LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2020
MOCK CLAT #29
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (c) Option (a) falls under pinkwashing, as changing the
colour of uniforms is an act of tokenism. The
company profits from the discounts offered during
Women’s History Month. Option (b) is wrong as the
entrepreneur presents herself as someone who
cares for rights and equality for all and is instead
pushing a hateful agenda. Option (d) is wrong as
asking for donations to help the queer community
within their organization is not an act that actually
helps the community, especially one that is
targeting its customers. Option (c) is the correct
option as it is not an act of pink washing and the
company made structural changes to make the
space queer friendly.
2. (d) All three reasons are mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, D is the correct option.
3. (b) Options (a) and (c) are not the correct choices as
the author very expressly stated how tokenism
through the gay best friend character never
provided visibility to the community and only led to
a lot of harmful stereotypes instead.
4. (b) Option (a) is something the author might agree with
but it is not what she is implying through the quoted
statement and hence is not the correct choice.
Option (c) is not something the author would agree
with and hence wouldn’t imply the same. Option (b)
is the correct choice as the author states the quoted
sentence alongside other statements talking about
how money-making is the motive behind pink
washing.
5. (b) Option (b) is the correct option as allegiance means
loyalty or commitment to a superior or to a group or
cause.
6. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer as Complacency
means self-satisfaction especially when
accompanied by unawareness of actual dangers or
deficiencies When it comes to
safety, complacency can be dangerous
7. (c) The passage explains that the colour pink and blue
weren’t gendered initially and were worn by both
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boys and girls. In fact pink was treated as more
masculine as it’s closer to red which represented
passion and aggression. It is mentioned that it was
in 1890s that the manufacturers began their colour-
coding and that Henry Huntington purchased those
paintings in 1921. The status of the colour pink now
is such that men generally cannot be wearing pink
without making a statement or justifying their
choice.
8. (a) The gendering of the color pink was not solely
accomplished by manufacturers but was a result of
a lot of factors. The passage mentions the
manufacturers weren’t even unanimous in their
colour coding. Hence, 1 is False. 2 is also false as
the passae mentions red being considered as a
masculine colour and black being associated with
death. 3 is true as pink is increasingly in use in
men’s clothing according to the passage.
9. (c) The passage follows a simple pattern of informing
the reader of facts and opinions as stated by
experts from the field. Hence, the intention and tone
is to inform. The author is not being incendiary as
the passage states facts and opinions in a plain
manner and not an emotionally stirring one. The
tone is also not analytical as there are no
comparisons made, no conclusions drawn. The
tone cannot be said to be “self-aware” because the
subject is not personal to the author.
10. (b) It has been used in the context of men wearing pink
as a resistance against prevalent gender norms
11. (a) Option (b) is incorrect as it hasn’t been discussed in
the passage. Ralph Lauren and similar brands are
credited with popularizing pink among men, not
otherwise. Option (c) is a blanket statement and
doesn’t hold true for all men. Option (a) is the most
appropriate choice as the passage mentions this
association as something recent. Despite palpable
change in the attitude towards the colour, social
change of course takes time.
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12. (a) The correct option is (a), since in the context of
passage, Ardent means something which is glows
or burns.
13. (b) Option (b) is the correct choice as the passage
mentions "Would wonders never cease. And they
didn’t". Option (a) is not the correct choice as the
author is marvelling at new ice cream flavours and
not sticking to the ones from his childhood. Option
(c) is not discussed in the passage.
14. (c) The author was not comparing the vaccine's
development to the development of ice cream
flavours, hence Option (a) is not wrong. Option (b)
is not the appropriate choice as the health benefits
of haldi were mentioned to support turmeric's recent
popularity. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice
in light of the passage, as the author consistently
speaks about unique new flavours of ice cream.
15. (b) Option (b) is the most appropriate choice as the
author describes the increasing popularity of
turmeric in the culinary spheres and then goes on
to say it was to be expected an ice cream flavour
would be made out of it. Option (c) cannot be
inferred as the trend may or may not fade away
after an ice cream flavour is made out of it. Option
(a) is not the most appropriate choice as the author
talks about it in context of recent trends. Moreover,
ice cream is central to this statement rather than
turmeric.
16. (c) Sarcasm: Sarcasm is the use of words usually used
to either mock or annoy someone, or for humorous
purposes. Sarcasm may employ ambivalence,
although it is not necessarily ironic. Most noticeable
in spoken word, sarcasm is mainly distinguished by
the inflection with which it is spoken and is largely
context-dependent.
Assonance: Assonance is repetition of vowel
sounds at the beginning, middle, or end of words in
close proximity to each other.
Oxymoron: a figure of speech in which apparently
contradictory terms appear in conjunction
Alliteration: Alliteration is used to begin the start of
several words in a line of text with the same
consonant sound.
17. (c) Assortment means a miscellaneous collection of
things or people. Thus, it is a proper meaning of the
expression mentioned in the question.
18. (d) The passage explains clearly explains that NFTs
are unique tokens attached to a digital work of art
that proves the work’s authenticity. It gives
ownership to the buyer, who gains the right to trade
the piece. The tokens are generated on Blockchain
which makes it easily traceable and identifiable.
