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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 41

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b) Option B) Refer to the lines, ‘Indian hockey captain
Harmanpreet Singh has walked into every role
assigned to him with quiet confidence and made it
his own.’ The following lines from the first
paragraph suggest the player’s capability to quickly
adapt to varied circumstances. The entire passage
mentions Harmanpreet’s composure and maturity
on the field. . Refer to the lines, ‘He's quite quiet in
the eye of the storm, which is good, and we need that
— in his leadership and position. He also plays
many minutes and is important for us," India coach
Craig Fulton says.’
Thus, Option B is correct. 3.
Option A) is merely an idea that may or may not be
true with no reference to the argument emphasizing
his early entry as a game-changer in the passage,
which the question demands.
Option C) While the option is partially true, it is not
suggested anywhere in the passage that
Harmanpreet becomes aggressive on the field.
Option D) The options does not address the main
aspect as to why he should be the captain of the
hockey team. It merely points to a fact.
2. (c) Option C) The understanding from a preliminary
reading is that hockey player Harmanpreet has
grabbed the media attention and gained popularity
since his onset as a sports person. The author
mentions that it was Harmanpreet’s versatility and
sportsman spirit that grabbed media and people’s
attention. His performance has spoken for itself in
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the last nine years, making him one of the players
that delivered consistent performance.
Option A) There is no hint of a dazed tone in the
sentence. The author is amazed but not bewildered
and amazed simultaneously, as the word dazed me
also, the option hints as a deliberate ploy on the part
of Harmanpreet Singh.
Option B) The speculation of whether the player will
continue to be under the spotlight must be backed by
hints as to why he would or wouldn’t be able to hold
the position. It is far-fetched; hence, incorrect.
Option D) The option does not make sense as it
portrays Harmanpreet in a bad light. Such an
intention is not stated by the author.
(b) Option B) The passage’s last line concentrates on
how he decided to become a drag-flick quite early.
Option B runs along the player’s decision
chronologically as to how the player chose to score
his position by impressing the coaches at the tryouts,
whence he was identified; his practice made him a
fulfilling drag-flicker.
Option A) outlines the player’s role as an Olympian.
Comparatively, the role-taking as an Olympian
comes second to becoming a good drag-flicker.
Even avoiding missing out on matches is secondary.
Option C) is quite close to the idea of the personality
climbing his way up to an impression in the Hockey
arena. This idea would surely follow, but perhaps, to
Option B, the player initially being displayed as
having been selected and practicing and later
learning through his games. Even if true, it does not
further the concluding lines that talk about a
particular style, of being a drag flicker. This option
Page 1 of 20
 talks about his personality trait. It also deviates in 7.
terms of the coaches being impressed with him.
Option D) The last lines of the given extract focus
more on the player’s developing physique and
adapting to being a drag-flicker. It touches on the
idea of work-in-progress. Option D is more of a
finely sculpted character in closing. It is along the
lines of describing the last quick polish.
4. (d) Option D) culmination means conclusion. With the
substitution of this word, the sentence would be
complete. It would mean that the player’s captaincy
resulted from his aggregate efforts.
Option A) compilation is of certain things. The
ingredients of such compilation must follow it. The
sentence needs to include the components.
Compilation is a process in itself and cannot fit into
the sentence.
Option B) Conjugation means combination. For any
such unification, there must be more than one thing
or process. It must be followed by more than a single
long-standing process.
Option C) Cumulation is slightly different from
culmination and often confused with the other.
Cumulation means building up something, and the
culmination is building toward a climax. Being a
senior-team hockey captain is a climactic event that
attracts culmination rather than cumulation, which
would befit a development toward plainly becoming 8.
a good player.
5. (a) Option A) The key to the identification is the verbs.
‘has been’-the main verb- falls directly under the
present particle verb form for identifying the
structural basis for tense. ‘is’ is an auxiliary verb and
not to be considered for tense identification here.
‘disappointing’ is an adjective, ‘during’ a
preposition’ and ‘notwithstanding’ conjunction.
Option B) past perfect would contain the verb's had
+ been/ had + participle form.
Option C) Simple Past tense would contain merely
the past form of a verb or ‘was.’
Option D) Present perfect continuous tense equals
has/have + been + -ing form of the verb.
6. (d) Option D) The mention of LEDs is in reference to
being a facilitator in reducing the effects of
anthropogenic light on the natural environment, not
that they obstruct the migration of certain nocturnal
species. The statement in Option D is wrong,
making it the correct option.
Option A) Refer to the line, ‘Commonly
recommended solutions to mitigating the ecological 9.
effects of anthropogenic light include’ . This line
suggests that this light pollution problem can be
controlled.
Option B) and C) are rephrased versions of the line
– ‘Sky brightness has increased over time, eroding
natural darkness and encroaching on protected
terrestrial and marine areas.’ Hence, an incorrect
option given that they are true.
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(b) Option B) The passage is focused on what light
pollution is and its cause –artificial light – which
leads to several environmental problems on the
climate and the species. Hence, the appropriate title.
Option A) For declaring the problem to be
underestimated, there needs to be a comparison of
the extent of opinionated and the actual effect
drawing a juxtaposition. The passage primarily
lacks this estimation. This cannot be the answer, for
the author mentions serious consequences of the
anthropogenic lights on the ecosystem. It is not an
underestimated (misjudged) ecological problem.
Refer to the lines, ‘These reviews line up numerous
studies that have led to substantially more
knowledge about the effects on different species
groups, the diverse nature of such effects, and how
they manifest across trophic levels, thereby
increasing awareness about this environmental
problem.’ It is clear from these lines that the effects
of anthropological lights are in full estimation.
Option C) How light pollution started, to what
extent might it go, and other time-related pronouns
and prepositions would hint at such a title. The
passage is absent of such mentions.
Option D) The is not the subject of discussion in the
passage. The passage talks about the deleterious
effects of anthropological lights on the ecology.
(c) Option C) ‘Many bird species in temperate zones
depend on the accurate seasonal timing of breeding
and the daily timing of song activity and foraging,
so light disturbance of this temporal organization is
problematic.’ This would mean that with the
changes in the breeding season, the hatchling would
take birth in different seasonal weather leading to
the logical conclusion that the adaptation would not
succeed, or at least doubts about it. Additionally, the
mortality rate of the birds increases with these
changes, and thus the bird population is in danger.
Option A) The second paragraph states the opposite.
The researchers are confident about what effects this
anthropogenic light has.
Option B) This statement cannot be inferred from
the passage. The author does mention the deleterious
effects of anthropological lights on certain bird
species and high mortality of seabird fledglings, but
such an extreme outcome does not find a mention.
Option D) is the direct opposite of the effect of
artificial light on sky brightness, which would
increase sky brightness, not decrease it.
(a) Option A) Conservationist is an environmentalist.
The passage focuses on the sky’s brightness,
atmosphere, pollution, etc.
Option B) researcher is too vague an answer; a
researcher can be of any field.
Option C) The language and the content point
towards the author being an environmentalist, rather
than being a journalist.
Page 2 of 20
 Option D) An astronomer would focus on space
physics, science, matter, etc., which is far from the
information given in the passage.
10. (c) Option C) Expository style is used to explain a
concept or information to a broader audience by
providing evidence, statistics or results on the facts
of a certain topics.
Option A) Narrative essays declare a sequence of
events with a plot like nature. This passage is not a
replica of the said. Thus, this is an incorrect answer.
Option B) Descriptive is more about the expressive
essay displaying a scene/event through the five
senses. This passage is not a description of an event.
Option D) Subjective showcases the author’s
beliefs, preferences, perspectives, feelings and
opinions, while may not pay that much attention to
accuracy.
11. (a) A) Robert Grainier had a difficult and challenging
life.
This option is the correct answer because the
passage describes Robert Grainier's life as one of
hardship and challenge. He lived in the wilderness
of the Pacific Northwest and worked as a logger,
railroad laborer, and handyman, which were
physically demanding and often dangerous jobs.
Furthermore, he had never married, never had
children, and never sought anything beyond the
basic necessities of life. The passage also describes
how his dreams often haunted him, suggesting that
his life was not easy.
B) Robert Grainier's dreams were always based on
real-life experiences.
This option is incorrect because while Robert's
dreams were vivid and often unusual, there is no 13.
indication that they were always based on real-life
experiences. In fact, some of his dreams involved
ghostly apparitions, strange animals, and people
who had died long ago, suggesting that they were
not based on his own experiences.
C) Robert Grainier had a family who supported him.
This option is incorrect because there is no mention
of Robert Grainier having a family who supported
him. The passage describes him as a solitary figure
who lived and worked on his own. There is no
mention of any family members or support systems
in his life.
D) Robert Grainier was indifferent to the plight of
the Chinese workers.
