1. Arrange the following components of the B.

The first image of a blackhole has been

universe in an increasing order of their share in captured by Event Horizon Telescope
universe? Project.
1. Stars and comets C. Gravitational Waves are created when
2. Dark energy two black holes orbit each other and
merge.
3. Dark matter
D. A blackhole is a region where gravity
Select the correct option from below:
is weak and therefore light can escape
A. 2>3>1 from blackholes.
B. 1>2>3 Answer: D
C. 3>2>1 Explanation:
D. 2>1>3 Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer: A Option 4 is incorrect. A blackhole is a region
Explanation: where gravity is strong and therefore light
cannot escape from blackholes.
Dark energy constitutes 68% of the universe,
dark matter constitutes 27% of the universe A black hole is a place in space where gravity
and stars, comets, planets, blackholes pulls so much that even light cannot get out.
constitute 5% of the universe. Also, the gravity is so strong because matter
has been squeezed into a tiny space.

2. Sunspots are found in which part of the sun?

4. Which of the following pairings are incorrect
A. Chromosphere
regarding countries and their missions to space?
B. Radiative zone A. Apollo–Soyuz Test Project : USA and
C. Photosphere Russia
D. Corona B. Gaganyaan : India
Answer: C C. AstroSat : Nepal
Explanation: D. Both (a) and (c)
Sunspots are found on photosphere. Answer: C
Explanation:
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect • Option C is incorrect. AstroSat
regarding Blackholes? belongs to India, not Nepal. It is the
A. Albert Einstein first predicted the first dedicated Indian astronomy
existence of black holes in 1916, with mission aimed at studying celestial
his general theory of relativity. sources in X-ray, optical and UV
 spectral bands simultaneously.
• Option B is correct. Gaganyaan is an
Indian crewed orbital spacecraft
intended to be the formative spacecraft
of the Indian Human Spaceflight
Programme
• Option A is correct. Apollo–Soyuz
was the first crewed international
space mission, carried out jointly by
the United States and the Soviet Union
in July 1975.
5. The maximum mass theoretically possible for
a stable white dwarf star is defined by
A. Chandrasekhar limit
B. Kondo effect
C. Butterfly effect
D. Wigner effect
Answer: A
• Option a is correct. Chandrasekhar
limit is the maximum mass
theoretically possible for a stable white
dwarf star. A limit which mandates
that no white dwarf (a collapsed,
degenerate star) can be more massive
than about 1.4 times the mass of the
Sun.
• Option b is incorrect. Kondo effect
describes the scattering of conduction
electrons in a metal due to magnetic
impurities.
• Option c is incorrect. The butterfly
effect is the sensitive dependence on
initial conditions in which a small
change in one state of a deterministic
nonlinear system can result in large
differences in a later state.
• Option d is incorrect. The Wigner
effect also known as the
discomposition effect or Wigner's
disease, is the displacement of atoms in
a solid caused by neutron radiation.
6. Pluto is not referred to as a planet. Which of the
following criteria of planet, Pluto does not
satisfy?
A. It orbits around a fully-fledged star
B. It has cleared the neighborhood objects
around its orbit.
C. It has enough gravity to pull itself into
a spherical shape.
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: B
International Astronomical Union (IAU), a
group of experts, is the authorized body to
define the criteria for any object to be
designated as a planet.
In 2006, IAU defines three criteria to classify
any object as a planet.
It needs to be in orbit around any fully-
fledged star.
It needs to have enough gravity to pull itself
into a spherical shape.
It has cleared the neighbourhood around its
orbit.
Pluto has not satisfied third criteria (It has
cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit)
Therefore, Pluto is not referred to as a planet
anymore.
7. Recently, Kessler Syndrome was in news. It
refers to
A. It is a condition in which a person has
 an extra chromosome. 3. Dead satellites
B. It is a developmental disorder that Select the correct option from below:
affects many parts of the body. A. 1 only
C. It is a theoretical scenario in which B. 3 only
Earth's orbit is overpopulated with
objects and debris, preventing the use C. 2 only
of satellites in certain sections of D. 2 and 3
Earth's orbit.
Answer: D
D. It is a complex genetic condition that Explanation:
affects many parts of the body. In
infancy, this condition is characterized Space junk is any piece of machinery or debris
by weak muscle tone. left by humans in space—principally in Earth
orbit. These include dead satellites, fragments
Answer: C of rocket bodies and spacecraft etc. Asteroids
Explanation: don't form part of space debris.
Option c is correct. The Kessler effect,
collisional cascading or ablation cascade, is a
scenario in which the density of objects in 9. Consider the following statements
Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is high enough that regarding Outer Space Treaty
collisions between objects could cause a 1. The United Nations Committee on the
cascade where each collision generates space Peaceful Uses of Outer Space overseas
debris that increases the likelihood of further this treaty.
collisions.
2. No country can place weapons of mass
Option a is incorrect. Turner syndrome is a destruction into the orbit surrounding
condition in which a person has an extra earth.
chromosome.
3. India is a party to this treaty.
Option b is incorrect. Williams syndrome is a Which of the above statements is/ are
developmental disorder that affects many correct?
parts of the body.
A. 1, 2 and 3
Option d is incorrect. Prader-Willi syndrome
is a complex genetic condition that affects B. 1 and 2
many parts of the body. In infancy, this C. 2 and 3
condition is characterized by weak muscle
tone. D. 1 and 3
Answer: A

8. Which of the following can be included as part Explanation: The Outer Space Treaty, formally the
of space debris? Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of
States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space,
1. Asteroids
including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, is
2. Fragments of rocket bodies a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of
international space law. India has been a party to
this treaty since 1967. According to the treaty,
No country can place the weapons of mass
destruction in orbit of earth, moon etc.
Makes countries liable for any damages.
Forbids any country from claiming a resource from
any celestial body.
Not prohibited launching of ballistic missiles
which could be armed with WMD.
10. Which of the following are features of a
scramjet engine?
1. It does not need to carry oxygen.
2. It operates at hypersonic speed.
3. It will help in accessing the outer space
at a cheaper price.
Select the correct option from below:
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation: All the statements are correct.
Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses
Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the
atmospheric air as the Oxidizer. So, Scramjet
engine does not have to carry oxygen.
Scramjet operates at hypersonic speed.
Scramjet would help to reduce the weight of
launch vehicle and increase the speed. It
would help India to do more with a limited
space budget.
Scramjet Engine which would help to
minimize the cost.
11. Consider the following statements
regarding GSLV MK III
1. It is a three-stage heavy lift launch
vehicle.
2. It has has two solid strap-ons, a core
liquid booster and a cryogenic upper
stage.
Which of the above statements is/ are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. GSLV MkIII is a
three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle
developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid
strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a
cryogenic upper stage. GSLV Mk III is
designed to carry 4 ton class of satellites into
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or
about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO),
which is about twice the capability of the
GSLV Mk II.
12. Consider the following pairs:
1. Meteor : a celestial object that enters
the atmosphere of the Earth and burns
out completely before reaching the
surface.
2. Meteorites : able to hit the surface of
earth as they are large is size.
3. Meteoroids : lumps of rock or iron that
orbit the sun.
Which of pairs given above is/are correctly How many pairs given above is/are correctly
matched? matched?
A. Only one pair A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs B. Only two pairs
C. Only three pairs C. Only three pairs
D. None of the pairs D. None of the pairs
Answer: C Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation: All the pairings are correct.
All the statements are correct. Meteoroids are IRS-1B, Indian Remote Sensing satellite-1B,
objects in space that range in size from dust the second of the series of indigenous state-of-
grains to small asteroids. art remote sensing satellites.
When meteoroids enter Earth’s atmosphere
INSAT-3B is an Indian communications
(or that of another planet, like Mars) at high
satellite which was built by the Indian Space
speed and burn up, the fireballs or “shooting
Research Organisation and operated by
stars” are called meteors.
Indian National Satellite System.
When a meteoroid survives a trip through the
atmosphere and hits the ground, it’s called a ResourceSat-2 mission is to support remote
meteorite. sensing data for integrated land and water
resources management at micro level, with
improved spectral and spatial coverage.

