Mock Clat-31: (Answer and Explanation)

CP/20/C31
MOCK CLAT–31
(Answer and explanation)
Section – I: English Language

Q.1) Option (D).
Coming back to bite means to cause problems for one at a later stage
1
Q.2) Option (D).
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Refer to the lines: Of the many things coming back to bite Devendra Fadnavis is a quote he once gave
to the media saying that the era of the Sharad Pawar way of politics is over in Maharashtra. As
events have demonstrated, things couldn’t be further from the truth.
Q.3) Option (B).
Q.4) Option (C).

00
The other three are synonyms for floundering. Coasting means moving along smoothly.
Only c can be inferred since Sharad Pawar has not lost a single election in Baramati.
16
Q.5) Option (A).
The pun is on the word Pawar: it is used for Sharad Pawar whonow is in a position of power.
Q.6) Option (C).

1
The author is most likely a political commentator as he/she shows in–depth understanding of
politics.
18
Q.7) Option (D).

Roll of the dice means a gamble. Last roll of the dice means the final gamble/chance. Options a, b
and c are reflecting the meaning of ‘roll of the dice.’ Only d is reflecting the meaning of ‘last roll of
the dice’.
Q.8) Option (D).

Option d best encapsulates the passage.
Q.9) Option (D).

D is not mentioned in the passage.
Q.10) Option (C).

Refer to the lines: … at some point, told one or more “serious lies”—hiding a past adverse
employment record from a prospective employer, for example, or making false claims on a college
application.
Q.11) Option (B).

Refer to the passage.
Q.12) Option (A).
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CP/20/C31
Refer to lines: Kang Lee, a psychologist at the University of Toronto, sees the emergence of the
behavior in toddlers as a reassuring sign that their cognitive growth is on track.
Q.13) Option (B).

Refer to lines: These insights suggest that our proclivity for deceiving others, and our vulnerability to
being deceived, are especially consequential in the age of social media. Our ability as a society to
separate truth from lies is under unprecedented threat.
1
Q.14) Option (A).
A is not mentioned in the passage.
08
Q.15) Option (C).
Physicists have not been mentioned in the passage.
Q.16) Option (B).

B is the correct meaning for transgression.
Q.17) Option (C).

C is most likely to follow.
00
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Q.18) Option (C).
Prices adjust to equate how much people want to buy with how much they want to sell. Supply and
demand. Buyers are competing with each other. Sellers are competing with each other. The prices we
observe emerge from this competition. Options a. b and d are narrow in scope.
1
Q.19) Option (A).

The answer is in the lines: People don’t pay what they’re willing to pay unless they have to. When
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they have choices, they don’t have to. Competition protects the buyer. And it protects the seller.
Q.20) Option (D).

Options a, b and c negate the author’s view point. Option d is correct. It reflects that prices adjust to
equate how much people want to buy with how much they want to sell. Supply and demand
Q.21) Option (A).

"House of cards" is a an expression meaning a structure or argument built on a shaky foundation or
one that will collapse if a necessary element is removed. In the context of the passage option a is the
correct answer.
Q.22) Option (D).

Option a is incorrect because no evidence against is given. Option b is also incorrect on similar
grounds. Option c is close but the passage is not only giving illustrations. The author also discusses
the phenomenon. Option d is correct because the passage takes a specific example of the housing
market and goes on to conclude how demand and supply shape prices in any market.
Q.23) Option (C).

The line from the passage ….. Each of these segments is governed by different indirect tax regimes,
and thus, will be impacted differently by the Goods and Services Tax (“GST”)
Q.24) Option (B).
CP/20/C31
The line from the passage ….. a majority of construction contracts are works contracts, consisting of
supply of both goods and services
Q.25) Option (D).

The line from the passage ….. the advent of GST is also expected to boost the infrastructure sector
with the elimination of the cascading effect or ´tax on tax’ and the introduction of input tax credit..
Hence D.
1
Q.26) Option (A).
The line from the passage ….. ‘supply of services’ was subject to service tax.. substantiates Answer A.
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Q.27) Option (C).
The four factors are the place of supply, the taxable value, the applicable rate of tax and the
compliances to be undertaken.
Q.28) Option (B).
00
The line from the passage ….. the benefit of input tax paid and ITC on the raw–materials could set off
the higher GST rate
Q.29) Option (D).

