Mock Clat-14 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

CP/20/C14
MOCK CLAT–14
(Question Paper)
Section–I: English Usage
S.1–3) Direction for Questions: In each question there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of
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words/phrases that are italicised and highlighted. From the italicised and highlighted word(s)
/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the
options given, choose the best one.
Q.1) The young man in intensive care in hospital after a mob doused him in inflammatory (A)/
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inflammable (B) liquid and then threw a lighted match at him.
Schuyler was a sensitive and retiring woman who had been averse (A)/ adverse (B) to publicity all
her life.
The clowns stood all together (A)/ altogether (B) at the front of the chapel.
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It’s a myth that a breastfed baby will turn into an overly dependant (A)/ dependent (B) child.
The scientists produced an indeterminate (A)/ indeterminable (B) study concerning the number of
stars in the universe.
a) AABBA
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b) ABABA
c) BABBA
d) BAABA
Q.2) The current state of democracy in our country does not augur (A)/ auger (B) well for the future.
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He was biding (A)/ bidding (B) his time in the hope for a change.
He is a real–estate magnate (A)/ magnet (B).
He asked for a canvass (A)/ canvas (B) opinion by inviting voters to vote for a topic.
She broke the silence to renounce (A)/ denounce (B) the verdict.
a) BBAAB
b) AAAAB
c) ABBAA
d) BABAB
Q.3) His writings are full of illusions (A)/ allusions (B) to the works of the bygone era.
The gloomy prognosis (A)/ diagnosis (B) for jobs and incomes in the coming year sent stock prices
falling.
If Adam doesn’t watch his diet, his gout may flair (A)/ flare (B) up.
Coalition upper house leader was loathe (A)/ loath (B) to speculate on the final outcome in the 40–
seat Legislative Council.
Politicians couldn’t possibly be as venial (A)/ venal (B), as stupid, as irresponsible or as heartless as
portrayed in the 30–second spot.
a) AABBB
b) BABBB
c) BABAB
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d) ABAAA
S.4–6) Direction for Questions: Identify the incorrect sentence/ sentences.
Q.4)
1. Sidney compares his protagonist with a star.
2. I was just about to put the horses up for the night, when all of the sudden, a coyote howled
nearby.
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3. There is too much wind to have a bonfire tonight.
4. Teller was not long in making use of his freer position in Berlin.
a) 1 and 2
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b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.5)
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1. We should all be greatful for the leadership of our new CEO.
2. The finance department undertakes a semi–annual full audit of all company expenses.
3. He resigned owing to his disapproval for the recognition of the independence of Buenos Aires.
4. Mia and I waited with baited breath to hear what the supervisor considered sensible.
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a) Only 1
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
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Q.6)
1. The argument seems plausible only through a slight of hand.
2. Movie’s approach to its female characters peaked my interest.
3. Leonard was determined to exact revenge on his wife’s killer.
4. Free tickets will be given out on a first come, first serve basis.
a) Only 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
S.7– 12) Direction for Questions: Fill up the blanks, numbered [7] [8] [9] [10] [11] and [12] in the
passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
The (7) between the living Nietzsche and the written one was indeed drastic. He was a fragile,
sensitive, gentle person with elegant manners, constantly striving to (8) his inner turmoil and
physical distress. He let his personal (9) be reflected in a universal predicament: how can we hold to
our convictions in the face of chaos, (10), decay, and death? The idea of the eternal (11) —the
prospect of having to live one’s life over and over, every detail repeated, every pain alongside every
joy—becomes all the more (12) when one thinks about having to relive that life, to its terrible end.
Q.7)
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a) Parity
b) Familiarity
c) Disparity
d) Irregularity
Q.8)
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a) Hinder
b) Obstruct
c) Mask
d) Prevent
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Q.9)
a) Serenity
b) Complacency
c) Anguish
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d) Tranquility
Q.10)
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a) Concord
b) Conflict
c) Truce
d) Variance
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Q.11)
a) Reciprocation
b) Return
c) Mayhem
d) Peace
Q.12)
a) Tenuous
b) Mirthful
c) Plucky
d) Potent
S.13–14) Direction for Questions: Four alternative summaries are given. Choose the option that
captures the essence of the text.
Q.13) India is a vast country with second highest population in the world. It is a country with diverse
cultures, traditions and beliefs. People in India celebrate unity in diversity. Festivals like Diwali, Holi,
Navratri, Ramzan, Christmas etc. are celebrated by people across India and create a sense of
brotherhood and cultural unity. Similarly, people in India practice various religions and speak
different languages. There are 23 different languages spoken in India. It is the birth place of religions
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such as Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism. People in India have diverse dressing styles,
different food habits and customs that differ from place to place. Indian cuisine is famous across the
world.
a) People with different castes, creed, color, cultures, customs, traditions and beliefs live in harmony
in India, which is a perfect example of unity in diversity.
b) People of India celebrate unity in diversity by practicing different religions, celebrating festivals
with cultural unity, speaking 23 languages, and sharing in harmony different food, customs, and
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dressing styles.
c) India is a place where unity in diversity is practiced as people celebrate festivals like Diwali, Holi,
Navratri, Ramzan, Christmas etc., creating a sense of brotherhood and cultural unity.
d) India is a vast country and people of India create unity in diversity by practicing different religions
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such as Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism.
Q.14) India attracts many tourists from across the world, largely on the account of its historical
buildings built centuries ago. Some of its well known historical monuments include Taj Mahal in
Agra, Qutub Minar in Delhi, Amer Fort in Rajasthan, Ajanta and Ellora Caves in Maharashtra,
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Virupaksha Temple in Karnataka, Kornak Temple in Odisha. These monuments attract many tourists
and devotees from around the globe. Indian architecture is a fusion of local ancient traditions and
imported styles. The vernacular architecture blends regional flavors.
a) India is a popular tourist destination across the world, largely due to its historical buildings built
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centuries ago using vernacular architecture that blends regional flavors and imported styles.
b) Taj Mahal in Agra, Qutub Minar in Delhi, Amer Fort in Rajasthan, Ajanta and Ellora Caves in
Maharashtra, Virupaksha Temple in Karnataka, Kornak Temple in Odisha are some of the most well
historical monuments of India which attract many tourists from across the world.
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c) India attracts tourists to visit various historical monuments. Examples of a few well known
historical buildings include Taj Mahal in Agra, Qutub Minar in Delhi, Amer Fort in Rajasthan, and
Kornak Temple in Odisha.
d) Various historical monuments in India are a fusion of local ancient traditions and imported styles,
that attract tourists and devotees from around the globe.
S.15–19) Direction for Questions: For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from
the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
Q.15) Undeceive: He promptly undeceived the young woman about the sincerity of the man’s
intentions.
a) Disillusioned
b) Repudiated
c) Disenchanted
d) Disabused
Q.16) Convalesce: He is convalescing from influenza.
a) Suffering
b) Recuperating
c) Healing
d) Mending
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Q.17) Sporadic: Although she made sporadic movie appearances, she was essentially a stage actress.
a) Intermittent
b) Patchy
c) Spasmodic
d) Discerning
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Q.18) Mendicant: My father also gave me quarters to give to homeless, mendicant men along the
route, even though our family was very poor.
a) Cadging
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b) Scrounging
c) Mooching
d) Extenuating
Q.19) Temporize: The opportunity was missed because the queen still temporized
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a) Equivocated
b) Prevaricated
c) Pulverized
d) Dithered
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S.20–21) Direction for Questions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
Street art is an individual act that speaks of a chronic lack of consideration for anyone else. Its
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creators think they know best. They decide what, when and where. The people who live there, and
must live with it, don’t have a say. There is no ‘demand’ for street art from ordinary people, and
there is no consensual or participatory impulse on the part of the artist. It is only one person’s view
of what should be and what is good for ordinary people. It is the act of an entitled, middle–class
narcissist. It is a scourge, a suffocating and imposing pox on the urban landscape. It is anti–social.
Q.20) A Street artist is most likely:
a) A believer in the principles of democracy

