Online Clat Mock - 4: (Answer and Explanation) Section-I: English Usage

CP/20/C04
ONLINE CLAT MOCK – 4

(ANSWER AND EXPLANATION)
Section–I: English Usage

1. B; Vilify / Defame – Speak or write in an abusive or insulting manner.
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2. D; Paramount / Vital: More important than anything else.
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3. C; Coax/ persuade – gently or persistently convince someone to do something.
4. D; Articulate- having the ability to express clearly. So express, state and comprehend fit.
While gleam means shine brightly which is a misfit here.
5. C;
6. B;
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Esoteric means understood by small number of people. Arcane, Enigmatic and Complex fit
while bucolic which refers to country side is a misfit.
Elephants are plural hence should take plural pronoun – are hunted for their tusks (not its)
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7. B; the sentence has a dangling modifier error. Having already bought a suit, this should
modify a subject which is missing. The correct sentence should be having already bought a
suit, I found the idea of buying another one extravagant.
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8. D; the sentence uses not by…. But by conjunctions. So the construction should be parallel not
by your clothes but by your speech.
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9. B; Cast is a collective noun but the sentence connotes that everyone was rehearsing his own
dialogues hence the verb and pronoun should be plural. The cast of the movie were
rehearsing.(not was)
10. B; the scholar and the writer are two different individuals hence should take plural verb. The
scholar and the writer were invited. (not was). Had it been the scholar and writer then it
was a single subject and should have taken the scholar and writer was.
11. A; past perfect in relation to “overflowing”
12. A; her coach thinks she has the ability to do better in future if she tries. “Will” denotes
certainty.
13. B; denoting present situation in relation to the past (beginning of the mall visit)
14. C; past participle of need required
15. B; past perfect of the auxiliary verb ‘have’
16. D; simple past tense
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17. B; Ramu was still waiting at the point in time when he decided to go back home. (He did not
wait when he decided and hence not simple past.
18. D; present simple tense
19. B;
20. D; simple past
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21. C; BDAC. B becomes the opening because it talks about the private wars and D extents the
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idea while it also introduces public wars. DA have a noun – pronoun link – Arbitration in D
and It in A. C is an example of Public war settled in international court.
22. B; DCBA. DC are a link as D mentions fat deposition in walls. This in C refers to Deposition. B
states what happened due to blockage. A states the ultimate consequence of the deposit.
23. C;
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ADCB. AD are linked as A says it is not limited to a part of the globe. D says it is all over the
world. They in C refers to superstitions hence should follow ADC. B is the extension of the
idea hence the closing.
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24. D; CDAB, As there is no plural noun stated in any of the sentences that can be linked to They
in C and D also DA are linked as these sentences talk about body language. CDA become a
pair. B becomes the conclusion that whoever they refers to uses silence as a weapon.
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25. B; BCAD, BCA are mandatory pair as these sentences talk about the evolution of Ayurveda
and D states what happened after the British rule was established. Hence D becomes an
appropriate closing.
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26. B; in all things or on all points
27. A;
28. C;
29. A; existing or current state
30. B; having a legal status only by operation or construction of law
31. B; long held concepts have been disproved with new evidence.
32. A; “Experiments may test a theory, or be purely speculative.” Speculative or exploratory.
33. D; third paragraph
34. B; Since the theory may be proved incorrect later. Fourth paragraph.
35. D;
36. C; the passage begins with the introduction.
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37. C;
38. A;
39. B; second last paragraph.
40. A; He predicted the comet to reappear in 1758 which proved to be correct.
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Section–II: General Knowledge
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41. D; The 66th National Film Awards were announced on August 9, 2019. The 66th National Film
Awards were announced by jury heads Rahul Rawail, AS Kanal and Utpal Bhorpujari.
Keerthy Suresh won the Best Actress award for her performance in Mahanati.
42. C;
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The region which was affected by the Munda Uprising was Chhota Nagpur during 1890–
1910. Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu were the leader of the Santhal rebellion (1855–
1856). Khond Uprising took place in Orissa in 1846 and 1855. The Khond people were led
by Chakra Bisoi. Seva ram was leader of Bhil uprising against British authorities.
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43. C; Atmaram Pandurang was a social reformer who founded the Prarthana Samaj. Bal
Gangadhar Tilak famously called Lokmanya Tilak, was called “The father of the Indian
unrest” by the British colonial authorities. Badruddin Tyabji served as the third President
of the Indian National Congress and was the first muslim president of Indian National
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congress. Dadabhai Naoroji also known as the “Grand Old Man of India” was first Indian to
be a British MP. His book “Poverty and Un–British Rule in India” brought attention to the
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draining of India’s wealth into Britain.
44. B; Japanese architect Arata Isozaki is the 46th recipient of the Pritzker Prize, and the 8th
Japanese architect to receive the honour. Among Isozaki’s works are the Palau Sant Jordi
in Barcelona for the 1992 Olympics, the Shenzen Cultural Center in China and the Allianz
Tower in Milan. Balkrishna Doshi was 2018 Pritzker Prize Laureate. Zaha Hadid won
Pritzker prize in 2004 and Toyo Ito in 2013.
45. C; ‘DASTAK’ campaign is part of a comprehensive social and behaviour change