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The line from the passage …“input tax credit shall not be available for works contract services, when
supplied for construction of an immovable property
Q.30) Option (A).

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The line from the passage ….. We cannot conclusively comment on the impact of higher GST rate on
the infrastructure sector, as there is still ambiguity with respect to credit restrictions
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Q.31) Option (C).

The line from the passage ….. this does not seem to be the intent of the lawmakers, as seen from the
‘Schedule of GST Rates’
Q.32) Option (B).
Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.33) Option (A).
Q.34) Option (C).
Q.35) Option (D).
Q.36) Option (A).
Q.37) Option (B).
Q.38) Option (C).
Q.39) Option (D).
CP/20/C31
Q.40) Option (A).
Q.41) Option (D).
Q.42) Option (B).
Q.43) Option (C).
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Q.44) Option (B).
08
Q.45) Option (A).
Q.46) Option (B).
Q.47) Option (D).
Q.48) Option (A).
Q.49) Option (B).

00
16
Q.50) Option (C).
Q.51) Option (A).

1
Q.52) Option (B).

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Q.53) Option (A).
Q.54) Option (A).
Q.55) Option (B).
Q.56) Option (C).
Q.57) Option (A).
Q.58) Option (D).
Q.59) Option (A).
Q.60) Option (B).
Q.61) Option (B).
Q.62) Option (A).
Q.63) Option (A).
CP/20/C31
Q.64) Option (D).
Q.65) Option (A).
Q.66) Option (D).
Q.67) Option (A).
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Q.68) Option (C).
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Q.69) Option (D).
Q.70) Option (A).
Section – III: Legal Reasoning

Q.71) Option (C). 00
Rationale: As described in the passage, even if the police feels that the complaints it receives do not
reveal a cognizable offence, it is obligated to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine the nature
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of the offence. In the given fact situation, when Suman complained to the police about the
inflammatory speech, the police merely asked Suman questions, and did not conduct any
preliminary inquiry. Hence, they did not follow the Lalita Kumari guidelines.
Q.72) Option (D).

1
Rationale: As stated in the passage, the Lalita Kumari guidelines require the police to conduct finish
the preliminary inquiry within a period of seven days. In this case, the police took a month to finish
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inquiry.
Q.73) Option (B).

Rationale: Once the police conducted its preliminary inquiry and came to the conclusion that the
speech was inflammatory, it is a cognizable offence. As explained in the passage, a cognizable
offence is one where the police can commence investigation or arrest without the authorization of
the court. Since the investigation has already been done by the police, their next would be to arrest
Aditya.
Q.74) Option (C).

Rationale: As stated in the passage, the Lalita Kumari guidelines lay down that the registration of an
FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence. Since the police has reason to believe
that what was told to them was a cognizable offence, the first thing they need to do is register an
FIR.
Q.75) Option (C).

Rationale: As stated in the passage, where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint,
the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week. As described
in the passage, Vinod was not informed of the same. Hence, (c).
Q.76) Option (C).
CP/20/C31
Rationale: For vicarious liability to be established, it is imperative that there be certain relationship,
the alleged be connected to the relationship and it be done within the course of employment. In the
given fact situation, the band members had been hired by Rishi, the songs (for which breach of
copyright is claimed) were performed because Rishi had hired them, and they were performed
within the duration of the family function. Hence, the band members are liable for breach of
copyright and Rishi is vicariously liable.
Q.77) Option (D).
1
Rationale: In the given fact situation, although the contract for hire states that Mr. Shastri is to be
considered an employee of the Vishakhapatnam port during his time of work there, he continues to
08
be paid and is liable to be dismissed by the Kolkata port. Moreover, the Vishakhapatnam port did
not have any control over his manner of operation of the crane. Hence, it is the Kolkata port which
continues to exercise control over Mr. Shastri even when he is on hire to the Vishakhapatnam port.
Hence, (d).
Q.78) Option (C).
00
Rationale: In order to determine who is to be held vicariously liable, it is not only important to
merely look at who gives out the wages but also that at the time of the commission of offence, who
was exercising control or under whose instruction was the task being performed. In the given factual
scenario, the Vishakhapatnam port had instructed Mr. Shastri as to the operation of the crane,
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during which the negligent act was caused. Hence, the Vishakhapatnam port was directly in control
of Mr. Shastri’s actions. Therefore, (c).
Q.79) Option (D).