14. Which of the following pairings is/ are

correct regarding orbits?
1. Polar Orbit : It is type of low Earth
orbit, as they are at low altitudes
between 200 to 1000 km.
2. Low Earth Orbit : It is an orbit that is
relatively close to Earth's surface.
3. Geo Stationary Orbit : It is a circular
13. Which of the following pairings is/ are geosynchronous orbit 35,786 km in
correct regarding Indian satellites? altitude above Earth's Equator and
following the direction of Earth's
1. IRS-1B : Earth observation satellite
rotation.
2. INSAT-3B : Communication satellite
4. Semi- Synchronous Orbit : It is a near-
3. RESOURCESAT-2 : Remote sensing circular orbit, 26,560 kilometres from
satellite the centre of the Earth.
How many pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
A. Only two pairs
B. Only three pairs
C. Only one pair
D. All the four pairs
Answer: D
Explanation:
All the pairings are correctly matched. Polar
orbits are a type of low Earth orbit, as they are
at low altitudes between 200 to 1000 km. Sun-
synchronous orbit (SSO) is a particular kind
of polar orbit. Satellites in SSO, travelling over
the polar regions, are synchronous with the
Sun. Low-Earth orbit (often known as LEO)
encompasses Earth-centered orbits with an
altitude of 2,000 km (1,200 mi) or less. Geo
Stationary Orbit is a
circular geosynchronous orbit 35,786 km in
altitude above Earth's Equator and following
the direction of Earth's rotation.
15. Region of the Solar System that exists beyond
the eight major planets. The inner edge begins at
the orbit of Neptune and the outer edge continues
outward to nearly 1,000 AU. It contains many
small icy bodies, comets and dwarf planets,
thereby, all remnants from the Solar System ‘s
formation.
Above passage to which of the following region:
A. Oort cloud
B. Kuiper belt
C. Langrange point
D. Asteroid belt
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option b is correct. The Kuiper Belt is a ring
of icy bodies just outside of Neptune’s orbit.
Pluto is the most famous Kuiper Belt Object.
Option a is incorrect. Oort Cloud is believed
to be a giant spherical shell surrounding the
rest of the solar system. It is like a big, thick-
walled bubble made of icy pieces of space
debris the sizes of mountains and sometimes
larger. The Oort Cloud might contain billions,
or even trillions, of objects.
Option c is incorrect. Lagrange Points are
positions in space where objects sent there
tend to stay put. At Lagrange points, the
gravitational pull of two large masses
precisely equals the centripetal force required
for a small object to move with them. There
are five special points where a small mass can
orbit in a constant pattern with two larger
masses.
Option d is incorrect. Asteroid belt is a region
between Mars and Jupiter became the
asteroid belt.
16. Consider the following statements with
reference to Pinaka Extended Range Rocket
System:
1. It is a Multi-Barrel Rocket-Launcher
(MBRL) system
2. It can achieve a range of up to 37 km
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It is a Multi-Barrel Rocket-
Launcher (MBRL) system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It can achieve a range of
up to 45 km
Additional Information:
• The Pinaka, a Multi-Barrel Rocket-
Launcher (MBRL) system named after
Shiva’s bow, can fire a salvo of 12 rockets
over a period of 44 seconds.
• The new version is equipped with
advanced technology to enhance its
strength. The metal weight is lesser
compared to the earlier version.
• The newly tested system can achieve a
range of up to 45km which is a big feat for
the Indian Army. The existing Pinaka
system, which is already in the Army, has a
range of up to 35-37km.
17. Consider the following pairs of missile
systems:
1. Prithvi - surface-to-air
2. Akash - surface-to-surface
3. Trishul - the naval version of Prithvi
4. Nag - anti-tank
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Prithvi (surface-to-surface)
• Akash (surface-to-air)
• Trishul (the naval version of Prithvi)
• Nag (anti-tank)
18. What is India’s Recent Indigenous Move in
the Defence Sector?
1. Defence India Startup Challenge
2. INS Vikrant: Aircraft Carrier
3. Dhanush: Long-range artillery gun
4. Arihant: Light Combat Helicopter
5. Prachand: Nuclear Submarine
Select the correct code:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 4 and 5 only
C. 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Defence India Startup Challenge
• INS Vikrant: Aircraft Carrier
• Dhanush: Long-range artillery gun
• Arihant: Nuclear Submarine
• Prachand: Light Combat Helicopter
19. Consider the following statements with
reference to Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
1. The post of CDS was created on the
recommendations of Shekatkar committee
2. The CDS heads the Department of Military
Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. Both 1 and 2 D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D
Answer: C Explanation:
Explanation: • Ballistic missiles of India: Agni, K-4
(SLBM), Prahaar, Dhanush, Prithvi and
Statement 1 is correct: Finally, the post of CDS was
Trishul.
created in 2019 on the recommendations of a
committee of defense experts headed by Lt General • Ballistic missiles, meanwhile, are launched
DB Shekatkar. directly into the upper layers of the earth’s
atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: CDS heads the newly
created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in • They travel outside the atmosphere, where
the Ministry of Defence. the warhead detaches from the missile and
falls towards a predetermined target.
Additional Information:
• They are rocket-propelled self-guided
• The Chief of Defence Staff of the Indian
weapons systems which can carry
Armed Forces is the head and the highest-
conventional or nuclear munitions. They
ranking officer of the Indian Armed
can be launched from aircraft, ships and
Forces.
submarines, and land.
• The President of India is the supreme
commander of the Armed Forces.
21. Consider the following statements with
• The Chief of Defence is the military’s chief
reference to Defence Acquisition Procedure:
executive with operational and strategic
authority over the defence forces and not 1. ‘Make-I’ refers to government-funded
its commander. projects
2. ‘Make-II’ covers industry-funded
programmes.
20. Which of the following is/are the Ballistic
missiles of India? 3. ‘Make-III’ that covers military hardware
that may not be designed and developed
1. Agni
indigenously
2. K-4 (SLBM)
Which of the above is/ are correct?
3. Prahaar
A. 1 only
4. Dhanush
B. 2 and 3 only
5. Trishul
C. 1 and 3 only
Select the correct code:
D. 1, 2 and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
B. 3 and 5 only
Explanation:
C. 4 only
What is the ‘Make’ Category?
 • The ‘Make’ category of capital acquisition
is the cornerstone of the Make in India
initiative that seeks to build indigenous
capabilities through the involvement of
both public and private sector.
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Make-I’ refers to
government-funded projects while ‘Make-II’
covers industry-funded programmes. Make-I
involved in development of big-ticket platforms
such as light tanks and communication equipment
with Indian security protocols.
Statement 2 is correct: Make-II category involves
prototype development of military hardware or its
upgrade for import substitution for which no
government funding is provided.
Statement 3 is correct: Another sub-category
under ‘Make’ is ‘Make-III’ that covers military
hardware that may not be designed and developed
indigenously, but can be manufactured in the
country for import substitution, and Indian firms
may manufacture these in collaboration with
foreign partners.
Additional Information:
Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020
• The first Defence Procurement Procedure
(DPP) was promulgated in the year 2002.
• It has since been revised periodically to
provide impetus to:
o The growing domestic industry
and
o Achieve enhanced self reliance in
defence manufacturing.
• The armed forces acquire capital assets
according to the Defence Acquisition
Procedure (DAP) 2020, which was
introduced in September 2020.
• Along with buying equipment from Indian
or international players, DAP 2020 had also
introduced a chapter on leasing of
equipment for a limited time.
• Hiring for shorter-durations, under the
new powers, will allow the forces to plug
immediate gaps.
22. Which of the following is not an Air to Air
missile?
A. Astra
B. MICA
C. Sagarika
D. Derby
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sagarika is an Arihant class submarine.
23. Consider the following statements with
reference to Air Independent Propulsion (AIP):
1. Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) is a
mechanism that allows the batteries to be
charged even while the boat is submerged.
2. With AIP, the submarine does not have to
surface every once in a while.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Air Independent
Propulsion (AIP) is a mechanism that allows the
batteries to be charged even while the boat is
submerged.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Even with AIP, the
submarine needs to surface every three weeks or
so.
24. Consider the following statements with
reference to Project 75I:
1. Under this project, the Indian Navy intends
to acquire six diesel-electric submarines
2. Project 75 (I) is part of the Indian Navy’s 30
year Plan for indigenous submarine
construction.
3. It will be the developed under the strategic
partnership model
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under this project, the
Indian Navy intends to acquire six diesel-electric
submarines, which will also feature advanced Air-
independent propulsion (AIP) systems
Statement 2 is correct: Project 75 (I), approved in
2007, is part of the Indian Navy’s 30 year Plan for
indigenous submarine construction.
Statement 3 is correct: It will be developed under
the strategic partnership model which was
promulgated in 2017 to boost indigenous defence
manufacturing.
25. Consider the following statements with
reference to Sindhu Netra Satellite
1. It has been developed by Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO)
2. The satellite is capable of automatically
identifying the warships and merchant
ships in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
3. The satellite enhances India’s surveillance
capabilities on land borders with China
and Pakistan.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Developed by: Students
of Bengaluru based PES University under a
contract by Research Centre Imarat, which is a part
of the DRDO.
Statement 2 is correct: The satellite is capable of
automatically identifying the warships and
merchant ships in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Statement 3 is correct: The satellite enhances
India’s surveillance capabilities on land borders
with China and Pakistan.
26. Consider the following statement with
reference Nirbhay Missile:
1. Nirbhay is a long-range subsonic cruise
missile
2. The Aeronautical Development
Establishment (ADE), had designed and
developed Nirbhay
 3. The missile is capable of carrying both
conventional and nuclear warheads
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Nirbhay is a long-range
subsonic cruise missile.
Statement 2 is correct: The Aeronautical
Development Establishment (ADE), which is part
of the Defence Research and Development
Organisation, designed and developed Nirbhay.
Statement 3 is correct: The missile is capable of
carrying both conventional and nuclear warheads.
Additional Information:
• Nirbhay is a long range, all-weather,
subsonic cruise missile designed and
developed in India by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO).
• The missile can be launched from multiple
platforms and is capable of carrying
conventional and nuclear warheads.
• It is a two-stage missile powered by a Solid
rocket motor booster.
• It is capable of carrying warheads of up to
300kg at a speed of 0.6 to 0.7 Mach
(subsonic).
• It has an operational range of 1000 km (long
range).
• The Nirbhay cruise missile is an Indian
version of the American Tomahawk.
27. Consider the following statement with
reference INS Arihant:
1. It is India’s first indigenous nuclear
powered ballistic missile
2. It is a submarine built under the secretive
Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV)
project
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: It is India’s first
indigenous nuclear powered ballistic missile
capable submarine built under the secretive
Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project
Additional Information:
About INS Arihant
• It was launched in 2009 and commissioned
in 2016.
• It is India’s first indigenous nuclear
powered ballistic missile capable
submarine built under the secretive
Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV)
project, which was initiated in the 1990s.
• INS Arihant and its class of submarines are
classified as ‘SSBN’, which is the hull
classification symbol for nuclear powered
ballistic missile carrying submarines.
o While the Navy operates the vessel,
the operations of the SLBMs from
the SSBN are under the purview of
India’s Strategic Forces Command,
 which is part of India’s Nuclear • One of the most low-carbon energy sources
Command Authority. • It also has one of the smallest carbon
• INS Arihant is presently armed with K-15 footprints
SLBM with a range of 750 km. • It's one of the answers to the energy gap
o INS Arihant can carry a dozen K-15 • It's essential to our response to climate
missiles on board. change and greenhouse gas emissions
• Reliable and cost-effective
28. What are the advantages of electricity Disadvantages of using nuclear energy:
produced using nuclear energy?
• It is not a clean source of energy because
1. It is a source of clean energy.
very harmful nuclear radiations are
2. It helps in the development of a country’s produced in the process.
economy without adversely contributing to
• The waste causes environmental pollution.
climate change.
3. It does not emit any greenhouse gases.
29. Which of the following is/ are uses of nuclear
4. It can be built in urban or rural areas energy?
Select the correct code: 1. Nuclear power is used for space
A. 1 and 2 only explorations.
B. 3 and 4 only 2. It is used for providing potable water
through desalination
C. 4 only
3. Nuclear radiation is used in the treatment
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
of food by killing bacteria, insects, and
Answer: - D parasites that cause illness.
Explanation: Select the correct code:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is a source of A. 1 only
clean energy.
B. 1 and 3 only
• Statement 2 is correct: It helps in the
development of a country’s economy C. 2 only
without adversely contributing to D. 1, 2 and 3
climate change.
Answer: D
• Statement 3 is correct: It does not emit Explanation:
any greenhouse gases.
Uses of nuclear energy are:
• Statement 4 is correct: It can be built in
• Nuclear power is used for space
urban or rural areas
exploration.
Additional Information:
• It can be built in urban or rural areas.
The advantages of nuclear power are:
 • Used for providing potable water through
desalination.
• Used in cancer treatment, Nuclear
radiation is used in the treatment of food by
killing bacteria, insects, and parasites that
cause illness.
• Used for sterilizing medical equipment.
• Nuclear energy could play a major role in
transportation by acting as a substitute for
fossil fuels.
30. Which of the following is not a location for
Uranium resources?
A. Nalgonda District – Telangana
B. East Singhbhum District – Jharkhand
C. Chhaya – Mithi – Gujarat
D. West Khasi Hills District – Meghalaya
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
(NPCIL) has abandoned its plan to set up a 6000
MW nuclear power plant at Chhaya-Mithivirdi
village of Bhavanagar district in Gujarat.
Location for uranium resource are:
• Tummalapalle (Kadapa District) –
Andhra Pradesh
• Nalgonda District – Telangana
• East Singhbhum District – Jharkhand
• West Khasi Hills District – Meghalaya
• Udaipur District – Rajasthan
• Yadgir District – Karnataka
• Rajnandgaon (District) – Chhattisgarh
• Sonbhadra district – Uttar Pradesh
• Rudraprayag District – Uttarakhand
• Una District – Himachal Pradesh
• Gondia District – Maharashtra
31. Which of the following is used as moderator
in the nuclear reactor?
A. Plutonium
B. Thorium
C. Graphite
D. Berilium
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Moderators are used for reducing the speed
of fast neutrons released from the fission
reaction and making them capable of
sustaining a nuclear chain reaction.
• Usually, water, solid graphite, and heavy
water are used as a moderator in nuclear
reactors.
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Atomic explosion is carried out by via
nuclear reaction in which there is net
change in mass of the product
2. The release in energy in nuclear fission is
consistent with the fact that uranium has
more mass per nucleon than either of the
two fragments
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
 • Statement 1 is correct: Atomic
explosion is carried out via nuclear
reaction in which there is net change in
mass of the product and reactant and
this change in mass gets converted into
energy due to which a huge amount of
energy in the form of heat is released.
• Statement 2 is correct: The release in
energy in nuclear fission is consistent
with the fact that uranium has more
mass per nucleon than either of the two
fragments
33. Consider the following statements:
1. The beneficial aspect of nuclear fission is
the ability to produce more energy than
nuclear fusion
2. The energy we get in nuclear reaction
comes from the mass of the fuel
3. When a neutron leaves the nucleus, its
mass increases.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
• The beneficial aspect of nuclear fission is
the ability to release tremendous amounts
of energy, not more than nuclear fusion.
• The main difference between these two
processes is that fission is the splitting of an
atom into two or more smaller ones while
fusion is the fusing of two or more smaller
atoms into a larger one.
Statement 2 is correct: The energy we get in
nuclear reaction comes from the mass of the fuel
Statement 3 is incorrect: When a neutron leaves
the nucleus, it’s mass decreases.
34. Consider the following statements:
1. India has 25% of World’s Uranium reserves
and only 2% of the World’s Thorium
reserves.
2. Thorium is not a fissile material
3. Thorium cannot be converted into
Uranium – 233
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
• Statement 1 is incorrect: India has 2%
of World’s Uranium reserves and 25%
of the World’s Thorium reserves.
• Statement 2 is correct: Thorium is not
a fissile material
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Thorium can
be converted into Uranium – 233
Additional information:
• A nuclide that is capable of undergoing
fission after capturing low-energy thermal
(slow) neutrons.
• Although sometimes used as a synonym
for fissionable material, this term has
acquired its more-restrictive interpretation
 with the limitation that the nuclide must be 36. Consider the following statements with
fissionable by thermal neutrons. reference to Uranium Enrichment:
• With that interpretation, the three primary 1. Natural uranium is only 0.7% U-235, the
fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium- fissionable isotope.
235, and plutonium-239. 2. Centrifugal separators are used in uranium
• This definition excludes natural uranium enrichment.
and depleted uranium that have not been 3. The enriched uranium fuel used in fission
irradiated, or have only been irradiated in reactors cannot be used to make a bomb.
thermal reactors.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
35. Which of the following Nuclear Reactors and
B. 2 and 3 only
its location in India is incorrectly matched?
C. 1 and 3 only
State Nuclear Plant
D. 1,2 and 3
Tamil Nadu Kudankulam Answer: D
Kalpakkam
Explanation:
Gujarat Kakrapar • Statement 1 is correct: Natural
uranium is only 0.7% U-235, the
Uttar Pradesh Narora
fissionable isotope.
Maharashtra Kaiga • Statement 2 is correct: Centrifugal
separators are used in uranium
Answer: D
enrichment.
Explanation:
• Statement 3 is correct: The enriched
State Location uranium fuel used in fission reactors
cannot be used to make a bomb.
Rajasthan Rawatbhata Additional Information:

