Mock Clat - 34: (Question Paper)

CP/20/C34
MOCK CLAT – 34
(Question Paper)
Section – I: English Language
S.1–7) Directions for questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on topics that arise
out of the excerpted passage. Answers may be implied by facts mentioned in the passage but need
not be so. Please answer each question on its own merit on the basis of your knowledge of current
affairs and general knowledge.
Passage 1
OXFORD, England — Twitter has been taunting us: When he was in quarantine from the plague,
William Shakespeare wrote “King Lear.”
He had an advantage, of sorts: Shakespeare’s life was marked by plague. Just weeks after his
baptism at Holy Trinity Church in Stratford–upon–Avon in 1564, the register read, “Hic incepit
pestis” (Here begins the plague). Mortality rates in the town were four times that of the previous,
plague–free year. Shakespeare, the son of the town’s glover, survived it and many further outbreaks.
Much of his work was composed, if not in lockdown, then in the shadow of a highly infectious
disease without a known cure.
While the theaters were closed for an epidemic in 1592–3, the fledgling playwright produced his
hugely successful narrative poems “Venus and Adonis” (a piece of beautiful erotica in which the
goddess Venus throws herself at the unwilling Adonis) and “The Rape of Lucrece” (a queasily
voyeuristic poem about sexual assault).
Again in 1603–4, when plague prevented the coronation celebrations for the new king, James I, and
one in five Londoners succumbed to the disease, Shakespeare was probably writing his study of civic
corruption, “Measure for Measure.”
In the plague outbreak of the summer of 1606, Shakespeare may well have been working on “King
Lear," given that the tragedy’s first performance was at the Palace of Whitehall, the main London
residence of Tudor and Stuart English monarchs, “on St Stephen’s night in Christmas holidays” the
same year.
The impact of the disease on the play, though, is oblique. There are references to plague which have
lost their specificity over time, but which must then have caused a shiver. Lear curses his daughter
Regan and her husband Cornwall with “Vengeance, plague, death, confusion,” and berates her as “a
plague–sore or embossed carbuncle / In my corrupted blood.”
“Plague–sore” refers to the inflamed lymph glands that were such a feared symptom of the disease
— it’s not something any parent should wish on their child. Perhaps the play’s particular violence on
the younger generation allegorizes that of the plague itself: The disease was most rampant among
those in their 20s and 30s.
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Shakespeare seems to have been able largely to shut out his immediate context. The plague is
everywhere and nowhere in his work. In the language of “King Lear” and other plays it is ubiquitous
— but otherwise it’s almost entirely absent.
Men and women, to be sure, die in any number of inventive ways. In “Othello,” Desdemona is
smothered in her bed. In “Titus Andronicus,” the rapists Chiron and Demetrius have their throats cut
and are baked in pastry. John of Gaunt dies of old age exacerbated by the absence of his exiled son
in “Richard II.” In “Hamlet,” Ophelia drowns.
But no one in Shakespeare’s plays dies of the plague. Romeo and Juliet, who die because the friar’s
letter is held up by quarantine measures in northern Italy, are the nearest his work comes to plague
fatalities.
Just as Shakespeare never set a play in contemporary London, neither did he address directly the
most prominent cause of sudden death in his society. Documentary realism was not Shakespeare’s
style.
Q.1) What is the figure of speech in the line, When he was in quarantine from the plague, William
Shakespeare wrote “King Lear.”?
a) assonance
b) anaphora
c) cataphora
d) metonymy
Q.2) Why does the author say that Shakespeare had an advantage of sorts?
a) Just weeks after Shakespeare’s baptism at Holy Trinity Church in Stratford–upon–Avon in 1564,
the register read, “Hic incepit pestis” (Here begins the plague).
b) Shakespeare’s life was marked by plague, and much of his work was composed in the shadow of a
highly infectious disease without a known cure.
c) Shakespeare survived the 1564 plague and many further outbreaks.
d) Shakespeare never killed his characters to the plague.
Q.3) What best evidence does the author give to say that in the plague outbreak on 1606
Shakespeare was probably working on King Lear?
a) The plague is in the language of King Lear; in the way he references his children.
b) The oblique impact of the plague on the play.
c) The author does not give any concrete evidence to suggest the King Lear was written during the
plague
d) The fact that the play opened in the plague affected Palace of Whitehall, the main London
residence of Tudor and Stuart English monarchs, “on St Stephen’s night in Christmas holidays” the
same year, means it was written there.
Q.4) What does the author mean when she says that, “The plague is everywhere and nowhere in his
work?”
a) the author means to say that the plague is almost entirely absent in Shakespeare’s plays.
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b) the author means that there is no direct mention of the plague in Shakespeare’s play, which is in
sync with his style of not keeping his plays contemporary.
c) the author means to tell us that plague references are ubiquitous in many plays of Shakespeare.
d) None of the above.
Q.5) What is the significance of killing characters in the most innovative ways and not of the plague?
a) Shakespeare brings in innovation in killing probably to reference the plague in oblique ways.
b) Shakespeare kills in his unique and innovative styles.
c) Shakespeare does not bring in contemporary references hence kills in new ways
d) None of the above
Q.6) What is NOT the meaning of ‘contemporary’ as used in the last paragraph in the passage?
a) modern
b) novel
c) current
d) present
Q.7) What is the meaning of allegorizes as used in the seventh paragraph in the passage?
a) satirize
b) narrate
c) symbolise
d) trivialise
Passage 2
A very important world problem–in fact, I am inclined to say in the most important of all the great
world problems which face us at the present time–is the rapidly increasing pressure of population on
land and on land resource. It is not so much the actual population of the world but it is rate of
increase which is important. It worked out to be about 1–6 per cent per annum net increase. In
terms of number this means something like forty to fifty–five million additional people every year.
Canada has a population of twenty million– rather less than six months climb in world population.
Take Australia. There are ten million people in Australia. So, it takes the world less than three
months to add to itself populations which people of that vast country. Let us take our own crowded
country–England and Wales: forty–five to fifty million people–just about a year’s supply. By this time
tomorrow, and every day, there will be added to the earth about 120,000 extra people–just about
the population of the city of York. I am not talking about birth rate. This is net increase. To give you
some idea of birth rate, look at the second’s hand of your watch. Every second three babies are born
somewhere in the world. Another baby! Another baby! You cannot speak quickly enough to keep
pace with the birth rate. This enormous increase of population will create immense problems. By
A.D.2000, unless something desperate happens, there will be as many as 7,000,000,000 people on
the surface of this earth! So this is a problem which you are going to see in your lifetime. Why is this
enormous increase in population taking place? It is really due to the spread of knowledge and the
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practice of what is coming to be called the death control. You can hear of birth control. Death
control is something rather different. Death control recognizes the work of doctors and the nurses
and the hospitals and the health services in keeping alive people who, a few years ago, would have
died of some of the incredibly serious diseases. Medical examinations at school catch diseases early
and ensure healthier school children. Scientists are at work stamping out malaria and other more
deadly diseases. If you are seriously ill there is an ambulance to take you to a modern hospital.
Medical care helps to keep people alive longer. We used to think seventy was a good age; now
eighty, ninety, it may be, are coming to be recognized as a normal age for human beings. And thus,
population of the world is shooting up.
Q.8) What is Authors tone in the given passage?
a) Laudatory
b) Biased
c) Introspective
d) Perturbed
Q.9) Which of the following statements is true in view of the given passage?
a) Population is not the problem but the population rate of increase is.
b) Total population and the rate of interest are the problems we are to face
c) The concern with birth rate is that three babies are born every minute
d) Eighty – ninety years has always been a normal age for human beings
Q.10) According to the Author which of the following is the reason for ‘increase in population’?
a) More babies being born

