CP Aifmc 2 Sol

CP/20/F02
AIFMC–02
(Answer and explanation)
Section – I: English Language

Q.1) Option (B).
The passage clearly points out to two types of judicial interventions only i.e. either be unusual or
marking activism. Thus, option (a) and (d) are incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect because the Court has
constituted a committee and made a ruling based on the recommendations put forth so the ruling
cannot be said to have been pronounced suddenly.
Q.2) Option (C).

“Approbate” means ‘approve formally’ and the passage states that “it has accepted the
recommendations of a committee headed by former Chief Justice of India R.M. Lodha, which
favored sweeping structural reforms and specific rules to eliminate conflicts of interest and the
creation of near-permanent tenures and fiefdoms” vindicates statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is
misquoted from the second paragraph.
Q.3) Option (A).

“Embodied” means ‘include or contain something as a constituent part”. Option b, c and d can be
validated from “The panel’s recommendations stem from the same concern: they include restriction
on the number of terms and overall tenure for office-bearers, a bar on anyone holding more than
one office at time, a cooling-off period between one tenure and another”. Option (a) is the
unfavorable bias policy that the Court’s panel found in the BCCI administration.
Q.4) Option (D).

Option (a) and (b) can be validated from “…BCCI irrespective of its legal status, must act in a
transparent and accountable manner as a trustee of the game. The need to do so is all the greater
given the huge infusion of corporate funding in the recent years, which has attracted an assortment
of operators and shadowy interests seeking to capitalize on cricket’s popularity. Option (c) can be
validated from “mention of betting scandal”.
Q.5) Option (B).

Option (a), (c) and (d) are extreme and cannot be inferred frm the passage.
Q.6) Option (D).
Q.7) Option (B).

According to the passage, “In contemporary times there are so many temptations that can lure a
student away from his basic objective in life.” Thus, temptations can distract a person from his goals.
Q.8) Option (C).

The passage mentions, “At a student’s level there is a cut-throat competition which can prove to be
real obstacle to overcome” Thus, it can be inferred that rivalry is a hurdle in a student’s life.
Q.9) Option (C).
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CP/20/F02
The passage mentions that “success will be theirs for the taking who value and practice self-
discipline and abide by it at all times.” Self-discipline means having a sense of control or order in
one’s behaviour.
Q.10) Option (A).

The metaphor “swept off our feet” in the passage means to be carried away with enthusiasm. Those
of us who are not wise enough to think rationally will be swept off our feet and be carried away by
the fast paced winds of change.
Q.11) Option (B).
Q.12) Option (D).

Option (d) is validated from the passage, as it can be clearly inferred that the author questioned the
efficacy of the system. The remaining options are contextually incorrect.
Q.13) Option (B).

From the passage it is evident that the author found it confusing that the teacher was teaching
everything in a single class. Thus, option b is corroborated while options a, c and d can be ruled out.
Q.14) Option (B).
Q.15) Option (C).

By not heeding to the tuition teacher’s advice, the author displays a defiant behaviour. “Submissive”
is to be obedient which is not the case in here. “Allegiance” is to be loyal and proud and does not
relay to the tone of the passage.
Q.16) Option (D).

The line before the given sentence is “it was an enormous discovery to go to the moon” so which
implies that “undertaking” means going to the moon. Not compelled by profit of that undertaking
means option (d) clearly. Option (a) and (b) is not the correct answer because the passage does not
mention of the reason for going to the moon. Option (c) is not correct because it is not related to the
given sentence of the question.
Q.17) Option (B).

The passage clearly states that “what has always formed men has been the belief in an exemplary
kind of character.”
Q.18) Option (A).
Q.19) Option (B).

The passage clearly validates in the sentence “The Russian word ‘Bolshevik’ has same trust as the
word gentleman”. Though human type can be exemplary or imaginary, it dominates the Soviet
thought.
Q.20) Option (D).
Q.21) Option (A).