communication strategy embraced by the Uttar Pradesh government to contain
encephalitis.
46. B; UAE President Sheikh Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan has conferred the prestigious Zayed
Medal to Prime Minister Narendra Modi for giving a “big boost’ to bilateral strategic ties
between the two countries. The award comes in appreciation of PM Modi’s role in
consolidating the long–standing friendship and joint strategic cooperation between the
two countries. The Zayed Medal is the highest decoration awarded to kings, presidents
and heads of states. Ram Nath Kovind has recently honoured with Croatia’s highest civilian
award — the Grand Order of the King of Tomislav.
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47. B; The Supreme Court upheld the validity of The Karnataka Extension of Consequential
Seniority to Government Servants Promoted on the Basis of Reservation (To the Posts in
the Civil Services of the State) Act, 2017.
48. C; G-20 Summit was held in Osaka which is located in Japan. The meeting was marred by US-
China trade crisis. 19 countries, the European Union and several special invitees had
participated at the G-20 Summit in 2019.
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49. A; Sourav Ganguly after a home Test series against Australia, announced his retirement from
international cricket in 2008. In December 2018, Gautam Gambhir announced his
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retirement from all forms of cricket. Sachin Tendulkar retired from all forms of cricket on
16 November 2013 after playing his 200th Test match, against the West Indies in
Mumbai’s Wankhede Stadium.
50. D; Main purpose of Writ Jurisdiction under Article 32 is the enforcement of Fundamental
51. A;
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Rights. Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi–judicial authorities and
NOT against administrative authorities, legislative bodies.
Akshaya Patra, a Bengaluru based non-profit organisation running one of the world’s
largest school meals project in India, has been awarded the BBC World Service Global
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Champion Award for the programme. The award, presented at the BBC Food and Farming
Awards in Bristol, recognises a person or project that is changing the way the world
produces, processes, consumes or thinks about food for the better.
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52. C; South Korea defeated five time champion India in a penalty shootout 4–2 at Ipoh in
Malaysia to win 2019 Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey tournament.
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53. C; PepsiCo has recently withdrew a lawsuit it filed last month against four small Indian
farmers for growing a potato variety it had registered for exclusive use in Lays potato
chips. After discussions with the Indian government, the company later agreed to
withdraw cases against farmers.
54. A; Ministers other than Cabinet Ministers normally do not attend the meetings of the
Cabinet. The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Cabinet. All policy matters
are decided by the Cabinet.
55. D; The Commonwealth Games Federation left out shooting from the 2022 Birmingham
Games in its Executive Board meeting while recommending the inclusion of three new
sports. The decision to leave out shooting has dealt a big blow to India which had won as
many as 16 medals out of 66 in the 2018 Gold Coast CWG.
56. A; 5G is the next generation of cellular technology with download speeds that are 10 to 100
times faster than 4G LTE networks. Trial runs of the 5G network, backed by state–run
telecom carrier China Mobile, officially started the service in Shanghai’s Hongkou.
57.C; White House said the US will not sign the “Christchurch Call to Action” against online
extremism discussed at the meeting led by French President Emmanuel Macron and New
Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Ardern. The call is a set of guidelines named after the New
Zealand city where 51 people were killed in a March attack on mosques.
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58. B; Former Supreme Court judge and current member of the National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC), Pinaki Chandra Ghose has been named as the India’s first Lokpal. The
Lokpal Act, which was passed in 2013 after a nationwide anti–corruption movement,
provides for setting up of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayuktas in the States to probe
corruption complaints against top functionaries and public servants, including the Prime
Minister and the Chief Ministers.
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59. A; Amish Tripathi is author of best selling books like Secret of Nagas, Sita-Warrior of Milthila.
The Nehru Centre, London is a cultural centre located at the South Audley Street, London.
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Its goal is to promote cultural exchange between India and the United Kingdom. The
Nehru Centre was founded in 1992. Gopalkrishna Gandhi was its first director. Indian
playwright Girish Karnad, writer-diplomat Pavan Varma once headed the Nehru Centre,
London as directors.
60. B;
61. D; 00
Reference Rate is the minimum rate on which money is borrowed in capital market.
After China lifted its hold on a proposal, initiated by the United States, United Kingdom
