−x]dx
𝐚
b
= ∫ ([x] + [−x])dx
a
a
c k
∴
dy
2
=−
5
= tan−1 − √x
2
1
r a b
= ∫ (−1)dx
a
= a−b
78. (a)
dx
1
2√x
f(x) = xsinx + cosx + cos2 x

B C
82. (d)
8
∫ |x − 5|dx
2
79. (c)
2
π
= cosx(x − sinx) > 0 in (0, )
2
S S
⇒ f ′ (x) = xcosx + sinx − sinx − sinxcosx
= 2×
1
2
=9
×3×3
√1 − cosθ √2sin(θ/2)
lim = lim
θ→0 θ θ→0 θ
Applying the limits,
83. (d) = −a2 y
2
Let t = sinx d y
⇒ dt = cosxdx ⇒ 2 + a2 y = 0
dx
t4 88. (b)
∫ sin3 xcosxdx = ∫ t 3 dt = +c dy 1
4 = −x 2 − 3
sin4 x dx x
= +c 1
4 ⇒ ∫ dy = ∫ (−x 2 − ) dx
(1 − cos x)2
2 x3
= +c x3 1
4 ⇒y=− + 2+c
84. (b) 3 2x
∫ e𝑙n(tanx) dx = ∫ tanx dx Putting (-1, -2), we get
= 𝑙n|secx| + c 1 1 17
−2 = + + c ⇒ −
85. (c) 3 2 6
1
d 1 1
d x3 1 17
∫ ( tan−1 ) dx = ∫ ( cot −1 x) dx ∴ y=− + 2−
dx x 3 2x 6
−1 −1 dx ⇒ 6x 2 y = −2x 5 + 3 − 17x 2
1
k
−1
=∫ dx ⇒ 6x 2 y + 17x 2 + 2x 5 − 3 = 0
−1 (1 + x2 ) 89. (d)
c
1
1 dy
= −2 ∫ 2
dx = −asin(x) + bcos(x) − ce−x
0 1+x dx
= −2[tan−1 x]−1
= −2 ×
=−
π
π
4
0 d2 y
d2 x
r a
= −acos(x) − bsin(x) + ce−x
−(acos(x) + bsin(x) + ce−x ) + 2ce−x
= −y + 2ce−x
86. (a)
2
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6
⇒ 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = 2𝑥 − 5
⇒ 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) < 0
B C dy
d
d2 y
3
d y
3x
= −
dy
dx
− 2ce−x
= − − ( 2 + y) (Substituting from above)

dx d x
87. (d)
⇒ 2x − 5 < 0
⇒x<
5
2
S
y = pcos ax + qsin ax
S d3 y d2 y dy
+ + +y = 0
d3 x d2 x dx
Order = 4 (∵ No. of arbitrary constants = 4)
90. (d)
dy
dx
= eax+by = eax · eby
dy ⇒ eax dx − e−by dy = 0
⇒ = −p a sin ax + q a cos ax
dx Integrating both sides,
2
d y 1 ax 1 −by
⇒ 2 = −p𝑎 2 cosax − qa2 sinax e + e =c
dx a b
91. (a) 95. (a)
du dv y = (−sinx)−x
u +v dy x
dx dx = (−sin)−x [ (−cosx) + log(−sinx)
= eax sin bx[aeax sin bx + beax cos bx] dx sinx
+ eax cos bx[𝑎𝑒 ax cos bx · (−1)]
− beax sin bx]
2ax [a dy 𝜋
=e sin bx + b sin bx cos bx +a cos2 bx
2
[ ]x = −
− b sin bx cos bx] dx 6
𝜋 ⁄6
= 𝑎𝑒 2ax 1 𝜋 1
=( ) [− √3 − log ]
2 6 2
𝜋 6log2 − √3𝜋
92. (c) = 2− 6 ( )
dy cos(logx) 6
y = sin(logx) ⇒ =
dx x 96. (a)
dy d√1−sin2x π π
⇒ x( ) = cos(logx) To find , where < x <
dx dx 4 2
𝜋 𝜋
Again, Differentiating, For < x < , √1 − sin2x = sinx − cosx
d2 y dy
x 2+
dx
⇒x 2
dx
2
d y
dx 2
=−
sin logx −y
dy
x
+x +y= 0
dx
=
x
4
∴
2
d√1 − sin2x
dx
= cosx + sinx
c k
93. (c)
𝑙 + 2r = 40
97. (a)
𝐼=∫
1
𝐼 = 𝑎2 ∫
dx
r a
a2 sin2 x+b2 cos2 x
sec2 𝑥
tan2 𝑥+( )
𝑏 2
C
𝑎
1 𝑎 −1 𝑎 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥
= 𝑎2 × 𝑏 tan ( )+𝑐
𝑏
B
1 𝑎 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥
=𝑐+ tan−1 ( )
𝑎𝑏 𝑏
Area is maximum, when 𝑙 + 2r = 20
94. (a)
⇒ r = 10
S S
[x(x − 1) + 1] is minimum when x 2 − x + 1is
3
minimum, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
98. (d)
f ′ (x) = lim
h→0
f(x+h)−f(x)
h
= lim
h→0
f(x)f(h) − f(x)
h
𝑓(𝑥)[𝑓(ℎ ) − 1]
3 = lim
Minimum value of x 2 − x + 1 = ℎ→0 ℎ
4
3
1⁄3 𝑓(𝑥)[ℎ𝑔(ℎ)𝜙(ℎ)]
⇒Required value = ( ) = lim
4 ℎ→0 ℎ
= 𝑎𝑏f(x)
99. (c) 26 𝑀 + 21 𝑊 = 25 (𝑀 + 𝑊)
dt dx
Let t = x + y ⇒ dy = dy + 1 𝑀 = 4𝑊
𝑀∶ 𝑊 = 4∶ 1
dt t+1 Therefore, in terms of percentage, 80% men and
−1=
dy t−1 20% women are in the group.
dt 𝑡 + 1 + t − 1 2t 104. (c)
⇒ = = 2sin𝛼 cos𝛼
dy t−1 t−1
t−1 sin𝛽 =
sin𝛼 + cos𝛼
⇒∫ dt = 2∫ dy 2sin𝜃 = sin𝛼 + cos𝛼
t
𝜋
⇒ t − logt = 2y + C1 Statement 1 : √2sin (𝛼 + ) · sin𝛽
4
⇒ x + y − log(x + y) − 2y = C1 2sin𝛼cos𝛼
⇒ y − x + log(x + y) = −C1 = C = (sin𝛼 + cos𝛼 ) ·
sin𝛼 + cos𝛼
100. (d) = 2sin𝛼cos𝛼
2sin2 x + sinx − 1 = sin2𝛼
limπ 2
x→ 2sin x − 3sinx + 1 𝜋 1
Statement2: cos (𝛼 − ) = (sin𝛼 + cos𝛼)
6
4 √2
(sin𝑥 + 1)(2sin𝑥 − 1) 2sin𝜃
= lim𝜋
𝑥→ sin𝑥 − 1)(2sin𝑥 − 1)
On applying the limits
=2
6
1
+1
105. (b)
=
3
√2
c k
= √2sin𝜃
P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1

1 3
101. (c)
1
2−1
= −3
r a
⇒ P(A) + P(A) + × P(A) = 1
2
⇒
13
4
2 2
P(A) = 1
4
𝑛(𝑆) = 36
𝐴 = {(1,5), (2,5), (3,5)(4,5)(5,5), (6,5), (5,1), (5,2),
(5,3), (5,4), (5,6)}
B = {(5,5), (6,4), (4,6), (6,5), (5,6), (6,6)}
B C
106. (a)
⇒ P(A) =
13
Let E be the probability of drawing defective

bolt. Let 𝐸1 , 𝐸2 and 𝐸3 be the event of drawing
102. (b)
r = 0.8
A ∩ B = {(5,5), (6,5), (5,6)}
P(B/A) =
3
11
S S a bolt produced by the Machines A, B and C

respectively. Then
𝑃 (𝐸1 ) =
𝐸
25
100
2
, 𝑃(𝐸2 ) =
𝐸 4
35
100
, 𝑃 (𝐸3 ) =
𝐸
𝑃 (𝐸 ) = 100 , 𝑃 (𝐸 ) = 100 , 𝑃 (𝐸 ) = 100.
5
40
100
,
r = √𝑏𝑥𝑦 × 𝑏𝑦𝑥 1 2 3
𝐸
That means answer is 20% Therefore, 𝑃 ( 𝐸2 ) =
103. (d) [𝑃(𝐸2 ).𝑃(
𝐸
)]
Let No. of Men = M 𝐸
𝐸2
𝐸 𝐸
[𝑃(𝐸1 ).𝑃( )+ 𝑃(𝐸2 ).𝑃( )+ 𝑃(𝐸3 ).𝑃( )]
Let No. of Women = W 𝐸1 𝐸2 𝐸3
Required probability i = 1, 2, ….. 25
25 × 2 Mean of Y:
= 𝑖=𝑛
25 × 2 + 35 × 4 + 40 × 5 1
5 𝑌̅ = ∑ 𝑦𝑖
= 𝑛
39 𝑖=1
107. (c) 𝑖=𝑛
1
Required probability ⇒ 𝑌̅ =
∑ 𝑥𝑖 + 𝑎
1 8 𝑛
𝑖=1
= ( 8C6 +8 C7 +8 C8 ) ( ) ∴ 𝑌̅ = 𝑋̅ + 𝑎 → (2)
2
1 From equation (1) and (2), we get,
= (28 + 8 + 1) ×
256 𝑦𝑖 − 𝑌̅ = (𝑥𝑖 − 𝑎) − (𝑋̅ − 𝑎)
37 ∴ 𝑦𝑖 − 𝑌̅ = 𝑥𝑖 − 𝑋̅
= 𝑖=𝑛 𝑖=𝑛
256
108. (a) ⇒ ∑(𝑦𝑖 − 𝑌̅)2 = ∑(𝑥𝑖 − 𝑋̅)2
Required Probability 𝑖=1 𝑖=1
3 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 On multiplying 1/n, we get,
= × × + × × + × ×
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
k
𝑖=𝑛 𝑖=𝑛
18 + 6 + 2 26 1 1
= = ⇒ ∑(𝑦𝑖 − 𝑌̅)2 = ∑(𝑥𝑖 − 𝑋̅ )2
𝑛 𝑛
109. (c)
64
=
13
32
64
1. When same number is added to each

𝑖=1
a
𝑖=1
⇒ 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑌) = 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑋)
c
Since, the variance remains same. The variance
of the new observation is also 4.
number in a group, then the average is also
increased by that number.
3. Similar to point 1, when each number is
111. (a)
C r
(x1 · x2 … … … xn )1⁄n = P
(y1 · y2 … … . yn )1⁄n = Q
x1 · x2 … … … xn 1⁄n (x1 · x2 … … … xn )1⁄n
B
doubled in a group, the average is also ( ) =
doubled. y1 · y2 … … … yn (y1 · y2 … … … yn )1⁄n
P
S
2. But standard deviation is used to represent
the variation of the set of data from its mean
S
value. So, adding the same number in each
value does not change the value of standard
deviation.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
112. (c)
=
Q
P(A) + P(B) − 2P(A ∩ B) = q

P(A ∩ B) = p
P(A) + P(B) = 2p + q
110. (b) 1 − P(A) + 1 − P(B) = p + q
Consider, P(A) + P(B) = 2 − 2p − q
𝑦𝑖 = 𝑥𝑖 + 𝑎 → (1) P(A ∩ B) = 1 − P(A ∪ B)
Where, = 1 − (q + p) = 1 − p − q
113. (b) = 20
1 118. (b)
𝑏𝑦𝑥 = −6, r = − Median can be obtained from given.
2
1 2 In order to find the median in an ogive,
(− ) = −6 × bxy i) Plot the points on the graph and join them
2
1 with lines.
⇒ bxy = −
24 ii) Find the value of N/2.
114. (d) iii) Mark this value in the Cumulative frequency
If set of bi-variate observation fall in a straight scale (y axis).
line with non-zero slope, then the values of iv) Join this value to the line formed by plotting
correlation coefficient is -1 and 1 only. the points with dotted line.
v) Now connect this point to the point on the x
115. (c) axis with a straight dotted line.
1
2×2×5×6 vi) The point where this line meets the x axis
Probability =
11×11 will be the median.
30
= 119. (d)
121
k
If x represents mean deviation about mean and
y represents standard deviation,
c
x = M · D · y = S. D
4
120. (c)
r a M. D = SD
⇒x<y
5
A negative correlation means that there is an
C
116. (d)
Combined Average inverse relationship between two variables -
500 × 1860 + 600 × 1750 when one variable decreases, the other
=
Combined Variance
1100
= 1800
S
500(81 + 3600) + 600(100 + 2500)
B
increases. The vice versa is a negative
correlation too, in which one variable increases
and the other decreases. These correlations are
=
=
117. (d)
1100
1100
(5 × 3681) + (6 × 2600)
S≈ 3092
Three dice having digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on

their faces are rolled.
studied in statistics as a means of determining
the relationship between two variables.
On seeing the statements, the statement (c) is
expected to be a negative correlation.
Not every change gives a positive result. These
different examples of negative correlation
No. of possible outcomes show how many things in the real world react
= 10 + 6 + 3 + 1 inversely.
NDA 1 2018
Mathematics NDA 1 2018 Question Paper
1. If 𝑛 ∈ 𝑁, then a. (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵′ ) − (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵′ )
121𝑛 − 25𝑛 + 1900𝑛 − (−4)𝑛 is b. (𝐴′ ∪ 𝐵) − (𝐴′ ∩ 𝐵)
divisible by which of the following? c. (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) − (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
a. 1904 d. (𝐴′ ∪ 𝐵′ ) − (𝐴′ ∩ 𝐵′ )
b. 2000 7. How many numbers between 100 and
c. 2002 1000 can be formed with the digits 5, 6,
d. 2006 7, 8, 9 if the repetition of digits is not
allowed?
a. 35
2. If 𝑛 = (2017)!, then, what is b. 53
1 1 1 1
𝑙𝑜𝑔2 𝑛
+ 𝑙𝑜𝑔3 𝑛
+ 𝑙𝑜𝑔 +. . . + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 c. 120
4𝑛 2017 𝑛
equal to? d. 60
8. The number of non-zero integral
a. 0 solutions of the equation |1 − 2𝑖 | 𝑥 −5𝑥
b. 1
c.
d. n
𝑛
2
3. In the expansion of (1 + 𝑥)43 , if the

is
c k
a. Zero (no solution)
b. One
c. Two
coefficients of (2𝑟 + 1)𝑡ℎ and
(𝑟 + 2)𝑡ℎ terms are equal, then what is
the value of 𝑟(𝑟 ≠ 1)?
a. 5
r a d. Three
9. If the ratio of AM to GM of two
positive numbers a and b is 5:3, then
a:b is equal to
b. 14
c. 21
d. 22
B C a. 3:5
b. 2:9
c. 9:1
d. 5:3
S
4. What is the principal argument of
(−1 − 𝑖), where 𝑖 = √−1? 10. If coefficients of 𝑎𝑚 and 𝑎𝑛 in the
𝜋 expansion of (1 + 𝑎) 𝑚+𝑛 are α and β,
a.
b.
c.
4
−𝜋
4
−3𝜋
4
S then which one of the following is
correct?
a. α = 2β
b. α = β
c. 2α = β
d. α = (m + n) β
d.
3𝜋 11. If 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔15 (1 + 3𝑥 ) = 𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔15 5 +
4 𝑙𝑜𝑔15 12, where x is an integer, then
5. Let α and β be real numbers and 𝑧 be a what is x equal to?
complex number. If 𝑧 2 + 𝛼 𝑧 + β = 0 a. -3
has two distinct non-real roots with real b. 2
roots 𝑅𝑒(𝑧) = 1, then it is necessary
c. 1
that
d. 3
a. β ∈ (−1,0)
12. How many four-digit numbers
b. β ∈ (1, ∞)
divisible by 10 can be formed using 1,
c. |β| = 1 5, 0, 6, 7 without repetition of digits?
d. β ∈ (0,1) a. 24
6. Let A and B be subsets of X and 𝐶 = b. 36
(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵′) ∪ (𝐴′ ∩ 𝐵), where A’ and B’ c. 44
are complements of A and B
d. 64
respectively in X. What is C equal to?
.
shop.ssbcrack.com
NDA 1 2018
c. −𝑖
Consider the information given below and d. 1
answer the two (02) items that follow: 19. What is
In a class, 54 students are good in Hindi 1 1 1 1
𝑙𝑜𝑔2 𝑛
+ 𝑙𝑜𝑔3 𝑛
+ 𝑙𝑜𝑔 +. . . + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
only, 63 students are good in 4𝑛 100 𝑛
Mathematics only, and 41 students are equal to (𝑛 ≠ 1)?
good in English only. There are 18
1
students who are good in both Hindi and a. 𝑙𝑜𝑔100! 𝑛
Mathematics. 10 students are good in all
three subjects. 1
b. 𝑙𝑜𝑔99! 𝑛
13. What is the number of students who
are good in either Hindi or Mathematics 99
c. 𝑙𝑜𝑔100! 𝑛
but not in English?
a. 99
b. 107
c. 125
d. 130
d.
c k 99
𝑙𝑜𝑔99! 𝑛
20. The modulus-amplitude form of

√3 + 𝑖, where 𝑖 = √−1 is
a
14. What is the number of students who are
good in Hindi and Mathematics but not 𝜋 𝜋
a. 2 (cos + 𝑖 sin ) 3 3
r
in English?
a. 18 𝜋 𝜋
b. 2 (cos 6 + 𝑖 sin 6 )
C
b. 12
c. 10
|
α−β
1−αβ
d. 8
| equal to?
S B
15. If α and β are different complex
numbers with |α| = 1, then what is
𝜋
c. 4 (cos 3 + 𝑖 sin 3 )
𝜋
d. 4 (cos 6 + 𝑖 sin 6 )
𝜋
a.
b.
c.
d.
|β|
2
1
0
S
16. The equation |1 − 𝑥| + 𝑥 2 = 5 has
21. What is the number of non-zero terms
in the expansion of
(1 + 2√3𝑥 ) 11 + (1 − 2√3𝑥 ) 11
(after simplification)?
a. 4
a. a rational root and an b. 5
irrational root c. 6
b. two rational roots d. 11
c. two irrational roots 22. What is the greatest integer among the
d. no real roots following by which the number 55 + 75
17. The binary number expression of the is divisible?
decimal number 31 is a. 6
a. 1111 b. 8
b. 10111 c. 11
c. 11011 d. 12
d. 11111 23. If 𝑥 = 1 − 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑦 3 + … up to
18. What is 𝑖1000 + 𝑖1001 + 𝑖1002 + 𝑖1003 infinite terms, where |𝑦| < 1, then
equal to (where 𝑖 = √−1)? which one of the following is correct?
a. 0 1
a. 𝑥 = 1+𝑦
b. 𝑖
NDA 1 2018
a. 𝐶 (𝑛 + 1, 𝑟)
1
b. 𝑥 = 1−𝑦 b. 𝐶 (𝑛 − 1, 𝑟 + 1)
c. 𝐶 (𝑛, 𝑟 + 1)
𝑦 d. 𝐶 (𝑛 + 2, 𝑟)
c. 𝑥 = 1+𝑦
29. Let [𝑥] denote the greatest integer
𝑦
function. What is the number of
d. 𝑥 = 1−𝑦 solutions of the equation
24. What is the inverse of the matrix 𝐴 = 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + [𝑥] = 0 in the interval
cos θ sin θ 0 [0,2]?
− sin θ cos θ 0
( 0 0 1) ? a. Zero (no solution)
b. One
cos θ − sin θ 0
sin θ cos θ 0
c. Two
a. ( 0 0 1) d. Three
30. A survey of 850 students in a
b.
cos θ
0
( sin θ
0
1
0
− sin θ
0
cos θ )
c k
University yields that 680 students like
music and 215 like dance. What is the
least number of students who like both
music and dance?
c.
1
0
(0
cos θ
0
cos θ
sin θ
0
− sin θ
cos θ )
sin θ 0
r a a. 40
b. 45
c. 50
d. 55
C
−sin θ cos θ 0
d. ( 0 0 1) 31. What is the sum of all two-digit
numbers which when divided by 3
25. If A is a 2 × 3 matrix and AB is a
2 × 5 matrix, then B must be a
a. 3 × 5 matrix
b. 5 × 3 matrix
S B leave 2 as the remainder?
a. 1565
b. 1585
c. 1635
c. 3 × 2 matrix
d. 5 × 2 matrix
2 3
S
26. If 𝐴 = (1 2) and A2 − kA − I2 = O,
where I2 is the 2 × 2 identity matrix,
then what is the value of k?
d. 1655
32. If 0 < a < 1, the value of 𝑙𝑜𝑔10𝑎 is
negative. This is justified by
a. Negative power of 10 is less
than 1
a. 4 b. Negative power of 10 is
b. -4 between 0 and 1
c. 8 c. Negative power of 10 is
positive
d. -8
d. Negative power of 10 is
27. What is the number of triangles that
negative
can be formed by choosing the vertices
from a set of 12 points in a plane, seven 33. The third term of a GP is 3. What is the
of which lie on the same straight line? product of the first 5 terms?
a. 185 a. 216
b. 175 b. 226
c. 115 c. 243
d. 105 d. Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data
28. What is 3
𝐶 (𝑛, 𝑟) + 2𝐶 (𝑛, 𝑟 − 1) + 𝐶(𝑛, 𝑟) equal 34. If 𝑥, 2 , 𝑧 are in AP; 𝑥, 3, 𝑧 are in GP;
to? then which one of the following will be
NDA 1 2018
in HP? a. 𝜋/4
a. x, 6, z b. 𝜋/2
b. x, 4, z c. 𝜋/3
c. z, 2, z d. 2𝜋/3
d. x, 1, z 41. If x, x − y and x + y are the angles of a
35. What is the value of the sum triangle (not an equilateral triangle)
11
such that tan(𝑥 − 𝑦), tan 𝑥, and
∑(in + in+1 ) tan(𝑥 + 𝑦) are in GP, what is x equal
n−2 to?
where 𝑖 = √−1 a. 𝜋/4
a. I b. 𝜋/3
b. 2i c. 𝜋/6
c. -2i d. 𝜋/2
d. 1 + i 42. ABC is a triangle inscribed in a circle
0<𝑥<
to?
𝜋
2
1
36. If sin 𝑥 = , sin 𝑦 =
√5
1
√10
, where
, then what is (𝑥 + 𝑦) equal
c k
with centre O. Let 𝛼 = BAC, where
45° < α < 90°. Let β = BOC.
Which one of the following is correct?
1− tan2 α
a. cos β = 1+ tan2 α
a. π
b.
𝜋
2
r a 1+ tan2 α
b. cos β = 1− tan2 α
c.
d. 0
𝜋
4
B C 2 tan α
c. cos β = 1+ tan2 α
d. sin β = 2 sin 2
α
a.
b.
c.
sin 𝑥
cos 𝑥
tan 𝑥
S
sin 5𝑥−sin 3𝑥
37. What is cos 5𝑥+cos 3𝑥 equal to?
S
43. If a flag-staff 6 m height placed on the
top of a tower throws a shadow of 2√3
m along the ground, then what is the
angle that the sun makes with the
ground?
d. cot 𝑥 a. 60°
38. What is sin 105° + cos 105° equal to? b. 45°
a. sin 50° c. 30°
b. cos 50° d. 15°
1 3
c. √2
1 44. What is tan−1 (4) + tan−1 (5) equal
to?
d. 0
a. 0
39. In a triangle ABC if 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = 3 and
sin 𝐴 = 2/3, then what is angle B equal b. 𝜋/4
to? c. 𝜋/3
a. 𝜋/4 d. 𝜋/2
b. 𝜋/2 45. A spherical balloon of radius r
c. 𝜋/3 subtends an angle α at the eye of an
observer, while the angle of elevation
d. 𝜋/6
of its centre is β. What is the height of
40. What is the principal value of the centre of the balloon (neglecting the
2𝜋
sin −1 (sin )? 3 height of the observer)?
NDA 1 2018
r sin β 𝜋 𝜋
a. α sin (𝑥 + 5 ) + cos (𝑥 5 ), where 𝑥 ∈
sin( )
2 𝜋
(0, ), is attained at
2
r sin β 𝜋
b. α a. 20
sin( )
4
β
r sin( ) 𝜋
2
c. sin α
b. 15
r sin α 𝜋
d. β
c. 10
sin( )
2
sin(𝑥+𝑦) 𝑎+𝑏 tan 𝑥 𝜋
46. If = 𝑎−𝑏, then what is tan 𝑦 d.
sin(𝑥−𝑦) 2
equal to?
a
a. 51. What is the distance between the points
b
which divide the line segment joining
b.
c.
b
a
a+b
a−a
c
a.k
(4, 3) and (5, 7) internally and
externally in the ratio 2:3?
12√17
5
d.
a−b
a+a
r a b.
c.
13√17
√17
5
47. If sin α + sin β = 0 = cos α + cos β,

where 0 < β < α < 2π, then which one
of the following is correct?
a. α = π − β
B C d.
5
6√17
5
b. α = π + β
c. α = 2π − β
d. 2α = π + 2β
S S
48. Suppose cos 𝐴 is given. If only one
𝐴
value of cos ( 2 ) is possible, then A
52. What is the angle between the straight
lines
(m2 − mn) y = (mn + n2 ) x + n3 and
(mn + m2 )y = (mn − n2 )x + m3 ,
where m > n?
2mn
must be a. tan−1 ( 2 2 )
m +n
a. An odd multiple of 90°
b. A multiple of 90° 4m2n2
b. tan−1 (m4−n4 )
c. An odd multiple of 180°
d. A multiple of 180°
4m2n2
49. If cos α + cos β + cos γ = 0, where c. tan−1 (m4+n4 )
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
0 < α ≤ , 0 < β ≤ , 0 < γ ≤ , then
2 2 2
what is the value of sin α + sin β + d. 45°
sin γ?
a. 0 53. What is the equation of the straight line
b. 3 cutting off an intercept 2 from the
5√2 negative direction of y-axis and
c. 2 inclined at 30° with the positive
direction of x-axis?
3√2
d. 2
a. x − 2√3 y − 3√2 = 0
50. The maximum value of b. x + 2√3 y − 3√2 = 0
c. x + √3 y − 2√3 = 0
NDA 1 2018
d. x − √3 y − 2√3 = 0 d. 2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 1
54. What is the equation of the line passing 58. Let the coordinates of the points A, B,
through the point of intersection of the C be (1, 8, 4), (0, -11, 4) and (2, -3, 1)
lines respectively. What are the coordinates
𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 3 = 0 and 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 5 = 0 of the point D which is the foot of the
and parallel to the line perpendicular from A on BC?
𝑦 − 𝑥 + 10 = 0? a. (3, 4. -2)
a. 7𝑥 − 7𝑦 + 18 = 0 b. (4, -2, 5)
b. 5𝑥 − 7𝑦 + 18 = 0 c. (4, 5, -2)
c. 5𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 18 = 0 d. (2, 4, 5)
d. 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 5 = 0 59. What is the equation of the plane
55. Consider the following statements: passing through the points (-2, 6, -6),
1. The length p of the perpendicular from (-3, 10, -9) and (-5, 0, -6)?
the origin to the line ax + by = c a. 2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 2
satisfies the relation p2 = 2 2 .
a +b
2. The length p of the perpendicular from
x y
the origin to the line + = 1 satisfies
a b
c2
k
b. 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 3
c. 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6
c
d. 𝑥 − 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 3
60. A sphere of constant radius r through
the relation
1
p2
1
= a2 + b2.
3. The length of the perpendicular from
the origin to the line y = mx + c
1
1+m2 +c2
r a the origin intersects the coordinate axes
in A, B, and C. What is the locus of the
centroid of the triangle ABC?
a. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 = 𝑟 2
C
1
satisfies the relation = . b. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 = 4𝑟 2
p2 c2
c. 9(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 ) = 4𝑟 2
B
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1, 2, and 3 d. 3(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 ) = 2𝑟 2
61. The coordinates of the vertices P, Q,
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 only
S S
56. What is the equation of the ellipse
whose vertices are (± 5,0) and foci are
at (± 4,0)?
and R of a triangle PQR are (1, -1, 1),
(3, -2, 2) and (0, 2, 6) respectively. If
RQP = θ, then what is PRQ equal to?
a. 30° + 𝜃
b. 45° − 𝜃
x2 y2 c. 60° − 𝜃
a. + =1 d. 90° − 𝜃
25 9
62. The perpendiculars that fall from any
x2 y2 point of the straight line 2𝑥 + 11𝑦 = 5
b. 16
+ 9
=1
upon the two straight lines
x2 y2
24𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 20 and 4𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 2 are
c. 25
+ 16 = 1 a. 12 and 4 respectively
b. 11 and 5 respectively
x2 y2 c. Equal to each other
d. 9
+ 25 = 1
d. Not equal to each other
57. What is the equation of the straight line
passing through the point (2, 3) and
63. The equation of the line, when the
portion of it intercepted between the
making an intercept on the positive y-
axes is divided by the point (2,3) in the
axis equal to twice its intercept on the
ratio of 3:2, is
positive x-axis?
a. 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 5 a. Either 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 or 9𝑥 + 𝑦 =
12
b. 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 7
b. Either 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 5 or 4𝑥 +
c. 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 7
NDA 1 2018
9𝑦 = 30 b. 3î + 2ĵ + 9k̂

c. Either 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 or 𝑥 + 9𝑦 = c. 3î + 4ĵ + 9k̂
30 d. î + ĵ + k̂
d. Either 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 5 or 9𝑥 + ⃗⃗ + 3c⃗ = 0 and
69. If a⃗⃗ + 2b
4𝑦 = 30
⃗a⃗ × ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ × c⃗) then
b × c⃗ + c⃗ × a⃗⃗ = λ(b
64. What is the distance between the
what is the value of λ?
straight lines 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 9 and
6𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 15?
a. 2
a. 3/2 b. 3
b. 3/10 c. 4
c. 6 d. 6
d. 5 70. If the vectors ⃗⃗k and ⃗A⃗ are parallel to
65. What is the equation to the sphere each other, then what is kk ⃗⃗ × ⃗A⃗ equal
whose centre is at (-2, 3, 4) and radius to?
is 6 units?
a. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 4𝑥 − 6𝑦 −
8𝑧 = 7
b. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 6𝑥 − 4𝑦 −
c k
a. k 2 A
b. 0
⃗⃗
c. −k 2 ⃗A⃗
d. A ⃗⃗
8𝑧 = 7
c. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 4𝑥 − 6𝑦 −
8𝑧 = 4
d. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 +
r a
71. Which one of the following is correct
in respect of the function f: R → R+
defined as 𝑓 (𝑥) = |𝑥 + 1|?
a. 𝑓 (𝑥) 2 = [𝑓(𝑥)] 2
8𝑧 = 4
66. If 𝑎⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗ are vectors such that
|𝑎⃗| = 2, |𝑏⃗⃗| = 7 and
a⃗⃗ × ⃗⃗
B C
b = 3î + 2ĵ + 6k̂, then what is the
b. 𝑓 |(𝑥)| = |𝑓(𝑥)|
c. 𝑓 (𝑥 + 𝑦) = 𝑓 (𝑥) + |𝑓(𝑦)
d. None of the above
72. Suppose f: R → R+ is defined by
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
S S
acute angle between 𝑎⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗?
a.
b.
𝑥2
𝑓(𝑥 ) = 1+𝑥 2 .What is the range of the
function?
[0, 1)
[0, 1]
c. (0, 1]
67. Let 𝑝⃗ and 𝑞⃗ be the position vectors of d. (0, 1)
the points P and Q respectively with 73. If 𝑓 (𝑥) = |𝑥| + |𝑥 + 1| , then which
respect to origin O. The points R and S one of the following is correct?
divide PQ internally and externally
a. 𝑓 (𝑥) is continuous at 𝑥 = 0
respectively in the ratio 2:3. If ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
OR and and 𝑥 = 1
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
OS are perpendicular, then which one of b. 𝑓 (𝑥) is continuous at 𝑥 = 0
the following is correct? but not at 𝑥 = 1
a. 9𝑝2 = 4𝑞2 c. 𝑓 (𝑥) is continuous at 𝑥 = 1
b. 4𝑝2 = 9𝑞2 but not at 𝑥 = 0
c. 9𝑝 = 4𝑞 d. 𝑓 (𝑥) is neither continuous at
d. 4𝑝 = 9𝑞 𝑥 = 0 nor at 𝑥 = 1
68. What is the moment about the point 74. Consider the function f(x) =
î + 2ĵ − k̂ of a force represented by 2
{x ℓn|x| x ≠ 0 What is 𝑓′(0) equal
3î + k̂ acting through the point 0 x=0
2î − ĵ + 3k̂? to?
a. −3î + 11ĵ + 9k̂ a. 0
b. -1
NDA 1 2018
𝜋
c. 1
d. It does not exist ∫ 𝑒𝑥
75. What is the area of the region bounded 0
by the parabola 𝑦 2 = 6(𝑥 − 1) and equal to?
𝑒 𝜋 +1
𝑦 2 = 3𝑥? a. 2
√6
a. 3 𝑒 𝜋 −1
b. 2
2√6
b. 3
c. 𝑒 𝜋 + 1
4√6
c. 𝑒 𝜋 +1
3 d. 4
𝑥 2−9
5√6 80. If 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2−2𝑥−3 , 𝑥 ≠ 3 is
d. 3
continuous at 𝑥 = 3, then which one of
Consider the following information
for the next three (03) items that
follow:
c k
the following is correct?
a. 𝑓 (3) = 0
b. 𝑓 (3) = 1.5
Three sides of a trapezium be the angle
between a pair of adjacent sides.
76. If the area of the trapezium is

r a c. 𝑓 (3) = 3
d. 𝑓 (3) = −1.5
81. What is
𝑒
maximum, what is the length of the

fourth side?
a.
𝜋
6
B C ∫ x ℓn x dx
1
equal to?
a.
𝑒+1
S
4
𝜋
b. 4 𝑒 2 +1
S
b. 4
𝜋
c. 3
𝑒−1
c. 4
2𝜋
d. 5
𝑒 2 −1
77. If the area of the trapezium is d. 4
maximum, what is the length of the 82. What is
fourth side? √2
a. 8 cm
b. 9 cm ∫ [𝑥 2 ]
c. 10 cm 0
equal to (where [.] is the greatest
d. 12 cm
integer function)?
78. What is the maximum area of the
trapezium? a. √2 − 1
a. 36√3 𝑐𝑚2 b. 1 − √2
b. 30√3 𝑐𝑚2 c. 2(√2 − 1)
c. 27√3 𝑐𝑚2 d. √3 − 1
d. 24√3 𝑐𝑚2 83. What is the maximum value of
79. What is 16sinθ − 12sin2 θ?
a. 3/4
b. 4/3
NDA 1 2018
c. 16/3
d. 4 a. ℓn(2x − 1) + c
84. If f: R → S defined by
ℓn(1−2−x )
𝑓(𝑥) = 4 sin 𝑥 − 3 cos 𝑥 + 1 is onto, b. +c
ℓn 2
then what is S equal to?
a. [−5, 5] ℓn(2−x−1)
c. +c
b. (−5, 5) 2 ℓn 2
c. (−4, 6)
ℓn(1+2−x )
d. [−4, 6] d. ℓn 2
+𝑐
85. For f to be a function, what is the
1
domain of f, if f(x) = ? 91. The order and degree of the differential
√|x|−x
equation y 2 = 4a(x − a), where ‘a’ is
a. (−∞, 0)
an arbitrary constant, are respectively
b. (0, ∞)
a. 1,2
c.
d.
(−∞, ∞)
(−∞, 0]
86. What is the solution of the differential
equation x dy − y dx = 0?
b. 2,1
c. 2,2
d. 1,1
c k
92. What is the value of
a. xy = c
b. y = cx
c. x + y = c
d. x − y = c
r a −π/4
π/4
∫ (sin x − tan x) dx
C
1 1
87. What is the derivative of the function a. − √2 + ℓ𝑛 (√2)
f(x) = etan x + ℓn(sec x) − eℓn x b. √2
1
π
at x = 4 ?
a. e/2
b. e
S B 93. If
c. 0
d. √2
c. 2e
d. 4e
S
88. Which one of the following differential
equations has a periodic solution?
a.
d2 x
dt2
+ μx = 0
b
∫ x 3 dx = 0
a
and
b
2
∫ x 2 dx =
d2 x
3
b. − μx = 0 a
dt2 then what are the values of a and b
dx
respectively?
c. x dt + μt = 0 a. -1,1
b. 1,1
dx c. 0,0
d. dt
+ μxt = 0
d. 2, -2
89. What is the period of the function 94. What is
1
𝑓(𝑥) = sin 𝑥?
∫ 𝑥 (1 − 𝑥) 9 𝑑𝑥
a. 𝜋/4
b. 𝜋/2 0
equal to?
c. 𝜋
a. 1/110
d. 2𝜋
𝑑𝑥 b. 1/132
90. What is ∫ 2𝑥 −1 equal to?
NDA 1 2018
c. 1/148 a. 4, 5
d. 1/240 b. 2, 3
c. 3, 2
tan x
95. What is lim sin 2x equal to? d. 5, 4
x→0
101. In a Binomial Distribution, the
a. 1/2 mean is three times its variance. What
is the probability of exactly 3 successes
b. 1
out of 5 trials?
c. 2
a. 80/243
d. Limit does not exist
b. 40/243
√2x+3h−√2x
c. 20/243
96. What is lim 2h
equal to? d. 10/243
h→0
102. Consider the following
1 statements:
a.
b.
2√2x
3
√2x
2. P(A ∩ B
c k
1. P (A̅ ∪ B) = P(A ̅ ) + P(B) − P(A̅ ∩ B)
̅) = P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
3. P(A ∩ B) = P(B) P(A | B)
Which of the above statements are
c.
d.
3
2√2x
3
4√2x
r a correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
97. If 𝑓(𝑥) is an even function, where