b) Anything but altruistic
c) A person with self–effacing demeanour
d) An incorrigible with a criminal bent
Q.21) Street art is all but:
a) Participatory
b) Suffocating
c) Imposing
d) Anti–social
S.22–24) Direction for Questions: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined.
Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated.
Choose the best alternative among the four options.
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Q.22) The board of directors believes that the reason for alarming decline in sales is that the
concerned department doesn’t know much about design and strategy.
a) that sales are alarmingly declining is that the department is concerned a little about design and
strategy
b) that the concerned department knows a little about design and strategy
c)That the concerned department knows little about design and strategy
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d) that sales are witnessing a decline is because the concerned department is alarmed to know little
about design as well as strategy
Q.23) The young scholars may be edgy due to the new guidelines but they have Hobson’s choice on
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the issue.
a) They see some hope in the future

b) They have a say on the issue
c) They have no choice on the issue
d) They have a lot of choice on the issue
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Q.24) The resignations were tantamount to an admission of guilt.
a) Were equivalent to admission of guilt

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b) Were an obstacle to admission of guilt

c) Immediately led to admission of guilt
d) Eventually led to admission of guilt
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S.25–27) Direction for Questions: In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a
pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one
expressed in the original pair.
Q.25) Advice : Advise
a) Effect : Affect
b) Practise : Practice
c) Uninterested : Disinterested
d) Cite : Site
Q.26) Doleful : Sanguine
a) Zestful : Buoyant
b) Garrulous : Taciturn
c) Mettlesome : Intrepid
d) Prodigal : Improvident
Q.27) Annotate : Text
a) Screen : Film
b) Perform : Dance
c) Prologue : Novel
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d) Caption : Photograph
S.28–37) Direction for Questions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. The paradox of the modern dictator is that he must create the illusion of mass support while
turning the population into a nation of terrorised prisoners endlessly condemned to faking
enthusiasm for their oppressor. Frank Dikötter, a brilliant historian with a prize–winning trilogy on
Mao’s China behind him, takes eight of the most successful 20th–century dictators: Mussolini, Hitler,
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Stalin, Mao Zedong, Kim Il–sung, Nicolae Ceausescu, Papa Doc Duvalier and Mengistu, and shows
with chilling brevity and clarity how this is done.
2. The road to dictatorship is depressingly predictable. Once power is stolen, the problem is to keep
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it. Anyone who might develop a separate power base must be struck down. Eradicate rivals, rule
through force and fear. Trust no one, particularly family, friends and the army. Keep everyone on
their toes with random executions, unpredictable policy changes and imaginative public tortures. So
far, so historic. It could be a Shakespeare play. What distinguishes modern tyranny, Dikötter argues,
is the cult of personality. Total control of the information space keeps the modern dictator in power.
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3. Each dictator’s story is told one by one. They overlap and learn from each other, but all learn from
Mussolini, pioneer of modern political theatre and master of propaganda. Actor, stage manager,
orator and self–publicist, Mussolini allowed his ideology to remain vague while spending more than
half of his time curating his image. Italy was a newspaper with Mussolini writing the front page every
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day. He knew that a picture of him taking flying lessons was worth any number of carefully argued
editorials. After his first propaganda radio broadcast in 1925, 40,000 free radios were distributed to
elementary schools between 1933 and 1938. By the onset of the Second World War, subsidised sets
numbered 800,000 and loudspeakers had been installed in town squares. His message was
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inescapable.
4. The dictator must establish omnipresence. “Like a god, he observes you from every angle,” wrote
a French journalist. There was no escaping the godlike gaze even in the bathroom, where Mussolini’s
image was moulded into bars of soap. The lights were kept burning all night in his office. The legend
of his all–seeing eyes was intensified by Goth–style eye make–up in posters, newsreels and the
publicity shots included with his “personal” replies to 1,887,112 individual petitions. Mussolini
considered himself the greatest actor in Italy. His performances were rehearsed endlessly in front of
the camera. He was jealous of Greta Garbo.
5. The dictator must never be predictable. This would engender a feeling of security both at home
and abroad. In 1940, Mao promised “a multi–party system, democratic freedoms and protection of
private property”. Two years later, he smartly reversed the policy with the Rectification Campaign,
which uprooted anything privately owned, including independent thought. Witch–hunts,
denunciations, inquisitions, executions and purges resulted in the triumphant announcement that
the Rectification Campaign had guaranteed ideological and political unanimity in the party. And so
finally, in 1945, he got what he wanted: his thoughts were enshrined in the party constitution.
6. Once he has reached a degree of security at home, the dictator must establish his reputation as a
good egg abroad. Another wearisome pattern emerges. Enter the useful idiot, the foreign influencer
who can be fooled by fireside chats and a tour of carefully curated Potemkin countryside populated
by merry peasants. Who wants to believe that millions were killed and entire cities starved into
submission? Certainly not George Bernard Shaw, the best–known useful idiot. Bamboozled by Stalin
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on a visit to Russia in 1931, Shaw was thereafter determined to keep the scales on his eyes,
dismissing real news as fake and continuing, despite the evidence, to worship nice, sweet “Uncle
Joe”, for the next 20 years until he died in 1950, breathing his last beneath a portrait of his hero.
7. Once credentials are established abroad, and the international tiger is off his back, the dictator is
much safer at home. Constantly and inexorably, new purges unfold. The greater the misery the
greater the propaganda, and the greater the tyrant’s insecurity. Even as terror increases and millions
are displaced and starved, a peculiar pattern emerges: the dictator writes a book. Other people’s
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books get burned as the vanity project progresses.
8. Finally, the dictator takes the place of God. In a post–religious century, faith in a providential
leader serves as a substitute for religion. Shrines to Lenin and Stalin sprang up in the traditional Red
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Corner in Russian houses, where icons used to hang. Mao asked wonderingly, “What is wrong with
worship?” But it is Papa Doc Duvalier in Haiti who doesn’t just allow himself to be put there. He
grabs God’s reins, claiming to be a voodoo spirit and naming his militia the Tonton Macoutes –
bogeymen within the iconography of the voodoo religion.
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9. Dictators are indeed anti–experts who surround themselves with sycophants promoted regardless
of experience or knowledge, and this may ring some bells. Trump may lie, Boris Johnson may have
said he wanted to be world king, but to mention dictatorship in the same breath is to trivialise. What
we are living through is democracy in action. But we’d better not forget that power can easily be
stolen. Eternal vigilance, after all, is the price of liberty.
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Q.28) Author’s attitude towards dictators is
a) Critical
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b) Ironical
c) Sarcastic
d) Derisive
Q.29) The author ends the passage on the note of
a) Cautious Optimism
b) Optimism
c) Pessimism
d) Pragmatism
Q.30) According to the author
a) If dictator’s credentials are established abroad, s/he is safe at home.

b) Not all political leaders who exhibit traits of a dictator go on to become one.
c) Unless we constantly monitor and question the actions of those in power, we may have to witness
them slide to the position of a dictator.
d) All the above
Q.31) Why, according to the author, is that the road to dictatorship is depressingly predictable?
a) It’s a fallacy as the author mentions in the passage that the dictator must never be predictable.
b) The dictator reads Dikötter’s book and does everything mentioned in it.
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c) Witch–hunts, denunciations, inquisitions, executions and purges are depressing to witness.

