CLAT MOCK–18
CLAT MOCK – 18
Answer and explanation
Section–I: English
Q.1) Option (C).
Option A - All the paragraphs of the passage are joined
logically in the sense that everything connects to the
issue of freedom of speech. So, there is no distraction.
27
And the last paragraph is not bleak.
Option B - The main contention of the last paragraph is
that there is a problem in the application of the concept
of freedom of speech. The author never says that
absolute freedom of speech can’t be justified at all.
Option C - Correct answer.
Option D - There is no suspense. The last paragraph is
not necessarily a disappointment or an anti-climax.
00
12
Q.2) Option (B).
Option A - This is illogical. The author clearly says that
speech is thought made into flesh. So, we can’t say that
a speech is not dependent on thoughts.
Option B - It’s the correct answer. Refer to the lines:
1
“Speech as action is altogether different. When speech
takes the form of an action, it affects others.” Hence,
20
this is a significant difference between the two.
Option C - It’s not a difference. It’s the definition of a
speech.
Option D - It’s a distorted option. Thoughts can be
coerced. And not all speeches are results of forced
thinking.
Q.3) Option (B).
As per the passage, I and IV are examples of slander
(the first one is unfounded; the latter is defaming
someone’s reputation. Even if the lady cheated, making
a private action public without any legal basis will be
slanderous.) III is an example that is very similar to the
example of the hitman mentioned in the passage.
II is not a misuse. The newspaper has simply reported
an investigation. It’s not damaging anyone’s reputation
as there is no casting of aspersion or blame.
Hence, B is the correct answer.
Q.4) Option (D).
Option A - Refer to the line, “Presumably, the thinking
goes, we can differentiate between harmful and non-
harmful actions.” So, this is not a logical inference.
Option B - It might be incompatible with the idea of free
speech, not free thought.
(1)
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Answer and explanation
Option C - This is distorted. The author speaks the
opposite of it while talking about the concept of free
thought. The question is about speech.
Option D - This can be inferred from the last paragraph.
7
Q.5) Option (C).
In the given context, ‘untrammelled’ clearly means
unrestricted or free. So, ‘unbridled’ is the correct
answer. Options A and B are antonyms of the given
word. ‘True’ is contextually irrelevant as the paragraph
doesn’t discuss the idea of true or false thoughts.
Q.6) Option (D).
Refer to the last paragraph. The lawyer claims that he is
representing Titor. Some speculate that it’s he or his
hacker son. But nothing is confirmed. So, option D is the
correct answer.
Q.7) Option (A).
Refer to the last few lines of the passage. The main
question the author wants to know is how such a
ludicrous event sustained and even found a fan
following. So, option A is the correct answer.
Option B - Too narrow. Tone doesn’t match.
Option C - This is extreme. The author mentions the
phrase in a sarcastic manner. He is not blaming the
entire generation.
Option D - This sounds positive. The author doesn’t
portray the Titor Saga in a positive light.
Q.8) Option (C).
This can be answered via the method of elimination. In
the entire passage, the author emphasises upon the
strange Titor saga and how it was weird yet some
people found it appealing.
Option A - The author doesn’t contrast. This passage
talks about a fruitless search. But there is no mention of
what kind of online activities are worthy of pursuit.
Option B - This is slightly positive. There is a difference
between an adventure and a misadventure. This entire
episode reeks of a supposed hoax. So, this option is too
positive to the answer.
Option C - It is the best choice. The online phenomenon
refers to a hoax. Nature shows how people pursue such
theories.
Option D- This passage is not about criticising geeks. It’s
about a conspiracy theory or hoax.
CLAT MOCK–18
Q.9) Option (D).
Option A - True. As per the passage, it was released in
1975.
Option B - True. It’s mentioned as a primordial PC.
Option C - Refer to the first few lines of the last
paragraph.
Option D - It’s mentioned as a PC, not a laptop. Hence,
it’s the correct answer.
Q.10) Option (A).
The author mentions this to show that no matter who
Titor is, Titor exists. It’s not a time traveller who has
27
vanished. So, option A is the only logical conclusion. The
other options are incorrect.
Q.11) Option (B).