b) Lack of birth control mechanism
c) More focus on death control
d) Improper medical care
Q.11) According to the passage what is ‘death control’?
a) Providing health care services to people who few years ago, would have died of diseases
b) Work of doctors and nurses and hospitals
c) Providing ambulances services
d) Providing health care services to enable people live longer than they would have without it.
Q.12) Which of the following statement is the best conclusion to the given passage?
a) Population’s rate of increase must be controlled

b) Major contributing factor to increase in population is scientific advancement
c) Population is increasing every second
d) Death control is the reason why population surge can be witnessed
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Passage 3
The sun rises and sets and the moon changes; but people have no idea why, or what are the
relations of the heavenly bodies to the earth. No one knows anything about the natural causes of
rain or drought, storms or earthquakes, famine or disease. Thus, everything is put down to
mysterious influences by magic or by god and bad spirits. Such ideas cannot very well be called
superstitious so long as no better explanation is available. But reason may show that they are false;
and finally, when scientific knowledge demonstrates the way things really work, the ideas of magic
or spirit–influence can be seen to be mere superstitions. So, as science progresses, superstition
ought to grow less. On the whole, that is true. But it is surprising how superstitions linger on. If we
are tempted to look down on savage tribes and other nations for holding such ideas, we should
remember that even today; among the most civilized nations, a great many equally stupid
superstitions exist and are believed in by a great many people. It is worth making a list of the
superstitions which you know about. Some people will not sit down thirteen at table; others will not
light three cigarettes from one match, or do not like to start anything important on a Friday, or
refuse to walk under a ladder. Many people buy charms and talismans because they think they will
bring them luck. Perhaps you yourself are inclined to believe in some of these ideas! Try to find out if
there is really anything in any of them, and what reasons there may be for people believing in them.
Probably the most terrible example of superstitions is the belief in witchcraft. In Western Europe,
during the 16th and 17th centuries, over three–quarters of a million people were killed, after being
tortured, because they were found guilty of witchcraft–something for which today we can find no
scientific evidence. When people give reasons are not merely superstitions, or based on false
principles.
In addition, even in civilized nations today, many actions take place and laws are made on the basis
of principles which are just as much unproved assumptions as were many of the philosophies of the
Middle Ages. For instance, it is often held as a principle that white people are by nature superior to
people of other colors. In the same sort of way the ancient Greeks believed themselves by nature
superior to the barbarians of Northern and Western Europe. The only way to see if there is anything
in such a principle is to make scientific studies on numbers of white and black and brown people
under different conditions of life and education and find out just what they can and cannot achieve.
It is however, true that the increase of scientific knowledge does reduce superstition and also
baseless guessing and useless argument and practices. Civilized people do not argue and get angry
about what water is composed of: the composition of water is known, and there is no argument
about it. They may be frightened at a volcanic eruption or an outbreak of plague; but they do not try
to calm the anger of mysterious powers to stop the eruption, or blame the plague on the sins of
their enemies or on the plotting of witchcraft.
Q.13) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1. Ignorance makes people rely on magic or spirit–influence
2. Illiteracy in India is the major cause for not knowing relations of heavenly bodies to earth
3. For which there is no scientific justification it is superstition
4. Superstitions explain the relations of heavenly bodies to earth
a) Only 2 and 3 are correct

b) Only 3 and 4 are correct
c) Only 3 is correct
d) Only 1 is correct
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Q.14) Which of the following statements is not made by the author in the passage?
a) Superstitions exist in civilized societies

b) Mysterious powers can stop the volcanic eruptions
c) Civilized people do not argue on aspects they understand
d) Scientific studies and education is a tool to fight certain baseless generalizations
Q.15) What does ‘witchcraft’ mean in the passage?
a) The practice of seeking knowledge of the future by supernatural means –divinations

b) A person who practices black religious cult and spirit possession
c) The practice of black magic
d) A person skilled in voodoo
Q.16) In the last lines of passage “they may be frightened at a volcanic eruption….plotting of
witchcraft”. Who is the author referring to as “they” in the passage?
a) Civilized people
b) Savage Tribes
c) People doing witchcraft
d) Uncivilized people
Q.17) Which of the following best explains the passage?
a) Superstition grows where there is lack of scientific enquiry; as a result panic takes over and reason
is thrown out.
b) Among tribes there is hardly any scientific knowledge
c) Whites were considered superior because they did not believe in witchcraft or sprit–influence
Passage 4
According to the Hindu tradition the name of the dance form was derived by joining two words,
‘Bharata’ and Natyam’ where ‘Natyam in Sanskrit means dance and ‘Bharata’ is a mnemonic
comprising ‘bha’, ‘ra’ and ‘ta’ which respectively means ‘bhava’ that is emotion and feelings; ‘raga’
that is melody; and ‘tala’ that is rhythm. Thus, traditionally the word refers to a dance form where
bhava, raga and tala are expressed. The theoretical base of this dance form, which is also referred as
Sadir, trace back to ancient Indian theatrologist and musicologist, Bharata Muni’s Sanskrit Hindu text
on the performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’. Bharata Natyam is one of the oldest dance forms of
India. It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, an ancient treatise on theatre written by mythic
priest Bharata. Bharata Natyam often is used to express Hindu religious stories and devotions. It was
not commonly seen on the public stage until the 20th century. The dance movements are
characterized by bent legs, while feet keep rhythm. Hands may be used in a series of mudras, or
symbolic hand gestures to tell a story. It was nurtured in the temples and courts of Southern India
since ancient times. Later it was codified and documented as a performing art in the 19th century by
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four brothers known as Tanjore Quartet whose musical compositions for dance form the bulk of the
Bharata Natyam repertoire even today. The art was handed down as a living traditions from
generation to generation under the Devadasi system under which women were dedicated to
temples to serve the deity as dancers and musicians, forming part of the elaborate rituals. These
highly talented artists and the male gurus (nattuvanars) were the sole repository of the art until the
early 20th century when a renewal of interest in India’s cultural heritage prompted the educated
elite to discover its beauty. By this time the Devadasis had fallen upon evil days due to lack of state
patronage and changed social mores. The revival of Bharata Natyam by pioneers such as E. Krishna
Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale brought the dance out of the temple precincts and onto the
proscenium stage though it retained its essentially devotional character.
Today, Bharata Natyam is one of the most popular and widely performed dance styles and is
practiced by male and female dances all over India. Due to its wide range of movements and
postures and the balanced mélange of the rhythmic and mimetic aspects lends itself well to
experimental and fusion choreography. Degree and Post Graduate courses covering the practice and
theory of Bharata Natyam as well as the languages associated with its development are available at
major Universities of India.
[Extracted from websource:

https://www.culturalindia.net/indiandance/classical/bharatnatyam.html]
Q.18) This passage can be best described as:
a) An essay on the origin of Bharata Natyam

b) A brief history of dance forms from Natya Shastra.
c) A brief history of Bharata Natyam
d) Bharat Natyam and the history of India
Q.19) The Devadasis were:
a) Female musicians who served the deity in temples

b) Female dancers and musicians dedicated to temples
c) Women who performed Bharata Natyam in the 19th century
d) Highly talented male and female dancers who performed in temples
Q.20) Which of the following is true about Bharat Natyam?
a) Only women generally perform it

b) It was codified by E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale
c) Certain languages are associated with its development
d) All of the above
Q.21) Which is the status of Bharata Natyam today?
a) It is practiced all over India

b) It has become highly experimental in nature
c) It is taught only as part of University courses
d) It is practiced only on the stage and no longer in temples
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Q.22) How many dance forms of the classical dances are recognized in India by Sangeeth Natak
Akademi?
a) Eight
b) Six
c) Ten
d) Fifteen
(23)Lot of people eat sugar in ways they do not realise. Just a harmless intake of two small candies
results in almost 20 gms of sugar released in the body. Or (24) healthy juices that pitch ‘real’ fruit
ingredients contain many spoonsful of that poison, enough to mar the goodness of (25) fruit. But
these are (26) more obvious ones. What about (27) morning toast? Is that increasing your in - take of
sugar? Well to check you need to flip on (28) other side and check (29) carbohydrate content in (30)
bread of which how much is sugar.
In the questions 23-30 mark your answers as the following
Q.23)
a) A
b) An
c) The
d) No determiner needed
Q.24)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Q.25)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Q.26)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Q.27)
a) A
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b) An
c) The
Q.28)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Q.29)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Q.30)
a) A
b) An
c) The
Section – II: Current Awareness

Passage 1
In a move that is likely to open up the bilateral space, India said New Delhi will invite the heads of
government of all member countries of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) when it hosts
the summit later this year. This would mean that Pakistan’s representative — either Prime Minister
Imran Khan or a Minister — will be coming to India to attend the SCO heads of government meeting.
India and Pakistan became members of the SCO in (1), and India usually sends its Foreign or Defence
ministers to attend the SCO heads of government meetings. Prime Minister Narendra Modi attends
the heads of state summit, as also Chinese President Xi Jinping and Russian President Vladimir Putin.
In 2019, too, Modi attended the SCO heads of state meeting, which was attended by Khan along
with Xi and Putin among others, in Bishkek in June. “India will be hosting the heads of government
summit later this year. As per established practice and procedure, all (2) members and (3) observer
states and other international dialogue partners will be invited… The SCO is a China–led economic
and security bloc founded in 2001 by Russia, China, Kyrgyz Republic, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and
Uzbekistan.
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https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics–and–nation/india–to–invite–imran–khan–
other–leaders–for–scos–annual–heads–of–government–
meeting/articleshow/73307042.cms?from=mdr
Q.31) What is [1] referred to as in the above passage?
a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019
a) 7 Members
b) 8 members
c) 9 Members
d) 10 Members
Q.33) Among the following is not an observer state of SCO?
a) Afghanistan
b) Iran
c) Mongolia
d) Iraq
Q.34) India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
a) G–20
b) ASEAN
c) SAARC
d) IORA
a) 4 Observers
b) 5 Observers
c) 6 Observers
d) 7 Observers
Passage 2
The Supreme Court directed the states to set up 'Gram Nyayalayas'. The states have been directed to
issue notification regarding the same within four weeks.
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The ruling was delivered by an SC bench headed by Justice N V Ramana. The bench noted that some
states are yet to come out with notifications for establishing the Gram Nyayalayas.The bench also
noted that though several states have issued notifications for establishing the Gram Nyayalayas,
most were not functioning except in three states– Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Kerala.
"We direct the aforementioned states to file their affidavits within one week from today, subject to
deposit of Rs 1 lakh by each of the above–mentioned states with the Registrar (Judicial) of the
Supreme Court, who shall keep the same in a separate head," the bench, also comprising justices
Sanjiv Khanna and Krishna Murari, said in its January 29 order.
The bench requested the chief justices of high courts, where the constitution of ''Gram Nyayalayas''
and appointments of its members are pending, to expedite the process of consultation with the
respective state governments.
"In view of the above, we direct the states, who have not yet issued notifications for establishing the
Gram Nyayalayas, to issue the same within a period of four weeks from today and place copies of
the same before us with an affidavit," it said.
https://www.outlookindia.com/newsscroll/sc–directs–states–to–issue–notification–for–
establishing–gram–nyayalayas/1725062
Q.36) Gram Nyayalayas act was passed by parliament in which year.
a) 2002
b) 2009
c) 2019
d) 2010
Q.37) Gram Nyayalayas will be monitored and assisted by village Panchayat's. When Is National
Panchayati Raj Day celebrated.
a) 25th Dec
b) 24th April
c) 10th Feb
d) 23rd March
Q.38) Which state has maximum number of Gram Nyayalayas presently?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) MP
d) Andhra Pradesh
Q.39) Where was The Panchayat Raj system was first adopted by and in which year?
a) 1959, Jaisalmer
b) 1969, Nagaur
c) 1959, Nagaur
d) 1981, Raipur
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Q.40) Gram Nyalayayas is headed by
a) Head of village Panchayat