𝑓(𝑥) ≠ 0, then which one of the
B C 103.
d. 1, 2, and 3
If the correlation coefficient
between x and y is 0.6, covariance is 27
and variance of y is 25, then what is the
S
a. f ′ (x) is even function
b. f ′ (x) is odd function
S
c. f ′ (x) may be an even or odd
function depending on the
type of function
d. f ′ (x) is a constant function
variance of x?
a. 9/5
b. 81/25
c. 9
d. 81
104. The probabilities that a student
2 dy
98. If y = ex sin 2x , then what is dx at will solve Question A and Question B
x = π equal to? are 0.4 and 0.5 respectively. What is the
2 probability that he solves at least one of
a. (1 + π)ex
2 the two questions?
b. 2π eπ a. 0.6
2
c. 2eπ b. 0.7
2
d. ex c. 0.8
99. What is the solution of d. 0.9
(1 + 2x) dy (1 − 2y) dx = 0 ? 105. Let x̅ be the mean of x1 , x2 , x3 ,
a. x − y − 2xy = c …., xn . If xi = a + cyi , for some
b. y − x − 2xy = c constants a and c, then what will be the
c. y + x − 2xy = c mean of y1 , y2 , y3 , …., yn ?
d. x + y + 2xy = c a. a + cx ̅
100. What are the order and degree,
1
respectively, of the differential equation b. a − e x̅
d3 y 2 dy
(
dx3
) = y 4 + (dx) 5
?
NDA 1 2018
1
c. x̅ − a a. 1 only
e
b. 2 only
x̅−a c. Both 1 and 2
d. c d. Neither 1 and 2
110. What is the median of the
106. Consider the following numbers 4.6, 0, 9.3, -4.8, 7.6, 2.3, 12.7,
statements: 3.5, 8.2, 6.1, 3.9, 5.2?
1. If the correlation coefficient a. 3.8
𝑟𝑥𝑦 = 0, then the two lines of
b. 4.9
regression are parallel to each other. c. 5.7
2. If the correlation coefficient
d. 6.0
𝑟𝑥𝑦 = +1 , then the two lines of
111. In a test in Mathematics, 20% of
regression are perpendicular to each the students obtained “first class”. If the
other.
data are represented by a Pie-Chart,
k
Which of the above statements is/are what is the central angle corresponding
correct? to “first class”?
c
a. 1 only a. 20°
b. 2 only b. 36°
107.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
If 4𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 33 = 0 and 20𝑥 −
9𝑦 = 107 are two lines of regression,
then what are the values of x̅ and y̅
r a
112.
c. 72°
d. 144°
The mean and standard
deviation of a set of values are 5 and 2
respectively?
a. 12 and 18
b. 18 and 12
B C respectively. If 5 is added to each value,
then what is the coefficient of variation
for the new set of values?
a. 10
108.
c. 13 and 17
d. 17 and 13
S S
Consider the following
statements:
1. Mean is independent of change in
scale and changes in origin.
113.
b. 20
c. 40
d. 70
A train covers the first 5 km of
its journey at a speed of 30 km/hr and
the next 15km at speed of 45 km/hr.
2. Variance is independent of change What is the average speed of the train?
in scale but not in origin.
a. 35 km/hr
Which of the above statements
is / are correct? b. 37.5 km/hr
a. 1 only c. 39.5 km/hr
b. 2 only d. 40 km/hr
c. Both 1 and 2 114. Two fair dice are rolled. What is
the probability of getting a sum of 7?
d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. 1/36
109. Consider the following
statements: b. 1/6
1. The sum of deviations from mean is c. 7/12
always zero. d. 5/12
2. The sum of absolute deviations is 115. If A and B are two events such
minimum when taken around that 2P(A) = 3P(B), where
median. 0 < P(A) < P(B) < 1 , then which one
Which of the above statements is/ of the following is correct?
are correct? a. P(A | B) < P(B| A) <
NDA 1 2018
P(A ∩ B) 120. The standard deviation σ of the

b. P(A ∩ B) < P(B| A) < first N natural numbers can be obtained
P(A | B) using which one of the following
c. P(B| A) < P(A | B) < formulae?
P(A ∩ B) N2 −1
a. σ = 12
d. P(A ∩ B) < P(A | B) <
P(B| A)
N2−1
116. A box has ten chits numbered 0, b. σ = √ 12
1, 2, 3, …., 9. First, one chit is drawn at
random and kept aside. From the
N −1
remaining, a second chit is drawn at c. σ = √ 12
random. What is the probability that the
second chit drawn is “9”?
N2−1
a. 1/10 d. σ = √ 6N
117.
b. 1/9
c. 1/90
d. None of the above
One bag contains 3 white and 2
c k
black balls, another bag contains 5
white and 3 black balls. If a bag is
chosen at random and a ball is drawn
from it, what is the chance that it is
r a
white?
a. 3/8
b. 49/80
c. 8/13
B C
118.
d. 1/2
S S
Consider the following in
respect of two events A and B:
1. P (A occurs but not B) = P(A) − P(B)
if B ⊂ A
2. P (A alone or B alone occurs) = P(A) +
P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
3. P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B
are mutually exclusive
Which of the above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only
119. A committee of three has to be
chosen from a group of 4 men and 5
women. If the selection is made at
random, what is the probability that
exactly two members are men?
a. 5/14
b. 1/21
c. 3/14
d. 8/21
NDA 1 2018
Mathematics NDA 1 2018 Solution
1. (b) (a + b)/2 5 a2 + b2 + 2b 100

Putting 𝑛 = 1, 121𝑛 − 25𝑛 + 1900𝑛 − = ⇒ =
√ab 3 ab 9
(−4) 𝑛 = 121 − 25 + 1900 + 4 = 2000
Which is divisible by 2000. ⇒ 9t 2 − 82t + 9 = 0 [where t = a/b]
⇒ t = 9, 1/9
2. (b) ⇒ a ∶ b = 9 ∶ 1 OR a ∶ b = 1 ∶ 9
1 1 1 1
n+ n+ n +.....+
log 2 log 3 log 4 log n2017 10. (b)
= log 2n + log 3n + log 4n + . . . . . + log 2017
n
m+n m+n
= log 2017! = log 2017! α= nC ,β= mC
n 2017! = 1
∴ α=β
3. (b)
43 43
C 2r+1 = C 43−r−2 ⇒ 3r + 1 = 41 11. (c)
⇒ r = 14 x + log15 (1 + 3x ) = xlog 15 5 + log15 12
4. (c)
Arg(−1 − i) = π +
π
4
=−
3π
4
c k
⟹ log15 15x + log15 (1 + 3x ) = log15 5x + log 15 12
⟹ log15 15x (1 + 3x ) = log15 (5x × 12)
⟹ 15x (1 + 3x ) = 5x × 12
⟹ 3x + 32x = 12 ⟹ x = 1
5. (c)
Let z = x + iy
(x + iy) 2+ α(x + iy) + β = 0
r a 12. (a)
The last digit is fixed as ‘0’.
⟹ x 2 − y 2 + 2ixy + αx + iαy + β = 0
Equating real and imaginary parts
separately, we get
x 2 − y 2 + αx + β = 0 , (2x + α)y = 0
B C ∴ No. of ways = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24
13. (c)
Required No.
Now, 2x + α = 0 (∵ y = 0)
⟹ α = −2 (∵ x = Re z = 1)
Now, 1 − y 2 − 2 + β = 0
S S
⟹ β = 1 + y 2 > 1 (∵ y ∈ R, y ≠ 0)
⟹ β ∈ (1, ∞)
= (54 + 63) + (18 − 10) = 125
14. (d)
Required No. = 18 − 10 = 8
15. (c)
6. (c) α−β |α − β| |α − β|
| |= = =1
𝐶 = (A ∩ B′) ∪ (A′ ∩ B) ̅ − αβ̅
α. α ̅ − β̅| ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
|α||α |α − β|
= (A − B) ∪ (B − A) = (A ∪ B) − (A ∩ B)
16. (a)
7. (d) |1 − x| + x 2 = 5
No. of ways = 5 × 4 × 3 = 60 ⟹ 1 − x + x 2 = 5, x < 1
Or −1 + x + x 2 = 5, x ≥ 1
8. (a) ⟹ x 2 − x − 4 = 0 , x < 1 or
|1 − 2i| x = 5x x2 + x − 6 = 0 , x ≥ 1
⇒ 5x/2 = 5x −1−√17
⟹x= or x = 2
⇒x=0 2
There is no non-zero integral solution. Equation has a rational root and an
irrational root.
9. (c)
17. (d)
31 = 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1
NDA 1 2018
∴ Binary expression of decimal number 26. (a)

31 = 11111 A2 − I2 = kA
5 8 1 0 k 2k
⟹[ ]−[ ]=[ ]
18. (a) 8 13 0 1 2k 3k
1000 4 8 k 2k
i + i1001 + i1002 + i1003 = 1 + i + i2 + i3 ⟹[ ]−[ ]⇒k=4
8 12 2k 3k
⟹ 1+i−1−i = 0
27. (a)
19. (a) No. of triangle
1 1 1 1
+ + + .....+ = 12C 3 − 7C 3 = 220 − 35 = 185
log 2 N log 3 N log 4 N log100 N
1
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑁2 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑁3 +. . . . . +𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑁100 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑁100! = 𝑁 28. (d)
𝑙𝑜𝑔100! n n n n
rC + r−1C + r−1C + r−2C
20. (b) = n+1rC + n+1
r−1C =
n+2
rC
z = √3 + i
r = √3 + 1 = 2
π
argument = 6
29. (a)
c k
No. of solution = one
π
So, z = 2 (cos 6 + i sin 6 )
21. (c)
π
r a
Let y = 2√3 x
Now, (1 + y) 11 + (1 − y) 11 has no. of
terms
=
11 + 1
=6
B C
22. (d)
2
S S
55 + 75 is divisible by 5 + 7 = 12
30. (b)
Required No.
= 680 + 215 − 850 = 45
31. (c)
23. (a)
Sum = 11 + 14+. . . . . +98
Using formula for sum of infinite terms
11 + 98
of GP =( ) × 30 = 109 × 15 = 1635
1 1 2
x= =
1 − (−y) 1 + y 32. (b)
Negative power of 10 will always be
24. (a) between 0 & 1.
In this case,
A−1 = adj A = (co − factor A) T 33. (c)
cos θ − sin θ 0 3 3
= [ sin θ cos θ 0] Product = × × 3 × 3r × 3r 2 = 243
r2 r
0 0 1
34. (a)
25. (a) x + z = 3 , xz = 9
(A) (2×3) × (B) (3×5) = (AB) (2×5) 2xz 18
= = 6 ⟹ x, 6, z ∈ H. P
x+z 3
∴ B must be 3 × 5 matrix
NDA 1 2018
35. (c) 6
tan θ = = √3 ⟹ θ = 60°
Sum = i2 + 2i3 + 2i4 +. . . . . +2i10 + 2i11 + i12 2√3
= 2i11 = 2i3 = −2i 44. (b)
1 3
36. (c) tan−1 ( 4+5 ) = tan−1 (1) =
π
1 1 1 3 4
sin x = , sin y = 1 − (4) × (5)
√5 √10
sin(x + y) = sin x . cos y + cos x sin y
1 2
45. (a)
cos x = √1 − 5 = , Let H be the height and R be the
√5
1 9 3
distance of centre of balloon from the
cos y = √1 − =√ = observer.
10 10 √10
1 3 2 1 5 1 r
sin(x + y) = × + × = = R=
√5 √10 √5 √10 √50
sin α /2
√2
r sin β
⟹ x + y = 45°
37. (c)
sin 5x − sin 3x 2 cos 4x. sin x
= = tan x
46. (a)
k
H = R sin β =
c
sin α /2
cos 5x + cos 3x 2 cos 4x. cos x
38. (c)
sin(90° + 15°) + cos 105° = cos 15° + cos 105°
r a sin(x + y) + sin(x − y) a
⟹
2 sin y cos x
= ⟹
b
=
sin(x + y) − sin(x − y) b
2 sin x cos y a tan x a
=
tan y b
= 2 cos 60° . cos 45° = 2 ×
39. (b)
1 1
× =
1
2 √2 √2
B C 47. (b)
(sin α + sin β) 2+(cos α + cos β) 2= 0
⟹ 2 + 2 cos(α − β) = 0
2
a
=
=
3
b
sin A sin B
2/3 sin B S S ⟹ cos(α − β) = −1 = cos π

⟹ α = π+β
48. (c)
A must be odd multiple of 180°
π
sin B = 1 , B =
2 49. (b)
π
40. (c) cos α + cos β + cos γ = 0, 0 < α ≤ 2 ,
π π
2𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 0<β≤ ,0<γ<
sin−1 (sin ) = sin−1 sin (𝜋 − ) = sin−1 sin 2 2
3 3 3 𝜋
𝜋 ⟹α=β=γ=
= 2
3
⟹ sin α + sin β + sin γ = 3
41. (b)
Sum of angles of a triangle = π 50. (a)
π π
⟹ x − y + x + x + y = π ⟹ x = π/3 f(x) = sin (x + ) + cos (x + )
5 5
π π
42. (a) = √2 sin (x + + )
5 4
π π π
1 − tan 2 α f(x) is maximum when x + + =
cos β = cos 2α = 5 4 2
1 + tan 2 α π
⟹x=
43. (a) 20
NDA 1 2018
51. (a) 1+2λ

Now, λ−2
= 1 ⟹ λ = −3
∴ Equation is −5x + 5y − 18 = 0
⟹ 5x − 5y + 18 = 0
55. (c)
Statement 1
2
22 23 12
∴ PQ = √(2 − ) + (−5 − )2 = √17
5 5 5
52. (b)
Slope S1=
mn+n2
m2 −mn
, Slope S2=
mn + n2
−
mn − n2
mn−n2
mn+m2
P=
c k
|−c|
√a2 + b 2
It is true.
Statement 2
⟹ P2 =
c2
a2 + b 2
1+ 2
After solving
2
Angle = tan−1 ( m − mn 2 mn + m 2 )
mn + n
×
2
mn − n
m + mn mn + m2
r a
Angle = tan−1 ( 4
53. (d)
4m2 n2
m − n4
)
B C
S S P
1
2
1
= 2+ 2
a
It is true.
Statement 3
1
b
Equation of line is c2 1 m2 + 1
1 ⟹ P2 = ⟹ =
y= x−2 m2 + 1 P2 c2
√3 It is false.
⟹ √3y = x − 2√3
⟹ x − √3y − 2√3 = 0 56. (a)
c = 4, a = 5
54. (c) b2 = 25 − 16 = 9
Equation of line is ∴ Equation of ellipse is
x + 2y − 3 + λ (2x − y + 5) = 0 x2 y2
⟹ (1 + 2𝜆)𝑥 + (2 − 𝜆)𝑦 + 5𝜆 − 3 = 0 + =1
25 9
NDA 1 2018
57. (b)
x y
Equation of line is + =1
a 2a
⟹ 2x + y = 2a ...(1)
Putting (2, 3), we get 2a = 7
∴ Equation of line is 2x + y = 7
58. (c)
Equation of BC is
⟹ ∠QPR = 90°
x − 0 y + 11 z − 4
= = = λ (say) We have, ∠RQP = θ
2 8 −3
⟹ ∠PRQ = 90° − θ
⟹ x = 2λ , y = 8λ − 11, z = −3λ + 4
Now, 2(x − 1) + 8(y − 8) − 3(z − 4) = 0
62. (c)
⟹ 2x + 8y − 3z = 54 5
Let, (2 , 0) be a point on 2x + 11y = 5.
⟹ 4λ + 64λ − 88 + 9λ − 12 = 54
⟹λ=2
∴ foot = (4, 5, −2)
c k
24x + 7y = 20 is
8
5
5
Now, perpendicular from (2 , 0) to
59. (a)
Equation of plane is
x+2 y−6 z+6
| −1 4 −3 | = 0
r a 4x − 3y = 2 is
5
5
Perpendicular from (2 , 0) to
8
−3 −6 0
⟹ (z + 6)(18) + 3[−6(x + 2) + 3(y − 6)] = 0

⟹ 18z + 108 + 3(−6x − 12 + 3y − 18) = 0
B C 63. (d)
⟹ 2x − y − 2z = 2
60. (c)
S S
Let A (a, 0, 0), B (0, b, 0), C (0, 0, c)
Equation sphere is
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − ax − by − cz = 0
1 2a
r = √a2 + b 2 + c 2 ⟹ a2 + b2 + c 2 = 4r 2 Now 5 = 2 ⟹ a = 5
2
Let, (α, β, γ) be the centroid of triangle. 3𝑏
=3 ⟹b=5
a b c 5
⟹ α = ,β = ,γ = Equation of line is x + y = 5.
3 3 3
2 2 2 a2 b2 c2 4r2
Now, α + β + γ = + + =
9 9 9 9
⟹ 9(α2 + β2 + γ2 ) = 4r 2
⟹ Locus is given by, 9(x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) = 4r 2
61. (d)
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
PQ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
PR = 0
3a 10
=2⟹a=
5 3
NDA 1 2018
2b 15 ⃗ ) = −3c⃗⃗ ⟹ a⃗ × ⃗b + 2b
(a⃗ + 2b ⃗ × ⃗b = −3c × ⃗b
=3⟹b=
5 2 ⇒ a⃗ × ⃗b = 3(b
⃗ × c)
Equation of line is
3x 2y ⃗ ⟹ 3(c × a⃗) + (a⃗ × a⃗)
3c + a⃗ = −2b
+ =1 ⃗ × a⃗
10 15 = −2b
⟹ 9x + 4y = 30 ⃗ ) = 6(b
⟹ 3(c × a⃗) = 2(a⃗ × b ⃗ × c)
⟹ c × a⃗ = 2(b⃗ × c)
64. (b)
15 Now,
|9 − |
Distance = 2 = 3 ⃗ +b
a⃗ × b ⃗ × c + c × a⃗ = 6(b
⃗ × c) ⟹ λ = 6
5 10
70. (b)
65. (a)
Cross product of parallel vectors = ⃗0
(x + 2) 2+(y − 3) 2+(z − 4) 2 = 62
⟹ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 4x − 6y − 8z
2 2 2
= 62 − 22 − 32 − 42
⟹ x + y + z + 4x − 6y − 8z = 7
71. (d)
k
f(x) = |x + 1|
c
going through options
(a) f(x 2 ) = |x 2 + 1|
66. (a)
sin θ =
|a⃗ × ⃗b|
⃗|
|a⃗||b
=
7
=
2×7 2
1
r a {f(x)} 2 = (x + 1) 2
Which implies f(x 2 ) ≠ {f(x)} 2
(b) f(|x|) = ||x| + 1|
⟹ θ = 30°
67. (a)
B C |f(x)| = ||x + 1|| = |x + 1|

Which implies f(|x|) ≠ |f(x)|
(c) f(x + y) = |x + y + 1|
f(x) + f(y) = |x + 1| + |y + 1|
S S 72. (a)
Which implies
f(x + y) ≠ f(x) + f(y)
Option d is correct.
𝑥2
𝑦 = 𝑓 (𝑥) =
1+𝑥 2
3p⃗ + 2q⃗ Clearly y ≥ 0 , Again x 2 < 1 + x 2
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
OR = , ⃗⃗⃗⃗
OS = 3p
⃗ − 2q
⃗
5 So, Range is [0, 1)
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
OR . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
OS = 0
1 73. (a)
⟹ (3p ⃗ + 2q⃗ ). (3p ⃗)=0
⃗ − 2q
5
⟹ 9|p ⃗ | 2 − 4|q⃗ | 2 = 0 ⟹ 9p2 = 4q2
68. (a)
r = (2î − ĵ + 3k̂) − (î + 2ĵ − k̂)
= î − 3ĵ + 4k̂
⃗ = (î − 3ĵ + 4k̂) × (3î + k̂) Clearly f(x) is continuous at x=0 and 1.
⃗ =r×F
π
= −3î + 11ĵ + 9k̂ 74. (a)
f(h) − f(0)
69. (d) f ′(0) = lim
h→0 h
NDA 1 2018
h2 log h d2 A
= lim =0 <0
h→0 h dx 2
x 3 1
75. (c) Now, cos α = 6 = 6 = 2 ⟹ α = 3
77. (d)
Fourth side = 6 + 6 = 12
78. (c)
Maximum area = 9 × 3√3 = 27√3
79. (a)
π
I = ∫ ex sin x dx
Solving y 2 = 6(x − 1) and y 2 = 3x
We get 6x − 6 = 3x ⟹ x = 2
⟹ y = ±√6
√6
= [sin x ∙
0
c
ex ]π0 k π
− ∫ − sin x ∙ ex dx
0
a
2 2
y y
Area = ∫ (1 + − ) dy π
6 3
= 0 − {[cos x ∙ ex ]π0 − ∫ − sin x ∙ ex dx}
√6
−√6
y2
= 2 ∫ (y − ) dy
0
6
C r
= −[−eπ − 1] − I
0
y3
= 2 [y − ] = 2 ×
18 0
√6
2√6 4√6
3
=
3
S B ⟹ 2I = eπ + 1 ⟹ I =
80. (b)
2x
eπ + 1
2
76. (c)
1
2
= (6 + x)√36 −
S
A = Area = (6 + 6 + 2x)√36 − x 2
x2
f(3) = lim
=
6
4
= 1.5
x→3 2x − 2
(L. Hospital rule)
81. (b)
e e e
x2 1 x2
∫ x log x dx = [log x ∙ ] − ∫ ∙ dx
2 1 x 2
1 1
𝑒2 1 1 2 𝑒 𝑒2 𝑒2 − 1 𝑒2 + 1
= − × [𝑥 ]1 = − =
2 2 2 2 4 4
dA −2x
= (6 + x) ( ) + √36 − x 2 82. (a)
dx 2√36 − x 2 √2 1 √2
2
x(6 + x) 36 − 6x − 2x ∫ [x 2 ] dx = ∫ 0 dx + ∫ 1 dx = √2 − 1
= √36 − x 2 − =
√36 − x2 √36 − x2 0 0 1
dA
= 0 ⟹ 36 − 6x − 2x 2 = 0 ⟹ x = 3 83. (c)
dx Let, sin θ = x , clearly x ∈ [−1, 1]
NDA 1 2018
84. (d) y dy y dy
y 2 = 4 ( ) ( ) (x − )
∵ f(x) = 4 sec x − 3 cos x + 1 2 dx 2 dx
Minimum f = √42 + (−3)2 + 1 = −4 dy y dy
⟹ y 2 = 2y (x − )
dx 2 dx
Maximum 𝑓 = √42 + (−3)2 + 1 = 6
2
dy 2
dy 2
S = Range of f ⟹ y = 2xy − y ( )
= [Minimum f, maximum f] = [−4, 6] dx dx
Degree 2.
85. (a)
92. (c)
f(x) is defined if
f(x) = sin x − tan x
|x| − x > 0 ⟹ |x| > x
⟹ f(−x) = − sin x + tan x = −f(x)
For x > 0 , x > x , (not possible)
⟹ f(x) is odd function.
For x < 0, −x > x ⟹ 2x < 0 ⟹ x < 0 π/4
(possible)
⟹ ∫ (sin x − tan x)dx = 0
So, domain of f = (−∞, 0)
86. (b)
xdy − ydx = 0 93. (a)
π
4
c k
⟹
xdy − ydx
x 2
y
𝑦
= 0 ⟹ d( ) = 0
𝑥
Integrating, we get x = c ⟹ y = cx
r a a
b
∫ x 3 dx = 0 ⟹ a = −b
(∵ x 3 is an odd function)
87. (c)
f(x) = etan x + ℓn(sec x) − x
f ′(x) = etan x . sec 2 x +
B C
sec x tan x
−1
Now,
𝑏
2
∫ x dx = ⟹ 2 ∫ x 2 dx =
3
2
2
3
𝑏
88. (a)
It is obvious.
S S
f ′ (π/4) = 2e + 1 − 1 = 2e
sec x −𝑏
94. (a)
x 1 3 b
⟹ [ ] = ⟹ b3 = 1 ⟹ b = 1
3 0 3
0
1 1
89. (d)
∫ x(1 − x )9 dx = ∫(1 − x)x 9 dx
Period of f(x) = sin x is 2π
0 0
90. (b) 1 1
dx 1 2−x log 2 x10 x11
∫ x = ∫ dx = ∫(x 9 − x10 ) dx = [ − ]
2 − 1 log 2 1 − 2−x 10 11 0
0
1
= log(1 − 2−x ) + c 1 1 1
log 2 = − =
10 11 100
91. (a) 95. (a)
y 2 = 4a(x − a) … . . (1) tan x 1
Order = 1. Lt =
x→0 sin 2x 2
Differentiating, both sides, we get
dy y dy 96. (d)
2y = 4a ⟹ ( ) = a
dx 2 dx 1
×3
Putting in (1), we get 2√2x + 3h 3
Lt =
x→0 2 4√2x
NDA 1 2018
97. (b) 104. (b)

f(x) is even function ⟹ f ′ (x) is odd P = A ∪ B) = 1 − P(A′ ∩ B′)
(
function. = 1 − [(1 − 0.4) × (1 − 0.5)]
= 1 − 0.3 = 0.7
98. (c)
dy 2 2 105. (d)
= 2ex cos 2x + 2xex sin 2x
dx Mean of xi = x̅
2
= 2ex (cos 2x + x sin 2x) Mean of a + cyi = x̅
2 2
= 2eπ {cos π + π sin 2π} = 2eπ Mean of cyi = x̅ − a
x̅−a
Mean of yi = c
99. (a)
(1 + 2x)dy = (1 − 2y)dx 106. (d)
dx dx If r = 0, lines of regression are
⟹∫ =∫
1 + 2x 1 − 2y
1 1 1
⟹ log(1 + 2x) = − log(1 − 2y) + log c
2 2 2
⟹ log(1 + 2𝑥) (1 − 2𝑦) = 𝑐 ⟹ x − y − 2xy = c
wrong.
c k
perpendicular and when r = 1, lines of
regression are so, both statements are
100. (c)
Order = 3, Degree = 2
r a
107. (c)
Solving 4x̅ − 5y̅ + 33 = 0 and
20x̅ + 9y̅ − 107 = 0
We get x̅ = 13, 𝑦 = 17
101.
⟹q= ⟹p=
(a)
np= 3 npq, where n= no. of trials
1
3
2
3
B C 108. (d)
Mean changes with changes in origin.
S
3 Variance is independent to the choice of
5
2 1 2 80
P(x = 3) = C3 ( ) × ( ) = origin.
3 3 243
102.
P(A
true.
(b)
Statement 1
̅∪ B
̅) = P(A
S
̅ ) + P(B) − P(A̅ ∩ B) is
109.
110.
(c)
By the properties of deviation
(b)
On arranging these 12 numbers in
Statement 2
̅) = P(B) − P(A ∩ B) is false. ascending order, the sixth and seventh
P(A ∩ B
terms are 4.6 and 5.2.
Statement 3 4.6 + 5.2
P(A ∩ B) = P(B) × P(A/B) is true. ∴ Median = = 4.9
2
103. (d) 111. (c)
( )
σ x =? 20% of 360° = 72°
σ2 (y) = 25 ⟹ σ(y) = 5
CoV(x, y) 112. (b)
CoV(x, y) =
σ(x)σ(y) New mean = 5 + 5 = 10
CoV(x, y) 27 × 5 New σ = Old σ = 2
⟹ σ(x) = = =9
( ) (
r x, y σ y) 3×5 Coefficient of variation =
σ
× 100
mean
⟹ Variance of x = σ2 (x) = 81 2
= × 100 = 20
10
NDA 1 2018
113. (d) 120. (b)

5 + 15 20 × 90 n n 2
Average speed = = 1 1
5 15 15 + 30 σ = ∑ xi2 − ( ∑ xi )
2
30 + 45 n
i−1
n
i−1
= 40 km/hr 1 1
2
= (12 + 22 + ⋯ . . n2 ) − ( (1 + 2 + 3 + ⋯ . n))
n n
114. (b) 1 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) (n + 1) n2 − 1
E = {(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), (6, 1)} = × − =
n 6 2 12
6 1
n(E) = 6 , n(S) = 36 ⟹ P(E) = = n2
36 6 =σ=√
12
115. (b)
2P(A) = 3P(B)
2P(A) 3P(B)
⟹ =
⟹ ×
P(A ∩ B) P(A ∩ B)
1 P(A ∩ B) 1 P(A ∩ B)
2
1 B
P(A)
1
=
3 P(B)
c k
⟹ P ( ) = P(A/B)
2 A 3
⟹ P(B/A) < P(A/B)
r a
C
116. (c)
n(E) = 1, n(S) = 10 × 9 = 90
P(E) = 1/90
117. (b)
1 3 5 1 49 49
P= [ + ]= × =
S B
118.
2 5 8
(b)
2 40 80
S
It B ⊂ A, then P(A − B) = P(A) −
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B) − 2P(A ∩ B)
Statement 1 is correct
P (A alone or B alone)
= P(A) − P(A ∩ B) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
= P(A) + P(B) − 2P(A ∩ B)
Statement 2 is false.
It A and B are mutually exclusive, then
P(A ∩ B) = 0
⟹ − P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
Statement 3 is correct.
119. (a)
n(E) = C(4, 2) × C(5, 1) = 6 × 5 = 30
n(S) = C(9, 3) = 84
30 5
P(E) = =
84 14
.
shop.ssbcrack.com
NDA 1 2018
General Ability Test NDA 1 2018 Question Paper
ANTONYMS
PART-A
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
SYNONYMS sentence with an underlined word/words followed
by four words. Select the option that is opposite
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a in meaning to the underlined word/words and
sentence with an underlined word/words followed mark your response in your Answer Sheet
by four words. Select the option that is nearest in accordingly.
meaning to the underlined word/words and mark 11. The country's economy must be geared to wartime
your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly. requirements.
a. subordinated to b. related to
1. I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you c. adjusted to d. unlinked to
did during the foreign rule.
a. admiration b. love 12. Why does fire attract insects?
c. appreciation d. flattery a. discharge b. destroy
c. repel d. remove
2. In India, It has become easy to attack cultural
artefacts these days.
a. beckon
c. belch
b. assault
d. appreciate
k
13. The party was excellent, and I would like to thank
c
all the people concerned.
a. cared b. attentive
3. A local court granted bail to the criminal on
Thursday.
a. confessed
c. allowed
b. donated
d. yielded
ac. dependable
a. grave
c. sober
d. uninvolved
14. He is very serious by temperament.
r b. trivial
d. stupid
4.
a. liberate
c. transfer
b. surrender
d. pronounce
C
The judge told that he would analyze the evidence
and then deliver the verdict.
B
15. There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in
this meeting.
a. pure
c. homogenous
b. mixed
d. discordant
5.
struggle for freedom.

a. firmly
c. individually S S
The growth and development of the peasant
movement was indissolubly linked with the national
b. vaguely
d. steadily
16. Due to the postal, strike, the outgoing mail got
17.
delayed.
a. urgent
c. ordinary
b. incoming
d. speedy
He had a fine ear for music.
6. Weather conditions have been improving over the a. small b. close
past few days. c. coarse d. smooth
a. mending b. amending 18. There is no likeness between him and his brother.
c. becoming better d. advancing a. unlikeliness b. unlikelihood
7. The confusion on the interlocutor's face was c. dissimilarity d. disaffinity
gratifying. 19. Cultural diversity in the working place is good for
a. government officer b. party worker business.
c. dialogist d. revolutionary a. uniformity b. conformity
8. He spends his money lavishly. c. identity d. similarity
a. hesitatingly b. generously 20. The company was liquidated within five years.
c. foolishly d. carefully a. bankrupt b. closed down
9. The government's new policies will come into force c. flourishing d. privatised
from the next fiscal year.
a. calendar b. academic
c. financial d. leap
10. Abundant food was available for the soldiers in the
mess.
a. little b. plentiful
c. delicious d. wholesome
NDA 1 2018
SPOTTING ERRORS 27. Cut the mustard

a. Prepare spices out of mustard seeds
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence b. To come up to expectations
with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). c. Making absurd expectations
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any d. Very enthusiastic
error in any underlined part and indicate your 28. Devil's advocate
response in the Answer Sheet against the a. A dangerous person
corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find b. To present a counter argument
no error, your response should be indicated as (d). c. Very argumentative person
d. Creating an unpleasant situation
21. The politician lost face in his constituency
a. 29. Don't count your chickens before the eggs have
when he broke the pre-election promises hatched
b. a. If you are not good at something, better to avoid
he made to his people. No error. that
b. Don't make plans for something that might not
a.
c.
the jury were called

d.
22. At the request of the Defence Attorney,
happen
k
c. Not to come up to expectations
c
d. Don't put all your resources in one possibility
30. Give the benefit of doubt
c.
b.
and their individual verdicts were recorded.
No error.
d.
r a a. To be partial to someone
b. To be judgmental
c. Regard someone as innocent until
d. Say something exactly right
23. Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed
by colleagues
a.
B C ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions: In this section each item consists of six

b.
No error.
b.
24. In my younger days
S
as the greater of all modem architects.
c.
S
I could run four miles
sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences
are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle
four sentences in each have been jumbled up and
labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the
proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your
response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
a. b. 31. S1 : The Subsidiary Alliance system was
at a stretch. No error. extremely advantageous to the British.
c. d. S6 : They controlled the defence and the foreign
relations of the protected ally.
25. The owner as well as his servants P : They could now maintain a large army at the
a. b. cost of Indian states
is honest. No error. Q : if any war occurred in the territories
c. d. R : either of the-British ally or of the Britishers
S : This enabled them to fight wars far away from
IDIOMS AND PHRASES their own territories
The proper sequence should be
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases a. P Q R S b. P S Q R
followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose c. Q R P S d. S R P Q
the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most
32. S1 : In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an
appropriate expression.
Indian state virtually signed away its
26. Cry over spilt milk
independence.
a. Complaining about a loss in the past
S6 : In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of
b. Too much inquisitive about something
sovereignty in external matters.
c. When something is done badly to save money
P : of maintaining diplomatic relations Q
d. Dealing with a problem only in an emergency
: It lost the right of self defence
situation
R : with its neighbours
S : and of settling its disputes
NDA 1 2018
The proper sequence should be reality. We have both liberties to preserve — our
a. P Q R S b. R S P Q individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we
c. Q P S R d. Q S R P must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not
permit any authority to say that my child must go to
33. S1 : A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern this. school or that, shall specialize in science or arts.
and Central India in 1857. These things are personal. But if I say that my child
S6 : Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers shall have no education at all, then society will thinly
fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter. tell me that my child must have education whether I
P : Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the like it or not.
Company's army
Q : but soon engulfed wide regions and involved 36. According to the author, the "rule of the road"
the masses implies
R : and nearly swept away the British rule a. the rule regulating the traffic on the road
S : It began with a mutiny of the b. the principle on which a road is constructed to
The proper sequence should be ensure safe traffic
a. R S P Q b. P Q R S c. unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life
c. S R P Q d. Q R P S
34. SI : The Indian Civil Service gradually developed
into one of the most efficient and powerful civil
services in the world.
for all
c k
d. restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom
37. The author thinks that when a policeman signals

you to stop on a road-crossing, he is
S6 : though these qualities obviously served