Tamil Nadu Kudankulam Uranium Enrichment

Kalpakkam • Natural uranium is only 0.7% U-235, the

fissionable isotope.
Gujarat Kakrapar
• The other 99.3% is U-238 which is not
Uttar Pradesh Narora fissionable.
• The uranium is usually enriched to 2.5-
Karnataka Kaiga
3.5% U-235 for use in light water reactors.
Maharashtra Tarapur • Centrifugal separators are used in uranium
enrichment.
 • The enriched uranium fuel used in fission
reactors cannot be used to make a bomb.
• It takes enrichment to over 90% to obtain
the fast chain reaction necessary for
weapons applications.
• Enrichment to 15-30% is typical for breeder
reactors.
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Control Rods slow down neutrons
2. Moderators absorb neutrons
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Moderators
slow down neutrons
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Control Rods
absorb neutrons
Additional Information:
• Control Rods or Reactivity control
o The power output of the reactor is
adjusted by controlling how many
neutrons are able to create more
fissions.
o Control rods that are made of a
neutron poison are used to absorb
neutrons.
• Moderators slow down neutrons
• Control Rods absorb neutrons
• Moderators are like accelerators
• Control Rods are like brakes
• Absorbing more neutrons in a control rod
means that there are fewer neutrons
available to cause fission.
• So pushing the control rod deeper into the
reactor will reduce its power output, and
extracting the control rod will increase it.
38. Control rods are composed of which of the
following chemical elements?
1. Boron
2. Silver
3. Indium
4. Cadmium.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Control rods are composed of chemical
elements such as boron, silver, indium
and cadmium.
39. Consider the following statements with
reference to Thermal Reactors and Fast Neutron
Reactors:
1. Thermal Reactors contain neutron
moderator materials that slow neutrons.
2. Fast Neutron Reactors do not have a
neutron moderator
 3. Thermal reactors use slowed or thermal
neutrons to keep up the fission of their fuel.
4. Thermal Reactors are more difficult to
build and more expensive to operate
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 4 only
Answer: C
• Statement 1 is correct: Thermal
Reactors contain neutron moderator
materials that slow neutrons.
• Statement 2 is correct: Fast Neutron
Reactors do not have a neutron
moderator
• Statement 3 is correct: Thermal
reactors use slowed or thermal
neutrons to keep up the fission of their
fuel.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Fast Neutron
Reactors are more difficult to build and
more expensive to operate
Additional Information:
Similarities between thermal reactor and fast
reactor
• Both are nuclear fission reactors (these are
not nuclear fusion reactors).
• Enrichment of natural uranium with U-235
isotopes is required in both types of
reactors; however, the percentage of such
enrichment varies widely. PHWR can be
operated at a natural percentage of U-235.
• Chain reaction is very much desired to
continue heat generation irrespective of the
type of reactor.
• Irrespective of reactor type, the uranium
dioxide (UO2) in the form of rod or pallet is
commonly used as nuclear fuel.
40. Consider the following statements:
1. Dry nanotechnology is used to
manufacture structures in coal and silicon
2. Wet nanotechnology is based on biological
systems present in an aqueous
environment
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Dry
nanotechnology :It is used to
manufacture structures in coal, silicon,
inorganic materials, metals and
semiconductors that do not work with
humidity.
• Statement 2 is correct: Wet
nanotechnology: It is based on
biological systems present in an
aqueous environment — including
genetic material, membranes, enzymes
and other cellular components.
41. Consider the following with reference to
Carbon Nanotubes:
1. It is used in electric wires to reduce losses
2. It can replace silicon made transistors as
they are small and emit less heat
 3. It is used in solar cell
Which of the above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Used in electric wires to reduce losses
• It can replace silicon made transistors
as they are small and emit less heat and
it can revolutionise electronics
• Can be used in solar cell
Additional information:
What are carbon nanotubes?
• Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are cylindrical
molecules that consist of rolled-up sheets of
single-layer carbon atoms (graphene).
• They can be single-walled (SWCNT) with a
diameter of less than 1 nanometer (nm) or
multi-walled (MWCNT), consisting of
several concentrically interlinked
nanotubes, with diameters reaching more
than 100 nm.
• Their length can reach several micrometers
or even millimeters.
Applications of carbon nanotubes and their uses
• CNTs are well-suited for virtually any
application requiring high strength,
durability, electrical conductivity,
thermal conductivity and lightweight
properties compared to conventional
materials.
• Currently, CNTs are mainly used as
additives to synthetics. CNTs are
commercially available as a powder,
i.e. in a highly tangled-up and
agglomerated form. For CNTs to
unfold their particular properties they
need to be untangled and spread
evenly in the substrate.
• Another requirement is that CNTs
need to be chemically bonded with the
substrate, e.g. a plastic material.
• For that purpose, CNTs are
functionalized, i.e. their surface is
chemically adapted for optimal
incorporation into different materials
and for the specific application in
question.
• Carbon nanotubes can also be spun
into fibers, which not only promise
interesting possibilities for specialty
textiles but may also help realize a
particularly utopian project – the space
elevator.
42. Consider the following statements with
reference to Graphene:
1. Graphene is a one-atom-thick sheet of
carbon atoms
2. Graphene is the world’s strongest material
3. It cannot be used for making heat-
spreading solutions
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Graphene is a
one-atom-thick sheet of carbon atoms
 • Statement 2 is correct: Graphene is the C. 1 only
world’s strongest material D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Graphene is
Answer: D
the most heat conductive found to
date. As graphene is also strong and Explanation:
light, it means that it is a great material Applications of Graphene:
for making heat-spreading solutions,
• anti-corrosion coatings and paints,
such as heat sinks or heat dissipation
films. • efficient and precise sensors,
• faster and efficient electronics,
43. Which of the following is not a feature of • flexible displays,
Graphene?
• efficient solar panels,
A. Higher Capacity
• faster DNA sequencing,
B. Faster Charging
• drug delivery, and more.
C. Low temperature range
D. Flexibility
45. Gold Nanoparticles are used in which of the
Answer: C following?
Explanation: 1. Therapeutic imaging
Feature of graphene are: 2. Cholesterol lowering drug
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

44. Which of the following are applications of Answer: C

Graphene? Explanation:
1. Anti-corrosion coatings and paints • Statement 1 is correct: Due to the
2. Efficient and precise sensors optical properties of gold
nanoparticles, they are especially
3. Flexible displays
utilized in ultrasensitive detection and
4. Faster DNA sequencing • imaging-based therapeutic techniques
Select the correct code: required for the treatment of lethal
diseases, such as cancer.
A. 1 and 2 only
• Statement 2 is correct: Functionalized
B. 3 and 4 only gold nanoparticles interact with free
 cholesterol to produce H2O2 in
proportion to the level of cholesterol
visually being detected.
Additional information:
What are Gold Nanoparticles?
• Metallic NPs have been efficiently
exploited for biomedical applications and
among them, GNPs are found to be
effective in biomedical research.
• And NPs are those materials that are at
least one dimension smaller than 100
nanometers.
• NPs have a high surface-to-volume ratio
and they can provide the tremendous
driving force for diffusion, especially at
elevated temperatures.
• GNPs are melted at much lower
temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064
°C).
• NPs have been found to impart various
desirable properties to different day-to-day
products.
• For example, GNPs are found to have
greater solar radiation absorbing ability
than the conventional bulk gold, which
makes them a better candidate for use in
the photovoltaic cell manufacturing
industry.
46. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A. Nano-encapsulating can improve the
solubility of vitamins but not antioxidants
B. Nano-fibres made of lobster shells or
organic corn can allow for antimicrobial
packaging while being biodegradable.
C. Nanobarcodes are used to tag individual
products and trace outbreaks.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Nano-
encapsulating can improve the
solubility of vitamins, antioxidants,
healthy omega, etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: Nano-fibres
made of lobster shells or organic corn
can allow for antimicrobial packaging
while being biodegradable.
• Statement 3 is correct: Nanobarcodes
are used to tag individual products
and trace outbreaks.
47. Consider the following statements with
reference to Nanocapsules:
1. The nanocapsule can enable effective
penetration of herbicides into the targeted
part of the plant.
2. This ensures a faster and constant release of
the necessary substance to the plants with
minimized environmental pollution.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The nanocapsule
can enable effective penetration of
herbicides, chemical fertilizers, and
 genes into the targeted part of the
plant.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: This ensures a
slow and constant release of the
necessary substance to the plants with
minimised environmental pollution.
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Nano Science and Technology Initiative
(NSTI) focuses on issues related to
infrastructure development
2. Nano Science and Technology Mission
(NSTM) is an umbrella programme that
aims to promote research and development
in nanotechnology.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Nano Science and Technology Initiative (NSTI)
• Statement 1 is correct: It was set up by
the Department of Science and
Technology (DST) in 2001 to focus on
issues related to infrastructure
development, research and application
programmes related to nanomaterials
including drugs, drug delivery, gene
targeting and DNA chips.
Nano Science and Technology Mission (NSTM)
• Statement 2 is correct: NSTM,
launched in 2007, is an umbrella
programme that aims to promote
research and development in
nanotechnology. The objectives
include the promotion of research,
infrastructure development to support
the research, develop nanotechnology,
human resources, and international
collaborations.
49. Consider the following statements:
1. Raman Spectroscopy is a non-destructive
chemical analysis technique
2. Raman Scatter is a light scattering
technique
3. At times Raman Spectroscopy was used to
detect RNA viruses present in saliva
samples
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Raman
Spectroscopy is a non-destructive
chemical analysis technique which
provides detailed information about
chemical structure, phase and
• polymorphy, crystallinity and
molecular interactions. It is based upon
the interaction of light with the
chemical bonds within a material.
• Statement 2 is correct: Raman Scatter is
a light scattering technique, whereby a
molecule scatters incident light from a
high intensity laser light source. Most
of the scattered light is at the same
wavelength (or color) as the laser
 source and does not provide useful
information – this is called Rayleigh
Scatter. However a small amount of
light (typically 0.0000001%) is
scattered at different wavelengths (or
colors), which depend on the chemical
structure of the analyte – this is called
Raman Scatter.
• Statement 3 is correct: At times Raman
Spectroscopy was used to detect RNA
viruses present in saliva samples
50. Which of the following is not an objective of
the Nano Mission?
A. Establishment of R&D in Nanoscience
Applications
B. Establishment of Development Centre for
Nanosciences
C. Human Development in Nanotechnology
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Government of India launched the Nano
Mission in 2007 under the Department of Science
and Technology. The Ministry of Science and
Technology allocated up to Rs 1000 crores to this
mission to fulfill its following objectives:
• Basic Promotion of Nanotechnology
• Infrastructure Development
• Establishment of R&D in Nanoscience
Applications
• Establishment of Development Centre for
Nanosciences
• Human Development in Nanotechnology
• International Collaborations
51. Consider the following statements:
1. Nanoparticles are used to reduce bacteria
on produce
2. Nanoemulsions based on titanium dioxide
– used as antimicrobial agents
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect:
Nanoemulsions – to reduce bacteria on
produce. Nanoemulsion based edible
nanocoatings containing flavor and
coloring ingredients, antioxidants,
enzymes, antimicrobials, and
antibrowning agents can be used to
coat foods such as meats, dairy
products such as cheese, fresh
produce, and fresh cuts including fruit
and vegetables and confectionaries to
improve their shelf life. The
nanoemulsion coatings can also
prevent moisture and gas exchange,
minimize moisture loss and oxidation
of foods
• Statement 2 is incorrect:
Nanoparticles based on titanium
dioxide – used as antimicrobial agents.
Titanium oxide nanoparticles (TiO2
NPs) also proved to have a good
antimicrobial effect, since its
photocatalytic properties generate free
radical oxides and peroxides with
 potent antimicrobial activity and What are the 2 unique properties of Stem Cells?
broad reactivity against many • A stem cell is an immature or unspecialized
microbial pathogens. cell that can
• Split to form similar cells
52. Consider the following statements with • Develop into different specialized
reference to Stem Cells:
cells that perform a distinct
1. A stem cell is an immature or unspecialized function.
cell that can split to form similar cells
What are the Different Types of Stem Cells?
2. Stem cells can develop into different • Stem cells are classified into 2 main
specialized cells that perform a distinct categories –
function.
• Classification based on the formation of
3. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC’s) are cells at different phases of human lives
not found in the body and
Which of the statements given above is/are • Classification based on its ability to
correct? form into different specialized cells.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only 53. Which of the following is not an advantage of
C. 1 and 3 only CRISPR technology?
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Inexpensive
Answer: D B. Cancer Treatments
Explanation: C. Pest Resilient Crops
Statement 1 is correct: A stem cell is an immature D. Off Target Effects
or unspecialized cell that can split to form similar Answer: D
cells
Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct: Stem cells can develop into
Advantages of CRISPR:
different specialized cells that perform a distinct
function. • Curing Genetics Disease
Statement 3 is correct: Induced pluripotent stem • Inexpensive
cells (iPSC’s) are not found in the body • Cancer Treatments
Additional information: • Pest Resilient Crops
What are Stem Cells?
• Simple to Amend Target
• Special human cells that have the capability
• Drug Research
to develop into wide-ranging types of cells
in the human body, from muscle cells to Disadvantages of Crispr
brain cells, are called stem cells. • Not Efficient
 • Time Consuming o Egg cell is placed into the uterus
after a few divisions in it. The cell is
• Off Target Effects
allowed to develop into a fetus that
• Research and Responsibility is genetically identical to the donor
of the original nucleus.
54. Consider the following statements: • Therapeutic cloning, which creates
1. Gene cloning creates copies of genes or embryonic stem cells. Researchers hope to
segments of DNA. use these cells to grow healthy tissue to
replace injured or diseased tissues in the
2. Reproductive cloning creates embryonic human body.
stem cells.
o In therapeutic cloning, the aim is to
3. Therapeutic cloning creates copies of whole clone cells that make particular
animals organs or types of tissue.
Which of the statements given above is/are o Egg is placed in a Petri dish to
correct?
develop into embryonic stem cells
A. 1 only which have shown potential for
B. 2 and 3 only treating several ailments.