d) It’s because one wrong often leads to another, and dictators often have to increase the intensity
of wrongdoings to stay in power, thereby leading to predictability of their actions.
Q.32) According to the author, which of the following are true about the paradox of the modern
dictator?
a) Support from the masses.
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b) Nation free from terrorism
c) Fake enthusiasm for the oppressor
d) Both a and c
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Q.33) As per the passage, all of the following are exercised by a dictator to assume total and final
control, except…
a) Increasing the propaganda by controlling the information space

b) Engendering a feeling of security both at home and abroad
c) Manifesting a ubiquitous presence
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d) Establishing credentials abroad
Q.34) According to the author, Mao’s Rectification Campaign of 1942 overturned which of his earlier
promises?
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(i) Multi–party system

(ii) Democratic freedoms
(iii) Protection of private property
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a) Only (i)
b) Only (iii)
c) Both (ii) and (iii)
d) All of the above
Q.35) Which of the following is true about the ‘Useful Idiot’, as projected in the passage?
a) He is a local influencer
b) Blindly believes what the dictator says and/or shows
c) Sways the public opinion by his disingenuity
d) All of the above
Q.36) All of the following keep the modern dictator in power, except…
a) Keeping the trust circle small

b) Making random and unpredictable policy changes
c) Exercising control of information
d) Eradication of rivals through force and/or fear
Q.37) Which of the following is not true about Mussolini?
a) He hated Greta Garbo

b) His image was moulded into bars of soap
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c) He distributed 40,000 free radios to elementary schools

d) He was considered the greatest actor in Italy
S.38–40) Direction for Questions: Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalised word.
Q.38) PROGNOSTICATE
a) Delay
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b) Augur
c) Dally
d) Blithe
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Q.39) ASSUAGE
a) Palliate
b) Vanquish
c) Enunciate
d) Reckon
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Q.40) LITHE
a) Neophyte
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b) Catechumen
c) Limber
d) Stiff
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Section–II: General Knowledge

Q.41) Festival of Athi Vardar, celebrated recently at the Varadaraja Perumal Temple, was held in
which of the following states?
a) Karnataka
b) Assam
c) Maharashtra
d) Tamil Nadu
Q.42) Which Indian batting icon has been inducted into the International Cricket Council’s (ICC) Hall
of Fame alongside South African pace legend Allan Donald recently?
a) Sachin Tendulkar
b) Virat Kohli
c) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
d) Rohit Sharma
Q.43) The demand of separate electorates, made by the Muslim league, was conceded by the
government for the first time in which of the following acts?
a) Government of India Act, 1935
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b) Government of India Act, 1919

c) Government of India Act, 1909
d) India Independence Act, 1947
Q.44) Inter Bank Transfer enables electronic transfer of funds from the account of the remitter in
one Bank to the account of the beneficiary maintained with any other Bank branch. Reserve Bank of
India has decided to waive off NEFT/RTGS charges from
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a) 1 August, 2019
b) 15 August, 2019
c) 1 July, 2019
d) 1 June, 2019
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Q.45) Which city hosted first International Security Alliance (ISA)’s joint security exercise ISALEX19,
where representatives of 50 law enforcement agencies took part?
a) Riyadh
b) Islamabad
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c) Manama
d) Abu Dhabi
Q.46) Match list I with II and select the best options:

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List I (Organisation/Centers) List II (Location)

A. Defence Services Staff College 1. Wellington
B. National Defence College 2. Delhi
C. Indian Military Academy 3. Dehra Dun
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D. Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School 4. Vairengte
a) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4

b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
c) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
d) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
Q.47) In a strategically significant move, the government has decided to fast–track integration of
Brahmos supersonic cruise missiles into fighter jets. Which fighter jets have been chosen?
a) MIG–21
b) Tejas
c) Sukhoi Su–30
d) Dassault Rafale
Q.48) The Union Cabinet has approved the setting up of ISRO Technical Liaison Unit (ITLU) in which
city?
a) Paris
b) Moscow
c) Berlin
d) Singapore
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Q.49) Which among the following countries has recently passed a bill that allows Altruistic surrogacy
but bans commercial surrogacy?
a) India
b) Maldives
c) Pakistan
d) Sri Lanka
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Q.50) According to Guinness World Records, which is the oldest stock exchange in the world?
a) Bombay Stock Exchange

b) Toronto Stock Exchange
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c) Euronext Amsterdam
d) Madrid Stock Exchange
Q.51) Which among the following countries has recently planned to shift its capital to area of
minimal risk of natural disasters?
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a) Myanmar
b) China
c) Japan
d) Indonesia
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Q.52) Prime Minister of India attended an Informal BRICS leader meeting in June 2019. Name the
city where this meeting was held?
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a) Colombo
b) Beijing
c) Osaka
d) Male
Q.53) What is India’s ranking in the global GDP rankings in 2018 according to latest data compiled by
the World Bank?
a) 3rd
b) 4th
c) 6th
d) 7th
Q.54) On September 23, 2019, which among the following central government scheme completed
one year of operation?
a) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

b) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Yojana
c) Ayushman Bharat– Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM–JAY)
d) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Q.55) Which of the railway zones is not correctly matched with its Headquarters?
(Railway zones) (Headquarters)
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a) Eastern : Kolkata
b) Southern : Chennai
c) East Central : Hajipur
d) Central : Allahabad
Q.56) SAMARTH, is an initiative to bring Indian artisans, weavers, and makers of handicrafts to its
platform, launched recently by which ecommerce company?
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a) Amazon
b) Flipkart
c) ebay
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d) Myntra
Q.57) The task force on offshore rupee markets, set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI, has
suggested that Indian banks be allowed to freely offer prices to global clients around the clock.
Name the head of task force.
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a) Usha Thorat
b) Injeti Srinivas
c) Bimal Jalan
d) Shaktikanta Das
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Q.58) In line with the government’s promise to focus on water, Central government has launched
‘Jal Shakti’ scheme. This scheme aims to bring –
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a) Water for irrigation purpose to villages

b) drinking water for water–starved areas
c) to cleanse water logged areas
d) to remove soil erosion
Q.59) Who among the following won 2019 Monaco Grand Prix held on 26 May 2019?
a) Sebastian Vettel
b) Valtteri Bottas
c) Max Verstappen
d) Lewis Hamilton
Q.60) The famous Sattriya dance, which is a combination of music, dance and drama, is associated
with which of the following states?
a) Assam
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Manipur
Q.61) Who among the following was the court poet of Harsha and the author of Harshacharita and
Kadambari?
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a) Harisena
b) Bana
c) Aryabhatta
d) Kalhana
Q.62) Name the winner of women’s British Golf Open 2019, who is also nicknamed the ‘Smiling
Cinderella’?
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a) Jeanne–Marie Busuttil
b) Carlota Ciganda
c) Laura Diaz
d) Hinako Shibuno
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Q.63) What is the name of humanoid robot that was launched by Russia in August 2019 to the
International Space Station?
a) Sophia
b) Fyodor
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c) Asimo
d) Sanbot
Q.64) Whom did Shahuji, the Emperor of the Maratha Kingdom, made the Peshwa in 1713?
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a) Madhav Rao
b) Bajirao I
c) Balaji Vishwanath
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d) Narayan Rao
Q.65) 54th Jnanpith Award for “outstanding contribution to the enrichment of Indian Literature in
English” has been conferred on …………….
a) Amitav Ghosh
b) Bhalachandra Nemade
c) G. Sankara Kurup
d) Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain
Q.66) Cyclops is a computer system which is used as an electronic line judge in which sports?
a) Hockey
b) Lawn Tennis
c) Football
d) Kabaddi
Q.67) Which of the following statements about the structure of the Earth is not correct?
a) The lower part of its crust is mantle.