British, and not Indian interests.
P : and often participated in the making of policy
independence, integrity and hard work
r a a. behaving in a whimsical manner
b. interfering with your freedom to use the road
c. protecting the liberty of all to use the road
d. mischievously creating hurdles in your way from
C
some personal motive
R : They developed certain traditions of S
: Its members exercised vast power The 38. The author is of the view that we should
proper sequence should be
a. P Q R S
c. R S Q P
b. Q R S P
S
d. S P R Q B
35. SI : The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected
a. have absolute individual liberty without any
restrictions imposed by the society
b. have everything controlled by the society without
any kind of individual liberty
c. try to strike a sensible balance between our
S
in the ruin of the towns and cities which were
famous for their manufactures.
S6 : Centres were developed and laid waste.
P : Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other
rising industrial
Q : ravages of war and plunder, failed to
individual liberty and our social liberty
d. have more of social liberty than individual liberty
39. The author holds that
a. educating or not educating his child is a matter
of personal liberty
R : survive British conquest b. educating or not educating his child is also a
S : Cities which had withstood the The matter of social liberty
proper sequence should be c. choosing the school for his child is a matter of
a. P Q R S b. S Q R P social liberty
c. S R P Q d. Q R S P d. choosing the subject of study for his child is a
matter of social liberty
COMPREHENSION
40. The most suitable title of the passage would be
Directions: In this section you have few short a. The Policeman at a Road Crossing
passages. After each passage, you will find some b. The Laws of the Road
items based on the passage. First, read a passage and c. Importance of Liberty
answer the items based on it. You are required to d. Education of Children
select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only. Passage
Passage My most interesting visitor comes at night, when
The rule of the road means that in order that the the lights are still burning — a tiny bat who prefers
liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of to fly in through the open door and will use the
everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, window only if there is no alternative. His object
say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the in entering the house is to snap up the moths that
road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen
tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this
curtailment of private liberty in order that you may particular bat flies in low, like a dive-
enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a
NDA 1 2018
bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under 47. The car was damaged beyond repair in the
tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. accident.
Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just a. outrageous b. ghastly
plain crazy? c. nasty d. heinous
41. Consider the following statements: 48. They gave a dinner to celebrate the
1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. occasion, which impressed every guest.
2. The tiny bat like) all bats keeps near the ceiling. a. austere b. public
3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone c. sumptuous d. summary
wrong.
49. Once the manuscript is received by
4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in
the publishers, it is typed in double space.
flying.
a. total b. full
Which of the above statements may be assumed to c. complete d. filled
be true from the information given in the passage?
50. I am used to in queues.
a. 1 only b. 1 and 3
a. stand b. standing
c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
42. The bat entered the room
a. because there was no alternative
b. to eat the moths round the lamps
51.
c. stand up
c k d. standing still
PART-B
a
c. as it had gone mad Which one of the following statements is correct?
d. as it preferred to fly in through the open door a. Any energy transfer that does not involve
temperature difference in some way is not heat
43. After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with
those of other bats, the author was
a. sure, that this bat had lost its direction
b. not sure of its preferences
C r b. Any energy transfer always requires a

temperature difference
c. On heating the length and volume of the object
remain exactly the same
behaviour
S
44. The author calls the tiny bat an "interesting
B
c. surprised to find that it was an expert flier
d. unable to give the correct explanation for its
d. Whenever there is a temperature difference,
heat is the only way of energy transfer
52. If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum,
which one of the following statements is NOT
visitor". This means
S
a. the bat visits him at night
b. the bat is interested in the moths
c. this bat has peculiar qualities
d. this bat surprises him by zooming in and out
like a dive-bomber
correct?
a. The motion repeats after time T only once
b. T is the least time after which motion repeats
itself
c. The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a
positive integer
45. What, according to you, can be the most suitable title d. T remains the same only for small angular
for the passage? displacements
a. Someone visits me 53. If an object moves with constant velocity then
b. Night of Mysteries which one of the following statements is NOT
c. My Nocturnal Visitor correct?
d. A Funny Visitor a. Its motion is along a straight line
b. Its speed changes with time
FILL IN THE BLANK c. Its acceleration is zero
d. Its displacement increases linearly with time
Directions: Each of the following sentences in this
section has a blank space and four words or group 54. An object, is moving with uniform acceleration a.
of words given after the sentence. Select the word or Its initial velocity is it and after time t its velocity is
group of words you consider most appropriate for v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The
the blank space and indicate your response on the velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph
Answer Sheet accordingly shall be a straight line
a. passing through origin
46. The tired traveller on in the hope of b. with x-intercept u
finding some resting place. c. with y-intercept u
a. strolled b. scurried d. with slope u
c. paraded d. plodded
NDA 1 2018
55. What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet 65. Which one of the following gives the highest amount
placed in a uniform magnetic field? of hydrogen ions (H+)?
a. Zero a. Sodium hydroxide solution
b. Depends upon length of the magnet b. Milk of magnesia
c. Never zero c. Lemon juice
d. Depends upon temperature d. Gastric juice
56. Which one of the following has maximum inertia 66. Brine is an aqueous solution of
a. An atom b. A molecule a. NaCl b. NaOH
c. A one-rupee coin d. A cricket ball c. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3
57. Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of 67. Which one of the following is the chemical formula
energy converted into joules? of Washing Soda?
a. 1.8 × 106 J b. 3.6 × 106 J a. NaHCO3 b. Na2CO3 . 10H2O
c. Na2CO3 . 5H2O d. NaOH
c. 6.0 × 10 J6 d. 7.2 × 106 J
58. Which one of the following statements about 68. Which one of the following is NOT true for
k
gravitational force is NOT correct? bleaching powder?
a. It is experienced by all bodies in the universe a. It is used as a reducing agent in chemical
b. It is a dominant force between celestial bodies
c
industries
c. It is a negligible force for atoms b. It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper
d. It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe factories
59. Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid,
depends on
a. mass of the object only
b. mass of the object and density of liquid only
r ac. It is used for disinfecting drinking water
d. It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
69. AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is
a. single stranded circular DNA
d. mass and shape of the object only
B
60. Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic
a. Conducting copper coil
C
c. difference in the densities of the object and liquid b. double stranded DNA
c. single stranded RNA
d. double stranded RNA
70. Which one of the following is an organelle that is
b. Electric heating coil
c. Semi conductor diode
d. Rheostat
S S
61. Which one of the following is the natural
phenomenon based on which a simple periscope
71.
NOT found in prokaryoticcells?
a. Cell wall b. Mitochondria
c. Plasma membrane d. Ribosome
Which one of the following parts of body does NOT
take part in the process of breathing?
works? a. Bronchi b. Bowman’s capsule
a. Reflection of light c. Diaphragm d. Trachea
b. Refraction of light
72. Which one of the following statements about
c. Dispersion of light
classification of plants is correct?
d. Total internal reflection of light
a. Thallophytes have well differentiated body
62. Which one of the following frequency ranges is design
sensitive to human ears? b. Funaria is a fungus
a. 0 – 200 Hz c. All Pteridophytes arePhanerogams
b. 20 – 20,000 Hz d. Vascular system is not found among
c. 200 – 20,000 Hz only Bryophytes
d. 2,000 – 20, 000 Hz only
73. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
63. The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms
burning sensation, which is due to inject of from higher to lower?
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Methanoic acid a. Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus
c. Citric acid d. Sulphuric acid b. Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus
c. Family – Order – Class – Species – Genus
64. Which of the following properties is true for a tooth
d. Class – Family – Order – Species – Genus
paste?
a. It is acidic
b. It is neutral
c. It is basic
d. It is made up of calcium phosphate, the
material of tooth enamel
NDA 1 2018
74. Which one of the following statements about 80. Which one of the following statements about the
meristematic tissues in plants is correct? mass of a body is correct?
a. These are dead tissues and form wood a. It changes from one place to another
b. They provide flexibility to plant due to their b. It is same everywhere
thickened walls c. It depends on its shape
c. These are present in the bark of a tree only d. It does not depend on its temperature
d. Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells 81. A ball balanced on the vertical rod is an example of
of these tissues a. stable equilibrium
75. Which one of the following Union Territories has b. unstable equilibrium
the highest female literacy rate? c. neutral equilibrium
a. Chandigarh d. perfect equilibrium
b. Ladshadweep 82. Which of the following statements about a fluid at
c. Andaman and Nicobar Islands rest in cup is / are correct?
d. Puducherry 1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid.
76. Consider the following statements about Roaring 2. Pressure is exerted on the walls.
Forties :
1. They are strong Westerly winds found in the
oceans of Southern Hemisphere.
2. The strong east to west air currents are caused
below
a. 1 only
c k
3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid.
b. 2 only
by the combination of air being displaced from
the Equator towards the South Pole and the
earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve
as wind breaks.
r a c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
83. Which one of the following devices is used to
measure atmospheric pressure?
a. Ammeter b. Barometer
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
a. 1 only
c. Both 1 and 2
b. 2 only
B
d. Neither 1 nor 2 C c. Potentiometer d. Lactometer
84. Which one of the following is the number of water
molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO4
in plaster of Paris?
77.
S S
Consider the following statements:
1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around
Equator where the prevailing winds are calm.
2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in
winter and therefore raises the temperature in
a short time.
a. One
c. Five
b. Two
d. Ten
85. How is carbon black obtained?
a. By heating wood at high temperature in
absence of air
Which of the statements given above is / are b. By heating coal at high temperature in absence
correct? of air
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 not 2 air
d. By heating coal at high temperature in
78. Which one of the following is the driest desert of the presence of air
world?
86. Which one of the following properties is NOT true
a. Atacama b. Gobi
for graphite?
c. Sahara d. Kalahari
a. Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3
79. Which of the following statements about latent b. Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2
heat for a given substance is/ are correct? c. Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of
1. It is fixed at a given temperature. atoms
2. It depends upon the temperature and volume. d. Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings
3. It is independent of temperature and volume.
4. it depends on the temperature but 87. Which one of the following is the purest forms of
Carbon?
independent of volume.
a. Charcoal b. Coke
c. Fullerene d. Carbon black
below:
a. 2 b. 1 and 3 88. The Poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is
c. 4 only d. 1 and 4 due to its
a. Insolubility in water
b. Ability to form a complex with haemoglobin
c. Ability to reduce some metal oxides
d. Property of having one sigma bond
NDA 1 2018
89. Which one of the following elements is needed in 99. Which of the following is / are coastal erosional
the human body to transfer electrical signals by feature (s)?
nerve cells? 1. Notch 2. Sea Arch
a. Lithium b. Sodium 3. Cliff 4. Hook
c. Rubidium d. Caesium Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
90. Who among the following first discovered cell? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4
a. Robert Brown b. Robert Hooke c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 only
c. Leeuwenhoek d. Rudolf Virchow
100. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a
91. Which one of the following group of organisms place with
forms a food chain? a. cold and dry climate b. hot and humid climate
a. Grass, human and fish c. hot and dry d. cold and humid climate
b. Grass, goat and human
c. Tree, tree cutter and tiger 101. Which of the following statements about specific
d. Goat, cow and human heat of the body is / are correct?
1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body
92. Which one of the following types of tissues will
have contractile proteins?
a. Nervous tissue
c. Bone tissue
b. Muscle tissue
d. Blood tissue
body
c k
2. It is independent of mass and shape of the
3. It depends only upon the temperature of the

body
93. If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of
the stomach wall of an individual are damaged,
digestion of which of the following biomolecule will
be affected to a greater extent?
r a Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
d. 2 only
a. Protein only
b. Lipid
c. Carbohydrate only
d. Protein and Carbohydrate
B C 102. Which one of the following is an example of the

force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating
pendulum bob?
a. Applied force b. Frictional force
of a Railway Zone is located?

a. Kanpur
c. Hajipur
S S
94. In which one of the following places, Headquarters
b. Lucknow
d. New Jalpaiguri
95. Which of the following statements about Indian
Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct?
c. Restoring force d. Virtual force
103. Which one of the following statements about the
refractive index of a material medium with respect
to air is correct?
a. It can be either positive or negative
b. It can have zero value
1. It is a registered society. c. It is unity for all materials
2. It is a collaborative body of both Central d. It is always greater than one
Government and State Governments. 104. Which one of the following statements about
Select the correct answer using the code given magnetic field lines is NOT correct?
below: a. They can emanate from a point
a. 1 only b. 2 only b. They do not cross each other
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 c. Field lines between two poles cannot be
96. Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of precisely straight lines at the ends
Indus River ? d. There are no field lines within a bar magnet
a. Beas b. Ravi 105. Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in
c. Chenab d. Tawi contact with each other. The focal length of the
97. Which one among the following is the largest tiger combined lenssystem is
reserve of India in terms of area of the core / critical a. 0.10 m b. 2 m
tiger habitat? c. 4 m d. 0.25 m
a. Manas 106. Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest
b. Pakke melting point?
c. Nagarjunasagar Srisailam a. Sodium b. Potassium
d. Periyar c. Rubidium d. Caesium
98. Which one of the following is NOT A coastal 107. Which one of the following metals is alloyed with
depositional feature? sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?
a. Tombolo b. Sand bar a. Potassium b. Calcium
c. Stack d. Spit c. Magnesium d. Strontium
NDA 1 2018
108. Which one of the following metals is used in the Select the correct answer using the code given
filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light below:
energy into electric energy? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 4
a. Tungsten b. Copper c. 2 and 3only d. 1 and 3 only
c. Rubidium d. Aluminium 117. Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi
109. Which of the following statements about Ring of Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are
Fire is / are correct? correct?
1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries 1. The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of
2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and
3. It is associated with deep trench Commerce’
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of
below : Tourism, Government of India
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
c. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3 below :
a. 1 only b. 2 only
110. Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation
species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to
2600 metres?
a. Saal
c. Spruce
b. Chir
d. Deodar
k
c. Both 1 and 2
a. age of universe
d. Neither 1 nor 2
118. Light year is a unit for measurement of
c
b. very small time intervals
111. Which one of the following rivers is NOT a

tributary of river Cauvery?
a. Hemavati
c. Indravati
b. Arkavati
d. Amravati
r a c. very high temperature
d. very large distance
119. Which of the following statements about
electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water
tea cultivation?
1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate C
112. Which of the following conditions is/are essential for
B
2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm
waves is/are correct?
1. They exhibit reflection
2. They carry energy
3. They exert pressure
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3 only S S
3. Soil should contain good amount of lime
b. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 only
4. They can travel in vacuum
below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4
d. 1 only
120. Thermal capacity of a body depends on the
113. Bharatmala Project is related to a. mass of the body only
a. Improving road connectivity b. mass and shape of the body only
b. Interlinking ports and railways c. density of the body
c. Interlinking of rivers d. mass, shape and temperature of the body
d. Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines
121. Who among the following first used the term
114. Which one of the following is a local wind that ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe the
blows out from Siberia? changes that occurred in British industrial
a. Bora b. Purga development between 1760 and 1820 ?
c. Mistral d. Blizzard a. Karl Marx b. Georges Michelet
115. Which one of the following centres in NOT known c. Arnold Toynbee d. Friedrich Engels
for iron and steel industry? 122. Which one of the following statements about the
a. Bhadravati b. Salem Olympe de Gouges (1748-1793) is correct ?
c. Vishakhapatnam d. Renukoot a. She declared that although citizens should have
116. Which of the following are essential pre-requisites equal rights, they are not entitled to the same
for establishment of a thermal power station? honours by the State
1. Availability of fossil fuels b. She was a supporter of the Jacobin government
2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea c. She was jailed for treason by the National
3. Good transport network Assembly
4. Proximity to an urban centre d. She declared that the nation is the union of
woman and man.
NDA 1 2018
123. Who among the following built a model steam 132. Which member of the constituent Assembly
engine in 1698 called "Miner's Friend" to drain proposed the resolution that the National Flag of
mines ? India be a "horizontal tricolour of saffron, which and
a. Thomas Savery b. Thomas Newcomen dark green in equal proportion", with a wheel in
c. James Watt d. Richard Arkwright navy blue at the centre?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
124. Which one of the following statements about b. B. R. Ambedkar
Renaissance" Humanist culture is NOT true ? c. Rajendra Prasad
a. It slackened the control of religion over human d. Sardar Valabhbhai Patel
life
b. It believed that human nature .was many-sided 133. Which of the following is / are NOT historical
c. It was concerned with good manners biography / biographies ?
d. It criticized material wealth, power and glory 1. Dipavamsa
2. Harshacharita
125. Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 3. Vikramankadevacharita
1799? 4. Prithvirajavijaya
a. Abul Fazl b. Abdul Hamid Lahori
c. Nawab of Awadh d. William Jones
126. What is the name of the award given to
meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form
below:
a. 1 only
c k
Select the correct answer from the code given
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
of a robe of honour that was once worn by the
Emperor ?
a. Sarapa
c. Padma murassa
b. Patka
d. Khilat
r a
134. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Traveller
1. Marco Polo
2. Ibn Battutu
Country from
Italy
Morocco
in 1866 in Maharashtra?
a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b. Jyotirao Phule
B C
127. Who among the following social reformer started a
society for the encouragement of widow remarriage
3. Nikitin
4. Seydi Ali Reis
Russia
Turkey
below:
c. Vishnushastri Pandit
d. Pandita Ramabai
S S
128. Name the first major voluntary associa-tion
representing primarily Indian land-lord interests
that was set up in Calcutta in 1851?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, and 4 only
135. Which of the following clans are included in the
Agnikula Rajputs?
1. Pratiharas
3. Paramaras
2. Chaulukyas
4. Chahamanas
a. British Indian Association Select the correct answer using the code given
b. Landholder's Society below
c. Madras Native Association a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. Bombay Association c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 2, and 4 only
129. Who among the following introduced the Permanent 136. Who among the following was the author of
Settlement of Bengal in 1793? Humayun Nama?
a. Lord Cornwallis b. Lord Ripon a. Roshanara Begum
c. Robert Clive d. John Adam b. Ruquaiya Sultan Begum
130. Name the rebel who fought against the British in c. Gulbadan Begum
the battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 d. Gauhara Begum
Revolt? 137. Which one of the following about the Parliament of
a. Ahmadullah Shah b. Shah Mal India is NOT correct?
c. Mangal Pandey d. Kunwar Singh a. The Parliament consists of the President, the
131. Who among the following are the two civil servants Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
who civil servants who assisted the constituent b. There are no nominated members in the Lok
Assembly in framing the constitution of India? Sabha
a. B.N. Rau and K.M. Munshi c. The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
b. S.N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishna swamy d. Some members of the Rajya Sabha are
Aiyar nominated by the President
c. B.N. Rau and S.N. Mukherjeet
d. K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishna swamy Aiyar
NDA 1 2018
138. Which one of the following statements with regard 145. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative
to the comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence
India is NOT correct? partnership between India and
a. He is appointed by the President of India a. Russia
b. He can be removed from office in the same way b. United State of America
as the judge of the Supreme Court of India c. Israel
c. The CAG is eligible for further office under the d. France
Government of India after he has ceased the hold 146. As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much
his office Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the
d. The salary of the CAG is charged upon the defence sector in India?
Consolidated fund of India a. 49 per cent through the automatic route
139. The Superintendence, direction and control of b. 26 per cent through the government route
elections in India is vested in c. 26 per cent through the automatic route and
a. The Supreme Court of India beyond that up to 499 per cent through the
b. The Parliament of India government route
c. The Election Commission of India
d. The Chief Election Commissioner
140. Which of the following provision (s) of the
Constitution of India became effective from 26th
c k
d. 75 per cent through the automatic route
147. Which one of the following countries did NOT
participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?
a. United State of America
November 1949?
1. Elections
2. Citizenship
3. Emergency provisions
r a b. Japan
c. India
d. Australia
148. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-
4. Appointment of theJudges
below
a. 1 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 4
C
B
elected to the International Court of Justic after
Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th
round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a
nominee of
S
141. Which of the following statements regarding
S
construction of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct ?
a. It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet
b. It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul
and Spiti Valley
a. Canada
c. Britain
b. Russia
d. USA
149. In order of review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to
draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with
economic needs of the country, the Government of
India in November 2017 has constituted a Task
c. The tunnel is being built by the border Roads Force. Who the following is made the convenor of
organization it?
d. It will reduce the length of the Leh Manali a. Shri Arvind Subramanian
highway by approximately 50 km b. Shri Arvind Modi
142. Who among the following recently became the first c. Shri Amitabh Kant
woman pilot in Indian Navy? d. Dr. Bibek Debroy
a. Astha Segal b. Roopa A 150. The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS)
c. Sakthi Maya d. Shubhangi Swaroop was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which
143. Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the of the following statements about GCCS is / are
title of Miss World? correct?
a. Reita Faria b. Sushmita Sen 1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London.
c. Diana Hayden d. Yukta Mookhey 2. The main them of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A
Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable
144. Which one of the following countries has failed to Development’.
qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA 3. ‘Bindu’ is the logo GCCS 2017.
world cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018? Select the correct answer using the code given
a. Mexico b. Iran below:
c. Saudi Arabia d. Italy a. 1 only b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
NDA 1 2018
General Ability Test NDA 1 2018 Answer Keys
PART-A PART-B
Q No. Ans. Q No. Ans. Q No. Ans. Q No. Ans. Q No. Ans. Q No. Ans.
1 D 26 A 51 A 76 A 101 B 126 A
2 B 27 B 52 A 77 C 102 C 127 C
3 C 28 C 53 B 78 A 103 D 128 A
4 D 29 B 54 C 79 C 104 D 129 A
5 A 30 C 55 A 80 B 105 D 130 A
6 C 31 B 56 D 81 B 106 D 131 C
7 C 32 C 57 B 82 B 107 A 132 A
8
9
10
C
C
B
33
34
35
A
D
B
58
59
60
D
C
C
83
84
85
B
A
C
c k 108
109
110
C
D
B
133
134
135
A
C
C
11
12
13
D
C
36
37
D
C
61
62
A
B
r a
86
87
A
D
111
112
C
A
136
137
C
B
C
D 38 C 63 B 88 B 113 A 138 C
14 B 39 B 64 D 89 B 114 B 139 C
15
16
17
C
B
40
41
C
A
S
65
66 BD
A
90
91
B
B
115
116
D
A
140
141
B
C
18
19
20
C
A
A
C
42
43
44
45
S
B
D
D
C
67
68
69
70
B
A
C
B
92
93
94
95
B
A
C
C
117
118
119
120
A
D
A
A
142
143
144
145
C
B
D
B
21 C 46 D 71 B 96 D 121 C 146 A
22 D 47 A 72 D 97 C 122 D 147 D
23 C 48 C 73 A 98 C 123 A 148 C
24 B 49 C 74 D 99 A 124 D 149 B
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 B 125 C 150 B
NDA 2 2017
1. If x + log10 (1 + 2x ) = xlog10 + log10 6 then 𝑥 (b) B ∪ C

is equal to (c) B′ ∩ C′
(a) 2, -3 (d) B ∩ C
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 7. If A = {x: x is a multiple of 2}, B= {x: x is a
(d) 3 multiple of 10}, then A ∩ (B ∩ C) is equal to
(a) A
2. The remainder and the quotient of the binary (b) B
division (c) C
(101110)2 ÷ (110)2 are respectively (d) {x: x is a multiple of 100}
(a) (111)2 and (100)2
(b) (100)2 and (111)2 8. If α and β are the roots of the equation 1 + x +
(c) (101)2 and (111)2
(d) (100)2 and (100)2 [
1 β α β
][
α α 1 β
1 1
c k
x 2 = 0 , then the matrix product
] is equal to?
3. The matrix A has 𝑥 rows and x + 5 columns. The

matrix B has 𝑦 rows and 11 − y columns. Both
AB and BA exist. What are the values 𝑥 and 𝑦
respectively?
r a (a) [
(b) [
1 2
]
−1 −1
−1 2
]
(a) 8 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 8
B C (c) [
1 −1
−1 2
]
S
(d) 8 and 8 −1 −1
(d) [ ]
−1 −2
S
n(n−1)Q
4. If Sn = nP + , where Sn denotes the
2
sum of the first n terms of an AP, then the 9. If |a| denotes the absolute value of an integer,
common difference is then which of the following are correct?
I. |ab| = |a||b|
(a) P + Q
II. |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b|
(b) 2P + 3Q
III. |a − b| ≥ |a| − |b|
(c) 2Q
(d) Q Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
5. The roots of the equation
(q − r)x 2 + (r − p)x + (p − q) = 0 are (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) (r − p) / (q − r), 1/2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) (p − q) / (q − r), 1
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(c) (q − r) / (p − q), 1
(d) (r − p) / (p − q), 1/2
10. How many different permutations can be made
out of the letters of the word “PERMUTATION”?
6. If E is the universal set and 𝐴 = B ∪ C, then the
(a) 19958400
set
(b) 19954800
E − (E − (E − (E − (E − A)))) is same as the (c) 19952400
set (d) 39916800
(a) B′ ∪ C′
NDA 2 2017
4i − 6 10i 1 (c) 216

11. If A = [ ] and k = , where i =
14i 6 + 4i 2i
(d) 512
√−1 , then kA is equal to
2 + 3i 5 ]
(a) [ 16. The value of the determinant
7 2 − 3i θ θ
cos2 2
sin2 2
2 − 3i 5 | θ θ
| for all values of θ, is
(b) [ ] sin2 2 cos2
7 2 + 3i 2
(a) 1
2 − 3i 7 (b) cos θ
(c) [ ]
5 2 + 3i (c) sin θ
(d) cos θ
2 + 3i 5
(d) [ ]
7 2 + 3i
12. The sum of all real roots of the equation (a) 202
c k
17. The number of terms in the expansion of
(x + a)100 + (x − a)100 after simplification is
a
|x − 3|2 + |x − 3| − 2 = 0 is (b) 101
(a) 2 (c) 51
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
C r (d) 50
18. In the expansion of (1 +)50 , the sum of the

coefficients of odd powers of x is
value of P is
S B
13. If is given that the roots of the equation x 2 −
4x − log 3 P = 0 are real. For this, the minimum
(a) 226
(b) 249
(c) 250
(d) 251
(a)
(b)
1
27
1
64
1
S 19. If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, then the
inverse of the matrix
a 0 0
A = [0 b 0]
(c) 81 0 0 c
(d) 1 a−1 0 0
(a) [ 0 b−1 0 ]
14. If A is a square matrix, then the value of adj 0 0 c −1
AT − (adj A)T is equal to
a−1 0 0
(a) A 1
(b) abc [ 0 b−1 0 ]
(b) 2| A| I , where I is the identity matrix
0 0 c −1
(c) Null matrix whose order is same as that of A
(d) Unit matrix whose order is same as that of 1 0 0
1
A (c) [0 1 0]
abc
0 0 1
15. The value of the product
1 1 1 1 a 0 0
1
62 × 64 × 68 × 616 × … up to infinite terms is (d) abc 0 b 0]
[
(a) 6 0 0 c
(b) 36
NDA 2 2017
20. A person is to count 4500 notes. Let an denote (c) 3x 2 + 8x − 16 = 0

the number of notes he counts in the nth (d) x 2 + 8x + 16 = 0
minute.
If a1 = a2 = a3 = . . = a10 = 150 , and 25. The value of
a10 , a11 , a12 . .. are in AP with the common 1 1 1
+ 2
+ +⋯
difference −2 , then the time taken by him to log 3 e log 3 e log 3 e4
count all the notes is Up to infinite terms is
(a) 24 minutes (a) log e 9
(b) 34 minutes (b) 0
(c) 125 minutes (c) 1
(d) 135 minutes (d) log e 3
21. The smallest positive integer n for which

(
(a)
1+i n
1−i
1
) = 1 , is
k
26. A tea party is arranged for 16 people along two
sides of a long table with eight chairs on each
c
side. Four particular men wish to sit on one
a
particular side and two particular men on the
(b) 4 other side. The number of ways they can be
(c) 8
(d) 16
C
22. If we define a relation R on the set N × N as (a,
r seated is
(a) 24 × 8! × 8!
(b) (8!)3
(c) 210 × 8! × 8!
N × N, then the
(a) Symmetric only
S
(b) Symmetric and transitive only
B
b) R (c, d) ⟺ a + d = b + c for all (a, b), (c, d) ∈ (d) 16!
27. The system of equation kx + y + z = 1,

x + ky + z = k and x = y + kz = k 2 has no
(c) Equivalence relation
(d) Reflexive only
S
23. If y = x + x 2 + x 3 + ⋯ up to infinite terms,
where x < 1 , then which of the following is
solution if k equals
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) -2
correct?
y
(a) x = 1+y (2n−1)3a +b
28. If 1.3 + 2.32 + 3.33 + ⋯ + n. 3n = 4
Then a and b are respectively
y
(b) x = (a) n, 2
1−y
(b) n, 3
1+y (c) n + 1, 2
(c) x = y (d) n + 1, 3
1−y
(d) x = y
π P Q
29. In △ PQR, ∠R = , If tan ( ) and tan ( ) are
2 2 2
the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0,
24. If α and β are the roots of the equation 3x 2 + then which one of the following is correct?
2x + 1 = 0 , then equation whose roots are α + (a) a = b + c
β−1 and β + α−1 is (b) b = c + a
(a) 3x 2 + 8x + 16 = 0 (c) c = a + b
(b) 3x 2 − 8x − 16 = 0 (d) b = c
NDA 2 2017
3 1
4
sin−1 ( ) + tan−1 ( )
30. If |z − | = 2 , then the maximum value of |z| is 5 7
2 is equal to
equal to (a) 0
(a) 1 + √3
(b) 1 + √5 (b)
𝜋
4
(c) 1 − √5
(d) √3 − 1 𝜋
(c) 3
31. The angle of elevation of a stationary cloud 𝜋

from a point 25 m above a lake is 15° and the (d) 2
angle of depression of its image in the lake 45°.
The height of the cloud above the lake level is
(a) 25 m
(b) 25√3 m
(c) 50 m
c k
36. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower
from the top and foot of a pole are respectively
30° and 45°. If hT is the height of the tower and
(d) 50√3 m
32. The value of

r a hP is the height of the pole, then which of the
following are correct?
1.
2hP hT
= h2P
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
B C
tan 9° − tan 27° − tan 63° + tan 81° is equal to
2.
3.
3+√3
hT −hP
√3+1
2(hP +hT )
=
hP
2
= 4 + √3
S
hP
(d) 4 Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
S
33. The value of √3 cosec 20° − sec 20° is equal to
below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) -4
37. In a triangle ABC, a − 2b + c = 0. The value of
A C
34. Angle α is divided into two parts A and B such cot ( 2 ) cot ( 2) is
that A − B = x and 9
(a)
tan A ∶ tan B = p ∶ q. The value sin 𝑥 is equal to 2
(p+q) sin α (b) 3
(a) p−q 3
(c) 2
p sin α
(d) 1
(b) p−q
A A
38. √1 + sin A = − (sin + cos ) is true if
p sin α 2 2
(c) 3π 5π
p+q (a) 2
<A< 2
only
(p−q) sin α π 3π
(d) (b) <A< only
p+q 2 2
35. The value of 3π 7π

(c) 2
<A< 2
NDA 2 2017

3π below:
(d) 0 < A < 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
39. In triangle ABC, if (c) 1 and 3 only
sin2 A + sin2 B + sin2 C (d) 1, 2 and 3
=2
cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C
Then the triangle is 44. The angle between the lines
(a) Right-angled x + y − 3 = 0 and x − y + 3 = 0 is α and the
(b) Equilateral
acute angle between the lines x − √3y +
(c) Isosceles
2√3 = 0 is β. Which one of the following is
k
(d) Obtuse-angled
correct?
(a) α = β
40. The principal value of sin−1 x lies in the interval
π π
(a) (− , )
2 2
π π
a
(b) α > β
(c) α < β
(d) α = 2βc
(b) [− , ]
2 2
π
(c) [0, 2 ]
C r ⃗ = î + 2ĵ − k̂, ⃗β = 2î − ĵ + 3k̂ be three

45. Let α
vectors. If α
⃗ and β
⃗ and δ
vector δ ⃗ .γ
⃗ are both perpendicular to the
⃗ = 10, then what is the
(d) [0, π]
S B
2)
41. The points (a, b), (0,0), (-a,-b) and (ab, b are
magnitude of ⃗δ?
(a) √3 units
(b) 2√3 units
S
(a) The vertices of a parallelogram
(b) The vertices of a rectangle
(c) The vertices of a square
(d) Collinear
(c)
(d)
√3
1
2
√3
unit
unit
42. The length of the normal from origin to the 46. If â and b̂ are two unit vectors, then the vector
plane x = 2y − 2z = 9 is equal to (â + b̂) × (â × b̂) is parallel to
(a) 2 units (a) (â − b̂)
(b) 3 units (b) (â + b̂)
(c) 4 units (c) (2â − b̂)
(d) 5 units (d) (2â + b̂)
43. If α, β and γ are the angles which the vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