C. 3 only o It is also called somatic cell nuclear

D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Gene cloning, which creates
copies of genes or segments of DNA.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Reproductive cloning,
which creates copies of whole animals
Statement 3 is incorrect: Therapeutic cloning,
which creates embryonic stem cells.
Additional information:
• Gene cloning, which creates copies of genes
or segments of DNA.
• Reproductive cloning, which creates copies
of whole animals.
o In this we actually reproduce not
organs but entire beings(donors)
from where we got genetic
information.
transfer or research cloning.
o In this technique, the resultant
embryo is allowed to grow for 14
days.
o Its stem cells would then develop
into human tissue or a complete
human organ for transplant.
55. Consider the following statements with
reference to Alpha Fold:
1. Alpha Fold is an Artificial Intelligence-
based protein structure prediction tool.
2. It is based on a computer system called
Deep Neural Network.
3. Alpha Fold is fed with protein sequences as
input.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: AlphaFold is an Artificial
Intelligence-based protein structure prediction
tool.
Statement 2 is correct: It is based on a computer
system called Deep Neural Network.
Statement 3 is correct: AlphaFold is fed with
protein sequences as input.
Additional information:
• DeepMind and EMBL’s European
Bioinformatics Institute (EMBL-EBI) have
partnered to create AlphaFold DB to make
these predictions freely available to the
scientific community.
• In CASP14, AlphaFold was the top-ranked
protein structure prediction method by a
large margin, producing predictions with
high accuracy.
• While the system still has some limitations,
the CASP results suggest AlphaFold has
immediate potential to help us understand
the structure of proteins and advance
biological research.
56. Consider the following statements:
1. In Somatic Gene Therapy effects are
transferred to next generation
2. In Germline Gene Therapy effects will not
be transferred to next generation
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: In Somatic Gene Therapy
effects will not be transferred to next generation
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Germline Gene
Therapy effects are transferred to next generation.
Additional information:
• Gene Therapy: Gene therapy refers to the
method wherein a genetic defect is treated
by inserting a functional gene or section of
DNA in cells. The functional gene inserted
into an individual or an embryo
compensates for the non-functional gene
present.
• The newly inserted DNA corrects the effect
of the mutated gene. Gene therapy was
developed in 1972. The first therapeutic
gene therapy was given to a four year old
girl in 1990 to treat adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency.
• Gene Therapy Types: On the basis of types
of cells involved in the gene transfer, gene
therapy is of two types:
o Somatic gene therapy: Here the
desired gene is transferred to a
somatic cell. The gene is not
transferred to the offspring.
o Germline gene therapy: Here the
desired gene is introduced in the
germ cell. The gene gets transferred
from one generation to another
generation.
57. Which of the following is/are the applications
of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer?
1. Stem cell research
2. Organ transplants
3. Therapeutic applications
4. Reproductive Cloning
5. Preservation of endangered species
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Potential Applications of Somatic Cell Nuclear
Transfer:
1. Stem cell research- Somatic cell nuclear
transplantation is being used in stem cell
research. These cells are deemed to have a
pluripotent potential because they have the
ability to give rise to all of the tissues found
in an adult organism. This could be used in
therapies or disease research. This allows
stem cells to create any cell type, which
could then be transplanted to replace
damaged or destroyed cells.
2. Organ transplants- Another application of
SCNT stem cell research to generate tissues
or even organs for transplant into the
specific patient. The resulting cells would
be genetically identical to the somatic cell
donor, thus avoiding any complications
from immune system rejection.
3. Therapeutic applications- SCNT have
ample scope of success in therapy and
curing diseases. It can be used to treat
diseases like diabetes, Parkinson’s disease
etc. In 2014, the New York Stem Cell
Foundation was successful in creating
SCNT stem cells derived from adult
somatic cells. One of these lines of stem
cells was derived from the donor cells of a
type 1 diabetic. These insulin producing
cells could be used for replacement therapy
in diabetics, demonstrating real SCNT stem
cell therapeutic potential.
4. Reproductive cloning- Somatic Cell
Nuclear Transfer technique is currently the
basis for cloning animals (such as the
famous Dolly the sheep), and has been
theoretically proposed as a possible way to
clone humans. But there are moral and
ethical objections against reproductive
cloning. In 2018, the first successful
cloning of primates using somatic cell
nuclear transfer, (the same method as Dolly
the sheep), was successfully done with the
birth of two live female clones .
5. Preservation of endangered species-
Interspecies nuclear transfer (iSCNT) is a
means of somatic cell nuclear transfer used
to facilitate the rescue of endangered
species, or even to restore species after their
extinction.
58. Aedes aegypti mosquito is the carrier of which
of the following diseases?
1. Zika
2. Dengue
3. Chikungunya
4. Nile
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Aedes aegypti mosquito is the carrier
of diseases such as Zika, dengue and
chikungunya.
• Genetically modified mosquitoes involve
producing transgenic male Aedes aegypti
mosquito, which carries a new gene fatal
only to female mosquitoes.
• After a few generations, the female
population will be drastically reduced.
• Transgenic males do not bite and the
modified genes are said to be harmless to
humans.
59. Which of the following is/are main Metaverse
components?
1. Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual
Reality (VR)
2. Artificial Intelligence
3. 3D reconstruction
4. Blockchain Technology
5. Internet of Everything
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Main Metaverse components:
• Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual
Reality (VR)
• Artificial Intelligence
• 3D reconstruction
• Blockchain Technology
• Internet of Everything
Additional info:
• Metaverse is a term used to describe a
virtual world that is created and run
entirely using digital technology. It allows
users to immerse themselves in a 3D
environment, interact with other users, and
participate in various activities.
• The concept of Metaverse is becoming
increasingly popular due to the growing
interest in virtual reality and augmented
reality technologies.
• The potential applications of Metaverse are
vast and range from gaming to education,
healthcare, and social media. It is believed
that the development of Metaverse could
lead to a significant shift in the way we
interact with technology and each other.
60. Consider the following statements with
reference to Augmented Reality:
1. AR replaces actual world environment
with 3D digital elements
2. AR combines both the real-world and
the virtual.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: AR does not replace
actual world environment with 3D digital
elements.
Statement 2 is correct: AR combines both the real-
world and the virtual. Users of AR are still able to
sense the real world around them.
Additional info:
● Augmented Reality (AR) is the technology
that superimposes an image onto a user’s
view of the real world and enhances it with
sound, touch, and even smell.
● It is a combination of the real scene viewed
by the user and a virtual scene generated by
the computer. AR is a technology that is
going to blur the lines of reality.
● Augmented Reality has moved beyond
headsets and gaming and permeated into
numerous industries.
● In general terms, Augmented Reality is
increasingly being adopted for a variety of
uses like assembly, maintenance, repair,
education, training, retail showcasing, and
diagnostics.
61. Which of the following is/are the advantages
of Cloud Computing?
1. Low capital expenditure
2. Flexible resources
3. Economies of scale
uoImproved disaster recovery and reliability
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Advantages of Cloud computing
• Low capital expenditure
• Flexible resources
• Economies of scale
• Improved disaster recovery and
reliability
Additional info:
What is Cloud Computing?
● Simply put, cloud computing is the
delivery of computing services—including
servers, storage, databases, networking,
software, analytics, and intelligence—over
the Internet (“the cloud”)
● It is the pool of shared resources such as
networks, servers, storage, applications,
and services that can be provided to the
consumer rather than the consumer
managing them on her own which is costly
and time-consuming.
● Rather than owning their own computing
infrastructure or data centres, companies or
individuals can rent access to storage (or
application or services) from a cloud
service provider.
62. Consider the following statements with
reference to Edge Computing:
1. The main goal of edge computing is to
increase latency requirements
2. One of the best ways to implement
edge computing is in smart home
devices.
 3. It also has use in the cloud gaming
industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The main goal of edge
computing is to reduce latency requirements while
processing data and saving network costs.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the best ways to
implement edge computing is in smart home
devices.
Statement 3 is correct: It also has use in the cloud
gaming industry.
Additional info:
● Edge computing is a distributed IT
architecture which moves computing
resources from clouds and data centers as
close as possible to the originating source.
● The main goal of edge computing is to
reduce latency requirements while
processing data and saving network costs.
Examples and Use Cases
● One of the best ways to implement edge
computing is in smart home devices. In
smart homes, a number of IoT devices
collect data from around the house.
● The data is then sent to a remote server
where it is stored and processed. This
architecture can cause a number of
problems in the event of a network outage.
● Edge computing can bring the data storage
and processing centers close to the smart
home and reduce backhaul costs and
latency.
● Another use case of edge computing is in
the cloud gaming industry. Cloud gaming
companies are looking to deploy their
servers as close to the gamers as possible.
This will reduce lags and provide a fully
immersive gaming experience.
63. Consider the following statements with
reference to Internet of Things:
1. Internet of Things is the inter-linking
of digital devices, machines and even
people with each other through
wireless networks.
2. IoT has use in the field of Agriculture
too
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Internet of Things is the
inter-linking of digital devices, machines, people
and other objects with each other through wireless
networks. It enables anything and everything to
connect and communicate with each other. It is the
future internet. Because the first version of the
internet was about data created by the internet. The
next version is about the data created by things.
Statement 2 is correct: IoT can be utilized to collect
data about rainfall, soil moisture, soil nutrients,
pest infestation etc. It can assist in making
informed decisions to increase agricultural
production as well as reducing the risks of crop
failures etc. It can help make agriculture profitable
with better price-discovery for farmers through
smart techniques.
Additional info:
● Internet of Things (IoT) refers to the
interconnection of various devices, sensors,
and machines through the internet,
allowing them to share data and work
● together seamlessly. The IoT market has
been rapidly expanding in recent years,
with projections suggesting that there will
be over 41 billion connected devices by
2027.
● The potential applications of IoT are vast
and span across various sectors such as
healthcare, manufacturing, transportation,