This option is incorrect because the passage
describes how Robert was moved by his dream
about the Chinese workers and felt compelled to
help them by bringing them food and water, helping
them when they were sick or injured, and talking to
them whenever he could. This suggests that he was
not indifferent to their plight but rather empathetic
and caring.
12. (c) According to the passage, Robert Grainier was a
simple man, not given to flights of fancy or deep
introspection. He had lived his entire life in the
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wilderness of the Pacific Northwest, working as a
logger, a railroad laborer, and a handyman, but in his
dreams, he lived a surreal life that prompted him to
find a purpose beyond the simple existence. When
he had a dream about the Chinese workers, he felt
compelled to help them, as he saw in them a
reflection of his own experiences of hardship and
loss.
The dreams were the most likely reason that gave
him a sense of purpose.
A) He had always wanted to learn a new language
and saw this as an opportunity.
This option is incorrect because while Robert did
learn a few words of Chinese, there is no indication
that he saw this as an opportunity to learn a new
language. His efforts to communicate with the
workers were motivated by a sense of empathy and
kindness, rather than a desire to learn a new
language.
B) He was hoping to earn a better wage by working
with the Chinese workers.
This option is also incorrect because there is no
indication that Robert was hoping to earn a better
wage. In fact, he was already working as a logger,
railroad laborer, and handyman, and his efforts to
help the Chinese workers were voluntary.
D) He was bored with his current work and wanted
a change of pace.
This option is incorrect because there is no
indication that Robert was bored with his current
work. While he may have been looking for a sense
of purpose, his efforts to help the Chinese workers
were not motivated by a desire for a change of pace.
(a) A) Melancholic and reflective
This option is the correct answer because the
passage has a melancholic and reflective tone. The
passage describes Robert Grainier's life as one of
hardship and challenge, and his dreams are often
haunting and difficult. The passage also suggests a
sense of loneliness and emptiness in Robert's life, as
he had lived his entire life in the wilderness of the
Pacific Northwest, working physically demanding
and often dangerous jobs, and had never married or
had children. Furthermore, his efforts to help the
Chinese workers on the railroad are described as
having been inspired by a dream that touched him
emotionally and gave him a sense of purpose. This
suggests a reflective tone, as the passage explores
Robert's inner thoughts and emotions.
B) Angry and accusatory
This option is incorrect because there is no anger or
accusation in the passage. The passage does not
blame or accuse anyone of anything. The passage is
written in a descriptive style that presents Robert
Grainier's life and actions without any judgment or
moralizing.
C) Humorous and light-hearted
This option is also incorrect because there is no
humor or light-heartedness in the passage. The
Page 3 of 20
 passage deals with serious themes of hardship, loss,
and empathy. There is no indication of any
humorous or light-hearted elements in the passage.
D) Sarcastic and mocking
This option is also incorrect because there is no 15.
sarcasm or mockery in the passage. The passage is
written in a straightforward and descriptive style,
without any hint of sarcasm or mockery. The tone of
the passage is serious and reflective, exploring
Robert Grainier's life and experiences with empathy
and sensitivity.
14. (d) A) To describe the life and dreams of Robert
Grainier.
This option is incorrect because while the passage
does describe the life and dreams of Robert Grainier,
this is not the primary purpose of the passage. The
description of Robert Grainier's life and dreams
serves to illustrate the importance of empathy and
kindness, rather than being the main focus of the
passage. The passage uses Robert Grainier's life and
dreams to show how empathy and kindness can help
people find purpose and meaning in their lives.
B) To explore the history of the Chinese workers on
the railroad.
This option is incorrect because while the passage
does mention the Chinese workers on the railroad,
this is not the primary purpose of the passage. The
Chinese workers are presented as an example of a
group of people in need of empathy and kindness,
rather than being the main focus of the passage. The
passage uses the story of the Chinese workers to
show how empathy and kindness can make a
difference in the lives of people who are facing
difficult circumstances.
C) To criticize the working conditions of loggers
and railroad laborers in the Pacific Northwest.
This option is also incorrect because while the 16.
passage does mention the working conditions of
loggers and railroad laborers in the Pacific
Northwest, this is not the primary purpose of the
passage. The description of the working conditions
serves to illustrate the challenges and difficulties
faced by Robert Grainier and others like him, rather
than being the main focus of the passage. The
passage uses the story of Robert Grainier to show
how empathy and kindness can help people
overcome difficult circumstances.
D) To highlight the importance of empathy and
kindness in a difficult and challenging world.
This option is the correct answer because the
primary purpose of the passage is to highlight the
importance of empathy and kindness in a difficult
and challenging world. The passage describes how
Robert Grainier, a solitary and hardworking man,
was moved by a dream about the Chinese workers
on the railroad and felt compelled to help them in 17.
any way he could. This example serves as a
reminder that even in difficult and challenging
times, empathy and kindness are important qualities
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that can make a difference in the lives of others. The
passage emphasizes the importance of empathy and
kindness as a way to find purpose and meaning in
life, even in the face of hardship and adversity.
(d) A) Conundrum
This option is incorrect because "conundrum"
means a confusing and difficult problem or question,
but it does not refer to a maze-like structure. The
word "labyrinth" in the passage refers specifically to
a complex maze-like structure of underground
tunnels, which is not the same as a conundrum.
B) Serpentine
This option is also incorrect because "serpentine"
means winding and curving, but it does not refer
specifically to a maze-like structure. The word
"labyrinth" in the passage refers specifically to a
complex maze-like structure of underground
tunnels, which is not the same as a winding or
curving structure.
C) Esoteric
This option is also incorrect because "esoteric"
means understood by only a select few with a
specialized knowledge or interest, but it does not
refer to a maze-like structure. The word "labyrinth"
in the passage refers specifically to a complex maze-
like structure of underground tunnels, which is not
the same as a specialized or obscure topic.
D) Byzantine
This option is the correct answer because
"Byzantine" is a synonym for "labyrinth" and refers
specifically to a complex maze-like structure. The
word "Byzantine" is often used to describe a
complex or intricate system or structure, such as a
labyrinthine network of tunnels or passages, which
is similar to the description of the tunnels and
passages in the passage.
(c) The correct answer is (c) Mysterious is the most
appropriate choice for the mood of the passage as
the passage creates a sense of mystery and curiosity
in readers.
A is incorrect because the passage does not instill
any happiness or cheerfulness in readers. Instead, it
presents the situation in a more matter-of-fact
manner and focuses on the search efforts and the
setting of Yosemite National Park.
B is incorrect because even though there are
references to a murder case and the search for a
missing person throughout the passage, the passage
does not focus on describing any graphic or horrific
details. Therefore, terrifying is too extreme a mood
to describe the passage.
D is incorrect since while there are some alarming
or threatening undertones due to the seriousness of
the situation towards the end of the passage, the
overall tone isn’t ominous.
(b) The correct answer is B as the option that cannot be
inferred from the passage is (b) The passage
mentions that it is the height of the summer tourist
season and that the park’s clinic is busy with
Page 4 of 20
 visitors, it hint towards Yosemite National Park
being a popular tourist destination.
Option A is not correct because the passage
mentions Dr. Kidd as Yosemite National Park's
medical director, implying that he is a physician
who works at the park’s clinic.
Option C is not correct because the passage clearly
mentions that “Armstrong had lived with her
boyfriend, another Yosemite Institute naturalist,
along with a second roommate, in a green cabin set
by itself at the edge of a golden meadow.”
Option D cannot be the correct answer because the
passage clearly states that “After only a few
minutes, they spotted footprints, broken saplings,
trampled ferns and grass—all evidence of a recent
run.”
18. (b) The correct answer is (b) The passage states that
Kidd is the medical director of Yosemite National
Park’s clinic and was asked to join the search as a
member of the park’s medical staff.
Option A is senseless and there’s no such hint in the
passage and can be eliminated right away.
Option C is not right either because there’s no
reference of Kidd being a naturalist in the passage.
Option D is not correct because the passage nowhere
mentions that Kidd is a member of the police
department.
19. (a) The correct answer is A, Called in. In this context,
‘called in’ means that Kidd contacted the park
dispatcher by phone or radio. It also means to
summon for help or consultation. The other options
do not fit in the context. Option B, ‘Called after’
usually means to name a child or person after
someone else, which doesn’t make any sense in this
context.
Option C, ‘Called down ’ typically means to request
or pray for, or to scold.
Option D, ‘Called off’ means to cancel something,
Kidd didn’t do anything like that here.
20. (b) The correct answer is (b) In the context of the
passage, the word ‘roar’ has been associated with
fire that engulfed the forest, leaving only charred
residue of the forest along with dead tress and
animals; therefore, contextually the fire was moving
swiftly, making a crackling sound, engulfing
anything in its wake.
Option A is incorrect because whine is a cry for help, 22.
usually by canines. It also means to grumble.