and France, UNSC 1267 Al–Qaeda Sanctions Committee has recently designated Jaish chief
Masood Azhar as global terrorist. This is also the first time that a terrorist is being listed by
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the UN following an attack in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Masood Azhar’s Jaish–e–
Mohammed had taken the responsibility for the attack on a CRPF convoy in Pulwama.
62. C; Kandhamal Haldi, a variety of turmeric indigenous to southern Odisha, has finally got the
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Geographical indication (GI) tag from Intellectual Property India. Kandhmal turmeric,
originally grown by tribal people in Kandhamal, is famous for its medicinal properties. A GI
is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or
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a reputation that are due to that origin.
63. C; In a first-ever development, Indian waterways is being used to transport cargo between 2
countries. Stones were transported from Phuentsholing in Bhutan to Narayanganj in
Bangladesh via Dhubri in Assam with help of waterway.
64. A; Boris Johnson officially became Britain’s new Prime Minister on July 24, 2019. He was face
of 2016 Brexit referendum.
65. D; Greta Thuunberg is a 16 year old teenager who started “Fridays for Future” movement.
Many students strike from school to take part in climate protests. Hirsi was one of the lead
organizers of the first–ever Youth Climate Strike in the US, which took place on March 15
as part of the global Fridays for Future protests. Often referred to as the “German Greta
Thunberg,” Luisa Neubauer is no less determined in her activism. The 22–year–old has
helped organize the country’s massive Fridays for Future climate marches. Vaz has been
investigating the illegal trade in manta rays across Southeast Asia.
66. A; India has dropped down seven spots in the happiness rankings as compared to its 2018
ranking. In 2018, India was placed on 133 position, but this year its ranking went down to
140. People in war–torn South Sudan are the most unhappy with their lives.
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67. B; The monthly peak amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere in 2019 jumped by
a near–record amount to reach 414.8 parts per million (ppm) in May, which is the highest
level in human history and likely the highest level in the past 3 million years. Carbon
dioxide is the most important long–lived greenhouse gas, with a single molecule lasting in
the air for hundreds to around 1,000 years.
68. B; Baglihar hydropower project is located at Chenab river in Jammu and Kashmir. This project
was conceived in 1992, approved in 1996 and construction began in 1999.
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69. A; Babylon is located south of Baghdad, capital of Iraq. It is site of history of over 4000 years.
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Hanging gardens of Babylon is considered one of the seven wonders of the world.
70. B; The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has started the process of declaring the site at
Sadikpur Sinauli, in Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh which is spread over 28 hectares, of
national importance.
71. B;
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India adopted a global resolution to redefine four of the seven base units –– kilogramme,
kelvin, mole and ampere. A resolution to redefine four of the seven base units was passed
by representatives of 60 countries at the General Conference on Weights and Measures
(CGPM) of the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM), Paris on November
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16 last year.
72. B; The project will lift water from the Godavari River near Tadipudi village in West Godavari
District and pump it through the Main Canal into the 20 TMC capacity Jalleru reservoir,
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and then supply water to West Godavari and Krishna Districts.
73. B; Railway Protection Force (RPF) launched “Operation Thirst”, an All India Drive to crack
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down selling of unauthorised Packaged Drinking Water. Ministry of Jal Shakti is a ministry
under Government of India which was formed in May 2019. This was formed by merging
of Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and Ministry of
Drinking Water and Sanitation.
74. A; David Malpass, US President Donald Trump’s nominee to lead the World Bank, won
unanimous approval from the institution’s executive board, continuing the 73–year
tradition of an American running the world’s largest development lender. Previous World
Bank President Jim Yong Kim, left in January to join a private infrastructure fund. Gita
Gopinath was appointed as Chief Economist of IMF from 1 October 2018. Kristalina
Georgieva is Chief Executive Officer of World bank.
75. B; The 19th meeting of Commonwealth Foreign Affairs Ministers was held at Marlborough
House in London on 10 July 2019.
76. D; The Union ministry of road transport and highways has proposed to exempt registration
fees for electric vehicles as an incentive for transitioning towards battery–operated
vehicles. This comes in the backdrop of Centre’s target to have 30% electric vehicles by
2030. Electric vehicles are also less polluting than those which run on fossil fuel.