agriculture, and smart cities. IoT can enable
real-time monitoring of equipment and
machines, leading to reduced downtime
and increased efficiency. It can also
facilitate remote
64. Consider the following statements:
1. Artificial Intelligence is the concept of
creating smart intelligent machines.
2. Machine Learning is a subset of
artificial intelligence that helps you
build AI-driven applications.
3. Deep Learning is a subset of artificial
intelligence that uses vast volumes of
data and complex algorithms to train a
model.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Artificial Intelligence is the
concept of creating smart intelligent machines.
Statement 2 is correct: Machine Learning is a
subset of artificial intelligence that helps you build
AI-driven applications.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Deep Learning is a subset
of machine learning that uses vast volumes of data
and complex algorithms to train a model.
Additional info:
● Artificial intelligence (AI) is the field of
computer science that aims to create
machines that can perform tasks requiring
human-level intelligence, such as
reasoning, perception, decision-making,
and natural language understanding.
● Machine learning is a subset of AI that
focuses on developing algorithms that
allow machines to learn from data without
explicit programming.
● Deep learning is an advanced form of
machine learning that involves building
artificial neural networks with multiple
layers to analyze and process complex data
such as images, audio, and text.
● Deep learning has revolutionized the field
of AI by enabling machines to perform
tasks such as image and speech
recognition, natural language processing,
and autonomous driving with
unprecedented accuracy, speed, and
efficiency.
 ● AI, machine learning, and deep learning
are rapidly transforming various
industries, including healthcare, finance,
transportation, and manufacturing, and are
expected to have a significant impact on
our economy and society in the coming
years.
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect
with reference to evolution of
Telecommunication?
A. 1G worked on analog radio signals
B. 2G uses digital radio signals and
supports both voice and data
transmission.
C. 3G had the ability to transmit
telephone signals including digitised
voice, video calls and conferencing.
D. 4G had a peak speed of 100 Mbps to 1
Gbps but did not support 3D virtual
reality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: 1G was launched in the
1980s and worked on analog radio signals and
supported only voice calls.
Statement 2 is correct: 2G was launched in the
1990s which uses digital radio signals and supports
both voice and data transmission with a
bandwidth of 64 Kbps.
Statement 3 is correct: 3G was launched in the
2000s with a speed of 1 Mbps to 2 Mbps and it has
the ability to transmit telephone signals including
digitised voice, video calls and conferencing.
Statement 4 is incorrect: 4G was launched in 2009
with a peak speed of 100 Mbps to 1 Gbps and it also
enables 3D virtual reality.
66. Which of the following is/are challenges for
5G Rollout in India?
1. Low Fiberization Footprint
2. ‘Make in India’ Hardware Challenge
3. High Spectrum Pricing
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Challenges for 5G Rollout in India:
● Low Fiberization Footprint: There is a need
to upgrade fibre connectivity across India,
which at present connects only 30% of
India’s telecom towers.
○ For an efficient 5G India launch and
adoption, this number has to
double.
● ‘Make in India’ Hardware Challenge: The
ban on certain foreign telecom OEMs
(original equipment manufacturer) upon
which most of the 5G technology
development depends, presents a hurdle in
itself.
● High Spectrum Pricing: India’s 5G
spectrum pricing is several times costlier
than the global average.
○ This will be of detriment to India’s
cash-strapped telcos.
● Choosing the Optimal 5G Technology
Standard: The tussle between the
homegrown 5Gi standard and the global
 3GPP standard needs to be concluded in
order to hasten 5G technology
implementation.
○ While 5Gi brings obvious benefits,
it also increases 5G India launch
costs and interoperability issues for
telcos.
Additional info:
● 5G is the fifth generation of mobile
networks that offers faster and more
reliable connectivity than its predecessors.
● It has the potential to revolutionize
industries such as healthcare,
transportation, and manufacturing by
enabling the Internet of Things (IoT) and
machine-to-machine communication.
● 5G networks use high-frequency radio
waves that have shorter wavelengths than
previous generations, allowing for more
data to be transmitted at faster speeds.
● The technology also has lower latency,
meaning that data can be sent and received
almost instantaneously.
● 5G networks require more infrastructure
than previous generations, including more
cell towers and fiber-optic cables to support
the increased data transmission.
● The deployment of 5G networks is
currently underway, with many countries
already rolling out the technology in major
cities.
● However, there are concerns over the
potential health risks associated with the
increased exposure to radio waves, as well
as the security risks posed by the use of 5G
networks in critical infrastructure.
● The adoption of 5G technology is a priority
for many countries, including India, as it
offers the potential for economic growth
and improved quality of life for citizens.
67. Consider the following statements with
reference to International Classification of
Diseases (ICD):
1. It is the global health information
standard for mortality and morbidity
statistics.
2. Allocation of resources is also one of
the tasks of ICD
3. Recently, Gaming disorder has been
added to the section on addictive
disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It is the global health
information standard for mortality and morbidity
statistics.
Statement 2 is correct: Allocation of resources is
also one of the tasks of ICD. ICD is increasingly
used in clinical care and research to define diseases
and study disease patterns, as well as manage
health care, monitor outcomes and allocate
resources.
Statement 3 is correct: Recently, Gaming disorder
has been added to the section on addictive
disorders.
Additional info:
What is ICD? Explanation:
The ICD is the global health information standard Statement 1 is correct: Viruses do not grow,
for mortality and morbidity statistics. The first neither respire nor metabolize, but they reproduce.
international classification edition, known as the Statement 2 is incorrect: The genetic material of
International List of Causes of Death, was adopted viruses can be composed of DNA or RNA. A virus
by the International Statistical Institute in 1893. is an infectious microbe consisting of a segment of
WHO was entrusted with the ICD at its creation in nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) surrounded by
1948. The ICD is revised periodically and is a protein coat.
currently in its 10th revision.
Statement 3 is correct: Viruses are surrounded by
● ICD is increasingly used in clinical care and
a protein coat
research to define diseases and study
disease patterns, as well as manage health Statement 4 is correct: Viruses are considered both
care, monitor outcomes and allocate as living and non-living things
resources. ICD has been translated into 43 Additional info:
languages.
● A virus is an infectious microbe consisting
● More than 100 countries use the system to of a segment of nucleic acid (either DNA or
report mortality data, a primary indicator RNA) surrounded by a protein coat.
of health status. This system helps to
● A virus cannot replicate alone; instead, it
monitor death and disease rates worldwide
must infect cells and use components of the
and measure progress towards the
host cell to make copies of itself.
Millennium Development Goals.
● Often, a virus ends up killing the host cell
● About 70% of the world’s health
in the process, causing damage to the host
expenditures (USD $ 3.5 billion) are
organism.
allocated using ICD for reimbursement and
resource allocation. ● Well-known examples of viruses causing
human disease include AIDS, COVID-19,
measles and smallpox.
68. Which of the following is not a property of
viruses?
A. Viruses do not grow, neither respire
nor metabolize, but they reproduce.
B. The genetic material of viruses is
composed of DNA only
C. Viruses are surrounded by a protein
coat
D. Viruses are considered both as living
and non-living things
69. Variants of Concern do not have which of the
Answer: B following characteristics?
 A. Higher transmissibility
B. Change in virulence/disease
presentation; evidence of increased
disease severity
C. Reduced susceptibility to treatment
D. Evading diagnostics, drugs and
vaccines
Answer: C
Explanation:
Variant of Concern (VOC): When there is evidence
for increased transmissions through field and
clinical investigations, a variant becomes a VOC.
Variants of Concern have one or more of the
following characteristics.
● Higher transmissibility
● Change in virulence/disease presentation;
evidence of increased disease severity
● Evading diagnostics, drugs and vaccines
Additional info:
● Variant under Investigation: A variant
becomes a variant under investigation
when the mutations happen and if there is
any previous association with any other
similar variant which is felt to have an
impact on public health.
● Variant of Interest (VOI): This includes
variants with specific genetic markers that
have been associated with changes to
receptor binding, decreased neutralization
by antibodies generated against
vaccination/previous infection, lessened
efficacy of treatments, potential diagnostic
impact, or predicted increase in
transmissibility or disease severity. The
following are the possible attributes of a
VOI.
● Specific genetic markers that are
predicted to affect therapeutics,
transmission, diagnostics or
immune escape.
● Evidence that it is the cause of an
increased proportion of cases or
unique outbreak clusters.
● Variant of High Consequence: A variant
of high consequence has clear evidence that
prevention measures or medical
countermeasures (MCMs) have drastically
reduced effectiveness relative to previously
circulating variants. Possible attributes
include:
● Demonstrated diagnostics failure
● Higher severity of the disease and
increased hospitalisations
● Reduced susceptibility to treatment
● Evidence for decreased vaccine
effectiveness, a very large number
of vaccine breakthrough cases, or
very low protection from vaccine
against severe disease
70. Consider the following statements with
reference to medical oxygen:
1. There are traces of nitrogen and argon
in oxygen concentrators
2. There are no known side effects of
medical oxygen
3. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Authority controls and monitors the
medical oxygen prices in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
 B. 2 and 3 only cause severe damage to the lungs and other
organ systems.
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
71. Consider the following statements with
Answer: D
reference to types of corona vaccines:
Explanation:
1. Pfizer and Moderna vaccines developed in
Statement 1 is correct: Medical oxygen comprises the US are mRNA vaccines.
minimum 90% oxygen with 5% nitrogen and 5%
2. Johnson & Johnson, Sputnik V and
argon. Mostly, oxygen concentrators or oxygen
AstraZeneca-Oxford University vaccine is
plants contain 90-95% O2 with traces of nitrogen
a kind of viral vector vaccine.
and argon.
3. Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin and Sinovac-
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are side effects of
CoronaVac is categorized as an inactivated
medical oxygen
vaccine.
Statement 3 is correct: National Pharmaceutical
4. Corbevax is a recombinant protein subunit
Pricing Authority controls and monitors the
vaccine.
medical oxygen prices in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Additional info:
correct?
Side effects of medical oxygen: If it is used above
A. 1 and 2 only
the prescribed amount, the medical oxygen creates
certain side effects. This is why the doctor's B. 3 only
prescription of oxygen is essential. The side effects C. 1, 2 and 4 only
include,
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
● Convulsions or seizures will appear in
Answer: D
patients after a few hours of exposure to
oxygen at pressures above 3 bar(g). Explanation:

● It can cause Retrolenticular fibroplasia in Statement 1 is correct: Pfizer and Moderna

premature infants if they are exposed to
oxygen concentrations greater than 40%. In
short, it is a condition of abnormal growth
of blood vessels in the eye. Retrolenticular
fibroplasia is the leading cause of child
blindness today in the world.
● Some patients will also develop coughing
and breathing difficulties after they are put
under medical oxygen.
● The issue of Oxygen toxicity: Excessive or
inappropriate supplemental oxygen can
vaccines developed in the US are mRNA vaccines.
Statement 2 is correct: Johnson & Johnson, Sputnik
V and AstraZeneca-Oxford University vaccine is a
kind of viral vector vaccine.
Statement 3 is correct: Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin
and Sinovac-CoronaVac is categorised as an
inactivated vaccine.
Statement 4 is correct: Corbevax is a recombinant
protein subunit vaccine.
Additional info:
Different types of Covid-19 vaccines:
Vaccines are categorized on the basis of the
development process adopted by scientists.
● mRNA Vaccines:
○ Pfizer and Moderna vaccines
developed in the US are mRNA
vaccines.
○ In this type, vaccines will carry the
molecular instructions to make the
protein in the body through a
synthetic RNA of the virus.
○ The host body uses this to produce
the viral protein that is recognized
and thereby making the body
mount an immune response against
the disease.
● Viral Vector Vaccines:
○ Johnson & Johnson, Sputnik V and
AstraZeneca-Oxford University
vaccine is a kind of viral vector
vaccine.
○ In this type, a modified version of
other viruses (for example,
adenovirus) is used.
○ The virus can enter human cells but
not replicate inside.
○ A gene for the coronavirus vaccine
was added into the adenovirus
DNA, allowing the vaccine to target
the spike proteins that SARS-CoV-2
uses to enter human cells.
● Inactivated Vaccines:
○ Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin and
Sinovac-CoronaVac is categorised
as an inactivated vaccine. In this
type, an inactivated live virus is
used to create an immune response
against the disease.
● Spike Protein Vaccines:
○ Corbevax is a recombinant protein
subunit vaccine.
○ The vaccine is being indigenously
produced by Biological E,
Hyderabad-based Pharmaceutical
company.
○ The Corbevax vaccine is made up of
a specific part of SARS-CoV-2 — the
spike protein on the virus’s surface.
○ The members of the coronavirus
family have sharp bumps that
protrude from the surface of their
outer envelopes. Those bumps are
known as spike proteins.
○ These spike proteins allow the virus
to enter the cells in the body so that
it can replicate and cause disease.
○ However, in Corbevax Vaccine the
spike protein alone is given to the
body. So, it is not expected to be
harmful as the rest of the virus is
absent. The body is expected to
develop an immune response
against the injected spike protein.
○ Therefore, when the real virus
attempts to infect the body, it will
already have an immune response
ready that will make it unlikely for
the person to fall severely ill.
72. Consider the following statements with
reference to difference between DNA and RNA
Vaccines:
1. DNA vaccine is delivered through
plasmid vectors
2. RNA Vaccines are highly stable for
 storage and shipping
They might integrate They do not enter the
3. RNA Vaccines do not enter the cell with the natural cell nucleus and
nucleus and integrate with the host genome of the host. integrate with the
genome host genome.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
73. Which of the following statements is incorrect
A. 1 and 2 only
with reference to T cells?
B. 2 and 3 only
A. T cells mature and undergo positive
C. 1 and 3 only and negative selection processes in the
D. 1, 2 and 3 thymus.

Answer: C B. T cells play a vital role in cell-mediated

and humoral immunity.
Explanation:
C. T cells can recognize soluble, free
Statement 1 is correct: DNA vaccine is delivered
antigens.
through plasmid vectors
D. T cells can also recognize protein-
Statement 2 is incorrect: DNA Vaccines are highly
based, receptor-bound antigens.
stable for storage and shipping
Answer: C
Statement 3 is correct: RNA Vaccines do not enter
the cell nucleus and integrate with the host genome Explanation:

Additional info: Statement 1 is correct: T cells are a diverse and

important group of lymphocytes that mature and
Difference between DNA and RNA Vaccines
undergo positive and negative selection processes
DNA Vaccines RNA Vaccines in the thymus.
Statement 2 is correct: T cells play a vital role in
both components of active immunity, including
This vaccine This vaccine cell-mediated and to some extent humoral
transfects specific transfects mRNA to immunity.
DNA to create an create an immune Statement 3 is incorrect: T cells cannot recognize
immune response. response. soluble, free antigens.

DNA vaccine is RNA vaccine is Statement 4 is correct: T cells can only recognize
delivered through delivered through protein-based, receptor-bound antigens.
plasmid vectors. lipid nanoparticles. Additional info:
● T cells are a diverse and important group of
It is highly stable for It is comparatively lymphocytes that mature and undergo
storage and shipping. less stable. positive and negative selection processes in
the thymus.
 ● Types:
○ There are several types of T cells;
the most common and well-known
are the CD4+ T cells (helper T cells)
and CD8+ T Cells (cytotoxic T cells,
or killer T cells).
○ As the names suggest, helper T cells
‘help’ other cells of the immune
system, whilst cytotoxic T cells kill
virally infected cells and tumors.
74. Supercomputers are used in which of the
following fields?
1. Weather forecasting
2. Intelligence gathering and analysis
3. Data mining
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
● Supercomputers are primarily designed to
be used in enterprises and organizations
that require massive computing power.
○ For example: weather forecasting,
scientific research, intelligence
gathering and analysis, data mining
etc.
Additional info:
● Supercomputers refer to high-performance
computing systems that can perform
extremely complex and sophisticated
computations at a lightning-fast speed.
These machines are designed to handle
enormous amounts of data and process it in
real-time to solve critical problems.
● In recent years, the demand for
supercomputers has been steadily rising
across various industries, including
aerospace, defense, finance, healthcare, and
weather forecasting. Supercomputers are
being used to simulate complex weather
patterns, predict stock market trends,
design new drugs and vaccines, conduct
advanced research in fields such as
astrophysics and climate science, and even
create realistic virtual environments for
gaming and entertainment purposes.
● In India, the government has been actively
promoting the development and adoption
of supercomputers to support research and
innovation. The National Supercomputing
Mission (NSM) is a prime example of this
effort, aimed at providing access to high-
performance computing infrastructure to
scientists, researchers, and startups across
the country. Under the NSM, several
supercomputers have been installed in
various institutes and universities,
enabling scientists to conduct cutting-edge
research in areas such as genomics, particle
physics, and climate modeling.
75. Consider the following statements with
reference to Quantum Key Distribution
Technology:
1. It is a mechanism to develop secure
communication.
2. QKD is also used to transmit any
message data
3. The distribution of encryption keys is
the crucial factor for QKD technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It is a mechanism to develop
secure communication.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Quantum key
distribution is only used to produce and distribute
a key, not to transmit any message data. This key
can then be used with any chosen encryption
algorithm to encrypt (and decrypt) a message,
which can then be transmitted over a standard
communication channel.
Statement 3 is correct: The distribution of
encryption keys is the crucial factor for QKD
technology.
Additional info:
What is Quantum Key Distribution Technology?
● QKD, also called Quantum Cryptography,
is a mechanism to develop secure
communication.
● It provides a way of distributing and
sharing secret keys that are necessary for
cryptographic protocols.
● The conventional cryptosystems used for
data-encryption rely on the complexity of
mathematical algorithms, whereas the
security offered by quantum
communication is based on the laws of
Physics.
75. Consider the following statements with
reference to LiDAR Technology:
1. LiDAR uses light across ultraviolet and
visible only
2. LiDAR can be easily used in dense
forests and thick vegetation.
3. It is also used for calculating
phytoplankton fluorescence
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: LiDAR uses light across
different wavelengths including ultraviolet,
visible, or near-infrared light to image objects and
it’s, as such, able to detect all kinds of material
compositions, including non-metals, rocks, rain,
chemical compounds, aerosols, clouds and even
single molecules.
Statement 2 is incorrect: LiDAR is not suitable to
be used in dense forests and thick vegetation.
Statement 3 is correct: It is used for calculating
phytoplankton fluorescence and biomass in the
surface of the ocean.
Additional info:
What is LiDAR?
LiDAR stands for Light Detection and Ranging. It
is a ranging technology in which the distance of an
object is measured by firing beams of light at the
object and using the time as well as the wavelength
of the reflected beam of light to estimate the
distance. These light pulses – when combined with
other data help in generating high-resolution,
accurate 3D information of the object.
76. Which of the following statements is incorrect
with reference to 3D printing?
A. A 3D printer makes a three-dimensional
object from a CAD (computer-aided
design) file.
B. 3D printing uses liquid ink for the purpose.
C. 3D printing can manufacture parts within
hours, which speeds up the prototyping
process.
D. 3D printing is also being used in the
medical sector
Answer: B
Statement 1 is correct: A 3D printer makes a three-
dimensional object from a CAD (computer-aided
design) file.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Where an inkjet printer
sprays liquid ink and a laser printer uses solid
powder, a 3D printer uses neither.
● The 3-D printer deposits layers of molten
plastic or powder and fuses them together
(and to the existing structure) with
adhesive or ultraviolet light.
The most common 3D printing raw materials are
the commodity thermoplastic polymers:
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS), Polylactic
acid (PLA), Polyethylene terephthalate glycol-
modified (PETG).
Statement 3 is correct: 3D printing can
manufacture parts within hours, which speeds up
the prototyping process.
Statement 4 is correct: 3D printing is also being
used in the medical sector.
Additional info:
What is 3D Printing?
● 3D printing uses computer-aided design
(CAD) to create three-dimensional objects
through a layering method.
Principle
● In 3D printing, a 3D printer makes a three-
dimensional object from a CAD (computer-
aided design) file.
● The creation of a 3D printed object is
achieved using additive processes.
● In an additive process an object is created
by laying down successive layers of
material until the object is created.
● Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly
sliced cross-section of the object.
● 3D printing enables us to produce complex
shapes using less material than traditional
manufacturing methods.
77. Which of the following is India's first
indigenous server?
A. Trinetra
B. Rudra
C. Param
D. Shivay
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing (C-DAC), under the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY),
has designed and developed the Rudra I server
towards its efforts to make a supercomputer.
78. RADAR has applications and uses in which of
the following?
 1. Law enforcement
2. Space
3. Remote sensing of environment
4. Aircraft navigation
5. Air Traffic Controller
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Applications and uses of Radar are given below:
● Military.
● Law enforcement.
● Space.
● Remote sensing of environment.
● Aircraft navigation.
● Ship Navigation.
● Air Traffic Controller.
Additional info:
About Radar:
● Radar, which stands for Radio Detection
and Ranging, is a technique used to detect
and locate objects through the use of radio
waves. It works by transmitting radio
waves from an antenna and then
measuring the reflected waves that bounce
back off a target object.
● Radar technology has many applications
including in the military for detecting
enemy aircraft, in weather forecasting for
measuring precipitation, and in air traffic
control for monitoring commercial flights.
It is also used in automotive safety features
such as collision avoidance systems.
79. Under Drone Regulation 1.0, which of the
following are restricted locations for flying the
Drones?
1. Airports
2. Near international border
3. Near coast line
4. Military installations
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
As per Drone Regulation 1.0 issued by the Ministry
of Civil Aviation in India in 2018, there are a few
restrictions on flying drones in certain locations.
These restricted locations include:
• Within 5 km of an airport or airport
boundary
• Within 25 km from international
borders, including the Line of Control
(LoC), Line of Actual Control (LAC),
and Actual Ground Position Line
(AGPL)
• Within 500 m of a military installation
or strategic location
• Within 50 km from the coast-line
• Temporary no-fly zones, as declared
by the local administration or the
Ministry of Home Affairs.
Additional information:
Drone Regulation 1.0
• Under this regulation, the Digital Sky
Platform will enable online
registration of pilots, devices, service
providers, and NPNT (no permission,
no take-off).
• The Digital Sky Platform is a unique
unmanned traffic management (UTM)
system which is expected to facilitate
registration and licensing of drones
and operators in addition to giving
instant (online) clearances to operators
for every flight.
• The airspace has been partitioned into
Red Zone (flying not permitted),
Yellow Zone (controlled airspace), and
Green Zone (automatic permission).
The restricted locations are airports,
near international border, near coast
line, state secretariat complexes,
strategic locations, military
installations.
80. Which of the following statements with
reference to Drone is incorrect?
A. There is no restriction on civilian drone
operations.
B. There can’t be any human or animal
payloads, or anything hazardous.
C. It cannot in any manner cause danger
to people or property and insurance
will be mandatory to cover third-party
damage.
D. Except nano drones and those owned
by National Technical Research
Organisation and the central agencies,
the rest would be registered and issued
a Unique Identification Number.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: All civilian drone
operations will be restricted to only during day
time and a maximum of 400 feet altitude.
Statement 2 is correct: There can’t be any human
or animal payloads, or anything hazardous.
Statement 3 is correct: It cannot in any manner
cause danger to people or property and insurance
will be mandatory to cover third-party damage.
Statement 4 is correct: Except nano drones and
those owned by National Technical Research
Organisation and the central agencies, the rest
would be registered and issued a Unique
Identification Number.
81. Which of the following is a Disadvantages of
Robotics?
A. In many situations robots can increase
productivity, efficiency, quality and
consistency of products.
B. Robots can work in environments
which are unsafe for humans as they
don’t have the same environmental
requirements that humans do – such as
lighting, air conditioning or noise
protection.
C. Robots have some sensors/actuators
which are more capable than humans.
D. Robots can only do what they are told
to do.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 4 is correct: Robots can only do what
they are told to do – they can’t improvise is a
disadvantage of robotics.
Disadvantages:
 • The use of robots can create economic
problems if they replace human jobs.
• Robots can only do what they are told to do
– they can’t improvise
• This means that safety procedures are
needed to protect humans and other robots.
• Although robots can be superior to humans
in some ways, they are less dexterous than
humans.
o Robotics lack emotional
intelligence, which plays a critical
role in intense situations.
• Often robots are very costly – in terms of
the initial cost, maintenance, the need for
extra components and the need to be
programmed to do the task.
• Surveillance concerns pose a problem of
entering a privacy nightmare.
82. Which of the following statements is incorrect
with reference to AURA?
A. It is an autonomous unmanned combat
air vehicle (UCAV)
B. It is being developed by the Defence
Research and Development
Organisation for the Indian Air Force
and Indian Navy.
C. The UCAV will be capable of releasing
missiles, bombs and precision-guided
munitions.
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All the statements are correct.
● AURA is an autonomous unmanned
combat air vehicle (UCAV), being
developed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation for the Indian
Air Force and Indian Navy. The UCAV will
be capable of releasing missiles, bombs and
precision-guided munitions.
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Chaturobot are Vision sensors to pick
objects
2. smartNAV is a robot for navigating the
moon surface in the next manned mission
(ISRO)
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Chaturobot: Vision sensors
to pick objects (DRDO+CAIR.) Centre for Artificial
Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR) is the premier
laboratory for R&D in different areas in
Information and Communication Technology
(ICT) as applicable to Defence.
Statement 2 is correct: smartNAV is a robot for
navigating the moon surface in the next manned
mission (ISRO)
84. As per Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS)
Rules, 2020 consider the following:
1. Only entities authorized by the
Directorate General of Civil Aviation
can own or operate drones.
 2. No drone can be operated in India B. 3 and 4 only
unless there is the existence of a valid C. 2 and 4 only
third-party insurance policy.
3. For owning and using a drone, one has D. 1, 2 and 3
to be at least 21 years of age. Answer: D
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Explanation:
A. 1 and 2 only A disease is a condition that is marked by 3 basic
B. 2 and 3 only factors.

