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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow
Question 2: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
Question 4: A. preservative B. congratulate
C. preferential D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the sun.
C D
Question 6: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
Question 7: Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: There should be an international law against ______.
A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation
Question 9: I’d rather you _____ home now.
A. going B. go C. gone D. went
Question 10: Don’t worry! I have _____ tire at the back of my car.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 11: ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had
Question 12: Susan’s doctor insists _____ for a few days.
A. that she is resting B. her resting C. that she rest D. her to rest
Question 13: We couldn’t fly _____ because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics
Question 14: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.
A. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight
Question 15: My mother told me to ______for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. send B. write C. rent D. turn
Question 16: Jane _____ law for four years now at Harvard.
A. is studying B. has been studying
C. studies D. studied
Question 17: He _____ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. should have gone
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C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go
Question 18: I won’t change my mind _____ what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 19: How many times have I told you ______ football in the street?
A. not playing B. do not play
C. not to play D. not to have played
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: -“Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”
-“________”
A. Good way! B. You are right. C. Oh, hard luck! D. Good job!
Question 21: - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
- Laura: “_______”.
A. Of course not. You bet! B. Well, that’s very surprising.
C. There’s no doubt about it. D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 25: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents.
A. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.
B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.
C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents.
D. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.
Question 27: He had hardly left the office when the phone rang.
A. No sooner had he left the office than the phone rang.
B. No sooner he had left the office than the phone rang.
C. No sooner he had left the office when the phone rang.
D. No sooner he did left the office than the phone rang.
Question 28: My boss works better when he’s pressed for time.
A. The more time my boss has, the better he works.
B. The less time my boss has, he works better.
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C. The less time my boss has, the better he works.
D. The less time my boss has, he works the better.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the
country.
A. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its
merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are easily
influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than
relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long
understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the
reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (33) _______ to how much money
they make and what television ads they watch that they independently arrive at the same decision?
Or do they copy one another, perhaps (34) ________ envy or perhaps because they have shared
information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big
influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the
chances that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers
argued that it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even
more than new cars.
Question 31: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place
Question 32: A. wrong B. silly C. bad D. daft
Question 33: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern
Question 34: A. for B. as to C. out of D. about
Question 35: A. thing B. point C. matter D. fact
A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and
landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are
not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby
planes are moving.
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The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The
echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar,
however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of
light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radiation
waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining
the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the
distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the
term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an
object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air
traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging
C. alternatives to radar D. history of radar
Question 37: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. size B. weight C. speed D. shape
Question 38: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous
Question 39: The phrase “a burst“ in the second paragraph is closet in meaning in which of the
following?
A. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray
Question 40: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. a radar set B. a short burst
C. a radiation wave D. light
Question 41: Which type of waves does radar use?
A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light
Question 42: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology
C. other technology D. a history of flying
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a
hindrance, and may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of
interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy of job applicants. Of
the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out. The first reason is
related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good trait,
their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual who
dresses smartly and shows self-confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well
regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs when
interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence, in an
interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression
given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly demonstrated that such an
impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers.
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A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who
appears exceptionally intelligent . Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who
gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other
selection procedures have been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the
various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability
measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.
Question 43: This passage mainly discusses the ______.
A. effects of interviewing on job applicants
B. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
C. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
D. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
Question 44: The word “hindrance” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. light
Question 45: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics
Question 46 : According to the passage, the halo effect _______.
A. stands out as the worst judgmental error
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
C. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 47: The word “confirm” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent
Question 48: According to the passage, the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
B. is the one that stays with the interviewer
C. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
D. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
Question 49: The word “skews” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. biases B. opposes C. improves D. distinguishes
Question 50: The word “this” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability
C. predict candidate suitability D. devise accurate tests
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 2
Question 1: A. canoeing B. penalty C. rival D. tsunami
Question 2: A. ejects B. defends C. advocates D. breaths
Question 3: A. president B. physicist C. inventor D. property
Question 4: A. economy B. unemployment
C. communicate D. particular
Question 5: Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a classical
A B C
musician.
D
Question 6: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided
A B
not to cancel their climb.
C D
Question 7: Despite of the pills which are available, many people still have trouble sleeping.
A B C D
Question 8: Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!
A. having B. making C. doing D. taking
Question 9: This library card will give you free access _______ the Internet eight hours a day.
A. on B. to C. from D. in
Question 10: The United States consists of fifty states, _______ has its own government.
A. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that
Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 12: John paid $2 for his meal, _______ he had thought it would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _____ by 2015.
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 14: Only when you grow up _______ the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 15: She had to hand in her notice _______ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. with B. from C. in D. to
Question 16: They didn’t find _______ in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. it easy live
C. it to live easy D. easy to live
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Question 17: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______ ?”
A. will you B. don’t you
C. can’t you D. do you
Question 18: There was nothing they could do _______ leave the cat at the roadside where it had
broken down.
A. but B. instead of C. than D. unless
Question 19: If you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Don’t put it _______.
A. on B. off
C. over D. up
Question 20: -“How do you like your steak done?”
-“________.”
A. I don’t like it much B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much
Question 21: - Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”
- Helen: “_______”.
A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you
C. I’d rather not D. You can say that again
Question 22: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 23: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful
Question 24: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on B. put up with
C. take away from D. give on to
Question 25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 26: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new house.
A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.
B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.
C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house.
D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.
Question 27: He said: “I’m sorry I didn’t reply to the letter.”
A. He apologized for not to reply to the letter.
B. He apologized for not to replying to the letter.
C. He apologized for didn’t reply to the letter.
D. He apologized for not replying to the letter.
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Question 28: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind .
B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
Question 29: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit
unstable and could get hysterical.
A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told
frightening stories.
B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories,
but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because she
only laughs instead of getting scared .
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably
emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.
Question 30: We choose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the
night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going
around for years. However, few (31) _______ have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect,
there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (32) _______ sixth sense. The study
involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered and with their
backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. The results consistently
showed that the children who could not see were able to (33) _______ when they were being stared
at. In a total of 18,000 trials carried worldwide, the children correctly sensed when they were being
watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting
the children who were being watched outside the room, (34) _______ from the starters by the
windows. The results, though less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr. Sheldrake, the
biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (35) _______ enough to find out
through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually come about.
Question 31: A. tries B. attempts C. tests D. aims
Question 32: A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure
Question 33: A. notice B. find C. reveal D. tell
Question 34: A. parted B. split C. divided D. separated
Question 35: A. persuading B. concluding C. convincing D. satisfying
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indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything
else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible and copyright
deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of
creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television shows,
software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other forms of intellectual
or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright
establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to
this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the research
and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give away copies of
books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold
the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received from the
copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be
played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to
pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the
other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are accepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted property
until they are published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work created
before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was
passed.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners B. Legal ownership of creative work
C. Examples of copyright piracy D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 37: The word “extended” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is intended to protect _______.
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic work
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work
C. paintings and photographs from theft
D. computer software and videos from being copied
Question 39: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 40: Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if _______.
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 41: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their
students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
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C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 42: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the
following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking
C. A school policy D. A household rule
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a
jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,
based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains
nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member.
There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become
one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary
cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals
devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the
group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform
tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige,
or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the
shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is
loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks
down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly
speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is
sometimes used for this relationship.
Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
Question 44: The word “cherished” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 45: The word “fuse” in the second paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.
A. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react
Question 46 : Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by
information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate.
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and
writing skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
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Question 47: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary
cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
C. To get rewards for themselves
D. To defeat a common enemy
Question 48: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined
in the fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 50: Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?
A. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion.
B. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic.
C. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations.
D. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 3
Question 1: A. produced B. believed C. stopped D. laughed
Question 2: A. alien B. alloy C. alley D. anthem
Question 3: A. elephant B. dinosaur C. buffalo D. mosquito
Question 4: A. abnormal B. initial
C. innocent D. impatient
Question 5: Much fats are composed of one molecule of glycerin combined with three molecules
A B
of fatty acids.
C D
Question 6: Never in the history of humanity has there been more people living on this relatively
A B C D
small planet.
Question 7: As a result of the Women’s Movement, women now holds positions that were
A B
once restricted to men.
C D
Question 8: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn’t done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 9: You can go to the party tonight ________ you are sober when you come home.
A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
Question 10: She must ________ in the garage when we came that’s why she didn’t hear the bell.
A. have been working B. be working
C. have worked D. work
Question 11: I’m sorry, but I’ve got _______ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 12: It’s essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
Question 13: I decided to go to the library as soon as I ________.
A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals,
________ ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas
C. whether or not D. even though
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Question 15: Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length like B. the same length as
C. the same long like D. the same long as
Question 16: ________ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten
years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
Question 17: ________, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 18: Fire safety in family houses, ________ most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 19: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in
C. do away D. do down
Question 20: -“Mr. Adams is going to retire next month.”
-“________.”
A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don’t say!
C. Right, you’d probably be the next. D. Congratulations!
Question 21: -“______.”
-“Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position.
Question 22: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the
United States.
A. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles
Question 23: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken
brilliant thinkers to recognize their potential.
A. accidents B. misunderstandings
C. incidentals D. misfortunes
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent
C. complicated D. guess
Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
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Question 26:”It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom.” said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 27: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a strike at the airport.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a strike at the airport.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at the
airport.
C. A strike at the airport almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a strike at the airport forced their holiday plans to nothing.
Question 28: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving .
B. He didn’t have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. He wasn’t driving slow enough to avoid the accident.
Question 29: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here .
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 30: “Cigarette?”, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused .
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are
scarcely more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but (31) _______ a child
could be counter-productive if she isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a (32) _______ attitude and
take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of stimulating books and
other activities. Nowadays, there is plenty of good material available for young children, and of
course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (33) _______ them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge
range of videos, which can (34) _______ and extend the pleasure a child finds in books and are
equally valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad result as
far as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programs
not intended for their age group. Too many television programs (35) ________ an incurious,
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uncritical attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult; however, approved viewing
of programs designed for young children can be useful.
Question 31: A. insisting B. forcing C. making D. starting
Question 32: A. cheerful B. contented C. hopeful D. relaxed
Question 33: A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract
Question 34: A. uphold B. found C. reinforce D. assist
Question 35: A. induce B. imply C. suggest D. attract
EDUCATION IN THE FUTURE
Education is another area of social life in which information technology is changing the way
we communicate. Today’s college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn about
their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality they can participate in lifelike
simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education made possible
through developments in information technology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the
older children attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from a
teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students must
complete a minimum number of study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours by
studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the day
and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning
adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number of hours a week each student
studies on-line as well as that students’ learning materials and assessment activities. Reports will be
available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best learning activities and
condition for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can also identify areas of
weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students’ needs.
Question 36: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The effect of information technology on education.
B. students don’t have to go to school any more.
C. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
D. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
Question 37: How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school weekly?
A. No time B. Once or twice C. Three D. Four
Question 38: Who/What counts the number of hours per week that students spend learning?
A. Virtual reality B. Teacher
C. Parents D. Computer software
Question 39: What CAN’T the software do?
A. Monitor the time the students learn.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Find out the best activities for the students.
D. Identify weaknesses of the students.
Question 40: What is NOT mentioned as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can stay at home to learn.
B. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
15
C. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
D. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
Psychologists are interested in the reasons why some people like taking part in risky sports.
When they studied people who were learning to jump from a plane with a parachute, they found that
parachutists’ bodies produced large amounts of two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline, just
before they made their jump.
These hormones help to prepare us for any sudden activity. Adrenaline increases the heart rate
and provides more sugar for the muscles, while nor does adrenaline make us react more quickly.
However, nor adrenaline also stimulates apart of the brain which controls feelings of pleasure.
Some psychologists have concluded that it is a feeling of pleasure caused by this hormone which
makes certain people want to participate in dangerous sports.
Another possible reason is the level of arousal in part of the brain. According to some
psychologists, the brain tries to maintain a certain level of arousal. They believe that people who
normally have a low level of arousal look for excitement and new experiences in order to stimulate
themselves, whereas people who usually have a high level of arousal try to avoid risks and
unfamiliar situations in order not to become overexcited. If the psychologists are right, people with
a low arousal are the ones who enjoy participating in dangerous sports and activities.
It is thought that people with low levels of arousal have a slower-reacting nervous system than
people with higher arousal levels. It may therefore be possible to find out your level of arousal by
testing your nervous system. A quick way of doing this is to put some lemon juice on your tongue.
If you produce a lot of saliva, your nervous system has been affected by the lemon and so you
probably have a high level of arousal; if you produce little of saliva, you probably have a low
arousal level. If you have a low level, you might enjoy taking part in risky sports. However, this
does not mean that you have to try parachuting!
Question 41: Why did the parachutists’ bodies produce a lot of adrenaline and nor adrenaline before
they jumped from a plane?
A. This is a natural reaction which helps to prepare one for sudden activity.
B. Because they had high arousal levels.
C. It is a natural reaction which guards them against the effects of accidents.
D. Because they had taken drugs which led to the production of these two hormones.
Question 42: What two possible reasons are given for some people’s desire to participate in
dangerous sports?
A. A lack of common sense, and a high level of arousal.
B. A low level of arousal, and an inborn desire for adventure.
C. The pleasure that results from the production of nor adrenaline, and a low level of
arousal.
D. A desire to show off, and a lack of common sense.
Question 43: What does the brain try to maintain, according to some psychologists?
A. A high temperature. B. A low temperature.
C. A certain level of arousal. D. A sense of safety.
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Question 44 : Why do psychologists believe that people with a high level of arousal try to avoid
danger?
A. Because they already have the level of excitement which the brain tries to maintain.
B. Because they are more aware of the dangers involved.
C. Because they already have enough of the two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline.
D. Because they would not be able to cope with accidents.
Question 45: What is shown by putting lemon juice on your tongue?
A. It shows that you have a high level of arousal if no saliva is produced.
B. It indicates your level of arousal by amount of saliva that is produced.
C. It can indicate whether your saliva is more acidic or more alkaline.
D. It is a good test of your sense of taste.
Question 46: What kinds of substances are adrenaline and nor adrenaline?
A. Subatomic particles.
B. Minerals.
C. Vitamins.
D. Hormones.
Question 47: What substances is thought to stimulate the brain to make us feel pleasure?
A. Adrenaline.
B. Nor adrenaline.
C. Lemon juice.
D. Manganese dioxide.
Question 48: Which of the following does adrenaline do?
A. It weakens the muscles.
B. It makes people afraid.
C. It makes the heart beat more quickly.
D. It makes the heart beat more slowly.
Question 49: Where were the parachutists when, according to the passage, they produced large
amount of the two hormones?
A. On an airplane B. In the air
C. On the ground D. At sea
Question 50: According to some psychologists, what kind of people try to avoid unfamiliar
situations?
A. People who do not like lemon juice.
B. People who have a low hormone content.
C. People who normally have a low level of arousal.
D. People who normally have a high level of arousal.
17
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 4
Question 1: A. affected B. looked C. decreased D. washed
Question 2: A. sugar B. solar C. super D. subside
Question 3: A. atmosphere B. oxygen
C. release D. fertilize
Question 4: A. contaminate B. garbage
C. eruption D. familiar
Question 5: I don’t believe there is any one best suited for the job than Mrs.Marellis.
A B C D
Question 6: Proofreading a technical article is difficulty for most editors, unless they are very
A B
familiar with the subject.
C D
Question 7: Clients still do not avail themselves of up-to-date investment informations, despite
A B C
every effort to provide them with it .
D
Question 8: He failed in the election just because he _______ his opponent.
A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged
Question 9: Put your shoes on properly or you’ll ________ over.
A. get B. turn C. fall D. bend
Question 10: What does a ________ like that cost?
A. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe
Question 11: The greater the demand, _______ the price.
A. higher B. high C. the higher D. The high
Question 12: I don’t know If _______ in my essay.