Option (b) means to refer to being ‘unimpaired’. Option (c) means to refer to being ‘angelic’. Option
(d) is being ‘divine’.
CP/20/F02
Q.22) Option (A).

The passage mentions that “in the course of years unmistakable changes and mixtures have
occurred.” There is a possibility of conflict that some groups can be overwhelmed and others
alien/isolated because when there is an influence of something that does not naturally grow and
mould itself into there is a possibility of adjusting if not, reverting leading to conflict. Option (b) (c)
are falsely trying to show the instances when conflict arose, thus are not the correct answers. Option
(d) is not the correct answer as it cannot be inferred from the passage.
Q.23) Option (C).

Statement 1 is incorrect because geography, climate can influence people’s growth and culture.
Statement 3 is incorrect because non-natural aspects trying to mould themselves with naturally
occurring aspects in culture always suggests a possibility of conflict. Statement 4 is incorrect because
India shut itself to outside world and that resulting in it being ‘static’ but not ‘declining’.
Q.24) Option (A).

Culture stagnation is an unhealthy situation that occurs when mixture of cultures does not go on
peacefully but results in adverse effects. Isolation stops dynamic growth and so later undermines it.
Option (b) is incorrect because it gives reasoning and not a conclusion. Option (c) is incorrect
because stagnation does result from influence of geography, climate or other factors. Option (d) is
incorrect because it does not give any conclusion that the passage implies therein.
Q.25) Option (C).

C is the exact reason for her to feel pressured as is seen in the text where she cites the works
produced by eliot and all.
Q.26) Option (B).

She gives this topic clearly at the beginning of the passage.
Q.27) Option (D).

As can be seen in the passage the author says these are enclaves where muslims are forced to
retreat.
Q.28) Option (C).

A is incorrect as Christians, howsoever few also have graveyards. B homeless take refuge in
graveyards, they are not buried there. Kashmir as a symbolic graveyard has been given
Q.29) Option (C).

The metaphor and analogy can be seen in the use of window, pots and pans and sun.
Q.30) Option (C).

The last line about the fact that most Kashmiris view as their colonizer. The same colonizer is now
protesting just like Kashmir is
Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.31) Option (C).
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Q.32) Option (C).
Q.33) Option (B).
Q.34) Option (A).
Q.35) Option (A).
Q.36) Option (C).
Q.37) Option (A).
Q.38) Option (B).
Q.39) Option (A).
Q.40) Option (D).
Q.41) Option (C).
Q.42) Option (B).
Q.43) Option (D).
Q.44) Option (B).
Q.45) Option (C).
Q.46) Option (C).
Q.47) Option (A).
Q.48) Option (C).
Q.49) Option (A).
Q.50) Option (B).
Q.51) Option (B).
Q.52) Option (A).
Q.53) Option (D).
Q.54) Option (A).
Q.55) Option (D).
Q.56) Option (A).
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Q.57) Option (C).
Q.58) Option (B).
Q.59) Option (A).
Q.60) Option (A).
Q.61) Option (A).
Q.62) Option (C).
Q.63) Option (B).
Q.64) Option (B).
Q.65) Option (D).
Q.66) Option (C).
Q.67) Option (C).
Section – III: Legal Reasoning

Q.68) Option (C).
Rationale: As per the current law (pending the passing of the MTP Bill), a registered medical
practitioner can terminate a woman’s pregnancy within 12 weeks of the pregnancy if the
continuance of such pregnancy causes grave injury to the physical or mental health of the woman.
What constitutes “grave injury to the physical or mental health” is provided for in the Explanation
which states that when pregnancy is alleged to have been caused by rape, then consequential
anguish constitutes injury to physical/mental health or when a married couple, while trying to limit
the number of children, are met with the failure of a device/method of doing the same. The factual
scenario does not mention any of these factors. Hence, (c).
Q.69) Option (B).

Rationale: A married woman can seek abortion if the pregnancy is the result of the failure of a device
or method used by the married couple to limit the number of children.
Q.70) Option (B).