OP ⃗ = î + 3ĵ + 2k̂ acts on a particle to displace it
47. F
(O being the origin) makes with positive
from the point
direction of the coordinate axes, then which of
A(î + 2ĵ − 3k̂) to the point
the following are correct?
B(3î − ĵ + 5k̂). The work done by the force will
1. cos2 α + cos2 β = sin2 γ
2. sin2 α + sin2 β = cos2 γ be
3. sin2 α + sin2 β + sin2 γ = 2 (a) 5 units
(b) 7 units
(c) 9 units
NDA 2 2017
(d) 10 units 52. The point of intersection of the line joining the
points (−3, 4, −8) and (5, −6, 4) with the XY-
48. For any vector plane is
2 7 8
⃗a|a⃗ × x̂|2 + |a⃗ × ĵ|2 + |a⃗ × k̂| is equal to (a) (3 , − 3 , 0)
(a) |a⃗|2
(b) 2|a⃗|2 7 8
(b) (− 3 , − 3 , 0)
(c) 3|a⃗|2
(d) 4|a⃗|2
7 8
(c) (− 3 , 3 , 0)
49. A man running round a racecourse notes that
the sum of the distances of two flag-posts from 7 8
(d) (3 , 3 , 0)
him is always 10 m and the distance between
the flag-posts is 8 m. The area of the path he
encloses is
(a) 18π square metres
k
53. If the angle between the lines whose direction
c
ratios are (2, −1, 2) and (x, 3, 5) is
π
4
, then the
(b) 15π square metres
(c) 12π square metres
(d) 8π square metres
r a smaller value of x is
(a) 52
(b) 4
(c) 2
50. The distance of the point (1, 3) from the line
2x + 3y = 6, measured parallel to the line 4x +
y = 4, is
B C (d) 1
54. The position of the point (1, 2) relative to the
(a)
(b)
5
√13
3
√17
units
units S S ellipse 2x 2 + 7y 2 = 20 is
(a) Outside the ellipse
(b) Inside the ellipse but not at the focus
(c) On the ellipse
(d) At the focus
55. The equation of a straight line which cuts off an

(c) √17 units
intercept of 5 units on negative direction of y-
axis and makes an angle 120° with positive
√17
(d) units direction of x-axis is
2
(a) y + √3x + 5 = 0
51. If the vector aî + ĵ + k̂, î + bĵ + k̂ and (b) y − √3x + 5 = 0
î + ĵ = ck̂ (a, b, c ≠ 1) are coplanar, then the (c) y + √3x − 5 = 0
value of (d) y − √3x − 5 = 0
1 1 1
+ + 56. The equation of the line passing through the
1−a 1−b 1−c
is equal to point (2, 3) and the point of intersection of lines
(a) 0 2x − 3y + 7 = 0 and 7x + 4y + 2 = 0 is
(b) 1 (a) 21 + 46𝑦 − 180 = 0
(c) a + b + c (b) 21x − 46y + 96 = 0
(d) abc (c) 46x + 21y − 155 = 0
(d) 46x − 21y − 29 = 0
NDA 2 2017
(d) 3x + 4y + 5z + 8 = 0
57. The equation of the ellipse whose centre is at

61. The inverse of the function 𝑦 = 5ln x is
origin, major axis is along x-axis with 1
3
eccentricity 4 and latus rectum 4 units is (a) x = y ln 5 , y > 0
(b) x = y ln 5 , y > 0
1
x2 7y2 (c) x = y ln 5 , y < 0

(a) + =1 (d) x = 5 ln y , y > 0
1024 64
49x2 7y2 62. A function is defined as follows:

(b) + =1 x
1024 64 − , x≠0
( )
f x = { √x 2
(c)
7x2
1024
x2
+
+
49y2
64
y2
=1
k 0, x=0
c
of the above function?
(a) f(x) is continuous at x = 0 but not
(d)
1024 64
=1
58. The equation of the circle which passes through
r a differentiable at x = 0
(b) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable at
x=0
(c) f(x) is discontinuous at x = 0
C
the points (1, 0), (0, 6), and (3, 4) is
(a) 4x 2 + 4y 2 + 142x + 47y + 140 = 0 (d) None of the above
(b) 4x 2 + 4y 2 − 142x + 47y + 138 = 0
(c) 4x 2 + 4y 2 − 142x + 47y + 138 = 0
S
(d) 4x 2 + 4y 2 + 150x − 49y + 138 = 0 B 63. If y = (cos x)(cos x)
(a) −
y2 tan x
cos x
, then
dy
dx
is equal to
sphere OABC, O being the origin is

x y z
(a) 2 + b + c = 1
S
59. A variable plane passes through a fixed point (a,
b, c) and cuts the axes in A, B, and C
respectively. The locus of the centre of the (b)
1−y ln(cos x)
y2 tan x
1+y ln(cos x)
y2 tan x
(c)
a b c 1−y ln(sin x)
(b) x
+y+z = 1
y2 tan x
a b c (d)
(c) +y+z = 2 1+y ln(sin x)
x
x y z 64. Consider the following:

(d) + + =2
a b c 1. x + x 2 is continuous at x = 0
1
2. x + cos x is discontinuous at x = 0
60. The equation of the plane passing through the 1
line of intersection of the planes x + y + z = 1, 3. x 2 + cos is continuous at x = 0
x
2x + 3y + 4z = 7 and perpendicular to the Which of the following are correct?
plane (a) 1 and 2 only
x − 5y + 3z = 5 is given by (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) x + 2y + 3z − 6 = 0 (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) x + 2y + 3z + 6 = 0 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3x + 4y + 5z − 8 = 0
NDA 2 2017
65. Consider the following statements: 1 − x2 for 0 < x ≤ 1

1.
dy
at a point on the curve gives slope of the f(x) = { ln x for 1 < x ≤ 2
dx ln 2 − 1 + 0.5 x for 2 < x < ∞
tangent at that point.
2. If a(t) denotes acceleration of a particle,
of the derivative of the function, i.e., f’(x)?
then
(a) f ′ (x) = 2x for 0 < x ≤ 1
∫ a(t)dt + c (b) f ′ (x) = −2x for 0 < x ≤ 1
gives velocity of the particle. (c) f ′ (x) = −2x for 0 < x < 1
3. If s(t) gives displacement of a particle at (d) f ′ (x) = 0 for 0 < x < ∞
ds
time t, then dt gives its acceleration at that
69. Which one of the following is correct in respect
instant. of the function
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
k
f(x) = x(x − 1)(x + 1) ?
(a) The local maximum value is larger than local
c
minimum value.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
x+1 x−1 dy
66. If 𝑦 = sec −1 (x−1) + sin−1 (x+1) , then dx is
r a (b) The local maximum value is smaller than
local minimum value.
(c) The function has no local maximum.
(d) The function has no local minimum.
equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
x−1
B C 70. Consider the following statements:
1. Derivative of f(x) may not exist at some
point.
(c)
(d)
x+1
x+1
x−1
S S 2. Derivative of f(x) may exist finitely at some
point.
3. Derivative of f(x) may be infinite
(geometrically) at some point.
67. What is
(a) 1 and 2 only
∫ tan−1 (sec x + tan x) dx
(b) 2 and 3 only
equal to? (c) 1 and 3 only
πx x2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) + +c
4 4
ln x
71. The maximum value of is
πx x2 x
(b) + +c (a) e
2 4
1
πx πx2 (b)
(c) + +c e
4 4
2
(c)
πx x2 e
(d) + +c
4 4
(d) 1
68. A function defined by (0, ∞) by
72. The function f(x) = |x| = |x| − x 3 is
(a) Odd
NDA 2 2017
(b) Even 77. The area bounded by the curve |x| + |y| = 1 is
(c) Both even and odd (a) 1 square unit
(d) Neither even nor odd (b) 2√2 square units
(c) 2 square units
73. If (d) 2√3 square units
d sin x
𝑙1 = (e )
dx x2
esin(x+h) − esin x 78. If x is any real number, then belongs to
𝑙2 = lim 1+x4
h→0 h which one of the following intervals?
sin x
𝑙3 = ∫ e cos x dx (a) (0, 1)
1
Then which one of the following is correct? (b) (0, 2]
(a) 𝑙1 ≠ 𝑙2
(b)
d
dx
(𝑙3 ) = 𝑙2
(c) ∫ 𝑙3 dx = 𝑙2
(d) 𝑙2 = 𝑙3
k
1
(c) (0, ]
2
(d) [0, 1]
c
74. The general solution of
dy ax + h
=
r a
79. The left-hand derivative of
f(x) = [x] sin(𝜋x) at x = k
where k is an integer and [x] is the greatest
integer function, is
dx by + k
represents a circle only when
(a) a = b = 0
(b) a = −b ≠ 0
B C (a) (−1)k (k − 1)𝜋
(b) (−1)k−1 (k − 1)𝜋
(c) (−1)𝑘 k𝜋
(d) (−1)𝑘−1 k𝜋
(c) a = b ≠ 0, h = k
(d) a = b ≠ 0
75. if
sin x S S x
80. If f(x) = 2 − 1 , then on the interval [0, 𝜋]
(a) tan[f(x)] , where [.] is the greatest integer
limπ =𝑙 1
x→ x function, and are both continuous
2 f(x)
And (b) tan[f(x)] , where [.] is the greatest integer
cos x
lim =m function, and f −1 (x) are both continuous
x→∞ x
Then which one of the following is correct? (c) tan[f(x)] , where [.] is the greatest integer
1
(a) 𝑙 = 1, m = 1 function, and are both discontinuous
2 f(x)
(b) 𝑙 = π , m = ∞ (d) tan[f(x)] , where [.] is the greatest integer
2 1
(c) 𝑙 = π , m = 0 function, is discontinuous but is
(d) 𝑙 = 1, m = ∞ f(x)
continuous
2π x
76. What is ∫0 √1 + sin 2 dx equal to?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 0
NDA 2 2017
81. The order and degree of the differential (b) Differentiable at x = 0

equation (c) Not continuous at x = 0
3 2
dy 2 d2 y
[1 + ( ) ] = ρ2 [ 2 ]
dx dx
are respectively
(a) 3 and 2
(b) 2 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
82. If
2x
y = cos−1 (
then
dy
dx
2
1 + x2
)
is equal to k
86. Which one of the following graphs represents
87. Let f(n) = [ +

1
4
x
the function f(x) = , x ≠ 0
c n
1000
x
] , where [x] denotes the
(a)
(b)
−
−
2
1+x2
2
1+x2
for all |x| < 1
for all |x| > 1
r a integral part of x. then the value of

1000
∑ f (n )
n=1
is
(c)
1+x2
for all |x| < 1
(d) None of the above.
B C (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
251
250
1
0
(a) (0, ∞)
2
(b) (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)

(c) (−∞, ∞) S S
83. The set of all points, where the function
f(x) = √1 − e−x is differentiable, is 88. ∫(ln x)−1 dx − ∫(ln x)−2 dx is equal to
(a) x(ln x)−1 + c
(b) x(ln x)−2 + c
(c) x(ln x) + c
(d) (−1, ∞)
(d) x(ln x)2 + c
84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

89. A cylindrical jar without a lid has to be
answer using the code given below the lists. constructed using a given surface area of a
List -I List- II metal sheet. If the capacity of the jar is to be
(Function (Maximum value)
maximum then the diameter of the jar must be
A. sin x + cos x 1. √10 k times the height of the jar. The value of k is
B. 3 sin x + 4 cos x 2. √2 (a) 1
C. 2 sin x + cos x 3. 5 (b) 2
D. sin x + 3 cos x 4. √5 (c) 3
Code: (d) 4
(a) (A-2), (B-3), (C-1), (D-4)
(b) (A-2), (B-3), (C-4), (D-1) 90. The value of
(c) (A-3), (B-2), (C-1), (D-4) 𝜋 𝜋
4 4
(d) (A-3), (B-2), (C-4), (D-1) ∫ √tan x dx + ∫ √cot x dx
0 0
is equal to
85. If f(x) = x(√x − √x + 1), then f(x) is 𝜋
(a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 (a)
4
.
shop.ssbcrack.com
NDA 2 2017
𝜋 ϕ(x)
(b)
2 (d) y=
x+c
𝜋
(c)
2√2
𝜋 95. If
(d)
2 4x + x 2 1+x
f(x) = and g(x) = ln ( )
1 + x3 1−x
e−1
91. Let g be the greatest integer function. Then the then what is the value of f °g (e+1) equal to?
2
function f(x) = (g(x)) − g(x 2 ) is (a) 2
discontinuous at (b) 1
(a) All integers (c) 0
1
(b) All integers except 0 and 1 (d) 2
(c) All integers except 1
92. The differential equation of minimum order by

eliminating the arbitrary constants A and C in
k
96. The value of the determinant
c
1 − α α − α2 α2
|1 − β β − β2 β2 | is equal to
the equation y = A[sin(x + C) + cos(x + C)] is
(a) y" + (sin x + cos y) y′ = 1
(b) y" = (sin x + cos x) y′
(c) y" = (y′)2 + sin x cos x
r a 1 − γ γ − γ2 γ2
(a) (α − β)(β − γ)(α − γ)

(α − β)(β − γ)(γ − α)
C
(b)
(d) y" + y = 0 (c) (α − β)(β − γ)(γ − α)(α + β + γ)

Statement I: x > sin x for all x > 0
S B
Statement II: f(x) = x − sin x is an increasing
(d) 0
1
97. The adjoint of the matrix A = [2
0 2
1 0] is
function for x > 0
of the above statements? S

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

and Statement II is the correct explanation
−1 6 2
(a) [−2 1 −4]
6 3 1
1 6 −2
0 3 1
of Statement I. (b) [−2 1 4]

(b) Both Statement I and II are true and 6 −3 1
Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I. 6 1 2
(c) [4 −1 2 ]
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
6 3 −1
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
94. The solution of the differential equation −6 2 1
dy yϕ(x) − y 2 (d) [ 4 −2 1 ]
= 3 1 −6
dx ϕ(x)
is
x
(a) y= −2 2
ϕ(x)+c 98. If A = ( ) , then which one of the
ϕ(x) −2 2
(b) y= +c following is correct?
xc
ϕ(x)+c (a) A2 = −2A
(c) y= (b) A2 = −4A
x
(c) A2 = −3A
NDA 2 2017
(d) A2 = 4A 103. Let the sample space consist of non-

negative integers up to 50, denote the numbers
99. Geometrically Re(z 2 − i) = 2 , where i = √−1 which are multipliers of 3 and Y denote the odd
and Re is the real part, represents numbers. Which of the following is/are correct?
8
(a) Circle 1. P(X) =
25
(b) Ellipse 1
2. P(Y) = 2
(c) Rectangular hyperbola
(d) Parabola Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
100. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0 , then the (a) 1 only
pa qb rc (b) 2 only
determinant |qc ra pb| equals (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 0
rb pc qa
(b) pa + qb + rc
(c) 1
104. k
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
c 1
For two events A and B, let P(A) = 2 ,
a
2 1
P(A ∪ B) = and P(A ∩ B) = . What
(d) pq + qb + rc + a + b + c 3 6
P(A̅ ∩ B) equal to?
101. A committee of two persons is selected
that the committee will have exactly one

C
from two men and two women. The probability
r (a)
(b)
1
6
woman is
(a)
1
6
S B (c)
4
1
3
(b)
(c)
2
3
4
9
5
S 105.
(d)
1
2
Consider the following statements:

1. Coefficient of variation depends on the unit
(d) of measurement of the variable.
9
2. Range is a measure of dispersion
102. Let a dice be loaded in such a way that 3. Mean deviation is least when measured
even faces are twice likely to occur as the odd about median.
faces. What is the probability that a prime Which of the above statements are correct?
number will show up when the dice is tossed. (a) 1 and 2 only
1 (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2
(b) 3
106. Given that the arithmetic mean and
4 standard deviation of a sample of 15
(c)
9
observations are 24 and 0 respectively. Then
5 which one of the following is the arithmetic
(d) 9 mean of the smallest five observations in the
data?
(a) 0
NDA 2 2017
(b) 8 10
(b)
243
(c) 16
(d) 24 11
(c) 243
107. Which one of the following can be
13
considered as appropriate pair of values of (d) 243
regression coefficient of y on x and regression
of x on y? 111. What is the probability that at least two
(a) (1, 1) persons out of a group of three persons were
(b) (-1, 1) born in the same month (disregard year)?
1 33
(c) (− 2 , 2) (a)
144
k
1 10
(d) ( , )
3 3 17
(b)
c
72
108. Let A and B be two events with
1 1 1 1
P(A) = 3, P(B) = 6 and P(A ∩ B) = 12. What is
(a)
̅) equal to?
P(B|A
1
5
r a (c)
(d)
144
2
9
(b)
1
7
1
B C 112. ̅ = 10, ̅Y = 90, σx = 3
It is given that X
σY = 12 and rxy = 0.8. The regression
equation of X on Y is
109.
(c)
(d)
8
1
10
S S 2
In a binomial distribution, the mean is 3
(a) Y = 3.2 X + 58
(b) X = 3.2 Y + 58
(c) X = −8 + 0.2 Y
(d) Y = −8 + 0.2 X
3 1
5 113. If P(B) = , P(A ∩ B ∩ C̅) = and
and the variance is 9. What is the probability 4 3
̅ ∩ B ∩ C̅) = 1 , then what is P(B ∩ C) equal
P(A
that x = 2? 3
5 to?
(a) 36 1
(a) 12
25
(b) 3
36
(b) 4
25
(c) 216 1
(c) 15
25
(d) 54 1
(d)
9
110. The probability that a ship safely

1 114. The following table gives the monthly
reaches a port is 3. The probability that out of 5
expenditure of two families:
ships, at least 4 ships would arrive safely is Expenditures (in Rs.)
1
(a) Items Family A Family B
243
Food 3,500 2, 700
NDA 2 2017
Clothing 500 800 (c) |√x1 + √x2 | > √2

Rent 1,500 1, 000 (d) x1 + x2 < 2(√x1 x2 + 1)
Education 2,000 1, 800
Miscellaneous 2,500 1, 800 118. Consider the following statements:
In constructing a pie diagram to the above data, 1. Variance is unaffected by change of origin
the radii of the circles are to be chosen by which and change of scale.
one of the following ratios? 2. Coefficient of variance is independent of
(a) 1: 1 the unit of observations.
(b) 10: 9 Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 100: 91 correct?
(d) 5: 4 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
115. If a variable takes values 0, 1, 2, 3, …, n
with frequencies 1, C(n, 1), C(n, 2), C(n, 3), … ,
C(n,n) respectively, then the arithmetic mean is 119.
c k
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Five sticks of length 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 feet
a
(a) 2n are given. Three of these sticks are selected at
(b) n + 1 random. What is the probability that the
(c) n
(d)
n
2
C r selected sticks can form a triangle?

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.3
116.
S B
In a multiple-choice test, an examinee
either knows the correct answer with
probability p, or guesses with probability 1 − p.
The probability of answering a question 120.
(d) 0
The coefficient of correlation when

1
S
correctly is m , if he or she merely guesses. If the
examinee answers a question correctly, the
probability that he or she really knows the
answer is
(a)
mp
coefficients of regression are 0.2 and 1.8 is
(a) 0.36
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.9
1+mp
mp
(b) 1+(m−1)p
(m−1)p
(c) 1+(m−1)p
(m−1)p
(d) 1+mp
117. If x1 and x2 are positive quantities, then

the condition for the difference between the
arithmetic mean and the geometric mean to be
greater than 1 is
(a) x1 + x2 > 2√x1 x2
(b) √x1 + √x2 > √2
NDA 2 2017
1. x + log10 (1 + 2x ) = x log10 5 + log10 6

⟹ x(1 − log10 5) = log10 6 − log10 (1 + 2x ) 11. k =
1
=
−i
6 2i 2
⟹ x(log10 10 − log 10 5) = log 10 ( ) −1 −i
1 + 2x (4i − 6) (
) 10i ( )
6 2 2
⟹ x log10 2 = log 10 ( )⟹x=1 kA = −i −i
1 + 2x 14i ( ) (6 + 4i ( ))
[ 2 2 ]
2. (101110)2 = (46)10 and (110)2 = (6)10 2 + 3i 5
=[ ]
Quotient = (7)10 = (111)2 7 2 − 3i
Remainder = (4)10 = (100)2
12. |x − 3|2 + |x − 3| − 2 = 0
Let |x − 3| = y
3. For AB and BA to be exist
−1 ± √1 + 8 −1 ± 3
x + 5 = y and 11 − y = x ⟹y= =
Solving these, x = 8 and y = 3
4. Sn = nP +
n(n−1)Q
2
⟹y=1
c
2
k 2
⟹ y = 1 or −2 (−2 Rejected as y is +ve)
⟹ |x − 3| = 1 ⟹ x − 3 = 1 or x − 3 = 1
5. Sum of coefficients
Q
∴ common difference (d) = 2 × 2 = Q
r a ⟹ x = 4 or 2
∴ Sum of roots = 6
13. x 2 − 4x − log P3 = 0
= q − r + r − p + p − q = 0 ⟹ 1 is a root.
Another root =
p−q
q−r
B C D = 16 + 4log P3 ≥ 0
⟹ log P3 ≥
−16
4
1
≥ −4
S
= E − (E − (E − (E − A′)))
= E − (E − (E − A))
= E − (E − A′ ) = E − A = A
S
6. E − (E − (E − (E − (E − A)))) ⟹ P ≥ 3−4 ≥
∴ Minimum value =
81
1
81
14. Adj AT = (adjA)T ⟹ Adj AT − (adjA)T = 0

= (B ∪ C)′ = B′ ∩ C′
1 1 1 1
15. 62 × 64 × 68 × 616 … … . . ∞
7. Here, C ⊂ A and C ⊂ B 1
2
C = A ∩ B = A ∩ (B ∩ C) 1 1 1 1
1−
1
= A∩C = C 62+4+8+16+⋯∞ = 6 2 = 61 = 6
θ θ
8. α and β are roots of x 2 + x + 1 = 0 cos2 2 sin2 2 θ θ
⟹ 𝛼 = 𝜔, 𝛽 = ω2 16. | θ θ
| = (cos4 − sin4 )
2 2
sin2 cos2
α 𝛽 α + 𝛽 𝛽 + 𝛽2 2 2
[1 β ] [ ]=[ 2 ] θ θ θ θ
α α 1 𝛽 α + α α𝛽 + α𝛽 = (cos2 + sin2 ) (cos2 − sin2 ) = cos θ
2 2 −1 −1 2 2 2 2
= [𝜔 2+ ω ω +2𝜔] = [ ]
ω +𝜔 2ω −1 2
17. (x + a)100 + (x − a)100
9. All are true. Number of terms = 101-50 = 51
10. “T” is repeated twice. So, Number of 18. In (1 + x)50

permutations 1
C1 + C3 + C5 + ⋯ = × 250 = 249
(11)! 2
= = 19958400 [∵ C0 + C1 + C2 + ⋯ Cn = 2n
2!
NDA 2 2017
1 0 0 1 1
25. log e + 2 log e 3 + 4 log e 3 + ⋯
19. A = [0 b 0] a = diag [a, b, c]
1 1 1
0 0 c = (log e 3) [1 + + + ⋯ ∞] = (log e 3)
1 2 4 1
A−1 = diag −1 [a, b, c] = diag[a−1 , b−1 , c −1 ] 1−2
| A|
−1 = 2log e 3 = log e 9
1 a 0 0
= [ 0 b−1 0 ]
abc 8! 8 10×9×8×7
0 0 c −1 26. = 8! × 8! × = 210 × (8!)2
4! 6! 4!
k 1 1
20. Let us assume that total minutes = x 27. |1 k 1| = 0
For first nine minutes = 150 × 9 1 1 k
Let the remaining minutes = y = x − 9 ⟹ k(k 2 − 1) − (k − 1) + (1 − k) = 0
⟹ k(k + 1) − 1 − 1 ] = 0 ⟹ k 2 + k − 2 = 0
y
2
Now,
y
(150 × 9) + [2 × 150 + (y − 1)(−2)] = 4500
2
(302 − 2y) = 3150 ⟹ y 2 − 151y + 3150 = 0
⟹ 1, −2
c k
For k =1, first two equations will become same.
⟹ k = −2
⟹ (y − 126)(y − 25) = 0 ⟹ y = 25 or 126
(Rejected)
So, x = y + 9 = 25 + 9 = 34 minutes
r a
28. Sn = 1−r +
ab
2
1.3 + 2.3 + ⋯ n. 3
dbr(1−rn−1)
(1−r)2
n
21. (
1+i n
1−i
) = in = 1 ⟹ n = 4
B C =
=
{(2n − 1)3n+1 + 3}
4
(2n − 1)3a + b (2n − 1)3n+1 + 3
4
=
4
a+a = a+a
S S
22. (a, b) R (c, d) ⟺ a + b = b + c
⟹ (a, a) R (a, a) ⟹ R is reflexive.

Next, Let (a, b) R (c, d) ⟹ a + b = b + c
⟹ c + b = d + a ⟹ (c, d) R(a, b)
29.
a = n + 1, b = 3
P
2
Q
+ 2 = 45°
P Q
P Q
tan 2 + 2
⟹ R is symmetric. tan ( + ) = =1
2 2 P Q
1 − tan tan
Next, (a, b) R (c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f) 2 2
⟹ a + b = b + c and c + f = d + e −b c a−c
=1− = ⟹ a+b = c
⟹ a+d+c+f= b+c+d+e a a a
⟹ a + f = b + e ⟹ (a, b)R (e, f) 4 4 4
⟹ R is transitive ⟹ R is an equivalence 30. |z − | ≥ |z| − | | ⟹ 2 ≥ |z| − |z|
2 2
relation. ⟹ | z| 2 − 2 | z| − 4 ≤ 0
2+2√5
x y ⟹ | z| = 2
= 1 + √5 (neglecting -ve value)
23. y = 1−x ⟹ x = 1+y
x
2 1
31. tan 15° = 2 − √3 = x+50
24. 3x 2 + 2x + 1 = 0 ⟹ α + β = − 3 , αβ = 3
1 1 2 −8
S=𝛼+𝛽+ + =− −2=
𝛼 𝛽 3 3
1 16
P = (α + β−1 )(β + α−1 ) = αβ + 2 + =
αβ 3
Required equation is x 2 − Sx + P = 0
8 16
x2 + x + = 0 ⟹ 3x 2 + 8x + 16 = 0
3 3
NDA 2 2017
α+x α−x
2 sin ( 2 ) cos ( 2 ) p
⟹ α+x α−x =
2 cos ( 2 ) sin ( 2 ) q
sin α + sin x p
⟹ =
sin α − sin x q
sin α + sin x + sin α − sin x p + q
⟹ =
sin α + sin x − sin α + sin x p − q
2 sin α p + q
⟹ =
2 sin x p − q
(p − q) sin α
⟹ sin x =
p+q
⟹ (2 − √3 − 1) x = −50(2 − √3)
−50(2 − √3) 3 1 3 1
35. sin−1 5 + tan−1 7 = tan−1 4 + tan−1 7
⟹x=
⟹ x + 25 =
(1 − √3)
−50(2 − √3) + 25(1 − √3)
1 − √3
= tan
c k
−1 4
3 1
+7
1− ∙
3 1
4 7
= tan−1
21 + 4
28 − 3
=
−100 + 50√3 + 25 − 25√3
−75 + 25√3
1 − √3
=
25(3 − √3)
= 25√3
r a = tan−1
25
25
= tan−1 1 =
𝜋
4
C
1 − √3 (√3 − 1) 36. Let the distance between pole & tower is ‘b’.
hT
32. tan 9° − tan 27° − tan 63° + tan 81° Now, = tan 45° = 1 ⟹ hT = b
= (tan 9° + cot 9°) − (tan 27° + cot 27°)
=
cos(9° − 9°) cos(27° − 27°)
−
S
sin 9° cos 9° sin 27° cos 27°
2 2
B
2(sin 54° − sin 18°)
⟹
hT − hP
b
hT − hP
b
= tan 45° =
=
1
1
√3
⟹
⟹
hT − hP
hT
=
1
√3
hT − hP √3 + 1
=
=
=
−
sin 18° sin 54°
sin 18° ∙ sin 54°
33. √3 cosec 20° − sec 20°

=
2 ∙ 2 cos 36° ∙ sin 18°
S sin 18° ∙ sin 54°
=4
hT − (hT − hP ) √3 − 1
′ ′
⟹ Statement 2 is correct,
hT − hP + 2hP √3 + 1 + 4
hP
=
′ ′
2
⟹ Statement 3 is incorrect.
⟹
hP 2
hT + hP 5 + √3
hP
=
2
√3 1 ∴ Option ‘c’ right choice.

= −
sin 20° cos 20°
√3 cos 20° − sin 20° 37. a + b = 2b
= 2( )
2 sin 20° ∙ cos 20° A C
cot ∙ cot
sin 60° ∙ cos 20° − cos 60° ∙ sin 20° 2 2
= 2 ×2( )
sin 40° s(s − a) s(s − c)
sin(60° − 20°) =√ ×
= 2×2 =4 (s − b)(s − c) (s − a)(s − b)
sin 40°
s 2s a+b+c 3b
= = = = =3
34. α = A + B and x = A − B s − b 2s − 2b a + b + c − 2b b
x+α α−x
⟹A= ,B = A A
2 2 38. √1 + sin A = |sin 2 + cos 2 |
x+α
tan A tan ( ) p A A 𝜋 3𝜋
= 2 = sin + cos , 2n𝜋 − ≤ 2n𝜋 +
tan B tan ( α − x 2 2 4 4
) q ={
A A
2
− (sin + cos ) , otherwise
2 2
NDA 2 2017
A A ⃗α ∙ ⃗δ = 0 ⟹ a + 2b − c = 0 …(i)
So, √1 + sin A = − (sin + cos )
2 2 ⃗ ∙δ
β ⃗ = 0 ⟹ 2a + b + 3c = 0 …(ii)
3𝜋 A 5𝜋
When < < from (i) and (ii)
4 2 4
3𝜋 5𝜋 a b c
⟹ <A< = =
2 2 5 −5 −5
a b c
⟹ = = = −λ (say)
39. sin2 A + sin2 B + sin2 C 1 −1 −1
⟹ a = λ, b = −λ, c = −λ
= 2 cos2 A + 2 cos2 B + 2 cos2 C
⟹ cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C = 1 Again, ⃗δ ∙ γ
⃗ = 10
3 1 ⟹ 2a + b + 6c = 2λ − λ − 6λ = −5λ = 10
⟹ + (cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C) = 1 ⟹ λ = −2
2 2
⟹ cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C = −1 ∴ ⃗δ = −2î + 2ĵ + 2k̂ ⟹ |δ
⃗ | = √12 = 2√3
⟹ 2 cos(A + B) cos(A − B) = −(1 + cos 2C)
⟹ −2 cos C cos(A − B) = −2cos2 C
⟹ cos(A − B) = cos C
⟹ A−B = C
c k
46. (â + b̂) × (â × b̂)
= â × (â × b̂) + b̂ × (â × b̂)
= (â ∙ b̂)â − (â ∙ â)b̂ + (b̂ ∙ b̂)â − (b̂ ∙ â)b̂
Again, A + B + C = 𝜋
⟹ A+B+A−B= 𝜋
⟹A=
𝜋
2
r a = kâ − b̂ + â − kb̂
= (k + 1)(â − b̂)
⟹ △ is right angle.
40. Range of sin−1 x is [− , ]

𝜋 𝜋
2 2
𝜋 𝜋
B C AB = 2ĉ − 3ĵ + 8k̂

47. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
work done = ⃗⃗F ∙ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AB = 1 × 2 + 3(−3) + 2(8)
= 2 − 9 + 16 = 9 units
⟹ sin−1 𝑥 ∈ [− , ]
2 2
S S
41. All given points lie on the line of equation
ay = bx
All points are collinear
48. Let a⃗ = xî + yĵ + 3k̂
|a⃗ × î|2 = z 2 + y 2
|a⃗ × ĵ|2 = x 2 + z 2
2
|a⃗ × k̂| = x 2 + y 2
∴ 2(x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) = 2|a⃗|2
42. x + 2y − 2z = 9
9 49.
⟹ Length of normal = =3
√12 + 22 + (−2)2
43. cos2 α + cos2 β + cos2 γ = 1

cos2 α + cos2 β = 1 − cos2 γ = sin2 γ
⟹ Statement 1 is correct PF1 + PF2 = 10
cos2 α + cos2 β + cos2 = 1 ⟹ 2a = 10 ⟹ a = 5
⟹ 1 − sin2 α + 1 − sin2 β + 1 − sin2 γ = 1 F1 F2 = 8 ⟹ 2c = 8 ⟹ c = 4
⟹ sin2 α + sin2 β + sin2 γ = 2 a2 = b2 + c 2 ⟹ b2 = 32 ⟹ b = 3
⟹ Statement 3 is correct Area = 𝜋ab = 𝜋 × 3 × 5 = 15𝜋
44. ∠ between x + y − 3 = 0 & x − y + 3 = 0 is 50.

90° ⟹ α = 90°
As β is acute, therefore α > β
45. Let ⃗δ = aî + bĵ + ck̂

NDA 2 2017
2
9(34 + x 2 )
4x + 49 + 28x =
2
8x 2 + 98 + 56x = 306 + 9x 2
x 2 − 56x + 208 = 0
+56 ± √3136 − 832
x= = 28 ± 24 = 4, 52
2
54. 2(1)2 + 7(2)2 − 20 = 2 + 28 − 20 > 0

Equation of line L is ∴ point lies outside the ellipse.
y − 3 = −4(x − 1) ⟹ y − 3 = −4x + 4
⟹ 4x + y = 7 55.
3
Solving equations, x = 2 , y = 1
3 2
1
∴ AP = √( − 1) (1 − 3)2 = √ + 4 =
a 1 1
2 4
√17
2
c k
51. |1 b 1| = 0
1 1 c
⟹ C2 → C2 − C1 , C3 → C3 − C1
a 1−a 1−a
r a
|1 b − 1
1 0
0 |=0
c−1
B C
⟹ a(b − 1)(c − 1) − (1 − a)(c − 1) − (1 − a)(b − 1) = 0
Dividing by (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c) , we get
m = tan 120° = −√3
⟹
a
+
1−a 1−b 1−c
1
1−b 1−c
Adding
1
1−a
1
+
1
+
1
=−
=0
1−a
on both sides
a
S S y + 5 = −√3 x ⟹ y + √3 x + 5 = 0
56. Required Line

(2x − 3y + 7) + λ(−42y − 4y)(98 − 2) = 0 …(1)
Putting (2, 3)
1 1 1 ⟹ (4 − 9 + 7) + λ(14 + 12 + 2) = 0
+ + =1 1
1−a 1−b 1−c ⟹λ=−
14
(28x − 7x) + (−42y − 4y)(98 − 2) = 0
21x − 46y + 96 = 0
52. 9
Equation of line is 57. b2 = 2a, c 2 = 16 a2
x+3 y−4 z+8 We know, a2 = b2 + c 2 So,
= = = λ (say)
8 −10 12 9 2 32
⟹ x = 8λ − 3, y = −10λ + 4, z = 12λ − 8, a2 = 2a + a ⟹a=
16 7
since line intersects XY plane, so, z = 0 64
b2 =
9 7 −8 7
⟹ λ = ∴ x = ,y = Equation of ellipse
3 3 3
7 −8 x2 y2
⟹ Point ( , , 0) + =1
3 3 a2 b 2
Putting values of a and b
34+x2 49x 2 7y 2
53. 2x − 3 + 10 = 3√ 2 + =1
1024 64
58.
NDA 2 2017
Equation of plane passing through the line of

intersection of P1 and P2 is given by
x + y + z − 1 + λ(2x + 3y + 4z − 7) = 0
⟹ x(1 + 2λ) + y(1 + 3λ) + z(1 + 4λ) − 1 − 7λ = 0
This is perpendicular to x − 5y − 3z − 5 = 0
⟹ 1(1 + 2λ) − 5(1 + 3λ) + 3(1 + 4λ) = 0
⟹ 1 + 2λ − 5 − 15λ + 3 + 12λ = 0
Let equation of circle is ⟹ −λ − 1 = 0 ⟹ λ = −1
∴ Equation of plane is
x 2 − x + y 2 + 6y + λ(−y − 6 + 6x) = 0
−x − 2y − 3z − 1 + 7 = 0 ⟹ x + 2y + 3z = 0
Putting (3, 4), we get
9 − 3 + 16 + 24 + λ(−4 − 6 + 18) = 0
−23 61. y = 5log x
⟹ 46 + 8λ = 0 ⟹ λ = ⟹ log y = (log x)(log 5)
23
4
∴ x 2 − x + y 2 + 6y − (−y − 6 + 6x) = 0
4
⟹ 4x 2 + 4y 2 − 4x + 24y + 23y + 138 − 138x = 0
⟹ log x =
c klog y
log 5
1 1
= log y log 5 ⟹ y log 5 , y > 0
⟹ 4x 2 + 4y 2 − 142x + 47y + 138 = 0
59.
r a 62.
− ,
f(x) = { |x|
x
0,
x≠0
x=0
B C −1, x > 0
={ 1 x<0
0 x=0
f(x) is discontinuous at x = 0
S S 63. y = (cos x)y

⟹ log y = y log cos x
Differentiating both sides,
1 dy
= y. (− tan x) + log cos x .
dy
y dx dx
Equation of plane is 1 dy
x y z ⟹ ( − log cos x) = −y tan x
+ + =1 y dx
p q r dy −y 2 tan x
It passes through ⟹ =
dx 1 − y log cos x
a b c
(a, b, c) ⟹ + + = 1
p q r 64. Both statements are correct.
Equation of sphere is given by
65. Statements I and II are correct.
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − pz − qy − rz = 0 with its
centre at (xc , yc , zc ) such that x−1 x−1 π
p q r 66. cos −1 x+1 + sin−1 x+1 = 2
xc = , yc = , zc = dy
2 2 2
⟹ p = 2xc , q = 2yc , r = 2 zc ⟹ =0
dx
∴ locus of centre
a b c 67.
⟹ + + =2 𝜋 x
x y z ∫ tan−1 (sec x + tan x)dx = ∫ tan−1 {tan ( ) − } dx
2 2
60. Let P1 = x + y + z − 1 = 0 𝜋 x 𝜋x x 2
= ∫ ( − ) dx = − +c
P2 = 2x + 3y + 4z − 7 = 0 4 2 4 4
NDA 2 2017
1 − x2, 0<x≤1 74.