b) Seniormost judge of High court
c) Judicial Magistrate of first class
d) Judicial Magistrate of 2nd class
Passage 3
The Norwegian Nobel Committee has decided to award the Nobel Peace Prize for 2019 to Ethiopian
Prime Minister [X]for his efforts to achieve peace and international cooperation, and in particular for
his decisive initiative to resolve the border conflict with neighbouring Eritrea. The prize is also meant
to recognise all the stakeholders working for peace and reconciliation in Ethiopia and in the East and
Northeast African regions. When [X]became Prime Minister in April 2018, he made it clear that he
wished to resume peace talks with Eritrea. In close cooperation with Isaias Afwerki, the President of
Eritrea, [X] quickly worked out the principles of a peace agreement to end the long "no peace, no
war" stalemate between the two countries. These principles are set out in the declarations that
Prime Minister [X] and President Afwerki signed in Asmara and Jeddah. An important premise for the
breakthrough was [X]'s unconditional willingness to accept the arbitration ruling of an international
boundary commission in 2002. Peace does not arise from the actions of one party alone. When
Prime Minister [X] reached out his hand, President Afwerki sped it, and helped to formalise the
peace process between the two countries. The Norwegian Nobel Committee hopes the peace
agreement will help to bring about positive change for the entire populations of Ethiopia and Eritrea.
https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/peace/2019/press–release/
Q.41) What is the name of the Ethiopian Prime Minister whose has been redacted with [X] in the
above passage?
a) Azzedine Mihoubi
b) Abiy Ahmed Ali
c) Abdelmadjid Tebboune
d) Ali Benflis
Q.42) How many times Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace Prize but not received the
award?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Q.43) Who was the first Asian to be awarded with the Nobel Prize?
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a) Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar
b) Sir Chandrashekhara Venkata Raman
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Har Gobind Khorana
Q.44) Which of the following is the only Nobel Prize not presented in Stockholm?
a) Nobel Peace Prize

b) Nobel Prize in Literature
c) Nobel Prize in Chemistry
d) Nobel Prize in Medicine
Q.45) Only two women have been awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences, one in 2009 and
the other in 2019. Who was the first woman to win the Nobel Prize in Economics?
a) Esther Duflo
b) Elinar Ostrom
c) Janet Louise Yellen
d) Claudia Goldin
Passage 4
The latest spell of conflict between the U.S. and Iran turned full circle when Tehran launched ballistic
missile attacks at American troops in two military bases in Iraq in retaliation for the assassination of
Maj. Gen. [X]. In its first direct attack on U.S. forces, Iran targeted Erbil, the capital of the Iraqi
Kurdistan in the north, and Al–Asad in the west, which is some 400 km away from the Iranian
border. The attacks were both an act of retaliation and a show of its capability.
Foreign Minister Javad Zarif invoked [Y] of the UN Charter, which allows member–states to take
military actions in self defence if they come under attack. He said Iran has taken and concluded
proportionate measures in selfdefence”, which can be interpreted that Iran is now ready for de–
escalation. The man who is primarily responsible for the current explosive situation is U.S. President
Donald Trump. His decision to kill [ X ], a top Iranian military leader who commanded the elite Quds
Force for over two decades, in the Iraqi capital, was practically an act of war, forcing the Islamic
regime to respond. However, despite the wide range of rhetoric issued by Iranian military leaders
and hard–line politicians, what Tehran actually did was to launch a calculated, limited strike. It is as
much an act of revenge as an opportunity for de–escalation. The Pentagon’s assessments suggested
there were no American casualties and only minimal damage in the attacks. Mr. Trump, in his
response later on Wednesday, has signalled that he was backing away from further conflicts with
Iran. If the U.S. had responded with air strikes or missile attacks inside Iran, it could have triggered
further attacks from Iran, setting off a cycle of violence and aggression. A direct shooting match
between the U.S. and Iran would have been disastrous for the whole of West Asia. Iran may be a
weaker power compared to America’s conventional military might, but it is a formidable rival. It not
only has ballistic missiles and a wide range of rockets but also a host of militias under its command
across the region. It could have made an invasion and air strikes on its territories extremely costly for
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the U.S. and its allies. It could also have disrupted global oil supply by attacking the Gulf waterways.
By any assessment, a direct war would have been catastrophic. Mr. Trump did well to step back and
not push the Gulf region into a disastrous cycle of violence and destruction. The international
community should now push for a diplomatic settlement of the crisis and find ways to revive the
nuclear deal which could bring long–term peace to the Gulf. And Iran should seize this opportunity
for de–escalation.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/from–the–brink–of–war/article30517035.ece
Q.46) What is the name of the Iranian Major General whose name has been replaced with [ X ] in the
passage above?
a) Qassem Soleimani
b) Rav Aluf Yaakov Dori
c) Qamar Javed Bajwa
d) Sahir Shamshad Mirza
Q.47) Which Article is invoked by Foreign Minister Javad Zarif referred with[Y] in the above passage?
a) Article 51
b) Article 53
c) Article 54
d) Article 55
Q.48) On January 5, 2020, Iran had completely withdrawn from JCPOA nuclear deal. Full form of
JCPOA?
a) Joint Commission Plan of Action

b) Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action
c) Joint Committee Plan of Action
d) Joint Counselling Plan of Action
Q.49) What is the largest Iranian export after petroleum products?
a) Carpets
b) Iron ore
c) Persian cats
d) Non–alcoholic beer
Q.50) Capital of Iraq?
a) Tehran
b) Baghdad
c) Kurdistan
d) Ashgabat
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Passage 5
[X] protests started in June 2019 against plans to allow extradition to mainland [Y]. Critics feared this
could undermine judicial independence and endanger dissidents. Until 1997, [X] was ruled by [Z] as a
colony but then returned to [Y]. Under the "one country, two systems" arrangement, it has some
autonomy, and its people more rights. The bill was withdrawn in September 2019 but
demonstrations continue and now demand full democracy and an inquiry into police actions. Clashes
between police and activists have become increasingly violent, with police firing live bullets and
protesters attacking officers and throwing petrol bombs.
The extradition bill which triggered the first protest was introduced in April 2019. It would have
allowed for criminal suspects to be extradited to mainland [Y] under certain circumstances.
Opponents said this risked exposing [X] to unfair trials and violent treatment. They also argued the
bill would give [Y] greater influence over [X] and could be used to target activists and journalists.
Hundreds of thousands of people took to the streets. After weeks of protests, leader Carrie Lam
eventually said the bill would be suspended indefinitely.
Q.51) What is the name of the city whose has been replaced with '[X]' in the passage above?
a) Catalonia
b) Hong Kong
c) Macau
d) Gaza Strip
Q.52) 'Umbrella Protest' occurred in which of the following years?
a) 2013
b) 2014
c) 2015
d) 2016
Q.53) "One country, two systems" is a constitutional principle in which of the following countries
whose name has been replaced with '[Y]' in the above passage
a) Spain
b) Israel
c) China
d) USA
Q.54) Until 1997, [X]was ruled by [Z] as a colony, which of the following countries has been replaced
with [Z] in the above passage?
a) France
b) United Kingdom
c) USA
d) Portugal
CP/20/C34
Q.55) Which of the following countries doesn't have extradition treaty with India.
a) Fiji
b) Australia
c) Nigeria
d) China
Passage 6
More than a week since Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the creation of a SAARC (South
Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) Emergency Response Fund for COVID–19, Pakistan is the
only country that has not yet committed any contribution.
Pakistan Foreign Minister Shah Mahmood Qureshi is believed to have called a few of the SAARC
leaders such as the Sri Lankan Foreign Minister to understand the operation of the fund and the
contribution that each country has made, diplomatic sources told.
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established when its Charter was
formally approved on 8 December 1985 by the Heads of State or Government of Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Afghanistan became a member of SAARC
during the Fourteenth SAARC Summit held in Delhi, India in April 2007. Until 2009 China, Japan,
Republic of Korea, USA, Iran, Mauritius, Australia, Myanmar and the European Union have joined
SAARC as Observers.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics–and–nation/prepare–put–dont–panic–is–
indias–mantra–to–counter–coronavirus–narendra–modi/articleshow/74638006.cms?from=mdr
Q.56) Name the SAARC countries which has pledged to contribute $ 3.5 million (combined total) to
SAARC Corona Emergency Fund proposed by PM Modi.
a) Bangladesh
b) Nepal
c) Afghanistan
d) All the (a), (b) and (c)
Q.57) Which is the 1st Bank to launch COVID 19 emergency credit line (CECL) to provide funds to
businesses affected by the infectious coronavirus?
a) Punjab National Bank

