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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

MOCK CLAT #19

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b) Option (A) is incorrect as it contradicts the theme of
the passage itself. It is not the religious liberty, but
the religious imposition that is a threat. Option (C) is 4.
also incorrect and is not mentioned anywhere in the
passage. Option (D) although seems correct, goes
awry in the latter half of the sentence. The mention
of ‘hampering of societal existence’ is not the
author’s contention Option (B) is the only correct
answer as it is clearly stated in those lines that 5.
religion gains power when it mingles with politics and
thus affects the freedom of performing religion
according to one’s choice.
2. (c) Option (A) is incomplete and cannot be deduced.
What stance? Option (B) although seems correct, its
vague. The expression that the church cannot go
against the laws is incorrect. The preaching of the
Church to through the law is forbidden. Option (D)
is incorrect since it’s out of context and is not relevant
to the question stem. Option (C) is the only correct
option. Option (C) is closer to the text and the
religious preaching should not be forced, it may or 6.
may not be followed. It should not come in the way
of the law of the land, “But the First Amendment is
not a license for religious entities to impose their
dogma on society through the law.”
3. (c) Option (A) is incorrect and doesn’t exist in the
passage. Option (B) is more an opinion in the latter
half (It’s the way it should be.), which is open to
debate. Option (C) is true. The passage talks about
Justice Scalia‘s comments on enforcement of
religious preaching. “the professed doctrines of 7.
religious belief superior to the law of the land” would
mean allowing “every citizen to become a law unto
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him”. Option (D) is contradicted by the passage. It
only says that the preaching of the Church has the
freedom to object to some acts as sinful, but will not
get a legal stamp.
(b) The meaning of the expression ‘built on air’ means
any unrealistic that is weak as it had no grounds or
solid backing. It is very close to the idiom, ‘building
castles in the air’. Option (A) is contrary to the
meaning of the idiom. Options (C) and (D) are
incorrect meanings of the expression, ’built on air’.
(b) Historians found Carmichael’s use of Sartre’s
terminology interesting because public intellectuals
such as Carmichael and their language of
expression of their ideas through distinctive
terminology impacted social and cultural changes,
especially as reference points in debates. Option (B)
sums up the reason. Option (A) is vague. Counter
racism is not mentioned anywhere in the passage.
Option (C) is partially correct but only as a fact. It
explains the terminology and not why the
terminology interested the historians. Since option
(B) is correct, option (D) is ruled out.
(c) Option (A) is incorrect because of the word adapted.
Adapted means adjusted, which is wrong. Option (B)
is vague and incorrect since we do not know the time
frame. Option (D) contradicts the passage itself;
hence, wrong. Option (C) is the only correct answer
which can be found in the given passage. “In 1966,
the American Civil Rights Movement fragmented.
Before this year, civil rights activists were united, in
public at least, in their support of a policy of peaceful
integration of white and black people.”
(a) Option (B) is far-fetched. It does not talk about any
particular form of divide and rule. Option (C) is
incorrect, since it’s out of the context. Option (D) is
Page 1 of 17
 also incorrect because its vague an answer and 12.
beyond the scope of the given context. Option (A) is
directly related to the passage; hence, is the correct
answer. “Paternalism was an ideology which aimed
to reduce social anxiety by keeping different social
groups segregated, allotting them distinct and
separate roles.”
8. (b) Expository writing style is the description and
explanation of a particular idea. The passage
describes the fragmentation of the civil rights
movement based on the change, with a special
mention of Carmichael. Then the passage from
thereon describes the reason behind the adoption of
a different ideology by Carmichael and the reason for 13.
the shift. Option (B) is the correct option. Option (A)
is ruled out as Persuasive style of writing is a non-
fiction writing that develops an argument, usually in
the favour of the author views. It is used to convince
to a particular logic or philosophy. Option (C) is ruled
out as Narrative style is defined by a main character
in a setting who engages with an issue. It also
introduces side characters and the tone, voice,
sentence structure moves towards anecdotes and so 14.
forth. Option (D) is ruled out as Analytical style is the
ability to identify and then dissecting the subject
based on parameters and after which the author
offers an argument based on his interpretation.
9. (b) Option b) is correct as per the fourth paragraph of the
given passage as the whole paragraph talks about
the fact that it important that the message inscribed
on the pillars must be first adopted by his sons,
grandsons and, after those, my posterity, otherwise
it might be forgotten and cannot become a way of
life. So, he changed his words of the fourth edict (in
the fifth edict) where he speaks of his ethical project
progressing 'until the end of the world'. Hence, the
answer is option b).Option (a) is contrary as he knew 15.
that unless his immediate successors do not
continue the legacy, his words will fade. Option (c) is
ruled out as it finds no support in the passage. Option
(d) is beyond the scope and nowhere near the
interpretation that the author gives.
10. (c) Option (c) strengthens the argument mentioned in
the question. The sentence says that Ashoka's
influence is still there though the Mauryan empire
sustained for lesser period of time. Statement in
option (c) which says that Ashoka's influence can be
seen in India itself as India adopted the Ashoka
wheel on the National flag of India. This strengthens
the idea of his influence mentioned in the question.
Hence, the answer is option c). Option (a) is merely
a description of what the animals symbolise and
does not answer the question stem. Option (b) is
irrelevant, as it again does not answer the question
stem. Option (d) is partially true; only the former part 16.
of the sentence. The latter part of the sentence is
beyond the scope.
11. (d) Option d) is correct as per the second and third
sentence of the first paragraph of the given passage.
This sentence in the passage says that the roof
protects the pillars form wind and rain so it might be
thought as a way for durability of the inscriptions on
the pillars. Hence, the answer is option d). Options
(a), (b) and (c) do not find a mention in the passage
and, therefore, are incorrect.
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(c) Option c) is correct as per the first and second
sentence of the third paragraph of the given passage
which says that the message was inscribed across
the empire onto freestanding boulders etc. Hence,
the answer is option c). Option (a) is a false notion
and does not address the question stem. Option (b)
is incorrect as the message was inscripted in many
languages, but not as a translation. Option (d) is
ruled out as it is contrary to what has been
mentioned in the passage. Refer to the line,
‘Ashoka's ethical message was refined and rendered
in a number of Indian vernaculars, as well as Greek
and Aramaic.’
(c) Both b) and d) are correct as per the first sentence
of the fourth paragraph in the passage. Hence, the
answer is option c). Refer to the lines, ‘'This
Inscription on Ethics has been written in stone so that
it might endure long and that my descendants might
act in conformity with it,' Ashoka says at the end of
the fifth edict.’. Option (a) does not find a mention in
the passage and was not the intention of the
emperor, as well.
(c) This is an inferential question that also tests one’s
interpretation of the statement. Such statements
invite varied interpretation, but the one that is the
closest to the essence can be taken the answer.
Usually, adages on ethics come from personal or
relative experiences. Option C) is correct as the
inscription talks about how hard it is to do good and
even beginning to do good is hard. This message
might be an experience from his own life. Option (a)
is ruled out as it a wrong interpretation of the
statement. Option (b) is far-fetched as ‘not always’
cannot be the possible interpretation. Option (d) is
illogical. How do we figure out his personality through
the statement: That he was a calm man? It is absurd.
(d) Option d} is correct as per the last sentence of the
first paragraph of the given passage which talks
about China's increasing presence in Nepal is one of
the reasons for present flare up(means 'a sudden
outburst of something, especially violence or
hostility'} as mentioned in the passage i.e. "The
present flare up is a result of a combination of
factors: India's strategic concerns; China's steady
inroads into Nepal; and deteriorating India-China
relations". Also, the first sentence of the last
paragraph also reiterates the role of China in the
issue. Hence, the answer is option d}. Option (a) is
ruled out as one cannot assume that the disputed
area between India and Nepal is strategically
important for only India and not Nepal, especially
when Nepal too has increased border patrolling.