68. f(x) = { log x, 1<x≤2 dy ax + h
=
log 2 − 1 + 0.5x, 2<x<∞ dx by + k
f ′ (x) = −2x, 0 < x ≤ 1
∫(by + k)dy = ∫(ax + h)dx
69. f(x) = x(x 2 − 1) by 2 ax 2

+ ky = + hx + c
f ′ (x) = x(2x) + (x 2 − 1) = 3x 2 − 1 2 2
f"(x) = 6x ax 2 by 2
− + hx − ky + c = 0
At f ′ (x) = 0 ⟹ x = ±
1 2 2
√3 a = −b ≠ 0
−1
−1 1 2
f(x)max = f ( ) = ( − 1) =
√3 √3 3 3√3 75.
1
f(x)min = f ( ) =
√3
1 1
( − 1) =
√3 3
70. All statements are correct.

−2
3√3
sin x
lim
x→π/2 x
m=0
c k
= L ⟹ L = 2/𝜋
71. f(x) =
ln x
x
1
( ) x − ln x 1 − ln x
r a76.
2𝜋
∫ √1 + sin
x
2
dx
f ′ (x) =
f"(x) = x
x
1 2
x2
=
− ∙ x − 2x(1 − ln x)
x4
x2
B C 0
2𝜋
0
x
4
x
= ∫ |sin + cos | dx
4
=
x4
−(3 − 2 ln x)
x3
=
S S
−x − 2x(1 − ln x) −[1 + 2 − 2 ln x]
At f ′ (x) = 0 ⟹ ln x = 1 ⟹ x = e
x3
77.
=8
x x 2𝜋
= 4 [sin − cos ]
4 40
−(3 − 2) 1
f"(e) = 3
=− 3<0
e e
ln e 1
f(x)max = f(e) = =
e e
x − x3 , x ≥ 0
72. f(x) = {
−x − x 3 , x < 0
x + x 3 , x ≥ 0 = f(x)
f(−x) {
x + x 3 , x < 0 = −f(x)
1
Neither even nor odd Area = 4 × 2 × 1 = 2 sq. unit
d
73. ℓ1 = esin x 78.
dx
x2
esin(x+n) − esin x d y=
ℓ2 = lim = esin x = ℓ1 1 + x4
n→0 n dx ⟹ y ≥ 0 Also,
ℓ3 = ∫ esin x cos x dx = ∫ et dt = et + c x2 1 1
y= = ⟹y≤
= esin x + c 1+x 4 1 2
x2 + 2
d d x
(ℓ3 ) = esin x = ℓ2
dx dx
NDA 2 2017
1 ⟹ maximum value = √4 + 1 = √2
⟹ y ∈ [0, ]
2 (C) → (4)
f(x) = sin +3 cos x
79. L. H. D. maximum value = √1 + 9 = √10
(k − 1) sin 𝜋(k − h) − [k] sin k𝜋
= lim (D) → (1)
ℎ→0 −h
(𝑘 − 1) sin(k𝜋 − 𝜋h)
= lim 85. L. H. Lt = R. H. Lt = f(0) = 0
ℎ→0 −h
±(k − 1) sin(𝜋h) ⟹ f(x) is continuous at x = 0
= lim L. H. D = R. H. D = −1
ℎ→0 −h
= ∓(k − 1)𝜋 ⟹ f(x) is differentiable at x = 0
= (−1)k (k − 1)𝜋 x
86. f(x) = x , ≠ 0
( )]
x
80. f(x) = − 1, [0, 𝜋]
2
x
tan[f x = tan[[ − 1]
1 1
2
c k
⟹ y = 1, x ≠ 0
=
f(x) x − 1
2
is discontinues at x = 2
Also, tan[f(x)] is discontinuous for x = 2 in

[0, 𝜋]
r a
81.
[1 + (
dy
) ] =p
2 3
2[
d2 y
]
2
B C 87. f(n) = [ +
1000
∴ ∑ + (n)
1
4
n
1000
]
82.
dx
Order = 2, Degree = 2
y = cos−1 (
2x
)
dx 2
S S n−1
1
=[ +
4 1000
….+[ +
1
1 1000
4 1000
]+[ +
]
1
4 1000
2 1
]+[ +
4 1000
1
] +. ..
1 + x2 1 750 1 750
𝜋 2x = 0 +0 +0 +⋯[ + ]+[ + ] +. ..
= − sin−1 , ( ) 4 1000 4 1000
2 1 + x2 1 1000
𝜋 …+ [ + ]
= − 2 tan−1 x, |x| < 1 4 1000
2 = 1 + 1 + 1 + ⋯ … . . +1 (251 times)
= 251
83.
−2x(−e−x2 ) xe−x2 88.
f ′ (x) = =
2√1−e−x2 √1−e−x2 1 1
Which is defined ∀ x ∈ R, except x = 0 ∫[ − ] dx
log x (log x)2
⟹ f(x) is differentiable on (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞) Putting log x = t
⟹ x = et ⟹ dx = et dt
84. f(x) = sin x + cos x 1 1 et x
⟹ maximum value = √2 ∫ et [ − 2 ] dt = + c = +c
t t t log x
(A) → (2)
f(x)3 sin x + 4 cos x 89. The height and the radius of the base of an
⟹ maximum value = √32 + 42 = 5 open cylinder of given surface area and
(B) → (3) maximum volume are equal i.e., radius=height.
f(x) = 2 sin + cos x ⟹ Diameter = 2 × height.
NDA 2 2017
⟹k=2 1 dy 1 ϕ′ (x) 1
⟹ ∙ ( ) − ∙ =
y 2 dx 𝑦 ϕ(x) ϕ(x)
90. we get
𝜋/4 𝜋/4 dt 1 dy
= 2( )
∫ √tan x + ∫ √cot x dx dx y dx
0 0 dt ϕ′ (x) 1
⟹ + t=−
𝜋/4 dx ϕ(x) ϕ(x)
ϕ′ (x)
∫ dx
= ∫ (√tan x + √cot x) dx I. F =e ϕ(x) = elog ϕ(x) = ϕ(x)
0 Solution of differential equation is
𝜋/4 1
t ∙ ϕ(x) = ∫ − × ϕ(x) dx
sin x + cos x ϕ(x)
=∫ dx
√sin x cos x
0
= √2 ∫
𝜋/4
(sin x + cos x)
√1 − (sin x cos x)2
dx
⟹y=
1
c k
⟹ − ϕ(x) = −x ⟹
y
ϕ(x)
x
+c
ϕ(x)
y
=x
Putting sin x − cos x = t

⟹ dt = (sin x + cos x) dx
when x = 0, t = −1
r a
95.
f(x) =
4x + x 4
and x =
0
π
4
,t = 0
1
0
∫[sin−1
B
t]0−1
C g(
e−1
1 + x3
g(x) = ln (
1+x
1−x
) = ln [
)
e+1+e−1 2e
] = ln ( ) = 1
= √2 ∫
−1
= √2[0 − (−𝜋/2)] =
91. g(x) = [x]

√1 − t 2
dt = √2
S
√2
S −1
e+1
f𝑜g(
e−1
e+1
e+1−e+1
) = f(1) =
1 − α α − α2 α2
4+1
1+4
=1
2
96. |1 − β β − β2 β2 |
f(x) = [x]2 − [x] 1 − γ γ − γ2 γ2
f(x) is discontinuous at every integers except C1 → C1 + C2 + C3
x = 1. 1 α − α2 α2
= |1 β − β 2 β 2 |
92. y = A[sin(x + c) + cos(x + c)] 1 γ − γ2 γ2
dy C2 → C2 + C3
= A[cos(x + c) − sin(x + c)]
dx 1 α α2
d2 y = |1 β β2 | = (α − β)(β − γ)(γ − α)
= −A[sin(x + c) + cos(x + c)] = −y
dx 2 1 γ γ2
d2 y
⟹ 2+y = 0
dx 1 0 2
97. A = [2 1 0]
93. Both statements are correct but statement 2 is 0 3 1
not the correct explanation of statement 1. C11 = 1 C12 = −2 C13 = 6
C21 = 6 C22 = 1 C23 = −3
94. C31 = −2 C32 = 4 C33 = 1
dy yϕ′ (x) −y 2 1 6 −2
− = ∴ Adj A = [−2 1 4]
dx ϕ(x) ϕ(x) 6 −3 1
NDA 2 2017
⟹ Average of any five observations = 24.

−2 2 −2 2 8 −8
98. A2 = [ ][ ][ ]
2 2 2 −2 −8 8 107. Regression coefficient of y on x
−2 2
= −4 [ ] = −4A = regression coefficient of x on y
2 −2
⟹ (x, y) lies on (y = x) line.
99. Let z = x + iy
1 1 1
z 2 − 1 = x 2 − y 2 + 2xyi − i 108. P(A) = 3 , P(B) = 6 , P(A ∩ B) = 12
= x 2 − y 2 + (2xy − 1)i P(B ∩ A̅)
Re(z 2 − i) = 2 P(B|A̅ ) =
̅̅̅
P(A)
⟹ x2 − y2 = 2 1
This equation represents rectangular hyperbola. P(B ∩ A̅ ) = P(B) − P(A ∩ B) =
12
2
̅) =
P(A
100. p+q+r= a+b+c = 0
pa qb rc
|qc ra pb|
rb pc qa
𝐵
∴ 𝑃( ) =
̅
A
c k3
1/12 1
2/3
=
8
= pqr(a3 + b3 + c 3 ) − abc(p3 + q3 + r 3 )
= pqr (3abc) − abc (3pqr)
= 0 ∴ a3 + b3 + c 3 = 3abc p3 + q3 + r 3 = 3pqr)
(
r a
109.
⟹q= × =
5 3 5
9 2 6
1
2
np = , npq =
3 9
5
101.
n(s) = 4C2 =
4×3
2
=6
n(E) = 2C1 × 2C1 = 2 × 2 = 4
B C ⟹ p = ,n = 4
6
4
1 2 5 2
p(x = 2) = C2 ( ) × ( )
6 6
102.
4 2
P(E) = =
6 3
S S
Possible primes are 2, 3, 5.
2 1 1 2 4
110.
=6×
1 25
×
36 36 216
=
25
p(all reach safely) = (3)

1 22
1 5
× + × = p(4 reach safely) = 5 × ( )

3 3 3 3 9 3 3
11
103. n(X) = 16, n(Y) = 25 and S = 51 p(at least 4 reach safely) =
243
16 25
⟹ P(X) = , P(Y) =
51 51 111.
12 × 11 × 10
104. P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B) p(none born in same month) =
12 × 12 × 12
2 1 1 1 p(at least two born in same month)
P(B) = − + =
3 2 6 3 12 × 11 × 10 144 − 110 17
1 1 1 =1− = =
∴ P(A̅ ∩ B) = − = 12 × 12 × 12 144 72
3 6 6
112. x̅ = 10, y̅ = 90
105. Statement 1 and statement 2 are σ x = 3, σ y = 10
correct. Mean derivation is least when rxy = 0.8
measured about mean, therefore statement 3 is Regression equation x on y is
wrong. σx
⟹ x − 10 = r (y − 90)
σy
106. As standard deviation is ‘0’, therefore 3
⟹ x − 10 = 0.8 × (y − 90)
all observations will be equal to 24. 12
NDA 2 2017
⟹ x − 10 = 0.2(y − 90) 3
P(E) = = 0.3
⟹ x = −8 + 0.2y 10
113. 120. Coefficient of correlation

P(B ∩ C̅) = P(A ∩ B ∩ C̅) + P(A
̅ ∩ B ∩ C̅) = √0 ∙ 2 × 1 ∙ 8 = 0 ∙ 6
1 1 2
= + =
3 3 3
P(B) = P(B ∩ C) + P(B ∩ C̅)
⟹ P(B ∩ C) = P(B) − P(B ∩ C̅)
3 2 1
= − =
4 3 12
114. Total expenditure of A = 10,000

Total expenditure of B = 8,100
So, area of A: area of B= 10,000: 8,100 = 100:81
⟹ radii of A: radii of B =√100 ∶ √81 = 10: 9
c k
115. The arithmetic mean will always be
between minimum and maximum value so out
of the given option ‘n/2’ is possible value.
r a
116. P (to know correct answer) = p
P (to answer correctly) = p +

1−p
B C
P (to guess correct answer) = (1 − p) × (1/m)
So, required probability

=
p+ m
p
=
mp
S
1 − p 1 + p(m − 1)
S m
117.
x1 + x2
− √x1 x2 > 1
2
x1 + x2
⟹ > √x1 x2 + 1
2
⟹ x1 + x2 > 2 √x1 x2 + 2
⟹ x1 + x2 − 2 √x1 x2 > 2
2
⟹ (√x1 − √x2 ) > 2
⟹ |√x1 − √x2 | > √2
118. Variance is independent of change of

origin but not scale. So, Statement 1 is
incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
119. n(S) = 5C3 = 10

n(E) = 4C3 − 1 = 3
NDA 2 2017
PART-A (b) amend

(c) cancel
Synonyms
(d) withhold
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a 8. This is his maiden appearance on the screen.
sentence with an underlined word/words followed by (a) first
four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning (b) last
to the underlined word/words and mark your response (c) girlish
in your Answer Sheet accordingly. (d) shy
1. The discussion was wound up after a long and 9. At the end of the marathon everybody was
fruitful exchange of views. exhausted.
(a) postponed (a) weakened
(b) cut short (b) honoured
(c) interrupted
(d) concluded
2. He was fully alive to the need for making
adjustments.
c k
(c) satisfied
(d) tired
10. He gave me a counterfeit coin.
(a) rare
(a) concerned about
(b) worried about
(c) aware of
r a (b) fake
(c) unmatured
(d) inferior
(d) indifferent about
but in vain.
(a) inform
B C
3. The police officer tried to intimidate the witness Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word/words followed by
(b) reward
(c) frighten
(d) persuade
S S
4. We must adopt drastic measures to control
population growth.
four options. Select the option that is opposite in
meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your
response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
11. My mother has been working hard for the last
two weeks and she feels run down.
(a) simple (a) morbid
(b) dramatic (b) energetic
(c) realistic (c) exhausted
(d) severe (d) emotional
5. He is extremely meticulous in his approach. 12. The President condemned the act of violence
(a) simple during the celebration of the festival.
(b) careful (a) reason
(c) fair (b) instigation
(d) reasonable (c) restraint
6. The experts’ minute examination brought light (d) sobriety
to some important clues. 13. The students made a generous contribution to
(a) quick the flood relief fund.
(b) detailed (a) niggard
(c) superficial (b) selfish
(d) prolonged (c) spendthrift
7. The decision of the Union Government to repeal (d) indecent
the Urban Ceiling Act has been welcomed by all. 14. He was just idle by temperament.
(a) suppress (a) employed
NDA 2 2017
(b) occupied (b) horse (b) It

(c) industrious (c) dog (c) He
(d) happy (d) cow (d) Her
15. Most of the decisions taken by the officer were
unjust. Explanation: Out of the list given in item K, only, ‘boy’ is
(a) serious the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a
(b) lenient horse, a dog or a cow, attends school. So ‘(a)’ is to be
(c) correct marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy usually
(d) imbecile referred to as ‘he’, so for item L, ‘(c)’ is the correct
16. He is a loving father and takes great delight in his answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to
children. read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.
(a) revolt
(b) dissatisfaction
(c) enjoyment
(d) disgust
17. He was quite concerned about his son’s career.
Passage
c k
After this incident I went to Nainital and returned after
nearly a month. I had
21. (a) hardly
(a) unrelated
(b) indifferent
(c) dispassionate
r a (b) barely
(c) merely
(d) rarely
(d) carefree
18. They are confident of success.
(a) imprudent
(b) impatient
B C taken 22. (a) out my clothes when I saw Gangu standing
(b) away
(c) off
(d) on
(c) diffident
(d) reluctant
S S
19. We carried on the search for the missing person.
(a) delayed
(b) reconsidered
23. (a) by a new baby. He was 24. (a) jumping
(b) near
(c) with
(d) at
(b) bursting
(c) dancing
(d) singing
(c) broke up with joy. Even Nanda 25. (a) could not have
(d) called off (b) would
20. This T.V. has may indigenous components. (c) should
(a) Indian (d) ought
(b) foreign 26. (a) experimented such joy 27. (a) at
(c) unnatural (b) show (b) bursting
(d) genuine (c) should (c) on
Selecting Words (d) heard (d) into
Directions: In the following passage, at certain points you getting Krishna. His face had the same
are given a choice of four words marked (a), (b), (c), and 28. (a) light
(d), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose (b) glow
the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (c) sense
(b), (c), or (d), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. (d) hope
Examples K and L have been solved for you. that 29. (a) comes on the face of a 30. (a) starved
K L (b) appears (b) starving
The (c) rises (c) hungry
(a) boy was in the (a) She was homesick. (d) shows (d) shows
school in Shimla man after a full meal.
NDA 2 2017
35. As the ship streams from San Diego

Ordering of words in a sentence (P) as walls of gray water from a distant storm in
Directions: Each of the following items in this section the North Pacific
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been (Q) making the greener among us miserable with
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R, and S. sea sickness
Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (R) rock and toss the ship
(a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the (s) those of us aboard have a personal
jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response demonstration of powerful ocean movement
accordingly. (a) P Q R S (b) S R P Q
31. The spirit of man (c) S P R Q (d) Q S R P
(P) has slowly and painfully surmounted
(Q) and his growing intelligence Spotting Errors
(R) all the obstacles that have come in his way
(S) has faced all kinds of dangers
(a) Q P S R
(c) R P Q S
(b) S Q P R
(d) P R Q S
k
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with
three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read
c
each sentence to find out whether there is any error in
any underlined part and indicate your response in the
32. After our school boys had won a well-contested

hockey match a
Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a),
r
(b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be
indicated as (d).
their victory to the headmaster

(Q) who is a keen sportsman
(R) they came to school in high spirits
B C
(P) so that they might communicate the news of
36. An electrical circuit
(a)
is the complete path
(b)
traversed by electric current. No error.
games
(a) Q P S R
(c) R P Q S
S S
(S) and takes a very lively interest in school
(b) S Q P R
(d) P R Q S
(c) (d)
37. He waved us a by-by as he boarded the train

(a) (b)
which disappeared into the tunnel. No error
33. Even a leisurely game like cricket (c) (d)
(P) demanding grace rather than strength
(Q) and over the rough tactics of the Australian 38. There was great deal that had to be scrapped
team that visited England in 1921. that must be scrapped:
(R) as we saw in the controversy over body-line (a)
bowling but surely India could not have been what she
(S) can cause much ill-will undoubtedly was
(a) P S R Q (b) R S P Q (b)
(c) S R Q P (d) Q P R S and could not have continued a cultured
existence for thousands of years. No error.
34. Scientists point out (c) (d)
(P) of sunspot activity
(Q) that it is an aftermath that 39. With regard to interior decoration, it is the
(R) has now reached its peak attention given to the less overt aspects of using
(S) of the eleven-year cycle space
(a) R S P Q (b) P Q S R (a)
(c) Q R P S (d) Q S P R that give it life, an identity, a quality
(b)
NDA 2 2017
that makes it exciting and unusual. No error. 47. When he heard the terrible noise, he asked me
(c) (d) what was on.
(a) happening
40. A small parcel of novel is better than none. (b) being
(a) (b) (c) (c) getting
No error. (d) going
(d) 48. Could you lend me some money? I am very
of cash at the moment.
Fill in the blanks (a) down
Directions: Each of the following sentences in this (b) low
section has a blank space and four words or group of (c) short
words given after the sentence. Select the word or group (d) scarce
of words you consider most appropriate for the blank
space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheer
accordingly.
41. He looks as if he weary.
(a) by
(b) at
c k
49. I saw her when she was standing
of the statue.
the side
(a) is
(b) was
(c) would be
r a (c) in
(d) beyond
50. True friends never their loved ones in
(d) were
42. My house is insured
(a) for
(b) against
B C
theft and fire.
adversity.
(a) abuse
(b) criticize
(c) befool
(c) in
(d) towards
S S
43. The result of the prolonged discussion was
.
(a) disappointment
(d) desert
PART-B
51. Which one of the following was set as a target of
average growth of GDP of India over the plan
(b) disappointing period 2012-2017 by the Approach Paper to the
(c) disappointed Twelfth Five Year Plan?
(d) to disappoint (a) 7 percent
44. You are lucky in the 20th century. (b) 8 percent
(a) by being born (c) 9 percent
(b) to have been born (d) 10 percent
(c) for being born 52. Which one of the following is not a subject that
(d) to have born has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj
45. Sita is true to . Institutions by the II1 Schedule of the
(a) word Constitution of India?
(b) her words (a) Non-conventional energy sources
(c) the words (b) Roads
(d) words (c) Higher education
46. Years since I saw her last. (d) Libraries
(a) have passed 53. Who among the following used the term
(b) had passed Industrial Revolution for the first time in English
(c) had been passing to describe the changes that occurred in the
(d) have been passing
NDA 2 2017
British industrial development between 1760 Select the correct answer using the code given
and 1820? below:
(a) Friedrich Engles (a) 3-2-1-4
(b) Eric Hobsbawm (b) 2-3-1-4
(c) Arnold Toynbee (c) 4-1-2-3
(d) Georges Michelet (d) 2-1-3-4
54. Who among the following is the author of the 61. The Kashmir region receives additional amount
book ‘The Indian Struggle, 1920-1934’? of precipitation during the winter brought by,
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam (a) South-west Monsoon
(b) Jayprakash Narayan (b) Western Disturbances
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Retreating Monsoon
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy (d) Temperate Cyclone
55. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi
Campaign in 1896 is not correct?
(a) Its centre was Maharashtra
(b) Its main participants were students
62.
field?
c k
Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal
(a) Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

(b) Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West
56.
(c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports
(d) It publicly burnt foreign clothes
Which one of the following associations was
r a Bengal
(c) Himalayan mountain region
(d) Cardamon hills in Kerala
(a) The Bengal British India Society

(b) The East India Association
(c) The British Indian Association
B C
founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866? 63. Tendons through which muscles are connected
to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which
one of the following fibrous protein?
(a) fibrin
57.
S
(d) The Madras Native Association
Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of
S
(a) Southern Atlantic Ocean
(b) Western Pacific Ocean
(c) Eastern Pacific Ocean
64.
(b) collagen
(c) elastin
(d) cellulose
Which one of the following is the scientific name
of the causal organism of elephantiasis?
(d) Northern Atlantic Ocean (a) Ascaris lumbricoides
58. Taklamakan Desert is situated in (b) Culex pipiens
(a) Western Asia (c) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa (d) Fasciola hepatica
(c) South America 65. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives color
(d) Central Asia to human skin, hair, and the iris. It provides
59. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of protection against
rivers Alaknanda and (a) Ultraviolet radiation
(a) Bhagirathi (b) Infrared radiation
(b) Mandakini (c) X-ray radiation
(c) Nandakini (d) Short wave radio radiation
(d) Dhauliganga 66. Intake of which one of the following food
60. Arrange the following Indian cities according to components should be minimized by patients
their locations from west to east: having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum
1. Bilaspur uric acid level?
2. Jodhpur (a) Food fibers
3. Bhopal (b) Nucleic acids
4. Ranchi (c) Lipids
NDA 2 2017
(d) Carbohydrates simultaneously from the same height. The time

67. Which one of the following statements about taken by them to reach the bottom is t 1 , t 2 , and
microbes is not correct? t 3. respectively. In this situation, we will observe
(a) They are used in sewage treatment plants. that
(b) They are used in industrial fermenters for (a) t 1 > t 2 > t 3
(b) t 1 > t 3 > t 2
the production of beverages.
(c) t 3 > t 1 > t 2
(c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any (d) t 1 = t 2 = t 3
microbe. 73. Electron emission from a metallic surface by
(d) They are used to get many bioactive application of light is known as
molecules for the treatment of diseases. (a) Thermionic emission
68. Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant (b) Photoelectric emission
where the incorporated gene is meant for (c) High field emission
biosynthesis of
(a) Omega-3 fatty acids
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B
74.
Sun?
c k
(d) Auto electronic emission
How does light take to reach the Earth from the
(a) about 4 minutes

(d) Vitamin C
69. An object moves in a circular path with a
constant speed. Which one of the following
r a
75.
(b) about 8 minutes
(c) about 24 minutes
(d) about 24 hours
Radioactivity is measured by
B C
(a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is
smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of
larger radius) than that for a sharp curve
(a) GM Counter
(b) Polarimeter
(c) Calorimeter
(d) Colorimeter
S S
(i.e., curve of smaller radius).
(b) The centripetal acceleration is greater for a
gentle curve than that for a sharp curve.
(c) The centripetal acceleration is the same for
both the gentle and sharp curves.
76. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles
are
(a) concave
(b) convex
(c) cylindrical
(d) The centripetal acceleration causes the (d) plane
77. Which one of the following waves is used for
object to slow down.
detecting forgery in currency notes?
70. The force acting on a particle of mass m moving
(a) Ultraviolet waves
along the x-axis is given by f(x) = Ax 2 − Bx. (b) Infrared waves
Which one of the following is the potential (c) Radio waves
energy of the particle? (d) Microwaves
(a) 2Ax − B 78. The majority charge carriers in a p-type
x2
(b) − 6 (2Ax − 3B) semiconductor are
(c) Ax 2 − Bx 2 (a) free electrons
(d) Zero (b) conduction electrons
71. The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands (c) ions
for (d) holes
(a) Holm 79. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the
(b) Halogen ground state is
(c) Henry (a) 13.6 MeV
(d) Hertz (b) 13.6 eV
72. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a (c) 13.6 Joule
sparrow bird and a mango are dropped (d) Zero
.
shop.ssbcrack.com
NDA 2 2017
80. When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles (c) It authorized Indian ICS officers to try
that rise to the surface are composed primarily Europeans in courts.
of (d) It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of
(a) air the nationalists.
(b) hydrogen 87. Who among the following can attend the
(c) hydrogen and oxygen meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not
(d) water vapour being member of either House?
81. Which compound when dissolved in water (a) The Solicitor General of India
conducts electricity and forms a basic solution? (b) The Vice-President of India
(a) HCl (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of
(b) CH3 COOH India
(c) CH3 OH (d) The attorney General of India
(d) NaOH 88. Who among the following was believed to be a
82. The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is
(a) in etching glass
(b) as a bleaching agent
(c) as an extremely strong oxidizing agent
c k
leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring
against the British in 1857?
(a) Mangal Pandey
(b) Bahadur Shah II
(d) in the preparation of strong fluorine
compounds
83. The species that has the same number of
electrons as 32
16S Cl is
r a
89.
(c) Queen Zeenat Mahal
(d) Nana Sahib
Who among the following was the founder of the
Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?
(b)
32
(a) 16S
34 +
16S
B C (a) Murshid Quli Khan

(b) Saadat Khan
(c) Alivardi Khan
(d) Sarfaraz Khan
(c) 40
18Ar
(d) 35
16S
2
+
S S
84. The compound CgH12 O4 contains
(a) 22 atoms per mole
90. Who among the following was the founder of the
Young Bengal Movement?
(a) Henry Vivian Derozio
(b) David Hare
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(b) twice the mass percent of H as compared to (d) Prasanna Kumar Tagore
the mass percent of C 91. Which one of the following statements about the
(c) six times the mass percent of C as compared Quit India Movement is correct?
to the mass percent of H (a) It broke out in August 1942.
(d) thrice the mass percent of H as compared to (b) Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for
the mass percent of O more than 3 months.
85. The proposition ‘equal volumes of different (c) Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha
gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the actively participated in the movement.
same temperature and pressure’ is known as (d) Communist Party did not support the
(a) Avogadro’s hypothesis movement.
(b) Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis 92. Who among the following is the winner of the
(c) Planck’s hypothesis Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s
(d) Kirchhoff’s theory Singles title 2017?
86. Which one of the following statements about the (a) Kidambi Srikanth
Ilbert Bill is correct? (b) Lin Dan
(a) It proposed that the Indian magistrates (c) B. Sai Praneeth
would try Europeans in criminal cases. (d) Kento Momota
(b) It allowed Indians to file criminal cases 93. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in
against Europeans. (a) Nagpur
NDA 2 2017
(b) Raipur (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Mumbai (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Secunderabad (d) 1, 2, and 3
94. Which one of the following is the theme of the 100. In India, maximum amount of rainfall is
International Day for Monuments and Sites received from
(World Heritage Day) 2017? (a) Western Disturbances
(a) The Heritage of Sport (b) Northeast Monsoon
(b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism (c) Southwest Monsoon
(c) Past and Present Heritage (d) Retreating Monsoon
(d) Heritage and Science 101. Which set of the following biosphere
95. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive reserves in India is included in the World
Ordinance Air Blast popularly known as the Network of Biosphere Reserves?
Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts (a) Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and
of militants in which one of the following
countries?
(a) Iran
(b) Syria
c k
Simlipal
(b) Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrerk, and
Seshachalam
(c) Nilgai, Nokrek, Panchmarhi, and Panna
96.
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Somalia
Who among the following is the Chairman of the
Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently
r a
102.
(d) Nilgiri,
Seshachalam
Nokrek, Panchmarhi, and
Which of the following statements about

magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?
by the Government of India to examine
framework for virtual currencies?
B C
(a) Secretary, Department of Financial Services
(b) Special Secretary, Department of Revenue
1. It is known as black ore.
2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron
3. It possesses magnetic properties
97.
Affairs
S S
(c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic
(d) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the
Ministry of
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) Finance 103. Which one of the following vitamins has
(b) Housing and Urban Affairs a role in blood clotting?
(c) Food Processing Industries (a) Vitamin A
(d) Earth Sciences (b) Vitamin D
98. The shortest day length that occurs in the (c) Vitamin E
hemisphere is on (d) Vitamin K
(a) 21st March 104. The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to
(b) 23rd September (a) organic food
(c) 22nd November (b) antacid
(d) 22nd December (c) antibiotic
99. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative (d) live microbial food supplement
improvements since independence. Which of 105. Which one of the following microbes
the following have taken place in recent years? causes acidification and curding of milk?
1. gauge conversion (a) lactic acid bacillus
2. track electrification (b) Clostridium botulinum
3. automatic signals (c) Vibrio choleras
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
below: 106. Who among the following shared Nobel
(a) 1 and 2 only Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James
NDA 2 2017
Watson for their discoveries concerning the (c) Energy can neither be created nor
molecular structure of nucleic acids? destroyed.
(a) Erwin Chargaff (d) Energy cannot be created but can be
(b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins destroyed.
(c) Rosalind Franklin 113. Step-up transformers are used for
(d) Phoebus Levene (a) increasing electrical power
107. Water boils at a lower temperature at (b) decreasing electrical power
high altitudes because (c) decreasing voltage
(a) the air pressure is less (d) increasing voltage
(b) outside temperature is less 114. Which among the following waves
(c) latent heat is less carries the maximum energy per photon?
(d) none of the above (a) X-rays
108. Concave mirror is used in headlights of (b) Radio waves
vehicles because it
(a) focuses light from the bulb onto nearby
vehicles
(b) sends parallel rays
115.
c k
(c) Light waves
(d) Microwave
How much CO2 is produced on heating 1
kg of carbon?
109.
(c) fits well into the shape of the headlight
(d) is cheaper than other mirrors
If some object is weighed when
submerged in water, what will happen to its
r a (a) 11/3 kg
(b) 3/11 kg
(c) 4/3 kg
(d) ¾ kg
weight compared to its weight in air?
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain exactly the same
B C 116. Zinc is used to protect iron from
corrosion because zinc is
(a) more electropositive than iron
(b) cheaper than iron
110.
(a) time
(b) distance
S S
(d) increase or decrease, cannot be specified
Light year is a measure of
(c) total amount of light falling on the Earth in a

117.
(c) a bluish white metal
(d) a good conductor of heat and electricity
Which one of the following gases is
placed second in respect of abundance in the
Earth’s atmosphere?
year (a) oxygen
(d) average intensity of light falling on the Earth (b) hydrogen
in a year (c) nitrogen
111. Which one of the following statements (d) carbon dioxide
about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is 118. Which one of the following is a chemical
correct? change?
(a) Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control (a) cutting of hair
from the ground station. (b) graying of hair naturally
(b) Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and (c) swelling of resin in water
solar energy keeps it moving around the (d) cutting of fruit
Earth. 119. Which one of the following chemicals is
(c) Satellite requires energy from solar panels used as washing soda?
and solid fuels for orbiting. (a) calcium carbonate
(d) Satellite does not require any energy for (b) calcium bicarbonate
orbiting. (c) sodium carbonate
112. Which one of the following statements (d) sodium bicarbonate
about energy is correct? 120. Why is potassium permanganate used
(a) Energy can be created as well as destroyed. for purifying drinking water?
(b) Energy can be created but not destroyed. (a) it kills germs
NDA 2 2017
(b) it dissolves the impurities 127. The statement that ‘heat cannot flow by
(c) it is a reducing agent itself from a body at a lower temperature to a
(d) it is an oxidizing agent body at a higher temperature’ is known as
121. Consider the following movements: (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
1. Moplah Rebellion (b) First law of thermodynamics
2. Bardoli Satyagraha (c) Second law of thermodynamics
3. Champaran Satyagraha (d) Third law of thermodynamics
4. Salt Satyagraha 128. Which one of the following waves does
Which one of the following is the correct not belong to the category of the other three?
chronological order of the above in ascending (a) X-rays
order? (b) microwaves
(a) 1-3-4-2 (c) radio waves
(b) 3-1-2-4 (d) soundwaves
122.
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 4-2-1-3
Which one of the following travelogues
has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad
129.
correct?
c kWhich of the following statements is not
(a) Human eye is a refracting system containing

a diverging lens.
Bin Tughlaq?
(a) Ibn Battuta’s Rihla
(b) Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul
Empire
r a (b) The retina of the human eye contains
millions of light sensitive cells called rods and
cones which concert the light into electrical
messages.
123.
(c) Niccolao Manucci’s Storia do Mogor
(d) Tavernier’s Travels in India
Chishti Sufi saint?