‘The sun fell onto’ - Personification
onto the floor. - Metonymy
‘like the piercing light’ - simile
There is no oxymoron used here. ‘Ominous’ is not the
00
‘The sun’ refers to sunray. The sun literally doesn’t fall
12
antonym of ‘radiance’. Hence, option D is the answer.
Q.12) Option (A).
The question is about the setting of the story - the
backstory or the overall mood. Hence, option A is the
1
answer. There is a mention of a hospital visit. There is a
mention of dread. There is the portrayal of the mother
20
who is clearly not well - either physically or mentally.
Option B - It’s clear from the line that the mother was
sleeping heavily. So, the slap could have been
accidental. We don’t have sufficient data.
Option C - The house has not been kept well. But we
can’t infer that the family has completely stopped
caring. It might just be temporary.
Option D - The father may or may not be able to cook.
We know he only made coffee. But we can’t ascertain
the reason to be his ineptitude. It also doesn’t talk
about the setting of the story. Rather, it talks about the
characterisation.
Q.13) Option (D).
We know that the mother is unwell. She was found
sitting in the driveway. There is a mention of a hospital
visit. But the exact cause of this can’t be determined as
‘met with an accident’ or ‘manic depressive episode’ or
‘been attacked’. Hence, D is the answer.
Q.14) Option (B).
We know the mother was in deep sleep. So, it could be
an accident. Apart from B, the other options look too
certain. Hence, B is the right answer.
(2)
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Answer and explanation
Q.15) Option (C).
Option A - We don’t have sufficient data to state that
the narrator felt homesick.
Option B - There isn’t enough data about schoolwork.
Option C - This goes with the story. So, it’s the answer.
Option D - We can’t say the narrator didn’t want to
return home.
Q.16) Option (D).
The first few lines list the different qualities Clare had
7
which were similar to that of a cat.
Option A - Clare didn’t relate to cats. We don’t know if she
liked cats or not. And it is not the point of the question.
Option B - ‘Docile’ can’t be found in the passage.
Option C - It’s a generic cat, no pet. We don’t even
know if Irene has cats.
Option D - This is the best choice.
Q.17) Option (C).
I - It is clear when Irene says that Clare was impulsive.
II - Not sure. It says she didn’t care for any apparent
danger. But that doesn’t make her impervious or
resistant or invulnerable.
III - There is one incident mentioned where she clawed
at some boys who had insulted her father. But we can’t
say it was her general trait.
IV - This is clear from the first sentence.
So, C is the correct answer.
Q.18) Option (B).
From the last paragraph, we know that the content of
the letter was not a surprise. It was what Irene knew
from the postmark. So, option B is correct.
Options A, C, and D - these are wrong.
Q.19) Option (A).
Refer to the lines: “Well, she needn’t and wouldn’t,
Irene told herself, accede to that. Nor would she assist
Clare to realize her foolish desire to return for a
moment to that life which long ago, and of her own
choice, she had left behind her.” So, option A is correct.
The other options are irrelevant or distorted.
Q.20) Option (A).
Option A - True. Extravagant - bombastic. Can’t infer the
content of the entire letter. But ‘certain’ is true.
Option B - Can’t be determined. Nothing has been
mentioned about Clare’s ability to use language. So, this
is out.
Option C - We may call the language overtly
pretentious. But we can’t say anything about Clare’s
sincerity.
Option D - The request was framed properly. But Irene
simply didn’t want to accept it.
CLAT MOCK–18
Q.21) Option (B).
It’s a main idea question. The author, in the passage,
talks about how to induce behavioural change in
customer. This will ensure the continued success of a
company. Hence, option B is the best choice.
Option A - This is too narrow. It’s just a reiteration of
the first sentence of the last paragraph.
Option C - This is a little broad. There may be other
companies too that have done what Gillette has done. B
is more to the point.
Answer and explanation
wrong woman, he could only restore peace by
promising to buy his wife another wedding dress just
like the one in which the strange woman had been
buried.” So, option A is the correct answer. The other
options are there in the passage but they are not
relevant to the question.
Q.27) Option (A).
Option A sort of expresses the main grievance. Options
C and D are the fallout of option A. Option B can’t be