A. is there a mistake B. there a mistake is
C. a mistake is there D. there is a mistake
Question 13: The teacher made a difficult question, but at last, Joe _______ a good answer.
A. came up with B. came up to
C. came up against D. came up for
Question 14: There are a lot of _______ buildings in the centre of the city.
A. many-floored B. many story
C. multi-storied D. multi-storey
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Question 15: According to some historians, if Napoleon had not invaded Russia, he ________ the
rest of the world.
A. had conquered B. would conquer
C. would have conquered D. conquered
Question 16: Does that name ________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
Question 17: Captain Scott’s ________ to the South Pole was marked by disappointment and
tragedy.
A. excursion B. visit C. tour D. expedition
Question 18: Some friends of mine are really fashion-conscious, while _______ are quite simple.
A. some other B. some others C. another D. the other
Question 19: Jane will have to repeat the course because her work has been _______.
A. unpleasant B. unnecessary C. unusual D. unsatisfactory
Question 20: -“_________.”
-“I ordered broiled chicken. This is fried chicken.”
A. What would you like?
B. Would you like broiled chicken or fried chicken?
C. How would you like it?
D. Is something the matter, sir?
Question 21: - “I had a really good time. Thank you for the lovely evening.”
- “_________.”
A. Yes, it’s really good B. No ,it’s very kind of you
C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. Oh, that’s right
Question 22: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
Question 23: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again .
A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t show surprise D. didn’t care
Question 24: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A. remake B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
Question 25: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were
banned.
A. clear B. obvious
C. thin D. insignificant
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Question 26: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. This job offers a poor salary.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
Question 27: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement.
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never look like each other.
Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeeded.
A. Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.
C. It’s hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.
D. Fred tried hard to start the car, and with success
Question 29: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much
business.
Question 30: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It
greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
though the experts could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
was not genuine .
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but
not for the experts.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution
regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31) ________ , however, depends much less on
technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32) _______ chemical
fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts
not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (33) ________. Organic
farmers also use alternatives to pesticides; for example they may rely on natural predators of certain
insect pests. (34) ________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural
predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other techniques to control pests as
20
well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's pests. Organic farmers
do not need a lot of land; in fact of organic farming is perfectly (35) ________ to small farms and is
relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields compare favorably with other
farmers' yields.
Question 31: A. alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation
Question 32: A. also B. for C. not D. all
Question 33: A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance
Question 34: A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though
Question 35: A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited
America Online is one of the big names on the internet, and unlike many other digital
companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the "Cyber-cockroach"
was launched only in 1992. Before that it was a small firm called Control Video Corporation, and it
made video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive arrived and took the
company online. Innovative, fast moving, and user-friendly, America Online appeals to people who
want to surf the internet, but who do not have a lot of experience. For the same reason "techies",
people who think they are more expert with computers, look down on America Online and its users.
Recently America Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time Warner - a multi-million-
dollar movie and magazine company - to create a multimedia giant.
Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries, including the United
Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL introductory offer.
The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free
introductory disks at places like train stations. As the internet gets faster AOL is changing. With
many homes getting high-speed connections through fiber optic cables or the new ASDL
technology, the "Cyber-cockroach" will have to show that, like real cockroaches, it can survive in
almost any environment.
Question 36: What is the passage about?
A. A computer company B. A software company
C. An internet company D. A video company
Question 37: The word “it” in line 4 refers to ______.
A. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
C. Control Video Corporation D. Digital company
Question 38: Who does Steve Case work for?
A. AOL B. Pizza Hut
C. Control Video Corporation D. None of these
Question 39: How do "Techies" feel about America Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber-Cockroach
B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and magazine company
D. They feel superior to its users
Question 40: America Online is an unusual digital company because ________.
A. It used to make video games
B. It is innovative
21
C. It makes money
D. It has joined with another company
Question 41: Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV
C. Free disks in journals D. People giving disks away
Question 42: What does the article say about AOL's future?
A. It will do well B. It will do badly
C. It will face challenges D. The article doesn't say
MODERN FASHION TRENDS
Fashion today is changing faster than ever, influenced by a variety of forces. Clearly, many of
these changes are dictated by music-related cultural movements like hip-hop, boy bands, or grunge.
The stars of these music genres are idolized, and their clothing choices directly influence the
fashion of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable influence on what fashion is
"cool" is technology. Technology that can be worn is now and will become an ever more important
part of the "look" of fashionable young people. There are many other trends, among them retro or
vintage fashion, and so-called disposable fashion.
The hip-hop revolution of the 1970s and '80s brought a whole new look to our attention, a look
for an American city culture that made a statement. Modern hip-hop clothes, however, are often
produced by successful, big-name fashion designers, and are quite expensive. In fact, many hip-hop
artists such as Eminem, Kanye West, and others have their own lines of hip-hop clothing. The
essentials of the modern hip-hop look are gold chains, boots or kicks (slang for sneakers), a bandana
tied around the head, often with a cap on top, and large T-shirts. The baggy look of decades gone by
has been replaced by a look that includes polo shirts and tighter denim jeans.
Another trendy, cutting-edge movement in the world of fashion is technology you wear, and
the blending of technology with clothing. More and more, people are afraid to be without a cell
phone, a computer, or Internet access at any time of the day or night. Wearable technology helps
people keep those crucial connections to the world open, while at the same time giving them a
distinctive look. Clip-on MP3 players with headphones, "hands-free" phones and earpieces, and
personal digital assistants (PDAs) are just a few of the ever more visible portable technology
components that are part of the look. The ultimate in technology-friendly clothing, the solar-
powered jacket can now provide the electricity needed to keep all these gadgets running.
The retro or vintage style of clothing brings trends from past decades back into style. Grunge
was a style of music born in the Seattle area in the 1990s. Grunge fans stayed away from synthetic
fabrics, preferring flannel shirts, stone-washed jeans, and rock T-shirts. They preferred dark colors
like greens, dark purples, or browns. For footwear, grunge fans wore Dr. Martens-style shoes and
boots or high-top sneakers. Although the grunge music craze also ended in the '90s, a modern retro
fashion trend is taking its cue from grunge-era clothing. Modern grunge fashion is similar in many
ways, but it's much less baggy and sloppy than it was in the '90s.
H&M, a chain of Swedish clothing stores, is the name most often connected with the new
trend in youth fashion known as disposable fashion. It's clothing so cheap that you don't mind
buying it and wearing it only several times, perhaps, before discarding it. Disposable fashion is
22
often brightly colored and stylish, but low in price. The trend, which reportedly started in Japan,
grew popular in Europe, and is taking root in America, shows no signs of slowing down.
What will the future of fashion look like? Well, technology is sure to remain a growing part of
fashion, with ever smaller cell phones, computers, PDAs, and other wearable gadgets. All around
the world, more people are wearing hip-hop fashions than ever before. No longer exclusive to urban
youth or even the United States, hip-hop will remain a popular global fashion for years to come.
Retro fashions from the '80s and '90s, including the grunge look, seem to be growing in popularity,
and disposable fashion is a big hit that won't end soon. And, I'm sure that we will see new fashion
surprises as music, fashion, and technology move forward together into the future.
Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally
B. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look "cool"
C. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
D. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
Question 44: What does the pronoun “them” in line 5 refer to?
A. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars
Question 45: Which fashion trend is NOT mentioned in the article?
A. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual
Question 46 : According to the second paragraph, how has hip-hop changed?
A. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers and are less baggy.
B. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are worn.
C. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
D. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
Question 47: What trend has been brought back by the retro style?
A. hip-hop B. wearable technology
C. grunge D. disposable fashion
Question 48: Which fashion trend would most likely be the most popular with someone who didn't
have much money to spend?
A. hip-hop B. wearable technology
C. grunge D. disposable fashion
Question 49: Why might disposable fashion clothes not go well with the grunge look?
A. Because disposable fashion is cheap.
B. Because grunge is from Seattle.
C. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
D. Because the grunge music craze ended in the '90s.
Question 50: According to sixth paragraph, which of the following is a likely future trend?
A. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.
B. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
C. Retro fashions will go out of style.
D. Disposable fashions will increase in price.
23
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 5
Question 1: A. achieve B. chorus C. cancel D. chemistry
Question 2: A. missed B. worked C. realized D. watched
Question 3: A. necessarily B. originally
C. mysteriously D. elaborately
Question 4: A. scientific B. intensity
C. disappearance D. expectation
Question 5: Some language students have difficulty to express exactly what they want to say.
A B C D
Question 6: New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city centre.
A B C D
Question 7: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this
A B C D
university.
Question 8: It is essential that he ________ an extra job to increase his income.
A. does B. will do C. do D. must do
Question 9: They though the man was drunk because he behaved ________.
A. affluently B. abnormally
C. phenomenally D. All are correct
Question 10: He is not very ________ of his son’s passion for loud music.
A. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly
Question 11: Sometimes _________ wears people out and is worse than the lack of sleep itself.
A. to sleep the desire B. to desire to sleep is
C. the desire to sleep D. the desire to sleep who
Question 12: Carrie doesn’t do her own washing , she ________ her little sister to do it for her.
A. gets B. makes C. lets D. has
Question 13: Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a possible life
span greater than __________ .
A. man B. the man
C. the one of the man’s D. that of man
Question 14: Richard Wright enjoyed the success and influence _________ among Black American
writers of his era.
A. were unparalleled B. unparalleled
C. are unparalleled D. whose unparalleled
Question 15: ________ disappear from the public eye shortly after the games are over.
A. Many Olympic athletes B. Many Olympic athletes who
24
C. That many Olympic athletes D. Many Olympic athletes to
Question 16: Under no circumstances _________ in areas where poisonous snakes are known to
live.
A. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks
C. should one climb rocks D. should be climbing rocks
Question 17: I am angry because you didn’t tell me the truth. I don’t like _________.
A. to have deceived B. to deceive
C. being deceived D. deceiving
Question 18: The harder you try, __________.
A. the more you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. the most you achieve D. the better achieve you have
Question 19: She had never been in good health, but she ________ her husband by twenty years.
A. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived
Question 20: -“Your kids are very cute.”
-“__________.”
A. I don’t think so, either. B. Aren’t they?
C. No problems. D. Do you think so? Thanks.
Question 21: - “Could I borrow your calculator?”
- “_________.”
A. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can
C. Yes, you do D. Yes, you will
Question 22: Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls.
A. come without knowing what they will see
B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom
D. come by plane
Question 23: Around 150 B.C, the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify
starts according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
Question 24: She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm
C. lazy D. dirty
Question 25: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 26: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.
A. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
25
B. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but we found it rather expensive.
C. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive .
D. The new cinema impressed us because it was rather expensive.
Question 27: “ When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.”
A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
C. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.
Question 28: Twenty years ago, this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.
A. Coal production in this region has doubled in the last twenty years.
B. Coal production in this region has been halved in the last twenty years.
C. More coal is produced now in this region than twenty years ago.
D. This region has produced more coal than twenty years ago.
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 30: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from either sugar cane or sugar beet. These
(31) ________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in
fruit some of which such as dates and grapes, (32) ________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a
little more scientific, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances, glucose,
which (33) ________ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of energy. The
sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we also eat quite large amounts of natural
sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (34) _________ in sweets, cakes, and biscuits. It
is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing has been proved so far. However, it is
known that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that “If other foods damaged our body as
much as sugar (35) ________ our teeth, they would be banned immediately.”
Question 31: A. productions B. products
C. producers D. producing
Question 32: A. contain B. are containing
C. are contained D. contains
Question 33: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used
Question 34: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat
Question 35: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect
26
Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and
offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or
typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate
over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer from a
distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates
that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising
annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published
"The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn't telecommuting become
more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part
of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not
yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant to
accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many
are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more
visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a
work area, they never really get away from the office.
Question 36: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters EXCEPT____.
A. the different system of supervision
B. the lack of interaction with a group
C. the fact that the work space is in the home
D. the opportunities for advancement
Question 37: How many American workers are involved in telecommuting?
A. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than last year
D. More than predicted in Business Week
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is __________.
A. the manager of a group of telecommuters
B. a reporter
C. a statistician
D. a telecommuter
Question 39: The word "resistance" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______.
A. participation B. alteration C. opposition D. consideration
Question 40: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. A definition of telecommuting
B. The advantages of telecommuting
C. An overview of telecommuting
D. The failure of telecommuting
27
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein,
eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One
egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This
knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the
development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs.
These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked.
They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in
baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A
second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These
eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil,
flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same
amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs
will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific
studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human
cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the
main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more
sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain
dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes
sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating
dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
Question 41: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To convince people to eat "designer" eggs and egg substitutes
B. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
C. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
D. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
Question 43: Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat” ?
A. in fact B. a little C. a lot D. indefinitely
Question 44 : What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price
B. dietary changes in hens
C. decreased production
D. concerns about cholesterol
Question 45: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 2/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Question 46: The word "portrayed" could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 47: What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. support C. advance D. block
28
Question 48: What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are a composite of things
B. The results are inconclusive
C. The results are mingled together
D. The results are blended
Question 49: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following
types of eggs EXCEPT _________.
A. poached
B. fried
C. boiled
D. scrambled
Question 50: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
B. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
C. increasing egg intake and fat intake
D. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
29
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 6
Question 1: A. postcard B. postpone C. post office D. post-graduate
Question 2: A. massage B. garage C. collage D. message
Question 3: A. conference B. lecturer
C. researcher D. reference
Question 4: A. intentional B. optimistic
C. environment D. participant
Question 5: Workers training for a specific job have a strong possibility of being replace by a
A B C D
machine.
Question 6: I think you will find that the Microcar is really very economic to drive.
A B C D
Question 7: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport
A B C
at home.
D
Question 8: This time tomorrow ________ on the beach sunbathing and drinking freshly squeezed
fruit juice!
A. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie
C. I will be lying D. I will have lain
Question 9: It was proposed that the president _________ for a period of five years.
A. could be selected B. should elect
C. be elected D. were elected
Question 10: ________, she would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more
C. If she studied more D. Studying more
Question 11: Their efforts were much ________ when they won 2 gold, medals in bodybuilding and
billiards.
A. considered B. required
C. expended D. appreciated
Question 12: The decimal numeral system is one of the ________ ways of expressing numbers.
A. world’s most useful B. useful most word’s
C. useful world’s most D. most world’s useful
Question 13: Tony would have forgotten the appointment if I hadn’t ________ him.
A. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended
30
Question 14: Unexpectedly the lights ________ and we were left in darkness.
A. turned down B. went out
C. put off D. gave away
Question 15: The closest friend ________ his little boy visits us every Sunday.
A. on account of B. in regard to
C. in connection with D. in company with
Question 16: “ I’m going out now.” - “ _________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get
me some aspirins?”
A. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were
Question 17: Their discussion quickly developed into a ________ argument over who should
receive the money.
A. burning B. heated C. hot D. scorching
Question 18: Such relaxing days were few and far ________ in her hectic life.
A. between B. off C. beyond D. out
Question 19: Scientists believe that beaver’s instinct to build dams is more complex than _______
other animal instinct.
A. most B. all C. any D. these
Question 20: Alice and Pete are talking about how to protect the environment.
_ Alice: “ I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
_ Pete: “_________.”
A. You can say that again B. I can’t agree with you more
C. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it D. Never mind
Question 21: Alfonso and Maria are discussing about the Jeffersons.
_Alfonso: “What do you think of the Jeffersons?”
_Maria: ”________.”
A. Oh, I don’t think of him
B. Oh, they are not having the choice
C. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
D. No, it’s very kind of them to have an outgoing personality
Question 22: The prime minister denied that the new visa requirements were part of a hidden
agenda to reduce immigration.
A. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
Question 23: Before submitting the document, I had to check whether all the sources of information
are valid.
A. available B. clear C. legitimate D. understandable
Question 24: This work is woefully inadequate – you will have to do it again.
A. nonexistent B. sufficient
C. rich D. useful
31
Question 25: She advocated taking a more long-term view.