Option (b)is too far-fetched to be true. Option (c)
does not find a mention in the passage.
(b) Option b) is correct as per the second and third
sentence of the last paragraph of the given passage
which talks about hardening the international
boundary with India by increasing the security posts
along the border and increasing the security along
the border sends a message that Nepal is serious
about the demarcated international boundary
between the two countries. Hence, the answer is
option b). Option (a) is contrary to what has been
mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is ruled out as
the action is more a strategy than a protest,
Page 2 of 17
 especially when Nepal wants to give a clear
message to India. Option (d) is not a step but a
justification on the part of Nepal’s foreign minister.
17. (c) Option c) is correct as per the third paragraph of the 22.
given passage which explicitly mention the reason
behind the dispute and how both the countries took
action to justify their sides. Hence, the answer is
option c). Option (a) is part of the last paragraph.
Option (b) is the primary purpose of the passage, but
a reference point. Option (d) is wrong as there is one
reason which is that India inaugurated the Darchula-
Lipulekh pass link road, cutting across the disputed
Kalapani area, which is used by Indian pilgrims
travelling to Kailash Mansarovar.
18. (c) Option c) is correct as per the second and fourth
sentence of the second paragraph of the given
passage which says that if the source of the river is
confirmed then the dispute can be settled in the 23.
favour of the country which is correct about the origin
of the river. Hence, the answer is option c). Option
(a) is contrary to the passage. Option (b) is ruled out
as it will not lessen (alleviate), but increase the
concern. Option (d) is a probability that is not
substantiated by any information in the passage.
19. (a) Only option a) is correct as per the first sentence of
the second paragraph of the given passage. Refer to
the lines, ‘The India-Nepal border was originally
delineated by the 1816 Sugauli Treaty, which
established the river Kali (Sharda, Mahakali) as the
boundary, with territory east of the river going to
Nepal.’ Option b) and c) tries to present the same 24.
idea but do not actually convey it. In option b) the
word 'borders' (which is the actual word for an area
separating two countries) is replaced by 'threshold'
which is incorrect. Option d) the sentence is framed
incorrectly as the treaty is not between India, Nepal
and China. Hence, the answer is option a).
20. (b) The passage starts by talking about "Poor women in
India’s villages…" So, we can correctly assume that
"the one section" refers to women of villages of rural
women. Hence, the correct answer is B. The main 25.
argument is with reference to rural women; therefore
option (a) is ruled out. Option (c) is out of scope as
‘daily wage labourers’ can be both male and female;
whereas, the passage is restricted to women
employment, especially rural women. Option (d) is
incorrect as unemployed women can be from any
sector; whereas, the passage discusses poor and
rural woman employment.
21. (d) The sentence states that women "hold female work
in high regard", when they receive digital deposits.
This doesn’t specify whether they are aware of the 26.
importance of skilled work. So, there is not enough
data to say whether option A will contrast or not.
The sentence clearly states that digital deposits drive
women towards work. So, option B supports the
statement.
"Hard cash" refers to money in the form of coins or
notes, but not a cheque or a credit card, but how it
helps them to hold female work in high regard, is not
clear. It is not the money in harsh cash or digital 27.
deposits that is the reason, but the fact that it
empowers them to make choices regarding money
that makes them respect female work. Option D is a
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contradiction as the female do not hold female work
in high regard, but the male work force.
Hence, the correct answer is D.
(d) The fifth paragraph provides us with the current
scenario of female labour force participation and how
it can be improved. This is information being
provided to us, which is not subject to emotions or
personal opinions. Hence, the correct answer is D.
Mocking is to ridicule or deride others on some
weakness or the other, makes option (a) incorrect.
Cynical is distrusting or disparaging the motives of
others and showing contempt for accepted
standards of honesty or morality by one’s words or
actions, makes option (b) incorrect. Option (c) is
incorrect as ‘Laudatory’ is tone when one praises or
compliments someone or something or some
accomplishment.
(a) The passage states that "women who received
digital wage deposits as well as the training to use
their bank accounts…" instead of "…the account of
the head of their family, typically a man…", they were
"…found to be working more…". This shows that one
change in the mode of payment, changes the
complete attitude of the women towards working. So,
we can say with absolute certainty that the head of
the family, usually a man, can control women of the
family by controlling their money. Hence, the correct
answer is A. The rest of the option are incorrect.
Since ‘Definitely true is the answer’, Option (b), (c)
and (d) cannot exist simultaneously.
(d) When attempting a question which specifies ‘with
reference to the passage’ means that one must
restrict oneself to the information provided in the
passage. Our understanding of ‘social costs’ would
make option (a) and (b) true, but not option (c) as
personal failure is an individual perception. The
passage simply mentions that "…husbands suffer
social costs when their wives work…". It doesn’t
provide any further elaboration on that. Hence, the
correct answer is d.
(d) The fourth sentence of the second paragraph says,
‘This process, known as bioremediation, uses living
organisms like plants, fungi and microbes to break
down pollutants, including crude oil.’ Hence, d) is the
correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect as
Bioremediation has nothing to do with revitalizing the
water bodies. Option (b) is incorrect as the mention
is of eliminating oil pollutants and not plastic
pollution. Option (c) is ruled out as Bioremediation is
not the process of contaminating the soil, rather
decontaminating the soil.
(a) The last sentence of the second paragraph says,
"The course Rodriguez attends is called "Guardians
of the Soil", which is an introduction to permaculture-
based bioremediation for low-income communities,
founded by local resident and independent
researcher, Lexie Gropper." Hence, a) is the correct
answer. Option (b) is incorrect as Galo Rodriguez
was the farmer who found oil on his farm. Options (c)
and (d) find no mention in the passage.
(a) The fifth sentence of the second paragraph says,
"There are several ways this could happen, but most
of the hard work to break down crude oil happens
below ground, where microorganisms are
concentrated around the roots of plants and
Page 3 of 17
 mineralise, or decompose, the crude components, 34.
making it easier for plants to take up." Hence, a) is
the correct answer. The rest of the options do not find
a mention in the passage.
28. (a) The third sentence of the last paragraph says, "In
1993, thousands of community members filed a
lawsuit against the company, saying it did not 35.
perform any adequate clean up and its drilling
installations continued to contaminate the area, and
demanded they pay for remediation." Hence, a) is
the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect as it is not
mentioned in the passage. Options (c) and (d) do not
find support in the passage. 36.
29. (c) Statement i) is true; the sixth sentence of the first
paragraph says, "The oil filled his stream, killed of all
of his fish and contaminated the only fresh water 37.
source he used for his cattle."
Statement ii) is true; It is the extraction of the original
sentence of the passage. Refer to the line,’ 38.
Ecuador's northern Amazon rainforest has seen
heavy oil contamination since rich oil fields were
discovered here in the 1960s.’
Statement iii) is incorrect; the first sentence of the
second paragraph says, " "For 10 or 11 years, this
area didn't produce anything, so we abandoned it," 39.
says the farmer."
Hence, c) is the correct answer. Option (a) does not
consider statement ii, which is also true; therefore, is
incorrect. Option (b) does not take into consideration
statement I, which is a true statement; therefore, is 40.
incorrect. Option (d) takes statement iii, which is
untrue; therefore, is incorrect.