Option C is also incorrect. While the meaning is
correct, but not in the context of the passage. The
roar of the fire is one of a predator going for the prey
while making its presence felt through a loud noise.
Option D is incorrect. Although it is one of the
meanings, but contextually it is a misfit. It is not a
loud boisterous laugh, rather a threatening sound.
21. (b) Option B is the correct answer. The main idea of the
passage revolves around the tension between
theoretical discussions and historical studies in the
field of religion. The passage discusses how
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historical research on religions has significantly
advanced in various regions, leading to a more
comprehensive understanding of religious beliefs,
practices, and institutions. However, the theoretical
debates in the study of religion often neglect these
historical studies and focus on abstract concepts,
leading to criticism from two opposing approaches:
the Cognitive Science of Religion and the Critical
Religion approach.
Option B accurately captures this main idea by
highlighting the disconnect between theoretical
debates and historical studies, leading to criticism of
historians of religion from both the Cognitive
Science of Religion and the Critical Religion
approach. It conveys the central theme of the
passage, which emphasizes the uneasy position of
historians of religion and the need for a more
integrated approach between theory and history in
the study of religions.
A) The option mentions the growth of historical
research on various regions and the neglect in
theoretical discussions. While these points are
discussed in the passage, the main focus is on the
criticism faced by historians of religion from the
Cognitive Science of Religion and the Critical
Religion approach due to the disconnect between
theoretical debates and historical studies. Therefore,
option A does not encompass the central theme of
the passage.
C) This option is partially correct as it highlights the
evolution of historical research in the study of
religions. However, it fails to mention the central
point that this disconnect has put historians of
religion in a challenging position and subjected
them to criticism from the Cognitive Science of
Religion and the Critical Religion approach because
of the lack of attention from theoretical discussions.
As a result, option C is not as comprehensive as
option B in capturing the main idea of the passage.
D) This option touches upon the connection between
theoretical debates and historical studies, whereas it
should be disconnection. The main focus of the
passage is on this criticism and its implications for
historians of religion. Therefore, option D does
incorrectly encompasses the central theme of the
passage.
(a) Option A is the correct answer. The article ‘the’
preceding the word ‘thought’ is a giveaway. An
article precedes a noun; therefore, it is a noun. Also,
the word ‘thought’ in the context means an idea,
making it a noun.
Option B-It is incorrect, for the word ‘thought’ does
not reflect an action; rather, an idea or a notion.
Option C- It is incorrect, for the word ‘thought’ is
not an adverb. An adverb typically modifies a verb,
an adjective or another adverb.
OPTION D- It is not an adjective. An adjective
modifies a noun. But the word itself is a noun;
hence, it is ruled out.
Page 5 of 20
23. (c) Option C is the correct answer. An oxymoron is a
combination of contradictory or opposite words to
create a contrasting effect. In this sentence, the
phrase "harmonious dissonance" combines
contradictory terms, as "harmonious" suggests
harmony and agreement, while "dissonance" implies
lack of harmony or agreement. This creates an
oxymoronic expression that emphasizes the tension
and contrast between the two concepts.
a. Assonance: Assonance is the repetition of vowel
sounds in nearby words. There is no assonance
present in the given sentence.
b. Pun: A pun is a play on words that exploits
different meanings or sounds of words with similar
or identical sounds but different meanings. There are
no puns in the given sentence.
d. Metaphor: A metaphor is a figure of speech that
implies a comparison between two unrelated things,
suggesting that one thing is the other. There are no
metaphors in the given sentence.
24. (a) Option A is the correct answer. This follow-up
question is directly related to the central theme of
the passage, which highlights the tension between
theoretical discussions and historical studies in the
study of religion. The passage points out that
historians of religion often find themselves in an
uneasy position due to the neglect of historical
research in theoretical debates. This question seeks
to explore potential strategies for addressing this
tension and improving the discipline of religious
studies. It prompts the author to consider ways in
which historians can integrate theoretical
frameworks with in-depth historical research on
specific regions and cultures, thereby creating a
more comprehensive understanding of religious
beliefs, practices, and institutions in their diverse
contexts.
Option B- This question is relevant to the passage's
theme, but it focuses solely on the shortcomings of
theoretical discussions in understanding religious
complexities. While it is an important question, it
does not directly relate to the tension between
theoretical debates and historical studies discussed
in the passage.
Option C- This question is intriguing and relevant to
the broader context of the passage, but it is not a
direct follow-up question to the author. The passage
does mention the differing views of these
approaches, but it does not delve into the possibility
of finding common ground between them.
Option D- This question is interesting, but it
assumes a position that is not explicitly stated in the
passage. While the passage discusses the neglect of
historical research in theoretical debates, it does not
advocate for historians solely focusing on historical
research and abandoning theoretical discussion.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
25. (d) Reports like “Limits to Growth” in 1972 and the
Brundtland Report in 1978, accompanied by the
energy crisis of 1979, underscored the importance of
addressing unsustainable consumption.
26. (a) Developed countries are expected to lead SCP
efforts (without compromising economic
development), while developing countries should
pursue sustainability without compromising
economic development and social prosperity. This
interpretation aligns with the principle of common
but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) and
respective capacities (RC), where developed
countries have a greater responsibility in addressing
SCP. Option A correctly reflects this nuanced
approach, making it the correct answer. Option B is
not accurate as it incorrectly suggests that
developing countries have no role in SCP. Option C
is overly generalized, and option D misrepresents
the roles of developed and developing countries in
SCP efforts.
27. (b) Carbon offsetting involves reducing carbon
emissions by purchasing credits from projects that
reduce or remove an equivalent amount of carbon
from the atmosphere:
This statement is accurate. Carbon offsetting is a
mechanism by which organizations or individuals
can compensate for their carbon emissions by
investing in projects that mitigate or sequester an
equivalent amount of carbon dioxide. These projects
can include reforestation, renewable energy, or
methane capture from landfills, among others.
28. (c) The IPCC warned that removing CO2 from the
atmosphere is essential because even big emissions’
cuts won’t be enough to limit global warming below
1.5C3. This is the threshold that scientists consider
safe to avoid the most dangerous and irreversible
consequences of climate change, such as sea level
rise, extreme weather events, biodiversity loss and
food insecurity. However, technologies to capture
and store CO2 are still emerging, very expensive
and as yet unproven.
29. (c) Carbon sequestration is the practice of capturing and
storing carbon emissions from various sources, such
as industrial processes and power plants, as a part of
the Circular Carbon Economy (CCE). This helps
reduce the release of carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere.
30. (c) The conference showcased various Green Hydrogen
Pilots being implemented by both public and private
sector companies in India. The conference which
was hosted by NTPC Ltd. , also presented
pioneering innovative pilots and progress in green
hydrogen technology.
31. (d) Statement D is false because green hydrogen cannot
be stored and transported easily using existing
natural gas pipelines and liquefied natural gas
Page 6 of 20
 (LNG) terminals. This is because green hydrogen
has different physical and chemical properties than
natural gas, such as lower energy density, higher
flammability, and higher embrittlement potential.
Therefore, green hydrogen requires dedicated 39.
infrastructure for storage and transportation, such as
high-pressure tanks or liquid organic carriers.
32. (c) Shri R. K. Singh mentions that India's contribution
to the global carbon dioxide load is only 4%, despite
having a population representing 17% of the world's
total. This implies that India, despite its large
population, is relatively modest in its carbon
emissions, showcasing its commitment to
environmental sustainability and energy transition.
33. (a) India was the third largest emitter of carbon dioxide
by volume in 2020, after China and the US. 40.
However, its per capita emissions were only 1.9
tonnes, which was lower than the world average of
4.2 tonnes.
34. (c) The primary technology used for electrolysis in
India's first Green Hydrogen pilot plant at Jorhat
Pump Station is Anion Exchange Membrane (AEM)
technology. This advanced technology enables the
production of Green Hydrogen from electricity
generated by the solar plant. 41.
35. (a) The High Ambition Coalition (HAC) is a group of
countries that are committed to ambitious climate
action and support the goal of limiting global
warming to 1.5°C. The HAC was formed at the
Bonn Climate Change Conference and consists of 42.
more than 100 countries, including small island
states, developing and developed countries. India is
not a member of the HAC, as it has expressed
reservations about the 1.5°C target and the need for
more flexibility and support for developing 43.
countries.
36. (d) The Global Goal for Nature is a new initiative
launched by UN Climate Change, WWF, UNEP and
other partners at the Bonn Climate Change
Conference 2023. It aims to mobilize support for a
global target of protecting and restoring at least 30%
of the world’s land and ocean by 2030 as part of the
post-2020 global biodiversity framework.