A. publicly said B. openly criticized
C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned
Question 26: Everyone in our class is doing a research on the environment, but Mary alone is
staying away.
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t taking part in a research on the
environment.
B. No one in our class but Mary is taking part in a research on the environment .
C. Everyone in Mary’s class hopes to do something in a research on the environment.
D. The class wants Mary to do a research on the environment, but she won’t.
Question 27: I just can’t understand why so few people attended the meeting today.
A. I find it surprising that there are not fewer people attending the meeting today.
B. Hardly anyone wants to attend the meeting today, which I find strange.
C. It’s hardly surprising that so few people attend the meeting today.
D. To my surprise almost no one attended the meeting today.
Question 28: We were going to take a holiday in Hawaii ,and had already booked our flight.
A. Our flight to Hawaii was cancelled, so the holiday we had booked went to waste.
B. We had planned a vacation in Hawaii and had even made our flight arrangements.
C. We couldn’t go to Hawaii in the end because we forgot to make arrangements for the
flight in advance.
D. We decided against a holiday in Hawaii in spite of having paid for our plane tickets.
Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 30: I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me. At this point, I told him a few
home truths.
A. I told Joe a few home truths, by which time he started insulting me patiently.
B. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few home
truths.
C. I told Joe a few home truths after listening to him insulting me patiently.
D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him a
few home truths.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that strongly affect the
world. When the water is warm, the (31) ________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could (32) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33)
________ hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34) ________ rainstorms.
32
In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes
the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make
long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35) ________ unusually heavy
rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at
the same time.
Question 31: A. deal B. figure
C. number D. amount
Question 32: A. however B. even
C. ever D. nevertheless
Question 33: A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 34: A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruel
Question 35: A. bring B. fetch C. carry D. take
Archaeological records ― paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities
involving the use of hands ― indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more
than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the
dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate
that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands
made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today
make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-
Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-
handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at
least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone
cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed
toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a
left-handed toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have
cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the
present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth. Scratches
made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the
opposite direction (made by left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical
differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical
differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds
to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of
tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens.
Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been
predominantly right-handed, as we are.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
33
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million
years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
Question 37: What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
Question 38: The word “depicted” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. written
B. portrayed
C. referred
D. mentioned
Question 39: The word "cranial morphology" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning
to________.
A. the form of crane B. the form of the body
C. the study of physical body D. the study of the skull
Question 40: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because
________.
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by
modern knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
Question 41: The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness
EXCEPT _________.
A. ancient artwork
B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use
D. fossilized hand bones
Canada is a democracy organized as a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary system
of government modeled after that of Great Britain. The official head of state in Canada is Queen
Elizabeth II of Britain, who is also Queen of Canada. The governor-general is the queen’s personal
representative in Canada and the official head of the Canadian parliament, although with very
limited powers.
The federal parliament in Canada consists of the House of Commons and the Senate. The
actual head of government is the prime minister, who is responsible for choosing a cabinet. The
cabinet consists of a group of ministers of varied expertise who serve with the support of the House
of Commons. They are responsible for most legislation, and have the expenditure of public funds or
34
taxation. The system is referred to as responsible government, which means that cabinet members
sit in the parliament and directly responsible to it, holding power only as long as a majority of the
House of Commons shows confidence by voting with them. If a cabinet is defeated in the House of
Commons on a motion of censure or a vote of no confidence, the cabinet must either resign, in
which case the governor-general will ask the leader of the opposition to form a new cabinet, or a
new election may be called.
The Canadian Senate has 105 members, appointed by the governor-general on the advice of
the prime minister. Their actual function is advisory, although they may make minor changes in
bills and no bill may become a law without being passed by the Senate. Senators hold office until
age seventy-five unless they are absent from two consecutive sessions of parliament, The real
power, however, resides in the House of Commons, the members of which are elected directly by
the voters. The seats are allocated on the basis of population, and there are about 300 constituencies.
By custom, almost all members of the cabinet must be members of the House of Commons or, if
not already members, must win seats within a reasonable time.
General elections must be held at the end of every five years, but they may be conducted
whenever issues require it, and most parliaments are dissolved before the end of the five-year term.
When a government loses its majority support in a general election, a change of government occurs.
Although major and minor political parties were not created by law, they are recognized by
law in Canada. The party that wins the largest number of seats in a general election forms the
government, and its leader becomes the prime minister. The second largest party becomes the
official opposition, and its leader is recognized as the leader of the opposition. In this way, the
people are assured of an effective alternative government should they become displeased with the
one in power.
Question 43: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Political parties in Canada
B. The Canadian election process
C. The Canadian system of government
D. The powers of parliament in Canada
Question 44: When does a change of government occur in Canada?
A. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.
B. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general
election.
C. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government.
D. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
Question 45: The word “dissolved” could best be replaced by ________.
A. approved B. evaluated C. recognized D. dismissed
Question 46: The word “varied” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. little
B. different
C. good
D. steady
Question 47: What does the author mean by the statement in Italic letters?
A. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government; Great Britain has a parliament
system.
35
B. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
C. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
D. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
Question 48: What is the role of political parties in Canada?
A. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.
B. Although they serve unofficial functions, they are not very important.
C. If they win a majority of seats, their leader becomes prime minister.
D. Because they are not elected, they offer the government opposing views.
Question 49: The governor-general is described as all of the following EXPECT _________.
A. the official head of parliament
B. the head of government
C. the queen’s representative in Canada
D. the official who appoints the Senate
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the voters in Canada _________.
A. choose the prime minister and the cabinet
B. do not usually vote in general elections
C. allow their representative to vote on their behalf
D. determine when a charge of government should occur
36
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 7
Question 1: A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed
Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne
Question 3: A. interview B. inheritance
C. comfortable D. dynamism
Question 4: A. influential B. punctuality
C. representative D. character
Question 5: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States,
A B
and television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
C D
Question 6: Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on earth, growing on and inside
A B
another livings things, in every type of environment.
C D
Question 7: Mrs. Barnes, who was so proud of her new car, drove to work when the accident
A B
happened and damaged her car.
C D
Question 8: The higher the demand, ________.
A. the more efforts we have to make
B. the more we have to make efforts
C. the more efforts do we have to make
D. the most efforts we have to make
Question 9: ________ many times I tell him, he always never passes on phone message.
A. However B. No matter C. Whenever D. Whatever
Question 10: Hardly _______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. had he been appointed B. did he appoint
C. was he being appointed D. was he appointing
Question 11: My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
C. as much three times as D. more three times than
Question 12: “What would you do in my position?” – “Were ________ like that, I would complain
to the manager.”
A. I be treated B. I treated C. I to be treated D. to treat
Question 13: If you want a good flat in London, you have to pay through the _______ for it.
37
A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. teeth
Question 14: She went _______ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 15: We ________ for three hours and are very tired .
A. waited B. have been waiting
C. wait D. had waited
Question 16: We couldn’t help laughing when he took ________ his teacher so well.
A. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 17: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that
over two hundred people ______ away.
A. would have turned B. would turn
C. had been turned D. would have to be turned
Question 18: Mrs. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ________ allowance for her.
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 19: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my _______ in work.
A. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Question 20: Mary is tired and she is talking about her health problem with John.
_ Mary: “I’m feeling a bit under the weather.”
_ John: “_________”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s.
B. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
C. Maybe you should take a rest.
D. Not very well. Thanks.
Question 21: Tony and Jane are talking about where to have dinner.
_Tony: “What’s the best place to have dinner?”
_Jane: ”________”
A. I’ll have chicken, please.
B. There’s a great restaurant opposite the hotel.
C. I usually eat dinner at 7 p.m.
D. 7 p.m would be convenient.
Question 22: You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter the
classroom with great confidence.
A. sufficient B. defective C. inadequate D. thorough
Question 23: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. easy- looking B. important C. well- known D. impressive
Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend i will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
38
Question 25: Susan lost her head when she suddenly woke up and saw the house on fire.
A. kicked herself B. changed her tune
C. kept her head D. took her breath away
Question 26: After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her to.
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over, her recovery was as fast as could be expected.
C. To our great surprise, she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
Question 27: It was very impolite of him to leave without saying a word.
A. He was very impolite to leave without saying a word.
B. He didn’t say nothing when he left.
C. He didn’t say nothing as he left, which was impolite.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Question 28: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the
pollution of the seas.
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented providing that many countries follow the
same policy.
B. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to the
pollution of the seas.
C. By putting into practice a series of precautions, it is generally believed that the pollution
of the seas will be prevented.
D. The seas will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a
majority of the countries.
Question 29: Some wooden beams hold up the roof. They have been damaged.
A. Some wooden beams holding up the roof have been damaged.
B. The roof damaged holds up some wooden beams.
C. Some wooden beams damaging hold up the roof.
D. The roof held up damaged some wooden beams.
Question 30: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for
days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen the credit cards, he has been investigated for days
At NatWest we know how hard it is to get your business up and running. Understanding your
difficulties-and then helping you through them-has made us the number one bank for small business
for each of the last 10 years, with more people turning to us for ________ (31) than any other bank.
39
Our Start-Up service gives you the support you need to ________ (32) up on your own. There
are over 4000 Small Business Advisers (at least one in every high street branch) who provide help,
information and a wide ________ (33) of services specifically designed to help things go that bit
more smoothly.
Since last years, we've offered 12 months' free banking ________ (34) you go overdrawn or
stay in credit. We have also introduced another special scheme to help you keep your costs down
for even longer. Provide us with a certificate from a NatWest recognized start-up training ________
(35) that you have completed and there will be no account charges for the first 18 months.
Question 31: A. employment B. performance
C. improvement D. guidance
Question 32: A. make B. turn C. set D. bring
Question 33: A. range B. stock C. forecast D. rate
Question 34: A. whether B. whatever C. however D. although
Question 35: A. course B. lesson C. subject D. chapter
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal
species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tiger, for instance, which
once roamed the jungles in vast number, now only about 2,300, and by the year 2025 their
population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is
that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who according to some
sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the
callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction. Animals like Bengal tigers as
well as other endangered species are a valuable part of the world's ecosystem. International laws
protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks and they
often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can
invest in equipment, and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem
the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species.
This seems fairly effective but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger
B. international boycotts
C. endangered species
D. problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "alarming" in line 4?
A. dangerous
B. serious
C. gripping
D. distressing
Question 38: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _________.
A. a problem and a solution
B. a statement and an illustration
40
C. a comparison and a contrast
D. specific and general information
Question 39: What does the word “this” refer to?
A. Bengal Tiger
B. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction
D. Interest in material gain
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction ?
A. Since the word … down to zero.
B. What is alarming … personal gratification.
C. Country around … for support.
D. With the money … dangered species
Question 41: The word "defray" is closet in meaning to ________?
A. lower B. raise
C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving
B. concerned
C. vindictive
D. surprised
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-
old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it
was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized
the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety
feet apart, three strikers –you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine man
team. The "New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings,
baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial
society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40
members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the
members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing
a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the
outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten , an
amateur first-nine , and their "muffins" (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game) .
Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the
1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the
National Association of Professional Baseball Players in 1871. The National League of Professional
Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company
clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s "Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s
salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “ The
sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields,
and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League
based in the growing cities of the
41
Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origins of baseball
B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
C. the commercialization of baseball
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 44: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. requirements
B. beginning
C. insistence
D. rules
Question 45: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen
at its inception ?
A. A team might consist of 40 members.
B. The president would choose teams from among the members.
C. They didn’t play on weekends.
D. They might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.
Question 46: According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true EXPECT ______.
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
Question 48: The word ”somewhat” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. to a significant extent
B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent
D. to some extent
Question 49: The word “itself” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. the Western League
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
A. The wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational
opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.
B. Hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball.
C. The “New York Game“ spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
D. Business–minded investors were only interested in profits
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 8
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Question 1: A. exactly B. example C. exhibition D. exhibit
Question 2: A. chaotic B. chemist C. brochure D. anchor
Question 3: A. environment B. publication
C. equality D. pneumonia
Question 4: A. apply B. happen
C. decide D. combine
Question 5: In the 1920’s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten largest
A B C
industry in the United States.
D
Question 6: Because not food is as nutritious for a baby as its mother’s milk, many women are
A B C
returning to the practice of breast feeding.
D
Question 7: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the
A B C
job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 8: The train to the center of the city was ________ by a heavy snowfall.
A. held up B. took back
C. put off D. given out
Question 9: She ________ for hours. That’s why her eyes are red now.
A. cried B. has been crying C. was crying D. has cried
Question 10: “Eric is really upset about losing his job”.- “Well, ________ fired once myself, I can
understand”.
A. having B. have been
C. to have been D. having been
Question 11: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by
illness.
A. apart from B. in spite of
C. in addition to D. because of
Question 12: I’m sorry, teacher. I’ve _______ my homework on the bus.
A. left B. let C. forgotten D. missed
Question 13: ________ at the site of a fort established by the Northwest Mounted Police, Calgary is
now one of Canada’s faster growing cities.
A. Having built B. It is built C. To build D. Built
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Question 14: She kindly offered to _______ me the way to the post office.
A. show B. describe C. direct D. explain
Question 15: ________ general, our students are very intelligent and really active.
A. In B. With
C. By D. On
Question 16: ________ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his
talk.
A. In person B. Instead C. On account D. On behalf
Question 17: John swims very well and ________ does his brother.
A. also B. even C. so D. too
Question 18: I asked him to drive more slowly, but he didn’t take any _________.
A. attention B. regard C. notice D. recognition
Question 19: My hat has just ________ behind the sofa although I thought I had lost it.
A. turned up B. gone away C. run into D. come across
Question 20: Nancy met Sue in a party after a long time they were far away from each other.
_ Nancy: “_________.”
_ Sue: “Great. Thanks.”
A. Excuse me!
B. What are you doing?
C. How are you doing?
D. Be careful!
Question 21: Maria is in a shoes shop, looking for new shoes.
_Shop assistant: “Can I help you, madam?”
_Maria: ”________”
A. It’s very cheap.
B. No, thanks. I’m just looking.
C. Right. It looks a bit small.
D. Yes, it is in our summer sale.
Question 22: He resembles his brother in appearance very much, which makes his friends unable to
recognize.
A. looks after B. takes after C. names after D. calls after
Question 23: Life expectancy in Europe has increased greatly in the 20th century.
A. expectation B. span C. prospect D. anticipation
Question 24: One of the good things about teaching young children is their enthusiasm.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness
Question 25: That international organization is going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess
C. complicated D. soak
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Question 26: Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her life.
A. Mrs. Maria’s poor health is a big problem which prevents her from enjoying her life.
B. Although Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her life.
C. Mrs. Maria’s poor health does not prevent her from enjoying her life.
D. What prevented Mrs. Maria from enjoying her life is her bad health condition.
Question 27: The boy who was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
A. The boy someone was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
B. The boy waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
C. The boy waited in the hall and expecting a phone call.
D. The boy was waiting in the hall and expected a phone call.
Question 28: She had to buy a new battery for her mobile phone because the charge was unable to
last for more than two hours.
A. She had to charge a new battery for her mobile phone because the old one lasted for a
little over two hours.
B. Her mobile phone couldn’t hold a charge for more than two hours, so she had to
buy a new battery.
C. Because she charged her new mobile phone battery for only two hours, the charge did not
last very long.
D. The new battery she bought for her mobile phone would not hold a charge for longer than
two hours.
Question 29: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
D. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
Question 30: He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
There is considerably less research on comprehension processes in beginning readers,
compared to studies on word processing. One of the consistent (31) _________ in comprehension
research is that compared to more skilled comprehenders, unskilled comprehenders are also less
skilled in decoding. In fact, during the early stages of beginning reading, text comprehension is
limited to children's skill in decoding. Until decoding processes are (32) ________ and efficient,
high-level comprehension processes are severely limited. There is now converging evidence that for
both children and adults, difficulties in comprehension are related to difficulties in decoding (33)
________ to problems with working memory.
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(34) _________ being better at decoding, skilled comprehenders also have better global
language skilled comprehenders. Studies have shown a causal relationship between vocabulary and
comprehension. There is evidence showing that vocabulary instruction (35) ________ to gains in
comprehension and improvement on semantic tasks. It is also clear that both direct and indirect
instruction in vocabulary lead to comprehension gains.