19. (b) The passage explains that the major benefit of an
NFT is that artists can sell their art as a product
rather than a service, which means that they can
quote higher and better prices. They also allow an
artist to earn royalty on his or her art every time a
work is sold.
20. (b) The passage attempts to analyze the NFTs and
their current impact on the art world as well
informing the reader of criticisms that it has faced.
The passage seeks to give a descriptive view of
NFTs. The author is not being incendiary as the
passage states facts and opinions in a plain
manner and not an emotionally stirring one. The
tone is not merely informative as there is further
analysis of the subject rather than mere facts. The
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tone cannot be said to be “sardonic” because it is
not cynical or mocking the subject matter.
21. (d) The passage uses the word exclusivity to describe
the unique and distinct nature of an NFT.
22. (c) Option A and B haven’t been discussed in the
passage in detail. However, the passage does draw
its conclusions regarding why crypto-mining, the
process of creating cryptocurrency that involves a
network of machines that release CO2, is
controversial and a subject of environmental
debate. Therefore option C is the most accurate.
23. (d) The passage mentions that Tom Cruise has joined
Scientology but does not convey in any manner that
Scientology looks to recruit celebrities. Therefore, D
is the correct answer.
24. (b) Option B is true as the author explicitly mentions
that the Character named Xenu can be widely read
online. Therefore, b is the correct answer.
25. (b) If it is true that Senior Scientologists have not paid
any money the Church of scientology then the basis
on which the author argument in the passage
depends collapses and Scientology cannot be
considered a cult.
26. (a) Option is a directly mentioned in the passage that
he has donated money for the cause, which does
mean that he has donated money to the church of
Scientology.
27. (c) Espionage is the act of obtaining secret or
confidential information or divulging of the same
without the permission of the holder of the
information. It is also known as spying. Therefore,
C is the correct answer.
28. (a) He was banned before the admission of guilty and
not afterwards and therefore, a) is the correct
answer.
29. (d) unceremoniously means with a lack of courtesy;
roughly or abruptly. Therefore, d is the correct
answer:
30. (b) The last passage is trying to take message from
Armstrong’s live for all the other athletes. The
message being that Athletes have a duty to act in
responsible manner. Therefore, b is the correct
answer.
31. (c) The correct option is c, which can clearly be made
out from the below given line from the passage:
“He was accused by USADA of running ‘the most
sophisticated, professionalized and successful
doping program that professional cycling has
ever seen’, not only taking performance enhancing
drugs himself, but also putting pressure on
teammates to do so.”
32. (c) The word Rebuff means reject (someone or
something) in an abrupt or ungracious manner.
Therefore, C is the correct answer.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
33. (b) The government of India has announced the
merger of the Lok Sabha TV and the Rajya Sabha
TV. The channels from now on will be known as
Sansad TV.
34. (d) The LSTV was the brainchild of Former Lok Sabha
Speaker Somnath Chatterjee. He brought the idea
of a 24×7 Parliamentary Channel with the objective
to familiarise citizens with the functioning of
Parliament.
35. (c) The RSTV was launched in 2011. It will telecast the
live proceedings of the Rajya Sabha. It also brings
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 analyses of parliamentary affairs and provides a
platform for knowledge-based programmes.
The budget of the RSTV is bigger than that of the
LSTV. The Union Budget allocates funds for the
running of channels. The RSTV also employs more
people than the LSTV.
36. (b) In 2019, a committee was set up under former
Prasar Bharati Chairman Surya Prakash to look into
the merger of two channels. The merger is being
done to avoid duplicity of efforts, resources.
Further, establishing Sansad TV will also reduce
the financial burden.
37. (a) The committee has suggested that a merged
Sansad TV should have two separate channels—
Sansad 1 and Sansad 2.
One channel will telecast the live proceedings of
the Lok Sabha. On the other hand, the other
channel will telecast the live proceedings of the
Rajya Sabha.
When Parliament is not in session, the first channel
can air Hindi content and the second channel can
air English content. This will result in better
branding and increased viewership of Sansad TV.
38. (c) The Suez Canal is pivotal in connecting Europe and
Asia, as it negates the need to navigate around the
Cape of Good Hope in Africa and thus cutting
distances by up to 7,000 km.
39. (d) Located in Egypt, the artificial sea-level waterway
was built between 1859 and 1869 linking the
Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
40. (b) The Suez along, with the Panama Canal (that links
the Pacific and Atlantic oceans), are the two
most critical canals in the global maritime domain
along with the Volga-Don and the Grand Canal
(China).
41. (c) the Suez Canal, one of the world’s most critical
transit routes, got blocked due to a large container
vessel, the MV Ever Given. This has caused
enormous disruption to global shipping.
42. (b) Egyptian authorities have asked the owners of Ever
Given to pay $1 billion in compensation or else it
wouldn’t release the ship.
43. (b) The bill is to replace the Religious Freedom Act,
1968. Once enforced the Religious Freedom Bill will
be the most stringent in the country.
44. (d) If the victim is a woman, minor or belongs to
Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe community,
then the accused will be punishable with
imprisonment ranging from two to ten years and
fine of Rs 50,000.