b) Canara Bank
c) State Bank of India
d) Syndicate Bank
CP/20/C34
Q.58) How much amount RBI is going to inject through Open market Operations (OMOs) into market
to maintain financial stability and liquidity during COVID–19?
a) 50,000 Crore
b) 25,000 Crore
c) 10,000 Crore
d) 30,000 Crore
Q.59) The government of India constitutes 21–member high–level technical committee of public
health experts to guide the people in preventive & control activities of COVID–19. Name the person
who heads the committee.
a) Vivek Pandit
b) Kirit Parikh
c) V K Paul
d) Sachidananda Tripathi
Q.60) Name the World group which launches website (www.covid19–sdmc.org) for information
related to COVID–19.
a) NATO
b) SAARC
c) OPEC
d) Commonwealth
Passage 7
The preparation and presentation of the Budget for the approval of the legislature is a constitutional
obligation on the part of the government, both at the Centre and in the states.
The Budget session of Parliament is normally held from February to May. During this period, the
Budget comes before Parliament for its deliberation, voting and approval; the departmentally
related standing committees consider the Demands for Grants of ministries/departments and report
on the same to the Houses of Parliament.
Union Budget is classified into Revenue Budget and Capital Budget. Revenue budget includes the
government's revenue receipts and expenditure. There are two kinds of revenue receipts – tax and
non–tax revenue. Revenue expenditure is the expenditure incurred on day to day functioning of the
government and on various services offered to citizens. If revenue expenditure exceeds revenue
receipts, the government incurs a revenue deficit.
Capital Budget includes capital receipts and payments of the government. Loans from public, foreign
governments and RBI form a major part of the government's capital receipts. Capital expenditure is
the expenditure on development of machinery, equipment, building, health facilities, education etc.
Fiscal deficit is incurred when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue.
CP/20/C34
https://www.business–standard.com/topic/budget–2020
Q.61) Which is not among the 3 themes of budget 2020–21?
a) spirational India
b) Economic Development
c) Growing India
d) Caring Society
Q.62) Five archaeological sites will be set up with museums. Which is not one of the site as per
Union Budget?
a) Rakhi Gadi in Haryana

b) Ellora in Maharashtra
c) Hastinapur in UP
d) Dholavira in Gujarat
Q.63) Which scheme has been launched to clear 4.83 lakh direct tax cases pending in various
forums?
a) Vivad se Vishwaas Scheme

b) Vishwaas se Vivad Scheme
c) Vishwaas Scheme
d) Vivad Scheme
Q.64) What will be the new income tax slab for income between Rs.7.5 lakh to 10 lakhs?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Q.65) How many more airports will be developed under UD A N by 2024?
a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 200
Q.66) Which scheme has been launched for women self–help group in the Budget?
a) Vidya Laxmi scheme

b) Maha Laxmi scheme
c) Nari Laxmi scheme
d) Dhanya Laxmi scheme
Section – III: Legal Reasoning
CP/20/C34
Passage 1
Pacta sunt servanda which means agreement must be kept, is the basic and most essential principle
of civil law. Every agreement creates an obligation on the parties and non–fulfilment of such
obligations is justiciable in a court of law. However, this principle is not absolute as sometimes it
becomes impossible for the parties to fulfil their obligation because of some extraneous forces
which are uncontrollable and unpredictable. These extraneous forces are known as the Act of God
(Vis Major).
In Western & Atlantic Railroad v. Hassler, the Court explained that an Act of God is a catastrophe
arising from the force of the elements which human intelligence cannot predict nor the ingenuity of
man can foretell. The incident must be overwhelming and not merely an ordinary circumstance.
Rylands v. Fletcher, a landmark judgement in which the concept of strict liability was devised,
established three essential criteria in order to consider any act as the Act of God. These were:
i. The event must have been a result of some natural cause which is without any human
intervention.
ii. The event should be unforeseeable as no human could have predicted it.
iii. The damage caused must be in direct relation to the unforeseeable event.
It is important to clarify that the Act of God (Vis Major) and Force Majeure should not be used
interchangeably. The Act of God includes all inevitable accidents caused by nature and which are not
connected or related with agency of man whereas Force Majeure is a broader concept where the
accident is not necessarily connected with nature and can be connected to human agency. War is
the most appropriate example of Force Majeure which is not an act of God.
In tort law, sometimes a defendant might be held liable even if they prove the existence of the Act of
God. For example, if someone is injured by a dangerous object (which a defendant should have
taken care of), then it does not matter that the injury was caused due to an Act of God. This also
happens in the case of absolute liability which was derived by the Supreme Court in the case of M.C.
Mehta v. Union of India, 1987. In cases of absolute liability, the intention of the accused is not
factored for determining liability and no exceptions including Act of God are applicable.
Q.67) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following instances will not fall under Vis
Major?
I. Destruction of a farmer’s farm by a cattle herd due to excessive rain caused in the neighbouring
village in the rainy season.
II. Falling of a stadium roof on audience members due to an earthquake.
III. A fire in a house caused by a lightning strike on a rainy day.
a) Both I and II
b) Only II
c) Both II and III
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d) Only I
Q.68) Raman bought a piece of land on which he started getting a house constructed. He employed
a contractor who he made responsible for all the labour and construction related work. The property
on which the house was being built was very close to the border of the neighbouring country. One
day, while the house was being built, there was an earthquake the epicentre of which was in the
neighbouring country but the effects were also felt where Raman’s house was being built. This
caused a partially built wall to collapse and one of the workers’ legs got caught in the middle. The
worker claimed compensation for the injury caused to him. Can Raman claim that the wall fell due to
an Act of God?
a) No, as he should have ensured that the wall was being built with the proper material.
b) No, as the natural disaster occurred in another country.
c) Yes, as Raman had no control over the fact that the earthquake tremors would cause such
damage.
Q.69) Consider that in the factual scenario described in the above question, the news that an
earthquake has occurred reached the neighbouring country and, in no time, Raman asked everyone
to vacate the construction premises. While the evacuation process was on, the earthquake struck
where the house was being built, and one of the construction workers was trapped inside. The
worker lost a leg, and sought compensation from Raman. Can Raman claim that it was an Act of
God?
a) No, as the news of an earthquake had reached the place where Raman was, it no longer remained
an unpredictable event.
b) No, as it was because of Raman asking the workers to hurry with the evacuation process, the
worker was trapped in the building, eventually losing his leg.
c) Yes, as even though there was an awareness about the earthquake, it still couldn’t be predicted
when it would strike.
Q.70) Sameer was walking on a street in his locality when a high tension electric wire snapped and
fell on him. As a result of this, Sameer died. Sameer’s family claimed compensation from the
electricity board as it was responsible for the upkeep of the wires. The electricity board claimed that
the wire snapped because of a violent windstorm, and that it was an Act of God, for which it cannot
be held liable. Can the board claim this defence?
a) Yes, as a violent windstorm is an event which could not have been predicted by any means.
b) No, as a high tension electric wire is a dangerous object which should have been taken care of by
the board.
c) Yes, as Sameer should have been more careful while walking outside on a windy day.
Q.71) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?
I. An Act of God serves as a blanket exemption from liability for a tort.
II. Force Majeure is a broader concept of which an Act of God is a smaller subset.
III. The concepts of strict and absolute liability are judicially created principles.
CP/20/C34
a) Only III
b) Both I and II
c) Only III
d) Both I and III
Passage 2
Does an occupier of the premises owe an obligation to the people who enter his premises? Can the
people who enter the premises sue the owner if they are injured? What would be the case if the
person entering the premises is a trespasser or a child?
An occupier of premises or of other structures such as cars, ships, aeroplanes or lifts owes an
obligation to the people entering the premises for their safety. The nature of obligation varies
according to the kinds of persons visiting the premises. The obligation of the owner is under three
heads:
i. Obligation towards lawful visitors