1
Rationale: Although there is no direct contract/agreement between Maria and Rustom for the
running of errands, it is implied that had it not been for Rustom, Maria would not have been at the
spot where the offence was committed, while she was running errands for him. Hence, (d).
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Q.80) Option (D).

Rationale: Once Maria starts using Rustom’s car for anything other than what Rustom instructs her
to do, Rustom’s liability vanishes. He can only be held vicariously liable if the task was being
performed as per his instruction. Since, Maria was at the grocery store for her personal errand,
Rustom cannot be held vicariously liable for an offence committed in that duration.
Q.81) Option (C).

Rationale: The workshop is situated in a densely populated locality. Hence, any noise caused from it
would disturb all the occupants of that locality, not just Yash, despite his profession as a dentist.
Therefore, (c)
Q.82) Option (B).

Rationale: In the given factual scenario, the vent for the fumes opens into Yash’s premises so he is
the direct recipient of the same. Due to such an activity, the patients to Yash’s clinic are directly
impacted, as compared to the other people in the locality. Hence, this constitutes ‘special damage’
as described in the passage. Therefore, (b).
Q.83) Option (B).

Rationale: The blocking of the pavement has the potential to inconvenience anyone who walks that
pavement. Unless Hannah could show that it caused her some special damage, she cannot claim it
was private nuisance.
CP/20/C31
Q.84) Option (B).

Rationale: To claim nuisance, it is necessary that the interference claimed must be unreasonable and
interferes with the enjoyment of a property. In the given factual scenario, neither of these
conditions are met. Moreover, Hari Prasad always had the option of not watching the film.
Q.85) Option (D).

Rationale: It is quite clear from the facts of the case that Dharam intentionally made all those noises
1
to cause nuisance to Manav, and not anyone else. It does not matter that Dharam was annoyed by
the guitar lessons that Manav took at his place – that does not give Dharam the right to cause more
08
nuisance.
Q.86) Option (A).

Explanation: As per the passage, Justice D.Y Chandrachud believes that what a future Constitution
Bench decides shall be irrelevant to the adjudication of a present case.
Q.87) Option (C).
Q.88) Option (B).

00
16
Q.89) Option (C).
Q.90) Option (D).

1
Q.91) Option (A).
Q.92) Option (C).

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Q.93) Option (C).
Q.94) Option (B).
Q.95) Option (C).
Q.96) Option (B).
Q.97) Option (A).
Q.98) Option (D).
Q.99) Option (B).
Q.100) Option (B).
Q.101) Option (D).
Q.102) Option (A).
Q.103) Option (B).
CP/20/C31
Q.104) Option (C).
Q.105) Option (D).
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques
1
S.106–110) Solution for Questions:
Let the profits of XYZ and MNO be x, Sales of XYZ and PQR be y and sales of ABC be z. So we have
08
Company Sales Expenditure Profit
ABC z 0.9z 0.1z
PQR y 0.8y 0.2y
XYZ
MNO
00y
3x
5x
2x
x
x
Now, it is said that the total expenses of XYZ were Rs.10 lakhs. Thus, 5x = Rs.10 lakhs or x = Rs.2
lakhs. Also, total expenses of ABC were 10% less than those of XYZ = Rs.9 lakhs. Hence, 0.9z = 9 lakhs
16
or z = 10 lakhs. Finally, in case of XYZ, since Sales – Expenditure = Profit, Sales = Expenditure + Profit
= 6x = 12 lakhs, y = 12 lakhs. Our final table will become:
Company Sales Expenditure Profit

1
ABC 10 9 1
PQR 12 9.6 2.4
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XYZ 12 10 2
MNO 6 4 2
Q.106) Option (D).