77. A; Orchha is located around 80 km away from Tikamgarh district in Madhya Pradesh and 15
km from Jhansi of Uttar Pradesh. Orchha was built by king Rudra Pratap Singh of Bundela
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dynasty in the 16th century. The ancient town is famous for its Chaturbhuj Temple, Orchha
fort complex, Raja Mahal among others.
78. B; India has retained its position as the world’s top recipient of remittances with its diaspora
sending a whopping $79 billion back home in 2018. India was followed by China ($67
billion), Mexico ($36 billion), the Philippines ($34 billion), and Egypt ($29 billion).
79. A; It will be set up in Thiruvananthapuram, capital of Kerala to attract global startups working
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in space sector.
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80. B; MS Swaminathan is considered as ‘father of green revolution’ in India. Vikram Sarabhai
was renowned space scientist of India. Homi Jahangir Bhabha was famous nuclear scientist
of India. He is known as the “father of Indian nuclear program.” He was the first Chairman
of The Atomic Energy Commission of India.
81. A;
82. B;
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RISAT-2B will be able to look through the clouds to observe Earth's surface day and night.
RISAT-2B is built to work for at least five years.
The Government of Japan conferred 72–year–old Saran, ‘the Order of the Rising Sun, Gold
and Silver Star’. Saran, who was India’s Foreign Secretary during 2004–2006, has played an
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important role to elevate Japan–India relationship to strategic partnership. S. Jaishankar is
present Foreign Minister. Nirupama Rao was former foreign secretary. Vijay Gokhale is
present Foreign Secretary of India.
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83. B; Several private schools across Nepal have made it mandatory for students to learn the
Mandarin language, raising concerns for the Modi government over the Himalayan
country’s further shift towards China.
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84. D; Sasakawa Award 2019 was given for Disaster Risk Reduction to Mahila Housing Sewa Trust
and Dr. Pramod Kumar Mishra, Additional Principal Secretary to Prime Minister of India, in
recognition of his long–term dedication to improve the resilience of communities most
exposed to disasters and his personal commitment to social inclusion as a critical principle
to reduce inequality and poverty, enhancing the safety net of the socially and
economically marginalized.
85. A; ISO stands for “International Organisation for Standardisation” that is responsible for
establishing the standard in different areas of activities. Many types of ISO certification
exist and the one received by Guwahati Railway Station is ISO–14001, which is for
Environment Management System as per international norms which were upgraded in
2015. Thus, the station’s certificate reads ISO 14001: 2015.
86. B; The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)–led government in Delhi waived fare for women in DTC buses
and Delhi Metro, in a bid to encourage them to use public transport.
87. D; Kerala topped the list for the second time in a row in terms of overall health performance
according to Niti Aayog’s health index report. Andhra Pradesh holds the second position
whereas Maharashtra occupies the third spot. The health index released on June 25 based
on 23 health indicators mentioned that Bihar, Odisha, and Uttar Pradesh performed the
worst.
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88. B; World Population Day is observed every year on 11th of July. National Science day is
celebrated on 28th February. 1st May is International labour day.
89. A; This is the 17th edition of the Varuna naval exercise between the two nations which began
on May 1, it is said to be the largest ever exercise undertaken between the two navies.
The harbor phase was conducted at Goa and second phase held near Djibouti. The 3rd
edition of the bilateral joint exercise “Al Nagah 2019” was held between India and Oman
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from 12th to 25th March at Jabel Al Akhdar Mountains in Oman.
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90. C; The Suez Canal, opened in 1869, has turned 150 in 2019. It connects the Red Sea with the
eastern Mediterranean Sea and extends 100 miles (160 km) from Port Said to the Gulf of
Suez. The Suez Canal is the lifeline of Egypt. The Panama Canal is an artificial 82 km
waterway in Panama that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. The United
States opened the canal on August 15, 1914. The White Sea–Baltic Canal is a ship canal in
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Russia opened on 2 August 1933. It connects the White Sea, in the Arctic Ocean, with Lake
Onega, which is further connected to the Baltic Sea. The Kiel Canal is a 95–kilometre long
freshwater canal in the German state of Schleswig–Holstein. The canal was finished in
1895, but later widened, and links the North Sea at Brunsbüttel to the Baltic Sea at Kiel–
Holtenau.
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Section–III: Numeric Aptitude
91. C; Gram flour = 12 kg, Water = 2.5 kg and Sugar extract = 1.5 kg
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Total weight of the mixture = 16 kg