37. (a) The Global Stocktake is a process of assessing the
collective efforts of parties towards achieving the
long-term goals of the Paris Agreement, such as
limiting global warming to well below 2°C,
enhancing adaptive capacity and resilience, and
making finance flows consistent with low-emission
and climate-resilient development. The Global
Stocktake will take place every five years, starting
from 2023. The Bonn Climate Change Conference 44.
will discuss the modalities, sources of input and
outputs of the Global Stocktake.
38. (d) Canada is not among the first six parties to ratify the
Beijing Amendment to the Montreal Protocol,
which was adopted in 2023 and adds a new annex
on energy efficiency. The first six parties to ratify
the amendment are Maldives, Rwanda, Norway,
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Marshall Islands, Micronesia and Palau. The
amendment will enter into force on 1 January 2025,
provided that at least 20 parties have ratified it by
then.
(a) The COP (Conference of the Parties) Bureau is
closely associated with the Bonn Climate Meet. The
Bureau consists of representatives from various
countries and plays a crucial role in overseeing the
organization and coordination of UNFCCC
meetings, including the annual Conference of the
Parties (COP) sessions and other subsidiary body
meetings. The Bonn Climate Meet often serves as a
preparatory meeting for the larger COP sessions,
making the COP Bureau an integral part of its
operations.
(a) The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a financial
mechanism established under the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC). It plays a crucial role in providing
financial assistance to developing countries for
climate mitigation and adaptation projects. The GCF
mobilizes funds from developed countries and
channels them to developing nations to support their
efforts in addressing climate change impacts.
(a) The India Justice Report 2022 ranked Sikkim as the
top state among seven small states with a population
of less than one crore each. Sikkim was followed by
Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh. Goa was ranked
last.
(a) The India Justice Report 2022 separately assessed
the capacity of the 25 State Human Rights
Commissions in the country for the first time.
Therefore, statement A is correct and statements B,
C and D are incorrect.
(a) The WJP Rule of Law Index 2023 ranked Denmark
as the highest among 140 countries with a score of
0.89 out of 1. The index assessed the performance
of each country using 44 indicators across eight
categories: constraints on government powers,
absence of corruption, open government,
fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory
enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice. The
report stated that Denmark scored well in all
categories, especially in absence of corruption, open
government, and civil justice. Therefore, statement
A is correct and statements B, C and D are incorrect.
Statements B, C and D are incorrect because they
ranked lower than Denmark in the index. Norway
ranked second with a score of 0.88, Finland ranked
third with a score of 0.87, and Sweden ranked fourth
with a score of 0.86.
(c) "Remand" is the term used in the Indian legal system
to describe the practice of a higher court sending a
case back to a lower court for further review or
reconsideration. This often occurs when there are
errors or omissions in the lower court's proceedings,
and the higher court believes the case should be
examined again.
Page 7 of 20
45. (d) The Doctrine of Ultra Vires is a legal principle that
allows the Supreme Court of India to review and
strike down laws and government actions that
exceed the powers granted by the Constitution. If a
law or action is found to be "ultra vires" (beyond the 53.
powers), it is considered unconstitutional and void.
46. (b) Varunastra was designed by the Vizag-based Naval
Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL)
under the DRDO. The other laboratories are also
under DRDO, but they are not involved in the
development of Varunastra.
47. (c) The first batch of Varunastra torpedoes will be
delivered to the Navy soon and will be fitted onto
Sindhu class submarines and other navy ships. The
other classes of submarines are either nuclear- 54.
powered or diesel-electric, but not equipped with
Varunastra torpedoes.
48. (d) The statement D is false because Varunastra has two
selectable speed modes of 27 knots and 40 knots,
aligned with a maximum range of 20 km and 10 km
respectively. The other statements are true as per the
official reports.
49. (a) Torpedoes use a combination of guidance systems
for navigation and targeting. Inertial navigation
systems (INS) provide precise position information
based on accelerometers and gyroscopes. Sonar 55.
guidance is crucial for detecting and tracking
underwater targets. This combination allows
torpedoes to navigate towards their intended targets
accurately.
50. (b) The blockade of the Lachin corridor by Azerbaijan-
backed activists was the main event that triggered
the 2023 clashes in Nagorno Karabakh. The Lachin
corridor is the only road connecting the enclave to 56.
Armenia and is guarded by Russian peacekeepers
under the 2020 ceasefire agreement. The blockade,
which began in December 2022, caused significant
scarcities of essential supplies such as food,
medicine, and other goods in the affected region.
51. (d) Nirekshana is the name of the autonomous
underwater vehicle that NSTL developed for
surveillance, mine countermeasures and
oceanographic research. It is a medium-sized
vehicle that can operate up to a depth of 300 meters
and carry various payloads such as sonar, camera,
magnetometer, etc. It can also perform obstacle
avoidance, path planning and self-navigation. 57.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
52. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the
passage, a mistake of fact is caused by a lack of
mental alertness or forgetfulness that is brought on
by ignorance, misperception, or misunderstanding
of the truth, leading to some act or omission. The
defence is ineffective as one cannot plead ignorance
of fact when responsible inquiry would have elicited 58.
the true facts. For the same reason, option A is
incorrect. B is not the right answer because it
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proposes an alternative to what the question does not
specifically ask for. D is not the right answer since,
when taking the facts from the passage into account,
it does not answer the question.
(d) The correct answer is D because, according to the
passage, everyone is required to know the law of the
land and ignorance of the law is not an acceptable
defence. T cannot therefore argue that he was
ignorant of the Indian ban on a particular variety of
cashews. Option A is incorrect for the same cause.
B is not the right answer because it provides flawed
logic. Since it provides an irrational justification that
is inconsistent with the passage, option C is
incorrect.
(c) The right answer is C since, according to the
passage, it is incorrect to claim ignorance of the
facts when a thorough investigation would have
revealed them. There wouldn't have been any
confusion if G had inquired the flat number as he
delivered the groceries. Therefore, he is no longer
able to assert mistake of fact. For the same reason,
option A is incorrect. Since G did not inquire about
the flat numbers, option B is incorrect. D is not the
right answer because it offers no justification for the
assertion stated.
(d) The right answer is D because, according to the
passage, a mistake of fact is not a valid defence if
the act at hand is illegal. S cannot say that he made
a mistake since he tried to steal V's property.A is
incorrect because of the same factor. Since motive
is irrelevant in this situation, option B is incorrect.
Since it shifts from the question asked, C is not the
right answer.
(d) D is the correct answer because the passage has
clearly stated that if there is a mixed question of law
and fact, it will be handled as a question of fact if
the accused was tricked into making a factual error
due to a legal error, but option D goes contrary to
this statement and states that If there is a mixed
contention of law and fact, it will be handled as a
legal question, which is clearly not in line with the
given passage, hence it is the correct answer with
respect to the question asked. The rest of the options
are true as per the passage and can be directly
concluded from the passage itself. Hence option A,
B, C are incorrect.
(a) The correct answer is A because, according to the
passage; any police officer or other person arresting
any person without a warrant shall instantly disclose
to him the complete particulars of the offense for
which he is arrested or other grounds for his arrest.
It makes no difference if the arresting officer is
related to the accused. For the same reason, B is
incorrect. C is incorrect since it deviates from the
question. D is incorrect because no such mandate is
specified in the passage.
(d) D is the correct answer with respect to the question
asked because as per the passage, whether the arrest
is made without warrant by a police officer, or
Page 8 of 20
 whether the arrest is made under a warrant by any
person, the person making the arrest must bring the
arrested person before a judicial officer without
unnecessary delay, nowhere it has been mentioned
nor it can be concluded that only the arrest made
without warrant is relevant to bring under the notice
of the magistrate. Option C is correct as according 63.
to Section 50(1) Cr.P.C ‘every police officer or
other person arresting any person without warrant
shall forthwith communicate to him full particulars
of the offence for which he is arrested or other
grounds for such arrest.’ Options A & B are correct
and can be directly concluded from the passage
itself.
59. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the
passage, any police officer who arrests a person
without a warrant must immediately provide him
with full particulars of the offense for which he is
being detained or other justifications for the 64.
detention. The passage makes no mention of
exceptions of any kind. Option A is also incorrect
for the same reason. B is incorrect since the
discretion to disclose the grounds for an arrest
cannot be based on whether or not an injury has
occurred. D is not the right answer because his rights
were violated not because he was forced to
cooperate, but rather because he was not informed
of the grounds for his arrest.
60. (b) The correct answer is B, because according to the 65.
passage; Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution
safeguards everyone's right against being compelled
to testify against them. No one has the authority to
extract statements from an accused individual who
has the right to stay silent during an interrogation.
Option A is incorrect because providing the reason
for an arrest does not give authorities the power to
compel an accused individual to submit to an arrest.
Option C is incorrect because nothing of the sort is
addressed in the passage. It makes use of outside
knowledge. D is not the correct answer because the
accused's rights are not violated when he is arrested,
but when he is compelled to speak against his will.