Rationale: Since Jia and Shekhar already have a child, their intention to limit the number of further
children can be better understood now. The continuance of pregnancy, a result of the failure of a
method/device to limit the number of children can be said to cause anguish which constitutes grave
injury to the physical or mental health to Jia. Hence, (b).
Q.71) Option (B).

Rationale: The MTP Act states that pregnancy can be terminated only within the twenty week
period. This restriction applies even in the cases of rape. Hence, (b).
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Q.72) Option (B).

Rationale: As has been stated in the passage, the MTP Bill seeks to increase the limit upto which
women can seek abortion from twenty to twenty four weeks. Hence, Ramona would be able to seek
abortion in the twenty first week of her pregnancy. Option (d) goes beyond the scope of the
passage. Hence, (b).
Q.73) Option (D).

Rationale: The Supreme Court has ruled that “no privilege will be given to such communication
which is made before the creation of attorney client relationship”. In the present scenario, Kalpesh
had merely narrated his fact situation and Mr. Chughtai has not yet agreed to represent him or be
his attorney. Hence, there is no privilege attached to that communication.
Q.74) Option (C).

Rationale: The Supreme Court has ruled that “an advocate cannot be a full time employee of any
person, government, firm or corporate body as long as long as he practices”. Ajay was Kirti’s boss
and also the president of a garment factory, hence a salaried employee of a corporate body and
therefore, cannot practise as an advocate. Hence, there is no attorney–client privilege. He can sue
for other reasons.
Q.75) Option (B).

Rationale: The Supreme Court has held that “any information or communication given by client is
not entitled for access”. Hence, Mary’s mother’s property details are none of Joseph’s concerns and
protected under this privilege.
Q.76) Option (C).

Rationale: Whatever be the nature of the accusation, Rajan’s communication with his lawyer are
protected under attorney–client privilege, not liable to be disclosed to any third party, whatever be
the cause of such request.
Q.77) Option (B).

Rationale: As has been stated in the passage, “once a privilege is always a privilege”. Therefore, it
does not matter that the lawyer is no longer representing Rajan or that he was acquitted of murder
in the criminal trial.
Q.78) Option (D).

Rationale: Although the Supreme Court has expressed its disapproval towards matters relating to
the appointment of judges, it does not provide any roadmap to concerned Public Information
Officers on how to go about when any such applications come across. Options (a), (b) and (c) are
speculations and logical extensions that have no ground in the passage.
Q.79) Option (C).

Rationale: The ruling of the Supreme Court, as discussed in the passage only concerns its office
alone. There is no speculation or discussion about the judges of other High Courts in the country.
Q.80) Option (D).

Rationale: The author states in the passage that the instances where information might/should not
be disclosed are mostly confidentiality in government affairs such as trade negotiations or war.
Hence, (d)
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Q.81) Option (C).

Rationale: It is stated in the passage that “information that might be private in the context of an
individual can take on a ‘public’ character in case of a public officer, especially when it touches upon
the performance of public duties”. In the scenario described above, setting up of a plant as
described is for the benefit of the public and clearly, a public duty. Hence, (c).
Q.82) Option (D).

Rationale: All options – (a), (b) and (c) are mentioned in the passage as being factors taken into
consideration by the Supreme Court in holding the office to be under the ambit of the RTI. Option (d)
falls outside the scope of the passage.
Q.83) Option (B).

Rationale: Betty still owes Charlie 1,000 rupees as no new agreement has been entered into as
Charlie hasn’t agreed to Aaron paying him the 1,000 rupees. Hence, (b).
Q.84) Option (A).

Rationale: In the given scenario, all the parties have agreed to the condition that Justin shall be the
new debtor, and Michael be discharged of all past liabilities. The question of ratification of the
earlier contract is a mere speculation, not warranted by the factual and legal scenario in the present
case.
Q.85) Option (B).

Rationale: For a successful novation to occur, all the parties to a contract should agree to make the
switch. In the present case, both Suchitra and Anupama agreed to make the change in the mode of
repayment of debt, irrespective of the difference in amount. Hence, (b)
Q.86) Option (B).