b) Crust is made of nickel and ferrum.
c) Crust and upper part of mantle are known as lithosphere.
d) Outer core is in liquid state, whereas inner core is in solid state
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Q.68) The correct chronological order of movements led by Mahatma Gandhi is:
a) Kheda–Chaparan–Khilafat–Dandi
b) Champaran–Kheda–Khilafat–Dandi
c) Champaran–Khilafat–Kheda–Dandi
d) Kheda–Khilafat–Champaran–Dandi
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Q.69) Climate Change and Land, is a special report on climate change, desertification, land
degradation, sustainable land management, food security, and greenhouse gas fluxes in terrestrial
ecosystems, released by
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a) FAO
b) IPCC
c) WTO
d) UNESCO
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Q.70) Which among the following cell organelles are often called the powerhouses of the cell?
a) Lysosomes
b) Ribosomes
c) Golgi Bodies
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d) Mitochondria
Q.71) As per the recent steps taken by the government to revive the economy, public sector banks
like Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank would be merged with which among the following
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banks?
a) State Bank of India

b) Punjab and Sindh Bank
c) Bank of Baroda
d) Punjab National Bank
Q.72) Which among the following railway stations became 5000th railway station to be wi–fi
enabled?
a) Mumbai
b) Sabarmati
c) Midnapore
d) Maldah
Q.73) Who among the following has been appointed the first Lokpal of India or anti–corruption
watchdog?
a) Dilip B Bhosale
b) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
c) Archana Ramasundaram
d) Dinesh Kumar Jain
CP/20/C14
Q.74) Name one of world’s largest Integrated Online Junction for School Education launched by
Ministry of Human Resource Development.
a) Shagun
b) Shiksha Vani
c) UMANG
d) ROSHNI
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Q.75) As per the Union Budget, 2019–20, individual taxpayers with upto how much annual income
will get full tax rebate and hence will not be required to pay any tax?
a) Rs 450,000
00
b) Rs 300,000
c) Rs 250,000
d) Rs 500,000
Q.76) Which agency has announced “Vikram Sarabhai Journalism Award in Space Science,
Technology and Research” recently?
60
a) ISRO
b) DRDO
c) Department of Biotechnology
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d) Kerala Government
Q.77) A two year joint initiative, the Innovation for Clean Air (IfCA), has been launched by India in
collaboration with which among the following countries?
18
a) USA
b) UK
c) Japan
d) Russia
Q.78) The uninhabited islets in the Aegean Sea, known as Kardak islets, or Imia have been the
subject of much friction between
a) Spain and Greece

b) Greece and Turkey
c) Turkey and Armenia
d) Egypt and Israel
Q.79) In February 2019, Union Government released a Commemorative Stamp for which religious
and cultural festival?
a) Urs of Dargah Sharif, Ajmer

b) Gudhi Padwa
c) Kumbh Mela, Prayagraj
d) Baisakhi at Amritsar
Q.80) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
CP/20/C14
a) Sriharsha Majety, Nandan Reddy, and Rahul Jaimini–Swiggy

b) Bhavish Aggarwal and Ankit Bhati –MakeMyTrip
c) Vijay Sekhar Sharma–Paytm
d) Bipin Preet Singh and Upasana Taku–MobiKwik
Q.81) Which among the following cities in India hosted the National Games for first time after
independence?
81
a) Lucknow
b) New Delhi
c) Jalandhar
00
d) Hyderabad
Q.82) Next Generation Maritime Mobile Coastal Batteries (NGMMCB) for the Indian Navy has been
approved, which would be developed and manufactured in India by which organization?
a) DRDO
60
b) Brahmos Aerospace pvt ltd
c) Ordinance Factory, Jabalpur
d) BDL
11
Q.83) Which sports personality became the first Indian to win BWF World Championships gold, held
in Basel?
a) Jwala Gutta
18
b) P. Kashyap
c) P.V. Sindhu
d) Saina Nehwal
Q.84) Which state government has launched its exclusive education TV channel, aimed at benefiting
students of classes I to XII in August 2019?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Karnataka
d) Uttar Pradesh
Q.85) Country’s first elephant rehabilitation centre would be set up in
a) Mathura
b) Kottoor
c) Kurnool
d) Varanasi
Q.86) As per Union Finance Minister’s budget speech (2018–19), two Defence Industrial Corridors
(DIC) in the country are proposed. Name the states where DIC would be set up.
a) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
CP/20/C14
b) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.

c) Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
d) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Q.87) The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016, has led to protests in the North–East after its passage
in the Lok Sabha, with regard to that consider the following statements:
1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016 aims to provide citizenship to those who had been forced
to seek shelter in India because of religious persecution or fear of persecution in their home
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countries.
2. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016, aims to provide citizenship to primarily Hindus, Sikhs,
Jains, Buddhists, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
00
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.88) Who among the following was/were awarded the 2019 Tyler Prize for Environmental
Achievement?
a) Michael Mann
11
b) Warren Washington
c) Madhav Gadgil
d) Both a and b
18
Q.89) How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in insurance intermediaries in India was proposed
in Union Budget 2019–20 presented on 5th July 2019?
a) 51%
b) 100%
c) 49%
d) 76%
Q.90) Union Minister of Health recently has announced to set up a National Genomic Grid to bring
disease research in the country to the next level. This is primarily focused towards which
disease/ailment?
a) Cancer
b) Tuberculosis
c) AIDS
d) Diabetes
Section–III: Numeric Aptitude
CP/20/C14
 8 5 1  1 1 3
 17  6  2    2  1  2 
Q.91) Find the approximate value of 
11 17 9  9 17 11 
 2 14 1
 12  1 of 3 
 3 15 3
a) 11
b) 2
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c) 17
d) 0.5
178 365 279

Q.92) Arrange the following fraction in ascending order – , ,
257 503 302
00
279 365 178
a) , ,
302 503 257
178 365 279
b) , ,
257 503 302
60
365 178 279
c) , ,
503 257 302
365 279 178
d) , ,
503 302 257
11
Q.93) Let N be a greatest number of 5 digit which when divided by 15, 20 and 24 leaves in each case
the remainder 7. The sum of the digits of N is –
18
a) 40
b) 42
c) 38
d) 36
0.675  0.54  0.003 27

Q.94) A student when asked to simplify the expression , his answer was .
0.625  0.081  0.64 400
What is the difference between his answer and the correct answer?
27
a)
400
27
b)
300
27
c)
800
27
d)
200
Q.95) When 2392, 4012 and 3337 are divided by the greatest number n, the remainder in each case
is m. The value of n – m is
a) 93
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b) 35
c) 47
d) 38
Q.96) ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon. Angle bisectors of two adjacent angles A and B meets at P.
Find angle APB?
a) 65o
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b) 75o
c) 45o
d) 90o
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Q.97) Amit saves 30% of her monthly salary. Now his expenditure increases by 10% and savings by
130
%. The present increase in his salary is
3
a) 20%
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b) 40%
c) 30%
d) 25%
Q.98) A sum amounts to Rs 41400 in one year and 47610 in 2 years at a certain rate of compound
11
interest. The same sum will become how much in 2/3 years at the same rate of interest?
a) 38500
b) 36900
18
c) 40100
d) 39600
Q.99) The marked price of an article is 16.66% more than its cost price. If now it is sold at 14.28%
discount, what will be the profit %?
a) 10%
b) 0%
c) 6.66%
d) –6.66%
Q.100) Mike sells an article to Jesse at 62.5% profit. Jesse sells it to Gus at 25% profit. Gus sells it to
Tuco at 11.11% loss. If Tuco paid Rs 260 for the article, then what is the cost price of the article for
Mike?
a) 180
b) 172
c) 144
d) 160
CP/20/C14
Q.101) The number of soldiers in the surgical strike was x and their average weight was 70 kg. If 5
soldiers each weighing 52 kg join the group or if 10 soldiers each weighing 76 kg leaves the group,
the average weight in both the cases remains the same. The value of x is
a) 25
b) 30
c) 40
d) 45
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Q.102) In a 60 L solution of two liquids A and B, A is 80%. A person takes out 15 L of the solution and
adds 10 L of A and 5 L of B in the remaining solution. What is the percentage of A in the final
solution?
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a) 76.66%
b) 82.3%
c) 75.2%
d) 78.5%
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Q.103) 15 men and 18 women can do a job in 10 days. 70 men and 105 women can do the same job
in 2 days. How many women are required with 25 men to complete the same job in 5 days?
a) 51
11
b) 48
c) 60
d) 40
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Q.104) X is inversely proportional to Y2 . If Y increases by 20%, then X decreases by how much