45. (d) According to the bill, those willing to convert will
need to apply to the district administration 60 days
in advance.
46. (c) The bill provides for a prison term of up to 10 years
and a fine of 1 lakh for conversion through
“marriage or by any other fraudulent means”.
47. (d) The Madhya Pradesh Freedom of
Religion Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on
January 7, 2021.
48. (c) India expressed its intent to include Chabahar port
in the 13-nation International North South Transport
Corridor (INSTC) that extends from India to Russia,
and to expand INSTC membership by including
Afghanistan and Uzbekistan, at a “Chabahar Day”
event organised as part of Maritime India summit.
49. (a) It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the
Indian ocean and consists of two separate ports
named Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
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50. (c) Afghanistan, Iran and India signed a tripartite
agreement on developing Chabahar port and
setting up a trilateral transport and transit corridor in
2016.
51. (b) This corridor connects India Ocean and the
Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via the Islamic
Republic of Iran and then is connected to St.
Petersburg and North Europe via the Russian
Federation.
52. (d) The INSTC was expanded to include eleven new
members, namely: the Republic of Azerbaijan,
Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of
Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus,
Oman, Syria, Bulgaria (Observer).
53. (b) A disturbed area is declared by notification under
Section 3 of AFSPA. It is invoked in places where
the use of armed forces is necessary to aid the civil
power.
54. (b) The Governor of the state or the central
government can declare the whole or part of the
state or union territory as disturbed area.
55. (c) NSCN-IM is a Naga Insurgent Group.
56. (d) Once declared ‘disturbed’, the region is maintained
as disturbed for a period of three months straight,
according to The Disturbed Areas (Special Courts)
Act, 1976.
57. (a) The NSCN-IM is demanding for separate flag and
constitution. This demand is not acceptable by the
central government. This leads to the continuation
of insurgency in the region.
58. (d) The number of Hong Kong’s Legislative Council
(HKLC) members will be increased to 90, with the
additional members also nominated, thereby
reducing the share of elected representatives.
Currently, only half of the 70 members of HKLC are
directly elected and the rest are nominated.
59. (a) The change will give Beijing-appointed politicians a
greater say in running the Hong Kong Special
Administrative Region (HKSAR), marking the
biggest change since the handover in 1997. An
increased number of pro-Beijing officials would
weaken the power of the opposition to influence the
city's leadership.
60. (b) Hong Kong is the fourth largest export market for
India.
61. (a) Sino-British Joint Declaration- According to the
treaty, China would reassume control of Hong
Kong, which was occupied by Britain after the
Opium War in 1840, from July 1, 1997. Opium
Wars: The Opium Wars were two wars fought
between the Chinese Qing dynasty and European
powers. Both the wars were a result of the Qing
Dynasty’s attempts to curb the opium trade.
62. (d) It stated that China's basic policies regarding Hong
Kong "will remain unchanged for 50 years" and
ensured a high degree of autonomy to Hong Kong.
These policies are stipulated in the Basic Law, the
city’s mini-constitution.
63. (d) a five-judge bench at the Supreme Court has
decided to examine whether the 1992 verdict by a
nine-judge bench capping quota at 50% (Indra
Sawhney case) needed to be revisited in view of
subsequent constitutional amendments and
changed social dynamics.
64. (b) The court’s observation came in a case where a
reservation for Marathas in Maharashtra caused a
breach in the 50% ceiling. The Maharashtra
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 government decided to grant 16% reservation of
total seats to the Marathas. However, it was
reduced by the Bombay High Court to 12% in govt
jobs and 13% in educational institutions. When the
decision was challenged before the Supreme Court,
it stayed the former’s order.
65. (c) Article 335: It says that the claims of SCs and STs
shall be taken into consideration constituently with
the maintenance of efficacy of the administration.
66. (c) 102nd, 103rd and 104th Amendments: In the last
couple of decades, there have been several
amendments to the constitution like the 102nd
amendment, 104th amendment. 10% reservation
for EWS. was made by the 103rd amendment to
the Constitution.
67. (c) Indra Sawhney & Others vs Union of India, 1992:
The judgement on Indra Sawhney case was passed
on 16 November, 1992. It was a nine-judge verdict
which decisively laid down several landmark
propositions such as 50% threshold in reservations.
68. (c) U.S., Australia, Canada, New Zealand and the UK,
are the countries that make up the alliance.
69. (c) The Five Eyes (FVEY) is the biggest intelligence
alliance of the world.
70. (a) Japan will be joining the alliance to restrict China’s
actions against Uyghurs.
71. (d) The countries are signatories to the UKUSA
Agreement for their cooperation in signal
intelligence.
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING
72. (a) As per the information given in the passage,
“whoever, having a husband or wife living, marries
in any case in which such marriage is void by
reason of its taking place during the life of such
husband or wife, shall be punished”.
73. (d) As per legal information given in the passage,
bigamy is not an offence under Muslim law. In the
instant case Salim Ali, who is Muslim by religion,
can marry more than once during the lifetime of his
first spouse. Bigamy is not an offence under Muslim
law.