B C
Which one of the following was not a
(c) Every image that is focused on the retina is
upside down.
(d) We need both eyes to judge the relative
positions of objects accurately.
124.
(a) Khwaja Moinnudin
(c) Nizamuddin Auliya
S S
(b) Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar
(d) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years
130. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected,
refracted, or absorbed.
(b) Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the
of Mahatma Gandhi’s presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc.
(a) Satyagraha in Kheda in the internal structure of common
(b) Dandi March structure materials.
(c) Satyagraha in Champaran (c) Ultrasonic waves can be used for making
(d) Return from South Africa holes in very hard materials like diamond.
125. A rainbow is produced due to which one (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through
of the following phenomena? vacuum.
(a) Dispersion of light 131. According to the Travel and Tourism
(b) Interference of light Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by
(c) Diffraction of light the World Economic Forum, among the 136
(d) Scattering of light by atmospheric dust economies across the world, India ranked
126. Bats detect obstacles in their path by (a) 50th
receiving the reflected (b) 40th
(a) infrasonic waves (c) 30th
(b) ultrasonic waves (d) 20th
(c) radio waves 132. Which one of the following is the theme
(d) microwaves of the World Health Day 2017 celebrated by the
World Health Organization?
(a) diabetes
NDA 2 2017
(b) food safety (b) 5.0 to 6.5

(c) Depression: Let’s Talk (c) 6.5 to 7.0
(d) Ageing and Health (d) 7.0 to 8.5
133. Which one of the following ministries 140. Consider the following reaction:
has launched a new programme on CH4 + 2O2 ⟶ CO2 + 2H2 O
Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) Which of the following about the reaction given
foster and promote R&D? above is/are correct?
(a) Ministry of Earth Sciences 1. Carbon is oxidized.
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology 2. Hydrogen is oxidized.
(c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 3. Hydrogen is reduced.
(d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 4. Carbon is reduced.
134. Consider the following statements about Select the correct answer using the code given
the Nagara style of temple architecture: below:
1. This style of temples is commonly found in
the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
2. The most striking feature of this style is its
pyramidal shikhara.
c k
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
r a
141. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh
would be about how many hours before the
sunrise in western Gujarat?
(a) one hour
135.
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
B C
Ashoka’s connection with Buddhism is
evident from which one of the following edicts? 142.
(b) two hours
(c) three hours
(d) four hours
Consider the following states of India in
136.
(a) Major Rock Edict 13
(b) Rock Edict 6
(c) Minor Rock Edict 1
(d) Pillar Edict 4
S S
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India
terms of percentage of forest area in relation to
the total area of the state:
1. Karnataka
2. Odisha
3. Kerala
envisaged a 4. Andhra Pradesh
(a) federation Which of the following is the correct descending
(b) confederation order?
(c) unitary form of government (a) 1-2-4-3
(d) union of states (b) 3-1-2-4
137. The creation of the institution or Lokpal (c) 3-2-1-4
was first recommended by (d) 2-3-1-4
(a) Law Commission 143. Which one of the following states in
(b) Santhanam Committee India has the longest coastline?
(c) Shah Commission (a) Odisha
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission (b) Tamil Nadu
138. Which one of the following is a cause of (c) Karnataka
acid rains? (d) West Bengal
(a) ozone 144. Which one of the following states in
(b) ammonia India has the largest area under forest cover?
(c) sulfur dioxide (a) Maharashtra
(d) carbon monoxide (b) Chhattishgarh
139. The desirable pH for drinking water is (c) Madhya Pradesh
(a) 6.5 to 8.5 (d) Andhra Pradesh
NDA 2 2017
145. Which one of the following is not an

igneous rock?
(a) gabbro
(b) granite
(c) dolomite
(d) basalt
146. The Coriolis effect is the result of
(a) pressure gradient
(b) earth’s axis of inclination
(c) earth’s rotation
(d) earth’s revolution
147. Where is Mekong Delta located?
(a) Thailand
148.
(b) Cambodia
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Which one of the following pairs of rivers
c k
and tributaries is not correctly matched?
(a) Godavari: Indravati
(b) Ganga: Penganga
(c) Krishna: Bhima
r a
149.
(d) Luni: Sukri
C
Consider the following characteristics of
a tropical cyclone:
1. A warm sea temperature of > 26℃
B
S
3. Atmospheric instability S
2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a
height of > 700 m
The above-mentioned characteristics are

associated with which one of the following cycles
of its development?
(a) formulation and initial stage
(b) modification stage
(c) full maturity
(d) decay
150. In the Mesopotamian records, which
one of the following terms was used for the
Indus Valley (Harappans)?
(a) Dilmun
(b) Meluha
(c) Magan
(d) Failaka
NDA 2 2017
ENGLISH:
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 D 10 B
11 B 12 D 13 A 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 B
21 B 22 C 23 C 24 A 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 B 29 B 30 B
31 B 32 C 33 C 34 C 35 C 36 C 37 A 38 D 39 B 40 D
41 A 42 B 43 B 44 B 45 B 46 A 47 D 48 C 49 B 50 D
c k
GENERAL STUDIES:
51 C 52 C 53 C 54 C 55 C 56
r a B 57 B 58 D 59 B 60 B
61
71
B
C
62
72
C
D
63
73
B
B
64
74
C
B
B C 65
75
A
A
66
76
B
B
67
77
C
A
68
78
B
D
69
79
A
B
70
80
B
81
91
D
C
82
92
A
C
83
93
S S
C
A
84
94
C
A
85
95
A
C
86
96
A
C
87
97
D
C
88
98
A
D
89
99
B
A
90
100
A
101 A 102 C 103 D 104 D 105 A 106 B 107 A 108 B 109 B 110 B
111 D 112 C 113 D 114 D 115 A 116 A 117 A 118 B 119 C 120 D
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 C 125 A 126 B 127 C 128 D 129 A 130 D
131 B 132 C 133 B 134 C 135 A 136 D 137 D 138 C 139 C 140 A
141 B 142 A 143 C 144 B 145 C 146 C 147 D 148 B 149 A 150 B
NDA 1 2017
1. The sum of the roots of the equation (d) 5049

𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 (where b and c are non-zero) is
equal to the sum of the recipients of their 7. The sum of the first n terms of the series
1 𝑐 1 3 7 15
squares. Then, 𝑐 , 𝑏, 𝑏 are in 2
+ 4 + 8 + 16 + ⋯ is equal to
(a) AP (a) 2𝑛 − 𝑛 − 1
(b) GP (b) 1 − 2−𝑛
(c) HP (c) 2−𝑛 + 𝑛 − 1
(d) None of the above (d) 2𝑛 − 1
2. The sum of the roots of the equation 8. Consider the following in respect of sets A and B:
𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 (where a and c are non-zero) is 1. (𝐴 − 𝐵) ∪ 𝐵 = 𝐴
equal to the sum of the reciprocals of their 2. (𝐴 − 𝐵) ∪ 𝐴 = 𝐴
3. (𝐴 − 𝐵) ∩ 𝐵 = ∅
squares. Then 𝑎, 𝑐𝑎 2 , 𝑐 2 are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
c k
4. 𝐴 ⊆ 𝐵 ⇒ 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = 𝐵
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
3. The value of
[𝐶(7, 0) + 𝐶 (7, 1)] + [𝐶(7, 1) + 𝐶(7, 2)] +
r a (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
⋯ + [𝐶(7, 6) + 𝐶 (7, 7)] is

(a) 254
(b) 255
B C 9. In the binary equation
(1𝑝101)2 + (10𝑞1)2 = (100𝑟00)2
Where p, q and r are binary digits, what are the
(c) 256
(d) 257
S S
4. The number of different words (eight-letter
words) ending and beginning with a consonant
possible values of p, q and r respectively?
(a) 0, 1, 0
(b) 1, 1, 0
(c) 0, 0, 1
(d) 1, 0, 1
which can be made out of the letters of the word
‘EQUATION’ is 10. If 𝑆 = {𝑥: 𝑥 2 + 1 = 0, 𝑥 is real}, then S is
(a) 5200 (a) {-1}
(b) 4320 (b) {0}
(c) 3000 (c) {1}
(d) 2160 (d) An empty set
5. The fifth term of an AP of n terms, whose sum is 11. The expansion (𝑥 − 𝑦)2, 𝑛 ≥ 5 is done in the
𝑛2 + 𝑛, is descending powers of x. If the sum of the fifth
𝑥
(a) 5 and sixth terms is zero, then 𝑦 is equal to
(b) 7 𝑛−5
(a) 6
(c) 8
(d) 15 𝑛−4
(b) 5
6. The sum of all the two-digit odd numbers is
5
(a) 2475 (c) 𝑛−4
(b) 2530
(c) 4905
NDA 1 2017
6 17. Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that x, y,

(d) 𝑛−5
z are in GP and tan−1 𝑥, tan−1 𝑦 and tan−1 𝑧 are
𝛼 2 in AP. Then which one of the following is correct?
12. If 𝐴 = [ ] and det(𝐴3 ) = 125, then 𝛼 is (a) 𝑥 = 𝑦 = 𝑧
2 𝛼
equal to (b) 𝑥𝑧 = 1
(a) ±1 (c) 𝑥 ≠ 𝑦 and 𝑦 = 𝑧
(b) ±2 (d) 𝑥 = 𝑦 and 𝑦 ≠ 𝑧
(c) ±3
(d) ±5 18. If tan(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 2 and tan(𝛼 − 𝛽) = 1, then
tan(2𝛼) is equal to
13. If B is a non-singular matrix and A is a square (a) -3
matrix, then the value of det(𝐵−1 𝐴𝐵) is equal to (b) -2
(a) det(𝐵) (c) − 3
1
(b) det(𝐴)
(c) det(𝐵 −1 )
(d) det(𝐴−1 )
(d) 1
c k
19. Consider the following for triangle ABC:
14. If 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ≠ 𝑐 , then one value of x which satisfies
the equation
0
|𝑥 + 𝑎
𝑥−𝑎 𝑥−𝑏
𝑥 − 𝑐| = 0
r a 1. sin (
2. tan (
𝐵+𝐶
2
𝐵+𝐶
2
𝐴
) = cos ( )
2
𝐴
) = cot ( )
2
Is given by
(a) 𝑎
𝑥+𝑏 𝑥+𝑐
0
0
B C 3. sin(𝐵 + 𝐶 ) = cos 𝐴
4. tan(𝐵 − 𝐶 ) = − cot 𝐴
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 𝑏
(c) 𝑐
(d) 0
15. If 𝐴 = [
cos 𝛼 sin 𝛼
− sin 𝛼 cos 𝛼
S S
] then what is 𝐴𝐴𝑇 equal
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
4
20. If sec 𝜃 − cosec 𝜃 = 3 , then what is
to (where 𝐴𝑇 is the transpose of A)?
(sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃) equal to?
(a) Null matrix
(a) -2 only
(b) Identity matrix 1
(c) A (b) 2
only
1
(d) -A (c) Both -2 and
2
1
(d) Neither nor -2
16. What is the value of tan 18°? 2
√5−1
(a) 21. If a vertex of a triangle is (1, 1) and the midpoints
√10+2√5
of two sides of the triangle through this vertex
√5−1 are (-1, 2) and (3, 2), then the centroid of the
(b)
√10+√5 triangle is
1 7
(a) (− , )
√10+2√5 3 3
(c)
√5−1
7
(b) (−1, 3)
√10+√5
(d)
√5−1 1 7
(c) (3 , 3)
NDA 1 2017
(c) 1: 2
7 (d) 2: 3
(d) (1, 3)
27. What is the equation of the ellipse having foci

22. The incentre of the triangle with vertices 1
(±2, 0) and the eccentricity ?
𝐴(1, √3), 𝐵(0, 0) and 𝐶 (2, 0) is 4
𝑥2 𝑦2
(a) 64
+ 60 = 1
√3
(a) (1, )
2
𝑥2 𝑦2
(b) 60
+ 64 = 1
2 1
(b) (3 , )
√3
𝑥2 𝑦2
(c) 20
+ 24 = 1
2 √3
(c) (3) ,
(d) (1,
1
√3
2
)
(d)
𝑥2
24
c k
𝑦2
+ 20 = 1
28. What is the equation of the straight line parallel
to 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 1 = 0 and passes through the
23. If the three consecutive vertices of a
parallelogram are (-2, -1), (1,0) and (4, 3), then
what are the coordinates of the fourth vertex?
r a point (-1, 2)?
(a) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 4 = 0
(b) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 5 = 0
(c) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 1 = 0
(a) (1, 2)
(b) (1, 0)
(c) (0, 0)
(d) (1, -1)
B C (d) 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 7 = 0
29. What is the acute angle between the pair of
24. The two circles 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑟 2 and
S S
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 10𝑥 + 16 = 0 intersect at two
distinct points. Then which one of the following
is correct?
straight lines √2𝑥 + √3𝑦 = 1 and
√3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 2?
(a) tan−1 (
1
2√6
1
)
(b) tan−1 ( )
(a) 2 < 𝑟 < 8 √2
(b) 𝑟 = 2 or 𝑟 = 8
(c) 𝑟 < 2 (c) tan−1 (3)
(d) 𝑟 > 2
1
(d) tan−1 ( )
√3
25. What is the equation of the circle which passes
through the points (3, -2) and (-2, 0) and having 30. If the centroid of a triangle formed by
its centre on the line 2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 3 = 0? (7, 𝑥), (𝑦, −6) and (9, 10) is (6, 3) , then the
(a) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 3𝑥 + 2 = 0 values of x and y are respectively
(b) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 3𝑥 + 12𝑦 + 2 = 0 (a) 5, 2
(c) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥 = 0 (b) 2, 5
(d) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 5 (c) 1, 0
(d) 0, 0
26. What is the ratio in which the point
2 20
𝐶 = (− 7 , − 7
) divides the line joining the 31. Let S be the set of all persons living in Delhi. We
points 𝐴(−2, −2) and 𝐵(2, −4)? say that x, y in S are related if they were born in
(a) 1: 3 Delhi on the same day. Which one of the
(b) 3: 4 following is correct?
NDA 1 2017
(a) The relation is an equivalent relation. (c) 𝑖

(b) The relation is not reflexive but it is (e) −𝑖
symmetric and transitive.
(c) The relation is not symmetric but is reflexive 37. Three-digit numbers are formed from the digits
and transitive. 1, 2, and 3 in such a way that the digits are not
(d) The relation is not transitive but it is reflexive repeated. What is the sum of such three-digit
and symmetric. numbers?
(a) 1233
32. Let 𝐴 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}. Then the (b) 1322
number of subsets of A containing two or three (c) 1323
elements is (d) 1332
(a) 45
(b) 120 38. What is the sum of the series
(c) 165
(d) 330
33. The value of
(a)
1
3
c k
0.3 + 0.33 + 0.333 + ⋯ 𝑛 terms?
1 1
[𝑛 − (1 − 𝑛 )]
9 10
𝑖 2𝑛 + 𝑖 2𝑛+1 + 𝑖 2𝑛+2 + 𝑖 2𝑛+3 , where 𝑖 = √−1 , is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 𝑖
r a (b)
(c)
1
3
1
2
[𝑛 − (1 −
9
1
[𝑛 − (1 −
1
10𝑛
1
)]
)]
C
3 3 10𝑛
(d) −𝑖
1 1 1
34. If the difference between the roots of the
B
equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 1 = 0 is strictly less than
S
√5, where |𝑘| ≥ 2, then 𝑘 can be any element of
(d) 3
[𝑛 − (1 +
9 10𝑛
)]
39. If 𝜔, 𝜔2 are the cube roots of unity, then

(1 + 𝜔)(1 + 𝜔2 )(1 + 𝜔3 )(1 + 𝜔 + 𝜔2 ) is
the interval
(a) (−3, −2] ∪ [2, 3)
(b) (−3, 3)
(c) [−3, −2] ∪ [2, 3]
S equal to
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 2
35. If the roots of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 = 0 are
40. If the sum of 𝑚 terms of an AP is 𝑛 and the sum
in the same ratio as those of the equation
of 𝑛 terms is 𝑚, then the sum of (𝑚 + 𝑛) terms
𝑥 2 + 𝑙𝑥 + 𝑚 = 0, then which one of the
is
(a) 𝑚𝑛
(a) 𝑝2 𝑚 = 𝑙 2 𝑞
(b) 𝑚 + 𝑛
(b) 𝑚 2 𝑝 = 𝑙 2 𝑞
(c) 2(𝑚 + 𝑛)
(c) 𝑚 2 𝑝 = 𝑞2 𝑙
(d) −(𝑚 + 2)
(d) 𝑚 2 𝑝2 = 𝑙 2 𝑞
41. The modulus and principal argument of the
36. The value of
𝑛 𝑛 complex number
−1 + 𝑖√3 −1 − 𝑖√3 1 + 2𝑖
( ) +( )
2 2 1 − (1 − 𝑖)2
Where n is not a multiple of 3 and 𝑖 = √−1 , is are respectively
(a) 1 (a) 1, 0
(b) -1 (b) 1, 1
NDA 1 2017
(c) 2, 0 𝑥+𝑦 𝑦 3 4
47. 𝐴 = [ ] , 𝐵 = [ ] , and 𝐶 = [ ]
(d) 2, 1 𝑥 𝑥−𝑦 −2 −2
If 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐶, then what is 𝐴2 equal to?
4 8
42. If the graph of a quadratic polynomial lies (a) [ ]
−4 −16
entirely above the x-axis, then which one of the
following is correct? 4 −4
(b) [ ]
(a) Both the roots are real 8 −16
(b) One root is real and the other is complex
(c) Both the roots are complex −4 −8
(c) [ ]
(d) Cannot say 4 12
−4 −8
43. If |𝑧 + 4| ≤ 3, then the maximum value of (d) [ ]
8 12
|𝑧 + 1| is
(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 6
c k
48. What is the value of the determinant
1 1
|1 1 + 𝑥𝑦𝑧
1 1
1
1 |?
1 + 𝑥𝑦𝑧
(d) 10
44. The number of roots of the equation 𝑧 2 = 2𝑧̅ is

(a) 2
r a (a) 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧
(b) 2𝑥𝑦𝑧
(c) 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 𝑧 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) Zero
B C (d) 2𝑥 2 𝑦 2 𝑧 2
𝑥 𝑦 0
49. If 0 𝑥 𝑦| = 0, then which one of the
|
cot(𝛼 + 𝛽) is
(a)
𝑐−1
𝑏
S S
45. If cot 𝛼 and cot 𝛽 are the roots of the equation
𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 with 𝑏 ≠ 0, then the value of
𝑦 0 𝑥
𝑥
(a) 𝑦 is one of the cube roots of unity
(b) 𝑥 is one of the cube roots of unity
(c) 𝑦 is one of the cube roots of unity
𝑥
1−𝑐
(d) 𝑦 is one of the cube roots of −1
(b) 𝑏
50. Consider the set 𝐴 of all matrices of order 3 × 3
𝑏
(c) 𝑐−1
with entries 0 or 1 only. Let 𝐵 be the subset of 𝐴
consisting of all matrices whose determinant is
(d)
𝑏 1. Let 𝐶 be the subset of 𝐴 consisting of all
1−𝑐
matrices whose determinant is -1. Then which
one of the following is correct?
46. The equations
(a) 𝐶 is empty
𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 1
(b) 𝐵 has as many elements as 𝐶
2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 2
(c) 𝐴 = 𝐵 ∪ 𝐶
5𝑥 + 5𝑦 + 9𝑧 = 4
(d) 𝐷 has thrice as many elements as 𝐶
(a) Have the unique solution
(b) Have infinitely many solutions
cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃
(c) Are inconsistent 51. If 𝐴 = [ ], then what is 𝐴3 equal
− sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
(d) None of the above to?
cos 3𝜃 sin 3𝜃
(a) [ ]
− sin 3𝜃 cos 3𝜃
NDA 1 2017
56. From the top of a lighthouse, 100 m high, the

3 3 5
(b) [ cos 3𝜃 sin 𝜃 ] angle of depression of a boat is tan−1 (12). What
− sin 𝜃 cos3 𝜃
is the distance between the boat and the
cos 3𝜃 − sin 3𝜃 ] lighthouse?
(c) [
sin 3𝜃 cos 3𝜃 (a) 120 m
(b) 180 m
3
(d) [cos3 𝜃 − sin3 𝜃] (c) 240 m
sin 𝜃 cos3 𝜃 (d) 360 m
52. What is the order of

57. The maximum value of
𝑎 ℎ 𝑔 𝑥 𝜋 𝜋
[𝑥 𝑦 𝑧] [ℎ 𝑏 𝑓 ] [𝑦 ] ? sin (𝑥 + ) + cos (𝑥 + )
6 6
𝑔 𝑓 𝑐 𝑧 𝜋
in the interval (0, 2 ) is attained at
(a)
(b)
(c)
3×1
1×1
1×3
3×3
(a)
𝜋
12
𝜋
c k
(d)
53. If 𝐴 = [
1
0 1
1 0
0
], then the value of 𝐴2 is
r a (b)
(c)
6
𝜋
3
(a)
(b)
(c)
[
[
0
1
0
0
1
1
0
0
]
]
B C (d)
𝜋
2
𝜋 5𝜋 7𝜋
58. If 𝐾 = sin ( ) sin ( ) sin ( ), then what is
(d) [
1
0
1
3
1
1
0
]
S S
54. If 𝐴 = 5 , where 450° < 540° , then cos 2 is
𝐴
the value of 𝐾?
(a)
(b)
1
2
1
18 18 18
equal to 4
1
(a) 1
√10 (c) 8
3 1
(b) −√ (d)
10 16
√3 sin 𝛼+sin 𝛽
(c) 59. The expression cos 𝛼+cos 𝛽 is equal to
√10
𝛼+𝛽
(a) tan ( 2
)
(d) None of the above 𝛼+𝛽
(b) cot ( )
2
𝛼+𝛽
55. What is
1
−
√3
equal to? (c) sin ( )
2
sin 10° cos 10°
𝛼+𝛽
(a) 0 (d) cos ( 2
)
(b) 1
(c) 2 60. If sin 𝜃 = 3 sin(𝜃 + 2𝛼 ), then the value of
(d) 4 tan(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) + 2 tan 𝛼 is equal to
(a) -1
(b) 0
NDA 1 2017
(c) 1 𝑑2 𝑥
65. What is equal to?
(d) 2 𝑑𝑦 2
61. What is 𝑑2 𝑦 −1 𝑑𝑦 −3
𝑥 𝑒−1 + 𝑒 𝑥−1 (a) −( ) ( )
∫ 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
𝑥𝑒 + 𝑒 𝑥
equal to? 𝑑 2 𝑦 −1 𝑑𝑦 −2
(b) ( ) ( )
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
𝑥2
(a) +𝑐
2
(b) ln(𝑥 + 𝑒) + 𝑐 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 −3
(c) −( )( )
(c) ln(𝑥 𝑒 + 𝑒 𝑥 ) + 𝑐 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
1
(d) 𝑒 ln(𝑥 𝑒 + 𝑒 𝑥 ) + 𝑐
𝑑 2 𝑦 −1
62. Let 𝑓: [−6, 6] → 𝑅 be defined by 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3.
Consider the following:
1. (𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓)(−1) = (𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓)(1)
(d)
66. Let
(
c k
𝑑𝑥 2
)
2. (𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓)(−1) − 4(𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓)(1)

= (𝑓 ∘ 𝑓)(0)
Which of the above is/are correct?
r a 𝑓 (𝑥) : {
and
𝑔(𝑥) : {
𝑥,
0,
0,
𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙
𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙
𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B C 𝑥, 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙
If 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 and 𝑔: 𝑅 → 𝑅, then (𝑓 − 𝑔) is
S
63. Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑛. Then
S
𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)) = 𝑔(𝑓(𝑥)) is equivalent to
(a) 𝑓 (𝑝) = 𝑔(𝑚 )
(b) 𝑓 (𝑞) = 𝑔(𝑛)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
One-one and into
Neither one-one not onto
Many-one and onto
One-one and onto
(c) 𝑓 (𝑛) = 𝑔(𝑞) 67. What is the length of the longest interval in
(d) 𝑓 (𝑚 ) = 𝑔(𝑝) which the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 3 sin 𝑥 − 4 sin3 𝑥 is
increasing?
𝜋
64. If 𝐹 (𝑥) = √9 − 𝑥 2 , then what is (a) 3
𝐹 (𝑥) − 𝐹(1)
lim
𝑥→1 𝑥−1 (b)
𝜋
equal to? 2
3𝜋
1 (c)
(a) − 2
4√2
1 (d) 𝜋
(b) 8
68. If 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 𝑦(𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 ): 𝑦(1) = 1 and 𝑦(𝑥) > 0,
1
(c) − then what is 𝑦(−3) equal to?
2√2
(a) 3
1 (b) 2
(d) 2√2
(c) 1
(d) 0
NDA 1 2017
69. What is the maximum value of the function (b) 𝑥 = 2𝑐𝑦 2

𝑓 (𝑥) = 4 sin2 𝑥 + 1? (c) 𝑥 = 2𝑐𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑦
(a) 5 (d) None of the above
(b) 3
(c) 2 74. Let 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑦) = 𝑓(𝑥)𝑓(𝑦) for all 𝑥 and 𝑦. Then
(d) 1 what is 𝑓′(5) equal to where 𝑓′(𝑥) is the
derivative of 𝑓(𝑥)]?
70. Let 𝑓(𝑥) be an indefinite integral of sin2 𝑥. (a) 𝑓 (5)𝑓 ′ (0)
Consider the following statements: (b) 𝑓 (5) − 𝑓 ′ (0)
(c) 𝑓 (5)𝑓 (0)
Statement 1: (d) 𝑓 (5) + 𝑓 ′ (0)
The function 𝑓(𝑥) satisfies 𝑓(𝑥 + 𝜋) = 𝑓(𝑥) for
all real 𝑥. 75. If 𝑓(𝑥) and 𝑔(𝑥) are continuous functions
Statement 2:
sin2(𝑥 + 𝜋) = sin2 𝑥 for all real 𝑥.
𝑎
c k
satisfying 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑎 − 𝑥) and
𝑔(𝑥) + 𝑔(𝑎 − 𝑥) = 2,
∫0 𝑓 (𝑥)𝑔(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 equal to?
𝑎
then what is

of the above statements?
(a) Both statements are true and Statement 2 is
r a (a)
(b)
(c)
∫0 𝑔(𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑎
∫0 𝑓 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑎
∫0 𝑓 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥
C
𝑎
the correct explanation of Statement 1 (d) ∫0 0
(b) Both statements are true but Statement 2 is
S B
not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
76. For two department events A and B, it is given
that 𝑃 (𝐴) = 0 ∙ 2 and 𝑃 (𝐵) = 0 ∙ 5. If 𝐴 ⊆ 𝐵,
then the values of conditional probabilities
S
71. What are the degree and order respectively of
the differential equation
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥 2
𝑦 = 𝑥( ) +( ) ?
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦
𝑃 (𝐴|𝐵) and 𝑃(𝐵|𝐴) are respectively.
(a)
(b)
2
2
5
5
(c) 1, 5
,5
,1
2
3
(a) 1, 2 (d) Information is insufficient

(b) 2, 1
(c) 1, 4 77. A point is chosen at random inside a circle. What
(d) 4, 1 is the probability that the point is closer to the
centre of the circle than to its boundary?
1
72. What is the differential equation corresponding (a) 5
to 𝑦 2 − 2𝑎𝑦 + 𝑥 2 = 𝑎2 by eliminating 𝑎? 1
(b)
(a) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )𝑝2 − 4𝑝𝑥𝑦 − 2𝑥 2 = 0 4
1
(b) (𝑥 2 − 2𝑦 2 )𝑝2 + 4𝑝𝑥𝑦 − 𝑥 2 = 0 (c) 3
(c) (𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 )𝑝2 − 4𝑝𝑥𝑦 − 𝑥 2 = 0 (d)
1
2
(d) (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )𝑝2 − 4𝑝𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥 2 = 0
78. If two regression lines between height (x) and
73. What is the general solution of the differential
weight (y) are 4𝑦 − 15𝑥 + 410 = 0 and
equation
30𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 825 = 0, then what will be the
𝑦𝑑𝑥 − (𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑦 = 0?
correlation coefficient between height and
(a) 𝑥 = 𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑦
weight?
NDA 1 2017
1 82. If the data are moderately non-symmetrical,

(a) 3
1 then which one of the following empirical
(b) 2 relationships is correct?
2
(c) 3
(a) 2 x Standard deviation = 5 x Mean deviation
3 (b) 5 x Standard deviation = 2 x Mean deviation
(d) 4
(c) 4 x Standard deviation = 5 x Mean deviation
(d) 5 x Standard deviation = 4 x Mean deviation
79. In an examination, 40% of candidates got second
class. When the data are represented by a pie
83. Data can be represented in which of the
chart, what is the angle corresponding to second
following forms?
class?
1. Textual form
(a) 40°
2. Tabular form
(b) 90°
3. Graphical form
(c) 144°
(d) 320°

k
Select the correct answer using the code
c
given below:
Statement 1:
Range is not a good measure of
dispersion.
r a (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Statement 2:
of extreme values.
B C
Range is highly affected by the existence 84. For given statistical data, the graphs for less than
ogive and more than ogive are drawn. If the
above statements?
S S
Which of the following is correct in respect of the
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are

correct and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation of Statement 1.
point at which the two curves intersect is P, then
abscissa of point P gives the value of which one
of the following measures of central tendency?
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Mode
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are (d) Geometric mean
correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of Statement 1. 85. Consider the following statements:
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not 1. Two events are mutually exclusive if the
correct. occurrence of one event prevents the
(d) Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is not occurrence of the other.
correct. 2. The probability of the union of two mutually
exclusive events is the sum of their individual
81. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled ordinary probabilities.
deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is Which of the above statements is/are
an ace? correct?
1
(a) 13
(a) 1 only
2 (b) 2 only
(b) 13
3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
13
1
(d) 52
NDA 1 2017
86. If the regression coefficient of x and y and y on x (d) 24

1 1
are − 2 and − 8 respectively, then what is the
correlation coefficient between x and y? 91. A straight line with direction cosines 〈0, 1, 0〉 is
1 (a) Parallel to x-axis
(a) −
4 (b) Parallel to y-axis
1
(b) − 16 (c) Parallel to z-axis
1 (d) Equally inclined to all the axes
(c) 16
1
(d) 4 92. (0, 0, 0), (𝑎, 0, 0), (0, 𝑏, 0) and (0, 0, 𝑐) are four
distinct points. What are the coordinates of the
87. A sample of 5 observations has mean 32 and point which is equidistant from the four points?
median 33. Later it is found that an observation 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐
(a) ( 3
, 3
, 3
)
was recorded incorrectly as 40 instead of 35. If
we correct the data, then which one of the
(a) The mean and median remain the same
𝑎
(c) (2 ,
𝑎
(d) (3 ,
c k
(b) (𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐)
𝑏
2
𝑏
3
,
,
𝑐
2
𝑐
3
)
)
a
(b) The median remains the same but the mean
will decrease
93. The points 𝑃 (3, 2, 4), 𝑄(4, 5, 2), 𝑅(5, 8, 0) and
(c) The mean and median both will decrease
(d) The mean remains the same but median will
decrease
C r 𝑆(2, −1, 6) are

(a) Vertices of a rhombus which is not a square
(b) Non-coplanar
(a)
1
6
S B
88. If two fair dice are thrown, then what is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor 9?
(c) Collinear
(d) Coplanar but not collinear
94. The line passing through the points (1, 2, −1)

(b)
(c)
(d)
1
4
3
4
5
6
S and (3, −1, 2) meets the 𝑦𝑧 plane at which one
of the following points?
(a) (0, − ,
(b) (0,
7
2
,
7
2
1
2
)
5
2
)
7 5
89. Let A and B are two mutually exclusive events (c) (0, − 2 , − 2)
1 1
with 𝑃 (𝐴) = and 𝑃 (𝐵) = . What is the value 7 5
3 4 (d) (0, 2
− 2)
of 𝑃(𝐴̅ ∩ 𝐵̅)?
1
(a) 95. Under which one of the following conditions are
6
1 the lines 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 + 𝑏; 𝑧 = 𝑐𝑦 + 𝑑 and
(b)
4
1 𝑥 = 𝑒𝑦 + 𝑓; 𝑧 = 𝑔𝑦 + ℎ perpendicular?
(c) 3 (a) 𝑎𝑒 + 𝑐𝑔 − 1 = 0
5
(d) 12
(b) 𝑎𝑒 + 𝑏𝑓 − 1 = 0
(c) 𝑎𝑒 + 𝑐𝑔 + 1 = 0
90. The mean and standard deviation of a binomial (d) 𝑎𝑔 + 𝑐𝑒 + 1 = 0
distribution are 12 and 2 respectively. What is
the number of trials? 96. If 𝑎⃗ = 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , 𝑏⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ and
(a) 2 𝑐⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 𝑚𝑗̂ + 𝑛𝑘̂ are three coplanar vectors and
(b) 12 |𝑐⃗| = √6, then which one of the following is
(c) 18 correct?
NDA 1 2017
(a) 𝑚 = 2 and 𝑛 = ±1 1
(a) 2
(b) 𝑚 = ±2 and 𝑛 = −1
(b) 1
(c) 𝑚 = 2 and 𝑛 = −1
(c) √3
(d) 𝑚 = ±2 and 𝑛 = 1
97. Let 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷 be a parallelogram whose diagonals 𝑑𝑥
intersect at P and let O be the origin. What is 103. What is ∫ 𝑥(𝑥 7+1) equal to?
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐴 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐵 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐶 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐷 equal to? (a)
1
ln |
𝑥 7−1
|=𝑐
2 𝑥 7+1
(a) 2𝑂𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
(b) 4𝑂𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 1 𝑥 7+1
(b) ln | |+𝑐
(c) 6𝑂𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 7 𝑥7
(d) 8𝑂𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑥 7−1
(c) ln | |+𝑐
98. 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷 is a quadrilateral whose diagonals are 𝐴𝐶
and 𝐵𝐷. Which one of the following is correct?
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐷
(a) 𝐵𝐴 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝐴𝐶
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐷𝐵
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
(d)
1
7
c k 7𝑥
𝑥7
ln |𝑥 7+1| + 𝑐
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐷
(b) 𝐵𝐴
(c) 𝐵𝐴
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝐵𝐷
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐷
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐷
(d) 𝐵𝐴
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐴
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝐴𝐶
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐵𝐷
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐶 + 𝐴𝐷
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
r a
104. The function 𝑓 ∶ 𝑋 → 𝑌 defined by
𝑓 (𝑥) = cos 𝑥, where 𝑥 ∈ 𝑋, is one-one and onto
if 𝑋 and 𝑌 are respectively equal to
99. If 𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑐⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗ = 𝑎⃗ then which one of

the following is correct?
B C
(a) 𝑎⃗, 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ are orthogonal in pairs and |𝑎⃗| = |𝑐⃗|
(a) [0, 𝜋] and [−1, 1]
𝜋 𝜋
(b) [− 2 , 2 ] and [−1, 1]
(c) [0, 𝜋] and [−1, 1]
and |𝑏⃗⃗| = 1
S S
(b) 𝑎⃗, 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ are non-orthogonal to each other
(c) 𝑎⃗, 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ are orthogonal in pairs but |𝑎⃗| ≠ |𝑐⃗|
(d) 𝑎⃗, 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ are orthogonal in pairs but |𝑏⃗⃗| ≠ 1
105.
(d) [0, 𝜋] and [0, 1]
to?
If 𝑓(𝑥) =
𝑎
𝑥
𝑥−1
, then what is
𝑓(𝑎)
𝑓(𝑎+1)
equal
(a) 𝑓 (− 𝑎+1)
(b) 𝑓 (𝑎2 )
100. If 𝑎⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂ , and 1
(c) 𝑓 (𝑎)
𝑏⃗⃗ = 3𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ − 𝜆𝑘̂ are perpendicular, then what
is the value of 𝜆? (d) 𝑓(−𝑎)
(a) 2
(b) 3 106.
(c) 4 107.
(d) 5 108.
109.
𝑒 𝑥 −(1+𝑥) 110. What is the derivative of log10 (5𝑥 2 + 3)
101. What is lim equal to?
𝑥→0 𝑥2 with respect to 𝑥?
(a) 0 𝑥 log10 𝑒
1
(a) 5𝑥 2+3
(b) 2
(c) 1 2𝑥 log10 𝑒
(b) 5𝑥 2+3
(d) 2
𝜋 10𝑥 log10 𝑒
𝑑𝜃 (c)
102. What is ∫02 1+cos 𝜃 equal to? 5𝑥 2+3
NDA 1 2017
10𝑥 log𝑒 10 (c) 3