Question 31: A. findings B. studies
C. programs D. conclusions
Question 32: A. early B. rapid C. urgent D. right
Question 33: A. as well as B. as long as C. as far as D. as much as
Question 34: A. Furthermore B. However C. Therefore D. Besides
Question 35: A. jumps B. faces C. leads D. comes
The World Trade Organization (WTO) has 162 member countries. They are looking to
improve trade. Trade means the buying and selling of goods. The WTO provides a place where
these countries can talk about what they need. The goal of the WTO is to make trade grow by
removing legal barriers between countries.
The WTO helps trade in several ways. First, it asks countries to treat each other equally. They
should not give special trade deals to one country and not to another. Also, these countries should
not try to stop foreign products from any one country. The idea is that goods and services should be
able to cross borders easily. A second way to improve trade is to lower tariffs. These are special
taxes for things bought and sold. A third way to strengthen trade is to make sure that the rulers will
stay the same. In order for people to invest their money, they need to feel secure for the future. A
fourth way is to allow greater competition between countries. The central belief is that competition
makes for a stronger economy. The last way to improve trade is to help countries that are poor.
They need help coming up to the level of modern countries. They can be helped by allowing them
extra time to get their systems in order. They can be given priority in making deals with other
countries.
Free and easy trade is the WTO’s goal. It supports rich countries and helps poor countries get
ahead. It is one way of improving the lives of more people in the world. It asks countries to make
laws that help this process. Every year, more countries apply to be in the WTO. They see
membership as a good thing.
Question 36: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ________.
A. the WTO wants to improve trade by lowering taxes
B. poor countries are not given priority
C. the WTO wants to make trade better
D. trade means the buying and selling of goods
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. the WTO helps remove political barriers between countries
B. the WTO’s goal is to trade with other organizations
C. the WTO is a multi-national organization
D. few countries want to become a member of the WTO
Question 38: The word “barriers” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. borders
46
B. documents
C. bans
D. obstacles
Question 39: Why does the author give details about how the WTO helps trade?
A. To illustrate how the WTO improves international trade.
B. To distinguish between the WTO and banks.
C. To promote discussion about the WTO.
D. To complain about the actions of the WTO.
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. The goal of the WTO is to improve trade.
B. The WTO supports poor countries.
C. Many countries apply to be in the WTO every year.
D. Rich countries are given priority.
Question 41: According to the third paragraph, the WTO _________.
A. asks rich countries to help poor countries
B. helps improve the lives of more people in the world
C. helps rich countries get ahead
D. gives poor countries lots of food
Question 42: Which of the following does NOT support the idea that the WTO provides a way for
countries to improve trade?
A. Countries should allow goods and services to cross border easily.
B. Countries should be fair to one another and help poor members.
C. Countries should lower tariffs and make investors feel secure.
D. Countries should allow time to raise taxes.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born
in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of
fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist.
However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter
moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s
Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life
that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years,
and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his
habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a
draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed
within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First
National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had
embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child
in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six
months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in
Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home,
his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the
pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after
re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and
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gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months
of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have
been translated all over the world.
Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?
A. Because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer.
B. To outline the career of a famous American.
C. Because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer.
D. To outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing.
Question 44: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ________.
A. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
B. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
C. a medical doctor
D. a licensed pharmacist
Question 45: The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. supposedly
B. reportedly
C. wrongly
D. mistakenly
Question 46: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died.
B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist.
C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”.
D. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin.
Question 47: The word “subsequent” in line 17 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. resulting
B. police
C. alleged
D. official
Question 48: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his _______.
A. home
B. wife
C. job
D. books
Question 49: According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three
years?
A. more than 300
B. 35
C. at least 12
D. over 20
Question 50: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 9
48
Question 1: A. pagoda B. integral C. against D. aquatic
Question 2: A. synchronized B. psychology
C. chemistry D. activity
Question 3: A. represent B. intensive
C. domestic D. employment
Question 4: A. minister B. dependent
C. encourage D. agreement
Question 5: Although men may know more about diapering babies and vacuuming floors than
A B
his father did, but women are still doing most of housework and child reading.
C D
Question 6: When men and women are asked who is spending long hours cleaning and tidy up,
A B C
women are still far ahead of men.
D
Question 7: In 2006, 87.9 per cent of men said they shared housework from their wives, up from
A B C D
84.4 per cent in 1996.
Question 8: Swimming produces both ________ and physical benefits.
A. psychology B. psychological
C. psychologist D. psychologically
Question 9: Thousands of cranes ________.
A. will be returned the spring B. will return the spring
C. will be returned in the spring D. will return in the spring
Question 10: Two thousand people are ________ as having cancer of the mouth every year; and 60
per cent of them will die within five years.
A. regarded B. diagnosed
C. checked D. killed
Question 11: He finds physics ________ other science subjects.
A. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
Question 12: We were expecting beautiful weather at the beach, but it was so cold and rainy that,
_______ getting a suntan, I caught a cold.
A. compared to B. just as C. in case of D. instead of
Question 13: Next month, I ________ Dereck for 20 years.
A. have known B. will have been knowing
49
C. will know D. will have known
Question 14: A _______ of dancers from Beijing is one of the leading attractions in the festival.
A. packet B. troop C. herd D. troupe
Question 15: Don’t let time go ________ without doing anything about the situation.
A. out B. by
C. off D. over
Question 16: Police are warning the public to be on the ________ for suspicious packages.
A. care B. alert C. guard D. alarm
Question 17: Before you sign the contract, ________ in mind that you won’t be able to change
anything later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
Question 18: Jim’s ________ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
A. gone down with B. put up with C. led up to D. come up with
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of ________ of
influenza.
A. a breakthrough B. an outbreak C. a break-out D. an outburst
Question 20: Alice and Pete are talking about the weather in the place they are in.
_ Alice: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.”
_ Pete: “________. It’s really lovely.”
A. You’re exactly right
B. You’re dead wrong
C. I couldn’t agree less
D. You could be right
Question 21: Alfonso is talking with Maria about using public transportation.
_ Alfonso: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
_Maria: ”________.”
A. There’s no doubt about it
B. Yes, it is an absurd idea
C. Well, that is very surprising
D. Of course not .You bet
Question 22: Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information.
A. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
Question 23: In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.
A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advised
Question 24: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. overemphasized
50
C. understated D. undertaken
Question 25: You need to dress neatly and elegantly for the interview. The first impression is very
important.
A. shabbily B. formally
C. untidy D. comfortably
Question 26: “Tom, please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.” said Jane.
A. Jane told Tom please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
B. Jane asked Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number.
C. Jane said to Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number, please.
D. Jane wanted Tom didn’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
Question 27: Few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
A. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the company.
C. Quite a few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
D. Many people realized his important role in the company.
Question 28: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right
now.
C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess
right now.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 30: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in in order to for her to start her new job in January.
D. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
The ideal breakfast, say scientists, is a glass of orange juice, a cup of coffee and a bowl of
cereal. People who (31) _______ the day with a drink of vitamin C, a dose of caffeine and a helping
of their favorite cereal are happier and perform better throughout the morning, Andy Smith, of the
University of Bristol, said. A study of 600 people who were _______ (32 to record their breakfast
habits found that ________ (33) who regularly ate cereal first thing in the morning had a more
positive mood compared with those who ate other foods or had no breakfast. Earlier research had
51
_______ (34) that people whose mental performance was measured immediately after eating
breakfast of any kind performed 10 percent better on tests of remembering, speed of response and
ability to concentrate, compared with those given only a cup of decaffeinated coffee. In further
research, Professor Smith said that people who drank four cups of coffee a day performed more
(35)_______ all day than those who drank less. He suggested that sensible employers should give
out free coffee or tea.
Question 31: A. open B. initiate
C. start D. begins
Question 32: A. said B. told C. ordered D. asked
Question 33: A. whole B. all C. these D. those
Question 34: A. reveal B. exposed C. shown D. indicated
Question 35: A. profitable B. deficiently C. beneficially D. efficiently
The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the trust
of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings using
horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and wagons,
the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting postal
innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from 1862, by
sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to decentralize its
operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and speed up mail delivery.
This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway mail clerks handled 93% of
all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000 employees.
Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations without
stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would then snatch
the incoming mailbag in the blink of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing mailbag.
Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and spoke with
pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track to warn them of
an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs were considered to
be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs they could find
themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.
As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the
train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores,
which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.
A. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping
B. The skills of experienced clerks
C. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail
D. Improvements in mail handling and delivery
Question 37: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail
except ________.
A. confidentiality
B. timeliness
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C. safety
D. accuracy
Question 38: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in _________.
A. 1832
B. 1842
C. 1874
D. 1905
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.
B. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks.
C. The development of the mailroads during the second half of the 19th century enabled
Post Office Department to focus on timeliness.
D. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than the
safety of its clerks.
Question 40: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. superior
B. majority
C. more capable
D. leader
Question 41: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by ________.
A. accidents
B. blames
C. advantages
D. problems
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag.
B. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing.
C. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting.
D. Despite their success railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local
mail.
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would
grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are
nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large
numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing
over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called
pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight.
In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so
it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different
pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
53
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A
good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious
disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die
from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die
within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to
spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a
week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common.
Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in
2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS
from becoming a pandemic.
Question 43: This passage is mainly about ________.
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases
B. pandemic diseases
C. pandemic diseases throughout history
D. why pandemics happen
Question 44: According to the first paragraph, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics.
B. They help control the population.
C. They led the world grow quickly.
D. They kill too many people.
Question 45: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight .
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicines.
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic
EXCEPT that ________.
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus
B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 47: The word "it" in the passage refers to _________.
A. disease
B. flu virus
C. pandemics
D. bodies
Question 48: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases?
A. They spread from people to people very quickly.
B. It kills many people very quickly
C. They do not kill people very quickly
D. They kill all the victims
Question 49: The word "monitor" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. prevent
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B. fight
C. watch
D. avoid
Question 50: The author mentions SARS in order to ________ .
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 10
Question 1: A. imagines B. motorbikes C. cultures D. involves
Question 2: A. office B. practice
C. service D. device
Question 3: A. equip B. spacious
C. office D. service
Question 4: A. involvement B. applicant
C. installing D. disaster
Question 5: In the end of the day, the job becomes so tiring that the cleaner sometimes leaves it
A B C
unfinished.
D
Question 6: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C D
Question 7: Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights
A B C D
Information Network.
Question 8: When I last saw him, he ________ in London.
A. is living B. has lived
C. was living D. has been living
Question 9: The film “Descendant of the Sun” attracts ________ viewers worldwide.
A. a large number of B. considerable number of
C. amount of D. a great deal of
Question 10: There are ten pieces of fruit in my basket. One is an orange, one is a grape and
________ is an apple.
A. others B. the other
C. the others D. another
Question 11: The firemen did well _______ their preparation for catastrophic gas explosions.
A. although B. because
C. despite D. because of
Question 12: Considering how little they have got in common, it’s surprising how well they
_______ together.
A. get through B. get on C. get down D. get up
B.
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Question 13: Muhammad Ali, the World great boxer, passed ________ on June 4th 2016.
A. through B. on
C. down D. away
Question 14: If you say you are using a world _______, you mean you are choosing it after thinking
about it very carefully.
A. advisor B. advisedly C. advisory D. advice
Question 15: He was _______ when I had those problems and said whatever I did he would stand
by me.
A. exciting B. supportive
C. busy D. dull
Question 16: Under the _______ of the press, bloggers, and Vietnam’s technology community,
Dong decided to take the game “Flappy Bird” down.
A. order B. force C. pressure D. command
Question 17: U.S President Obama has become the first ________ president to visit Hiroshima
since 1945.
A. standing B. sitting C. working D. retiring
Question 18: Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?
A. long pink silk lovely B. pink long lovely silk
C. lovely long pink silk D. lovely pink long silk
Question 19: We can’t even walk in the storm. Let’s wait in the hallway where we’ll be ________
the strong winds until things quiet down.
A. protecting from B. protected from C. protected by D. protecting by
Question 20: Mary gave Peter a gift for his birthday.
_ Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonder gift.”
_ Mary: “________.”
A. Have a good day
B. Thank you
C. Cheers
D. You are welcome
Question 21: Nga has just taken her exam.
_ Nga: “ This exam is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!”
_Minh: ”________. But I think it’s quite easy”
A. You’re right
B. I understand what you are saying
C. I couldn’t agree more
D. I don’t see in that way
Question 22: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
A. using facial expressions B. using speech
C. using gesture D. using verbs
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Question 23: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. clean C. encounter D. happen
Question 24: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply to women.
A. mandatory B. essential
C. optional D. required
Question 25: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding to B. holding back
C. holding at D. holding by
Question 26: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.
A. She usually works one hour every day.
B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day.
C. She does not usually drive to work.
D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car every day.
Question 27: She strikes me as a very effective teacher.
A. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher.
B. As a teacher, she always strikes me.
C. She is such an effective teacher that she always strikes her students.
D. I make an effective in impression on the teacher.
Question 28: His mother is the most warm-hearted person I’ve known.
A. I know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
B. I don’t know his warm-hearted mother.
C. I’ve never known a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
D. I didn’t know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
Question 29: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was so strong that we couldn’t sleep .
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
D. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
Question 30: David broke his leg. He couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.
C. Although David broke his leg, he could play in the final.
D. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could have played in the final.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they
need for such everyday (31) ________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also
gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a
58
person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32) ________ or certificate
before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work,
require satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (33) ________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases
their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more
interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills (34) ________ to participate in a sport, paint a picture,
or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes increasingly important as people gain more
and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social
changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people.
Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35) ________ the skills
for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. actions B. jobs C. works D. activities
Question 32: A. license B. paper C. diploma D. card
Question 33: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 34: A. able B. capable C. needed D. ordered
Question 35: A. with B. for C. on D. in
Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there are
many ways of communicating without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs,
symbols, and gestures are commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great
deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how
each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the
environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be
applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication through
these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less adaptable
to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey
information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the
meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning
of barber.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate
relationship with the receiver’s culture perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison,
applauding can be a symbol of the audience’s discontent with the performance. Gestures such as
weaving and handshaking also communicate certain culture messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major
disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender
being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As
a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended periods
must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax, paging
systems, electronic mail, and the internet, and no one doubts but that there are more means of
communication on the horizon.
59
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Communication
B. Signs and signals
C. Speech
D. Gestures
Question 37: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is the only true form of communication.
B. It is necessary for communication to occur.
C. It is the most advanced form of communication.
D. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
Question 38: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. signal
B. function
C. environment
D. way
Question 39: The word "potential" in the first paragraph could be replaced by ________.
A. organization
B. possibility
C. range
D. advantage
Question 40: The word “themselves” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. information
B. intervals
C. words
D. signs
Question 41: Applauding was cited as an example of ________.
A. a gesture
B. a signal
C. a symbol
D. a sign
Question 42: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. People wanted new forms of entertainment.
B. People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
C. People wanted to communicate across long distances.
D. People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the
broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance.
A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or
unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech
rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of
the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright,
60
confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above
the words chosen, or may believe them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or
unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety,
enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public
performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for
obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of
singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create
empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others,
and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious,
shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may
give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an
overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in
any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or
discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of
the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the
depressed.
A. The connection between voice and personality.
B. Communication styles.
C. The function of the voice in performance.
D. The production of speech.
Question 44: What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?
A. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
Question 45: The word "Here" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. words chosen
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. interpersonal interactions
Question 46: The word "derived" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. obtained
B. prepared
C. registered
D. discussed
Question 47: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a
person's _________.
A. general physical health
B. personality
C. ability to communicate
D. vocal quality
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Question 48: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ________.