74. (b) The passage clearly states that bigamy is a
punishable offence and the explanation mentions
that undertaking a second marriage during the
lifetime of the first wife is bigamy, no matter the
reason. Since Maya was alive at the time of
Atimabh's second marriage, his marriage to
Meekha is void.
75. (c) It’s a clear information that marriages are governed
as per personal laws and only Muslim men are
allowed to marry more than once, therefore
Sourabh would be held liable. Getting married in
Ohio has no bearing in the present case.
76. (a) It is apparent from the facts that Rakhi married Mika
while Daniel was alive and hence as per the
information given in the passage Rakhi is guilty of
bigamy.
77. (c) The contract was signed in 2016 when the courts
had wide discretionary powers in choosing whether
or not to direct/enforce specific performance of a
contract. Therefore, in this case the court is not
"bound" to direct B to enforce the contract as it may
exercise its discretion to order otherwise.
78. (b). The contract was signed in 2016, prior to the 2018
amendment to the Specific Relief Act. Hence, under
Section 10 "the specific performance of any
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contract may, in the discretion of the court, be
enforced" since the legislative intention at the time
of the enactment of the Act was to give full judicial
discretion to the courts to direct/enforce or not to
direct/enforce the specific performance of a
contract. Therefore, the court is not "bound to give
an order in A's favour" only and may order
otherwise.
79. (a) The passage clearly provides that "the real
significance and impact of the amendment stems
from the fact that it has made the specific
performance of contracts the (general) rule rather
than an optional remedy". Option (b) is incorrect
because it provides the change in legislative
attitude instead of the reason for why Chota can
"undoubtedly seek specific performance" of the
contract. Option (c) is incorrect because it says that
the amended Act "doesn't" significantly curtail the
power of the court in this regard. Mentioning the
provisions in the question, especially if they do not
concern the contract, is irrelevant in this regard
because they don't affect the discretion of the court.
80. (a) The passage clearly mentions that "the specific
performance of a contract shall be enforced by the
court subject to the "applicability" of the provisions
contained in Section 11(2), Section 14 and Section
16 of the Act." Hence, if the provisions are
applicable, then the contract is enforceable and
Nobita can seek specific performance.
81. (b) There was an ambiguity in the contract because it
does not define what "premium" is. The contract
was silent on whether the term "premium" is
inclusive or exclusive of pulp in the juice. As a
result, contra proferentem will be applied against
the seller who drafted the contract i.e. Harry and
the ambiguity in the contract will be interpreted
against him. Therefore, Mitsi has a better position
to get a remedy in her favour.
82. (a) The passage mentions that damages must also be
paid for the mental agony that ensues from such
breach of contract. Thus, there should be a
1,00,000 rupee payment to Somashekhar.
83. (b) The contract was for only construction of a strong
wall. It could not have been foreseen that the child
would dig a hole and escape and injure. The
damage occurred was too remote and it cannot be
said that breach was causation of such
damagebecause he ensured due diligence..
84. (a) The contract was to construct a wall that prevented
Hari’s child from going out. Yet the same was no
done. Krishan will be liable for the breach for the
breach has directly caused the injury.
85. (c) Even though Manjappa had committed the breach
by failing to build a strong wall, the damage also
occurred partly due to Rakesh’s failure to water the
wall continuously for 10 days which would have
resulted in a stronger bond. Manjappa can only be
partly liable.
86. (b) The passage states that in the event there is a
clause in the contract stipulating the amount of
damages to be paid then such amount shall be the
final amount.
87. (b) The intention to cause disorder or incite people to
violence is the sine qua non of the offence under
Section 153 A IPC. Sushmita had no intention to
cause disorder or violence and connecting
homosexuality with the ancient culture of the
Page 4 of 12
 country is not a villifying remark per se. Therefore,
she shall not be held guilty of the offence.
88. (d) One cannot rely on strongly worded and isolated
passages for proving the charge nor indeed can
one take a sentence here and a sentence there and
connect them by a meticulous process of inferential
reasoning. The intention of Hema was to highlight
that many religious practices led to animal adversity
and no intention to insult or spread hatred against
any particular religious group.
89. (a) The third test was for Courts to focus their analysis
on the effect of the expression at issue, namely,
whether it is likely to expose the targeted person or
group to hatred by others. In the present case,
strong words by Raman exposed the entire Pudali
community to hatred across the state. Therefore, as
per the third test Raman shall be convicted of the
offence.
90. (c) One cannot rely on strongly worded and isolated
passages for proving the charge nor indeed can
one take a sentence here and a sentence there and
connect them by a meticulous process of inferential
reasoning. In the present case, Rujhita actually
highlighted the judgments which improved women’s
social condition which was the objective of the
entire book, her intention cannot be deduced from
separate fragmentations picked up from different
parts of the book.
91. (b) In both the stated cases, a certain group has been
vilified by a strong manifestation of emotions.
92. (c) refugee is a person targeted based on their
identities, in this case phizo was targeted by the
government because of his criminal activities, he
cannot qualify as a refugee
93. (c) the constitution allows right to life to the all within
the territory of India. The deportation would be
wrong based on the principles of the constitution as
well as international law.