(d) 5𝑥 2+3
(d) 4
𝑎−1
111. Let 𝑓(𝑎) = 𝑎+1 116. The variance of 20 observations is 5. If
Consider the following: each observation is multiplied by 3, then what is
1. 𝑓 (2𝑎) = 𝑓 (𝑎 ) + 1 the new variance of the resulting observations?
1
2. 𝑓 (𝑎) = −𝑓(𝑎 ) (a) 5
(b) 10
Which of the above is/are correct? (c) 15
(a) 1 only (d) 45
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 117. The mean of a group of 100 observations
was found to be 20. Later it was found that four
112.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
What is the maximum area of a triangle

that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 𝑎?
c k
observations were incorrect, which were
recorded 21, 21, 18 and 20. What is the mean if
the incorrect observations are omitted?
(a)
(b)
3𝑎 2
4
𝑎2
r a (a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 22
(c)
2
3√3𝑎 2
4
B C 118. A committee of two persons is constituted from two

men and two women. What is the probability that the
committee will have only women?
113.
(d)
√3𝑎 2
4
S S
1
Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 𝑥 , where 𝑥 ∈ (0, 1).
Then which one of the following is correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1
6
1
3
1
2
2
3
(a) 𝑓 (𝑥) fluctuates in the interval
(b) 𝑓 (𝑥) increases in the interval 119. A question is given to three students 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶whose
1 1 1
(c) 𝑓 (𝑥) decreases in the interval chances of solving it are 2 , 3 and 4 respectively. What
(d) None of the above is the probability that the question will be solved?
1
(a)
24
114. Suppose the function 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 𝑛 , 𝑛 ≠ 0 1
(b)
is differentiable for all 𝑥. Then 𝑛 can be any 4
3
element of the interval (c) 4
23
(a) [1, ∞) (d) 24
(b) (0, ∞)
1
(c) (2 , ∞) 120. The mean weight of 150 students in a
(d) None of the above certain class is 60 kg. The mean weight of boys in
the class is 70 kg and that of girls is 55 kg. What
𝑒2 ln 𝑥 is the number of boys in the class?
115. What is ∫𝑒 −1 | 𝑥
| 𝑑𝑥 equal to?
3
(a) 50
(a) 2 (b) 55
5
(b) (c) 60
2
(d) 100
NDA 1 2017
𝑏 2 −2𝑐
1. −𝑏 = 𝑐2
11. 𝑛𝐶4 𝑥 𝑛−4 𝑦 4 − 𝑛𝐶5 𝑥 𝑛−5 𝑦 5 = 0
⟹ 𝑏𝑐 = 𝑏2 − 2𝑐 ⟹ 𝑏2 + 𝑏𝑐 2
2
2𝑐 2 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑛𝐶4 𝑥 𝑛−4 𝑦 4 = 𝑛𝐶5 𝑥 𝑛−5 𝑦 5

⟹ = 𝑏 + 𝑐2 ⟹ = + 𝑐
𝑏 𝑏 𝑐
1 𝑏 1 𝑐 𝑥 𝑛𝐶5 𝑛 − 4
⟹ 𝑐, , ∈ 𝐴𝑃 ⟹ , 𝑏, ∈ 𝐻. 𝑃 ⟹ = =
𝑏 𝑐 𝑐 𝑏 𝑦 𝑛𝐶4 5
2.
1 2𝑐 𝛼 2 2
1 𝑎2 − 𝑎 12. 𝐴 = [ ] ⟹ 𝐴2 = [𝛼 + 4 4𝛼 ]
− = 2 𝛼 4𝛼 𝛼2 + 4
𝑎 𝑐2 3
12𝛼 6𝛼 2 + 8 ]
⟹ 𝐴3 = [𝛼 +
𝑐2 6𝛼 + 8 𝛼 3 + 12𝛼
2
1 1 − 2𝑐𝑎 3
⟹ |𝐴 | = 125
⟹− =
𝑎 𝑐2 ⟹ (𝛼 3 + 12𝛼 )2 − (6𝛼 2 + 8)2 = 125
⟹ 𝑎 − 2𝑐𝑎2 = −𝑐 2
⟹ 2𝑐𝑎 2 = 𝑎 + 𝑐 2
⟹ 𝑎, 𝑐𝑎2 , 𝑐 2 ∈ 𝐴. 𝑃
c k
putting 𝛼 = ±3, (63)2 − (62)2 = 125 satisfied.
13. |𝐵−1 𝐴𝐵| = |𝐵−1 | |𝐴| |𝐵|

1
3. 8
𝐶1 + 8𝐶2 + ⋯ 8𝐶7
= 28 − 2 = 254
3
𝑃2 × 6! = 6 × 720 = 4320
r a =
|𝐵 |
|𝐴| |𝐵| = |𝐴|
14. Putting 𝑥 = 0
0 −𝑎 −𝑏
C
4.
|𝑎 0 −𝑐 | is a skew-symmetric matrix of
𝑏 𝑐 0
5. 𝑎𝑛 = 2𝑛 − 3
⟹ 𝑎5 = 7
6. 11 + 13 + ⋯ + 99
S B odd order whose determinant value is zero.
15. 𝐴 = [
cos 𝛼 sin 𝛼
− sin 𝛼 cos 𝛼
]
7.
=
45
2
1 3 7 15
+ + +
2 4 8 16
1
+⋯
1
S
(11 + 99) = 45 × 55 = 2475
1
𝐴𝐴𝑇 = [
=[
1 0
0 1
cos 𝛼 sin 𝛼 cos 𝛼
][
− sin 𝛼 cos 𝛼 sin 𝛼
] = Identity matrix
− sin 𝛼
cos 𝛼
]
16.
= (1 − ) + (1 − ) + (1 − ) + ⋯
2 4 8 √5 − 1
1 1 1 tan 18° = (Result)
= 𝑛−( + + +⋯) √10 + 2√5
2 4 8
1 1
(1 − 𝑛 )
=𝑛− 2 2 = 𝑛 − 1 + 2−𝑛 17. 2 tan−1 𝑦 = tan−1 𝑥 + tan−1 𝑧
1 2𝑦 𝑥+𝑧
2 ⟹ tan−1 2
= tan−1
1−𝑦 1 − 𝑥𝑧
2𝑦 𝑥+𝑧 𝑥+𝑧
8. By property, ⟹ = = (∵ 𝑦 2 = 𝑥𝑧)
(𝐴 − 𝐵) ∪ 𝐴 = 𝐴, (𝐴 − 𝐵) ∩ 𝐵 = 𝜙 and 1 − 𝑦 2 1 − 𝑥𝑧 1 − 𝑦 2
⟹ 2𝑦 = 𝑥 + 𝑧
𝐴 ⊆ 𝐵 ⇒ 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = 𝐵 are true.
⟹ 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 ∈ 𝐴. 𝑃
But 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 ∈ 𝐺. 𝑃 (given)
9. (1𝑝101)2 + (10𝑞1)2 = (100𝑟00)2
⟹𝑥=𝑦=𝑧
Equating, 𝑃 = 0, 𝑞 = 1, 𝑟 = 0
18. tan 2𝛼 = tan(𝛼 + 𝛽 + 𝛼 − 𝛽)
10. 𝑆 = {𝑥: 𝑥 2 + 1 = 0, 𝑥 ∈ 𝑅} tan(𝑎 + 𝛽) + tan(𝛼 − 𝛽) 2+1 3
⟹𝑆=𝜙 = = = = −3
( ) (
1 − tan 𝑎 + 𝛽 tan 𝛼 − 𝛽 ) 1 − 2 × 1 −1
NDA 1 2017
19. 𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶 = 𝜋
𝐵+𝐶 𝜋 𝐴 𝐴
sin ( ) = sin ( − ) = cos (𝑇𝑟𝑢𝑒)
2 2 2 2
𝐵+𝐶 𝜋 𝐴 𝐴
tan ( ) = tan ( − ) = cot (𝑇𝑟𝑢𝑒)
2 2 2 2
Statement 1 and 2 are true. 4th vertex = (4 − 2 − 1, 3 − 1 − 0) = (1, 2)
4
20. sin 𝜃 cosec 𝜃 =
3
sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 4
⟹ = 24.
sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 3
(sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃)2 16
⟹ =
(sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃)2 9
⟹
1 − 2 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 16
sin2 𝜃 cos2 𝜃
Let sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 = 𝑥
1 − 2𝑥 16
=
9
c k
𝑟 − 3 < 𝐶1 𝐶2 < 𝑟 + 3
⟹
𝑥2
=
9
⟹ 16𝑥 2 + 18𝑥 − 9 = 0
⟹ (8𝑥 − 3)(2𝑥 + 3) = 0
3 3
r a ⟹ 𝑟−3<5< 𝑟+3
⟹ 𝑟 > 2, 𝑟 < 8
⟹2<𝑟<8
⟹ 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
8
⟹ sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 =
2
3
8
4 3 1
B C 25. (ℎ − 3)2 + (2ℎ − 1)2 = (ℎ + 2)2 + (2ℎ − 3)2
⟹ sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 = × =
7
21. Centroid = (1, 3)
S S
3 8 2
3
⟹ ℎ = − ⟹ 2ℎ − 3 = −6
2
1
∴ 𝑟 2 = + 36
4
Equation of circle is
3 2 1
(𝑥 + ) + (𝑦 + 6)2 = + 36
22. △ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 is equilateral 2 4
⟹ 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 3𝑥 + 12𝑦 + 2 = 0
26.
2𝑘 − 2 2
=−
𝑘 +1 7
1
⇒ Incentre = Centroid = (1, )
√3
23. ⟹ 7(𝑘 − 1) = −𝑘 − 1
.
shop.ssbcrack.com
NDA 1 2017
3
⟹ 8𝑘 = 6 ⟹ 𝑘 = ratio = 3: 4
4 34. (𝛼 − 𝛽)2 < 5
⟹ 𝑘2 − 4 < 5 ⟹ 𝑘2 < 9
𝑎
27. 2 = 4 ⟹ 𝑎 = 8 ⟹ −3 < 𝑘 < 3 …..(1)
Next, |𝑘| ≥ 2 ⟹ 𝑘 ≤ −2 or 𝑘 ≥ 2 ……(2)
from both, 𝑘 ∈ (−3, −2] ∪ [2, 3)
35. Let 𝛼, 𝑘𝛼 be roots of 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 = 0

and 𝛽, 𝑘𝛽 be roots of 𝑥 2 + ℓ𝑥 + 𝑚 = 0
Clearly,
𝛼 2 𝑝2 𝑞
= = ⟹ 𝑝 2 𝑚 = ℓ2 𝑞
𝛽 2 ℓ2 𝑚
𝑏2 = 64 − 4 = 60
Equation of ellipse is
𝑥2 𝑦 2
+
64 60
=1
(
36.
−1 + 𝑖√3
2
2
) +(
c k
−1 − 𝑖√3
2
2
) = 𝜔2 + 𝜔2𝑛 = −1
28. Let equation of line is 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 𝜆 = 0
putting (−1, 2), we get 𝜆 = −4
⟹ equation of line is 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 4 = 0
r a
n is not multiple of 3
37. Sum = 12(10° + 101 + 102 )

29.
𝜃 = tan−1
−√2 √3
√3
+
√2
= tan−1 (
1
)
B C = 111 × 12 = 1332
38. 0.3 + 0.33 + 0.333 + …..

3 33 333
30.
(
1+(
−√2 −√3
√3
)( )
√2 )
S S 2√6
1
=
3 9
= [ +
+
10 100 1000
+
99
9 10 100 1000
1
= [(1 − ) + (1 −
3 10
+
1
100
999
+⋯
+ ⋯]
) + (1 −
1
1000
)+⋯]
1 1
1 (1 − 𝑛 ) 1 1 1
= [𝑛 − 10 10 ] = [𝑛 − ] (1 − 𝑛 )
3 9 3 9 10
10
39. (1 + 𝜔)(1 + 𝜔2 )(1 + 𝜔3 )(1 + 𝜔 + 𝜔2 ) = 0
40. In an 𝐴. 𝑃
16 + 𝑦 = 18 ⟹ 𝑦 = 2
Next, 𝑥 + 4 = 9 ⟹ 𝑥 = 5 If 𝑆𝑚 = 𝑛 and 𝑆𝑛 = 𝑚 then 𝑆𝑚+𝑛 = −(𝑚 + 𝑛)
∴ (𝑥, 𝑦) = (5, 2)
41.
1 + 2𝑖 1 + 2𝑖 1 + 2𝑖
31.
2
= = =1
𝑅 = {(𝑥, 𝑦): 𝑥 and 𝑦 were born in Delhi on same day} 1 − (1 − 𝑖) 1 − (−2𝑖) 1 + 2𝑖
𝑅 is an equivalence relation Modulus = 1, Argument = 0
32. Required no. of subsects 42. If graph of quadratic lies entirely above x-axis
= 10𝐶2 + 10𝐶3 = 45 + 120 = 165 then 𝐷 > 0. So, both roots are complex.
33. 12𝑛 + 12𝑛+1 + 12𝑛+2 + 12𝑛+3 = 0 43. |𝑧 + 1| = |𝑧 + 4 − 3|

NDA 1 2017
≤ |𝑧 + 4| + |−3| cos 2𝜃 sin 2𝜃 ]

=[
maximum value of |𝑧 + 1| = 6 − sin 2𝜃 cos 2𝜃
cos 3𝜃 sin 3𝜃
⟹ 𝐴3 = [ ]
− sin 2𝜃 cos 3𝜃
44. 𝑧 2 = 2𝑧̅
Let 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦 52. (1 × 3)(3 × 3)(3 × 1)
Now, 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑥𝑦𝑖 = 2𝑥 − 2𝑦𝑖 = (1 × 1)
⟹ 𝑥 = −1 and 𝑦 = ±√3
So, 𝑧 = −1 + √3𝑖 and 𝑧 = −1 − √3𝑖 are two 0 1
53. 𝐴 = [ ]
roots 1 0
0 1 0 1 1 0
⟹ 𝐴2 = [ ][ ]=[ ]
1 0 1 0 0 1
45. 4 1 0
⟹𝐴 =𝐼=[ ]
cot 𝛼 − cot 𝛽 − 1 0 1
cot(𝛼 + 𝛽) =
=
𝑐−1 1−𝑐
−𝑏
=
𝑏
cot 𝛽 + cot 𝛼
54. sin 𝐴 =
c k
3
5
4
⟹ cos 𝐴 = − (∵ 𝐴 lies in 2nd quadrant)
5
46.
1 2 3
|2 1 3| = 1(9 − 15) − 2(18 − 15) + 3(10 − 5)
5 5 9
r a ∴ cos 2
⟹ cos =
𝐴 1 + cos 𝐴
2
𝐴
=
1
2 √10 2
2
𝐴
=
1
10
( lies in 1st quadrant)
= −6 − 6 + 15 = 3 ≠ 0
⟹ system has unique solution.
47. [
𝑥+𝑦 𝑦 3
][ ] = [ ]
4
B C 55.
1
−
√3
⟹[
𝑥
𝐴=[ 𝑥
𝑥 − 𝑦 −2
3𝑥 + 𝑦
𝑥 + 2𝑦
𝑥+𝑦
]=[ ]
𝑦
4
−2
S S−2
solving we get, 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = −2
] [
𝑥−𝑦 = 2 4
0 −2
]
sin 10° cos 10°
=4
1
2 × 2 [ cos 10° −
2
√3
2
2 sin 10° cos 10°
cos(60° + 18)
=4
sin 10°]
cos 70°
=4
sin 20° sin 20°
0 −2 0 −2 −4 −8
⟹ 𝐴2 = [ ][ ]=[ ]
2 4 2 4 8 12 5
56. tan 𝜃 =
12
48. 𝑅2 → 𝑅2 − 𝑅1 , 𝑅3 → 𝑅3 − 𝑅1 100 5
⟹ =
1 1 1 𝑥 12
|0 𝑥𝑦𝑧 0 | = 𝑥2 𝑦 2𝑧2 ⟹ 𝑥 = 240 m
0 0 𝑥𝑦𝑧
49. 𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 = 0 ⟹ 𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 2 = 0
𝑥 2 𝑥 𝑥
⟹ ( ) − + 10 = 0, = −1
𝑦 𝑦 𝑦
𝑥
⟹ is one of the cube roots of −1
𝑦
50. By symmetry B has as many elements as C. 57.

𝜋
𝑓 (𝑥) = sin (𝑥 + )
6
cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃 ] 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
51. 𝐴 = [ + cos (𝑥 + ) = √2 sin (𝑥 + + )
− sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 6 6 4
cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃 ] [ cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃 ]
⟹ 𝐴2 = [ 𝑓(𝑥) is maximum when
− sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 − sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
NDA 1 2017
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 ⟹ 𝑓(𝑛) = 𝑔(𝑞)
𝑥+ + = ⟹𝑥=
6 4 2 12
64.
58. 𝐾 = sin 10° ∙ sin 50° ∙ sin 70° 𝐹 (𝑥) − 𝐹(−1)
1 1 1 1 μm
= sin 30° = × = 𝑥→1 𝑥−1
4 4 2 8 −2𝑥 −1
= {𝐹′(𝑥)}𝑥=1 = ( ) =
2√9 − 𝑥2 𝑥=1 2√2
59.
sin 𝛼 + sin 𝛽
65.
cos 𝛼 + cos 𝛽
𝛼+𝛽 𝛼−𝛽
2 sin ( 2 ) cos ( 2 ) 𝑑2 𝑥 𝑑 1
= = ( )
𝛼+𝛽 𝛼−𝛽 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 (𝑑𝑦)
2 cos ( 2 ) cos ( 2 ) 𝑑𝑥
60.
= tan (
𝛼+𝛽
2
sin(𝜃 + 2𝛼 ) 1
)
=
c
𝑑𝑦k
𝑑 𝑑𝑦
− ( ) − ( )×
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥
(𝑑𝑥 )
2 =
𝑑 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
(𝑑𝑥 )
2
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
⟹
sin 𝜃
=
3
sin(𝜃 + 2𝛼 ) + sin 𝜃
=
sin(𝜃 + 2𝛼 ) − sin 𝜃 −2
4
= −2
r a 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 −3
= 2( )
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑥, 𝑥 ∈ 𝑄
⟹
⟹
2 sin(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) cos 𝛼
2 cos(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) sin 𝛼
tan(𝜃 + 𝛼 )
tan 𝛼
= −2
= −2
B C 66. (𝑓 − 𝑔)(𝑥) = {
−𝑥, 𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 − 𝑄
Clearly 𝑓 − 𝑔 is one-one and onto
61. S S
⟹ tan(𝜃 + 𝛼 ) + 2 tan 𝛼 = 0 67. 𝑓 (𝑥) = sin 3𝑥
sin 3𝑥 is increasing in
𝜋 𝜋
[− , ]
6 6
Interval length =
𝜋
3
𝑒−1 𝑥−1
𝑥 +𝑒
∫ 𝑑𝑥 68. 𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑥𝑒 + 𝑒 𝑥 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 𝑥
1 𝑒𝑥 𝑒−1 + 𝑒 𝑥 ⟹∫ 2
= − ∫ 𝑑𝑦 ⟹ −𝑦 = + 𝐶
= ∫ 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 𝑦 𝑦
𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒𝑥 𝑥
1 𝑦(1) = 1 ⟹ 𝐶 = −2 ⟹ −𝑦 = − 2
= log(𝑥 𝑒 + 𝑒 𝑥 ) + 𝑐 𝑦
𝑒 ∴ 𝑦(−3) = 3 (∵ 𝑦(𝑥) > 0)
62. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3
69. Maximum value = 4 + 1 = 5
𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 (𝑥) = (𝑥 2 − 3)2 − 3 = 𝑥 4 − 6𝑥 2 + 6
𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 (𝑥) = (𝑥 4 − 6𝑥 2 + 6)2 − 3
70.
𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 (𝑥) is even function
1 − cos 2𝑥
⟹ (𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓)(−1) = (𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓)(1) 𝑓 (𝑥) = ∫ sin2 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫ ( ) 𝑑𝑥
Next (𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓)(−1) − 4 (𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓)(1) 2
1 1
−3{(𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 𝑜 𝑓)(1)} = (−3)(−2) = 6 = [𝑥 − sin 2𝑥] + 𝐶
2 2
𝑓 𝑜 𝑓 (0) = 6 𝑓 (𝑥 + 𝜋) ≠ 𝑓(𝑥) (∵ 𝑓(𝑥) is not periodic)
Both 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 1 false
Next, sin2 (𝜋 + 𝑥) = sin2 𝑥
63. 𝑝(𝑚𝑥 + 𝑛) + 𝑞 = 𝑚 (𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞) + 𝑛 Statement 2 true
⟹ 𝑝𝑛 + 𝑞 = 𝑞𝑚 + 𝑛
NDA 1 2017
71. = ∫ 𝑓(𝑥){2 − 𝑔(𝑥)} 𝑑𝑥

2 −2
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 0
𝑎 𝑎
𝑦 = 𝑥( ) +( )
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
= ∫ 2𝑓 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 − ∫ 𝑓 (𝑥). 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 4
⟹ 𝑦( ) = 𝑥( ) +1 0 0
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑎
order = 1, degree = 4 ⟹ 2𝐼 = 2 ∫ 𝑓 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥
0
72. 𝑦 2 − 2𝑎𝑦 + 𝑥 2 = 𝑎2 𝑎
𝑑𝑦 ⟹ 𝐼 = ∫ 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥
⟹ 2𝑦 − 2𝑎 + 2𝑥 = 0 ⟹ =𝑎 0
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
76. 𝐴𝐶𝐵 ⟹ 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝐴
⟹
𝑝𝑦 + 𝑥
𝑝
= 𝑎 ⟹ 𝑦2
−2𝑦 (𝑝𝑦
𝑝
+ 𝑥 )
+ 𝑥2 = (
𝑝𝑦 + 𝑥 2
𝑝
)
⟹ 𝑝2 𝑦 2 − 2𝑝2 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦𝑝 + 𝑝2 𝑥 2 = 𝑝2 𝑦 2 + 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑦𝑝
⟹ −2𝑝2 𝑦 2 + 𝑝2 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑦𝑝 − 𝑥 2 = 0
𝑃(𝐴/𝐵) =
𝑃(𝐴/𝐵) =
c k
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) 𝑃 (𝐴) 0.2 2
𝑃 (𝐵)
=
=
= =
𝑃 (𝐵) 0.5 5
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) 𝑃(𝐴)
=1
⟹ 𝑝2 (𝑥 2 − 2𝑦 2 ) − 4𝑥𝑦𝑝 − 𝑥 2 = 0
73. 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = (𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 𝑥
r a 𝑃 (𝐴) 𝑃(𝐴)
77. Required probability

𝑟 2
⟹ − − 2𝑦
𝑥𝑦 𝑦
1
𝐼. 𝐹 = ∫ − 𝑑𝑦 = −
𝑦
1
𝑦
B C 78.
=
𝜋( )
2 =1
𝜋𝑟 2 4
S
𝑒
𝑥
⟹ = 2𝑦 + 𝑐 ⟹ 𝑥 = 2𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑦 15 2 1
𝑦 𝑟=√ × =
Next,
⟹ 𝑓(0) = 1
S
74. 𝑓 (𝑥 + 𝑦) = 𝑓 (𝑥). 𝑓(𝑦) ∀ 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ 𝑅
⟹ 𝑓(0 + 0) = 𝑓 (0). 𝑓 (0) ⟹ {𝑓(0)}2 − 𝑓 (0) = 0
4 30 2
2
79. Angle = 5 × 360° = 144°
80. It is a fundamental concept. So, options ‘a’ is

𝑓(𝑥 + ℎ ) − 𝑓(𝑥)
𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = lim correct.
ℎ→0 ℎ
𝑓(ℎ ) − 1
= 𝑓 (𝑥). lim 81. 𝑃 (𝑎𝑐𝑒) = 52 = 13
4 1
ℎ→0 ℎ
𝑓 (ℎ ) − 𝑓(0)
= 𝑓(𝑥) lim = 𝑓 (𝑥). 𝑓′(𝑜)
ℎ→0 ℎ 82. 𝑆. 𝐷 =
5
𝑀. 𝐷. (formula)
∴ 𝑓 ′ (5) = 𝑓(5). 𝑓′(𝑜) 4
75. 83. Data can be represented in tabular and

𝑎 graphical form.
𝐼 = ∫ 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
0 84. The abscissa of the point of intersection of less
𝑎
than and more than ogive is median.
= ∫ 𝑓 (𝑎 − 𝑥). 𝑔(𝑎 − 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
0 85. Both statements are correct.
86. Result
NDA 1 2017
1 1 1
= √( ) × (− ) = − 1 −1 1
2 8 4 96. |2 3 2| = 0
1 𝑚 𝑛
87. Median remains same but the mean will ⟹ 3𝑛 − 2𝑚 + 2𝑛 − 2 + 2𝑚 − 3 = 0
decrease. ⟹𝑛=1
Next, 1 + 𝑚 2 + 𝑛2 = 6 ⟹ 𝑚 = ±2
88. Required probability
9 1 3 97. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐴 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ) … (1)
𝑂𝐶 = 2(𝑂𝑃
=1− =1− = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
36 4 4 𝑂𝐵 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ) … (2)
𝑂𝐷 = 2(𝑂𝑃
adding (1) and (2) we get,
89. 𝑃 (𝐴̅ ∩ 𝐵̅) = 1 − 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐴 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐵 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐶 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐷 = 4𝑂𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
1 1 5
= 1−( + )=
3 4
90. 𝑛𝑝 = 12 and 𝑛𝑝𝑞 = 4

4 1
12
2
98.
c k
⟹𝑞=
so,
2
= ⟹𝑝=
12 3
𝑛 × = 12 ⟹ 𝑛 = 18
3
3
r a ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐴 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐷 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐷 … . (𝑖 )
91. Parallel to y-axis.
B C ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐶𝐷 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐷𝐴 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐷
𝐵𝐴
𝐶𝐴 … . (𝑖𝑖)
adding (i) and (ii)
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝐵𝐷
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ + 𝐶𝐴
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
92. Let
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
S
𝑂(0, 0, 0) 𝐴(𝑎, 0, 0), 𝐵(0, 𝑏, 0) and 𝐶(0, 0, 𝑐).
S
𝑃 ( , , ) is equidistant from O, A, B and C.
2 2 2
99. 𝑎 × 𝑏⃗ = 𝑐 ⟹ 𝑐 is perpendicular to both 𝑎 and 𝑏⃗
𝑏⃗ × 𝑐 = 𝑎 ⟹ 𝑎 is perpendicular to both 𝑏⃗ and 𝑐
⟹ 𝑎, 𝑏⃗, 𝑐 form an orthogonal system.
Next,
93. 𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅, 𝑆 are collinear. |𝑎 × 𝑏⃗| = |𝑐| ⇒ |𝑎 ||𝑏⃗| sin 90° . 1 = |𝑐|
and |𝑏⃗ × 𝑐| = 𝑎 ⟹ |𝑏⃗||𝑐| = sin 90° . 1 = |𝑎|
94. Let
𝑥−1 𝑦−2 𝑧+1 putting for |𝑐|, we get |𝑏⃗||𝑎 ||𝑏⃗| = |𝑎| ⇒ |𝑏⃗| = 1
= = =𝜆 and |𝑎 | = |𝑐|
2 −3 3
⟹ 𝑥 = 2𝜆 + 1, 𝑦 = −3𝜆 + 2, 𝑧 = 3𝜆 − 1
1
putting 𝑥 = 0, 𝜆 = − 100. (2)(3) + (3)(2) − 4𝜆 = 0 ⟹ 𝜆 = 3
2
7 5
∴ 𝑦 = 2 , 𝑧 = 2 so, point
101.
7 5
(0, , − )
2 2 𝑒 𝑥 − (1 + 𝑥)
lim
𝑥→0 𝑥2
𝑥2 𝑥3
95. (1 + 𝑥 + 2! + 3! + … . . ) − (1 + 𝑥) 1 1
𝑥−𝑏 𝑦−0 𝑧−𝑑 = lim = =
= = … (𝑖)
𝑥→0 𝑥2 2! 2
𝑎 1 𝑐
𝑥−𝑓 𝑦−0 𝑧−ℎ 102.
= = … (𝑖𝑖)
𝑒 1 𝑔
(𝑖 )and (𝑖𝑖 )are perpendicular
⟹ 𝑎𝑒 + 1 + 𝑐𝑔 = 0
NDA 1 2017
𝜋/2 lim 𝑓(𝑥) . 𝑔(𝑥) exists, then it is not necessary

1 𝑥→𝑎
∫ 𝑑𝜃 that lim 𝑓(𝑥) and lim 𝑔(𝑥) both exists.
1 + cos 𝜃 𝑥→𝑎 𝑥→𝑎
0
𝜋/2 𝜋/2 109. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 (𝑥 − 3) then
1 1 𝜃 𝑓 (−𝑥) = 𝑥 2 (−𝑥 − 3) ≠ 𝑓(𝑥) or −𝑓(𝑥)
=∫ 𝑑𝜃 = ∫ sec 2 𝑑𝜃
𝜃 2 2 ⟹ 𝑓(𝑥) is neither even nor odd.
0 2 cos2 2 0
𝜋/2
1 𝜃 110.
= × 2 [tan ] =1
2 20 𝑑 (5𝑥 2+3)
log 10
𝑑𝑥
𝑒
103. 1 𝑒
10𝑥 log10
1 = 2 × log10 × 10𝑥 =
∫ 𝑑𝑥 5𝑥 + 3 5𝑥 2 + 3
𝑥(𝑥 7
+ 1)
1
= ∫ 7 7
7𝑥 6
7 𝑥 (𝑥 + 1)
putting 𝑥 7 = 𝑡
1 7𝑥 6
𝑑𝑥
1 1 1
111.
𝑓 (𝑎) =
c
𝑓 (2𝑎) =
k
𝑎−1
𝑎+1
2𝑎 − 1
= ∫
1
(
7 𝑡 𝑡+1 )
𝑑𝑡 = ∫ ( −
7
= [log 𝑡 − log(𝑡 + 1)] + 𝑐
7
1 𝑡 1
𝑡 𝑡+1
𝑥7
) 𝑑𝑡
r a 2𝑎 + 1
𝑓 (𝑎) + 1 =
𝑎−1
𝑎+1
+1=
So, 𝑓 (2𝑎) ≠ 𝑓 (𝑎) + 1
2𝑎
𝑎+1
104.
= log (
7 𝑡+1
) + 𝑐 = log ( 7
7 𝑥 +1
)+𝑐
B
𝑓 (𝑥) = cos 𝑥 is bijective for domain
C Next,
1
𝑓( ) =
𝑎
1
𝑎
1
−1 1−𝑎
=
+1 𝑎+1
= −(
𝑎−1
𝑎+1
) = −𝑓(𝑎)
105.
𝑓(𝑎)
= 𝑎
𝑎
− 1= 𝑎 × 𝑎 = 𝑎
2
𝑓(𝑎 + 1) 𝑎 + 1 𝑎 − 1 𝑎 + 1 𝑎2 − 1
S
𝑋 = [0, 𝜋] and co-domain 𝑌 = [−1, 1].
S 112.
𝑎
For area of △ to be maximum, triangle

should be an equilateral triangle.
𝑎
= 𝑓(𝑎2 )
106.
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
log ( )=𝑎⟹ = 𝑒 𝑎 ⟹ ∫ 𝑑𝑦 = ∫ 𝑒 𝑎 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ℓ = length of side of equilateral triangle = √3𝑎
⟹ 𝑦 = 𝑥 𝑒𝑎 + 𝑐 √3 2 3√3 2
∴ Area = (√3 𝑎) = 𝑎
4 4
107.
2𝑥 + 1, −3 < 𝑥 < −2 113.
𝑓 (𝑥) = { 𝑥 − 1, −2 ≤ 𝑥 < 0 1 𝑥2 − 1
′( )
𝑥 + 2, 0 ≤ 𝑥 < 1 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 + ⟹𝑓 𝑥 =
Here, 𝑓(0− ) = −1 and 𝑓 (0+ ) = 2 clearly 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑥 𝑥2
(𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 + 1)
is discontinuous at 𝑥 = 0 and continuous at all ⟹ 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) =
𝑥2
other points. for 𝑥 ∈ (0, 1), 𝑓′(𝑥) < 0
⟹ 𝑓(𝑥) decreases
108. If lim 𝑓(𝑥) and lim 𝑔(𝑥) both exists,
𝑥→𝑎 𝑥→𝑎
then lim 𝑓 (𝑥) . 𝑔(𝑥) exists. But if 114. 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 𝑛 , 𝑛 ≠ 0.
𝑥→𝑎
NDA 1 2017
⟹ 𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = 𝑛𝑥 𝑛−1
𝑓(𝑥) to be differentiable, 𝑛 − 1 ≥ 0 ⟹ 𝑛 ≥ 1
⟹ 𝑛 ∈ [1, ∞]
115.
𝑒2 𝑒0 𝑒2
log 𝑥 log 𝑥 log 𝑥
∫| | 𝑑𝑥 = ∫ − 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑑𝑥
−1
𝑥 −1
𝑥 𝑥
𝑒 𝑒 𝑒0
1 0 1 2 1 5
= − [(log 𝑥 )2 ]𝑒𝑒 −1 + [(log 𝑥)2 ]𝑒𝑒 0 = + 2 =
2 2 2 2
116.
117.
New variance = 5 × (3)2 = 45
Required mean
c k
=
20 × 100 − (21 + 21 + 18 + 20) 1920
118.
96
=
96
= 20
r a
=
119.
2
𝐶0 × 2𝐶2 1
4𝐶
2
=
6
B C
120.
1 2 3
= 1−( × × )= 1− =
2 3 4
Boy Girl
1 3
4 4
S S
By aligation, ratio = 1: 2
1
∴ no. of boys = × 150 = 50
3
NDA 1 2017
PART – A somebody in the seat opposite. The engine with one