7
Option D - This is narrow. And the tone doesn’t match. factually verified.

27
Q.22) Option (D).
Refer to the lines: “So year after year with single focus,
Gillette …by constantly changing men’s practical
behaviour.” So, option D correctly captures this reason.
Options A and C - These are just explanatory lines given
as examples. These are not the main reason.
Option B - It’s a vague option. We don’t know about
‘multifunctional product’ from the passage.
00
12
Q.23) Option (B).
The last two paragraphs talk about the ingenuity of the
digital age in coming up with innovative ideas to influence
consumer behaviour. So, option B is the best choice.
Option A - The paragraphs are not about Gillette.
1
Q.28) Option (B).
Option A - It’s a distorted option. He said the women
whose body was there was more good looking than his
wife. He didn’t find the body to be attractive.
Option B - Refer to the line, “He identified the clothing
of the dead woman as belonging to his wife, but when
shown the body, said he declared it had been changed.”
Option C - This is not mentioned.
Option D - This is wrong. The dress fit and he buried the
body in the dress.
Q.29) Option (B).
Option B is the best choice. It has been mentioned time
and again in the passage that the Morgue keeper was to

Option C - There is no evidence. These are general be blamed.

explanations. Secondly, changing consumer behaviour Option A - It’s close but we don’t’ know if Mr Valente
20

(not consumer behaviour in general) is the main point. was always vulnerable or he was just taken by surprise
Option D - There is no novel approach. The paragraphs due to his emotions this one instance.
expand upon the same ideas. Option C and D - Irrelevant and too extreme respectively

Q.24) Option (C). Q.30) Option (D).

Refer to the paragraph. “Actually the main question is,
do cigarette companies really want their business
model to change?” There is not sufficient data to
answer in yes or no. The author doesn’t answer the
question. So, A and B can be eliminated. D is wrong
because e-cigarettes might be new but the cigarette
companies are not new. C is the best choice keeping in
mind the main idea of the passage.
The dead woman has been described as ‘yet to be
identified’. We don’t know anything about her. ‘Lookalike’
is too strong a term. She had some similarities with Mrs
Valente. So, option D is the correct answer.
Section–II: Current Affairs including GK
Q.31) Option (A). Q.32) Option (A).

Q.25) Option (D). Q.33) Option (B). Q.34) Option (A).

Options A and B - These are distortions of the last
sentence of the passage. We don’t have sufficient data Q.35) Option (B). Q.36) Option (C).
to justify ‘always’.
Option C - The blades used in roadside barber shops Q.37) Option (A). Q.38) Option (A).
were invented around 1680, not the shop itself.
Q.39) Option (A). Q.40) Option (A).
Option D - It is true as per the first paragraph.
Q.41) Option (A). Q.42) Option (A).
Q.26) Option (A).
Refer to the lines, “Real trouble followed this, and, Q.43) Option (A). Q.44) Option (D).
when Valente had satisfied himself it was his real wife
who stood before him, and that he had buried the Q.45) Option (C). Q.46) Option (A).

(3)
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CLAT MOCK–18
Q.47) Option (C).
Q.49) Option (D).
Q.51) Option (C).
Q.53) Option (A).
Q.55) Option (C).
Answer and explanation
Q.48) Option (B). Q.72) Option (A).
During the first five years after the Constitution was
Q.50) Option (A). made, death penalty remained as the normal
punishment for murder. If a session's judge was to
Q.52) Option (D). depart from it, he was bound to set out reasons for not
awarding it to a convict for murder. Cr. P. C. was
Q.54) Option (D). amended in 1973 by which Parliament directed that
special reasons shall be shown if the Sessions Judge
Q.56) Option (A). imposed death penalty on the convicted person.

7
Q.57) Option (A). Q.58) Option (D). Q.73) Option (A).
There a majority of judges declared that death penalty

Q.59) Option (C).
Q.61) Option (B).
Q.63) Option (C).
27
Q.60) Option (A). could be imposed only in "rarest of rare cases in which
the alternative sentence of life is unquestionably
Q.62) Option (D). foreclosed". Thereafter, that became the law as binding
on all courts in India because of Article 141. Thus,
Q.64) Option (A). option A is the right answer.

Q.65) Option (C).

Q.67) Option (D).