61. (a) The right answer is A because according to the
passage; whether the arrest is executed without a
warrant by a police officer or whether the arrest is 66.
conducted under a warrant, the person conducting
the arrest must immediately present the
apprehended individual before a judicial magistrate.
There is no exception offered under the CrPC for
this. For the same reason, B is not the correct
answer. C is not the correct answer because it relies
on outside information. D is not the correct answer
because simply presenting the grounds for arrest is
insufficient. 67.
62. (a) The correct option is A because it accurately
summarizes the two key requirements of the new
rules. It states that the health warning should be
displayed at the bottom during the display of
tobacco products and also specifies the duration (20
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seconds each) and timing (beginning and middle of
the program) for the audio-visual disclaimer. The
other options either include incorrect information
about the location of the health warning (options B
and D) or the timing of the disclaimer (options C and
D).
(d) The correct answer is D since, in accordance with
the law given in the passage, OTT platforms are
required to display a prominent static anti-tobacco
health warning at the bottom of the screen whenever
a tobacco product is displayed or used in a program.
The amended regulations shall not be implemented
in this situation because this rule only applies to
OTT services and not to theaters. Therefore, we rule
out option (b) Option A is incorrect because it offers
flawed justification. Option C is wrong because the
rationale does not make sense in light of the
passage's facts.
(c) The correct answer is C because, as stated in the
passage, every publisher of online curated contents
showing the use of tobacco products or the items
themselves must post anti-tobacco health spots for a
minimum of 30 seconds at the start and middle of
the program. The guidelines were breached because
the warning was only shown for 10 seconds. As a
result, we rule out options A and (d) Option B is
inaccurate because showing cigarette consumption
scenes is not prohibited.
(a) The correct answer is A because, according to the
passage, publishers of online curated items that
show tobacco products or their usage are required to
provide anti-tobacco health spots for a least of 30
seconds at the start and middle of the program.
During the time when tobacco products are
displayed or used in the program, they must
prominently display a health warning against
tobacco as a static message at the bottom of the
screen. They must also include an audio-visual
disclaimer about tobacco's negative effects in the
beginning and middle of the program for at least 20
seconds each. We rule out options B and D because
both requirements have been met. Option C is
incorrect since it only addresses one of the two
requirements.
(c) The correct answer is C since as per the passage, the
government has made it mandatory for OTT
platforms to display an anti-tobacco health warning
as a prominent static notice at the bottom of the
screen whenever a tobacco product is displayed or
used in a program. We dismiss options B and D
because the prerequisites have been met. Option A
is incorrect because this reasoning is irrelevant and
devoid of logic.
(a) As the passage suggests, Common intention
contemplated by Section 34 of IPC pre-supposes
prior concert. It requires meeting of minds. It
requires a prearranged plan before a man can be
vicariously convicted for the criminal act of another.
The criminal act must have been done in furtherance
Page 9 of 20
 of the common intention of all the accused. The
facts do not suggest that the two accused had any
prior meeting of mind to kill Aryan, thus, charges
under section 34 cannot be levelled against the two.
Thus, option A is correct. Option C is not correct as
the charges have been framed against both Vidhi’s
husband and her brother, however the statement
provides reasoning only for Vidhi’s brother. Thus,
not correct. Option B could have been marked
correct in event where the facts have mentioned that 71.
they had pre-arranged or the plan formed suddenly.
Thus, option B is eliminated. Option D is a
suggestive answer where it states that one of them
ought to have intervened to stop the other from
hitting Aryan. Hence, not correct.
68. (c) The passage states that the criminal act must have
been done in furtherance of the common intention
of all the accused. The present scenario clearly kicks
Vidhi’s brother out of suspicion as he did not
consented with the plan of accused and that he tried
stopping him. Hence, option C is correct. Option A 72.
is not correct as the statement is not directly stating
the liability instead present a two way argument.
Thus, not correct. Option B is not correct as
knowing about the plan and consenting to the plan
to act in furtherance of common intention are two
different things. Thus, option B is irrelevant. Option
D presents a vague and suggestive argument. Hence,
not correct.
69. (c) As per the passage, the Common intention
contemplated by Section 34 of IPC pre-supposes 73.
prior concert. It requires meeting of minds. It
requires a prearranged plan before a man can be
vicariously convicted for the criminal act of another.
In the present case, Arti though knew about Raghu’s
plan and tried all ways to stop Raghu from
committing the crime. Thus, it can be asserted that
she never agreed with Raghu’s plan and thus cannot
be held liable under section 3 of the act. Thus, not B
but option C is the correct answer. Option A is 74.
incorrect as she was stopping Raghu at every stage
of the crime as mentioned in the passage. Thus, not
correct. Option D is not correct as there was no prior
consent between the two accused. Hence, Arti
cannot be held liable and option D will be
eliminated.
70. (d) The passage only gives essential elements to hold
account an accused liable under section 34 for
having common intention. In the present case, the
factual query asks us to answer as to whether the two
accused can be held liable for murder. The passage
is silent on the subject of essential of the offence of
Murder and when can an accused be made liable for
the offence. Hence, the correct answer will be option
(d) However if the question asks us to answer the 75.
question with respect to section 34 other option
could have been taken into consideration. Thus, all
the other option stands rejected. Option A is
factually incorrect as going by the planning between
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the two accused, it can be said that there was
common intention. Option B is incorrect the
statement is not in line with factual question asked.
Option C is not correct as it provides an assumption
i.e., if it is proved that the two acted in furtherance
of their common intention to kill the boss. The
statement could have been marked correct if
question was based on section 34. Hence,
eliminated.
(d) The correct answer is option (d) The right under
Article 32 is available to anyone whose rights are
being violated. In the present case, Malcolm does
not have the right to freedom of trade and profession
as it is only available to citizens. Therefore,
Malcolm cannot file the petition for violation of
such a right. Option B is incorrect as the passage
nowhere speaks for article 226. Option A and option
C are incorrect since Malcom is not the citizen of
India, hence no petition under article 32 can be filed
by Malcolm in the present case.
(c) The correct answer is option (c) Article 32 is one of
the fundamental rights in Part III which guarantees
the right to move the Supreme Court for the
enforcement of all the fundamental rights. Option D
therefore not correct as it provides for only 3
fundamental rights. Option A and B are negated s no
such no such information is provided in the passage
that states that Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can
be invoked in cases of violation of All legal rights
or constitutional rights.
(a) The correct answer is option (a) Writ of habeas
corpus can be filed to have the person produced
before the court, and the reasons and legality for
their detention examined. In the present case, since
the petition is filed for producing Deepak before the
court and to secure his release the writ shall be filed
for issuance of writ of habeas corpus. As the writ of
habeas corpus applies correctly in this situation,
Option B, C, and D will be rejected.
(c) The correct answer is option C and not option A. As
per Union of India v. Paul Manickam, if Article 32
was being invoked with failure to satisfy why a
petitioner hasn't approached the High Court first,
then matters directly approached under Article 32 of
the Constitution is to be discouraged. In the present
situation, High Court has not even been approached
by Habib and Abdul therefore the petition can be
dismissed on the same ground. Option B is not
correct as it can be inferred from the last para of the
passage that SC can also discourage a petition filed
under article 32 if it thinks that the petitioners hasn’t
yet exhausted other remedies. Option D is a
suggestive argument having no inference from the
passage given hence it is incorrect.
(b) The correct answer is option B and not option (a)
The right to approach the Supreme Court under
Article 32 can only be suspended in times of an
Emergency and even then, not when it comes to the
right to life and personal liberty. In the present case,
Page 10 of 20
 the right to personal liberty of Prof. Srivastava has
been violated and therefore petition under article 32
can be filled even during emergency situations.
Option D is accurate, however option B is chosen
since it gives a better explanation with comparable
rationale to the passage. Option C is inaccurate
because the reasoning provided is suggestive and it
cannot be concluded from the facts provided that the
arrested individual caused unrest in society while
out buying food for his family.
76. (b) Option B is correct. Law presumes that animals
cannot form mens rea. Animals are not charged
under IPC and therefore they cannot be held liable
even though they have committed any offence.
Therefore, option A is not correct. Option C is a 81.
suggestive response. Hence, negated. Option D is
incorrect as the passage in its last lime states that law
presumes that animals cannot form mens rea, hence
Billa cannot be accused of a crime.
77. (d) Option D is correct. The passage states that the
guilty mind is important in a crime. In this case,
Chandra Maurya only had the intention to kill a deer
and not a man. It cannot be thus said that Chandra
Maurya has committed a crime. Therefore, option A
is not correct. Option B is not correct as he did not
have the intent to kill the man. An act becomes
criminal only when it is done with a guilty mind
(mens rea). Option C would have been correct, but
in the present case he shot the poacher and not the
animal.