Rationale: For a successful novation to occur, all the parties to a contract should agree to make the
switch. In this case, Sumit, the landlord hasn’t agreed to make the switch from Harish to Ramesh as
the person who would pay rent. Hence, it is not a successful novation and Harish’s responsibility to
pay the rent still remains.
Q.87) Option (B).

Rationale: Despite the object of the new contract being what Harish anyway desired, it would still
not alter the terms of the earlier contract because Harish has not agreed with Sumit and Ramesh to
make such change and neither is he party to this fresh contract, a necessity for a successful novation
to occur.
Q.88) Option (C).

Rationale: The roof of Deepak’s shop, situated in the apartment complex, fell due to a leakage which
could have been prevented if the maintenance and repair in the building had been taken care of. The
maintenance and repair of the building, as per the fact situation, was the responsibility of the
residents of the building, who, due to being negligent, failed in their duty, and therefore are jointly
liable for Deepak’s loss.
Q.89) Option (B).

Rationale: As has been established in the previous question, the maintenance and repair of the
building is the responsibility of the residents of the building. The repair work should have been
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carried out by them, and not Deepak. However, since Deepak did so himself, he is liable to be
reimbursed the amount he paid for the repair work.
Q.90) Option (D).

Rationale: As stated in the passage, the concept of agency provides that, whenever one person
employs, authorises or procures another person to commit a tort, the law takes into account the
wrong of both of them and eventually, both the principal and the agent become jointly and
individually responsible for the actions of the agent. Here, Jeetu was employed by Gajraj to show his
property to prospective buyers with the intention of selling it. The representation to Neena was a
fraudulent one as the land had already been sold to Vivek. Hence, (d).
Q.91) Option (C).

Rationale: Roland was employed by David as his driver and any tort committed by Roland under
David’s instruction would make David responsible also due to the principle of vicarious liability, as
explained in the passage.
Q.92) Option (B).

Rationale: The fact that Roland owned the car he drove makes no change to David and Roland’s joint
liability as David continues to be his employer and Roland continued to operate under his
instruction.
Q.93) Option (C).

Rationale: Aditya handed over his revolver to Narendra with the knowledge that he wanted to
intimidate Rahul, irrespective of the fact that it ended up hurting Rahul. While Narendra is guilty of
causing the injury to Rahul, Aditya abetted the same.
Q.94) Option (D).

Rationale: Brijesh, by wrongfully representing Chandan as Raj is guilty of abetting the wrongful
restraint of Chandan. And as Amit arrested Chandan believing he was Raj, he is not guilty of arresting
the wrong person. Therefore, Amit is not guilty of wrongfully restraining Chandan. Therefore, only I
is correct. But since that is not an option, the correct answer is (d).
Q.95) Option (B).

Rationale: For Raj to be considered an abettor, Raj should have been aware of the crime that
Ramesh committed and wilfully let him stay at his place nevertheless. In the present case, Raj was
not aware of the theft committed by Ramesh and therefore, cannot be said to have abetted Ramesh.
Q.96) Option (A).

Rationale: Irrespective of the fact that Raj turned Ramesh in as soon as the police arrived, he still let
him stay at his place despite knowing that he had committed theft. Therefore, he can be said to have
abetted Raj.
Q.97) Option (C).

Rationale: Irrespective of the fact that Chaman didn’t know who was administering the poison, it
does not erase the fact that he knew that someone was to be murdered. Therefore, he is guilty of
abetting the murder of Manorama.
Q.98) Option (C).
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Rationale: The Supreme Court has stated that grabbing private land and then claiming it as its own
makes the state an encroacher. In this case, the government first built the bridge, which meant that
it grabbed Karthik’s private land first without any authority in law. This made the state an
encroacher. Hence, (c).
Q.99) Option (D).