Q.66) Option (C). 00 Q.74) Option (A).
In the absence of any legislation backing the use of
AarogyaSetu app, whether mandatory or voluntary, any
12
such use is unconstitutional. The app tells the actual
Section–III: Legal Reasoning location of the users which isin clear violation to the
right to privacy.
Q.68) Option (B).
Article 72 of the Constitution provides that the Q.75) Option (B).
1

President and the Governor have the power to show Article 21 of the Constitution talks about the right to life
mercy on the convict who has been awarded death and personal liberty. Right to privacy has been observed
20

penalty and convert death penalty into a term of life
imprisonment.
Q.69) Option (D).
Death penalty is not the general rule, rather it is the
exception. It has to be awarded in the rarest of the rare
cases. The facts of the above case clearly show that the
offence committed by Mukesh does not fall under the
category of rarest of rare cases.
Q.70) Option (C).
There a majority of judges declared that death penalty
could be imposed only in "rarest of rare cases in which
the alternative sentence of life is unquestionably
foreclosed". Thereafter, that became the law as binding
on all courts in India because of Article 141.
Q.71) Option (A).
During the first five years after the Constitution was
made, death penalty remained as the normal
punishment for murder. If a session's judge was to
depart from it, he was bound to set out reasons for not
awarding it to a convict for murder. Cr. P. C. was
amended in 1973 by which Parliament directed that
special reasons shall be shown if the Sessions Judge
imposed death penalty on the convicted person.
(4)
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to be a part of the right to life and personal liberty. In
the above case, the company was using the location
with the permission of the uses for business purposes.
Q.76) Option (D).
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution safeguards the
highest achievable standard of both health and privacy.
The choice between health and privacy is in itself a false
choice to leave up to someone, as both are intrinsic to
right to life and personal liberty.
Q.77) Option (B).
Exercising the fundamental right to freedom of speech
and expression is not a crime. There was no risk to the
national security and hence it was not for any legitimate
purpose or basis. Thus, the Government has violated his
right to privacy by recording his call records and
location. Thus, his right to privacy has been violated.
Q.78) Option (D).
The tests laid down in Puttaswamy judgment, which are
that of proportionality, the existence of a law, fair
procedure and most importantly, requirement of a
legitimate purpose for implementation of any kind of
surveillance.
CLAT MOCK–18
Q.79) Option (D).
Where there is threat to the national security and the
orders have been obtained from the Court, then the call
recording done does not violate the right to privacy.
However, if after the suspects were found to be not
guilty, the call recording done after that amounts to
violation of the right to privacy.
Q.80) Option (C).
It is clear from the facts of the above question that
there is trademark infringement and LabelMira has
theright to sue the business house for infringing their
27
trademarked logo. The business house is not authorized
to use the logo on their own clothes as it was done with
the aim tomislead the clients.
Q.81) Option (B).
In case of a registered trademark, one can sue for
infringement. However, when the trademark is
unregistered, one cannot sue for infringement but
00
certain remedies might be available if the logo, symbol
12
etc. enjoys considerable repute. The owner of a
trademark can also prevent the use of his mark or sign
by another competitor.
Q.82) Option (B).
1
Under the existing law, when an unauthorized person
uses a trademark that is 'identical' or 'deceptively
20
similar' to a registered trademark, it is known as
infringement. Thus, similar or identical logos or designs
are not registered in the first place by the authorities.
Q.83) Option (A).
A trademark includes a name, word, or sign that
differentiates goods from the goods of other
enterprises. It is a distinctive sign or indicator of some
kind which is used by an individual, business
organization or other legal entity to identify uniquely
the source of its products and/or services to consumers,
and to distinguish its products or services from those of
other entities. However, the registering of a process is
not covered in trademark.
Q.84) Option (A).
Trademarks have been used very commonly by the
most reputed brands in the world. But numerous
instances exist where other competitors have tried to
dupe customers by using similar logos etc. and thus
various disputes have turned up in this area of law as well.
Q.85) Option (A).
Separation of power is the part of the basic structure
which cannot be amended under condition. Thus, the
act enacted in question is invalid because it amends the
(5)
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Answer and explanation
powers of the judiciary which is against the basic
structure of the constitution. Thus, option A is incorrect.
Q.86) Option (C).
Basic structure of the Constitution could not be
abrogated even by a constitutional amendment. The
Supreme Court has upheld in the landmark judgment
that any act or amendment which is affects he basic
structure negatively is invalid. Thus, statements in
options A. B and D are incorrect.
7
Q.87) Option (C).
The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be
amended under any condition. It has been observed by
the Supreme Court many times. Sovereignty of the
nation is also included in the basic structure. Thus, any
amendment to that amends the basic structure which is
invalid.