94. (b) anyone giving shelter to a foreigner has to report
him or her to the police within 24 hours under
Foreigners Act 1946 and this was not done by
Sajid, hence he violated the law and is liable.
95. (d) their detention is not illegal in nature, procedure of
law was followed.
96. (c) Abel is accused of war crimes and should be tried
according to the procedure established by law.
Article 21 cannot be applied as it is also not
absolute in nature. His status as a refugee cannot
be a defence for his crimes.
97. (b) Refer to the last passage of Passage. (c)
Incomplete answer. (d) J and A comes under the
ambit of the act.
98. (c) The passage talks about who will come under the
ambit of act or not and wits and wisdom doesn’t
come under the ambit of the act. Therefore, this will
be the only correct answer.
99. (d) According to the passage registered society comes
under the ambit of act and society mentioned in the
question is not registered.
100. (b) Appropriate course of action will be option 2 and
option 1 doesn’t mention the proper procedure to
be followed according to passage. Therefore option
2 will be the correct answer.(c) Exaggerating
101. (c) Passage talks about subject to change in Act
through amendment therefore due to amendment
Concise Pvt Limited is not liable for the violation of
the law.
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102. (c) option (a) talks about abnormality to women but
passage 2nd talks about reduce maternal mortality
and morbidity therefore this will be incorrect
answer. Option (b) nowhere in passage medical
negligence is mentioned as a reason for
amendment. Option C is the correct reason for
amendment in MPT ACT 1971 because 2nd
passage mentions all these points.
103. (d) Not untrue means true. option (a) can be inferred
from the 6th line of the last passage that talks about
the privacy of women. Option (b) is the wrong
answer because MTP Bill 2020 talks about the
opinion of 1 Dr in 20 weeks pregnancy and the
opinion of two Dr will be required for termination of
pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks. Option(c) is correct
as 20 weeks is tantamount to 5 months.
104. (a) Exception is there in a passage that says except to
a person authorized in any law which is in
force therefore all other options became incorrect
and option A is only correct.
105. (b) This is the confusing question in which facts are
given in accordance of MTP Act 1971 but question
ask legally applicability of MTP bill 2020.
Option (a) will be incorrect because according to
MTP bill 2020 opinion of Two Doctors is mandatory
for termination of pregnancy up to 24 weeks. Option
(d) is correct because two doctorsopinion is
mention. Option(c) is incorrect because the
question asks about MTP bill 2020 as the date
mention is of the year 2021. And option gives an
explanation for MTP Act 1971.
106. (a) According to the opinion of the Doctor in question,
the termination of pregnancy will not be allowed
because conditions are not fulfilled for termination
of pregnancy as per the MTP BILL 2020 in
passage.
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
107. (a) Refer to, "With well more than 80% of its oil request
being met through imports, India unmistakably has
a great deal in question as oil costs have ascended
by 70% in rupee terms over the most recent one
year." It is obvious from the above lines that India is
worried since it imports most of its oil shares from
different nations. That is the reason it is important
to the country that the costs in the global market
are going up or down. Among the given choices,
just alternative an is there that consummately
clarifies the explanation of the worry appeared by
India in regards to the costs of the oil in the
worldwide market. Different choices are either
outside any connection to the subject at hand or
they are not right as per the data given in the
passage. This settles on alternative ‘A’ as the right
choice among the given options.
108. (d) Refer to, "Another drawn out answer for the oil
issue will be to progressively take advantage of
home-grown wellsprings of energy supply while at
the same time urging purchasers to change to other
green options. This will require a more grounded
strategy system and execution. It is obvious from
the above lines that it is needed with respect to the
public authority that home-grown sources ought to
be tapped to deliver more energy in the country.
There are additionally different choices given, for
example, making individuals utilize green
wellsprings of energy or eliminating the focal and
Page 5 of 12
 the state charges to cut down the costs of oil. This
settles on choice d the right choice among the
given options.
109. (a) Refer to, "Talking at a similar occasion, Saudi
Bedouin Energy Pastor Khalid (a) Al-Falih declined
to straightforwardly resolve to bring down oil costs,
picking rather to say that the cost of oil might have
been a lot higher however for the endeavours taken
by his nation to help supply." It is obvious from the
above lines that Saudi Arabia will do nothing more
to cut down the costs of oil in the global market
while it is additionally said that on account of Saudi
Arabia just, the costs are not higher further in the
worldwide market. Among the given choices, choice
b isn't right since it isn't there in the passage though
choices c and d can likewise be precluded because
of the very actuality that these are additionally
insignificant with regards to the passage. Just
choice a is there that clarifies appropriately the
assessment of the Oil Clergyman of Saudi Arabia.
This settles on choice a the right choice among the
given alternatives.
110. (c) Refer to, "for the time being, the public authority
could hope to broadening its global provider base to
oversee stuns better. Yet, a particular choice
conveys international dangers, for example, on
account of Iran." It is obvious from the above lines
that the public authority ought to broaden its
provider base from the worldwide local area so it
doesn't need to stress over the stock of oil to India
whenever. Among the given choices, others are
outside the current discussion and not referenced in
the passage likewise with the exception of
alternative (c) Alternative c effectively clarifies that
India ought to remember more nations for the
global provider base and that would mean no lack
of choices before the country.