percentage?
a) 20%
b) 24.5%
c) 30.5%
d) 27.5%
Q.105) Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 10 hr and 20 hr respectively. Pipes C and D can empty the tank
in 30 and 40 hr respectively. Pipe A is opened at 5 am, B at 6 am, C at 7 am and D at 8 am. When the
tank is filled up completely?
a) 1:13 pm
b) 12:58 pm
c) 2:13 pm
d) 2:54 pm
Q.106) If a man travels at 45 km/hr, he reaches his destination in time. One day he travelled 1/3rd of
the distance in 1/4th of the total usual travel time. At what speed he needs to travel the remaining
distance in order to reach destination just in time?
a) 50 km/hr
b) 36 km/hr
CP/20/C14
c) 40 km/hr
d) 30 km/hr
Q.107) The parallel sides of the trapezium shaped field are 40m and 76m respectively and non
2
parallel sides are 29m and 25m. What is the area (in m ) of the field?
a) 1160
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b) 1250
c) 1520
d) 960
   
Q.108) k kl  m2  m ml  k2  l 2mk  lk  ml  is factored as –
00
a)  k  l  m  k  m  l 
b)  k  l  m  k  l  m 
c)  k  l  m  k  l  m 
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d)  k  l  m  k  m  l 
Q.109) Three fair dice are thrown. What is the probability that sum of numbers on their top is 15?
11
a) 5/54
b) 9/216
c) 5/108
d) 1/27
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Q.110) Nine dices are stacked on the floor as shown in the figure below. On each dice, the sum of
numbers on opposite faces is 7, i.e. if 1 is written on one face then 6 is written on face opposite it
and so on.
What is the maximum sum on 29 visible faces?
a) 110
b) 120
c) 105
d) 100
Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

Q.111) PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the
possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property, such taking is said to
commit theft.
CP/20/C14
FACT: JACK cuts down a tree on JIMMY’S ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree
out of JIMMY’S possession without JIMMY’S consent. JACK could not take the tree away.
a) JACK can be prosecuted for theft

b) JACK cannot be prosecuted for theft
c) JACK can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
d) JACK has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft
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Q.112) PRINCIPLE: injuria sine damnum i.e. injury without damage.
FACT: Amit, was a holding an account in the bank of the defendant. Though there was sufficient
amount of money in Amit’s account, but when Amit tried to withdraw some money via self–cheque,
he was not allowed to do the same without any sufficient reasoning from the bank officials for their
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act. Amit filed a suit against the banker who had refused to honour Amit’s cheque.
a) Amit can sue bank as his cheque was not honoured which is a violation of fundamental right.
b) Amit can sue bank on the ground that his cheque was not honoured, which is a legal right.
c) Amit cannot sue bank because there is no injury or damage cause to Amit.
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d) Amit cannot sue bank because Amit suffered no monetary loss.
Q.113) PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at
the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as
to its effect upon his interests.
11
FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract
with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Mr. X now wishes to set aside the contract and file a suit
against Mr. Y who according to Mr. X took advantage of Mr. X’s unsound condition.
18
a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.
b) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of
unsound mind at the time of contract.
c) Mr. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind
at the time of contract.
d) None of the above.
Q.114) PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from
doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said
to make a proposal.
FACT: “Ramesh, who wanted to purchase the house of Suresh telegrammed to the Suresh, writing:
“Will you sell me your House for 10 lakhs?” Suresh replied, too by telegram that he would not sell his
house below 15 lakhs. Ramesh immediately sends his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to
buy your house for Rs. 15 lakhs as asked by you.’ Suresh did not sell the house to him. Ramesh sued
him for breach of contract.
a) He cannot refuse to sell the house because the contract has already been made.
b) He can refuse to sell the house because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer.
c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
Q.115) PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of
employment.
CP/20/C14
FACT: Collins is a driver working in Whittington and Co. One day, the Manager asked him to drop a
customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened
to see his friends Willy and Billy waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop them at home,
which happened to be close to his office. Collins allowed Willy to drive the car and soon thereafter;
the car somersaulted due to the negligence of Willy. Billy was thrown out of the car and suffered
multiple injuries. Billy seeks compensation from Whittington and Co.
a) Whittington and Co., shall be liable, because Collins was in the course of employment at the time
81
of accident
b) Billy can claim compensation from Willy as Willy was driving the car at the time of the accident.
c) Billy entered the car at his own risk, and therefore, he cannot sue anybody.
d) Whittington and Co., shall not be liable, Collins was not in the course of employment when he
00
allowed Willy to drive the car.
Q.116) PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person’s
use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.
FACT: During the scarcity of tomatoes, long queues were made outside the Mario’s shop who having
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a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of tomato per ration card. The queues
extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighboring shops. The
neighboring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against Mario.
a) The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in his favour

11
b) Mario was not liable for nuisance

c) Mario was liable under the principle of strict liability
d) Mario is liable for nuisance
18
Q.117) PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by
reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing
what is either wrong or contrary to law.
FACT: Anand takes his daughter Riya who is four years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his
daughter inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the
well to take a bath and take his daughter out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his
daughter was found dead.
a) Anand has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder

b) Anand has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of mind
c) Anand has committed murder
d) Anand’s family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to the well
Q.118) PRINCIPLE: ignorantia juris non excusaf and ingnorantia facit excusat.
FACT: Tywin was a passenger from Dubai to India in Emirates. When the plane landed at the airport
on 4th October 2000 it was discovered on search that Tywin was carrying 5 kgs of gold with him of
which he had no receipts. On 1st October 2000, the Government of India had issued a notification
modifying its earlier exception and mandating receipt of gold purchased to be produced before the
authorities.
a) Tywin cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification
issued only three days ago.
b) Tywin cannot be prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is excusable.
CP/20/C14
c) Tywin’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

d) Tywin will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable.
Q.119) PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid an act or
omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor. The neighbor for this purpose, is any
person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACT: Gaurav, while driving a car at high speed in a narrow lane, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist
suffered many injuries which led to a lot of blood spilling around, Rashmi, a pregnant woman passing
81
by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Rashmi filed a suit against Gaurav claiming
damages.
a) Gaurav will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road
00
including Rashmi
b) Gaurav will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Rashmi suffering from nervous
shock as a result of his act.
c) Gaurav will be liable to Rashmi because he failed to drive carefully
d) None of the above
60
Q.120) PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some special offences.
FACT: Rakesh purchases a pistol and keeps the same in his bag duly loaded in order to kill his enemy
Babloo in the evening. Unknown to Rakesh, his son takes out the pistol and shoots himself. In this
case:
11
a) He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone.