C. 1 and 3 only ● An established biological cause behind the

condition
D. 1, 2 and 3
● A defined group of symptoms
Answer: A
● Consistent change in anatomy due to the
Explanation: condition.
Statement 1 is correct: Only entities authorized by
the Directorate General of Civil Aviation can own
86. Antibiotics can be used to treat which of the
or operate drones.
following?
Statement 2 is correct: No drone can be operated
1. Strep throat
in India unless there is the existence of a valid third
party insurance policy. 2. Whooping cough

Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum age for 3. Flu

using and owning a drone is 18 years and not 21 4. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
years.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
85. A disease is a condition marked by which of
B. 3 only
the following basic factors?
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
1. An established biological cause behind
the condition D. 2, 3 and 4 only

2. A defined group of symptoms Answer: C

3. Consistent change in anatomy due to Explanation:

the condition. Antibiotics ONLY treat certain infections caused
4. Leading to feelings of energy depletion by bacteria, such as:
or exhaustion ● Strep throat
Which of the statements given above is/are ● Whooping cough
correct?
● Urinary tract infection (UTI)
A. 1 only
Antibiotics are also needed to treat life-threatening ● It refers to the amount of genetic material,
conditions caused by bacteria, such as sepsis, commonly RNA, of a virus present in an
which is the body’s extreme response to infection. infected person’s blood.
Antibiotics DO NOT work on viruses, such as ● This is expressed as the total number of
those that cause: viral particles present in each milliliter of
blood.
● Colds and runny noses, even if the mucus
is thick, yellow, or green ● A higher viral load in the blood means that
the virus is replicating and the infection is
● Most sore throats (except strep throat)
progressing.
● Flu
● An infected person with a high viral load is
● Most cases of chest colds (bronchitis) more likely to shed more virus particles, in
the process known as “viral shedding”.
87. Consider the following statements: ● Ct Value:
1. Viral Load refers to the amount of ○ Ct is short for ‘Cycle Threshold’.
genetic material of a virus present in an
○ The Ct value refers to the number of
infected person’s blood.
cycles after which the virus can be
2. Severity of the disease has a stronger detected.
relationship with Ct values
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation: ○ If a higher number of cycles is
required, it implies that the virus
Statement 1 is correct: Viral Load refers to the
went undetected when the number
amount of genetic material of a virus present in an
of cycles was lower.
infected person’s blood.
○ The lower the Ct value, the higher
Statement 2 is incorrect: The time since the onset
the viral load-because the virus has
of symptoms has a stronger relationship with Ct
been spotted after fewer cycles.
values as compared to the severity of the disease.
○ It has been found that the time since
Additional info:
the onset of symptoms has a
What is Viral Load? stronger relationship with Ct
 values as compared to the severity resistance to a disease
of the disease. 3. Immunization is the process of making
one resistant to an infectious disease
88. Greek alphabets were used as labels for Covid usually through vaccination.
strains. Consider the following pairs of Greek 4. Complete immunity does not occur
alphabets and the countries where the earliest even when the person fully recovers
samples were detected: from the disease.
1. Alpha- United Kingdom Which of the statements is/are correct?
2. Beta- Brazil A. 1 and 2 only
3. Gamma- South Africa B. 3 and 4 only
4. Delta- India C. 2 and 4 only
Which of the pairs is correctly matched? D. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 and 2 only Answer: D
B. 3 and 4 only Explanation:
C. 2 and 3 only Statement 1 is correct: Vaccination is usually
D. 1 and 4 only injected or administered orally

Answer: D Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaccination does not

guarantee complete resistance to a disease
Explanation:
Statement 3 is correct: Immunization is the process
● Alpha: VOC B.1.1.7, samples earliest
of making one resistant to an infectious disease
documented in United Kingdom
usually through vaccination.
(September 2020)
Statement 4 is incorrect: Complete immunity
● Beta: VOC B.1.351, samples earliest
occurs when the person fully recovers from the
documented in South Africa (May 2020)
disease
● Gamma: VOC P.1, samples earliest
Additional info:
documented in Brazil (November 2020)
Difference Between Vaccination and
● Delta: B.1.617.2, samples earliest
Immunization.
documented in India (October 2020)
Vaccination Immunization

89. Consider the following statements with The process involves The process of making
reference to difference Between Vaccination and using vaccines to one resistant to an
Immunization: trigger an immune infectious disease
1. Vaccination is usually injected or response to protect usually through
administered orally against vaccination.
infections/diseases.
2. Vaccination guarantees complete
 ● Supercomputers have become important
It is usually injected It is not administered
tools for research and development
or administered in any way. The body
activities in various fields like aerospace,
orally. develops resistance
climate modelling, molecular modelling,
from vaccines.
sequencing etc. In India, the use of
Imovax Rabies is the The body builds up supercomputers has been increasing
trade name for rabies immunity through this rapidly with the launch of various
vaccine. vaccine for the disease initiatives by the government in the last
rabies. few years. This article will discuss various
aspects of supercomputers in India and
Vaccination does not Complete immunity their role in the development of the nation.
guarantee complete occurs when the
● The National Supercomputing Mission
resistance to a person fully recovers
(NSM) launched by the government in 2015
disease. from the disease.
aims to develop the supercomputing
Usually, if mutation Similarly, variations of infrastructure of the country and make it
happens to microbes, a disease impact the available to the scientific and research
it might render the body’s ability to community at affordable prices. The NSM
vaccine ineffective generate an immune is a joint initiative of the Department of
(this is the reason response. Science and Technology and Department of
why common cold Electronics and Information Technology.
has no vaccine). ● The first supercomputer in India was
PARAM 8000, developed by the Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-
90. Which of the following countries has the DAC) in Pune. Since then, India has made
maximum number of supercomputers? significant progress in the field of
A. US supercomputers. The two most powerful
supercomputers in the country are Param-
B. China
Siddhi-AI and Mihir in India. Param-
C. Japan Siddhi-AI, launched in September 2020, is
D. France India’s fastest and AI-enabled
supercomputer with a peak computing
Answer: B power of 5.267 petaflops, while Mihir can
Explanation: provide a peak computing power of 1.5
petaflops.
Globally, China has the maximum number of
supercomputers and maintains the top position in ● Many government and research
the world, followed by the US, Japan, France, organizations in India have their own
Germany, Netherlands, Ireland and the United supercomputing facilities, including Indian
Kingdom. Institute of Technology (IIT), Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO), Council of
Additional info:
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR),
Supercomputers in India:
 Defence Research and Development
Organization (DRDO) and others. These
facilities not only support the research
activities in India but also enable
collaborations with international research
teams.
● Supercomputers in India have been used
for various purposes like the development
of COVID-19 vaccines, weather forecasting,
climate modelling, drug discovery,
genomic research etc. For instance, the
supercomputer facility at IIT-Kharagpur is
being used to develop an artificial
intelligence-based system that can predict
the level of pollution in the air using
satellite images. It has also been used to
develop a tool that can predict the spread
of the coronavirus in different regions of
the country.
91. Consider the following statements:
1. Surface Web only constitutes 4-6% of the
whole web.
2. Dark web is a network built over the
Internet
3. Darknet refers to websites on the dark web.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Surface Web only
constitutes 4-6% of the whole web.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dark net is a network
built over the Internet
Statement 3 is incorrect: Dark web refers to
websites on a darknet.
Additional info:
Dark Net, Deep Web and Surface Web
● "Dark net" is commonly confused with
"deep web." The deep web refers to
unindexed sites which are unsearchable; in
most cases, this is because those sites are
protected by passwords.
● Part of the WWW (World Wide Web)
which is not indexed by a search engine like
Google is the Deep Web and it is about 500-
600 times larger than the surface web.
● Surface Web -Also called the Visible Web,
Indexed Web, Indexable Web or Lightnet -
is that portion of the World Wide Web that
is readily available to the general public
and searchable with standard web search
engines. It is the opposite of the deep web.
It only constitutes 4-6% of the whole web.
92. Which of the following is/are advantages of
Optical Fibre Communication?
1. Economical and cost-effective
2. Thin and non-flammable
3. Less power consumption
4. Less signal degradation
5. Flexible and lightweight
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
What is an Optical Fibre?
● Optical fibre is the technology associated
with data transmission using light pulses
traveling along with a long fibre which is
usually made of plastic or glass. Metal
wires are preferred for transmission in
optical fibre communication as signals
travel with fewer damages. Optical fibres
are also unaffected by electromagnetic
interference.
● The fibre optical cable uses the application
of total internal reflection of light. The
fibres are designed such that they facilitate
the propagation of light along with the
optical fibre depending on the requirement
of power and distance of transmission.
● Single-mode fibre is used for long-distance
transmission, while multimode fibre is
used for shorter distances. The outer
cladding of these fibres needs better
protection than metal wires.
93. Consider the following statements with
reference to BharatNet project:
1. The aim of the project is to connect gram
panchayats through broadband
2. It is a flagship mission implemented by
Bharat Broadband Network Ltd. (BBNL).
3. BharatNet is the first ever project to achieve
its target before the end of timeline.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct: The aim of the project is to
connect gram panchayats through broadband
Statement 2 is correct: It is a flagship mission
implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Ltd.
(BBNL).
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is a delay in the
Bharatnet project, aimed at connecting gram
panchayats through broadband, which has
resulted in a cost escalation from Rs 20,100 crore to
Rs 61,109 crore. This is partly due to the
ineffectiveness of Bharat Broadband Network
(BBNL), the entity set up to implement the project
to connect 250,000 gram panchayats with optic
fibre, for high-speed broadband connectivity. With
BBNL not delivering the desired results, the
government now plans to merge BBNL with BSNL.
The merger is expected to yield better synergies
and coordination.
Additional info:
About BharatNet:
• BharatNet Project was originally launched
in 2011 as the National Optical Fibre
Network(NOFN) and renamed as Bharat-
Net in 2015.
• It seeks to provide connectivity to 2.5 lakh
Gram Panchayats (GPs) through optical
fibre.
• It is a flagship mission implemented by
Bharat Broadband Network Ltd. (BBNL).
• The objective is to facilitate the delivery of
e-governance, e-health, e-education, e-
banking, Internet and other services to
rural India.
The larger vision of the project is:
 • To establish a highly scalable network 1. Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made
infrastructure accessible on a non- nanoscale crystals that can transport
discriminatory basis. electrons.
• To provide on demand, affordable 2. The properties of a quantum dot are only
broadband connectivity of 2 Mbps to 20 determined by its size
Mbps for all households and on demand Which of the statements given above is/are
capacity to all institutions. correct?
• To realise the vision of Digital India, in A. 1 only
partnership with States and the private
B. 2 only
sector.
C. Both 1 and 2