ii. Obligation towards trespassers
iii. Obligation towards children
The occupier who has control of the premises need not be the physical occupier or owner. There is
no test to determine if a person is an occupier or not. Thus, the facts of the case will determine the
liability.
Invitees can be considered as examples of lawful visitors. An occupier of a premises is supposed to

take the highest degree of care towards an invitee. The owner of the premises has the duty to
ensure that the invitee was safe from any dangers in the property. The occupier’s liability in case of
an invitee is for a loss caused by an unusual danger, in this respect he is not only liable for the
danger about which he was actually aware of, but also for the danger which he ought to have
known. However, when the danger is obvious or it is a danger for which sufficient warnings have
been given and an invitee on a premises refused to pay heed to them, an occupier cannot be made
liable.
An occupier is not supposed to make his premises safe for the trespassers. However, he cannot
deliberately do an act to injure the trespasser. The occupier has the right to take reasonable steps to
prevent trespassers from entering the premises but he cannot do anything to harm them.
An occupier is supposed to protect the children even from the dangers from which the adults need
no protection. The rationale behind this is that the child is not capable to form a decision or act in a
similar manner in which the adult would have acted under similar circumstances.
Q.72) Rajesh, a gas repairman, entered the Ramesh’s house to perform a scheduled maintenance.
While doing so, he fell from an unfenced opening of the floor and consequently injured himself.
Rajesh then brought an action against Ramesh to recover damages for the injuries. Is Ramesh liable?
CP/20/C34
a) No, as Ramesh had not invited Rajesh to his house, he was there just to perform some services.
b) Yes, as an invitee to the house, Rajesh was supposed to be subject to as much care as anyone
else, warned about the dangers in the property.
c) No, as an unfenced opening in the floor is not dangerous enough.
d) Yes, as Ramesh owes a duty of care to anyone who enters his house.
Q.73) Raj was the owner of a facility which was centrally heated by a coke–fired boiler. Two workers
tried to shut a hole in the chimney, but were met with a lot of fumes of carbon monoxide gas which
eventually led to their death. The workers had been warned about the presence of the gas and the
associated danger, however they had disregarded the same. Can Raj be made to pay damages to the
workers’ family?
a) Yes, as carbon monoxide is a dangerous substance to have in one’s premises.

b) Yes, as the workers were were legitimate visitors to Raj’s facility.
c) No, as he had warned the workers about the presence and danger of the poisonous gas.
Q.74) Robert was the owner of a land which was also a shortcut from and to the railway station. One
day, David, in a hurry, ran through the shortcut in Robert’s land but was injured by Robert’s horse
who was freely roaming around in the premises. Can Robert be held liable for the injury caused to
David?
a) Yes, as Robert should not have let his horse roam freely around the premises.
b) No, as David was a trespasser Robert was not obligated to make his premises safe for him.
c) Yes, as Robert owed a duty of care to everyone who crossed his land.
d) No, as Robert being the owner of the land could do whatever he wished with it.
Q.75) Consider that in the factual scenario described in the above question, the path that went
through Robert’s land was often used by the public as a shortcut to and from the railway station.
Robert objected to this practice, but had never taken an effective action against the same. Consider
that David now crossed the piece of land and was injured by Robert’s horse. Can Robert be held
liable now?
a) Yes, as Robert had implicitly allowed people to take the shortcut, his consent for such passage
even for David is present.
b) No, as David is still a trespasser and Robert had no obligation to make his premises safe for him.
c) Yes, as Robert owed it to anyone who crossed his land to ensure safe passage.
Q.76) From a reading of the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?
I. A child should always enter someone else’s premises in the presence of a guardian.
II. The owner of a premises owes no duty at all to a trespasser and can subject him to anything.
III. When a danger is obvious, it is not necessary for the owner of a premises to make everyone
aware of the same.
a) Only II
b) Both I and II
c) Only I
CP/20/C34
Passage 3
For some time, the Supreme Court had held the view that the right to life in Article 21 of the
Constitution does not include the right to livelihood. After some controversy on that issue, the court
held that the right to livelihood is included in the right to life “because no person can live without the
means of living, that is, the means of livelihood.” (Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation). The
court has also held that the right to life includes the right to a reasonable accommodation to live in
and the right to shelter including the necessary infrastructure to live with human dignity. Moreover,
it is provided for in the Constitution that Article 21 cannot be suspended even during the times of an
Emergency (when all the other fundamental rights, with the exception of Article 20, can be).
In the light of such provisions in the Constitution and decisions of the Supreme Court, it is important
that we analyse the impact of the 21–day lockdown imposed by the Government of India beginning
March 25, 2020 in the face of the growing threat of the spread of the novel coronavirus. Before the
nation–wide lockdown was announced, India had already observed the Janta Curfew day on March
22, 2020. While four days’ lead time was given for the Janata Curfew, barely four hours’ time was
given to the crores of Indians to arrange their lives and livelihoods in an orderly manner. The chaotic
aftermath of the national lockdown has been evidenced by heart–wrenching scenes at railway
stations, inter–state bus terminals, state borders, labour markets etc. where scores of people have
been subjected to a period of enforced unemployment while being marooned far away from the
sanctuary of their homes.
As per the 2011 Census, India has 41 million migrant workers. Add to that domestic workers, daily
wagers and construction workers. The government and government advisories have exhorted
employers not to deduct wages for the period of the lockdown. However, without a guaranteed
wage or some minimum income or compensation, can the right to life, which includes the right to
livelihood of these hapless workers, be snuffed out? As has been stated earlier, even if emergency is
formally promulgated, the right to life cannot be taken away. In the present case, the emergency
provisions have not even been invoked. If the government can bypass the emergency provisions of
the Constitution and initiate such drastic steps, albeit with universal consent, one might well ask
whether such provisions – which not only specify the manner in which fundamental rights may be
suspended but also set out the constitutional–legislative oversight over such suspension – have been
rendered completely meaningless.
(Extracted from, with edits and revisions, “Is the National Lockdown in India Constitutionally Valid?”,
Sanjoy Ghose, The Wire)
Q.77) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following statements cannot be inferred?
I. Although the right to life under Article 21 cannot be suspended during an Emergency, the right to
livelihood can.
II. It is only during an Emergency, and not a lockdown, can the right to life under Article 21 be
suspended.
III. The right to a guaranteed wage or some minimum income cannot be considered a right to
livelihood under Article 21.
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a) Both II and III