b) Rakesh is liable for the murder.
c) He is liable for culpable homicide
18
Q.121) PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made
certain, are void.
FACT: Rohan agreed to take Anjali’s house on rent for two years at the monthly rent of 8,000 per
month provided the house was properly repaired and was decorated ‘according to the present
style’.
a) This is a valid agreement.

b) This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what ‘according to
present style’ may mean to every individual.
c) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.
Q.122) PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a
contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it
is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to
speech.
FACT: A sells to B a car, which he knew to have a defective engine. A said nothing to B about the
defective engine of the car.
a) A can be held liable for fraud
CP/20/C14
b) A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the defectiveness of the
engine.
c) A can be held liable for misrepresentation
d) A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.
Q.123) PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody’s possession
without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.
FACT: Sam came to Andrew’s house to pay him a surprise visit. Sam was not present at his house.
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Andrew saw a pen lying on his table which Sam had borrowed from his friend. Since Sam had
promised to give him a pen, he thought that the pen was for him, took it and went away. Decide
a) Andrew can be held responsible for trespass to goods.
00
b) Andrew cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief.
c) Andrew has not committed any wrong.
Q.124) PRINCIPLE: “Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or
60
some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal
and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.”
FACT: Aman and Manan were neighbours in a residential locality. Manan opened a welding shop in
the backyard of his house and the sound of the welding machine disturbed Aman who could not put
up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Manan.
11
a) Manan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house
b) Manan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Aman’s delicate nature
c) Manan is not liable, because welding sound did not disturb anyone else other than Aman
18
Q.125) PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the
same offence twice.
FACT: Mangu who was travelling from India to Spain on a forged passport was arrested at the airport
for owning a forged passport and was convicted by the Spanish government. Later, the Indian
government charged him for owning a forged passport.
a) He cannot be prosecuted by the Indian Government because it would amount to double jeopardy.
b) He can be prosecuted because conviction by Indian Government cannot be equated to conviction
by Spanish Government.
c) Mangu should be convicted because he has violated the laws of both the countries.
Q.126) Assertion: Customs as they emanate from the people is per se law.
Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself is not law.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Q.127) Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property.
CP/20/C14
Reason: Idol is a juristic person with a distinct and separate legal entity in the eyes of law.

Q.128) Assertion: Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.
81
Reason: The ultimate end of law is to secure happiness and contentment to the society at large

00
Q.129) Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: Since, it enables everyone to have a view and share their opinions over various issues in a
democracy.
60
11
Q.130) Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be
punished.
18
Reason: A person who attempts to commit an offence may not succeed in it but, he/she is no
different from the person who succeeds as both have the mindset to commit an offence.

Q.131) Assertion: In India, some states have a common High Court.

Reason: The Constitution of India contains such provisions allowing this practice.

Q.132) Assertion: The President of India exercises executive control over the Council of Ministers at
the centre.
Reason: The President exercises the executive powers of the Union vested in him either directly or
through officers subordinate to him,

CP/20/C14

Q.133) Assertion: The Supreme Court can pass any order or decree as may be necessary for doing
complete justice in any matter pending before it.
Reason: The decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of
India.
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b) Both A and R are individually true Put R is not correct explanation of A
00
Q.134) Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
Democratic Republic.
Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and
accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard.
60
11
Q.135) Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
Reason: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th January 1930.
18

S.136–138) Direction for Questions: Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them
on the given fact situations and answer the question:
Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference
between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual
transaction has commenced ‘which ‘would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is
clearly an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and

2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation.
This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because
of facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
Q.136) Aditi, on scoring low in her exams started running towards roof of her house stating that she
would jump from it but she was caught before she could reach there.
a) She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before
jumping from the roof.
CP/20/C14
b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide

c) Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt
to commit suicide.
Q.137) Zack with an intention to pick–pocket puts his hand into Dwayne’s pocket, who has a loaded
pistol in his pocket. The moment Zack touches the pistol, the trigger goes on and Dwayne is shot
dead.
81
a) Zack will be liable only for attempting to pick–pocket and not for killing because she cannot be
treated differently from all other pick–pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and
same intention, with no risk of causing death and with no greater care to avoid it.
00
b) Zack will be liable for attempting to murder
c) Zack will be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as his intention was definitely
not to kill.
60
Q.138) Jack denied medicines to his wife Jill who was suffering from prolonged illness by keeping her
confined in her room with an intention to accelerate her death. However, Jill at the end manages to
escape.
a) Jack is guilty for attempt to murder his wife.

11
b) Jack is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife and he was only doing preparation.
c) Jack is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option to escape.
18
Q.139) The NDA led Government notified the and the Good and Service Tax Act. Under the new law,
33–member panel chaired by the will be responsible for modifying, reconciling or procuring any law
or regulation based on the context of goods and services tax in India.
a) 101st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2016, the Union Finance Minister.

b) 101st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2017, the Union Law Minister
c) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, the Prime Minister
d) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, the Revenue Secretary
Q.140) The Legislative Assembly passed a Good Samaritan Law.
a) Karnataka,
b) Madhya Pradesh,
c) Gujarat,
d) Maharashtra,
Q.141) The Supreme Court bench headed by …………… decriminalised Section _____ of the Indian
Penal Code.
a) Justice Deepak Misra & 377

b) Justice J.S. Khehar & 487
c) Justice T.S. Thakur & Section 370
d) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, section 377
CP/20/C14
Q.142) A bench headed by ordered demolition of …………… flats in Kerela as it violates the _____
a) Justice Arun Misra, Maradu, floor height plan regulations

b) Justice Arun Misra, Maradu, National Building Code
c) Justice Deepak Misra, Maradu, Coastal Regulation Zone
d) none of the above.
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Q.143) No one can be compelled to give a statement that is self–incriminating since:
1. It will be violative under Article 20 of the Indian Constitution.
2. It will be a violation of provision of Section 161 of CrPC
3. There is no such legal provision that entitles an individual to remain silent when asked for an
00
information which the individual is aware of.
a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) None is correct
60
Q.144) As prescribed by the Bar Council of India, what is the minimum experience required to be
able to practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India
11
a) Two years
b) Five years
c) Ten years
d) Seven years
18
Q.145) Union Government recently passed a bill for providing 10% reservation to Economically
Weaker Section. Choose from the below the criteria prescribed by the Government to qualify for
Economically Weaker Section:
1. Annual household income below Rs 8 lakh & Agriculture land below 5 acres.
2. Residential house below 1000 sqft.
3. Residential plot below 100 yards in notified municipality & Residential plot below 200 yards in
non–notified municipality area.
a) 1, 2 and 3 is correct
b) 1 & 2 is correct
c) 1 & 3 is correct
d) 2 & 3 is correct
Q.146) As per Indian Protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence?
a) Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration

b) Judges of Supreme Court
c) Chief Election Commissioner
d) Attorney General of India
Q.147) Consider the following statements and choose the best option:
CP/20/C14
1. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) can be a retired Chief Justice of
India.
2. Retd. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H. L Dattu is the present Chairperson of NHRC.
3. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is the senior most judge (after
CJI) of the Supreme Court of India.
4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice S.A. Bobde is the present Chairperson of NHRC.
a) 1 and 2 are correct
81
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) None is correct
00
Q.148) The Prime Minister is the ex officio chairman of the Niti Aayog. “Ex–officio” means:
a) unofficial
b) by virtue of one’s position or status
c) permanent and official
d) nominal
60
Q.149) What is ‘judgment1?
a) statement given by a judge on the grounds of decree or order.