Q.88) Option (D).
In Golak Nath vs State of Punjab case in 1967, the
Supreme Court overruled its earlier decision. The
Supreme Court held that the Parliament has no power
to amend Part III of the constitution as the fundamental
rights are transcendental and immutable. The
judgments given in Shankri Prasad case and Sajjan Singh
case were overruled.
Q.89) Option (B).
The basic features of the Constitution are as follows:
Supremacy of the constitution, Republican and
democratic form of government, Secular character of
the constitution, Federal character of the constitution,
Separation of power, Unity and Sovereignty of India,
Individual freedom etc. Thus, the Judiciary cannot
amend the fundamental rights.
Q.90) Option (B).
Rule 5 of the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control)
Rules, 2000, which states that a loud speaker or a public
address system shall not be used except after obtaining
written permission from the concerned authority. Thus,
the loudspeakers can be used with the permission of
the Municipal Corporation.
Q.91) Option (B).
The use of loudspeakers is not covered under the scope
of Article 25 of the Constitution. To use the loudspeakers,
permission has to be taken in writing by the concerned
authority. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
Q.92) Option (D).
Any congressional prayer is organized at any Mosque in
violation of social distancing guidelines, the same would
CLAT MOCK–18
be illegal and stopped by the authorities. It is done so to
avoid the spread of the virus and not in violation of the
fundamental right guaranteed under Article 25.
Q.93) Option (D).
Offering prayers are an essential part of the religion but
using loudspeakers is not. In the above case,
loudspeakers were not used at all even though they had
the permission to use it. Thus, there was no noise
pollution and the temple did nothing wrong.
Q.94) Option (B).
27
Until and unless there is a license/permission from the
authorities concerned under the Noise Pollution Rules,
under no circumstances, Azan can be recited through
any sound amplifying devices. Thus, the permission is
very necessary for the use of loudspeakers. Thus, option
B is the right answer.
Q.95) Option (B).
00
Force majeure is applicable when a person takes all the
12
reasonable and precautionary measures to avoid the
act but it still occurs due to phenomena out of one’s
control. There is no fault of any individual in that
matter.
1
Q.96) Option (A).
A party may not be able to rely on force majeure if its
20
performance has been made more difficult or delayed,
but not completely prevented in other words, it can still
perform, but it is more difficult to do so and/or it
cannot perform as expected. The fact that it is more
expensive to perform will also not normally entitle
reliance on the force majeure clause.
Q.97) Option (C).
The force majeure clause is applicable only when it is
impossible to perform the act due to natural disasters
or other phenomenon’s which are out of human being’s
control. But if the act can still be performed with some
difficulties, then this clause is not applicable which so is
in the above case.
Q.98) Option (A).
Force majeure means "causes you cannot prevent and
for which you are not responsible”. However, taking
reasonable precautions is necessary. But in the above
case, there was no natural disaster and there was mere
negligence on the part of Muskaan.
Q.99) Option (C).
Temporary injunction is filed during the pendency of a
suit, and it can't be filed independently. This injunction
prevails until the next order of the court or till disposal
(6)
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Answer and explanation
of the case. Mandatory injunction it refers to an
injunction that is preferred to undo an
illegal/unauthorized act which has already been done/
performed i. e. to restore the things to their original
position as they were or if not possible then pay the
equal amount of money.
Q.100) Option (A).
The two provisions which govern the mandatory
injunction are (1) the necessity to prevent breach of an
7
obligation by the intervention of the court and (2) that
such act should be of nature capable of enforcement by
the court. Order 39 of CPC talks about temporary
injunction.
Q.101) Option (C).
Mandatory Injunction refers to an injunction that is
preferred to undo an illegal/unauthorized act which has
already been done/ performed i. e. to restore the things
to their original position as they were or if not possible
then pay the equal amount of money. In the above case
the land can be restored in the original position.
Q.102) Option (B).
Temporary injunction is the best option because the
construction of the house can be stayed for the time
being. Till that time the brothers can approach the
court and divide the shares equally among themselves.
Q.103) Option (A).
The right to privacy is not an absolute right. But the
Government putting camera in the vehicles violates the
personal space and not everyone is a terrorist.
Everyone’s right to privacy cannot be violated in the
name of national security. Thus, option A is the correct
answer.
Q.104) Option (C).
Right to privacy is not an absolute right; it may be
subject to certain reasonable restrictions for prevention
of crime, public disorder and protection of others. It is
for the betterment of the nation that the criminal
records of the politicians have to be shown because
people have a right to make an informed choice.
Q.105) Option (C).
It is essential for a health insurance that the medical
records of the insured are available and according to
that the insurance amount is decided. It is done with
bona fide intention and does not violated the right to
privacy by accessing the medical records of the
individual.
CLAT MOCK–18 Answer and explanation