Rationale: Article 300A requires the state to follow due procedure and authority of law to deprive a
person of his or her private property. In situations I., II. and IV., the State has taken steps to restore
the loss suffered due to the actions of the State or hasn’t deprived the person from his private
property at all. Thus, only III.
Q.100) Option (C).

Rationale: As mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage, right to property ceased to be a
fundamental right in 1978. However, Ms Devi’s land was forcibly taken in 1967 when right to
property was still a fundamental right – the reason why the Supreme Court ordered a compensation
of 1 crore. In 2001, property was no longer a fundamental right. Therefore, the only logical
conclusion would be a violation of constitutional right, as all other facts remain the same.
Q.101) Option (B).

Rationale: This is stated in the second paragraph of the passage where the Supreme Court outlines
the role that the State plays in a welfare state.
Q.102) Option (D).

Rationale: As is stated in the passage, property ceased to be a fundamental right with the 44th
Constitution Amendment in 1978. Nevertheless, Article 300A required the state to follow due
procedure and authority of law to deprive a person of his or her private property, the Supreme Court
reminded the government. Hence, the law can be challenged on the ground that it violates Karthik’s
human right to own property.
Q.103) Option (C).

Rationale: The Supreme Court has held that repetitive orders under Section 144 would constitute
abuse of power. Hence, (c).
Q.104) Option (D).

Rationale: Section 144 clearly mentions that the District Magistrate, a Sub–divisional Magistrate or
any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government in this behalf can
issue orders in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger. Nowhere does it mention the Chief
Minister or the Governor, irrespective of the seriousness of the nuisance or danger.
Q.105) Option (C).

Rationale: The Supreme Court has clearly stated that an order passed under Section 144, Cr. P. C.
should state the material facts to enable judicial review of the same. The order in the present case
does not present any fact to support what danger or nuisance is apprehended because of the
protests occurring near the plant.
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

Q.106) Option (B).
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36% of the population of village V1 is below the poverty line. So, the remaining 64% must be above
the poverty line. Also, the ratio of men to women above the poverty line is 7:5.
Number of men above the poverty line = 64% of 15000 × 7/12
= (64 × 15000 × 7) / 100 × 12
= 64 × 150 × 7 / 12
= 5600.
Q.107) Option (A).

Let the population of both villages be P.
So, number of males above poverty line in V2 = 25% of P × 3/5 = 15% of P
Number of females above poverty line in V3 = 85% of P × 9/17 = 45% of P
Required value = [(15 – 45)/45] × 100
= –200/3 = –66.66%
Q.108) Option (B).

Let the population of village V4 be P.
Number of males above the poverty line = 1/3 × 76% of P
According to the data given (76 × P)/(3 × 100) = 19000
P = 19000 × 100 × 3/76
P = 1000 × 100 × 3/4
P = 1000 × 25 × 3 = 75000
Q.109) Option (D).

Number of males from V2 = (3/5 of 25% + 3/4 of 75%) × 8 lac
Number of females from V1 = (1/3 of 36% + 5/12 of 64%) × 12 lac
Number of males from V2 = 3/5 of 2 lac + 3/4 of 6 lac = 1.2 lac + 4.5 lac = 5.7 lac
Number of females from V1 = 1.44 lac + 3.2 lac = 4.64 lac
Required ratio = 570 : 464 = 285 : 232
Q.110) Option (C).

Let the population of villages V4 and V2 be P and Q respectively.
So, number of people below poverty line in V4 = 24% of P
Number of people below poverty line in V2 = 25% of Q
24% of P = 25% of Q
P = 25Q/24
 25Q 
 24  Q 
Required value =    100
 Q 
 
= 100/24 = 4.25%
Q.111) Option (B).

For product B, the ratio of the SP to the MP is 4:5.
Let the marked price be 5x and so the selling price will be 4x.
Therefore, [(4x – 5x)/5x] × 100
= –20%
Q.112) Option (A).
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For product C, the ratio of the MP:CP is 2:1 and ratio of the SP:MP is 2:3. Since MP is common, we
need to equate and make the MP equal.
MP:CP = 6:3 while SP:MP can be written as 4:6.
Ratio of SP:CP = 4:3
Q.113) Option (C).