Ratio of sugar extract to the rest of mixture =1.5: 14.5 or 3: 29
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15 16
92. D; By cross multiplication method out of and , we can say that we have to compare 15
19 20
× 20 & 19 × 16 and out of these two, 19 × 16 is larger. Similarly compare the other
fractions, hence 19/23 is the largest fraction.
93. C; In case of simple interest

PRT 4000  2  2
I   Rs.2000
100 100
In case of compound interest
n
 r 
A  81  
 100 
2
 25 
 4000  1  
 100 
5 5
 4000  
4 4
 250 × 25 = 6250
So, compound interest will be Rs.6250 – 4000 = Rs.2250
Difference between CI & SI will be Rs.2250 – 2000 = Rs. 250
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94. D; Ratio of the selling price of T–shirt and Jeans = 12/17

Or [(X × 120)/100] / [(X + 200) × 85/100] = 12/17
Or Cost price of T–shirt X = Rs. 200 and cost price of Jeans = Rs.400
Selling price of T–shirt = Rs.240 and Selling price of Jeans = Rs.340
Loss% = (20 × 100)/600 = 3.33%
95. D; Probability of occurring 4 are (1, 3), (3, 1) & (2, 2). So the probability of getting the sum of
3 3 1
 
1
4=
6  6 36 12
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96. D; Earning of 1 girl = Rs. 72.
Earning of 12 girls = Rs 864
Earning of 9 boys = Rs. 864
Earning of 1 boy = Rs. 96
Earning of 1 woman = (96 × 5)/3 = Rs.160
97. C;
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Earning of 1 man = (160 × 7)/5 = Rs.234
The earning of 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in a day = 234 + 96 + 160 = Rs.490
If they had not lost or gained any time, they would both show the same time always. But
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in this case, the first clock would be behind the second clock by 6 min at the end of 1 hr.
(Since the first clock loses 4 min and the second gains 2 min in 1 hr). They would both
show the same time again if they are separated by 12 hr = 12 × 60 min
Number of hours the first clock takes to be behind the second by 12 = (12 × 60)/6 = 120
hrs
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So they would show the same time again after exactly 5 days i.e Saturday 9:30 pm.
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98. A; Let the required distance be x km.

x/12 – x/18 = 30/60
or, (3x – 2x)/36 = 1/ 2 or x = 18
Hence, the required distance = 18 km.
99. B; Assume the number of students in the initial group = X

The average age of a group of students initially = 19.75 years
After joining 25 new students, then {X × 19.75 + (25 × 16.25)}/ (X + 25)
= 18 or X = 25
100 .B; Interval of change = LCM of (15, 21, 35, 49) sec = 735 sec.
The lights will change simultaneously after every 735 sec, i.e., 12 min 15 sec.
So, they will change next simultaneously at 12 : 08 : 15 hrs.
101. B; The multiples of 4 from 1 to 100 are 4 × 25 i.e. 25.

The multiples of 4 from 1 to 200 are 4 × 50 i.e. 50.
So, the multiples of 4 from 100 to 200 are 50 – 25 + 1 – 26
102. D; LCM of 15 and 18 is 90.