30. (b) Both options (b) and (d) are similar in meaning to the
word ‘pungent’, except option (b) is a better choice
as the passage uses pungent with respect to
gasoline that has a distinct smell. A distinct smell 41.
means one can identify the oil; therefore, it has to be
strong enough. ‘Stimulating’ is a positive meaning of
the word ‘pungent’, which does not go with the 42.
theme. Putrid in option (a) is incorrect as it is a smell
of decomposing or a decaying flesh; rotten. If the 43.
farmer was able to identify the oil as Gasoline, it
means that the oil was in its more or less same state.
Option (c) is contrary to the meaning.
44.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
31. (c) Rafael Mariano Grossi is an Argentine diplomat. He
is serving as Director General of the International
Atomic Energy Agency since December 3 2019. He
was formerly the Argentine Ambassador to Austria,
Slovenia, Slovakia and International Organisations
based in Vienna.
32. (a) Non-signatories. Four states—India, Israel,
Pakistan, and South Sudan—have never signed the 45.
treaty. India and Pakistan have publicly disclosed
their nuclear weapon programs, and Israel has a
long-standing policy of deliberate ambiguity with
regards to its nuclear program.
33. (c) The Five Eyes is an intelligence alliance comprising
Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United 46.
Kingdom, and the United States. These countries are
parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a
treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.
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(b) AUKUS, also styled as Aukus, is a trilateral security
pact between Australia, the United Kingdom and the
United States, announced on 15 September 2021 for
the Indo-Pacific region. Under the pact, the US and
the UK will help Australia to acquire nuclear-powered
submarines.
(d) Australia is now set to join an elite group of only six
countries – India, the US, the UK, France, Russia
and China – that operate nuclear-powered
submarines. It will also be the only country to have
such submarines without having a civilian nuclear
power industry.
(c) Overall Position: India held 71st position with an
overall score of 57.2 points on the GFS Index 2021
of 113 countries.
(c) The GFS Index was designed and constructed by
London-based Economist Impact and is sponsored
by Corteva Agriscience.
(d) This is the tenth edition since the inception of the
Index. The GFS Index was designed and
constructed by London-based Economist Impact.
Over the past 10 years, India's incremental gains in
overall food security score were lagging behind that
of Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh.
(b) The findings of GFS Index 2021 also showed that
global food security has decreased for the second
year in a row after seven years of progress towards
the Sustainable Development Goal of achieving zero
hunger by 2030.
(d) It measures the underlying drivers of food security
based on the following factors:
Affordability
Availability
Quality and Safety
Natural Resources and Resilience
(b) It meets at the UN Office at Geneva. The Council is
made up of 47 United Nations Member States which
are elected by the UN General Assembly.
(a) The Council was created by the United Nations
General Assembly in 2006.
(a) The right to a clean environment was rooted in the
1972 Stockholm Declaration, Anderson noted. It was
greatly encouraging to see it formally recognised at
the global level five decades later, she added.
(b) the Constitutional (forty-second Amendment) Act,
1976 incorporated two significant articles viz. Article
48-A and 51A (g) thereby making the Indian
Constitution the first in the world conferring
constitutional status to the environment protection.
Article 48-A: The State shall endeavour to protect
and improve the environment and to safeguard the
forests and wildlife of the country. Article 51A(g): It is
a duty of every citizen to protect and preserve the
environment.
(b) In 2020, India’s National Human Rights Commission
submitted its mid-term report to the Council as a part
of the third round of the Universal Periodic Review
(UPR) process.
India was elected to the Council for a period of three
years beginning 1st January 2019.
(d) Recently, the government has accorded the
'Maharatna' status to state-owned Power Finance
Corporation (PFC). An order to this effect was issued
by the Department of Public Enterprises, under the
Ministry of Finance.
Page 4 of 17
47. (a) List of Maharatna Companies in India
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. GAIL (India) Limited
5. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
6. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
7. NTPC Limited
8. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
9. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
10. Steel Authority of India Limited
11. Power Finance Corporation Limited
48. (c) The Board of a 'Maharatna' CPSE can make equity
investments to undertake financial joint ventures and
wholly-owned subsidiaries and undertake mergers
and acquisitions in India and abroad, subject to a
ceiling of 15 per cent of the networth of the
concerned CPSE, limited to Rs 5000 crore in one
project.
49. (d) “Maharatna” status is granted to a company which
has recorded more than Rs. 5,000 crore of net profit
for three consecutive years, an average annual
turnover of Rs. 25,000 crore for three years or should
have an average annual net worth of Rs. 15,000
crore for three years. It should also have global
operations or footprints. The Government has laid
down criteria for grant of Maharatna, Navratna and
Miniratna status to CPSEs. Currently there 11
Companies with ‘Maharatna’ Status awarded by the
Indian Government.
50. (c) Power Finance Corporation Ltd was incorporated on
July 16 1986 as a public limited company. The GoI
established the company as a financial institution in
order to finance facilitate and promote power sector
development in India with the President of India
holding 100% of the equity share capital.
51. (a) On 18 June 2017, as part of Operation Juniper,
about 270 Indian troops armed with weapons and
two bulldozers crossed the Sikkim border into
Doklam to stop the Chinese troops from constructing
the road. On 28 August, both India and China
announced that they had withdrawn all their troops
from the face-off site in Doklam.
52. (b) India-China border disputes cover 3,488-km along
the Line of Actual Control, China-Bhutan dispute
covers about 400 km.
53. (c) 4 states viz., Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and a Union
Territories of Ladakh (erstwhile state of Jammu &
Kashmir) share a border with China. The Sino-Indian
border is generally divided into three sectors namely:
Western sector, Middle sector, and Eastern sector.
54. (c) India and Bhutan are the two countries with which
China is yet to finalise the border agreements.
55. (b) The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is the demarcation
that separates Indian-controlled territory from
Chinese-controlled territory.
56. (c) India has promised to cut its emissions to net zero by
2070 - missing a key goal of the COP26 summit for
countries to commit to reach that target by 2050.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi made the pledge, the
first time India has set a net zero target, at the
Glasgow summit.
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57. (b) The Conference of Parties comes under the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
which was formed in 1994.
58. (d) India did not make any announcement towards its
contribution to the Climate Finance goal. Rather,
India has demanded US $1 trillion in climate finance
as soon as possible and will monitor not just climate
action but also climate finance,” Ghosh said.
59. (b) To secure Global Net-Zero by Mid-Century and keep
1.5 Degrees within reach.
Countries are being asked to come forward with
ambitious 2030 emissions reductions targets that
align with reaching net zero by the middle of the
century.
60. (c) The UNFCCC has 197 parties including India, China
and the USA. Generally it meets in Bonn, the seat of
the secretariat, unless a Party offers to host the
session.
61. (b) The Kunming Declaration calls for "urgent and
integrated action" to reflect biodiversity
considerations in all sectors of the global economy
but crucial issues - like funding conservation in
poorer countries and committing to biodiversity-
friendly supply chains - have been left to discuss
later.
62. (c) CBD is not a legally binding treaty which has been in
force since 1993. CBD Secretariat is based in
Montreal, Canada and operates under United
Nations Environment Programme.
63. (b) In 2000, a supplementary agreement to the
Convention known as the Cartagena Protocol on
Biosafety was adopted. It came into force on 11th
September 2003. The Protocol seeks to protect
biological diversity from the potential risks posed by
living modified organisms resulting from modern
biotechnology.
64. (d) Adaptation Fund (AF) was established under the
Kyoto Protocol in 2001 and has committed USD 532
million to climate adaptation and resilience activities.
65. (c) World Wildlife Day is celebrated every year on March
3 to cherish the planet's wildlife and biodiversity. This
day is dedicated to raising awareness of the world's
wild fauna and flora.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
66. (c) The correct answer is option C because, as per the
given legal principle in the passage (1 st line of the
passage), the father does not own the daughter to
dictate terms and every child has a right to use his or
her mother’s surname, on this ground, her claims as
a beneficiary cannot be denied.