From the above table, it can be seen that the company that had the lowest sales is MNO viz. Rs.6
lakhs.
Q.107) Option (C).

XYZ had highest total expenses i.e., Rs.10 lakhs.
Q.108) Option (A).

ABC had lowest profits i.e., Rs.1 lakh.
Q.109) Option (B).

PQR had the highest profits i.e., Rs.2.4 lakhs.
Q.110) Option (C).

Total sales = 10 + 12 + 12 + 6 = 40
Total Expenditure = 9 + 9.6 + 10 + 4 = 32.6
Ratio = 40 : 32.6 = 200 : 163
CP/20/C31
From the data that is given we can find the following data: (the explanation of how the following
values were arrived is given after the table).
Item 2014-15 2015-16

Food (%) 22% 23%
Food (Value) 4928 5934
Manufactured Articles 11648 11352
1
Raw Material 5824 8514
Total Value of Exports (In Cr Rs.) 22400 25800
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Q.111) Option (D).
Food related exports in 2015-16 = 0.23 × 25800 = 5934.
So food related exports in 2014-15 = (5934 – 1006) = 4928.
4928/22400 × 100 = 22%.
Q.112) Option (B).

00
Hence, percentage of food related exports in 2014-15
In 2014-15, Value of Manufactured articles & Raw materials exports = (22400 – 4928) = Rs.17472
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crores. Since Export of manufactured goods is twice that of raw materials, Rs.17472 has to be
divided in the ratio 2:1. Therefore, export of manufactured goods = Rs.11648 crores and Raw
materials = Rs.5824 crores. Hence, the difference between raw material and food = (5824 – 4928) =
Rs.896 crores.
1
Q.113) Option (D).

In 2015-16, the combined percentage of Manufactured articles and Raw materials = 77% and this is
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in the ratio 4 : 3.
Hence, percentage of Manufactured articles export is 44% and that of Raw materials export is 33%.
Hence, value of manufactured = 0.44 × 25800 = Rs.11352 crores and the value of Raw materials =
Rs.8514 crores. Hence, percentage difference between the value of Raw materials between 2014-15
and 2015-16 = (8514 – 5824)/8514 × 100 = 31.6%.
Q.114) Option (A).

The change in the value of exports from 2014-15 to 2015-16 = (11648 – 11352) = Rs.296 crores.
Q.115) Option (C).

11352
 100  44%
25800
Q.116) Option (C).

The skin & muscular protein totally constitutes 33% of the total proteins. The total proteins itself is
15% of the total body weight. Hence the percentage of skin & muscular protein as a fraction of the
total body weight
1 3 1
= (8 + 25)% of 15% =  
3 20 20
Q.117) Option (A).

Required Ratio = 25 : 8 3 : 1.
CP/20/C31
Q.118) Option (D).

We can determine only the percentage of skin protein in Anshuman’s total body weight. But there is
no data given about the percentage of skin in Anshuman’s body. Hence the answer is (d).
Q.119) Option (A).

Proportion of material other than water & protein in
Anshuman’s body is 15/100 = 3/20
1
Q.120) Option (B).
08
15% of 52% = 7.8%
Section – V: Logical Reasoning

00
1 16
18
Q.121) Option (A).
Q.122) Option (C).
Q.123) Option (C).
Q.124) Option (B).
Q.125) Option (C).

Son of my paternal grandfather's only son is Atul himself. So, she is sister of Atul.
Q.126) Option (C).

There are only two pairs - MT, EI
S.127–130) Solution for questions:
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

Pawan Ramu Qarim Tina Uma Santosh Tina Qarim
CP/20/C31
Red Yellow Green Purple Blue Orange Purple Green
Q.127) Option (D).
Q.128) Option (D).
Q.129) Option (D).
1
Q.130) Option (D).
08
Q.131) Option (D).
BDAC or CADB
Q.132) Option (C).