Section–IV: Quantitative Technique Q.109) Option (B).

The total number of laptops sold increased by 25% in
S.106-110) Solution for questions: the year 2021 as compared to the year 2020.
Let the number of laptops sold in the year 2020 be Y.
It is known that the total sale of all brands in the year Therefore, Y  125/100 = 3,60,000
2021 is 3,60,000. Based on this value, we can calculate Y = 3,60,000  4/5
the sale of the individual brands as follows: Y = 72000  4 = 288,000
It is also known that the number of laptops sold by
P1 10 36000 brand P2 increased by 20%. Let the number of laptops

7
P2 30 108000 sold by brand P2 in the year 2020 be P.
P3 20 72000 Therefore, P  120/100 = 108000
P = 108000  100/120

27
P4 25 90000
P = 90000 laptops
P5 15 54000
% market share of brand P2 in the market in the year
2020 = (90000/288000)  100
Also, the ratio of Domestic to International sale for each
= 9000/288
brand has been given.

P1
P2
Domestic

1
International

3
00 = 1000/32
= 125/4
= 31.25%

Q.110) Option (D).

12
P3 3 2 Required value is 90000 - 54000 = 36,000 laptops.
P4
P5 1 1 S.111-115) Solution for questions:

36 units
1

Q.106) Option (A).

Number of international laptops sold by brand P3 = 2/5 P1: 12 hours 3 units
of 72000 = 2  14400 P2: 18 hours 2 units
20

= 28800 E1: 36 hours -1 unit

Number of domestic laptops sold by brand P2 = 1/4 of If all three of them are working one in each hour, 4
108000 = 27000 units will get filled in 3 hours.
Required value = [(28800 - 27000)/27000]  100 Therefore, 32 units will get filled in 24 hours.
25th hour: P1: 3 units fill: Total 35 units
= 1800  100 / 27000
Remaining 1 unit will be filled by P2 in 1/2 an hour.
= 6.66%
Total time taken = 25.5 hours
Q.107) Option (C).
Q.111) Option (B).
If brand P4 has sold 15% of its laptop in the domestic
market, then it will be brand P2 which would have sold
Q.112) Option (C).
the highest number of laptops in the international
P1 has worked for 9 hours.
market.
Q.113) Option (D).
Q.108) Option (B).
By the time the tank is filled, P2 has worked for 8.5
The total number of laptops sold by brand P1 in the
hours.
domestic and international markets put together is
36,000. Total units filled by P2 = 8.5  2 = 17 units.
The sum of the respective components of the ratio of Fraction of the total work done by P2 = 17/36
laptops sold in the domestic and international market
for brand P1 must be a factor of 36,000. If this does not Q.114) Option (C).
happen, the number of laptops sold will be in decimal If only P1 and E1 would have been working then,
which is not acceptable. 36 units
Out of the 4 options, only option b ie 5:2 is one which is P1 : 12 hours 3 units
not possible as 5 + 2 ie 7 is not a factor of 36. E1 : 36 hours -1 units
2 units fill in 2 hours

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CLAT MOCK–18 Answer and explanation
34 units fill in 34 hours From the statements that show why A earns more than
Remaining work is 2 units which will be filled by P1 in D it follows that A also earns more than or equal to C.
2/3 hours or 40 minutes. With option (A) as premise we cannot conclusively say
So, total time taken = 34 hours and 40 minutes that A earns more commission than D.