Options A and D are not the correct as passage does
not enumerates that using mother’s surname will
deprive child from the property of father. Even in the
passage where question was to avail insurance
claims, court has disposed of the petition with a
liberty to the man to approach his daughter’s school
to show his name as the father but has not deprived
from the insurance claim.
Option B is not the correct answer because the
question of law is about her being a beneficiary of the
scheme; the question is law has nothing to do with
her relationship with her father.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Page 5 of 17
67. (c) The correct answer is option C, because the change
of the name of a child will not be a ground for
renouncing her claims over insurance policies. Even 72.
in the passage where question was to avail
insurance claims, court has disposed of the petition
with a liberty to the man to approach his daughter’s
school to show his name as the father but has not
deprived from the insurance claim. Which shows that
there is no restraint to claim benefit of scheme even
on changing the name.
Option A is not the correct answer because it is
irrelevant to the question of law and the reasoning of
the statement is not supported by the legal
information given in the passage.
Option B is not the correct answer because she is
the beneficiary of the scheme. Her right over the 73.
scheme is not dependent on her biological father’s
claim.
Option D is not the correct answer because as per
the legal information given in the passage, she
cannot be denied any such benefits merely on the
basis of her changed name.
68. (d) The correct answer is D because as per the legal
principles given in the passage, the central idea is
that a parent does not own the child to dictate terms
and every child has a right to use any of her parents’ 74.
surnames, given in para 1 line 1.
Option A is incorrect as idea of the passage was right
to use his or her mother’s surname not to get benefit
from father’s property after changing the surname. B
and C are not justifying the central idea of the
passage because it discusses about the name not
surname and passage states about right to use
surname of any one of the parent not of any other
surname, thus Options B & C are incorrect. Hence
option D is the correct answer.
69. (d) The correct answer is option D because as per the 75.
legal information given in the passage (para1 line 1),
a parent does not own the child to dictate terms and
every child has a right to use any of her parents’
surnames.
Option C is not the correct answer because passage
does not provid any such principle related to the
fundamental rights.
Options A and B are not the correct answer because
her mother, even after getting custody of her, does
not dictate the terms in any such manner.
70. (c) The correct answer is option C because as per the
legal principles given in the passage, the father, or
mother for instance, cannot dictate his/her terms
over the child pertaining to name/surname. 76.
Bequeathing of property is a matter of personal law,
which is not discussed in the passage. Hence,
options A and D are the incorrect options.
Option B is not the correct answer because passage
only states about the change in surname not about
the religion. Thus, Option C is correct
71. (d) Even though the omission did not result in any
immediate violations outwardly, the fact that an
omission did exist in this case is enough to make him
liable for breach of trust in this case. Option A is 77.
incorrect since in the present situation question is
about liability for Superstore Stores Company and it
lacks legal reasoning. Thus, option A is incorrect.
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Options B and C are incorrect since an omission still
took place.
(b) Since it is clearly enumerated in the passage (3 rd
para , 1st line) that question is not about whether an
employee was involved in a dispute of trivial nature
and whether he has been subsequently acquitted or
not. The question is about the credibility and/or
trustworthiness of such an employee. In the present
situation not disclosing the information is breach of
trust. Options A and B are incorrect as passage do
not give responsibility to employer to enquire, it is the
duty of employee to disclose the information. Option
D is incorrect being contradictory to the passage,
because it is the duty of employee to disclose the
information correctly.
(d) as by filling out public record he has made the full
disclosure. It was the duty of HR head to collect all
the past information of foreman from public records.
Option A is incorrect because option D answers
more appropriately. As the passage is about
disclosure of information hence, option D will be
more accurate when compared to option A. Option
B is incorrect as candidate had filled out with a public
record. Option C is incorrect because no such
records were asked by the company.
(d) Since it is clearly enumerated in the passage (3 rd
para, 1st line) that question is not about whether an
employee was involved in a dispute of trivial nature
and whether he has been subsequently acquitted or
not. The question is about the credibility and/or
trustworthiness of such an employee. Option A is
incorrect because option D justifies the passage
more correctly by using the word ‘paltry’. Options B
and C are incorrect on the basis of reasoning of
option A and information given in 1st line of 3rd para
of the passage.
(b) Since it is given in the 4th line of 2nd para of the
passage that if the employee does not disclose the
material facts then the employer cannot be forced to
continue such an employee. The choice/option
whether to continue or not to continue such an
employee always must be given to the employer.
Since contempt of court is a criminal offence so she
could not claim recourse for her termination. Option
A fails to address the legal principle in the passage,
hence stands logically incoherent. Option C is
incorrect as it is clearly stated in the question that
she fails to disclose in her form to Tata Motors.
Option D is incorrect as contempt of court is a
criminal offence.
(d) Since the passage clearly denotes in 5th of 2nd para
of the passage that choice to continue or not to
continue such an employee always must be given to
the employer. It is clear from the passage that
submission of criminal records to the company is
compulsory for the employee. Hence option D is
correct. Options A and B are incorrect as passage
does not exclude dispute of trivial nature. Option C
is incorrect as option D explains better than option C
by stating the deduction of the passage.
(d) as in the given facts, the issues raised by Z are
indeed a public concern because, it is affecting
public at large as are several gangs active in Delhi
for stealing car. Option A is incorrect because here
matter in issue is about public interest not about
Page 6 of 17
 employer-employee relationship. Option B is
incorrect because there is no employee-employer
relationship or there is no service matter involved. 84.
Option C is also vague because he was a part time
employee and he himself investigated and
discovered the stealing racket.
78. (d) As per the passage, PIL related to service matters
cannot be entertained. In this case there is no
service matter to begin with. An employer-employee
relationship is not bar to file a PIL. Further if PIL has
merit in it and is of public interest it will be entertained
for sure. Since our answer from the previous
question is not changing, the options with ‘yes’ i.e., 85.
A & C are straightaway eliminated leaving us with B
& D; between them, D is the correct answer due to
correct explanation. Option B is incorrect as there is
no ground for dismissal of PIL since no service
matter is involved.
79. (d) As per the facts, there is no conclusive evidence as
to whether Aman has indeed done insider trading or
not, furthermore even if he does, it is not at all a
matter of public interest and neither Ajay has any link
with the issues involved hence the PIL will be
dismissed eliminating option A. Option B is incorrect
as Ajay is not fired by Aman. Option C is vague in its
entirety since there is no element of public interest in 86.
the present scenario, leaving us with Option D as the
best choice.
80. (b) since the employee-employer relationship or service
matter is irrelevant in this given set of facts, the PIL
will be dismissed, either Naman files it or Ajay. Since
our answer from the previous question is not
changing, the options with ‘yes’ i.e., A & C are
straightaway eliminated leaving us with B & D;
between them, B is the correct answer due to correct
explanation. 87.
81. (d) As per the 3rd para of the passage, a PIL with respect
to service matter cannot be filed by a stranger as per
the case of Dr. Duryodhan Sahu & Ors v. Jitendra
Kumar Mishra & Ors and this only applicable when
PIL is filed in administrative tribunal. Furthermore,
since XYZ is a private bank, there is no scope for
states to take action, also there is no service matter
in the picture hence both the arguments of bank is
incorrect giving us D as the correct answer. On basis
of this reasoning option A is incorrect. Option B is
incorrect as PIL cannot be filed by stranger in 88.
Administrative tribunal here it is filed before High
court. Option C is incorrect as it is a private bank so
there is no scope for states to take action.
82. (b) even if X is a customer of the bank and has vested
interest in filing the PIL, it won’t change the fact that
the argument of the bank is irrelevant and incorrect. 89.