Sequence of prime numbers
Q.133) Option (A).

(A + 2 = C + 3 = F) + 4 = (J + 2 = L + 3 = O)
(D + 2 = F + 3 = I) + 4 = (M + 2 = O + 3 = R)
00
16
Q.134) Option (A).
The argument links extinction of the tree species with the use of its leaves in making toothpaste. (a)
indicates that since a very small quantity of leaves are required to make toothpaste and also since
the leaves can regenerate, the use of the tree’s leaves will not cause its extinction.
1
Q.135) Option (B).

18
Q.136) Option (C).

The argument implies being overweight as the cause of lower productivity (effect). (c) Indicates that
both lower productivity and higher weight are effects of a common cause that is mild depression.
Q.137) Option (C).
Q.138) Option (B).

The claim is that the expenditure on defence has continuosly risen. If the GDP has been rising at a
rapid pace, 12% of today’s GDP can be much more than the 18% of the GDP in 1970. No other option
resolves the contradiction.
Q.139) Option (D).
Q.140) Option (B).

The argument proposes an apparantly contradictive action to have an opposite effect. Reducing tax
actually results in higher revenue. Similarly in (b) reducing working days actually results in higher
work output.
Q.141) Option (A).
Q.142) Option (B).
CP/20/C31
This indicates that the group was homogeneous and thus eliminates the type of cancer having any
effect on the recovery. (a) does not apply here as all the patients showed some recovery while the
ones having herbs showed a speedier recovery. (d) does not mention cancer.
Q.143) Option (D).
Q.144) Option (B).
1
Q.145) Option (D).
08
Q.146) Option (D).
Because the assumption is that it is difficult to find, the statement recommends a guru for it. The
statements says it is necessary to find inner peace so it can be assumed that inner peace is essential.
Q.147) Option (B).
cars will be better so 2 follows.
Q.148) Option (A).

00
I is not an assumption necessary for the statement. Petrol cars will become obsolete because electric
16
Q.149) Option (B).
Q.150) Option (C).

Neither assumption is implicit. Statement asks to deposit form in advance that means it can be done
1
so 1 is not possible. 2 is irrelevant.

18

Mock Clat-31: (Answer and Explanation)

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CP/20/C31

Section – I: English Language

Q.3) Option (B).

Q.4) Option (C).

Q.6) Option (C).

Q.7) Option (D).

Q.8) Option (D).

Q.9) Option (D).

Q.10) Option (C).

Q.11) Option (B).

Q.12) Option (A).

Q.13) Option (B).

Q.16) Option (B).

Q.17) Option (C).

Q.19) Option (A).

Q.20) Option (D).

Q.21) Option (A).

Q.22) Option (D).

Q.23) Option (C).

Q.24) Option (B).

Q.25) Option (D).

Q.28) Option (B).

Q.29) Option (D).

Q.30) Option (A).

Q.31) Option (C).

Q.32) Option (B).

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.34) Option (C).

Q.35) Option (D).

Q.36) Option (A).

Q.37) Option (B).

Q.38) Option (C).

Q.39) Option (D).

Q.40) Option (A).

Q.41) Option (D).

Q.42) Option (B).

Q.43) Option (C).

Q.46) Option (B).

Q.47) Option (D).

Q.48) Option (A).

Q.49) Option (B).

Q.51) Option (A).

Q.52) Option (B).

Q.53) Option (A).

Q.54) Option (A).

Q.55) Option (B).

Q.56) Option (C).

Q.57) Option (A).

Q.58) Option (D).

Q.59) Option (A).

Q.60) Option (B).

Q.61) Option (B).

Q.62) Option (A).

Q.63) Option (A).

Q.64) Option (D).

Q.65) Option (A).

Q.66) Option (D).

Q.67) Option (A).

Q.70) Option (A).

Section – III: Legal Reasoning

Q.72) Option (D).

Q.73) Option (B).

Q.74) Option (C).