The ratio of the marked price to the cost price MP:CP for product D is 9:8. Let the respective values
be 9x and 8x respectively.
The value of mark–up = 9x – 8x = 30
x = 30
So, MP = Rs.270
The ratio of SP:MP for product D is 5:6. Let the SP be y.
Therefore, y/270 = 5/6
y = (5 × 270)/6 = 5 × 45
= Rs.225/–
Q.114) Option (C).

For product A, the ratio of MP:CP = 5:4 and the ratio of SP:MP = 2:3
MP:CP:SP = 15:12:10
[(10 – 12)/12] × 100
= –100/6
= –16.66%
Q.115) Option (B).

For product C, the ratio of the MP:CP is 2:1 and the ratio of the SP:MP is 2:3
The MP has to be equated and made equal.
MP:CP:SP = 6:3:4
Profit percentage = [(4 – 3)/3] × 100
= 100/3 = 33.33%
Q.116) Option (C).

Required value = 15% of 15000 = 2250
Q.117) Option (D).

Total runs scored by Rohit and Virat = 40% of total.
Total runs scored by Dhoni and Shikhar = 25% of total.
Therefore, (25/40) × 100
= 62.5%
Q.118) Option (A).

Total runs scored by Rohit and Dhoni together = 30% of total.
100% = 360 degrees.
Therefore, 30% = 30 × 3.6 = 108 degrees.
Q.119) Option (C).

Runs scored by Dhoni in 2017 = 2250 × 120/100 = 225 × 12 = 2700
Runs scored by Pant in 2017 = 1500 × 130/100 = 150 × 13 = 1950
Required difference = 2700 – 1950 = 750 runs.
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Q.120) Option (A).

Total runs scored by Virat, Dhoni and Jadhav = 60% of 15,000
= 9000 runs.
Average = 9000/3 = 3000 runs
Section – V: Logical Reasoning

S.121–125) Solution for questions:
Case 1:
1 2 3 4
EE ME CS Auto
EC IT CE Aero
Case 2:
1 2 3 4
EC IT CE Aero
EE ME CS Auto
Q.121) Option (C).
Q.122) Option (D).
Q.123) Option (C).
Q.124) Option (B).
Q.125) Option (A).
S.126–129) Solution for questions:
From statement 1 and 2, we can make two cases:
Now, from statement 3, Case 2 is ruled out. And case 1 looks like:
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Final Arrangement will look like:
Q.126) Option (B).
Q.127) Option (C).
Q.128) Option (D).
Q.129) Option (A).
Q.130) Option (C).
Q.131) Option (B).

The author’s main conclusion in paragraph 1 is that spoilers are all powerful and this line strengthens
it by showing how a spoiler led to a fight.
Q.132) Option (D).

D shows that ending is not important as all endings are alike, it’s the way the author conveys it.
Option A is the opposite, it strengthens the need for no spoilers. Options B and C give some added
information but do not weaken the conclusion.
Q.133) Option (B).

This is the conclusion of the passage. A is using an extreme word, ‘sole’ which makes it incorrect
Q.134) Option (C).
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U S and Taliban signing the agreement means they need to agree on the terms of peace. SO C is the
correct inference here. A speaks of the U S exit which may be true, but we cannot be sure. And B is
an over - conclusion.
Q.135) Option (A).

While Pakistan facilitated the talks, we cannot say without its help it would not be possible. Hence A
is not implied. B and C can be seen from the passage.
Q.136) Option (C).

A will have little impact as the re – settlement will not be affected by refugee reaction, and it doesn’t
make sense that once their country is safe they refuse to go back. B is irrelevant, future entry will
not impact the current re- settlement. However if Taliban or the U.S talks end up in no solution then
sending back refugees will be a problem.
Q.137) Option (B).

The question is on Kejriwal’s claim and not his victory. So A is out, B is opposite to his claim which is
that he has produced kaam ki rajneeti. C is the opposite and strengthens.
Q.138) Option (B).