Both the arguments were incorrect and will be
incorrect. Since our answer from the previous
question is not changing, the options with ‘yes’ i.e.,
A & C are straightaway eliminated leaving us with B
& D; between them, B is the correct answer due to
correct explanation.
83. (c) as it is clearly mentioned in the 1st line of the passage
in which The Supreme Court has made it abundantly 90.
clear that the grounds for compassionate
appointment of kin exclude the divorced daughter.
As a result of the same, options A and D are
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incorrect. Option B is incorrect since it lacks any legal
reasoning as it fails to disclose the ground for refusal.
(b) as it is clearly mentioned in the 1st line of the passage
in which The Supreme Court has held that the
grounds for compassionate appointment of kin
exclude the divorced daughter. Sheela after
divorcing her husband before her father’s death will
still be considered as divorced daughter. On basis of
the above reasoning Option A stands incorrect.
Option C is not a legal opinion instead a moral
advice. Hence Option C is incorrect. As Options B
and C are incorrect thus, option D is also incorrect.
(d) as it is clearly mentioned in the IV point of 4th para of
the passage that on compassionate ground can be
made only on fulfilling the norms laid down by the
State's policy and/or satisfaction of the eligibility
criteria as per the policy. The fact that Sheela known
that her father would eventually succumb to his
illness does not change the fact that she is divorced
and hence is not eligible for the appointment.on
basis of the same reasoning option B is incorrect.
Option A as being out of the context of passage is
incorrect. Option C is incorrect as passage does not
outline that premeditating divorce is not a ground for
compassionate appointment.
(a) Point V in the 4th para of passage states that the
norms prevailing on the date of the consideration of
the application should be the basis for consideration
of the claim for compassionate appointment. Since
there existed no provision for compassionate
appointment in the Jal Board, at the time of
appointment of Ramakant. Thus, on the basis of this
reasoning options B and D are incorrect. Option c is
incorrect since it fails to address legal provision.
Thus logically incoherent.
(a) Since the provisions above only declare widowed
wives to be appointed as compassionate proxies, it
prima facie discriminates against men and other
classes of people excluded from the appointment
classes and it is given in point IV of 4th para of the
passage that “The appointment to any public post in
the service of the State has to be made on the basis
of the principle in accordance with Articles 14 and 16
of the Constitution of India”. Thus, options B and C
are incorrect. Option D is incorrect as it does not just
violate article 16 only.
(b) Even though article 14 contains the right to equality,
it only subjects equals to the same provision, and
since here, the classes do not stand as being equal.
Thus, options A and D are incorrect. Option c is
incorrect since the question does not bring it into
consideration.
(c) Since the divorce proceedings were completely
separate from the divorce proceedings, and since
the proceedings were initiated legally and not by any
malintent, the same cannot be considered to be
cruelty. Thus, options A and D are incorrect as they
lack reasoning. Option B is incorrect since the
agreement does not contain clear provisions for
initiating recovery proceedings.
(a) As has been specified and expounded above, the
fact that all the proceedings are tenable and initiated
under the law for viable purposes, the same cannot
be considered to be cruel by any measure. Thus,
options C and D are incorrect. Option B is incorrect
Page 7 of 17
 since all the proceedings were completely separate
proceedings, and since the proceedings were
initiated legally so it does not amount to cruelty.
91. (a) As it has been stated in 3rd para of the passage that
if a marital tie was not working, no purpose would be
served by postponing the inevitable simply for the 98.
pendency of the reference. As the Division Bench’s
guidelines is not followed hence option A is correct.
On the basis of above reasoning Options B and C
are incorrect. Option D is incorrect as Article 142
gives power to the Supreme Court in the exercise of
its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such 99.
order as is necessary for doing “complete justice” in
any case pending before it.
92. (a) It is clearly stated in the 4th para of the passage that
“the Bench concluded without hesitation that the
marriage had not worked and cannot work, not only
on account of the appellant's second marriage but
also because the parties were so troubled by each
other that they were not willing to even think of living
together”. In the present scenario both parties are
willing to give one more chance to marriage. Hence, 100.
option A is correct.. As a result of the same, options
B and C are incorrect. Option D is incorrect since no
court has complete discretion in deciding matters
over all family matters under law. This option is out
of context of passage. Thus stands incorrect.
93. (d) Since 1st para of the passage states that filing 101.
complaints seeking the removal of one's spouse
from a job amount to mental cruelty. Thus Courts
judgment is in compliance with Supreme Court.
However, due to no inference regarding the same
has not been made above in the passage, options A
and B are incorrect. Option C is also incorrect since
courts judgment is in compliance with the judgment
of Supreme Court in the passage. Thus, option D is
incorrect.
94. (c) Since all the furniture was given by her father so that
his daughter can have a better life. In the passage
no such ground is given which amounts to cruelty.
Options A and B are incorrect as is bases only on
moral opinion. Option D is incorrect on the basis of
the reasoning of option C.
95. (a) Evident fraud at play is being observed in the
question above, and thus, due to no fault of his own,
the respondent cannot be continued to be 102.
represented by a fraudulent lawyer. However, since
the passage above does not contain any provision
for a fresh trial, the same cannot be allowed here as
clearly states in the 1st para of the passage that
“mere change of counsel by the parties would not
entitle the respective counsel to recall witnesses
examined prior to the change”. Options B and D are
incorrect since no fresh trial can be ordered.
96. (b) The fact that the deceased had already testified, and
was called again, are two different things. Thus, the
earlier testimony stands unaffected by the death of 103.
the witness. As a result of the same, options A and
D are incorrect. Option C is incorrect on the grounds
of lacking any factual matrix pointing to the same as
death of a person does not invalidate the authenticity
of the testimony of the deceased.
97. (b) as 2nd line of the 2nd para in the passage states that
“power u/s 311 of CrPC for recalling the witness”.
Since section 311 of CrPC only provides for persons
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to be called as witnesses and not for fresh trial. Thus
option B is correct. On basis of the same reasoning
option A is incorrect. Options B and C are incorrect
as no such information has been provided in the
passage.
(d) as 3rd line in para 3rd of the passage clearly states
that “Court has dismissed the application by stating
that Court is not inclined to exercise power u/s 311
CrPC to recall witness but if foul play by witness is
known after judgment is ground for appeal”. As a
result of the same, options A,B and C are incorrect.
(c) since 2nd line of 4th para in the passage states that
both senior and junior counsel stands on the same
foot being the counsel in same matter. His junior had
been pleading all his matters in his stead and he is
also a lawyer so will continue the case. Thus, option
C is correct. Option A is incorrect as passage clearly
states that in same matter they are on same foot.
Option B is incorrect as fails to address the
information given in the passage. Option D is
incorrect as option is correct.
(b) as per 1st para of the passage a mere change in
counsel cannot allow for a recall of witnesses
examined or not. Due to this reasoning in place,
options A and D are incorrect. Option c is incorrect
since the specific provision has been provided in the
option C.
(b) because as is mentioned in 1st line of 2nd para in
the passage that , “State is under an obligation
to keep such criminal databases updated and it
is excepted that the said exercise be carried out
at the earliest, as also, periodically to ensure
justice to one and all.” Therefore, the database
needed to be updated earlier.
Option (a) is incorrect since this is not an excuse to
justify violation of Article 21 of somebody. This fault
might cost a person his personal liberty without any
fault.
Option (c) is incorrect because even though this
delay is not major, but it is still enough to cost a
person his personal liberty and such delay, therefore,
should not be caused.
Option (d) is incorrect because this is irrelevant to the
passage, and no fact mentioned either in the
passage/the question can lead to this conclusion.
(a) Option A is correct, as 5th line of the 1st para in
the passage states that if despite acquittal from
courts, a system reflects a person as a criminal
without indicating the fact of acquittal then, in my
view, presumption of innocence goes for a toss.