Q.115) Option (A). Q.123) Option (A).

It is known that E1 can empty the tank alone in 36
hours. So the capacity of the tank will be equal to the Q.124) Option (C).
water drained out by E1 in 36 hours. This option is the negation of a weaken statement. If
It is known that E1 drains out water at the rate of 3 the weaken statement is negated then it becomes

7
litres per minute. necessarily true for the conclusion. Since bankruptcy
So, capacity of the tank = 3  60  36 = 180  36 = 6480 has been cited as a reason, negating any other reason

27
litres for bankruptcy would make the conclusion valid.

S.116-120) Solution for questions: Q.125) Option (C).

The last lines is a premise.
Q.116) Option (C).
Required value = [(7000 - 5000)/5000]  100
= 40%

Q.117) Option (A).

00 Q.126) Option (D).
This is a bridge assumption. From just ice cream
flavours the author concludes about candies without
specifying the connection. This option gives the
12
Let the number of students studying in University P in connection hence is the assumption.
the year 2017 be S.
Therefore, S  125/100 = 4500 Q.127) Option (B).
S  5 = 4500  4 B shows that the theory of liking one flavour in one
S = 3600 product doesn’t lead to same flavour in another
1

product.
Q.118) Option (D).
20

The lowest growth rate has been shown by University Q Q.128) Option (C).
in the year 2021. The entire reliance on renewable sources is by banking
on their sustenance and availability. Hence C has been
Q.119) Option (A). assumed.
Number of students studying in University Q in the year
2021 is 7000. Q.129) Option (C).
Let the number of boys be b and so the number of girls C ascertains that their initial cost while high will not
will be 1.5b. remain so once they are in use. A is also strengthening
b + 1.5b = 7000 but only the minor claim about non – renewable
2.5b = 7000 sources of energy. b weakens
b = 7000  10 / 25
b = 70  4  10 = 2800 Q.130) Option (C).
Number of boys is 2800 and number of girls is 4200.
Q.131) Option (D).
Q.120) Option (D). This is a cause effect argument where the author’s
Required value = [(6200-5000)/5000]  100 hypothesis is based on the cause that the mutation
= 1200  100 / 5000 protects from the flu and is ascertained by the
= 120/5 = 24% descendants of the town who had the mutation. The
assumption is that the cause is the mutation by denying
that the mutation is not the effect, which has
Section–V: Logical Reasoning descended to the new generation.
Q.121) Option (A). Q.132) Option (A).
Q.122) Option (A). Q.133) Option (B).
A, C and D follow the rules of S -----N