Here Pipe P1 can fill the tank 6 units per minute and Pipe P2 can fill the tank 5 units per
minutes. So, both pipes can fill 11 units in one minute.
The number of units filled by pipe P1 in 7 minutes and 40 seconds = 46 units
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Both pipes filled the tank in T minutes = 90 – 46 = 44 units. So, both pipes will take 4
minutes to fill 44 units. Hence, T = 4 minutes
103. B; Here (12% + 28% + 5% + 25%) of book’s price = 70% of the book’s price.
Therefore, 30% of book’s price = Rs. 72
The price of the book = Rs. 240
104. A; The HCF of 36 and 48 is 12.
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So, the square side of the carpet piece = 12 ft.
Hence the minimum number of carpet pieces = 3 × 4 = 12
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105. A; Let the present age of Beena is X years.
X + 14 = (3/2) X
 2X + 28 = 3X
X = 28 years, So Beena’s age = 28 years
106. C; 00
Present age of her son = 28 × (1/7) = 4 years
If the cost of second type of alcohol is Rs. x per litre, then cost of first type of alcohol is Rs.
(x + 5) per litre.
Selling price of mixture is Rs. 155, after making a profit of 25%.
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So, the cost price of mixture = 155/1.25 = 124 per liter
Using allegation ((x + 5) – 124)/(124 – x)
= 3/2 or ( x – 119)/(124 – x) = 3/2
Or 5 x = 610 or x = 122 per liter.
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Cost of the second type of alcohol is 122 per liter and cost of first type of alcohol is 127 per
liter.
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107. D; On dividing the given number by 323, let k be the quotient and 67 the remainder.
Then, number = 323k + 47
= [(17 × 19k) + (17 × 3 + 16)]
= [17 (19k + 3) + 16]
So, the given number when divided by 17 gives (19k + 3) as quotient and 16 as the
remainder.
Alternative method:
323 is a multiple of 17, divide the remainder by the second dividend to get the remainder.
67 when divided by 17 gives 16 as remainder.
108. B; The first photocopier copies 2400 pages in 1 hr and another photocopier copies 1600
pages in 1 hr. In one hr, both photocopiers can do 4000 pages. For 15000 pages, both
photocopier will take 15000/4000 = 3 hrs and 45 minutes.
109. D; x + ((x + 5)/7) = (x – 2)/2 or (7 x + x + 5)/7 = (x – 2)/2 or 16 x + 10 = 7 x – 14 or 9 x = –24 or x

= –8/3
110. A; The time taken to cover 225 km without any stops = 4 hrs and 10 minutes.
Since he stops every 90 km, he would stop twice before reaching the destination.
Hence, total time taken = 4 hrs and 46 minutes.
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Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