b) Only II
c) Both I and III
d) I, II and III
Q.78) Rakesh was a worker in a shoe factory in the city of Kanpur. He was a resident of Arai, a village
near Prayagraj, 250 kilometres from his workplace. On March 26, 2020 the factory announced that
they are going to be shut for an indefinite period as a lockdown had been announced. He had
started working in the factory only a week before the lockdown was announced, and hadn’t yet
secured a permanent living quarter, while most of the other workers had been working there for
quite some time. Because of social distancing norms, not more than 4 people could stay in one room
and Rakesh was left stranded. Since it had been only a week, Rakesh had also not been able to
procure a ration card. In light of this information, and based on your reading of the passage, which
of the following statements is true?
I. Rakesh should not have taken the job at the factory only a week before the lockdown was
imposed, in the first place.
II. It can be said that Rakesh’s right to livelihood (under Article 21) is under threat.
III. The lockdown has been imposed for the good of everyone, and one instance of hardship cannot
be said to violate Article 21.
a) Only I
b) Both I and II
c) Only II
d) Both II and III
Q.79) Consider that Rakesh was a worker at a multi–national company which was also shut down
due to the lockdown. However, he was given the option to work from home. However, being a single
father, Rakesh spent most of his time at home taking care of his children and could not get any work
done. You are Rakesh’s lawyer and he asks you for advice whether his right to livelihood under
Article 21 has been violated. Based on your reading of the passage, what would be your advice to
Rakesh?
a) That Article 21 gives him the right to have the necessary infrastructure to live with human dignity
and the present situation is an attack on that.
b) That Rakesh still has the means to earn a livelihood as he is still an employee of the company.
c) That Rakesh should better manage his work at home and taking care of his children.
Q.80) Which of the following, according to the passage, does not form part of the right to life under
Article 21?
a) The right to a reasonable accommodation

b) The right to shelter
c) The right to earn a livelihood
d) The right to housing
Q.81) Which of the following is not a suggestion made by the author of the passage?
I. The lockdown imposed by the Government of India is unconstitutional.
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II. The people affected most by the lockdown are the migrant workers.
III. The Supreme Court had always considered right to livelihood as a part of the right to life
IV. In imposing the lockdown, the Government has disregarded some provisions of the Constitution.
a) Both II and IV
b) Both I and III
c) Only II
d) Both I and III
Passage 4
The directive principles of State policy possess two characteristics. Firstly, they are not enforceable
in any court and, therefore, if a directive is not obeyed or implemented by the State, its obedience
or implementation cannot be secured through judicial proceedings. This characteristic has been
diluted in practice by court decisions which have enforced some of the directive principles in support
of the fundamental rights. Secondly, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it
shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. The expression “laws” must
be construed in a generic sense and should include all normative exercise of power including the
decision making. Directive principles should be understood as positive obligations of the State. They
comprise principles which require the State to do something. For example, the State must secure a
social order in which social, economic and political justice must inform all the institutions of national
life.
Since the directive principles are not enforceable by any court, it has been advocated that they are
not law, much less constitutional law and, therefore, their non–observance by the State does not
entail any legal consequences. For the same reason, a law giving effect to the directive principles
must satisfy the constitutional limitations such as the fundamental rights and the distribution of
power between the Centre and the state. In one of the decisions of the Supreme Court, it was held
that the directive principles of State policy have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the chapter
of fundamental rights because the latter are enforceable in courts while the former are not. But such
a view has been contested from the very beginning for reasons that being a part of the same
Constitution, fundamental rights and directive principles are equally important and neither of them
is superior or inferior to the other; rather both supplement each other and must be construed
harmoniously.
However, the principle of “harmony and balance” between fundamental rights and directive
principles has, not always been applied uniformly or logically. In at least two major decisions of the
Supreme Court, the application of this principle has been in two irreconcilable directions. In P.A.
Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra, without regard to the directive in Article 46 requiring protection of
the educational interests of the weaker sections of the society as well as the fundamental right in
Article 15(4), the court held that private unaided educational institutions could not be required to
reserve any seats for these sections. On the other hand, in the decision of State of Gujarat v.
Mirzapur Moti Kureshi Kassab Jamat, the court upheld the total ban on the slaughter of cow and its
progeny drawing support from the directive in Article 48 irrespective of the fundamental right in
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Article 19(1)(g) which is the right of every citizen to practice any profession, occupation, trade or
business.
(Extracted from, Mahendra Pal Singh, V.N. Shukla’s Constitution of India)
Q.82) Which of these is not a characteristic of directive principles of State policy?