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CLAT MOCK–18
Q.134) Option (D).
D does not follow as it shows an invalid option of S-------
not N.
Q.135) Option (A).
The statement shows two possibilities of what will
happen that the exams are over. Rest options either
show both or none of the alternatives.
Q.136) Option (C).
C shows S-----N
27
Q.137) Option (C).
As can be seen the original statement that shows the
two are different. A, B AND D show them to be same
Q.138) Option (D).
A shows technique which is antithetical to walking, B
and C oppose the passage that show walking as fit for 00
all and not only women. D brings out the author’s point.
12
Q.139) Option (A).
A shows that walking alone cannot be such a good idea.
B is incomplete, it says what the passage already does
about muscle but doesn’t show why we need muscles.
C is irrelevant and so is D.
1
Q.140) Option (C).
20
The author assumes that people can only exclusively
take up walking or other health exercise forms; what
about a scenario that both can be done? In order to
validate the conclusion this needs to be negated and
hence it will become the assumption.
Q.141) Option (C).
The main point of the passage is about psychologists
developing tools people can use to battle
misinformation. Two such tools have been discussed –
prebunking and debunking. Paragraph 3 explains
prebunking by citing an experiment that was conducted
on a group of people and similarly paragraph 4 explains
debunking by citing another experiment.
Option (A): This comparison has not been made in the
passage, and hence it cannot be inferred. It cannot be
the main point if it cannot be inferred.
Option (B): This is mentioned in the passage, but it is
not the main point as it does not reflect author’s
primary purpose of writing the passage.
Option (C): This perfectly encapsulates the main point
of the passage.
Option (D): It is mentioned as one of the points
important to “debunk” (battle) misinformation. It is not
the main point of the passage.
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Answer and explanation
Q.142) Option (C).
The difference between prebunking and debunking is
that in prebunking the readers are given advance
knowledge to alert them that the information they are
about to consume would not be entirely genuine, and in
debunking readers or people who share misinformation
are “nudged” into looking into the article that they
already shared more carefully to make them realise
what they shared was misinformation. In debunking,
basically, the readers of the article are made aware of
7
the misinformation in the article after they have read it
or shared it.
Option (A): In both prebunking and debunking
experiments the messages were sent out to the
readers. The difference was that in prebunking they
were sent prior to the artcle containing misinformation
and in debunking the message was sent after the
people have read and shared the article containing
misinformation.
Option (B): It is mentioned in the case of debunking that
it involves basic training in critical thinking but in a very
light form. We are not sure if it definitely helps
improving critical thinking skill, but even if it were, we
do not from the passage whether prebunking also helps
people improve their critical thinking skills. So, whether
it’s a difference between the two approaches we
cannot say for sure.
Option (C): Yes, this is what happens in debunking as
opposed to prebunking. This is the correct option.
Option (D): This is saying the opposite. This is true of
prebunking and not of debunking.
Q.143) Option (C).
Option (A): Whether they are equally effective or not
cannot be inferred from the passage.
Option (B): In debunking people get to know about the
misinformation in the article only after they shared it.
Option (C): Yes, both approaches make use of
interventions - sending out messages to the readers.
Q.144) Option (A).
Option (A) tells us that debunking is better than
prebunking in battling misinformation. And, Pennycook
has demonstrated how debunking is an effective
approach to battle misinformation in the passage. This
option strengthens his position.
Option (B): This neither provides support nor weakens
the debunking approach.
Option (C): This option provides support for prebunking,
and Pennycook is a proponent of debunking.
Option (D): “At the very moment the article is
presented to them” provides support for prebunking.
CLAT MOCK–18 Answer and explanation
Q.145) Option (C). Q.146) Option (D).
Sander Liden is a proponent of prebunking. So, an
option that gets support from the prebunking approach Q.147) Option (C).
will be the correct option.
Option (A): This option does not mention tagging before Q.148) Option (B).
or after the reader has consumed the information. If
the tagging is after the reader has read the article/fake Q.149) Option (A).
news, then it will be contrary to what Sander believes.
Option (B): Sander “found that presenting information Q.150) Option (D).
about a petition that denied the reality of climate

7
science following true information about climate change
cancelled any benefit of receiving the true information.”

27
So, this option goes against what Sander would agree to.
Option (C): Yes. This is what he found out through his
social experiment.
Option (D): This option refers to the debunking approach.
We do not know Sander’s view on debunking.

00
S.146-150) Solution for questions: The cubes are cut as
per given in the figure: (25 out of 125 cubes are marked)
1 12
20

3 - Side paint: Cubes which are at the vertices will have

three exposed surfaces and there are total 8 vertices in
a cube. (e. g. cubes numbered 1, 5, 21 and 25)
2 - Side painted: Cubes at the edges (excluding the
vertices) will have two exposed surfaces. On every
edge, there are 3 such cubes and there are 12 edges.
So, total 12 × 3 = 36. (e. g. cubes numbered 2, 3, 4, 6,
11, 16, 10, 15, 20, 22, 23, 24)
1 - Side pained: Cubes at the surfaces (excluding the
edges and vertices) will have one exposed surface. On
every surface, there are 32 = 9 such cubes and there are
6 surfaces. So, total 6 × 9 = 54
(e. g. cubes numbered 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18, 19)
0 - Side painted: the cubes at the core will have no
exposed surface. So, if you remove one layer from every
direction, 5 × 5 × 5 cube becomes 3 × 3 × 3 cube. So,
total = 27

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