It gives only facts. Nothing is mentioned until the third paragraph about its significance.
Q.139) Option (A).

We have support his claims that they did not lose because of divisive politics. Option A gives an
alternate reason that they lost due to something else, which is the pro incumbency fervor. B is
irrelevant.
Q.140) Option (C).

This is not mentioned as a reason for loss.
Q.141) Option (B).
Q.142) Option (B).

“in asking you to concur with me that Kapil’s actions not be wholly condemned” in the passage
implies that Kapil’s friend is neither holding Kapil completely guilty nor completely innocent. The
author provides support to it by claiming that Kapil “naïvely and mistakenly believed Shadab to be
the acting as the enemy of the state”.
Option (C) is wrong because even though it is true as per the passage but it is the conclusion of the
argument. It supports the argument and therefore it is a premise.
Option (D) is wrong because “The actions of Kapil that seriously injured Shadab were deplorable” is
accompanied by a condition “intentionally causing such effects” in the passage, which the author
believes is not fully true.
Q.143) Option (C).

The author’s conclusion is that Kapil’s actions not be wholly condemned because he did not
intentionally caused grievous injury but mistakenly did so. By claiming “I would not disagree if you
pointed out that intentionally causing such effects is deplorable, other things being equal”, the
author illustrates a case where Kapil’s actions would have been completely condemnable or adverse.
But then he qualifies it by saying Kapil did it mistakenly and naively.
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Option (D) is wrong because the second part of the option says “to support his conclusion that Kapil
should not be considered responsible for the injuries sustained by Shadab”. It is not what the author
concludes, but that Kapil’s action should not be wholly condemned.
Q.144) Option (A).

Option (A) is straightforward as it nullifies the author’s argument by implying that the act of violence
is condemnable even if it against somebody who is guilty. Option (B) is wrong because the author
admits that Shadab was mistakenly considered enemy of the state and uses this to conclude Kapil
should not be wholly condemned. So it does not weaken the author’s argument.
Q.145) Option (C).
Q.146) Option (A).
Q.147) Option (C).
Q.148) Option (D).
Q.149) Option (D).
Q.150) Option (A).

CP Aifmc 2 Sol

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CP Aifmc 2 Sol

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CP/20/F02

Section – I: English Language

Q.2) Option (C).

Q.3) Option (A).

Q.4) Option (D).

Q.5) Option (B).

Q.6) Option (D).

Q.7) Option (B).

Q.8) Option (C).

Q.9) Option (C).

Q.10) Option (A).

Q.11) Option (B).

Q.12) Option (D).

Q.13) Option (B).

Q.14) Option (B).

Q.15) Option (C).

Q.16) Option (D).

Q.17) Option (B).

Q.18) Option (A).

Q.19) Option (B).

Q.20) Option (D).

Q.21) Option (A).

Q.22) Option (A).

Q.23) Option (C).

Q.24) Option (A).

Q.25) Option (C).

Q.26) Option (B).

Q.27) Option (D).

Q.28) Option (C).

Q.29) Option (C).

Q.30) Option (C).

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.32) Option (C).

Q.33) Option (B).

Q.34) Option (A).

Q.35) Option (A).

Q.36) Option (C).

Q.37) Option (A).

Q.38) Option (B).

Q.39) Option (A).

Q.40) Option (D).

Q.41) Option (C).

Q.42) Option (B).

Q.43) Option (D).

Q.44) Option (B).

Q.45) Option (C).

Q.46) Option (C).

Q.47) Option (A).

Q.48) Option (C).

Q.49) Option (A).

Q.50) Option (B).

Q.51) Option (B).

Q.52) Option (A).

Q.53) Option (D).

Q.54) Option (A).

Q.55) Option (D).

Q.56) Option (A).

Q.57) Option (C).

Q.58) Option (B).

Q.59) Option (A).

Q.60) Option (A).

Q.61) Option (A).

Q.62) Option (C).