94. Which of the following is/are the D. Neither 1 nor 2

characteristics of Lasers? Answer: A
1. Superior Monochromatism Explanation:
2. Superior Directivity Statement 1 is correct: Quantum dots (QDs) are
3. Superior Coherence man-made nanoscale crystals that can transport
electrons.
4. High Output
Statement 2 is incorrect: The properties of a
Select the correct code: quantum dot are not only determined by its size
A. 1 and 2 only but also by its shape
B. 3 only Additional info:
C. 1 and 4 only What are quantum dots?
D. 1,2,3 and 4 ● Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made
nanoscale crystals that can transport
Answer: D
electrons.
Explanation:
● When UV light hits these semiconducting
We can separate the characteristics of laser beam nanoparticles, they can emit light of
into four major categories as: various colors.
• Superior Monochromatism ● These artificial semiconductor
• Superior Directivity nanoparticles that have found applications
in composites, solar cells and fluorescent
• Superior Coherence
biological labels.
• High Output
● Nanoparticles of semiconductors –
quantum dots – were theorized in the 1970s
95. Consider the following statements with and initially created in the early 1980s.
reference to Quantum Dots:
 ● If semiconductor particles are made small Additional information:
enough, quantum effects come into play, What is Biotechnology?
which limit the energies at which electrons
Biotechnology uses living cells to develop or
and holes (the absence of an electron) can
manipulate products for specific purposes, such as
exist in the particles.
genetically modified foods. Biotechnology is thus
● As energy is related to wavelength (or linked to genetic engineering and emerged as a
color), this means that the optical field in its own right at the beginning of the 20th
properties of the particle can be finely century in the food industry, which was later
tuned depending on its size. joined by other sectors such as medicine and the
● Thus, particles can be made to emit or environment.
absorb specific wavelengths (colors) of Types of Biotechnology
light, merely by controlling their size.
1. Red biotechnology.: This is the health
branch and responsible, according to the
96. Consider the following types of Biotechnology Innovation Organization
Biotechnologies: (BIO), for the development of more than
250 vaccines and medications such as
1. Red Biotechnology: Industrial
antibiotics, regenerative therapies and the
Biotechnology
production of artificial organs.
2. White Biotechnology: Medical
2. Green biotechnology. It is used by more
Biotechnology
than 13 million farmers worldwide to fight
3. Green Biotechnology: Agricultural pests and nourish crops and strengthen
Biotechnology them against microorganisms and extreme
4. Blue Biotechnology: Marine Biotechnology weather events, such as droughts and
frosts.
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
3. White biotechnology. The industrial
A. 1 and 2 only
branch works to improve manufacturing
B. 3 and 4 only processes, the development of biofuels and
C. 1 and 3 only other technologies to make industry more
efficient and sustainable.
D. 2 and 4 only
4. Yellow biotechnology. This branch is
Answer: B
focused on food production and, for
Explanation: example, it carries out research to reduce
Pairs 1 and 2 are interchanged as shown below: the levels of saturated fats in cooking oils.
Its main function is to genetically improve
Red Biotechnology: Medical Biotechnology
products so that there is a higher quantity
White Biotechnology: Industrial Biotechnology or quality of food
Green Biotechnology: Agricultural Biotechnology 5. Blue biotechnology. This exploits marine
Blue Biotechnology: Marine Biotechnology resources to obtain aquaculture, cosmetics
and health care products. At the
 environmental level, the aim is to preserve
marine species and ecosystems. In
addition, it is the branch most widely used
to obtain biofuels from certain microalgae.
6. Grey biotechnology. Its purpose is the
conservation and restoration of
contaminated natural ecosystems through,
as mentioned above, bioremediation
processes.
7. Gold biotechnology. Also known as
bioinformatics, it is responsible for
obtaining, storing, analysing and
separating biological information,
especially that related to DNA and amino
acid sequences.
To these typologies, four further sub-categories
with corresponding colours have more recently
been added:
1. Brown biotechnology. This comes from
green biotechnology with the aim of taking
advantage of arid and desert soils to
include highly resistant plant species that
increase the flora and biodiversity of these
environments.
2. Purple biotechnology. It deals with the
legal study of the very aspects of this
science. They are closely related to
intellectual property, patents and the
biosafety of processes involving living
organisms.
3. Orange biotechnology. This includes the
dissemination of information of interest to
the other branches. it is carried out both in
the fields of education and scientific
dissemination with new advances in
biotechnologies.
4. Black biotechnology. This includes all
research work on micro-organisms that can
be manipulated to attack human health. Its
main activities are related to biological
warfare and bioterrorism.
97. Which of the following is/are Gene editing
techniques?
1. Zinc Finger Nucleases
2. TALENs Gene Editing
3. CRISPR-Cas9 Gene Editing
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Restriction Enzymes: The Original Genome Editor
• The ability to edit genes became a
reality with the discovery of
restriction enzymes in the 1970s.
• Restriction enzymes recognize
specific patterns of nucleotide
sequences and cut at that site,
• presenting an opportunity to insert
new DNA material at that location.
Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs)
• Recognized the site better to edit, as
off-target effects could be deleterious.
TALENs Gene Editing: Single Nucleotide
Resolution
CRISPR-Cas9 Gene Editing: Genome Editing
Revolutionized
• There are several gene editing
methods, but a tool called CRISPR-
Cas9 has sparked a boom in research
 as laboratories worldwide adopted it
over the past five years because it’s
faster, cheaper, simple to use with
minimal training and allows
manipulation of multiple genes at the
same time.
• Crisper-scan the genome looking for
right location
• Then Cas9 protein(enzyme)
molecular scissor
98. Consider the following statements:
1. DNA present outside our genes in the
genomic space, which does not encode the
proteins is called the Dark Genome.
2. Dark Genomes have evolved portions of
coding proteins which can be used to
distinguish between schizophrenia and
bipolar disorders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Dark Genome
• The human genome is conventionally
divided into the “coding” genome, which
generates the ~20,000 annotated human
protein coding genes, and the “dark”
genome, which does not encode proteins.
• The dark genome is a vast space,
accounting for the ~98.5% of genomic space
where repeat elements, enhancers,
regulatory sequences, and non-coding
RNAs reside.
Statement 2 is correct: Researchers investigating
the “dark genome” report that they have
discovered recently evolved regions that code for
proteins associated with schizophrenia and bipolar
disorder. They say these new proteins can be used
as as biological indicators to distinguish between the
two conditions, and to identify patients more
prone to psychosis or suicide.
Additional information:
• Hotspots in the dark genome associated
with the disorders may have evolved
because they have beneficial functions in
human development, but their disruption
by environmental factors leads to
susceptibility to, or development of,
schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.
• The researchers think that these genomic
components of schizophrenia and bipolar
disorder are specific to humans—the newly
discovered regions are not found in the
genomes of other vertebrates.
99. Consider the following statements:
1. In Artificial Intelligence Model based
agent deals with the happy and
unhappy state
2. An Artificial Intelligence system that is
created to complete a particular task is
known as Strong AI
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
● According to computer science, Artificial
Intelligence is the study of "intelligent
agents" or "rational agents and their
environment".
● Agent: Agent is those that work or act in
their environment. Environment: It is the
surrounding of an agent. An agent takes
input from the environment through
sensors & delivers the output to the
environment through actuators.
● Simple reflex agent acts on the basis of
current percept and ignores percept history
i.e. all the history an agent has perceived till
date. Model-based agents have a model i.e.
knowledge about how things happen in the
whole world & based on the model it
performs actions.
● Learning agents learn from past
experiences and automatically adapt
through learning. It has learning
capabilities. Utility-based agents choose
actions on the basis of utilities or preference
and chooses the actions that maximize the
expected utility.
● Utility describes the happiness of the agent.
Hence, Utility-based agents deal with
happy & unhappy agents.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
● An Artificial Intelligence system that is
created to complete a particular task is
known as Weak artificial intelligence.
● Weak Al, also known as narrow Al, is a
type of artificial intelligence that is
developed and taught to do a single job.
Weak Al is used by industrial robots and
virtual personal assistants like Apple's Siri.
● Strong artificial intelligence (Al), often
known as artificial general intelligence
(AGI), refers to programming that can
mimic the cognitive capacities of the
human brain.
100. Which of the following is/are the
applications of Machine Learning?
1. Sales forecasting for different products
2. Fraud analysis in banking
3. Product recommendations
4. Stock price prediction
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Applications of Machine learning:
● Speech recognition: Machine learning is
extensively used in developing speech
recognition software applications like Siri
or Alexa. These speech recognition
applications enable machines to recognize,
understand, and interpret human speech,
making it easier for us to interface with
technology.
● Image processing: Machine learning has
great use in image processing applications.
It helps in object detection, object
segmentation, and image recognition.
 Applications of this technology are seen in ● Machine learning is a discipline of
security cameras that can recognize computer science that uses computer
people’s faces and cars that can detect algorithms and analytics to build
dangerous driving conditions. predictive models that can solve business
problems.
● Fraud detection: Machine learning
algorithms can be used to detect anomalies
and fraud in various financial transactions.
For instance, credit card companies use
machine learning to detect unusual
patterns of usage that could indicate fraud.
● Medical diagnosis: Doctors can use
machine learning algorithms to analyze
large amounts of medical data and
interpret the results. This information can
be extremely useful in diagnosing diseases
or predicting diseases that may occur in the
future.
● Recommendation systems:
Recommendation systems are becoming
increasingly popular in e-commerce and
entertainment applications. Machine
learning algorithms can be used to analyze
user data and provide recommendations
for products or services based on their
previous purchases and interests.
● Customer service: Machine learning can
help automate customer service
applications by providing users with
personalized recommendations or
responses based on their previous
interactions.
● Natural language processing: Natural
language processing is a field of machine
learning used to build intelligent chatbots
and virtual assistants. These applications
can answer questions, make
recommendations, and provide
personalized assistance to users.