A. shyness
B. hostility
C. friendliness
D. strength
Question 49: The word " drastically " in the second passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. frequently
B. exactly
C. severely
D. easily
Question 50: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Depression
B. Anger
C. Boredom
D. Lethargy
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 11
Question 1: A. finished B. cooked C. attended D. laughed
Question 2: A. number B. future C. furious D. amuse
Question 3: A. defend B. swallow C. social D. wildlife
Question 4: A. eradicate B. alternative C. minority D. secondary
Question 5: We educate our children as well as we can, because of an educated population is the
A B C
key to future.
D
Question 6: Under no circumstances you could betray your fatherland.
A B C D
Question 7: At least three-quarters of that book on famous Americans are about people who lived
A B C D
in the nineteenth century.
Question 8: Eating, together with chatting, listening to music ________ among the most popular
activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.
A. are B. have been
C. were D. is
Question 9: ________ Columbus was one of ________ first people to cross _______ Atlantic.
A. _/the/the B. The/the/the
C. _/the/an D. _/the/_
Question 10: Jack went to the party, wearing a ________ tie.
A. lovely red woolen B. red lovely woolen
C. woolen lovely red D. red woolen lovely
Question 11: Jack Ma or Ma Yun, ________ parents are traditional musician-storytellers, is the
founder and executive chairman of Alibaba Group, a family or highly successful Internet-based
businesses.
A. that B. whom
C. who D. whose
Question 12: Facebook’s terms of use state that members must be ________ least 13 years old with
valid email ID’s.
A. without B. of C. at D. on
Question 13: ________ there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to
everyone.
A. However B. Although
C. Because D. Despite
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Question 14: Her brother was offered the manager’s job, but he ________. He said he didn’t want
the responsibilities.
A. turned it off B. turned it down
C. threw it away D. put it off
Question 15: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien is a Vietnamese Olympian and ________ record-holder for
swimming.
A. nation B. international
C. nationality D. national
Question 16: It doesn’t matter to me one way or another, but I wish you would at least _______ an
effort at seeing his side of it.
A. make B. do C. doing D. making
Question 17: In some countries, on moral _______ that education should not be taxed, there is no
tax on books.
A. idea B. principle C. reason D. concept
Question 18: Farmers collect household and garden waste to make ________.
A. floor coverings B. glassware
C. compost D. pipes
Question 19: Claire wanted to know what time ________.
A. do the banks close B. the banks closed
C. did the banks close D. the banks will close
Question 20: Tom is moving the table. He wants Mary to help him.
_ Tom: “________.”
_ Mary: “Yes, of course.”
A. You won’t help me this time.
B. You’d better give me one hand.
C. Could you give me a hand?
D. I don’t think I’ll need your help.
Question 21: A group of students are discussing their plan for the weekend.
_ Chung: “Can you recommend any places for this weekend?”
_Tue: ”________.”
A. I don’t think you could afford a tour to Ha Long Bay
B. A picnic to Khe Ro forest in Son Dong would be perfect
C. Yes, please go to other agencies
D. No, you cannot recommend any places
Question 22: They tried to find a way of bettering their lives.
A. moving B. changing
C. achieving D. improving
Question 23: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change the prospects of a new
Broad way production .
A. Subversive B. Unfavorable C. Encouraging D. Additional
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Question 24: I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of small fish.
A. moderate B. limited
C. conceited D. excessive
Question 25: The President expressed his deep sorrow over the bombing deaths.
A. sadness B. passion
C. happiness D. regret
Question 26: “You broke my glasses.” said the woman to me.
A. The woman insisted on breaking her glasses.
B. The woman advised me to break her glasses.
C. The woman told me to break her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for breaking her glasses .
Question 27: We’d better leave right away as the traffic will be heavy at this hour.
A. We mustn’t leave it too late as the roads are likely to be busy for the next hour.
B. The roads are busy at this time of day, so we ought to set off at once.
C. Let’s wait an hour so as to avoid some of the heavy traffic.
D. If we set off now, we won’t avoid most of the heavy traffic.
Question 28: Most students are aware of the importance of English.
A. Every student is aware of the importance of English.
B. All student are aware of the importance of English .
C. Not a single student is aware of the importance of English .
D. Almost all student are aware of the importance of English.
Question 29: He arrived at the airport. Then he called home.
A. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
Question 30: John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land.
A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer.
B. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.
C. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer.
D. John Smith, a farmer, bought his land.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a
single task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is "problem (31) ________ ",
which means you have to look at some visual information and then discuss the problem with your
partner. You may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer
65
graphics and it is (32) ________ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you know
exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to (33) ________ the instructions or make them
clearer.
While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask
your partner questions and make (34) _______ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have
any real difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and help .Normally, however, you will find
plenty to say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success
in doing the task by co-operating with your partner, which includes taking (35) ________ in giving
opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to "agree to disagree".
Question 31: A. solving B. working C. making D. finding
Question 32: A. helpful B. needed C. essential D. successful
Question 33: A. insist B. repeat C. tell D. copy
Question 34: A. ideas B. statements C. speeches D. suggestions
Question 35: A. changes B. sides C. turns D. sentences
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral
speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in
which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort
to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact
and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod
signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read
with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also
guide, warm, and instruct people. While verbalization is most common form of language, other
systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 36: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
B. Everybody uses only one form of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
Question 37: The word “these” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. tourists
B. the deaf and the mute
C. thoughts and feelings
D. sign language motions
Question 38: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among blind
people?
A. Picture signs
B. Braille
C. Body language
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D. Signal flags
Question 39: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Question 40: The word “wink” in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as________.
A. close one eye briefly
B. close two eyes briefly
C. bob the head up and down
D. shake the head from side to side
Question 41: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The importance of Sign Language
B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings
D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
Question 42: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
A. A scientist
B. A spy
C. An airline pilot
D. A telegrapher
Simply being bilingual does not qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a
mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language
B. Rather, it is a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from
tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way
that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You can't make a silk purse out
of a sow’s ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey
in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same
idea.
There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a
separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones,
interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive
interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller
meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-
person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes
notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 43: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
C. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
D. To explain the scope of interpreting.
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Question 44: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive
interpreter?
A. The size of group with whom they work.
B. Their proficiency in the language.
C. The type of dictionary they use.
D. The money they are paid.
Question 45: A precondition of being a translator is ________.
A. being able to use high-tech equipment.
B. being a linguist .
C. being bilingual.
D. working well with people.
Question 46: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. changing
B. concluding
C. understanding
D. reading
Question 47: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is
________.
A. very complex and demanding
B. based on principles of business
C. simpler than it really is
D. highly valued and admired
Question 48: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in brief
B. on the contrary
C. in general
D. as a result
Question 49: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary work.
B. A business transaction between two foreign speakers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A translation of a foreign book.
Question 50: The phrase “the former“ refers to _______.
A. simultaneous interpreters
B. the conference
C. consecutive interpreters
D. the both
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 12
Question 1: A. concerned B. candied C. travelled D. dried
Question 2: A. combine B. determine C. discipline D. examine
Question 3: A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly
Question 4: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Question 5: The sink of the South Korean ferry - the Sewol on 16 April 2014 has resulted in
A B
widespread social and political reaction within South Korean.
C D
Question 6: Some people disapprove of keep animals in zoos as they think it is cruel.
A B C D
Question 7: My favorite place in the world is a small city is located on the southern coast of
A B C D
Vietnam.
Question 8: Cong Phuong, ________ 2 goals for Vietnam in the match against Malaysia, is the star
of the 28th SEA Games.
A. score B. who scored C. scores D. scored
Question 9: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring him _______ to our point
of view.
A. over B. up C. back D. round
Question 10: We are ______ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. to B. at C. with D. under
Question 11: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives ________ attention.
A. alone B. only C. single D. individual
Question 12: In many countries, education is ________ until the age of sixteen.
A. necessary B. compulsory C. essential D. legal
Question 13: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself _______.
A. occupied B. occupation C. occupant D. occupational
Question 14: A giraffe is a _______ animal. It has quite a long neck.
A. long-neck B. neck long
C. long-necked D. lengthened-neck
Question 15: Ebola virus disease which is ongoing in West Africa is a serve, often fatal illness,
with a case _______ rate of up to 90%.
A. fatality B. dead C. mortal D. dying
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Question 16: At the universities of Oxford and Cambridge the _______ of teachers to students is
very high.
A. proportion B. ratio C. percentage D. number
Question 17: According to present law, the authorities can give poachers a serve ________.
A. punishing B. punish C. punishable D. punishment
Question 18: The children had been _______ of the danger, but had taken no notice.
A. prevented B. warned C. explained D. shown
Question 19: We need ________ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent
national parks from being destroyed by pollution.
A. excitedly B. threateningly C. approximately D. timely
Question 20: Maria wants to borrow Stephen’s phone.
_ Maria: “Can I use your phone?”
_ Stephen: “________.”
A. I’m afraid so
B. Might as well
C. Be my guest
D. Serves you right
Question 21: Giang has just had his hair cut.
_ Lan: “Your hair style is terrific!”
_Giang: ”________”
A. Yes, that’s alright.
B. Thanks, I had it done this morning.
C. Thanks for the curl.
D. Never mention it.
Question 22: These are all-star, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
A. qualified B. handy C. practiced D. special
Question 23: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm
Question 24: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went
abroad to study.
A. made room for B. put in charge of
C. got in touch with D. lost control of
Question 25: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down
C. put down D. lie down
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Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
D. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
Question 27: To be quite honest, I can’t stand the taste of cigarettes.
A. In fact, I strongly dislike the taste of cigarettes.
B. Honestly, cigarettes make me ill.
C. Frankly, the taste of cigarettes doesn’t bother me.
D. As a matter of fact, I prefer to be seated while smoking.
Question 28: “What you have cooked is the best in the world!” John said to his girlfriend.
A. John asked his girlfriend what she had cooked.
B. John told his girlfriend what she had cooked is the best in the world.
C. John congratulated his girlfriend on her cooking.
D. John said to his girlfriend about her cooking.
Question 29: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 30: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. Being poor academic record at high school, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. Since his academic record at high school was poor, he failed to apply to that
prestigious institution.
C. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
prestigious institution.
D. His academic record at high school was poor so he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
Primary and secondary education in Australia are delivered through both government and
non-government providers. State and Territory governments have major responsibility (31)
_________ government schools education and contribute to funds for non-government schools. (32)
________ students enroll in government schools which operate under the direct responsibility for
the State or Territory Education Minister, while the rest choose non-government schooling. The
Australian Government's role includes the provision of significant supplementary financial (33)
________ to government and non-government school authorities to support agreed priorities and
strategies. Schooling is (34) _________ from age 6 to 15 in all States and Territories except
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Tasmania, where it extends to 16. However, in most States and Territories, children start primary
school at the age of 5 when they enroll in preparatory or kindergarten year, after which primary
education continues for either 6 or 7 years depending on the State or Territory. Secondary education
is available for either 5 or 6 years depending on the State and the length of primary education.
Students usually commence their secondary schooling when (35) ________ 12 or 13, reaching year
12 at 17 or 18.
Question 31: A. of B. about C. in D. for
Question 32: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. The most
Question 33: A. sponsor B. supply C. support D. problem
Question 34: A. compulsory B. obliged C. must D. necessary
Question 35: A. age B. year C. aged D. at
Education is another area of social life in which information technology is changing the way
we communicate. Today’s college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn about
their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality they can participate in
lifelike simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education made
possible through developments in information technology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the
older children attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from a
teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students must
complete a minimum number of study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours by
studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the day
and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning
adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number of hours a week each student
studies on-line as well as that students’ learning materials and assessment activities. Reports will be
available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best learning activities and
condition for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can also identify areas of
weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students’ needs.
Question 36: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Students don’t have to go to school any more.
B. The effect of information technology on education.
C. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
D. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
Question 37: The word “lifelike” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. realistic
B. special
C. suitable
D. likely
Question 38: How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school weekly?
A. Three
B. No time
C. Once or twice
D. Four
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Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Pupils can to work online from home to complete a minimum number of study hour.
B. It is compulsory for students to attend the class at school.
C. Pupils have to sit in a lecture or a library to learn about their field.
D. Pupils must log on time to join live classes in other countries.
Question 40: What CAN’T the software do?
A. Find out the best activities for the students.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Identify weaknesses of the students.
D. Monitor the time the students learn.
Question 41: The word "It" in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. activity
B. report
C. achievement
D. software
Question 42: What is NOT MENTIONED as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
B. Students can stay at home to learn.
C. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
D. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
THE RUINED TEMPLES OF ANGKOR
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the
World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia,
Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the most impressive ones in
the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a
question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be
linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the
inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series
of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River.
Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice patties and farmland during the course
of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without
consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the
reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces
required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire,
Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In
order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more
efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity.
Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less
food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus
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leaving the marvellous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that
the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructures.
Question 43: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________.
A. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
B. is an enormous fresh body of water in Asia
C. was unable to supply enough fish for the people of Angkor
D. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 44: The word “seat” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. battle
B. chief
C. summit
D. location
Question 45: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.
B. A possible explanation for the, decline of a civilization.
C. The essential role water plays in farming.
D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.
Question 46: What does the passage preceding most likely discuss?
A. Architecture of ancient Asian civilization.
B. The form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire.
C. The other six wonders of the world.
D. Religious practices of the people of Angkor.
Question 47: The word “reservoirs” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by ________.
A. dams
B. rivers
C. lakes
D. wells
Question 48: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. temples and palaces
B. farmland
C. rice patties
D. reservoirs and canals
Question 49: All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT
_________.
A. reduction of nutrients
B. loss of water supply
C. erosion of soil
D. contamination of soil.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire
_________.
A. lost their food source due to excess rainfall
B. were intentionally starved by the farmers
C. depended upon rice as their main source of food
D. supplemented their diets with 'meat hunted in the nearby jungles
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 13
Question 1: A. speaks B. speeds C. photographs D. beliefs
Question 2: A. dune B. hummock C. shrub D. buffalo
Question 3: A. achievement B. different C. educate D. primary
Question 4: A. sorrow B. schooling C. passion D. subtract
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mid, but he refuses to listen.
A B C D
Question 6: People are surprising that Saudi Arabia has such a small population in comparison to
A B C
its land and size.
D
Question 7: In can’t stand him. He always disagrees with me of everything I suggest.
A B C D
Question 8: The Red List – a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species – has been
introduced to _______ people’s awareness of conservation.
A. rise B. raise C. draw D. arise
Question 9: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a
specialized _________ of the United Nations established on November 16, 1945.
A. office B. agency C. company D. enterprise
Question 10: Roger Federer couldn’t _________ the possibility of withdrawing from the
championship because of injury.
A. rule out B. pass over C. come off D. do without
Question 11: The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed ________ forging closer economic integration
within the region.
A. to B. for C. of D. at
Question 12: Euro 2016, which is the men’s football _________ of Europe, is scheduled to be held
in France from 10 June to 10 July 2016.
A. championship B. champions C. tournament D. final
Question 13: Anthony Burgess, _________ as a novelist, was originally a student of music.
A. because of being famous B. who has achieved fame
C. who because he was famous D. he achieved fame
Question 14: A lot of children participated in _________ performances.
A. fundraising B. raising-fund
C. fundraise D. funding-raise
Question 15: This company _________ in this town a long time ago. Now it is one of the biggest.
A. was founded B. has been founded
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C. will be founded D. is founded
Question 16: Mai is a ________. She seldom feels sad or disappointed with her life.
A. pessimist B. pessimistic C. optimistic D. optimist
Question 17: No matter _________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable
Question 18: It is generally ________ that “Men build the house and women make it home”.
A. believed B. believe C. believing D. believes
Question 19: The population of ASEAN accounts _______ about 8.6% of the world’s population.
A. of B. for C. in D. from
Question 20: James is asking for the way.
_ James: “_______?”
_ Stranger: “Yeah, down this street, on the left.”
A. Would you like to go by train?
B. Is this a train station?
C. Is there a station near here?
D. How often does the train come?
Question 21: Brian was late for school.