111. (d) Refer to, "India's monetary fortunes keep on being
attached to the pointedly fluctuating cost of oil. At a
social affair of unmistakable oil clergymen in New
Delhi on Monday, Executive Narendra Modi asked
oil-creating nations to diminish the expense of
energy to help the worldwide economy in its way
towards recuperation. Mr. Modi likewise required a
survey of instalment terms, requesting the halfway
utilization of the rupee rather than the U.S. dollar to
pay for oil, to facilitate the weight on oil-bringing in
nations in the wake of the fortifying of the dollar."
Presently, the facts confirm that Indian Head
administrator has mentioned to ensure that the
expense of energy descends on the planet to make
it simpler for worldwide financial recuperation. He
has additionally asked to modify the instalment
terms with the goal that a portion of the instalment
could be made in Indian money as it were. This
settles on choice ‘D’ as the right choice among the
given choices.
112. (a) 'Since 5G move outs are likely even before 4G is
broadly conveyed, the received guide for 5G ought
to guarantee that the current and not so distant
future interests in 4G can be utilized. One proposed
approach has been that since administrators are
probably going to convey 5G in groups that they are
right now utilizing for 4G, strategy ought to
encourage this by making range utilization a
rationalist help. The job of wired framework,
particularly fibre optic links, is basic and correlative
to development of remote. This is on the grounds
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that enormous limits are needed in the backhaul to
take into account applications empowered through
5G. This would involve quickening the Bharat Net
program for sending fibre optic links to gram
panchayats and expanding the contribution of the
private area to abuse complementarities and
efficiencies of the private area' Explanation III is
bogus as the section discusses arrangement of
wired foundation. Articulations I and II are right as
seen from the featured parts above. Thus,
alternative A is right.
113. (c) Refer to: 'This juggernaut of truly developing ages
of innovation and approaching 5G require a steady
arrangement and administrative climate. Without it,
the area's wellbeing and India's monetary intensity
would be significantly hindered.' Proclamation III is
true.'5G likewise guarantees super solid,
exceptionally quick velocities and high data transfer
capacity portable availability and supports huge
interconnected gadgets spread across wide
regions. 5G gives top velocities of multiple times,
contrasted and 4G, like that needed in computer
generated experience applications.' Proclamations I
and II are valid. None of the assertions are
erroneous. Thus, choice c is right.
114. (c) Refer to: '… They have undeniably less range in
contrast with worldwide administrators…. A large
number of them are additionally burdened by
obligation. At any point quicker adjusts of new
innovation presentation when earlier innovation
ventures have not been recovered add further
intricacy. This juggernaut of truly developing ages
of innovation and impending 5G require a strong
arrangement and administrative climate. Without it,
the area's wellbeing and India's monetary
seriousness would be extraordinarily impaired..'
according to the featured parts, explanations III and
I are mistaken. The amount of range is less while
nothing about quality has been referenced.
Essentially, there is no notice of absence of
obligation accessibility. Explanation II is right.
Hence, choice C is right.
115. (d) Contention III is frail as India should zero in on its
own abilities and needs and not indiscriminately
adjust to what different countries appear to do.
Contention I is solid. Paragraph 1 shows that
'telecom administrators in India are amidst turning
out 4G organizations' and subsequently need
additional time. Contention II is frail. There is no
notice of other countries' advancement timetable in
5G innovation comparative with India and thus we
can't contrast our availability with dispatch such
items with theirs.
Subsequently, choice d is right.
116. (d) Refer to: '5G gives top velocities of multiple times,
contrasted and 4G, like that needed in augmented
simulation applications. It is additionally intended to
give idleness at multiple times lower than 4G. Low
dormancy is needed in applications managing basic
crisis medical services, independent vehicles or
debacle the board’.
Subsequently, choice D is right.
Page 6 of 12

Hint [117-118]:
Conditions
Students
(i) (ii) or (A) (iii)
(iv) or (B)
Abhinav    
Ankit ×   
117. (a) Is the correct answer.
118. (b) Is the correct answer.
119. (b) Option (B) is wrong because the author never
means to imply that human immune system will
evolve to resist new diseases AT THE SAME PACE
AS pathogens evolve to overcome our defences.
This is, in fact, opposite of what the author believes.
The author says that we will evolve to resist only
some diseases and for the rest we will have to
depend on medicines. If we evolve at the same
pace then the medicines are not even required!
“But as long as doctors keep having a way to
render moot those diseases that used to kill us,
natural immunity isn't essential.” Therefore, Option
(A) can be inferred.
“We have all these ways of intervening when
people get sick, when otherwise they would have
died and we would see some natural selection for
people with more robust immune systems.” Had
there been no intervention to stop diseases, people
with more robust immune systems would be the
ones to survive. Therefore, the human immune
system, on average, would have been more robust
than what it is with medicines and healthcare.
Option (C) can also be, therefore, inferred.