78. (a) Option A is correct. The external physical act is the
conduct forbidden by law which is committed by the
accused, also known as actus reus. The state of mind
required by the criminal statute that accompanies
this act is the mental element or mens rea. A person
is culpable when he does the act-, Purposely, 82.
Knowingly, Recklessly or Negligently. In this case,
even if Dr. Admant was getting late, it cannot be
said that doctor was absolved of his duty of treating
Bliss. Thus, Dr. Admant is liable. Option B is not
correct. As a doctor he owed duty towards Bliss.
Option C is incorrect as the circumstances shows
that Dr. Admant was negligent towards his patient
and hence will be held liable. Option D is not correct
as the reasoning given is irrelevant.
79. (b) Option B is correct. The passage above states that
an injury is necessary for a crime to be caused. In
this case, irrespective of whether Srisant recovers or
not, there is injury caused with bad intention. Thus,
he has caused a crime. Hence, option A is not
correct. Both option C and D are negated as they
provide irrelevant reasoning. Shoiab will be held
liable as both the essential elements of crime are
present i.e., Actus reus and mens reus on the part of
Shoaib.
80. (b) The answer is (b) Sunita will not get maintenance as
one of the exceptions of section 125 of CrPCis that
if the wife is living in adultery then she will not get
maintenance from the husband.
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Option A is incorrect as even though Sunita has a
right to seek maintenance after separation from her
husband under section 125 of the CrPCbut in this
case, she was involved in adultery making her
ineligible for maintenance.
Option C is incorrect as just because Sumit is
earning less, Sunita will not get disentitled to make
a claim of maintenance. In this case, the reason for
her ineligibility for maintenance is her involvement
in adultery.
Option D is incorrect as even though Sunita is
uneducated and unable to maintain herself after
separation as she was involved in adultery, she will
not get maintenance.
(c) The answer is option (c) Since Reema is earning
more than Raj, she will not get maintenance for
herself but will get it for their son Krishna as the
wife cannot claim maintenance for herself when she
is earning more than the husband. However, even in
this case, it is the responsibility of both parents to
maintain their minor child and both have to pay
towards this end, albeit in proportion of their
incomes.
Option A is incorrect as even though Reema will not
get maintenance for herself due to the reasoning
given but she will get it for her son Krishna.
Moreover the statement only provides reasoning for
Reema’s claim of maintenance and does not state
anything about their son Krishna.
Option B is incorrect as even though Reema, being
Raj’s wife has a right to get maintenance under
section 125 of the CrPCbut since she is earning more
than Raj, she will not get maintenance.
Option D is incorrect as Reema will get maintenance
for her son Krishna but not for her herself.
(d) Option D is the answer. It is given in the passage
that even if the wife is earning enough to subsist
upon, and live in a moderately comfortable lifestyle,
it is important for her to be able to live in the style
and manner she is accustomed to, provided that the
husband is able to support her. Since Saira was no
longer able to live the lavish lifestyle, she was
accustomed to, she will be entitled to maintenance.
Option A is incorrect as even though Saira left the
home on her own will but she left due to a genuine
reason which was her husband’s having an affair
with her own sister.. This will in itself not disentitle
her from maintenance.
Option B is incorrect as even though Saira is
employed and able to subsist. After separation, she
is not able to live in the luxurious style and manner
she is accustomed to making her eligible for
maintenance.
Option C is incorrect as Saira will get maintenance
but the reasoning given is not appropriate here.
Moreover, the given passage only provides
information related to wife living in adultery and is
silent on husband involved in adultery.
Page 11 of 20
83. (c) The answer is option (c) Both Sakina and her
daughter will get maintenance under section 125 of
the CrP(c)
Option A is incorrect as even though Sakina is an
MBA graduate and might be capable of earning
herself but this in itself will not disentitle her from
maintenance as there is a difference between
‘capable of earning’ and ‘actually earning’. She is
not actually earning to provide for herself.
Therefore, Option B is incorrect as Sakina will get
maintenance for both, herself and her daughter.
Option D is incorrect as both of them will get
maintenance. Even though Sameer is a day
labourer but it is his duty under Section 125 of
CrPC to provide maintenance to his wife and
daughter who are not earning anything.
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
84. (b) The author explains that the "hardened religious
folks" react strongly to controversial literature, such
as Rushdie’s The Satanic Verses or Miller’s
"pornographic" Tropic of Cancer, because they
comprehend the moral testing and exploration that
literature can provide. The author highlights that
these individuals recognize the profound emotional 86.
impact that characters in literature can have on
readers and the opportunity for moral growth and
examination through literary works.
Option A- This option contradicts the author's
perspective in the passage. The author does not
suggest that the outrage of "hardened religious
folks" is unwarranted or irrational. Instead, the
passage discusses how these individuals react 87.
strongly to controversial literature because they
understand the power of moral testing that literature
offers.
Option C- This option is not explicitly supported by
the passage. While the passage discusses how
literature allows readers to explore societal taboos
and challenge norms, it does not suggest that the
"hardened religious folks" are more likely to
appreciate such works. The passage focuses on their
strong reactions to controversial literature rather
than their appreciation for challenging societal
norms.
Option D- This option does not accurately reflect the
author's stance. The passage does not explicitly state
that the author disagrees with the "hardened
religious folks'" desire to use literature for kindling
flames of outrage. Instead, the passage provides a
more nuanced view, highlighting that the strong
reactions to controversial literature demonstrate an
understanding of moral testing in literature,
regardless of the author's personal disagreement
with their desires.
85. (c) The author says that Often, those who are the most
outraged by social taboos are those least qualified to
talk about them both from experience and
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intellectual understanding. So, the assumption is that
knowledge on taboos is required to be qualified to
talk about the taboos.
Option A- This option goes beyond what the passage
explicitly states. While the author mentions that
"hardened religious folks" are the ones who react
strongly to controversial literature, there is no direct
indication in the passage that the author considers
them inherently intolerant and closed-minded. The
passage focuses on the power of moral testing in
literature and how these individuals react to it.
Option B- This option is not supported by the
passage. The author does not explicitly express
appreciation for the passion and emotional
engagement of "hardened religious folks." Instead,
the passage discusses how these individuals react
strongly to controversial literature as a means of
moral testing.
Option D- The passage does not provide any
indication that the author considers the reactions of
"hardened religious folks" as uninformed or lacking
an understanding of literary nuances. The passage
focuses more on the different perspectives regarding
the power of moral testing in literature rather than
the intellectual capacity of these individuals.
(a) It must be true that hardened religious folks react to
literature passionately because the reaction is based
on emotions. Option B is incorrect because if the
literature aligned, then there would be no reason for
these folks to react. Option C is incorrect because no
linkage with the literature means no reaction.
Option D is incorrect because if this were true there
should be no reason for reation.
(b) A fact is a statement that can be objectively verified
and proven to be true, while a claim is an assertion
or opinion that may or may not be supported by
evidence. According to this, statement B is
supported by the passage. The passage explicitly
states that "One important purpose of literature has
always been to allow us to safely test our moral
fibres against the grain of hardened anathemas:
killing, adultery, incest, pornography, theft, anarchy
have all been explored in various forms of
literature." It presents a fact about the historical role
of literature.
Option A- This statement is not supported by the
passage. The passage mentions that "hardened
religious folks" are outraged by controversial
literature, but it does not claim that they are the
primary audience for such literature.
Option C- This statement is incorrect because it is
extreme as the author claims that the reactions of
hardened religious folks are often, not always,
misguided.
Option D- This statement is not explicitly supported
by the passage. While the passage discusses the role
of moral testing in literature, it does not claim that
this idea is universally acknowledged by all
individuals.
Page 12 of 20
88. (d) The pattern of reasoning in the passage refers to how
the author constructs and presents their argument.
Option D is the most appropriate pattern of 94. (d)
reasoning for the passage. The author makes strong
assertions about the purpose of literature in testing
moral values and uses historical examples to support
their claim. For example, they assert that literature 95. (b)
has always allowed readers to test their moral values
against taboos and provide evidence by mentioning
various controversial themes explored in literature.
Option A- The passage does not present conflicting
views that need to be resolved. It discusses the
purpose of literature in testing moral values and the
reactions of "hardened religious folks," but there is
no apparent contradiction to be resolved.
Option B- The passage briefly discusses the 96. (d)
reactions of "hardened religious folks" to
controversial literature, but it does not primarily
focus on cause-and-effect relationships between
moral outrage and moral growth.
Option C- The passage does compare the reactions
of different individuals (i.e., "hardened religious
folks" vs. reasonable beings) to controversial
literature. However, this is not the central pattern of
reasoning used in the passage.
89. (b) The entire argument starts with the contention of the 97. (a)
Central Government that its inability to reduce the
burgeoning fuel prices is due to the bond issue by
the previous UPA government. The writer then
starts to explain the current situation, leading to
argument going against the claim by the current
government. Option (b) reiterates the same.