Option C is incorrect because even though the
acquittal was not mentioned in the database, which
is the fault due to which Yuvraj’s bail was denied, but
question is whether the act of court is justiciable.
Hence option C is incorrect
Option D is incorrect because option B is correct.
(c) Option (c) is correct because as is mentioned in
1st line of 2nd para in the passage that , “State is
under an obligation to keep such criminal
databases updated and it is excepted that the
said exercise be carried out at the earliest, as
also, periodically to ensure justice to one and
all.” Therefore, the database needed to be
updated. The police committed two-fold faults.
One was to take 15 years in updating the
Page 8 of 17
 database, and the other one is to still not 107.
mentioning the fact of his acquittal in the
database. Losing the database earlier is another
fault on the part of the police, due to which the
acquitted persons can suffer.
Option (a) is incorrect because however much time
has it been since his acquittal, the criminal record
database must have accurate information, or it could
hamper or influence the results of other cases which
would be decided on the basis of the database.
Option (b) is incorrect because even though there is
no case at present, there can be a case in the future,
and even without that, the database must have
accurate information, without additions or omissions,
as can be deduced from the theme of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect because it is totally
superfluous and it can be deduced from nowhere in
the passage that a learned man should be treated
differently.
104. (c) Option C is correct because nowhere is it
mentioned that Harishad was acquitted, still the 108.
database is showing that he had been acquitted.
This may lead to freeing an offender, which is
again injustice on the society due to faults in
maintaining the database.
Option A is incorrect because that Harishad has
been acquitted has not been mentioned anywhere
and thus, it cannot be deduced.
Option B is incorrect because the passage does not
talk anything about the time period of a database
making it defunct. A 20 year old database might also
be used today for decision of certain cases. There is 109.
no bar to that.
Option D is incorrect because it is the responsibility
of state to maintain correct database. Be it of any use
or not but information has to be correct and updated.
Even if in present situation there is no another case
against him but it does not eliminate the possibility of
another case in future.
105. (a) Option A is correct because all the facts
mentioned in option A are given in 1st line of the
1st para in the passage.
Option B is incorrect because the passage says
Article 21 would be violated and not Article 20.
Moreover, the Delhi Court judge mentioned Delhi
police to update the database and not the Bihar
police.
Option C is incorrect because a Delhi Court judge
said the same, instead of a Bihar Court judge.
Option D is incorrect as the passage says Article 21 110.
would be violated and not Article 20.
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
106. (c) Although the passage does digress in the last
paragraph (suggesting a possible transition to
another area of discussion), the passage is devoted
mainly to a critical analysis of the restorationists'
environmental philosophy, as exemplified by Turner
and Jordan. A is too narrow. The author makes no
claim to having formulated the organic model or that
it is a "new philosophical model”. B is too narrow and
not well supported. (D) distorts the author's purpose.
(C) supports well the primary purpose of this 111.
passage.
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(d) The correct response is (D) because in the first
paragraph, the author states that a preservationist
need not have a dualist view, and therefore the
argument of Turner and Jordan that the
preservationists are also "unhealthy" dualists is an
unfair claim. (D) is also supported later in the first
paragraph, where the author criticizes Turner and
Jordan for the "sharpness and relentlessness of their
attack on preservationists." (A) confuses the
information in the passage.
The author suggests that it is the restorationists such
as Turner and Jordan (not the preservationists) who
are not critical enough of those who have plundered
the natural world.
(B) and (C) confuse the author's viewpoint with the
viewpoint of others mentioned in the passage. It is
the restorationists, not the author, who claim that the
preservationists base their ideas on an unhealthy
dualism and who suffer from the same mind-set as
the industrial mainstream.
(c) The correct response is (C). (A) runs contrary to the
passage and does not identify which issues are
subject to debate and which are not. (B) is only
partially supported in the latter portion of the
statement; the former (to identify problem areas
within a school of thought) does not form part of the
first paragraph. (D) distorts the information in the
passage. Although the author includes some
"historical" background but apart from this single
reference to past events, the paragraph speaks in
terms of the present day.
(a) The correct response is (A). The author states that
Turner's and Jordan's descriptions of restorationist
activities "do not cohere well with the community
participation model." On following this, it is
reasonably inferable that restorationists' activities
are more consistent with this other model than with
the community participation model.
(B) confuses the information in this portion of the
passage. It is contrary to what has been said in the
passage. (C) confuses the information in the
passage-specifically, by bringing in irrelevant
information. The author is not concerned at all in this
portion of the passage with the preservationists. (D)
is somewhat consistent with the information in the
passage, but it does not respond to the question. The
author does identify the organic model as one type
of "holistic" model, but, the author states that it may
be more serviceable than another holistic model.
(d) The correct answer is (D). The author finds some
point of similarity among all other models mentioned.
Therefore, by elimination, (D) is the best response.
Refer to the lines, ‘Dissatisfaction with dualism has
for some time figured prominently in the unhappiness
of environmentalists with a mainstream industrial
society…’
(A) and (B) are not viable. The author points out
several similarities between the organic model (a
holistic model) and the domination model. (C) is not
a viable response, since the author points out in the
paragraph that the community participation and
organic models both picture nature as a system of
interconnected parts.
(c) Option C is the correct answer because the author
tries to put forth through the passage to remove the
Page 9 of 17
 VVIP convoy system and enable a more intelligent
security system that will benefit the public. Option A
is not correct as it is not about only India but for any
country. It will provide a hurdle and inconvenience to
the ordinary person and pose a threat to them.
Option B is not correct, as it is not the message that
the author wants to pass on. Option D is not valid as
only the President cannot be held liable for the death
of Vandana Mishra as the VVIP convoy system was
not implemented by him.
112. (b) Statement I is contrary to the essence of the
passage. Statement II is correct as it is the desirable
course of action, as per the author. Refer to the lines,
‘In New Zealand, when the PM’s motorcade was
caught over the speed limit, it was fined for
dangerous driving.’ Statement III is not the correct
course of action for India, given the size of the
population and a smooth working of the functionary.
A course of action should be practical and feasible, 116.
keeping in mind the place and the factors involved.
One country’s asset can be other country’s liability.
Option B is the correct answer as Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution states that the law holds every
person to be the same before it, and no one acquires
a higher position in the eyes of the law. So a politician
doesn’t have any right to violate traffic rules, just like
an ordinary man. Option A is incorrect as statement
I is not the right course of action. Option C is incorrect
as Statement III is incorrect and Option D is incorrect
as both Statements I and III are wrong courses of
action.
113. (b) Option B is the correct answer as if any one of the
political and administrative VVIP manifestations is
not done away, the people of India will continue to 117.
suffer, and their rights for equality will be infringed.
Option A is not correct as it is not relevant information
in the passage, and, therefore, not the right
assumption. Option C is not valid, as bringing more
innovative security into action will not end the perils
of democracy; therefore, not the correct assumption.
Option D is not correct, as VVIP convoys should be
away within a democracy such as India; otherwise, it
will differentiate the citizens of India.
114. (a) A central flaw is that the argument mistakes a
condition sufficient for bringing about a result for a
condition necessary for doing so. Option A is the
correct answer as the author while putting forth the
argument assumes the traffic situation in India and
Western countries to be the same (a condition
sufficient to bring about the changes. Assuming
similar situations and overlooking other factors in
reaching an outcome). Option B is the incorrect 118.
answer as it is not irrelevant because all the
countries mentioned in the passage are Europeans.
Option C is not the correct one, as this is the truth
under all circumstances and is not a central flaw.