SPOTTING ERRORS wheel broken was lying across the track and beside it was
the luggage van, likewise, derailed. Groaning, wheezing,
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: gasping, sputtering in its death agony, the engine was like
Each item in this section has a sentence with a fallen horse which, snorting, trembling in every limb, its
three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read flanks heaving, its chest laboring, seems incapable of
each sentence to find out whether there is any error in making the smallest effort to struggle on its legs again.
any underlined part and indicate your response in the
Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or 6. The author had roused himself as he wanted to
(b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be (a) get off
indicated as (d). (b) meet someone
1. I can fly if I will be a bird. No error (c) know the name of the station
(a)
(a)
(b)
2. As soon as the train arrived
(b)
(c) (d)
the passengers entered the compartments.

k
(d) keep himself awake
7. The engine stopped because
c
(a) the driver had stopped it
(b) one of the wheels was broken
No error.
(d)
(c)
3. Never I have seen such a town. No error.

r a (c) there was a halting place
(d) there was no fuel
8. The engine is compared to a fallen horse because
(a) it was groaning like a horse
(a) (b)
(a)
(c)
(b) (c)
B
4. He goes to his office by bicycle every day.
C
(d) (b) it was lying across the track
(c) it could make no effort to stand upright
(d) it had a broken wheel
No error.
(d)
S
5. Far from being appreciated,
(a)
his conduct was discussed
S Passage – 2
I was beginning to tire a little now. I had
been cutting steps continuously for two hours,
and Tenzing, too, was moving very slowly. As I
(b) chipped steps around still another corner, I
and sharply commented. wondered rather dully just how long we could
(c) keep it up. Our original zest had now quite gone
No error. and it was turning more into a grim struggle. I
(d) then realized that the ridge ahead, instead of still
monotonously rising, now dropped sharply
COMPREHENSION away, and far below I could see the North Col and
Rongbuk glacier. I looked upwards to see a
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A
In this section, you have two short passages. few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow
Read the passages and answer the items that follow. You and we stood on top.
are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. 9. Which of the following is the most appropriate
description of the area in which the narrator had
Passage – 1 been moving?
We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself (a) a steep rocky slope
in order to hear the name of the station. As I was falling (b) a peak with a flight of steps
asleep again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of (c) a high peak covered with snow
NDA 1 2017
(d) a long ridge 14. He to listen to my arguments and walked

away.
10. ‘I had been cutting steps continuously for two (a) denied
hours’ suggests that (b) disliked
(a) the climber was unskilled in the art of making (c) prevented
steps (d) refused
(b) he had to cut the steps out of snow before 15. The flow of blood was so that the patient
climbing up which was necessarily a slow died.
process (a) intense
(c) the slowness was caused by the fact that as (b) adequate
soon as he cut the steps they were again (c) profuse
covered with snow (d) extensive
(d) he had to work suspended form a ledge
11. ‘It was turning more into a grim struggle’ would
mean
(a) that after the long exertion he was feeling so
k
16. You have never
experiences in America.
c
(a) said
(b) told
me about your
weak that any further climbing meant a hard

struggle with the forces of nature
(b) that Tenzing was making the task more
difficult
r a (c) explained
(d) spoken
17. I always felt hungry
dinner bell.
I heard the
B C
(c) that strong cold wind was pushing him down
from above and that he had to struggle with
the forces of nature
(a) as much as
(b) as well as
(c) as soon as
S S
(d) that he was in a mood to give up ultimately
SELECTING WORDS
Directions for the following 10 (ten) items:

(d) as close as
18. Although they took every precaution, they could
not
(a) defer
(b) allow
the accident.
Each of the following items in this section has a (c) avoid

sentence with a blank space and four words or group of (d) block
words given after the sentence. Select whichever word 19. The ambitious nobleman to marry the
or group of words you consider most appropriate for the king’s daughter.
blank space and indicate your response on the Answer (a) transpired
Sheet accordingly. (b) perspired
(c) aspired
12. I you to be at the party this evening. (d) expired
(a) look forward to 20. The dictator of that country was a monster of
(b) hope wickedness, insatiable in his for
(c) expect blood and plunder.
(d) think (a) idea
13. When I met John yesterday, it was the first time (b) vision
I him since Christmas. (c) lust
(a) saw (d) intention
(b) have seen 21. Please don’t give me anymore, I have had
(c) had seen .
(d) have been seeing (a) few
NDA 1 2017
(b) too little (b) P R Q S

(c) little (c) P Q S R
(d) enough (d) R P Q S
26. Sports cars appeal to some motorists only
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE P Q R
with noisy exhausts.
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items: S
Each of the following items in this section The proper sequence should be
consists of a sentence the parts of which have been (a) R Q S P
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R, and S. (b) P S Q R
Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (c) R S P Q
(a), (b), (c), and (d). You are required to rearrange the (d) P Q S R
jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response
accordingly.
22. Farm workers spend outdoors

c k
27. He almost
P Q
most of their time.
S
R

r a P Q
planned the entire strategy of operation
single-handed.
R
(a) P Q R S
(b) P R Q S
(c) P Q S R
B C S
(a) R S P Q
(d) R P Q S
(a) P Q S R
Q
S S
23. He shuffled the papers in a drawer together.
R
S
(b) P R Q S
(c) S Q R P
(d) Q P S R
28. She has more intelligence
P Q R
(b) P Q R S than what we suspected her to possess.
(c) P S Q R S
(d) R S P Q The proper sequence should be
24. Do you think will this soap (a) P Q S R
P Q R (b) P R Q S
shrink woolen clothes? (c) P S Q R
S (d) P Q R S
The proper sequence should be 29. They should implant
(a) P Q R S P Q
(b) P R Q S in the minds of young children sound principles.
(c) Q R P S R S
(d) Q P R S The proper sequence should be
25. We advised the hijackers to surrender (a) P Q R S
P Q (b) P Q S R
to the police themselves. (c) R P Q S
R S (d) P R Q S
The proper sequence should be 30. When I was a student
(a) P Q R S P
NDA 1 2017
I learnt swimming at the age of 15 (a) look it out

Q (b) look it for
of class X in a government school. (c) look it up
R S (d) No improvement
The proper sequence should be 36. Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every
(a) P Q R S evening.
(b) P R Q S (a) at home
(c) Q P R S (b) inside home
(d) Q S P R (c) within their home
(d) No improvement
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT 37. When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus.
(a) has run
Directions for the following 10 (ten) items:
In this section, look at the underlined part of
each sentence. Below each sentence are given three
possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of 38.
c k
(b) had run
(c) was running
(d) No improvement
She cut a sad figure in her first performance on
them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part,
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the
corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the
substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your
r a the stage.
(a) made a sorry figure
(b) cut a sorry face
(c) cut a sorry figure
response will be signified by the letter (d).
B C
response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’
39.
(d) No improvement
Last evening, I went to the optician and bought
spectacles.
for his dishonesty.

(a) as for
(b) but because
(c) but due to S S
31. I disliked him not so much for his meanness but
40.
(a) a spectacle
(b) two spectacles
(c) a pair of spectacles
(d) No improvement
I would like to avail a fifteen days holiday this
(d) No improvement summer.
32. He preferred death rather than imprisonment. (a) to avail of
(a) for (b) to avail myself of
(b) to (c) to avail myself
(c) than (d) No improvement
(d) No improvement
33. They kept the idea secretly. ANTONYMS
(a) secretive
(b) secret Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
(c) secretively In this section, each item consists of a sentence
(d) No improvement with a word underlined and is followed by four words.
34. He ought not to tell me your secret, but he did. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the
(a) telling underlined word and indicate your response in the
(b) have told Answer Sheet accordingly.
(c) having told
(d) No improvement 41. My first lecture in the classroom was a fiasco.
35. If I don’t know the meaning of a word, I look it (a) success
after in the dictionary. (b) joy
NDA 1 2017
(c) fun (d) bypassed

(d) disaster 48. The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd,
42. It was indeed arduous to cross streets in New killing many innocent women and children.
York. (a) continuously
(a) pleasant (b) without distinguishing
(b) effortless (c) foolishly
(c) interesting (d) rapidly
(d) risky 49. Businessmen who lack acumen cannot be
43. Unlike his brother, he is affable. expected to be very successful.
(a) reserved (a) fairness
(b) gullible (b) sharpness
(c) irritable (c) boldness
44.
(d) lovable
The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an
auspicious event in his life.
(a) precious
k
(d) righteousness
50. His candid opinions have won him many friends.
c
(a) kind
(b) courteous
45.
(b) ominous
(c) useless
(d) unforgettable
The witness corroborated word for word the
r a (c) generous
(d) frank
PART – B
statement of the victim.
(a) accepted
(b) confirmed
B C 51. Which one of the following statements regarding
King Krishnadevaraya is NOT correct?
(c) denied
(d) repeated
SYNONYMS
S S (a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and
Sanskrit.
(b) Foreign travelers Paes and Nuniz visited his
court.
(c) Barbosa praised him for the great justice and
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: equity prevailing in his empire.
In this section, each item consists of a sentence (d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada
with a word underlined and is followed by four words or in Sanskrit.
group of words. Select the word or group of words that 52. Match List I with List II and select the correct
is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and answer using the given code below the Lists:
indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
List I List II
46. It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a (Amendment to the (Subject)
neighbouring country over small matters. Constitution of India)
(a) engage
(b) estrange A. 52nd Amendment Act, 1. Reduction of
(c) cut off 1985 voting age from 21
to 18
(d) twist
47. Bad tendencies are to be countered by good
B. 73rd Amendment Act, 2. Right to
ones until all that is evil disappears. 1992 Education
(a) opposed
(b) balanced C. 61st Amendment Act, 3. Panchayati Raj
(c) reduced 1988
NDA 1 2017
D. 86th Amendment Act, 4. Disqualification D. Zawar 4. Coal

2006 on grounds of
defection Code:
A B C D
Code: (a) 3 4 1 2
A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4 56. Which one of the following are the major coral
reef areas of India?
53. Which one of the following was NOT a cause of 1. Gulf of Kachchh
the Revolt of 1857?
(a) The rumour that the British had mixed the
bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour
being sold in the market.
k
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Lakshadweep
c
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) The prophecy that British rule would come

to an end on the centenary of the Battle of
Plassey on 23rd June, 1857.
r a Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Popular discontent with British rule.
the return of Ram Rajya

B C
(d) The prophecy that the end of British rule
would lead to the end of the Kali Yuga and
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. Which of the following regions is/are NOT known
S
54. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of
the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley?
S
(a) The British were responsible for protecting
the ally from any external threats.
(b) All internal threats were to be handled by
for cotton-textile industry?
1. Mumbai – Pune region
2. Madurai – Coimbatore region
3. Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region
4. Indore – Ujjain region
the ally alone, with no help from the British.
(c) The ally was to provide resources for Select the correct answer using the code given
maintaining a British armed contingent below:
stationed in its territory. (a) 1 and 3
(d) The ally could not enter into any agreement (b) 2 and 3
with other rulers without the permission of (c) 1, 2 and 4
the British. (d) 3 only
55. Match List I with List II and select the correct 58. Which one of the following States does NOT have
answer using the code given below the Lists: the Headquarters of any Railway Zone?
(a) Jharkhand
List I List II (b) Chhattisgarh
(Place) (Mineral) (c) Odisha
(d) Bihar
A. Lakwa 1. Copper 59. Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by
rubbing it with wool. Which one of the following
B. Malanjkhand 2. Petroleum
statements is correct in this case?
C. Kalakot 3. Zinc (a) The positive charges are transferred from
rod to wool.
NDA 1 2017
(b) The positive charges are transferred from (a) an inert gas
wool to rod. (b) an artificial fiber
(c) The negative charges are transferred from (c) an explosive
rod to wool. (d) a metal
(d) The negative charges are transferred from 66. The chemical name for baking soda is
wool to rod. (a) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3
60. Which one of the following is the correct relation (b) 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3
between frequency 𝑓 and angular frequency 𝜔? (c) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3
(a) 𝑓 = 𝜋𝜔 (d) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
(b) 𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 67. Which one of the following elements is used in
(c) 𝑓 = 2𝜔/𝜋 pencil-lead?
(d) 𝑓 = 2𝜋𝜔 (a) zinc
k
61. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit (b) lead
thermometer both give the same reading for a (c) carbon (graphite)
certain sample. What would be the
corresponding
thermometer?
(a) 574
reading in a Celsius 68.
a c
(d) tin
Who among the following is one of the authors
of the book “Philosophy of the Bomb”?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) 301
(c) 273
(d) 232
C r (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Surya Sen
(d) Yashpal
B
62. If the potential difference applied to an X-ray 69. Which one of the following statements about
tube is doubled while keeping the separation Chittagong group is NOT correct?
(a) will remain same

(b) will be doubled
(c) will be halved
S
between the filament and the target as same,
what will happen to the cutoff wavelength?
S
(a) Its membership included a large number of
youth including Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath
Baul, and Anant Singh.
(b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in
Dhaka before joining the group.
(d) will be four times of the original wavelength (c) Surya Sen and his group were closely
63. Which one of the following statements is true for associated with Congress work in
𝐺𝑚1 𝑚2 Chittagong.
the relation 𝐹 = 𝑟2
? (All symbols have their
usual meanings.) (d) This group had prepared an action plan to
(a) The quantity G depends on the local value of occupy the armouries in Chittagong.
g, acceleration due to gravity. 70. Which one of the following was a significant
(b) The quantity G is the greatest at the surface feature of the Quit India Movement?
of the Earth. (a) Women did not play an important role in the
(c) The quantity G is used only when Earth is one movement.
of the two masses. (b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important
64. Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of regional base during the movement.
expansion of a liquid than solid? (c) It was marked by anti-zamindar violence.
(a) Liquids tend to evaporate at all (d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel
temperatures governments in different parts of India.
(b) Liquids conduct more heat 71. Which one of the following devices changes low
(c) Liquids expand too much when heated voltage alternating current to high voltage
(d) Their containers also expand when heated alternating current and vice versa?
65. Radon is (a) generator
NDA 1 2017
(b) motor (c) 2 only

(c) transformer (d) 3 only
(d) vibrator 77. Temporary hardness in water is due to which one
72. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts of the followings of Calcium and Magnesium?
during hot summer is based on the principle of (a) hydrogen carbonates
(a) reflection (b) carbonates
(b) interference (c) chlorides
(c) dispersion (d) sulphates
(d) total internal reflection 78. Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning
73. At which place Earth’s magnetic field becomes pain. This is due to the injection of
horizontal? (a) acetic acid
(a) magnetic meridian (b) methanoic acid
(b) magnetic equator
(c) geographical pole
(d) Tropic of Cancer
74. The speed of a car traveling on a straight road is
79.
c k
(c) sulphuric acid
(d) hydrochloric acid
Which one of the following elements is least
reactive with water?
listed below at successive intervals of 1 s:
Time (s)
Speed (m/s) 0
0
2
1
4
2
6
3 4
8
r a (a) lithium
(b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) cesium
Which of the following is/are correct?
The car travels
1. with a uniform acceleration of 2/ms2 .
B C 80. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering
experiment was responsible for the discovery of
(a) electron
2. 16 m in 4 s.
S
3. with an average speed of 4 m/s/
S
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
81.
(b) proton
(c) nucleus
(d) helium
Glass is a
(a) liquid
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) colloid
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) non-crystalline amorphous solid
(d) 1 only (d) crystalline solid
75. The speed of a body that has Mach number more 82. Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in
than 1 is having
(a) supersonic (a) cellulose
(b) subsonic (b) chitin
(c) 300 m/s (c) cholesterol
(d) about 10 m/s (d) glycogen
76. Molecules of which of the following has cage like 83. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans
structure? and other animals. It is caused by
1. Diamond (a) Histomonas
2. Graphite (b) Trypanosoma
3. Fullerenes (c) Angomonae
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Naegleria
below: 84. Which one of the following agencies enforces
(a) 1, 2, and 3 the laws on food security in India?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) FDA
NDA 1 2017
(b) WHO
(c) FSSAI 90. Which one among the following is the correct
(d) FAO order of tiger reserves situated from North to
85. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and South in India?
reduces the number of a particular type of blood (a) Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska – Periyar
cells. Those blood cells are (b) Periyar – Sariska – Simlipal – Corbett
(a) monocytes (c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal – Periyar
(b) platelets (d) Periyar – Simlipal – Sariska – Corbett
(c) eosinophils 91. Which of the following are correct with regard to
(d) neutrophils Indian Monsoonal Rainfall?
86. Which one of the following statements is NOT 1. largely governed by the topographical
correct? features
(a) all proteins are enzymes
(b) mostly enzymes are proteins
(c) all fats are energy rich compounds
(d) glucose is a common carbohydrate
c k
2. regional and seasonal variation in the
distribution of rainfall
3. heavy downpour resulting considerable
runoff
87. Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in
India. It is grown to obtain
(a) starch
(b) glucose
r a 4. beginning and end of rain is regular and on
time.
below:
88.
(c) fructose
(d) sucrose
B C
The colorful part of the Sunflower or Marigold
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
plant is
(a) flower
(b) inflorescence
(c) fruit
(d) seed S S (d) 2, 3 and 4
92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I
(Type of climate)
List II
(State)
89. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists: A. Monsoon with Short 1. Uttar Pradesh
List I List II Dry Season (Amw) and Bihar
(Mineral) (Leading State)
B. Cold Humid Winter 2. Tamil Nadu
A. Manganese 1. Uttarakhand with Short Summer (Dfc) Coast
B. Gypsum 2. Kamataka C. Monsoon with Dry 3. Arunachal

Winter (Cwg) Pradesh
C. Limestone 3. Rajasthan
D. Monsoon with Dry 4. Kerala and
D. Magnesite 4. Odisha Summer (As) Karnataka Coast
Code: Code:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 2 3 1 (c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 3 1 4
NDA 1 2017
93. Which one of the following Himalayan rivers (a) they contain no electrons
does NOT originate from across the Himalayas? (b) electrons do not flow easily through them
(a) Indus (c) they are crystals
(b) Satluj (d) they have more number of electrons than
(c) Ganga the protons on their surface
(d) Brahmaputra 100. Which one of the following physical
94. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of quantities does NOT affect the resistance of a
Indian Railway is located at cylinder resistor?
(a) Bhubaneswar (a) the current through it
(b) Kolkata (b) its length
(c) Hajipur (c) the resistivity of the material used in the
(d) Guwahati resistor
95. Which one among of the following countries is
the largest trading partner of India in external
trade for the year 2015-2016?
(a) United States of America
101.
c k
(d) the area of cross-section of the cylinder
Kidney secretes an enzyme, which
changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into
angiotensin. The enzyme is
(b) United Kingdom
(c) United Arab Emirates
(d) China
96. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double
r a (a) renin
(b) nitrogenase
(c) hydrolase
(d) mono-oxygenase
this lens (in units of dioptre)?

B C
convex lens are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive
index of the glass is 1 ∙ 5. What is the power of
102. Red blood cells (RBCs) have
(a) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no
endoplasmic reticulum
(a) +7 ∙ 5 D
(b) −7 ∙ 5 D
(c) +2 ∙ 5 D
(d) +5 ∙ 0 D
S S
97. The time period of a simple pendulum made
(b) nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic
reticulum
(c) nucleus, mitochondria but no endoplasmic
reticulum
(d) no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum
using a thin copper wire of the length L is T. is present
Suppose the temperature of the room in which 103. According to the Census 2011, the
this simple pendulum is placed increases by density of population in which one among the
30℃, what will be the effect on the time period following States is the lowest?
of the pendulum? (a) Sikkim
(a) T will increase slightly (b) Nagaland
(b) T will remain the same (c) Manipur
(c) T will decrease slightly (d) Mizoram
(d) T will become more than 2 times 104. Headquarters of the World
98. Which one of the following physical quantity has Meteorological Organizations located in
the same unit as that of pressure? (a) Washington
(a) angular momentum (b) Geneva
(b) stress (c) Moscow
(c) strain (d) London
(d) work 105. Match List I with List II and select the
99. Which one of the following statements is correct correct answer using the code given below the
with regard to the material of electrical Lists:
insulators? List I List II
NDA 1 2017
(Industry) (Place) 109. Which of the following cricket teams was

defeated by India to lift the Women’s Twenty 20
A. Petrochemical 1. Coimbatore Asia Cup 2016?
(a) Bangladesh
B. Aircraft 2. Pinjore (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Pakistan
C. Machine tools 3. Bengaluru
(d) Afghanistan
110. Which one of the following was the
D. Cotton textiles 4. Bongaigaon
venue of 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the
Code: Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations?
A B C D (a) New Delhi
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) Mumbai
(b)
(c)
(d)
4
1
1
2
2
3
3
3
2
1
4
4 111.
c k
(c) Shillong
(d) Guwahati
Which one among the following States
of India has recently proposed to frame the first
106. Consider the following statements
pertaining to Coffee plantation in India:
1. Need warm and moist climate with a spell of
dry weather during the ripening period.
r a Internal Security Act to deal with the challenges
of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and
caste violence?
(a) Maharashtra
2. Rolling fields having good drainage.
B C
3. Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding
temperature 35℃.
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh
correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 S S
4. Kamataka is the leading producer in India.
Which of the statements given above are
112. The World Humanitarian Day is being
observed every year on which date?
(a) 24 October
(b) 19 August
(c) 10 December
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 8 March
(d) 1, 2 and 4 113. Surge pricing takes place when a service
107. Dr. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed provider
recently as Governor of Reserve Bank of India, (a) raises the price of its product or service as
was holding which position immediately prior to demand outstrips supply
this appointment? (b) follow preset prices immune to demand and
(a) Chief Economist, IMF supply dynamics
(b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India (c) fixes a minimum price for its services
(c) Chief Economic Advisor to the Government (d) fixes an average price on the basis of
of India transactions carried over a day
(d) Professor of Economics at Harvard 114. By fulfilling which of the following
University conditions can a political party claim the status
108. Who among the following personalities of a national party?
is NOT a Governor of any Indian State? 1. It secures at least six per cent (6%) of the
(a) Najma Heptulla valid votes polled in any four or more states,
(b) Ram Nath Kovind at a general election to the House of the
(c) Acharya Dev Vrat People or, to the State Legislative Assembly.
(d) Arvind Subramaniam
NDA 1 2017
2. It wins at least four seats in the House of the (b) British capital investments were invited with
People from any State or States or wins at 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if
least two per cent (2%) seats in the House of necessary from Indian revenues.
the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing (c) The construction works disturbed ecology.
House having 543 members), and these (d) The construction of the railways was
members are elected from at least three planned in such a way that it connected the
different States. internal markets with the ports but provided
3. The party in question has got recognition as no interconnection between internal market
a state party in at least two states. cities.
4. It must have its headquarters in New Delhi. 119. Which colonial administrator made the
following declaration about the partition of
Select the correct answer using the code Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power.
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only
c
scheme.”
k
Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is
perfectly true and one of the merits of the
(a) Lord Curzon
115.
(d) 1, 3 and 4
In its emphasis on enhancing human
capabilities, which one among the following
does NOT figure in the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?
r a
120.
(b) H. H. Risley
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Sir Lancelot Hare
Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on
(a) life and longevity
(b) education
(c) delivery of public service
B C th
4 February, 1928?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
116.
(d) skill development
S
Which one of the following is NOT a
S
target of the 12th Five-Year Plan?
(a) Real GDP Growth Rate of 8 per cent
(b) Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent
121.
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Kalyanji Mehta
Which one of the following Princely
States did NOT support the Congress during the
course of the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(c) Manufacturing Growth Rate of 10 per cent (a) Bhavnagar
(d) Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare (b) Mysore
every year during the Plan period (c) Junagadh
117. Which one of the following was (d) Kathiawar
following characteristics does NOT describe the 122. Which one of the following is a feature
Khilafat movement? of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri
(a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Viresalingam?
Non-Cooperation movement (a) He believed that science and morality were
(b) It was not supported by the Congress unconnected to truth
(c) It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must (b) He believed in universal education
retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in (c) He believed that language had no role in
the erstwhile Ottoman empire inculcating morality in students
(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali (d) He did not attempt to build a national
118. Which one of the following was NOT a consciousness on a cultural base
feature of railways in colonial India? 123. Name the calligrapher in Akbar’s court
(a) The main purpose of the setting up of who was honoured with the title “Zarrin Kalam”
railways in India was to serve the interest of or Golden Pen
the empire. (a) Abdul Fazl
NDA 1 2017
(b) Tansen C. Fluorspar 3.Arunachal

(c) Muhammad Husayn Pradesh
(d) Muhammad Kasim
124. Which one of the following sections of D. Nickel 4. Rajasthan
the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the
longest in terms of route distance? Code:
(a) Delhi – Kolkata A B C D
(b) Kolkata – Chennai (a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) Chennai – Mumbai
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) Mumbai – Delhi
(d) 4 2 3 1
125. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the 127. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe
Lists:
List I
(Classification of
resources)
List II
(Example)
c k
and State is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Tharu: Madhya Pradesh
(b) Adi: Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Irula: Kerala
A. Basic inexhaustible 1. Hydel power
resource
r a
128.
(d) Shaharia: Rajasthan
If the absolute refractive indices of glass
and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively, what will
B. Conventional non- 2. Coal
renewable resource
C. Non-conventional 3. Solar energy

B C be the ratio of velocity of light in glass and
water?
(a) 3: 4
(b) 4: 3
renewable resource
D.
S S
Non-conventional 4. Natural gas
non-renewable resource
129.
(c) 8: 7
(d) 8: 9
A positive charge +𝑞 is placed at the
centre of a hollow metallic sphere of inner radius
𝑎 and outer radius 𝑏. The electric field at a
Code:
distance 𝑟 from the centre is denoted by 𝐸. In
A B C D
this regard, which one of the following
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(a) 𝐸 = 0 for 𝑎 < 𝑟 < 𝑏
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d 4 2 1 3 (b) 𝐸 = 0 for 𝑟 < 𝑎
(c) 𝐸 = 𝑞/4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 for 𝑎 < 𝑟 < 𝑏
(d) 𝐸 = 𝑞/4𝜋𝜀0 𝑎 for 𝑟 < 𝑎
126. Match List I with List II and select the 130. Consider the following Indian States:
correct answer using the code given below the 1. Bihar
Lists: 2. Rajasthan
3. Jammu and Kashmir
List I List II 4. Haryana
(Mineral Deposit) (State)
Which one of the following is the correct
A. Gypsum 1. Odisha ascending order of the above States on the basis
of percentage of State’s population of India
B. Graphite 2. Gujarat (based on census 2011)?
(a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
NDA 1 2017
(b) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 Select the correct answer using the code given

(c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 below:
(d) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
131. Who among the following was the (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
author of the Badshah Nama? (c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) Abdul Hamid Lahori (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
(b) Abul Fazl 136. Which one of the following is NOT an
(c) Shah Jahan objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy
(d) Sadullah Khan 2016?
132. Which one of the following statements (a) Establish an integrated ecosystem which will
about Fatehpur Sikri is NOT correct? lead to significant growth of civil aviation
(a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer. sector
(b) Akbar commissioned the building of a
marble tomb for Sheikh Salim Chisti next to
the Friday mosque at Fatehpur Sikri.
(c) The arched gateway or Bulund Darwaza was
c k
(b) To promote tourism, increase employment
and lead to a balanced regional growth
(c) Ensure safety, security and sustainability of
all sectors through the use of technology
meant to remind visitors of the Mughal
victory in Gujarat.
(d) In 1585, the capita of the Mughal emperor
shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi.
r a
137.
(d) Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal
support and infrastructure development
Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct?
133.
the 3rd World Trauma Congress recently?
(a) New Delhi
B C
Which one of the following cities hosted (a) In the conduction mode of transference of
heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from
one molecule to another without moving
134.
(b) Dacca
(c) Singapore
(d) Bangkok
S S
Which one of the following is NOT one of
the objectives of Act East Policy?
from their positions
(b) The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a substance is called its
specific heat capacity
(c) The process of heat transfer in liquids and
(a) To promote economic cooperation, cultural gases is through convection mode
ties and develop strategic relationship with (d) The process of heat transfer from a body at
countries in the Asia-Pacific region higher temperature to a body at lower
(b) To promote peace and amity with the temperature without heating the space
neighbouring countries of Asia between them is known as radiation
(c) To place emphasis on India-ASEAN 138. The amount of heat required to change
cooperation in India’s domestic agenda a liquid to gaseous state without any change in
(d) To provide enhanced connectivity to the temperature is known as
North East of India (a) specific heat capacity
135. Arrange the following countries in (b) mechanical equivalent of heat
ascending order on the basis of the total medals (c) latent heat of evaporation
earned by them in Rio Olympics 2016: (d) quenching
1. United States 139. The following figure shows displacement
2. China versus time curve for a particle executing simple
3. Great Britain harmonic motion:
4. Russia
.
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NDA 1 2017
142. In a solenoid, the current flowing

through the wire 𝐼 and number of turns per unit
length is 𝑛. This gives a magnetic field 𝐵 inside
the solenoid. If number of turn per unit length is
increased to 2𝑛, what will be the value of
magnetic field in the solenoid?
(a) 𝐵
Which one of the following statements is (b) 2𝐵
correct? (c) 𝐵/2
(a) phase of the oscillating particle is same at (d) 𝐵/4
𝑡 = 1𝑠 and 𝑡 = 3𝑠 143. Which one of the following statements is
(b) phase of the oscillating particle is same at correct about the magnification of an optical
𝑡 = 2𝑠 and 𝑡 = 8𝑠
k
microscope?
(c) phase of the oscillating particle is same at (a) Magnification increases with the increase in
𝑡 = 3𝑠 and 𝑡 = 7𝑠
140.
(d) phase of the oscillating particle is same at
𝑡 = 4𝑠 and 𝑡 = 10𝑠
Match List I with List II and select the
a c
focal length of eyepiece
(b) Magnification increases with the increase in
(c) Magnification decreases with the increase in
Lists:
List I List II
C r144.
A homogeneous mixture contains two
liquids. How are they separated?
B
(a) by filtration
(Disease) (Remedy)
(b) by evaporation
A. Hypermetropia
B. Presbyopia
C. Myopia S S
1. Concave lens
2. Bifocal lens
3. Surgery
145.
(c) by distillation
(d) by condensation
Which one of the following elements
forms highest number of compounds?
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
D. Cataract 4. Convex lens (c) chlorine
(d) carbon
Code: 146. Which one of the following elements
A B C D corrodes rapidly?
(a) 4 2 1 3 (a) aluminum
(b) 4 1 2 3 (b) iron
(c) 3 1 2 4 (c) zinc
(d) 3 2 1 4 (d) silver
147. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g
141. A circular coil of single turn has a
of water. What is the mass percentage of the salt
resistance of 20Ω. Which one of the following is
in the solution?
the correct value for the resistance between the
(a) 5%
ends of any diameter of the coil?
(b) 9%
(a) 5Ω
(c) 10%
(b) 10Ω
(d) 15%
(c) 20Ω
(d) 40Ω 148. The valency of an element depends
upon the
NDA 1 2017
(a) total number of protons in an atom

(b) mass number of an atom
(c) total number of neutrons in an atom
(d) total number of electrons in the outer most
shell of an atom
149. Match List I with List II and select the
Lists:
List I List II
(Noble gas) (Use)
A. Argon 1. In lights for
B. Neon
advertising display
2. Airport landing
c k
a
lights and in light
houses
C. Krypton 3. Light in
photographer’s
flash gun
C r
D. Xenon 4.
S B
In tungsten
filament to last
longer
Code:
(a)
(b)
A
3
3
B
1
2
C
2
1
S D
4
4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
150. Colour vision in human eyes is the

function of photoreceptor cells named
(a) rods
(b) cones
(c) blind spot
(d) fovea
NDA 1 2017
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
No. No. No. No. No.
1 B 31 A 61 B 91 B 121 B
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 A 122 D
3 B 33 B 63 D 93 C 123 C
4 B 34 D 64 D 94 B 124 B
5 C 35 C 65 A 95 D 125 A
6 C 36 A 66 B 96 A 126 A
7 B 37 C 67 C 97 A 127 A
8
9
10
B
D
B
38
39
40
C
D
B
68
69
70
A
B
D
98
99
100
c k B
B
A
128
129
130
D
A
C
11
12
A
C
41
42
A
B
71
72
C
r a 101
102
A
A
131
132
A
A
13
14
15
A
D
C
43
44
45
A
C
C
73
B
74
75
C B
A
A
103
104
105
D
B
A
133
134
135
A
C
B
16
17
18
B
C
C
46
47
48 S S C
A
B
76
77
78
A
A
B
106
107
108
D
B
D
136
137
138
C
B
C
19 C 49 B 79 A 109 C 139 C
20 C 50 D 80 C 110 D 140 B
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 A 141 A
22 C 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 B
23 A 53 D 83 B 113 A 143 D
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 A 144 C
25 C 55 C 85 B 115 D 145 D
26 B 56 D 86 A 116 B 146 B
27 B 57 D 87 D 117 B 147 C
28 D 58 A 88 B 118 B 148 D
29 B 59 D 89 D 119 B 149 C
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 B 150 B
NDA 2 2016
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NDA 1 2014
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1. DOWNLOAD THE BOOK AND KEEP IT IN YOUR SMARTPHONE.

2. EVERYDAY AFTER YOU WAKEUP, TAKE 10 QUESTIONS EACH FROM

3. TRY TO SOLVE THEM ON A PAPER AND CROSS CHECK THE ANSWERS.

7. IF YOU SOLVE 50 QUESTIONS IN A DAY, YOU CAN SOLVE AROUND

GET LET'S CRACK NDA EXAM BOOK

ENGLISH & GENERAL ABILITY

Directions: Each item in this section has a 3. Rabindranath Tagore,

1. Opening his letters,

B C by William Caxton, a native of Kent.

6. If Ramesh will be promoted (c) (d)

Directions: Each item in this section consists of

(a) Indifferent love S S

B C (c) obnoxious (d) ugly

IDIOMS AND PHRASES

Directions: Given below are some 33. A jack of all trades

The proper sequence should be P: I regard this rule as a curse.

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

by the system feels let down.

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions: Each of the following sentences in

r a (b) broke down

(c) No difference in the sea level at high and low

reference to Air mass?

(b) The solution turns green in colour after the

(a) 330 m/s

(b) Jhelum below:

(c) Tungabhadra (d) Bharatpuzha

(b) Agriculture development

97. Consider the following statements about a

S S large acceleration due to gravity on its surface

(b) State shall handover the key industries and

(d) It is permanent body, but can be dissolved

the Korean War

Select the correct answer using the code given

the railways is critical.

“The purity of heart is superior to observance of

The ions isoelectronic in Na+ , O2−

energy stored in the nucleus.

In Lord Willingdon Viceroy has made the

Basic principle behind a nuclear reactor is

Friction force is a non-central and non-

In path A→B velocity is decreasing with time;

seven-member committee to look into

revenue shortfall being faced by the states

6| = 𝑥 + 2? these points are in a straight line. What is the

values of x and y respectively?

If p = Xcos𝜃 − Ysin𝜃, q = Xsin𝜃 + Ycos𝜃

A complex number is given by 𝑧 = 1−(1−𝑖)2 3

71. What is the derivative of sec 2 (tan−1 𝑥) with

𝑑2 𝑦 88. The minimum distance from the point (4, 2)

(a) 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) + 𝑃(𝐶 ∩ 𝐴)

Transitive Property states that for all real

So, R is not transitive.

Thus, R is neither reflexive nor transitive, but

This statement is possible

But 1 and –1 are not satisfying the given

The numbers 1,5 and 25 can be three terms (not

to transpose, since both are equal.

tan(54°) = tan(45° + 9°) a

= 𝑝2 [cos2 𝛼 + sin2 𝜃 − 2sin𝛼cos𝛼]

Given, sin2𝜃 = cos3𝜃

Hence, the sum of the focal distance of a point P

Direction cosines of z-axis, assuming a three