90. (d) The writer proceeds with the argument by
systematically providing facts rejecting the claim by
the Central Government. So we can eliminate
misguided, whimsical, and deeply foolish because
the argument is based on facts presented in the
passage. Unreliable and desperate correctly reflects 98. (c)
the writer’s view.
91. (a) We cannot say how feasible is it for NDA
government to regulate the fuel price; it is beyond
the scope of the passage. Nothing has been given in
the passage about what rising fuel prices in the 99. (a)
economy means for different people. How people
actually react to the explanation by the Central
Government is not given either.
92. (c) It is clearly given in the fourth paragraph that for all
of the seven years the excise duty collections have
been more than the principal and interest
outstanding on oil bonds. So we can infer that even
one year of collections are more than enough to clear
the entire debt on oil bonds. Option (d) states
something that goes against the argument of the
writer.
93. (b) In the last paragraph the author opines that if the
government can reduce the price of fuel while
raising money for infrastructure through other
sources viz. infra cess. From this we can infer option 100. (d)
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(b) which says eliminating a source for a particular
income only to raise it from other sources.
Both options (a) and (c) are given in the passage.
Option (b) cannot be inferred as it was a practice that
was done in the UPA’s regime. So we can infer
option (d).
The author clearly says that by certain attitudes
adopted by some people, the matter gets worse.
Moreover, the author is angry towards those people;
it can be seen from the author’s view on these people
as he says that these people have warped thinking.
Option (a) is incorrect because of ‘practical’, while
option (c) is incorrect because of the word objective.
The author himself cannot be aweful, so option (d)
is incorrect.
No particular part of the passage mentions the main
idea. This has to be taken from the bird’s eye view
of the passage. The author shows his disapproval
towards those who say that girl should cover adhere
to conservative norms; while towards the end of the
passage, the author says, “Instead of curbing their
freedom, society and the state must ensure
protection of women both in public and private
places.” The only option that seems correct is option
(d).
The orders by the Chhattisgarh High Court and the
Kerala High Court are provided as an example to
support the view by the Supreme Court that
“entrenched paternalistic and misogynistic attitudes
that are regrettably reflected at times in judicial
orders and judgments.” So, we can infer option (a).
option (d) is completely opposite to what author
wishes to argue. Option (b) is incorrect because it
talks about elimination of role of women. Option (c)
might look correct, but it is incorrect because it says
that attack on autonomy of women is to protect
women.
We can find all three options (a), (b), and (d), but it
is not given in the passage that some measure should
be taken towards working upon attitudes of
judiciary. The passage only discusses the what step
should be taken towards protection of women.
Read the lines from the first paragraph “Ever since
the Court, in Indra Sawhney (1992), introduced the
concept of ‘creamy layer’ — a term describing the
well-off among the Backward Classes — and
declared that this section should be denied
reservation benefits. This position has crystallised
into law. Many support the formulation that once
caste is accepted as a basis for determining
backwardness, there is nothing wrong in excluding
the affluent among the eligible castes. The Union
government has unreservedly accepted the ‘creamy
layer’ rule, and formulated criteria for identifying
those who fall under the category.” We can infer
from these lines that Supreme Court’s decision was
accepted with willingness.
Option (a) might look logical as it is given the after
SC decision, the benefits were restricted to the
Page 13 of 20
 poorest among the backward classes, but this option
is wrong because the option says that the benefit was
available to all people of India. Option (b) is
incorrect because it is against the idea supported by
the SC as it considers other factors as well. Option
(c) is incorrect because the concept of creamy layer
was introduced to meet the objective of affirmative
action. Option (d) is correct inference as it the SC
made it clear the more privileged would be
excluded.
101. (b) (I) is not true because in the passage it is given that
people coming from reserved class but enough
means to cover for their needs will not get benefits.
(II) is not true because the SC rejected the Haryana
High Court order because it was against the
principles/ Guidelines provided by the SC. (III) is
true as Mohan has property under prescribed limit
making him eligible for benefits.
102. (c) The main purpose of the author is to tell us about
why the SC court rejected the Haryana High Court
order. Option (a) is a generalization as the option is
not about Haryana High Court, but about a High
Court in general. Option (b) is incorrect as it is out
of scope; it is about legal system of India while the
passage is about a case involving the SC and the
Haryana High Court. Option (d) might look logical
but it is incorrect because had it been about the SC’s
point of view on the concept of creamy layer, the
Haryana High Court would not make into the
picture.
103. (d) The whole passage is about the SC judgement in
Indra Sawhney and why it rejected the Haryana high
Court order on reservation benefits. So option (d) is
correct. Option (a) is incorrect because it is a
premise stated in the passage why the SC rejected
the Haryana HC order. Option (b) is incorrect
because it is opposite to what is stated in the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect because it state the view
because of which the SC rejected the Haryana HC
order.
104. (b) (I) may look close but it is incorrect because it says
that SpaceX has launched only 1700 satellites, while
in the passage it is given that SpaceX has launched
1700 satellites in two years alone. (II) can be
inferred from the third paragraph as it says that the
catalogue by spacetrack.org has some satellites that
have not be acknowledged publically. Inferring (III)
can be a bit tricky. It is clearly stated in the third
paragraph that the catalogue of space objects is
published at Space-Track.org by the US Space
Command, and in the fifth paragraph it is said that
Space-Track.org need to be shifted from military to
civilian agency. So, we can clearly infer (III) as well.
105. (a) The second paragraph clearly says that these close
calls highlight not only the need to be more
thoughtful about what we put into space, but also
that it’s well past time the global space community
developed a sustainable framework for managing
space traffic. The argument is only about regulating
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what we put into space; it is not ab out restricting
missions to space. So, option (b) is incorrect. Space
junk affects only space missions not the human
population on the Earth. So, option (c) is incorrect.
Option (d) might look logical, but it can be a premise
arguing that we need to regulate what we put into
space.
106. (c) What this passage talks about gets clear by reading
the second paragraph as the author says that we need
to see what we put into the space. So option (c) is
correct. Option (a) is a blatant generalization as it
talks about victory of humanity over all obstacles,
while option (b) incorrect because the author is
arguing for creating a system for space traffic
management and this option says that a system
exists but it is a patchwork of incomplete sources.
Option (d) is incorrect because it is out of scope as
it is trying to involve air traffic controllers in the
scene.
107. (d) The third last paragraph states why until now we
have not been able to create such an organization. It
is mentioned that questions of safe space travel will
need to be disentangled from questions of national
security. So that countries can be assured that
participating in such an effort would not
compromise national security. From this we can
infer that the countries fear that information sharing
exercise would compromise their national security.
108. (a) Option (b) is incorrect because it is out of scope; just
because we don’t have information about space, we
can’t say that the area has become unsuitable for
space missions unless we know that the area is
getting congested. Option (c) is incorrect because it
says that the world is at the brink of collapse
whereas the correct argument should be that the
world might lose it ability to launch space missions
due to congestion in near Earth orbit. Option (d) is
incorrect because it is one of the premises used to
argue that we need an organization regulating what
we send to space. So, option (a) is correct.
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
109. (d) Share of world export (Services) in both the years
together = 3.09 + 1.3 = 4.39 trillion
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2021 = 4.12
trillion
Difference between share of world export (Goods)
and Indian export (Services) in 2016 = 5 .85 –
0.975 = 4.875 trillion
Share of Indian export (Goods) in 2016 = 3.2
trillion
Now tabulating all the calculated above
information:
2016 2021
India World India World
Services 0.975 1.3 4.12 3.09
Goods 3.2 5.85 6.18 11.33
Hence, option (d) has the least value.