Option D is not valid as the situations, and the
treatment for the public servants in India and the
Western countries are not the same. Also, this is the
conclusion one can draw, but cannot be said to be
the central flaw.
115. (c) The argument above talks of the conduct of the
political leader whereby they do not take advantage
of their position, but are true representatives of their
people. The main argument is to be weakened. To
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weaken the argument is to present a counter
argument that completely invalidates the reasoning.
Option (c) weakens the argument completely. If the
leaders, who are the representatives of the people
and have important works of national interest are
under threats, they cannot be exposed in the public.
Hence, they need protection, for which they have to
maintain distance and cannot be seen in public
transports. Option (b) may appear close by way of
their indifference and people may vent out their
anger is to assume that all leaders are indifferent,
which is an extreme case. Option (a) and (d)
strengthen the argument. In option (a0, if people are
in awe (marvel), they do not want their leaders to
conduct themselves as commoners, but would like to
know them from afar and they are fine with the
distance. Option (d) is actually the inference of the
main argument.
(d) Options (A) can’t be supported as though the
passage mentions that the building and logistics are
difficult to get and different for the elder-care and the
child-care and mixing them up in a shared site makes
it a lot more difficult, he doesn’t say that this makes
it a bad idea for the society.
Option (B) can be supported as the author says that
this concept is actually a pretty popular one and also
lots of students have showed interest in joining these
organizations.
Option (C) can be supported as the author says that
there are many impediments to the concept of
shared sites, but more awareness can negate those.
Thus, this option too is correct.
Thus, the answer is option (D)
(c) Option (A) can’t be inferred from the paragraph as
the author says that people are not that in to
investing in these sorts of spaces. Also, tax-free has
not been mentioned anywhere.
Option (B) can’t be inferred as it has not been
mentioned. The paragraph says that it rises interests
among the workers and employees of the shared
sites, but whether the elders prefer to live in these
centres has not been made clear.
Option (C) can be inferred from the paragraph as the
author says that in US, people must be made aware
of its benefits. Option (D) cannot be inferred as it is
in contradiction to the information in the passage.
The sites do not increase costs; rather are cost
efficient. Also, isolating the health care workers form
critical care is not mentioned anywhere in the
passage.’
Thus, the answer is option (C).
(c) Option (A) presents a fact that has not been
mentioned by the author. It is actually difficult to build
places which is suitable for both the children and
elders and that is why these centres are low in
number.
Option (B) again is a hypnotized point mentioned.
The author says that the investors have shied away
from investing in such centres and is exactly the
opposite of the option. Option (C) is relevant as the
answer as it accurately addresses the benefits of the
intergenerational share sites. Refer to the lines,
‘Shared sites benefit and build the health-care
workforce as well’ and ‘‘The program has not only
sparked student interest in health-related careers but
Page 10 of 17
 also helped them develop a range of useful life skills.’
Option (D) poses the challenges of the shared sites,
instead of the advantages. 123.
Thus, option (C) is the answer.
119. (a) Option (A) provides a valid problem. The centres
such as these are reliant on good social behaviour
from the elders as well as the children. If there is a
roadblock from either side, it can be a genuine
problem in popularising the centres.
Likewise, option (B) presents a similar problem, but
does not completely undermine the author’s
argument, as ‘some’ is a figure that is vague; in fact,
it can represent a number that does not really pose
a problem at all in the larger context. Thus, it does
not completely undermine, making it not a valid
answer. 124.
Only Option (C) is immaterial to the discussion posed
by the author. It has got no relevance whatsoever to
what we are talking about. Option (D) strengthens
the author’s argument as it is in sync with the
passage.
Therefore, the correct Option is (A).
120. (a) Premises are the facts or evidence that support or
lead to the conclusion. Therefore, the above
statement forms premise of the passage which leads
to the conclusion. Hence, option (A) is the correct
answer. Conclusions are the wrap-ups of an
argument, the expression ‘research shows’ is not a
conclusion. The above statement demands an
extension of the main argument; hence, cannot be
the conclusion. An assumption is the basis of an 125.
argument. The expression ‘the research shows’ rules
out an assumption. An assumption would be:
Researches lead to certain conclusion. Option (D) is
ruled out that a simple statement can be a premise,
assumption or a conclusion. At the least, it will be a
fact or a point of view
121. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘It is apparent as all the other
options are incorrect. Option B is correct because it
justifies the statement, ‘The Consortium of Indian
Farmers Associations (CIFA), India’s apex 126.
professional farmer’s organization engaged
ineffective policy level interventions on behalf of
farmers from all over India, has said recently that to
double farmers income, the government needs to
implement a consistent export/import policy and
proactive market intervention to attain fair prices for
agricultural produce. From the lines, we can infer that
the ambitious plans of doubling farmer’s income
requires proactive measures form the Government’s
side and the efforts to implement export/import policy
and proactive market intervention to attain fair prices
is not an easy task. Option (a) can be inferred from 127.
the passage. Option (b) may appear correct, but for
the word ‘miniscule’, which derails the statement.
Option (c) is incorrect as which devious plan have we
inferred from the passage? Option (d) is contrary to
the passage. (nadir?)
122. (c) Option (c) sums the terminology in the best possible
way. Animal husbandry is a controlled cultivation,
management, and production of domestic animals,
including improvements of the qualities considered
desirable by humans by means of breeding. Option
(a) is wrong as the wild animals are not involved in
animal husbandry. Option (b) and (d) are partially
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correct terminology; hence, are unsuited as
answers.
(b) The entire passage talks of Modi Government’s
vision and ambitious plans of doubling farmer’s
income along with food grains production target of
291.1 million tons for 2019-20, an increase of 2.6%
compared to the previous year. For this the
government has chalked out ways to do this. Option
(b) is the most desirable tactical solution to achieve
the goal. Option (a) cannot be the furtherance of the
passage as it finds no support in the passage. What
different set of solutions are needed? Options (c) and
(d) take a negative tone, almost questioning the
plan’s feasibility, rendering them unsuited as
answers.
(d) It is apparent as all the other options are correct
which makes Option D as correct. Refer to the lines,
‘The Consortium of Indian Farmers Associations
(CIFA), India’s apex professional farmer’s
organization engaged ineffective policy level
interventions on behalf of farmers from all over India,
has said recently that to double farmers income, the
government needs to implement a consistent
export/import policy and proactive market
intervention to attain fair prices for agricultural
produce. Options (a) and (b) can easily be deduced
form the lines. Option (c) is an inference. It CIFA is
India’s apex professional farmer’s organization, then
it is clear that it is protecting the interest of the
farmers. All of the following options are correct.
(c) Option (c) is supported by the author, in gist and in
essence. Option (a) is a suggestion to the
government and not the need or a compulsion.
Option (b) is partially true, but the main intention of
the author. The author more than just praises the
actions of the government. He is a little concerned
on how such an ambitious project will be
implemented. Option (d) is far-fetched. The author
does not express that the plans of the Modi
government are overambitious.
(a) The correct answer is (a). The author has mentioned
that policymakers need to look beyond the populism
steps, thereby implying that the policymakers should
refrain from appealing to the ordinary people. Hence,
this can be inferred. Option (b) is clearly incorrect
since the Ujjwala scheme does not cater to the
demands of the middle class. Option (c) is also
incorrect since the author does not present any piece
of evidence regarding this claim. In fact, the author
has said that India’s goal for 2030 is unlikely to be
achieved, making this statement incorrect. Since
option (a) is the answer, option (d) is ruled out.
(d) The author says that he is not surprised by the
findings of ‘The Network’ since the carbon footprint
of India’s coal-processing industry remains severe.