111. C; D can claim private defence, since he was trying to protect K from the two men, who were
armed with axes, and the injury to K was imminent.
112. B; D cannot claim private defense, since there was no imminent threat at the time.
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113. B; D can claim private defence, since he was under an imminent threat at the time.
114. B; cannot claim private defence, since he was not under any imminent threat at the time.
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115. B; cannot claim private defence, since he was not under any imminent threat at the time.
116. B; Koli is not guilty of culpable homicide, since death did not result from the stab wound, but
from the negligence of the hospital.
117. C;
118. B;
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Koli is guilty of culpable homicide, since the death did result from the stab wound.
Koli is not guilty of culpable homicide, since death did not result from the stab wound.
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119. A; Pani is not guilty of culpable homicide, since he did not intend to kill Tali
120. C; Roney’s Pizza will succeed, as it is the infringement of its trade secret.
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121. D; Roney’s Pizza would have succeeded only when the protection (breach of confidence) had
been provided by the contractual agreement.
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122. B; Roney’s Pizza will not succeed as Tobey has used his acquired skill and experience.
123. A; Both Y and Z will not succeed as they voluntarily consented to the infliction of injury
during the match.
124. A; Y will not succeed as he voluntarily consented to the infliction of injury during the match.
125. A; Fredley will succeed as Fraser breached the duty of care which it owed to Fredley.
126. D; Fredley cannot succeed as Fraser gets immunity on account of disclaimer.
127. B; His suit is not maintainable as F did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
defendants have done are within their legal rights.
128. B; His suit is not maintainable as F did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
defendants have done are within their legal rights.
129. B; His suit is not maintainable as he did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
Town Development Authority officials have done is within their legal rights.
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130. B; His suit is not maintainable as he did not suffer any legal injury because hurting someone’s
religious feelings by being critical of it’s superstitious practices does not amount to
violation of anybody’s legal right
131. B; His suit is not maintainable as he did not suffer any legal injury because hurting someone’s
religious feelings by being critical of it’s superstitious practices does not amount to insult.
132. B; His suit is not maintainable, as he did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
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local Board of Health built is within its legal rights.
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133. B; Their suit is not maintainable, as they did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
defendant did was within his legal rights.
134. B; His suit is not maintainable, as he did not suffer any legal injury because whatever the
Municipal officials have done is within their legal rights.
135. B;
136. A;
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His suit is maintainable, as he did suffer a legal injury because whatever the defendant has
done is violation of legal rights of the plaintiff.
the plaintiff could not prove precisely what relevant act or omission on the part of the
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defendant set in motion the events leading to the accident b) the harm must be of such a
kind that it does not ordinarily happen if proper care is being taken c) the instrumentality
(act or omission) causing the accident must be within the exclusive control of the
defendant.
1
137. A; the plaintiff could not prove precisely what relevant act or omission on the part of the
defendant set in motion the events leading to the accident b) the harm must be of such a
18
kind that it does not ordinarily happen if proper care is being taken c) the instrumentality
(act or omission) causing the accident must be within the exclusive control of the
defendant.
138. B; conditions of doctrine of res ipsa loquitur are not met.
139. B; conditions of doctrine of res ipsa loquitur are not met.
140. A; as he suffered a legal injury.
141. D; The surgeon is not liable because out of necessity of preserving the life and health of the
patient he deviated from the consented medical procedure
patient he deviated from the standard medical procedure
CP/20/C04
145. D; When the agreement was entered into the couple was living in amity, though, not at same
places. There was reliance on the agreement. Also the act of forbearance of the wife is no
consideration as she does not have legal right to ask for more maintenance. Therefore,
they did not intend to enter into legal relation.
146. D; Here the contract terms are certain, reliance on the agreement is there too. Nevertheless,
the son is not under any legal duty to refrain from complaining; and therefore, his
forbearance could not amount to consideration which is of any value in eyes of the law.
1
147. D; In this case nephew has a legal right to smoke or drink liquor which he has restricted
08
within certain prescribed limit upon the strength of the promise of his uncle. Therefore,
there is reliance on the promise. This act of forbearance of lawful freedom of action
amounts to a consideration which has legitimate value in the eyes of law.
148. C; In this case, the terms of the contract are certain as the Gargs have to take care of Miss
149. D;
00
Jha in return for the house; also the house will be bequeathed to them after the death of
Miss Jha. On the reliance of promise they give up house and job in Bangalore which
amounts to sufficient consideration to support the promise of Miss Jha.
In this case as the agreement was signed after the separation of the couple i.e. when they
16
were not living in amity, and terms of the contract were certain. On the reliance of the
promise made the wife provided sufficient consideration to the promise of her husband by
paying mortgage premiums from her earnings as well. Therefore, the presumption against
the intention to create legal relation is refuted.
1
150. C; In this case, the presumption against the intention to create a legal relation is not refuted
as the words “so long as he could manage it” bring the element of uncertainty that the
18
agreement was not intended to create legal relation. Though, the other refuting elements
of consideration, not living in amity and reliance on the agreement were present in the
facts.
151. B; ‘Speaker of the House’
152. C; ‘Justice Y. V. Chandrachud’
153. D; ‘All of these’
154. A; ‘Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam’
155. A; ‘6 months’
156. B; ‘Indian Parliament’
157. D; ‘1, 2, 3 and 4’
158. D; ‘Any of these three’
159. B; ‘without the right to vote’
CP/20/C04
160. A; ‘The Election Commission’
Section–V: Logical Reasoning

161. B; There are two possible arrangements.
1
08
i.e. PKNZLM and PNLZKM
162. D;
163. B;
164. C;
00
As per his movement diagram is drawn hear.
1 16
18
165. A; MO TH ER  O N H U R F
M O has become O M then O N
T H has become H T then H U
E R bas become R E then R F
Similarly,
A N will become N A then N B
S W will become W S then W T
E R will become R E then R F
166. C;
167. D;
168. A;
S.169–171) Solution for Questions:
Name Occupation Location

A Pharmacist Bhubaneshwar
CP/20/C04
B Professor Hyderabad
C Artist Mumbai
D Engineer Bangalore
E Lawyer Ahmedabad
F Doctor Patna
G Counsellor Jaipur
1
169. A;
170.D;
08
171. B;
172. B; Applying the ‘if’ conditional, Statement does not necessarily follow and only B is the right
173. A;
174. C;
choice.
00
Not Y therefore not X, therefore A is the right choice.
Not Y therefore not X is the correct implication of conditional ‘if’, thus C is the right
16
answer.
15
175. B; It gains 15 minutes in 24 hr. so in 32 hr. it will gain  32 = 20 min
24
1
At 2:00 p.m. the time will show 2:20 pm.
176. D; Option ‘d’ because from 1897 to 1903, there were no leap year.
18
177. B; Start from the end.