Page 14 of 20
 According to the question, Percentage of share of world export (Services) in
Total GDP of world in 2016 = 32.5 trillion 1.3
2016 = × 100 = 4%
32.5
Total GDP of world in 2021 = 32.5 + 19 = 51.5
Percentage of share of Indian export (Goods) in
trillion 3.2
Share of world export (Goods) in 2016 = 18% of 2016 = × 100 = 9.846%
32.5
32.5 = 5.85 trillion Percentage of share of Indian export (Services) in
0.975
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2016 = 3% of 2016 = × 100 = 3%
32.5
32.5 = 0.975 trillion 111. (c) According to the question,
Share of world export (Services) in 2021 = 6% of Total GDP of world in 2016 = 32.5 trillion
51.5 = 3.09 trillion Total GDP of world in 2021 = 32.5 + 19 = 51.5
Share of Indian export (Goods) in 2021 = 12% of trillion
51.5 = 6.18 trillion Share of world export (Goods) in 2016 = 18% of
Share of world export (Services) in 2016 = 4.39 - 32.5 = 5.85 trillion
3.09 = 1.3 trillion Share of Indian export (Services) in 2016 = 3% of
Share of world export (Goods) in 2021 = 5.85 + 32.5 = 0.975 trillion
5.48 = 11.33 trillion Share of world export (Services) in 2021 = 6% of
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2021 = 5.095 - 51.5 = 3.09 trillion
0.975 = 4.12 trillion Share of Indian export (Goods) in 2021 = 12% of
Let us assume, 51.5 = 6.18 trillion
Sum of Indian export (goods) in 2016 = x trillion Share of world export (Services) in 2016 = 4.39 -
∴ According to the given data, 3.09 = 1.3 trillion
𝑥 80
= Share of world export (Goods) in 2021 = 5.85 +
4.12 103
80 5.48 = 11.33 trillion
∴ Share of Indian export (goods) in 2016, x = ×
103 Share of Indian export (Services) in 2021 = 5.095 -
4.12 = 3.2 trillion
0.975 = 4.12 trillion
110. (a) According to the question,
Let us assume,
Total GDP of world in 2016 = 32.5 trillion
Sum of Indian export (goods) in 2016 = x trillion
Total GDP of world in 2021 = 32.5 + 19 = 51.5
∴ According to the given data,
trillion 𝑥 80
Share of world export (Goods) in 2016 = 18% of =
4.12 103
80
32.5 = 5.85 trillion ∴ Share of Indian export (goods) in 2016, x = ×
103
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2016 = 3% of 4.12 = 3.2 trillion
32.5 = 0.975 trillion Now tabulating all the calculated above
Share of world export (Services) in 2021 = 6% of information:
51.5 = 3.09 trillion
2016 2021
Share of Indian export (Goods) in 2021 = 12% of
51.5 = 6.18 trillion India World India World
Share of world export (Services) in 2016 = 4.39 - Services 0.975 1.3 4.12 3.09
3.09 = 1.3 trillion Goods 3.2 5.85 6.18 11.33
Share of world export (Goods) in 2021 = 5.85 + 11.33+4.12+6.18+3.09
Average = = 6.18 trillion
4
5.48 = 11.33 trillion
Hence, Share of world export (Services) and Indian
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2021 = 5.095 -
export (Services) is less than the above average.
0.975 = 4.12 trillion
112. (b) According to the question,
Let us assume,
Total GDP of world in 2016 = 32.5 trillion
Sum of Indian export (goods) in 2016 = x trillion
Total GDP of world in 2021 = 32.5 + 19 = 51.5
∴ According to the given data,
𝑥 80 trillion
= Share of world export (Goods) in 2016 = 18% of
4.12 103
80 32.5 = 5.85 trillion
∴ Share of Indian export (goods) in 2016, x = ×
103
Share of Indian export (Services) in 2016 = 3% of
4.12 = 3.2 trillion
32.5 = 0.975 trillion
Now tabulating all the calculated above
Share of world export (Services) in 2021 = 6% of
information:
51.5 = 3.09 trillion
2016 2021 Share of Indian export (Goods) in 2021 = 12% of
India World India World 51.5 = 6.18 trillion
Services 0.975 1.3 4.12 3.09 Share of world export (Services) in 2016 = 4.39 -
Goods 3.2 5.85 6.18 11.33 3.09 = 1.3 trillion
Percentage of share of world export (Goods) in Share of world export (Goods) in 2021 = 5.85 +
5.85 5.48 = 11.33 trillion
2016 = × 100 = 18%
32.5

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 Share of Indian export (Services) in 2021 = 5.095 - Now tabulating all the calculated above
0.975 = 4.12 trillion information:
Let us assume, 2016 2021
Sum of Indian export (goods) in 2016 = x trillion India World India World
∴ According to the given data, Services 0.975 1.3 4.12 3.09
𝑥 80
= Goods 3.2 5.85 6.18 11.33
4.12 103
80 11.33 – 5.85
∴ Share of Indian export (goods) in 2016, x = × ∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 93.67
103 5.85
4.12 = 3.2 trillion %

Hint (113-116): Let us solve the entire problem at once so that we can answer all the questions in least time.
Initial Investment Profit/
Year Quarter Calculation Final Amount
Amount Loss
2019 Q1 x (assume) +30% x + 30% of x 130% of x
- Q2 130% of x -40% 130% of x – 40% of 130% of x 78% of x
- Q3 78% of x +20% 78% of x+ 20% of 78% of x 93.6% of x
- Q4 93.6% of x +10% 93.6% of x + 10% of 93.6% of x 102.96% of x
2020 Q1 102.96% of x +25% 102.96% of x + 25% of 102.96% of x 128.7% of x
- Q2 128.7% of x -30% 128.7% of x - 38.61% of x 90.09% of x

5
The students in section A for class 𝑃 = 64 × =
8
113. (d) Let us assume that the investor started with x
40
amount of money. Value of x can be derived as 3
follows: The students in section B for class P = 64 × = 24
8
50
90.09% of x = 270270 The students in section A for class Q = 84 × =
270270 100
x= × 100 42
90.09
x = Rs. 300000 The students in section B for class Q = 42
114. (c) From the table above, it is observed that the total 5
The students in section A for class R = 80 × =
8
amount received by the investor at the end of four
50
quarters is 102.96% of x and his initial investment 3
is 100% of x. The students in section B for class R = 80 × = 30
8
Therefore, his profit during the four quarters of Total number of students in section A of class Q =
2019 is 2.96%. 42
115. (b) The amount of loss that had to the investor at the Total number of students in section B of class R =
end of quarter 2 of 2020 is 100% of x - 90.09% of 30
x = 9.91% of x. Required ratio = 42:30 = 7:5
= Rs.29, 730. 118. (b) Average students in class P and R together = 72
116. (d) At end of quarter 2 of year 2000, the investor is left P + R = 72 × 2 = 144 -----(1)
with 90.09% of the initial amount. Therefore, in Since, the students in class P is 16 less than the
order to obtain the initial amount, the investor must students in class R = R - P = 16 ------(2)
make a profit % as shown below: On solving equation (1) and equation (2),
Let us assume that the required profit percentage is R = 80, P = 64
y%. The students in class Q = The students in class P +
2,70,270 + y% of 2,70,270 = 3,00,000 20 = 64 + 20 = 84
5
⇒y% of 2,70,270 = 3,00,000 - 2,70,270 The students in section A for class 𝑃 = 64 × =
8
⇒y% of 2,70,270 = 29730
𝑦 40
⇒ × 270270 = 29730 3
100 The students in section B for class P = 64 × = 24
29730 8
⇒y= × 100 50
270270 The students in section A for class Q = 84 × =
100
⇒ y = 11.0001%
42
117. (b) Average students in class P and R together = 72
The students in section B for class Q = 42
P + R = 72 × 2 = 144 -----(1) 5
Since, the students in class P is 16 less than the The students in section A for class R = 80 × =
8
students in class R = R - P = 16 ------(2) 50
On solving equation (1) and equation (2), 3
The students in section B for class R = 80 × = 30
8
R = 80, P = 64
Total number of students in section B of class P =
The students in class Q = The students in class P +
24
20 = 64 + 20 = 84

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 Total number of students in section B of class R = ∴ Required difference = 64 - 44 = 20
30 120. (b) Average students in class P and R together = 72
24
Required percentage = ×100 = 80% P + R = 72 × 2 = 144 -----(1)
30
Since, the students in class P is 16 less than the
119. (c) Average students in class P and R together = 72
students in class R = R - P = 16 ------(2)
P + R = 72 × 2 = 144 -----(1)
On solving equation (1) and equation (2),
Since, the students in class P is 16 less than the
R = 80, P = 64
students in class R = R - P = 16 ------(2)
The students in class Q = The students in class P +
On solving equation (1) and equation (2),
20 = 64 + 20 = 84
R = 80, P = 64 5
The students in class Q = The students in class P + The students in section A for class 𝑃 = 64 × =
8
20 = 64 + 20 = 84 40
5 3
The students in section A for class P = 64 × = The students in section B for class P = 64 × = 24
8 8
40 50
The students in section A for class Q = 84 × =
3 100
The students in section B for class P = 64 × = 24 42
8
50
The students in section A for class Q = 84 × = The students in section B for class Q = 42
100 5
42 The students in section A for class R = 80 × =
8
The students in section B for class Q = 42 50
5 3
The students in section A for class R = 80 × = The students in section B for class R = 80 × = 30
8 8
50 Total number of students in section B of class P =
3
The students in section B for class R = 80 × = 30 24
8
Total number of students in section B of class Q =
Total number of students in both sections of class Q
42
= 84
Total number of students in section B of class R =
Total number of students in both sections of class S
30
= 128 - 84 = 44
Total number of students in both sections of class P ∴ Required sum = 24 + 42 + 30 = 96
= 64

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 Notes:

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 Notes:

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 Notes:

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