11
b) formal expression of an adjudication determining the rights of the parties

c) formal expression of any decision which is not a decree
d) final order in a case or suit
18
Q.150) The temporary release of an accused person awaiting trial
a) Bail
b) Parole
c) Acquittal
d) Discharge
Q.151) The organizers of a concert allowed the venue to be over–crowded. In consequence, Lalit, in
the audience, got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answer –
a) Lalit can sue the organizers of the concert for the loss suffered.
b) Lalit cannot sue because he had given his consent to be present at the venue.
c) Lalit cannot sue the organizers of the concert because there was no infringement of legal right and
mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action.
Q.152) Choose the best option for the following statement:

The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Fraud is an intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may or may not be quite innocent.
2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, both fraud and simple misrepresentation under all
circumstances are a valid cause of action under torts irrespective of the fact whether the party has
sustained damages or not.
CP/20/C14
3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had “the means
of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence”. But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of
fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary
diligence”.
4. None of the above.
a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct.

b) 2 & 3 are correct.
81
c) Only 3 correct.
d) Only 4 is correct.
Q.153) In a recent judgement passed by the constitutional bench of the Supreme Court headed by
00
Retd. Chief Justice Dipak Misra, held that the temple’s practice of excluding women is
unconstitutional. It was held that the practice violated the fundamental rights to equality, liberty and
freedom of religion Articles 14, 15, 19(1), 21 and 25(1). It struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu
Places of Public Worship Act as unconstitutional.
a) Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M & ORS

60
b) Indian Young Lawyers Association V. State of Kerela
c) Rajamma V State of Kerela & Ors.
d) Smt. Sowmithri Vishnu vs Union Of India & Anr
11
Q.154) Select the correct statements on bench constituted to hear J&K issue:
1. A 5 judge bench has been constituted to hear the matter.
2. The petitions are relating to Article 370 of Indian Constitution
3. Five– judge bench is headed by Justice N V Ramana
18
a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b) 1 & 2 are correct
c) 1 & 3 are correct
Q.155) Select the correct statements about 15th Finance Commission

1. It will make recommendations for 5 years starting from, 1st April, 2020
2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor Y V Reddy.
3. It is headed by former bureaucrat Nand Kishore Singh.
4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance Commission.
5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was headed by K C Neogy & YV Reddy respectively.
a) 1, 3 & 5 are correct

b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
c) 1, 3 & 4 are correct
d) All are correct
Q.156) Who administers oath of office to the Chief Minister of a State?
a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state
c) Governor of the respective state
CP/20/C14
d) Speaker of State Assembly
Q.157) President can make Laws during recess of Parliament through :
a) Act
b) Bills
c) Notification
d) Ordinance
81
Q.158) President of India exercises his powers
a) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
00
b) Through ministers
c) Through Prime Minister
d) Through Cabinet
Q.159) Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi–Federal?

60
a) Austin
b) K. C. Wheare
c) H. M. Servai
d) Jennings
11
Q.160) Contingency Fund of India is meant for
a) Vote on the report of CAG

18
b) To meet unforseen expenditure

c) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
d) Budget
Section–V: Logical Reasoning

S.161–166) Direction for Questions:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a round circle facing the centre. All having
favourite colours viz. white, pink, red, green, yellow, purple, violet and orange. P is sitting second to
the left of R. U is sitting third left of person whose favourite colour is red. Person having favourite
colour green and violet are the neighbor of R. The person, who is opposite to W, does not like red
colour. Q favourite colour is green and he is sitting third to left of S. The person who like orange
colour is fourth right of person who like violet colour. T who like pink colour, is second right of U. S is
sitting second right of the person who like white colour. P is not adjacent of the person who like
green colour
Q.161) Whose favourite colour is orange ?
a) R
b) Q
c) V
CP/20/C14
d) U
Q.162) Which pair of persons is facing opposite each other?
a) R, T
b) P, V
c) S, Q
d) U, R
81
Q.163) Which of the following combination is definitely false according to the given information?
a) W – White
00
b) S – Yellow
c) R – Purple
d) P – Red
Q.164) Who is the person sitting opposite to S ?

60
a) P
b) R
c) T
d) W
11
Q.165) What is the favorite colour of V ?
a) White
18
b) Yellow
c) Purple
d) Pink
Q.166) What is the favorite colour of the person sitting immediate left of R
a) Purple
b) White
c) Violet
d) Pink
S.167–171) Direction for Questions:
Seven candidates, Ankur, Babita, Chintu, Divya, Ekta, Fateh, and Gautam, were invited to interview
for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 10 am. Immediately upon arrival,
they were sent to one of three interview rooms: X, Y, and Z. The following venue log shows the
arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the table and have
been marked as ‘?’.
Time 9:10 am 9:15 am 9:25 am 9:30 am 9:40 am 9:45 am

Person Ankur, ? ? ? Chintu Fateh ?
CP/20/C14
Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:

Babita: I was the third person to enter Room X.
Chintu: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Divya: I reached the venue after Gautam.
Ekta: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fateh: Three people including Ankur were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered
it.
Gautam: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room Y.
81
Q.167) In which room Gautam was allotted?
a) Room X
00
b) Room Y
c) Room Z
d) Either Room X or Room Y
Q.168) Who else was in Room Y when Gautam entered?

60
a) No one
b) Divya
c) Chintu
d) Ekta
11
Q.169) When did Ekta reach the venue?
a) 9:25 am
18
b) 9:45 am
c) 9:10 am
d) 9:15 am
Q.170) When did Babita enter the venue?
a) 9:45 am
b) 9:25 am
c) 9:15 am
d) 9:10 am
Q.171) How many persons are allotted in room X?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
S.172–175) Direction for Questions: Stud y the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, ‘Trivedi is last person’ is written as 4916, ‘Gochi is person demand’ is written as
3109 and ‘Trivedi demand good person’ is written as 7163.
CP/20/C14
Q.172) What is the code for ‘Gochi?
a) 3
b) 0
c) 1
d) 9
Q.173) What does ‘9’ stand for ?
81
a) Trivedi
b) last
c) is
00
d) demand
Q.174) Which of the following may represent ‘Trivedi demand pure Gochi’ ?
a) 6309
b) 5216
60
c) 6035
d) 3604
Q.175) What does ‘6’ stand for?

11
a) Trivedi
b) last
c) Gochi
18
d) demand
S.176–177) Direction for Questions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
A + B means ‘A is father of B’.

A × B means ‘A is brother of B’.
A – B means ‘A is mother of B’.
A ÷ B means ‘A is sister of B’.
Q.176) How P is related to T in the given relation P ÷ Q × R + T
a) Niece
b) Sister
c) Mother
d) Aunt
Q.177) Which of the following means ‘P is maternal uncle of Q’?
a) P ÷ R + U × Q
b) P × R ÷ U + Q
c) P – R ÷ U + Q
d) P × R – U ÷ Q
CP/20/C14
S.178–182) Direction for Questions: In the following question, a group of numerals is given followed
by four groups of symbol/letter combinations lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are to be coded
as per the codes and conditions.
You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your
answer accordingly.
81
Numerals: 4 2 5 8 0 6 3 1 7 9
Letter/symbol code: # B E G % C K & T N
Following conditions apply:
00
1. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as ‘P’.
2. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as ‘J’.
3. If the last digit is ‘0’, it is to be coded as $.
Q.178) Find out the combination for : 1037546