8 × 2 = 16
16 × 3 = 48
48 × 4 = 192
192 × 5 = 960
960 × 6 = 5760
178. C;
179. C; There is a gap of one letter in between any two consecutive letters.
So, after SUW it should be YAC.
180. C; Total number of odd days will be 17 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 5 e.i. 32 days, when divided by 7
remainder is 4, so it will be Sunday.
181. C; a student may never pass a test or buy books or have to pay the fees but will have to at
least study a course.
182. C; a breeze is gentle and never harmful.
CP/20/C04
183. B; Statements are correct but R is not the reason for A.
184. C; Self explanatory.
185. B; Statements are correct but R is not the reason for A.
186. A; The primary work of a scientist is experimenting while that of a doctor is curing patients.
1
187. D; The smallest part in a rose is a cell while that in copper is an atom.
08
188. A; Rats are both red and green and thus some green have to be red. B cannot be definitely
concluded.
189. D; B and C are possibilities. A and D are mutually exclusive and one of them has to follow.
Persons Car
00
Destination
16
EH Swift Patna
BAGD Honda Hyderabad
FC Icon Chennai
190. C;
1
191. B;
18
192. C;
193. A; Statement I is the correct underlying assumption while statement II is a conclusion from
the above premise. Thus A is the right choice.
194. D; Self explanatory.
195. A; Statement I is the underlying assumption while statement II has no basis. Thus A is the
right choice.
196. D; Neither I nor II can be said to be the underlying assumptions.
197. A;
Day Exam
Monday Physics
Tuesday Maths
Wednesday Electronics
Thursday Biology
CP/20/C04
Friday Chemistry
Saturday English
Sunday Holiday
198. A;
199. D;
1
200. D;
08
00
1 16
18

Online Clat Mock - 4: (Answer and Explanation) Section-I: English Usage

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Online Clat Mock - 4: (Answer and Explanation) Section-I: English Usage

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CP/20/C04

ONLINE CLAT MOCK – 4

Section–I: English Usage

11. A; past perfect in relation to “overflowing”

14. C; past participle of need required

15. B; past perfect of the auxiliary verb ‘have’

16. D; simple past tense

18. D; present simple tense

20. D; simple past

26. B; in all things or on all points

29. A; existing or current state

30. B; having a legal status only by operation or construction of law

32. A; “Experiments may test a theory, or be purely speculative.” Speculative or exploratory.

33. D; third paragraph

36. C; the passage begins with the introduction.

39. B; second last paragraph.

40. A; He predicted the comet to reappear in 1758 which proved to be correct.

draining of India’s wealth into Britain.

45. C; ‘DASTAK’ campaign is part of a comprehensive social and behaviour change

a reputation that are due to that origin.

and then supply water to West Godavari and Krishna Districts.

Total weight of the mixture = 16 kg

93. C; In case of simple interest

94. D; Ratio of the selling price of T–shirt and Jeans = 12/17

98. A; Let the required distance be x km.

99. B; Assume the number of students in the initial group = X

101. B; The multiples of 4 from 1 to 100 are 4 × 25 i.e. 25.

102. D; LCM of 15 and 18 is 90.

104. A; The HCF of 36 and 48 is 12.

109. D; x + ((x + 5)/7) = (x – 2)/2 or (7 x + x + 5)/7 = (x – 2)/2 or 16 x + 10 = 7 x – 14 or 9 x = –24 or x

Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

126. D; Fredley cannot succeed as Fraser gets immunity on account of disclaimer.

138. B; conditions of doctrine of res ipsa loquitur are not met.

139. B; conditions of doctrine of res ipsa loquitur are not met.

140. A; as he suffered a legal injury.

151. B; ‘Speaker of the House’

152. C; ‘Justice Y. V. Chandrachud’

153. D; ‘All of these’

154. A; ‘Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam’

156. B; ‘Indian Parliament’

157. D; ‘1, 2, 3 and 4’

158. D; ‘Any of these three’

159. B; ‘without the right to vote’

160. A; ‘The Election Commission’

Section–V: Logical Reasoning

S.169–171) Solution for Questions:

Name Occupation Location

At 2:00 p.m. the time will show 2:20 pm.

177. B; Start from the end.

182. C; a breeze is gentle and never harmful.

183. B; Statements are correct but R is not the reason for A.

184. C; Self explanatory.

185. B; Statements are correct but R is not the reason for A.

S.190–192) Solution for Questions:

194. D; Self explanatory.

196. D; Neither I nor II can be said to be the underlying assumptions.

S.198–200) Solution for Questions:

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