_ Brian: “Sorry, I was late again this morning”
_Peter: ”________”.
A. Yes, I know
B. Well, don’t let it happen again
C. It’s OK
D. No problem
Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. not as serious as before B. not as friendly as before
C. not as childlike as before D. not as sympathetic as before
Question 23: His physical conditions was no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impatience C. impossibility D. hindrance
Question 24: I’ll be taking an English exam next Monday.
A. sitting for B. writing
C. failing D. giving
Question 25: Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
A. free of charge B. required
C. excellent D. easy
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Question 26: Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
B. He felt sad not to be able to attend her birthday party.
C. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
D. Jane to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
Question 27: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 28: It was only because I owed Bill a favor that I agree to help him.
A. I agree to help Bill only as a favor.
B. I agree to do Bill a favor, by helping him.
C. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money.
D. If I hadn’t owed Bill a favor, I wouldn’t have agreed to help him.
Question 29: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
Question 30: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their
sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars
on advertising.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being
an employee? The schools teach a (31) ________ many things of value to the future accountant,
doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach
the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few
students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and
in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to
communicate with people and to (32) ________ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will
both understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (33) ________ itself. You must have something to
say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends much on your ability to make other
people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
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Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (34) ________ teach. The
foundations for skill in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language;
experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of
(35) _______. If you do not lay these foundations during your school years, you may never have an
opportunity again.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
Question 32: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 33: A. on B. for C. by D. in
Question 34: A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
Question 35: A. nonverbal B. nonverbal cues
C. verbal expression D. verbal
Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe. A galaxy is a giant family of many
millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational field. Most of the material universe
is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust.
There are three main types of galaxy: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. The Milky Way is a
spiral galaxy: a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus. About
one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape. Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the interstellar gas
in which new stars form: as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it compresses gas
and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars in its arms. The elliptical galaxies have a
symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no obvious structure. Most of their member stars are
very old and since ellipticals are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars are forming in them. The
biggest and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses of about 1013 times that of
the Sun; these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio emission, in which case they are
called radio galaxies. About two-thirds of all galaxies are elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise
about one-tenth of all galaxies and they come in many subclasses.
Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some terrestrial
distances can be expressed as intervals of time: the time to fly from one continent to another or the
time it takes to drive to work, for example. By comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the
distances to the galaxies are incomprehensibly large, but they are made more manageable by using
a time calibration, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such a scale the nearest
giant spiral galaxy, the Andromeda galaxy, is two million light years away. The most distant
luminous objects seen by telescopes are probably ten thousand million light years away. Their light
was already halfway here before the Earth even formed. The light from the nearby Virgo galaxy set
out when reptiles still dominated the animal world.
Question 36: The world "major" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. intense
B. principal
C. huge
D. unique
Question 37: What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?
A. The Milky Way.
B. How elliptical galaxies are formed.
C. Major categories of galaxies.
D. Difference between irregular and spiral galaxies.
Question 38: According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies in _______.
A. an explosion of gas
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B. the combining of old stars
C. the compression of gas and dust
D. strong radio emissions
Question 39: The word "obvious" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discovered
B. apparent
C. understood
D. simplistic
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?
A. They are largest galaxies.
B. They contain a high amount of interstellar gas.
C. They mostly contain old stars.
D. They have a spherical shape.
Question 41: What percentage of galaxies are irregular?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Question 42: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. intervals
B. yardsticks
C. distances
D. galaxies
Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying in
Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the
sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in particular,
became famous for its cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown in
the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New Netherlands by
the Dutch West India Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam
(today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that bravely colonized
the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-life paintings of the time:
crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania too,
where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and Stately Palace”, its
garden full of tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots”. But
the length of the journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties. Thomas
Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip bulbs from
England, but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch
immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch
settlements, such as the one at Pella. Iowa, they established a regular demand for European plants.
The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the traveling salesperson. One
Dutchman, Hendrick Van Der Schoot, spent six months in 1849 traveling through the United States
taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were traveling from Europe to the United States to
satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick English and Dutch settlers, North American plants were
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traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the enthusiasm for American plants was one reason
why tulips dropped out of fashion in the gardens of the rich and famous.
Question 43: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
A. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
B. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
C. How did tulips become popular in North America?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
Question 44: The word "integral" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. interesting
B. fundamental
C. ornamental
D. overlooked
Question 45: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following regions?
A. Central Asia
B. Western Europe
C. India
D. North America
Question 46: The word "flourished" in this passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. were discovered
B. were marketed
C. combined
D. thrived
Question 47: The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland, Pennsylvania and Michigan in
order to illustrate how ________.
A. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
B. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
C. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 48: The word "grumbled" in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. denied
B. warned
C. complained
D. explained
Question 49: The word "they" in the passage refers to ________.
A. tulips
B. plains
C. immigrants
D. plants
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English gardens
during the European settlement of North America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
B. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 14
Question 1: A. increased B. pleased C. replaced D. fixed
Question 2: A. doubt B. club C. lamb D. bomber
Question 3: A. uncertainty B. activity C. organize D. gigantic
Question 4: A. selfish B. replace C. involve D. escape
Question 5: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered
A B C
basic part of the education of every child.
D
Question 6: Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few
A B C D
buttons.
Question 7: Any passengers travel to Cambridge should sit in the first two carriages of the train.
A B C D
Question 8: The new song has _______ been selected for Euro 2016.
A. officially B. official C. office D. officer
Question 9: Do you think he is ________ of doing the job?
A. suitable B. able C. competent D. capable
Question 10: A _______ knit community is the one in which relationships are very close.
A. actively B. quickly C. hardly D. close
Question 11: Vietnam sent out eight planes ________ Malaysia missing jet on the East Sea on
March 8,2014.
A. in search of B. in search for C. search for D. in search
Question 12: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy ________.
A. sight B. view C. presence D. appearance
Question 13: He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will _______ it.
A. turn off B. fill in C. get over D. take after
Question 14: The influence of a mother’s love is ________ that of the father’s.
A. of the same important B. of the same important as
C. the same important D. as the same important as
Question 15: All the cereal grains ________ grow on the prairies and plains of the United States.
A. but for rice B. expecting rice
C. but rice D. except the rice
Question 16: Many young people have objected to ________ marriage, which is decided by the
parents of the bride and groom.
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A. agreed B. compulsory C. contractual D. sacrificed
Question 17: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. go off C. get off D. take off
Question 18: Joe is an orphan. He was brought _______ by his aunt.
A. about B. up C. around D. on
Question 19: Cotton shirts feel ________ than polyester ones.
A. much softer B. more softly C. far more softly D. far more softer
Question 20: Jane has just finished up a cup of coffee and some sweets John offered.
_ John: “_______.”
_ Jane: “No, thank you. That’ll be all.”
A. What would you like?
B. It’s very kind of you to help me.
C. What kind of food do you like?
D. Would you like anything else?
Question 21: Ann thanked Bill for helping her with the presentation.
_ Ann: “Thank you. I couldn’t have finished my presentation without your help.”
_Bill : ”________”.
A. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so.
B. I highly appreciate what you did.
C. Yes, that’s that.
D. Never mind.
Question 22: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.
A. Bring up a child B. Giving birth to a baby
C. Having no child D. Educating a child
Question 23: An interesting feature of this park is the Orphanage where lots of orphaned or
abandoned animals are taken care of.
A. immoral B. wicked C. shameless D. deserted
Question 24: We all looked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last
night.
A. respected B. looked forward
C. admired D. looked down on
Question 25: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. withdraw some money from
B. put some money into
C. give some money out
D. leave some money aside
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Question 26: Although he was very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
A. Despite of his tiredness, he was eager to help his child with his homework.
B. Tired as he was, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
C. Even if feeling very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
D. He would have helped his child with his homework if he hadn’t been tired.
Question 27: Much as I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
A. I can’t agree because I respect your point of view.
B. I respect your point of view, so I agree.
C. Even though I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
D. I can’t agree with your point of view even if I respect you.
Question 28: “Don’t forget to go to the supermarket after work!” he said.
A. He told me that I shouldn’t forget to go to the supermarket after work.
B. He requested me not to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
C. He reminded me to go to the supermarket after work.
D. He asked me no to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
Question 30: The news was wonderful. As a consequence, we decided to have a celebration.
A. It was such a wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
B. We decided to have a celebration so that we heard the news
C. We decided to have a celebration so as to hear wonderful news.
D. It was such wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
Scientists say we clean our teeth the wrong way. Researchers from University College,
London found that most of the advice that dentists give us (31) ________ very different. They add
that we have been cleaning our teeth the wrong way. The researchers looked at tooth-brushing
advice in dental textbooks, toothpaste instructions and dental clinics. They found five different
basic ways of tooth-brushing and decided all of them were incorrect. (32) ________ the methods
involve moving the toothbrush along the teeth, with the brush moving round and round in small
circular movements. The researchers said we should stop doing this and use a back-and-(33)
_________ movement instead.
The research suggests not brushing teeth too much. More than twice a day damages the
enamel on the teeth. The recommended time for brushing is (34) ________ than three minutes each
time. The research also says using too much pressure and brushing your teeth too hard will also
damage teeth. Researchers also advised not cleaning your teeth immediately after eating. This is
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(35) _______ acid is strongest in your mouth and this acid will damage teeth. A final
recommendation was to clean the tongue too because it also has a lot of bacteria.
Question 31: A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 32: A. Every of B. Most of C. Each of D. Any of
Question 33: A. for B. fourth C. forwards D. forth
Question 34: A. not longer B. no more longer
C. no longer D. longer not
Question 35: A. when B. what C. why D. how
England was a powerful country in the world. It had a lot of colonies. In the American colonies
there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow the
colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received
permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep
money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with
England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this
pre-Revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts,
Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists
also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins
were all in use in the American colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the war, so each of the
individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money
was printed that, by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods
and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary
system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United
States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer
have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the
official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic
system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed
by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 36: The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. the effect of the Revolution on American money
B. American money from past to present
C. the English monetary policies in colonial America
D. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries
Question 37: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was ________.
A. used extensively for trade
B. scarce
C. supplied by England
D. coined by colonists
Question 38: The expression “a means of” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. a result of
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B. a method of
C. a punishment for
D. an example of
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money
during the colonial period?
A. Wampum
B. Cotton
C. Beaver furs
D. Tobacco
Question 40: The pronoun “it” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. The Continental Congress.
B. Trade in goods.
C. The war.
D. Paper money.
Question 41: The word “remedy” ” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. resolve
B. medicate
C. renew
D. understand
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about the bimetallic
monetary system?
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. It was established in 1792.
C. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
D. The monetary system was based on two metals.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the
Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been
instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most
believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about
what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four
times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia
delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became known as
the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based on
population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that under this
plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small State Plan. It
provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a single national
executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out
an agreement known as the Great Compromise – actually a bundle of shrewd compromises. They
decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted representation
based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The smaller states were
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given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two
senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single executive, the
president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success seemed within
reach.
Question 43: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States.
B. The differences in population and relative power between the original states.
C. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise.
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan.
Question 44: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional
Convention?
A. Fourteen
B. Twelve
C. Thirteen
D. Fifty-five
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation ___________.
A. allowed small states to dominate large ones
B. provided for only a weak central government
C. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
D. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
Question 46: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST
people?
A. New York
B. Delaware
C. New Jersey
D. Virginia
Question 47: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional
Convention?
A. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work.
B. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise.
C. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia.
D. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived.
Question 48: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. clever
B. unfair
C. important
D. practical
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the
Great Compromise?
A. Each state would have two senators
B. Congress would be divided into two bodies
C. There would be only one national executive
D. The president would be elected by popular vote
Question 50: The author uses the phrase "broke the logjam" to indicate that ___________.
A. the Convention came to a sudden end.
B. the situation had become desperate.
C. the government was nearly bankrupt.
D. some major problems had been solved.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 15
Question 1: A. looks B. knows C. helps D. sits
Question 2: A. machine B. chemistry C. chemical D. chemist
Question 3: A. police B. system C. woman D. novel
Question 4: A. attract B. amaze C. offer D. require
Question 5: Lan together with her boyfriends are working in groups to find out the solution to
A B C D
that problem.
Question 6: We are talking about our librarian from who we borrowed that book yesterday.
A B C D
Question 7: Today’s temperature is much hotter than yesterday.
A B C D
Question 8: By the time he arrives here tomorrow, they _______ for London.
A. would have left B. will have left C. will left D. are leaving
Question 9: Nowadays, students like playing ________ soccer or volleyball after their school.
A. a B. some C. the D. 0
Question 10: Of the three girls, Hoa is ________.
A. beautiful B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
Question 11: He asked me and his friends ________ his pens.
A. when did he put B. where he puts
C. where he had put D. where had he put
Question 12: Look! Your book next to the window is wet. You _______ the window last night.
A. must open B. might open
C. should open D. must have opened
Question 13: In most football matches, referees often wear _______ black.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
th
Question 14: On the occasion of 8 March last year, we offered my old form teacher a ________
scarf.
A. red new Japanese silk B. new red silk Japanese
C. new red Japanese silk D. silk red new Japanese
Question 15: They spend a large _______ of time doing their house chore every day.
A. amount B. number C. much D. many
Question 16: His son _______ him so much that we can’t see any differences between them.
A. takes after B. looks up
C. takes in D. looks over
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Question 17: My sister in-law is beloved by all my relatives for she can ________ all right after
getting married.
A. get on well with B. get up C. get over D. get out of
Question 18: I was going to leave when something happened, which attracted my ________.
A. attention B. sympathy C. thought D. surprise
Question 19: My teacher said that I could speak English ________ in six months if I tried my best.
A. fluent B. fluently C. unfluent D. unfluently
Question 20: Two friends Peter and Lida are talking about pet.
_ Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
_ Lida: “_______.”
A. Nothing more to say
B. You can say that again
C. Yes, I hope so
D. No, dogs are very good, too
Question 21: Tuan and Peter are talking at Tuan’s birthday party.
_ Tuan: “Thank you so much for your lovely present.”
_ Peter: ”________”.
A. Well done.
B. It’s nothing. It’s cheap.
C. You are welcome.
D. You are very kind to me.
Question 22: The World Health Organization was established on April 7th 1948.
A. made up B. built up C. set up D. put up
Question 23: Many young children are spending a large amount of time playing video games
without being aware of their detriment to their school work.
A. harm B. advantage C. support D. benefit
Question 24: The job, which seems arduous to most of the applicants, offers a competitive salary.
A. austere B. effortless C. beneficial D. difficult
Question 25: Many endangered species may die out in few decades if we don’t find out effective
solutions.
A. disappear B. exist C. vanish D. pass away
Question 26: It took me 3 hours to repair the roof.
A. I lasted 3 hours to repair the roof.
B. I have spent 3 hours repaired the roof.
C. I spent 3 hours repairing the roof.
D. I spent 3 hours to repair the roof.
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Question 27: “You should have finished the report by now” the boss said to his secretary.
A. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report on time.
B. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
C. The boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
Question 28: John didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night.
A. If John installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night.
B. Because John hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last night.
C. If John had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night.
D. Had John installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last
night.
Question 29: My father is living with me. My younger sister is living with me, too.
A. Either my father or my younger sister is living with me.
B. Neither my father nor my younger sister is living with me.
C. I live with my father and my younger sister, too.
D. Not only my father but also my younger sister is living with me.
Question 30: He has tried hard. He can’t still earn enough money.
A. Although he has tried hard, but he can’t still earn enough money.
B. No matter how hard he has tried, he can’t still earn enough money.
C. In spite of he has tried hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
D. Despite the fact that trying hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
Read the following passage on climate change, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 38.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the
changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our
planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred
gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be
the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming
alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts,
this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last
10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could
give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of
droughts. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modern
industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but
also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming
up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the
subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries. Of
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these summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that
the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and
were given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb
greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too
drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate
changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 31: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ
from the modern ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 32: The word “alarmingly” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. disapprovingly
B. disappointingly
C. surprisingly
D. worryingly
Question 33: According to the passage, agriculture could _________.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 34: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed _________.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for
global warming are ________.