60
a) &$KTP#C
b) &$KTE#$
c) &%KTE#C
d) &%KTP#C
11
a) JCBEGJ
18
b) JCBEGN
c) TCBEGT
a) #KT%&C
b) PKT%&P
c) PKT%&C
a) $#EGE$
b) K#E%E$
c) K#EGE%
a) K#KB&%G
b) K#EB#%G
CP/20/C14
c) K#EB&%G
Q.183) Batman starts walking towards north and after 15 meter he take left turn. Then he takes a
right turn and travels 20 meter and again right turn and travel 30 meter. He finally takes a left turn
and travels 35 meter. In which direction is he heading now?
a) North
81
b) South
c) East
d) West
00
Q.184) Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in row facing north. S is not sitting at any extreme
end. Only Q is sitting to the right of P, who is not a neighbor of S. Then who is sitting fourth from the
right end of the row.
a) P
b) S
60
c) R
d) Data Insufficient
Q.185) If Tuesday falls on 23rd of July, which day will fall two days after the 15th of August in the
11
same year?
a) Sunday
b) Thursday
18
c) Saturday
d) Wednesday
Q.186) In the word SOMNAMBULLIST, if 1st and 9th letters, 2nd and 8th letters, 3rd and 7th letters,
4th and 10th letters and 5th and 11th letters are mutually interchanged then which letter will be 5th
letter from the left of 10th letter from the left side?
a) L
b) A
c) I
Q.187) Pawan is the father of Pulkit. Rohit is the brother of Pulkit. Ramesh is the son of Rohit. How is
Ramesh related to Pawan?
a) Son
b) Grandson
c) Father
d) Grandfather
Q.188) Guddu and Babblo are talking to each other, facing each other, in the morning. If Babloo
shadow is toward his left then in which direction Guddu is facing?
CP/20/C14
a) East
b) North
c) South
d) Can’t say
Q.189) Find the next term of series: 22, 26, 38, 62, 74, ?
a) 86
81
b) 92
c) 96
d) 102
00
S.190–192) Direction for Questions: From the alternatives given below.
Choose the best option that correctly classifies the four sentences as a :
F: Fact: If it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something
known to be true.
60
J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.
I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of
facts.
Q.190)
11
A. Every sportsperson has family commitments that suffer irreparably as he or she battles impossible
fitness and practice regimes.
B. Population surge is the biggest malaise in our growth, cited a study.
C. Based on the above facts, we can decide to go ahead with the plan
18
D. As per the Upanishads, you are what your deep driving desire is.
a) FJIJ
b) JFIF
c) FIFJ
d) IFFJ
Q.191)
A. The Cabinet minister definitely slipped up during his speech and finally presented his true intent.
B. Under the given circumstances, he needs to operate with more care and sympathy for his
colleagues.
C. The president is embarrassed due to his secretary’s lapse.
D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign.
a) JFFI
b) IFJI
c) FFJI
d) IFIJ
Q.192)
A. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop sensitivity and humanity.
B. Production boosts the economy but not more them consumption.
C. This budget is aimed at helping the local manufacturers.
CP/20/C14
D. The quality of goods does not necessarily change with increased competition just as prices do.
a) IJFJ
b) JFJI
c) IJJF
d) IFJJ
S.193–195) Direction for Questions: Question consists of five statements followed by options
81
consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which
indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the
preceding two statements.
00
Q.193)
A. Green house gases emanating from cars and exhausts increase our carbon imprints.
B. Increased carbon imprint is hazardous to health.
C. Car fumesare hazardous to health.
D. Some car fumes do not cause increase carbon monoxide.
60
E. Some car fumesare not hazardous to health
a) CBA
b) BDE
c) CDE
11
d) BAC
Q.194)
A. Most MBAs are in great demand.
18
B. Samrat and Akshita are in great demand.

C. Some MBAs are not technical careers
D. No technical career is in great demand
E. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs
a) ABE
b) DAC
c) AEB
d) EBA
Q.195)
A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers.
C. Infotech is a software company.
D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers.
a) ABC
b) ACB
c) CDB
d) ACE
CP/20/C14
S.196–198) Direction for Questions: The question contains two statements numbered I and II. You
have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question Read both the statements and give your answer as:
Answer (1) If the information in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the questions.
Answer (2) If the information in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the questions
Answer (3) If the information either in the statement 1 alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the questions
81
Answer (4) If the information even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer
the questions.
Q.196) Can a company function without good skilled manpower?
00
I. Skilled manpower is indispensable
II. A good company always ensures it has the best manpower.
a) Answer (1)
b) Answer (2)
c) Answer (3)
60
d) Answer (4)
Q.197) Are good manners an attribute of habit?

I. It is out of habit that people envy others
11
II. Men become slave of habits
a) Answer (1)
b) Answer (2)
18
c) Answer (3)
d) Answer (4)
Q.198) Does intelligence predict the child's ability to learn"?

I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment
II. It has been seen in a survey that intelligent children showed signs of picking up faster.
a) Answer (1)
b) Answer (2)
c) Answer (3)
d) Answer (4)
S.199–200) Direction for Questions: The question contains two statements and two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s)
from the two given statements.
Answer (1) If only conclusion I follows.

Answer (2) If only conclusion II follows.
Answer (3) If neither I nor II follows.
Answer (4) If both I and II follows.
Q.199)
CP/20/C14
Statements:
I. Some players are singers.
II. All singers are tall.
Conclusions:
I. Some players are tall.
II. All players are tall.
a) Answer (1)
81
b) Answer (2)
c) Answer (3)
d) Answer (4)
00
Q.200)
Statements:
I. Some vegetables are fruits.
II. No fruit is black.
Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are vegetables.
60
II. No vegetable is black.
a) Answer (1)
b) Answer (2)
11
c) Answer (3)
d) Answer (4)
18

Mock Clat-14 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

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CP/20/C14

S.4–6) Direction for Questions: Identify the incorrect sentence/ sentences.

Q.16) Convalesce: He is convalescing from influenza.

Q.20) A Street artist is most likely:

a) A believer in the principles of democracy

Q.21) Street art is all but:

a) They see some hope in the future

a) Were equivalent to admission of guilt

b) Were an obstacle to admission of guilt

Q.25) Advice : Advise

Q.26) Doleful : Sanguine

Q.27) Annotate : Text

Q.28) Author’s attitude towards dictators is

Q.29) The author ends the passage on the note of

Q.30) According to the author

a) If dictator’s credentials are established abroad, s/he is safe at home.

c) Witch–hunts, denunciations, inquisitions, executions and purges are depressing to witness.

a) Support from the masses.

a) Increasing the propaganda by controlling the information space

(i) Multi–party system

a) Keeping the trust circle small

Q.37) Which of the following is not true about Mussolini?

a) He hated Greta Garbo

c) He distributed 40,000 free radios to elementary schools

Section–II: General Knowledge

a) Government of India Act, 1935

b) Government of India Act, 1919

Q.46) Match list I with II and select the best options:

List I (Organisation/Centers) List II (Location)

D. Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School 4. Vairengte

a) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4

a) Bombay Stock Exchange

a) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

a) Water for irrigation purpose to villages

a) The lower part of its crust is mantle.

a) State Bank of India

a) Spain and Greece

a) Urs of Dargah Sharif, Ajmer

Q.80) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Sriharsha Majety, Nandan Reddy, and Rahul Jaimini–Swiggy

Q.85) Country’s first elephant rehabilitation centre would be set up in

a) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

b) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.

Section–III: Numeric Aptitude

178 365 279

0.675  0.54  0.003 27

Q.104) X is inversely proportional to Y2 . If Y increases by 20%, then X decreases by how much

What is the maximum sum on 29 visible faces?

Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

a) JACK can be prosecuted for theft

a) The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in his favour

b) Mario was not liable for nuisance

a) Anand has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c) Tywin’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

a) He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone.

d) None of the above

a) This is a valid agreement.

a) A can be held liable for fraud

a) Andrew can be held responsible for trespass to goods.

d) None of the above.

a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

Q.127) Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property.

a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A