“For eons, this war has weeded out the weak, and
in a less combative environment, mechanisms to
sustain human survival would have grown lax.” Had
it not been an intense and long battle (against
pathogens), the immune system would have grown
lax, thereby more susceptible to failure. Option (D)
can also be, therefore, inferred.
Hence, B
120. (a) The answers to the questions in options (B), (C)
and (D) are not there in the passage. The answer to
option (A) is not only present in the passage but is
also the main point of the author‘s argument.
Hence, A
121. (b) Option (A) strengthens the author‘s argument as
the author states that people would either die or
evolve from diseases based on how robust their
immune systems are.
Option (C) has no effect on the author‘s claim about
the human immune system without medical
intervention. The option talks about an effect of
heightened immunity. So, it is irrelevant. “We have
all these ways of intervening when people get sick,
when otherwise they would have died and we
would see some natural selection for people with
more robust immune systems.” Had there been no
intervention to stop diseases, people with more
robust immune systems would be the ones to
survive. Therefore, it can be inferred that there is
loss of evolutionary robustness with the intervention
of medicines. The author also makes sweeping
statements such as humans are kind of artificial
animals and natural immunity is no longer required
in this regard. Option (B) attacks these claims of the
author. Therefore, it is the correct answer.
122. (b) The claim is surely the conclusion of the author‘s
arguments. Option (C) is wrong because it is not
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the premise. It is the conclusion for which support
(premises) are provided in the paragraph. The
remaining options identify it as conclusion but cite
different premises so we will examine them one by
one: Option (A) is wrong as the author not only
describes microorganisms as being too numerous
but also potent enough to evolve (which is a very
important factor in the author‘s argument) in
response to the medicines. Option (B) is correct.
“Most diseases are caused by very potent and
numerous microorganisms whose response to
medicines is that they quickly evolve immunities to
those medicines while maintaining their power to
infect and even kill humans.” Hence, the
conclusion that the chances of a disease–free world
are bleak. Option (D): ‘unduly’ reliance is incorrect.
Hence, B
123. (a) The questions asks about the disease that was
taken by the doctor‘s intervention. Option (A) is
clearly an example of such a disease.
Option (B) talks about decline of TB by introducing
a process to stop its transmission from the animal
to human. It didn‘t require the doctor‘s intervention.
Therefore, only Option (A) is correct. .
124. (b) A is furthering the statement, it is not reflecting the
underlying assumption behind coming up with
persuading the voter. Option II is therefore the
correct answer as it captures why political parties
come up with people pleasing schemes.
Hence, B is the right answer.
125. (c) Option C forms a connection between regularly
giving complimentary snacks and higher billing. In
the experimental stage, a few customers were
“surprised” with complimentary snacks. The
assumption is that customer will order more food
even if the complimentary snack is a regular feature
and not a surprise.
Hence, C
126. (b) Assertion is true. Birds need gravity to swallow.
This is the reason that birds lift their beaks when
eating or drinking. However, they do not need
gravity to lift their beaks, rather, they have to work
against the gravity to do so.
Hence, B
127. (b) Aishwarya was a famous Bollywood celebrity even
before her marriage. Hence, Reason is wrong.
Therefore, correct choice is B
128. (b) A particular sport being hugely popular in a few
countries is no reason for its inclusion in Olympics
which invites participation from almost all the
countries. Thus, I is weak. If Cricket is played
seriously by only a handful of countries, it’ll not
generate interest as generated by other, more
conventional games of the Olympics. Thus, II holds
strong.
Hence, B
129. (a) In the above conversation Yogesh argues in favor
of the UPA government. Refer to “the economy’s
been going steadily downhill since the UPA’s
golden era. The UPA-2 left behind a quarterly GDP
growth of 8 per cent and the NDA has successfully
levelled it to 5 per cent.”
Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.
130. (b) In the above conversation Sanju argues in favor of
the NDA government. Refer to “The UPA-2’s
economic policies are the root of all our current
troubles”
Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.