A. countries with the warmest climate
B. developing countries
C. developed countries
D. the most industrialized countries
Question 36: The word “There” in the fifth paragraph refers to ________.
A. the world’s industrialized countries
B. regular summits on climate change
C. the most industrialized countries
D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
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C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
Question 38: What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
A. Optimistic
B. Pessimistic
C. Neutral
D. Positive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
Women nowadays have more advantages than those in the past. For example, our great
grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work (39) _______ their own living. (40)
_______, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can
get good education, have their own careers, and pursue their interests. They can even take good
positions in politics if they are competent at it. However, women living in our modern society have
their problems too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain
the balance between working life (41) _______ family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most
senior positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more
strenuous life because, (42) ________ in a very modern society, the women can’t (43) ________
their role in the family.
Question 39: A. to do B. to earn C. to make D. to produce
Question 40: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
Question 41: A. so B. and C. for D. but
Question 42: A. though B. even C. ever D. never
Question 43: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool
and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile
phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no
proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who
use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of
serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of
his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his
working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his
employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies
agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
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As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only
when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your
health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 44: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people
because ________.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
B. they make them look more stylish.
C. they keep the users alert all the time.
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 45: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with _________.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Question 46: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________.
A. meanings
B. expression
C. methods
D. transmission
Question 47: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ________.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 48: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often ________.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability.
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory
Question 49: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is
________.
A. their radiant light
B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power
D. their power of attraction
Question 50: The most suitable title for the passage could be _________.
A. “The reasons why mobile phones are popular”
B. “Technological innovations and their price”
C. “The way mobile phones work”
D. “Mobile phones - a must of our time”
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 16
Question 1: A. linked B. declared C. finished D. developed
Question 2: A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
Question 3: A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources
Question 4: A. figure B. ever C. apply D. happy
Question 5: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A B C D
Question 6: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D
Question 7: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D
Question 8: I don’t think that this fashion will catch ________.
A. on B. up C. out D. over
Question 9: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.
A. is B. will be C. is being D. will have been
Question 10: ______ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.
A. Ecology B. Habitat C. Extinction D. Biodiversity
Question 11: They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
Question 12: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice as much as
C. twice more than D. twice as
Question 13: Jim painted the gate ______ than his father did 2 years ago.
A. badly B. bad C. worst D. worse
Question 14: She waited for twenty minutes and _______ arrived at the head of the queue.
A. lastly B. finally C. at the end D. eventual
Question 15: ________ could only have been made by someone totally incompetent.
A. So serious in this mistake B. How serious a mistake
C. So serious a mistake D. Such serious mistake
Question 16: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ________ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to be appearing
C. to appear D. by appearing
Question 17: I have no idea how to _______ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 18: “ My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the airport”.
A. to pick up B. picked up C. pick up D. picking up
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Question 19: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by _______ rocking chair.
A. a wooden old beautiful European B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 20: _ Tony: “I’d like to place an order for delivery, please.”
_ Diana: “_______.”
A. Sure, what would you like?
B. Sure, what time is it?
C. We actually take orders at five
D. Sure, how much is it?
Question 21: _ Albert: “This dish is really nice!”
_Bill : ”________. It’s called yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers”.
A. It’s my pleasure.
B. Sure, I’ll be glad to.
C. I’m glad you like it.
D. I guess you are right.
Question 22: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. happen B. encounter C. arrive D. clean
Question 23: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. help B. prepared C. be busy D. attempt
Question 24: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Question 26: Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
Question 27: My mother had the house decorated.
A. The house was decorated by my mother.
B. My mother had someone decorated the house.
C. My mother had to decorate the house.
D. My mother has just decorated the house.
Question 28: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
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B. It was midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. Not until after midnight did the noise next door stopped.
D. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
Question 29: I’d prefer him not to have said all those embarrassing things about me.
A. I’d prefer him not saying all those embarrassing things about me.
B. I’d sooner he hadn’t said all those embarrassing things about me.
C. I’d rather he didn’t say all those embarrassing things about me.
D. I’d not prefer his saying all those embarrassing things about me.
Question 30: Nobody at all came to the meeting.
A. Not many people came to the meeting.
B. Not a single person came to the meeting.
C. There was almost nobody at the meeting.
D. Only a few people came to the meeting.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately
in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public
schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not
"waste" their time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life's work. It was in
the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann,
probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any
citizen to be uneducated. Education is important (31) ________ it helps people get more out of life.
It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that
make life more interesting and enjoyable, (32) ________ the skills needed to participate in a sport,
paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes (33) _________ important as
people gain more and leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social
changes today take place with increasing speed and (34) ________ the lives of more and more
people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35) ________ the
skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 32: A. such as B. for instance C. such that D. for example
Question 33: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Question 34: A. effect B. affect C. affective D. effective
Question 35: A. with B. for C. in D. to
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone
on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of
information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every
subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary
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people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia
simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human
knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”.
Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States,
with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-
ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the
Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like
Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid
experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so
different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide
information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free,
unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to
write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it
took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new
way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of
putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the
Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is
very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on
to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your
hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is
interested in making any more changes.
Question 36: Wikipedia is written by________.
A. paid written
B. millionaires
C. normal people
D. world experts
Question 37: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to_______.
A. knowledge
B. encyclopedia
C. writing
D. collection
Question 38: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of _______.
A. CD-ROM dictionary
B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia
D. updateable online encyclopedia
Question 39: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced
by_______.
A. born
B. child
C. product
D. father
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Question 40: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. have access to information.
B. determinate the website
C. modify information
D. edit information
Question 41: We can say that Jimmy Wales________.
A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia
B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia
D. decides who can use Wikipedia
Question 42: Wikipedia is a(n) _______.
A. book
B. journal
C. article
D. dictionary
In addition to providing energy, fats have other functions in the body. The fat-soluble
vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good source of these vitamins
have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues. In the diet, fats
cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time
after a meal is eaten.
Fats add variety, taste and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods.
Fatty deposits in body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female
body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits. Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet
is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth
eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly and their reproductive systems are
damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence
are called essential fatty acids. They are also required by a number of other animals, but their roles
in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient
for humans.
Question 43: The word “functions” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. forms
B. needs
C. jobs
D. sources
Question 44: All of the following vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues except _________.
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin D
C. vitamin B
D. vitamin E
Question 45: The phrase “stored in” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. manufactured
B. attached
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C. measured by
D. accumulated in
Question 46: The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions except to _______.
A. promote the feeling of fullness
B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy
D. control weight gain
Question 47: Which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat-free diet?
A. They stop growing
B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair
D. They require less care
Question 48: Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned as _______.
A. an essential nutrient for humans
B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. prevent weight gain in rats
D. a nutrient found in most foods
Question 49: The phrases “abnormalities” refers to ________.
A. a condition caused by fried foods
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves of the human female body
D. end of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
Question 50: That humans should all have some fat in our diets is ________.
A. a commonly held view
B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women
D. proven to be true by experiments on rats
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 17
Question 1: A. study B. apply C. rely D. supply
Question 2: A. sports B. enthusiasts C. games D. thanks
Question 3: A. engage B. ceremony C. majority D. maintain
Question 4: A. original B. responsible C. reasonable D. comparison
Question 5: The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because
A B
most of it lies under the ocean.
C D
Question 6: A galaxy, where may include billions of stars, is help together by gravitation
A B C D
attraction.
Question 7: Because of the expense of traditional fuels and the concern that they run out, many
A B C
countries have been investigating alternative sources of power.
D
Question 8: Harry Potter books, which ________ by J.K. Rowling, are very popular with children
around the world.
A. were written B. will write
C. will be written D. wrote
Question 9: ASEAN helps to ________ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of
equality and partnership.
A. invest B. promote C. advocate D. invest
Question 10: When Lava reaches the surface, its temperature can be ten times ________ boiling
water.
A. the temperature B. that of C. it is D. more
Question 11: Louis Pasteur invented the process of pasteurization and developed vaccines for
several disease _________ rabies.
A. include B. included C. including D. inclusive
Question 12: We benefit greatly ________ the medicines and other products that biodiversity
provides.
A. from B. without C. for D. at
Question 13: ________ animals have a blood temperature which varies with the temperature of the
surroundings.
A. Cold-blooding B. Cold-blooded
C. Blooded-cold D. Blooding cold
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Question 14: _______ wants to take the GCSE ‘A’ Level has to achieve high grades at the GCSE
examination.
A. One B. Who C. Whoever D. Those who
Question 15: ________ squeeze, the orange juice in a serving provides twice the minimum daily
requirement for Vitamin C.
A. It is freshly B. If freshly
C. You freshly D. If it freshly
Question 16: In American history, never before Richard Nixon ________ from the office.
A. any president resigned B. any president had resigned
C. had any president resigned D. was any president resigned
Question 17: Scientists are now beginning to carry out experiment on ________ trigger different
sorts of health risk.
A. noise pollution can B. that noise pollution
C. how noise pollution D. how noise pollution can
Question 18: Rowing is the act of propelling a boat with ________.
A. sticks B. clubs C. oars D. bats
Question 19: Bioluminescent animals _______ the water or on land.
A. live B. are living either
C. they are found in D. can be found in
Question 20: _ Jane: “Are you interested in scuba diving?”
_ Janet: “_______.”
A. Very. Undersea life is being strongly contaminated.
B. Very. Undersea life is fascinating
C. Not any. Undersea life is too expensive
D. Well, things are much different, now
Question 21: _ Tom: “I think married women should not go to work”
_Cindy: ”________. It’s too boring to be housewives all their lives”
A. Perhaps, I’m not sure.
B. I can’t agree with you more.
C. That’s right.
D. I don’t agree.
Question 22: It is believed that the plane crash was caused by electrical malfunction of its
navigation system.
A. breaking down B. breaking up
C. breaking through D. breaking in
Question 23: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism,
and commerce.
A. profitability B. urgency C. appearance D. explosion
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Question 24: In those days, the Standard Oil Company did not deliver oil to the consumer in big
wagons and motor trucks as it does, but delivered instead to retail process, hardware stores, and the
like.
A. in big quantities B. in small quantities
C. by the gross D. at bargaining price
Question 25: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 26: “ If I were you, I would do morning exercise regularly.” said John.
A. John asked me to do morning exercise regularly.
B. John prevented me from doing morning exercise regularly.
C. John advised me to do morning exercise regularly.
D. John congratulated me on doing morning exercise regularly.
Question 27: Without transportation, our modern society would not exist.
A. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.
B. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not either.
C. Our modern society will not exist without having traffic.
D. Our modern society does not exist if there is no transportation.
Question 28: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.
A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer.
B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.
C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.
D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.
Question 29: My father doesn’t smoke. He doesn’t drink, either.
A. My father not only smokes but also drinks.
B. My father doesn’t smoke but he drinks.
C. My father enjoys smoking and drinking.
D. My father neither smokes nor drinks.
Question 30: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
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EARLY WRITING AND ALPHABETS
When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small
pictures to (31) ________ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there
was a different picture for every word.
The Ancient Egyptians had a system of picture writing that was called hieroglyphics. The
meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (32)
________ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33) ________ a
thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to
understand what the hieroglyphics meant.
An alphabet is quite different from picture writing. It (34) ________ of letters or symbols that
represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about 3,000
years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this alphabet
is now used (35) ________ throughout the world.
Question 31: A. notice B. convey C. appear D. mark
Question 32: A. discovered B. realized
C. delivered D. invented
Question 33: A. quite B. more C. over D. already
Question 34: A. consists B. includes C. contains D. involves
Question 35: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May,
1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to
initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one
decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because
similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually
be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported
in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active
smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission.
Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating removed from contact with others and
treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of the
disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be completely
sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community. Today smallpox is no
longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The World Health Organization
B. The Eradication of Smallpox
C. Smallpox Vaccinations
D. Infectious Disease
Question 37: The word “isolated” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
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A. restored
B. separated
C. attended
D. located
Question 38: What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
A. to decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide.
B. to eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years.
C. to provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide.
D. to initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time.
Question 39: According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of
smallpox?
A. Vaccinations of entire villages.
B. Treatments of individual victims.
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations.
D. Extensive reporting of outbreak.
Question 40: How was the public motivated to help health workers?
A. By educating them.
B. By rewarding them for reporting cases.
C. By isolating them from others.
D. By giving them vaccination.
Question 41: The word “they” in bold in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. health workers
B. officials
C. victims
D. cases
Question 42: Which statement does not refer to Smallpox?
A. Previous projects had failed.
B. People are no longer vaccinated for it.
C. The WHO mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.
D. It was a serious threat.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin –
a behavioral biologist – describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give
sleeping the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops
and services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more
time getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-
night TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or
pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during
the week, whereas research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a half hours’ sleep
to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than they need and they
live in an almost permanent state of ‘sleep debt’.
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Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the
hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our
hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are
woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world’s most popular drug,
helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world’s population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a
point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as
humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society
in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on
‘night call’, and may get less than three hours’ sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood,
judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a
series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills
thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be just as dangerous as a drunken
driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when exhausted isn’t. As Paul
Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep instead of
criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if
everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul
Martin?
A. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
B. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
C. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
D. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
Question 44: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning
to________.
A. all day and night
B. surrounded with clocks
C. during the daytime
D. having a round clock
Question 45: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ________.
A. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
B. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
C. an ineffective means of communication
D. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
Question 46: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
D. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep
Question 47: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
A. reaching a point
B. masking the symptoms
C. the world’s population
D. caffeine consumption
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Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
B. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
C. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
D. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
Question 49: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ________.
A. bound to bring satisfaction
B. becoming more noticeable
C. causing serious damage or loss
D. likely to become worthless
Question 50: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
B. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
C. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
D. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 18
Question 1: A. sacrificed B. trusted C. recorded D. acted
Question 2: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Question 3: A. person B. attract C. signal D. instance
Question 4: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Question 5: In some countries in Europe, teachers are allowed giving children some
A B C
homework only at weekends.
D
Question 6: Elizabeth Blackwell was born on England in 1821 and emigrated to New York City
A B C D
when she was ten years old.
Question 7: 1.6 billion gallons were sold every year, in over one hundred and sixty countries.
A B C D
Question 8: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 9: Had I studied harder, I _________ better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done
C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
Question 10: The larger the apartment is, the ________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive
C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 11: Nam wanted to know what time ________.
A. the movie began B. the movie begins
C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
Question 12: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, _________ made us very
happy then.
A. which B. that C. it D. of which
Question 13: Lenses, ________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses
B. in the forms of glasses and contact lenses
C. glasses and contact lenses which form
D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
Question 14: That beautiful girl died of an ________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overhear
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C. overdo D. overdose
Question 15: I suggest the room ________ before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated
C. were decorated D. should decorated
Question 16: Many species of plants and animals are in ________ of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 17: The last person _______ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave B. who leave
C. that leave D. leaves
Question 18: Nowadays women ________ the same wages as men.
A. should pay B. will be paid
C. will pay D. should be paid
Question 19: I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to ________.
A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up
Question 20: Two friends Jane and Tony are working when Jane’s laptop collapse.
_ Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course OK. I still need it now
D. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: Two friends Lan and Binh meet at the school yard.
_ Lan: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.”
_Binh: ” I feel a little ________.”
A. out of the blue
B. under the weather
C. out of order
D. under the impression
Question 22: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna
of the island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Question 23: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it
over”
A. to sleep on it B. to make it better
C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
Question 24: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.
A. feeling extremely unhappy B. extremely light
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C. feeling extremely airy D. extremely happy
Question 25: John was so insubordinate that he lost his job in one week.
A. understanding B. fresh C. obedient D. disobedient
Question 26: Exhaustion prevented any of the runners from finishing the race.