By saying that he is not surprised, he means that he
agrees with the findings as if almost expected the
numbers to be true. Therefore, the correct answer is
(d). Option (a) is contrary, as bewildered means
surprised, as if unexpected. Option (b) may seem
correct, but the author is not unconcerned by the
findings. This is because the author presents some
suggestions to improve the current situation. Option
(c) is ruled out because had it been the case, the
author would not have cited ‘The Network’s findings.
Page 11 of 17
128. (d) The correct answer is (D). All of the above can be
considered as a logical course of action, according
to the author. I: The author is concerned about the
high LNG prices for the middle class. Therefore, the
author would want the government to take measures
to keep those prices under control. II: The author has
clearly mentioned in the last sentence of the first
paragraph that a move away from coal as a whole is
necessary. III: This one would also be a welcome
decision since the author wants the policymakers to
avoid making populist decisions. All of the following
are the course of action that are concurrent with the
author’s line of thought.
129. (a) The correct answer is (a). This question is easy. As
stated in the explanation of a previous question, the
author has mentioned in the last sentence of the first
paragraph that a move away from coal as a whole is
necessary. But option (a) draws an incorrect
inference. Refer to the lines, ‘To meet the 2030
emissions goal committed at the Paris Pact, India
would need to reduce coal capacity in and around its
C40 cities by about 22 per cent.’ Option (b) , (c) and
(d) can be inferred to be the supporting ideas of the
passage. Option (b) comes from the first part of the
second paragraph. Policies are made on some
unfounded assumptions and therefore this option
makes sense. Option (c) is a supporting idea as well,
coming from this part of the passage: ‘Yet, going by
the current coal plans, it is expected to increase by
20 per cent instead. To bridge this gap, which is
unlikely, policymakers need to look beyond populist
steps.’ Option (d): ‘In spite of much-lauded efforts in
clean energy, the carbon footprint of India’s coal-
processing industry remains stark.’
130. (a) The author has made an argument for shifting away
from coal and moving towards cleaner energy. This
piece of evidence gives an incentive towards making
a change to cleaner and greener energy sources.
Hence, this option supports the author’s arguments.
Therefore, the correct option is (a). Option (b) is
incorrect as it does not negate but strengthens the
author’s contention. Option (c) is not true as it does
support the author’s argument as a 100 percent
cleaner and greener energy translates into a clean
environment which means robust health yielding
more productivity. Option (d) is not an assumption as
it is a furtherance to author’s argument.
131. (a) The correct answer is A. This option is best suited
among the four options to be the main idea of the
passage. It talks about the main concern of the
passage which is the implication of the snub by the
ASEAN of the Myanmar Military rule. All the other
three options do not cover the general main idea of
the passage but only cover some specific parts.
132. (b) The correct answer is B. This can be inferred from
the fact that none of the requests or the directions
given by the ASEAN were followed by the military
junta in Myanmar. A is incorrect since the stance of
NLD on the military junta has changed from calling
for nonviolent protests to a ‘revolution’. C is incorrect
since the situation both at the cities and the jungles
is grave. D is incorrect inference as Aung San Suu
Kyi may have hold on the people, but she has no
control over the military junta. In fact, she is under
arrest by them.
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133. (d) Only IV can be inferred from the passage. Refer to
the lines, ‘If in the past the National League for
Democracy (NLD), Ms. Suu Kyi’s party, had upheld
non-violence even in the face of repression, this
time, NLD leaders have called for a “revolution”. The
remnants of the old regime have formed a National
Unity Government, which claims to be the true
representative of Myanmar. In cities, protests slid
into armed fighting between pro-democracy
protesters and security personnel, while in the
jungles, anti-junta groups joined hands with rebels
for military training.’ Option (d) is the best choice as
the answer. Both I and II are incorrect since they are
extreme options. The author believes that the
ASEAN snub would have some impact. But both I
and II are extreme options. Statement III is beyond
the scope as it cannot be inferred that the military
crackdown is more brutal than before.
134. (b) The correct answer is B. Since the military has
already killed 1000 people and brutally cracked down
on its protesters, it can be safely said that it would
suppress any resistance by the people to its military
rule. A is clearly in contrast with B and hence, is
incorrect. C is incorrect since no evidence is present
in the passage that suggests this. D is incorrect as
going by their inherent characteristics, military junta
is least likely to show humane treatment of political
prisoners.
135. (c) The author of this passage has clearly made a claim
that violence is not sustainable. And he suggests that
the way to bring the country out of the crisis is to for
ASEAN to start put pressure on the junta for a
reconciliation. The author attempts to make a
suggestion towards the end. Therefore, Option (c) is
the best choice. Option (a) is incorrect. The
statement has to be significant to be put forth by the
author. Why else would he make such a statement?
Option (b) is not weakening the argument, but is
more of a furtherance of his opinion. Option (d) is not
an assumption. Assumption is not explicitly stated,
but is implied by the author.
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
136. (c) Total freelancers in colony 1 = 81
So, 15% shifted to colony 3,
Then, total number of people in colony 3 = 200 +
80 ×15
130 + 50 + = 392
100
137. (a) Total unemployed in all the colonies together =
100 + 80 + 50 + 70 = 300
300
Required average = = 75
4
138. (b) Total unemployed people in colony 4 = 70
After 20% get jobs, number of fulltime job
70×20
employers in colony 4 = 300 + = 314
100
Required difference = 314 − 220 = 94
139. (c) Number of fulltime employees in colony 3 = 200
Total people in colony 1 = 300
(300−200) 1
Required percentage = × 100 = 33 %
300 3
140. (b) Total people in colony 2 = 450
Total people in colony 4 = 550
Req. ration =
450
= 9 ∶ 11
550
Page 12 of 17
 the number of students who had passed only in
Legal and GK = a = 10
20×100
𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑑. % = = 200%
10
144. (b) The required ratio = 400 ∶ (15 + 320) = 400 ∶
335 = 80 ∶ 67
145. (a) The sum of all the students who had passed in
Hint [141-145]: exactly two subjects
Common Explanation: = b + c + a = 15 + 20 + 10 = 45
The number of students who had passed in all the
three subjects = 320
320 1
Required times = =7
45 9
146. (a) Let number of employees in IT department = 5𝑎
So, number of employees in HR department = 6a
Now, total employees in Flipkart company = 3000
Hence, 5a + 6a + 800 = 3000
a = 200
Then, IT department employees = 1000
HR department employees = 1200
Department → IT HR Technical
Employees→ 1000 1200 800
(*Use Legal at Place of Physics, Use GK at Place of
Required ratio = 1200 ∶ 800 = 3 ∶ 2
Chemistry, Use English at Place of Mathematics*
147. (d) Employees in IT department in Myntra Company =
In Venn diagram) 75
b = 375 – 320 – 40 = 15 = Passed only in Legal × 1000
100
and English = 750
c = 85% of 400 – 320 = 340 – 320 = 20 1
148. (b) Female employees in HR department = × 1200 =
6
a = 360 – 320 – 30 = 10
200
d = 360 – a – b – 320 = 360 – 10 – 15 – 320 =
149. (a) Difference between employees in technical to IT
15
department = (1000 − 800) = 200
f = 400 – a – c – 320 = 400 – 10 – 20 – 320 = 200
50 Req. percentage = × 100 = 20%
1000
e = 375 – 320 – b – c = 375 – 320 – 15 – 20 = 150. (c) Initial no. of Employees in IT department = 1000
80
20 Employees after 20% left the job = × 1000 =
100
141. (b) Students who had passed only in GK = f = 50 800
Hence, option B is correct. 75
142. (c) b + c + a = 15 + 20 + 10 = 45 Employees after remaining 25% left the job = ×
100
143. (a) The number of students who had passed only in 800 = 600
English = e = 20 Total employees in company Flipkart = 600 +
1200 + 800 = 2600

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