Page 7 of 12
131. (a) In the above conversation, Sanju argues that the Amount of tank filled by tap S in 60 min = 20% of
policies of previous government are responsible for 400 = 80 liter
the slowdown in economy. Option (B) and (C) are Amount of tank filled by tap P and S = 120 + 80 =
further weakening the argument of Sanju. Option 200 liter
(A) is the correct answer, because it is further ∴ Time taken to fill 400 liter = 400/200 = 2 hours =
strengthening the argument of Sanju. Hence, option 120 min
(A) is the correct answer. 141. (c) Amount of water fill by tap Q in 60 min = 25% of
132. (c) Rationale- In the second paragraph of the above 400 = 100 liter
conversation, Sanju states that “The UPA-2’s Flow rate of tap Q = 100/60 = 5/3 liter/m
economic policies are the root of all our current Amount of tank filled in 21 min = (5/3) × 21 = 35 liter
troubles” and all his other arguments are either For the flow rate of tap R,
premise to his conclusion or providing evidence to Amount of water fill by tap R in 60 min = 25% of
his conclusion. Therefore, option (C) is the correct 400 = 100 liter
answer. Flow rate of tap R = 100/60 = 5/3 liter/m
Hint [133-134]: Amount of water filled in 18 min = (5/3) × 18 = 30
Q > P(70) >S > T > U > R liter
133. (a) Is the correct answer. For the flow rate of tap P,
134. (d) Is the correct answer. Amount of water filled by tap P = 30% of 400 = 120
liter
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES Flow rate of tap P = 120/60 = 2 liter/m
Amount empty by tap P in 10 min = 10 × 2 = 20 liter
135. (b) Total number of cars in state 2 = 28% of 700 ∴ Final volume in tank = 35 + 30 - 20 = 45 liter
Total number of diesel engine cars in state 2 = 28% 142. (b) For the flow rate of Q and R,
5 28 5 Amount of water empty by tap Q = Amount of water
of 700 × = × 700 × = 70
(5+9) 100 14
empty by tap R = 25% of 400 = 100 liter
Total number of cars in state 4 = 26% of 700 Flow rate of Q = flow rate of R = 100/60 = 5/3
Total number of petrol engine cars in state 4 = 26% liter/m
26 1
of 700 × 1/ (1 + 1)= × 700 × = 91 Combine flow rate = 5/3 + 5/3 = 10/3 liter/m
100 2
Difference = 91–70 = 21 For the time taken to empty the tank,
136. (b) Total number of cars in state 3 = 32% of 700 Time taken to empty 400 liter = 400 × 3/10 = 120
3 min. = 2 hour
∴ Total number of petrol cars in state 3 = × 32% of
8 ∴ Time when tank empty = 10∶00 + 2∶00 = 12∶00
3 32
700 = × × 700 = 84 AM
8 100
And total number of cars in state 1 = 14% of 700 143. (c) Water in tank = (3/5) × 400 = 240 liter
3 Water in tank after closing tap S = 240 - 30 = 210
Number of diesel engine cars in state 1 = × 14% of
7
liter
700 = 42
84 Amount need to fill = 400 - 210 = 190 liter
∴ required percentage = × 100 = 200% For the flow rate of Q,
42
137. (d) Total number of cars in state 3 = 32% of 700 Amount of tank filled in 60 min = 25% of 400 = 100
5
∴ Number of diesel engine cars in state 3 = × 32% liter
8
Flow rate of tap Q = 100/60 = 5/3 liter/m
of 700 = 140
∴ Time taken to fill the tank = 190 × (3/5) = 114 min
Number of non-AC diesel engine cars = 100% –
3 = 1 hour 54 min
25% = 75% = th part 144. (d) P fills 120 liter in 60 minutes
4
3
Total number of diesel engine cars = 140 × = R fills 100 liter in 60 minutes
4
105. Q empty 100 liter in 60 minutes
Hence, option D is correct. S empty 80 liter in 60 minutes
138. (d) Total number of cars in state 3 = 32% of 700 = 224 Total 40 liter is filled using all four pipes in 60
Total number of cars in state 2 = 28% of 700 minutes
9 Time to fill 200 liters = 200/40 = 5 hours
Total number of petrol engine cars in state 2 = × Hint (Q.145-Q.150):
14
28% of 700 = 126
∴ Required difference= 224–126 = 98.
4
139. (b) Total number of petrol engine cars in state 1 = ×
7
14 % of 700 = 56
9
Total number of petrol engine cars in state 2 = ×
14
28% of 700 = 126
3
Total number of petrol cars in state 3 = × 32% of
8
700 = 84
Total number of petrol engine cars in state 4 = 26%
26 1
of 700 × 1/ (1 + 1)= × 700 × = 91
100 2
∴ Average total number of petrol engine cars in all
56+126+84+91 357 P1 = 56% of 200 = 112
states = = = 89.25
4 4 P2 = 63% of 200 = 126
140. (c) Amount of tank filled by tap P in 60 min = 30% of P3 = 56.5% of 200 = 113
400 = 120 liter P1 + P2 = 11% of 200 = 22
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 P1 + P3 = 8% of 200 = 16 35 5
Ratio = =
28 4
Pl + P2 + P3 = 22% of 200 = 44
147. (a) Only P1 = 30 Only P1 + P3 = 16
x + 22 + 16 + 44 = 112 30
or, x = 112 - 82 = 30 Required percentage = × 100 = 187.5 %
16
22 + 44 + y + k = 126 148. (d) At most one paper = 30 + 35 + 28 = 93
93
or, y + k = 60 ... (1) Required percentage = × 100 = 46.5 %
200
z + k + 16 + 44 = 113 149. (c) P3 = 16 + 44 + 25 + 28 = 113
or, z + k = 53 ... (2)
Only P3 = 28
30 + 22 + y + 16 + 44 + k + z = 200
Difference = 113 - 28 = 85
or, y + z + k = 88 ... (3) 150. (d) Passed in exactly two papers = 16 + 22 + 25 = 63
From eqn (1), (2) and (3), 63
k = 25, y = 35, z = 28 Required percentage = × 100 = 31.5 %
200
145. (c) Passed in paper P2 and P3 but failed in P1 = 25
146. (c) Only P2 = 35 and only P3 = 28

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Notes:

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Notes:

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Notes:

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