A. The runners can’t finish the race as a result of their exhaustion.
B. The runners are so exhausted that they can’t finish the race.
C. The runners were not exhausted enough to finish the race.
D. So exhausted were the runners that none of them finished the race.
Question 27: Derek is quite a bit more adventurous than his sister, Annabelle.
A. Annabelle is considerable more adventurous than her brother, Derek.
B. Annabelle isn’t as nearly adventurous as her brother, Derek.
C. Derek isn’t so nearly adventurous as his sister, Annabelle.
D. Annabelle isn’t nearly as adventurous as her brother, Derek.
Question 28: No one except for Jake has ever beaten me at the game of chess.
A. I am the only person who has ever beaten Jake in the game of chess.
B. I have ever beaten everyone except for Jake at the game of chess.
C. Jake is the only one ever to beat me at the game of chess.
D. No one but Jake has ever been beaten at the game of chess.
Question 29: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so serve, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
The current global extinction rate is (31) ________ at about 20,000 species per year,
exponentially greater than the background extinction rate. Many biologists believe that we are in the
middle of the greatest mass extinction episode since the (32) ________ of the dinosaurs 65 million
years ago.
From what is known about present-day populations and from evolutionary theory, the change
in either the physical (33) _________ the biological environment is the key to extinction. However,
the vulnerability of a species depends on a wide variety of factors, such as its total population size,
geographical (34) ________, reproductive ability, ecological relations with other species, and
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genetic characteristics. For example, more emphasis is put on the greater vulnerability of species
that reproduce slowly as contrasted with those that reproduce (35) ________. Other factors, such as
food-plant specialization, may make many fast reproducers more vulnerable than species that
reproduce more slowly. No matter how fast an insect species that depends on a certain plan can
reproduce; it will still go extinct if that plant's habitat is destroyed.
Question 31: A. increased B. distributed C. estimated D. added
Question 32: A. disappearance B. remain
C. disposal D. limitation
Question 33: A. so B. and C. nor D. or
Question 34: A. opportunity B. follow
C. spread D. distribution
Question 35: A. rapidly B. cheaply C. cheerfully D. lastly
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the
decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations
made to it between 1929 and 1931, the importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The
impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they were vacated
only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture of the most recent residents
of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a
collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country
house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to
the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the
American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward
the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have
followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years
in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to grater effect and would
give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history
museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and
provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur.
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses.
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum.
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned.
Question 37: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
A. The old furniture was replaced.
B. The estate became a museum.
C. The owners moved out.
D. The house was repaired.
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Question 38: The word “assembled” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. summoned
B. appreciated
C. fundamentally changed
D. brought together
Question 39: The word “it” in line 11 refers to ________.
A. collection
B. English country house
C. visitor
D. Winterthur
Question 40: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following
EXCEPT _________.
A. place of manufacture
B. date
C. past ownership
D. style
Question 41: What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
A. The second paragraph of explains a philosophy art appreciation that contrasts with the
philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph.
C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum.
Question 42: Where is the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed?
A. lines 6-8
B. lines 4-5
C. lines 1-2
D. lines 10-12
Universally acclaimed as America's greatest playwright, Eugene O'Neill was born in 1888 in
the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure to
the world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New
York to work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon returning
from voyages to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months to recuperate
from tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about his adventures on
the sea. He went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for Cardiff. It was produced on
Cape Cod by the Provincetown Players, an experimental theater group that was later to settle in the
famous Greenwich Village theater district in New York City. The Players produced several more of
his one-acts in the years between 1916-1920. With the full-length play Beyond the Horizon,
produced on Broadway in 1920, O'Neill's success was assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for
the best play of the year. O'Neill was to be awarded the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for
Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long Day's Journey Into Night. Although he didn't receive
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the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting
contribution to the American theatre. In 1936, he was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O'Neill's plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several themes
emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the sexes, the
conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a victim of
uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O'Neill's characters are seeking for meaning in their lives.
According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a
sense, his work chronicled his life.
Question 43: This passage is a summary of O'Neill's ________.
A. work and life
B. life
C. family
D. work
Question 44: How many times was O'Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Five
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
Question 45: The word "briefly" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A. without enthusiasm
B. on scholarship
C. seriously
D. for a short time
Question 46: The word "It" in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. theater district
B. one-act play
C. theater group
D. Harvard
Question 47: The word "struggle" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. conflict
B. denial
C. appreciation
D. influence
Question 48: According to the passage, which of O'Neill's plays was most important to the
American theatre?
A. Beyond the Horizon
B. Mourning becomes Electra
C. Long Day's Journey Into Night
D. Anna Christie
Question 49: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O'Neill's plays
EXCEPT________.
A. adventures at sea
B. life in college
C. relationships between men and women
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D. family life
Question 50: We can infer from information in the passage that O'Neill's plays were not ________.
A. autobiographical
B. controversial
C. popular
D. optimistic
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 19
Question 1: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 2: A. misses B. goes C. leaves D. potatoes
Question 3: A. different B. bamboo C. rainfall D. wildlife
Question 4: A. personality B. rhinoceros C. gorilla D. opponent
Question 5: The collecting of postage stamps is a hobby that interest people of all ages and all
A B C
walks of life.
D
Question 6: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about
A B C
the changes to our climate which are taking place.
D
Question 7: In some states, it against the law to ride a motorcycle without a helmet.
A B C D
Question 8: If only the Prime Minister ________ his arts policy would lose him the election.
A. had known B. knows
C. was knowing D. could have knowing
Question 9: While studying, he was financially dependent _______ his parents.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
Question 10: Mr. Pike ________ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. had been teaching B. has been teaching
C. was teaching D. is teaching
Question 11: Don’t worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily ______ you up for
the night.
A. keep B. put C. take D. set
Question 12: This is valuable _______ chair which dates back to the eighteenth century.
A. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient
Question 13: Come with me. I’m seeing “The killer” tomorrow, ______.
A. Do you? B. Shall you? C. Are you? D. Will you?
Question 14: It is a _________.
A. polyester sleeping blue bag B. blue sleeping polyester bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 15: _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had
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C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 16: _______, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired as she was B. She was tired
C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 17: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.
A. what to wear B. which wearing
C. these wearing D. that she wearing
Question 18: Paul was ________ of himself for having stolen money from his mother.
A. shy B. ashamed C. timid D. embarrassed
Question 19: ________ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.
A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue
Question 20: _ Daisy: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now
D. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: _ Tim: “________.”
_Jeycy : ”Certainly.”
A. Welcome back!
B. What are you doing there?
C. I’m sorry I am late
D. May I borrow a pencil, please?
Question 22: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial.
A. useful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
Question 23: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it
over”.
A. to sleep on it B. to make it better
C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
Question 24: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. good behavior B. behaving improperly
C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly
Question 25: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was
released.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
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Question 26: We couldn’t go out because the weather was so bad.
A. It was so bad a weather that we couldn’t go out.
B. It was such a bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
C. It was so bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
D. It was such bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
Question 27: The little boy insisted on my helping to take the picture away.
A. “Please, please help me take the picture away!” the little boy said.
B. “How about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy said.
C. “What do you think about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy wanted to
know.
D. “Why don’t you help me to take the picture away?” the little boy asked.
Question 28: “Don’t leave the house until I get back, John” his sister said.
A. John’s sister told him to leave the house when she got back.
B. John’s sister told him not to go out until she gets back.
C. John’s sister told him not to leave the house when she got back.
D. John’s sister told him to stay at home till she got back.
Question 29: The driver I front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
B. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happened.
C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happen.
Question 30: Lan is reading an interesting storybook . You lent it to her last week.
A. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent it to her last week.
B. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent to her last week.
C. Lan is reading an interesting storybook who you lent it to her last week.
D. Lan is reading an interesting storybook whom you lent it to her last week.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (31) _______ in our cars and to heat our
building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They use them to kill insects
which eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of
pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (32) ________ air to other countries
and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (33) ________. The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests for
firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (34) ________ desert. Poor people can’t
save the environment for the future.
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all-
humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (35) ________ the world’s
resources.
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Question 31: A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 32: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 33: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating
Question 34: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
Question 35: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are
increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our
most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than
the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need
more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation
phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term
effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced
to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already
moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern
social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the
report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because
mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another
reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming shyness.
The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship
and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community. Even the language of texting
in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a vastly
improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a
more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more
effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and
traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many
possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the
user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by
voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around
congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow for remote
monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain, scientists are developing an asthma management
solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third
generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of
terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation
of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues.
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Question 36: What does “them” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. long-term effects
B. new mobile technologies
C. doubts
D. benefits
Question 37: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
B. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them
uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
Question 39: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in the third paragraph?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 40: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because ________.
A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
B. it provides directions orally
C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it shows them how to avoid road works
Question 41: What is the general attitude of the report described here?
A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
Question 42: The word “pronounced” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. obvious
B. serious
C. voiced
D. overwhelmed
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object,
each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer
may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and
ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing.
This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a
helper than an originator.
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In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and
color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects
because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques from three-
dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with
special color terminals or frame buffer. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image
memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest
quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions
and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures
it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to
the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire
sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be
viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed,
redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time- consuming. Often,
computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings
before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking
images.
Question 43: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is
to draw the ________.
A. first frame
B. middle frames
C. last frame
D. entire sequences of frames
Question 44: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. formulas
B. databases
C. numbers
D. objects
Question 45: According to the passage, the "frame buffers" mentioned in the third paragraph are
used to ________.
A. add color to the images
B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images
D. create new frames
Question 46: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech
animation are determined by ________.
A. drawing several versions
B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles
D. using computer calculations
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Question 47: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. separates
B. registers
C. describes
D. numbers
Question 48: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. before
B. since
C. after
D. while
Question 49: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possibility
B. position
C. time
D. job
Question 50: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 20
Question 1: A. naked B. sacred C. learned D. studied
Question 2: A. check B. challenge C. chocolate D. machine
Question 3: A. promote B. precede C. picture D. pollute
Question 4: A. exciting B. impolite C. attention D. attracting
Question 5: In my opinion, I think that this book is more interested than the other one.
A B C D
Question 6: Members of High School clubs learn to participation in teams through their
A B C
involvement in community projects.
D
Question 7: Today the most popular method of pasteurization, called “flash pasteurization”,
A
involves several step, which include heating milk for 15 seconds and then immediately cooling it
B C D
Question 8: _________ at someone is considered as rude.
A. Looking B. Waving C. Greeting D. Pointing
Question 9: They _______ for Japan at 10.30 tomorrow.
A. will be leaving B. have left C. will have left D. will leave
Question 10: The thieves ran away when the burglar alarm ________.
A. went out B. went on C. went off D. went by
Question 11: The wedding day was ________ chosen by the parents of the groom.
A. careless B. careful C. carefully D. carelessly
Question 12: The doctor decided to give her a thorough examination ________ he could identify the
causes of her illness.
A. unless B. after C. so as D. so that
Question 13: To Americans, it is impolite to ask someone about age, ________ and salary.
A. marry B. married C. marrying D. marriage
Question 14: Tom is thought _______ the runaway murdered last week.
A. to have met B. to be met C. to meet D. that he met
Question 15: Students have to pay _______ fees when they attend public schools.
A. tuition B. teaching C. education D. learning
Question 16: Anna seems to be a bright student. She’s always the first _______ her work.
A. finishing B. to finish C. being finished D. to be finish
Question 17: Boys! Put your toys _______. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay ______ late.
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A. around/for B. away/up C. down/off D. off/to
Question 18: At present, we are _______ an anti-drug campaign.
A. setting up for B. taking part C. joining with D. carrying out
Question 19: _______ the weather is, ________ I feel.
A. The warm / the good B. The warmer / the better
C. Warmer / better D. The warmest / the best
Question 20: _ Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam”
_ Nam: “_______.”
A. Oh, I don’t know
B. Thank you. I am glad you like it
C. You’re welcome
D. I agree with you
Question 21: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?”
-“_________.”
A. Do you think I would?
B. Yes, you are a good friend
C. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks
D. I wouldn’t like. Thank you
Question 22: Literature is a compulsory subject in our education, which means every student has to
study the subject.
A. difficult B. easy C. unnecessary D. required
Question 23: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get-togethers they usually to make
others feel comfortable and relaxed.
A. social reunions B. meetings C. conferences D. conservations
Question 24: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Question 25: Training for the Olympics requires an enormous amount of work: athletes who want
to compete must work extremely hard.
A. very large B. small C. unusual D. very common
Question 26: I’ll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week.
A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it.
B. If you promised to return the book, I’ll let you borrow it.
C. If you promises to return the book next week, I won’t let you borrow it.
D. If you promise to return the book next week, I’ll let you borrow it.
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Question 27: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the cinema.
B. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
C. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
D. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
Question 28: Mary said “I am sure that you broke my vase, Jim”.
A. Mary accused Jim of having broken her vase.
B. Mary said she knew that Jim broke her vase.
C. Mary asked Jim of having broken her vase.
D. Mary told Jim to break the vase.
Question 29: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school.
A. Even though her intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
B. Despite being intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
C. In spite of her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school.
D. In spite the fact that she intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
Question 30: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
C. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
D. Jim, his car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
TEENAGERS AND SPORT
It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how
important (31) ________ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for that
reason you often concentrate on just one sport with so (32) ________ enthusiasm that in the end
you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less and less spare
time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to go to university, with
perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you are at the best (33)
_______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all your
studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if you spend enough
time on (34) ________ while you are young, then one day you will find that you are very good at
your sport but too old to study, and you will find it (35) ________ to get a good job. Somehow, it
doesn’t seem fair.
Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are
Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much
Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time
Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting
Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely
C. improbable D. impossible
122
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains
and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most
beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of
the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in
green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is
privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time
walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to
fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on
farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they
believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and
the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green
belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are
strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to
prevent, or at least delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially
in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states,
such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and
green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to
the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people
who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going
shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the
main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in
the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move
to a town or city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on
camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.
Question 36: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain _________.
A. only a few farms are publicly owned
B. none of the areas faces the sea
C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
Question 37: The word “enclosed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. rotated
B. surrounded
C. embraced
D. blocked
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the
countryside of Britain?
A. Going for a walk
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B. Picking fruit
C. Going swimming
D. Riding a bicycle
Question 39: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Those who go to the country for a picnic
B. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
C. Those who commute to work in towns
D. Those who dream of living in the country
Question 40: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work
B. The green belt around cities
C. Plants and wildlife
D. Modern farming practices
Question 41: The phrase “associated with” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
A. referred to
B. related to
C. supported by
D. separated from
Question 42: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because
________.
A. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
B. their children enjoy country life
C. life there may be easier for them
D. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used grow
larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise
particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man’s body, we
can tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to guess his profession
or his recreation. Enthusiasts of “body-building” cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to
build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by
fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to
use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a
farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened
by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are often soft.
The principle of use and disuse enable animals to become better at the job of surviving in their
world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through
direct exposure to sun light, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive
in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible
to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The
brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight make a screen to
124
protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person
moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what
little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle use and disuse: skin goes
brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
A. How the principle of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 44: The word “wither away” could be best replaced by ________.
A. split
B. rot
C. perish
D. shrink
Question 45: The word “those” refers to _________.
A. muscles
B. bodies
C. parts
D. organisms
Question 46: It can be inferred that the author views body building _________.
A. with enthusiasm
B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest
D. of doubtful benefit
Question 47: The word “horny” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. firm
B. strong
C. tough
D. dense
Question 48: It can be inferred that the principle of use and disuse enable organisms to ________.
A. change their existence
B. survive in any condition
C. automatically benefit
D. improve their lifetime
Question 49: The author suggests that melanin _________.
A. helps protect fair-skinned people
B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. is necessary for the production of vitamin D
D. is a synthetic product
Question 50: In the 2nd paragraph the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of ________.
A. humans improving their local conditions
B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of skin cancer
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Question 13: Lenses, ________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

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