I. They are positive obligations upon the State.
II. They authorize the State to frame policies for public good.
III. If a government does not follow the directive principles, an action can be brought against it in
court.
a) Both I and II
b) Only II
c) Only I
d) Both II and III
Q.83) Article 39(d) of the Constitution, a part of the directive principles of State policy, states that
“there shall be equal pay for equal work for both men and women”. Article 15(1), a part of the
fundamental rights, states that “[t]he State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only
of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.” Suresh and Meena are employees of the
State government, appointed on the same day to the same post. One day while having lunch they
discussed their salaries and Meena came to know that Suresh was being paid more than her. She
took the matter to her superiors and claimed that her fundamental right under Article 15(1) was
being violated. However, her superiors claimed that they were not required to give men and women
equal pay as that was a part of directive principles and therefore, not enforceable. On the basis of
your reading of the passage, which of the of the following statements is true?
I. Although equal pay for equal work for both men and women is a directive principle, it needs to be
read with the fundamental right of non–discrimination on the basis of sex on the basis of which
Suresh and Meena need to be paid the same.
II. Directive principles of state policy are not enforceable principles and therefore, Meena cannot
claim that her superiors ensure that there is equal pay for equal work for Suresh and herself.
III. Meena should ask the courts for a direction to make her office follow the directive in Article 39(d)
of the Constitution.
a) Both I and III

b) Only II
c) Only I
d) Both II and III
Q.84) Which of the following has not been listed as a directive principle of State policy in the
passage?
I. Securing a social order in which social, economic and political justice must inform all the
institutions of national life.
II. Protection of the educational interests of the weaker sections of the society.
III. Protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding the forests and wildlife of the
country.
a) Only II
b) Both I and II
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c) Only III
d) Both II and III
Q.85) In the last paragraph of the passage, the author mentions that some decisions of the Supreme
Court have applied the principle of harmonious construction between directive principles and
fundamental rights “in two irreconcilable directions”. Which of the following instances is an example
of the principle being applied in irreconcilable direction?
I. The court holds that private offices are not obligated to observe provisions of the Constitution with
respect to equal pay for different genders, disregarding the requirement of a directive principle
which mandates equal pay for equal work.
II. The court holds that although the directive principles require the State to prohibit the slaughter of
cows and calves, a citizen of the country can maintain a slaughterhouse (subject to some
restrictions) as prohibiting the same completely would amount to violating his freedom of trade and
commerce.
III. The court holds that although the directive principles require the State to protect the educational
interests of the weaker sections of the society, reservation in an unaided educational institute would
amount to imposing an unreasonable restriction on the institute’s freedom of occupational and
business rights.
a) Only I
b) Both II and III
c) Only III
d) Both I and III
Q.86) According to the passage, which of the following factors led the court to change its approach
with respect to the balancing of directive principles and fundamental rights?
a) That they are both the part of the same Constitution.

b) That neither is more important than the other.
c) Both (a) and (b)
Passage 5
Since the time the Constitution of India has been in place, India has never been without a law on
preventive detention. Preventive detention is an apprehensive activity and the legal regime
authorizing such ‘detention’ is apprehensive in nature. Despite the fact that preventive detention
seeks to curb acts of a criminal nature, the laws operating in this sphere are starkly different from
the ones which regulate other criminal activities. For instance, preventive detention legislations
prescribe an exclusive procedure for detention, arrest and other stages in criminal investigation
which, at many times, take a major departure from the provisions of legislations such as the Indian
Penal Code (“IPC”) or the Code of Criminal Procedure (“CrPC”). The Unlawful Activities Prevention
Act, 1967 is one such preventive detention legislation.
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Although this activity is often justified on grounds of ‘public order’, ‘national interest’ or ‘public
interest’, it has its own share of critics as the law regulating such an activity gives unbridled power to
the detaining authorities. Moreover, the persons detained under preventive detention laws are
stripped of the basic rights that an individual otherwise detained possesses. As an illustration we
need not look beyond the Constitution itself. Article 22 of the Constitution delineates the basic rights
of an individual who has been ‘detained in custody’. It says:
“22. (1) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as
may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended
by, a legal practitioner of his choice.
(2) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest
magistrate within a period of twenty–four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the
journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained
in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate.”
Therefore, detaining of an individual doesn’t equate to a denial of rights. However, as soon as

preventive detention enters the picture, these rights are not something that can be taken for
granted, or rights that have so far been understood as being inherent in every individual. Article
22(3), in that spirit, reads:
“(3) Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply—

(a) to any person who for the time being is an enemy alien; or
(b) to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.”
Q.87) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following is not a feature of preventive
detention?
I. Preventive detention has a separate procedure for detention which is different from other kinds of
detention.
II. The Constitution gives the authority to the State to book someone under preventive detention
laws.
III. A person under preventive detention needs to be produced before a magistrate within twenty–
four hours of his arrest.
a) Only II
b) Both I and III
c) Only II
d) Both II and III
Q.88) Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?
a) Article 22 of the Constitution of India deals with the rules of preventive detention.
b) Once an individual is detained, he hardly has the same rights as he had before he was detained.
c) The laws regulating preventive detention tend to violate several provisions of the Constitution.
Q.89) Alex was caught stealing a painting from a museum, worth Rs. 2 crores. He was booked for
theft under Section 379 of the IPC. The policeman who arrested him informed him why he was
arrested and also gave him time to arrange for legal representation, if he wished. However, Alex did
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none of that. He was arrested and kept in custody for three days after which David came and
informed that he had asked David to commit the theft, after which Alex was let go. In light of such
information, and based on your reading of the passage, which of the following statements is true?
a) Since Alex was let go once David confessed to the crime, the police was under no obligation to
produce Alex before a magistrate.
b) The police should have made Alex consult a lawyer, when Alex was unable to contact one.
c) Alex ought to have been produced before a magistrate within twenty four hours of his arrest,
irrespective of the fact that he was let go after three days.
Q.90) Consider Alex was arrested for a crime under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967
(UAPA). Save this, all the other information remains the same as described in the above question. In
such a scenario, which of the following information can be considered true?
a) The police is under no obligation to inform Alex about the grounds of his arrest.
b) The police can keep Alex in custody for more than three days without presenting him before a
judicial magistrate.
c) Both (a) and (b).
Q.91) Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following is not a critique of the laws
regulating preventive detention?
a) It gives unbridled power to the detaining authorities.

b) The people detained under these laws are stripped of some of their fundamental rights.
c) It has a huge potential of being misused by corrupt police officers.
Passage 6
Allusions to a celebrity’s name or image are often used by companies for revenue generation which
in turn gives rise to another practice: the right of the celebrities over such use. The questions that
immediately come to mind span the following queries: Does the right of celebrities to prohibit their
image, name or persona for commercial usage without their consent extend beyond their lives? If
yes, who is entitled to exercise these rights once they are dead? Is the exercise of such rights limited
only to celebrities? Does a non–celebrity not have any recourse in the event of a wrongful use of her
name or image?
In order to answer these queries, one must first study a provision in law: the right of publicity.
Although the definitive origin of this right is rather unknown, it has been understood to be a subset
of the much broader right: the right of privacy, which essentially protects the private space of a
person. A violation of this right might not necessarily manifest itself physically but definitely finds its
impact in the mental and emotional sphere. Despite the commonality of origin, the right of publicity
differs from that of privacy in the following ways: first, in the kind of interest it seeks to protect. The
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major emphasis in this right is on the economic injury to the person concerned. Second, when it
comes to exploitation of their name or personality, celebrities are not concerned with the fact that
such a use has caused them emotional harm but more that despite being there such a use, there was
no financial remuneration. Therefore, we can define the right of publicity as such: the right of an
individual to prevent others from using his name, likeness, photograph or image for commercial
purposes without obtaining consent.
In India, the development in the field of publicity rights stems from the understanding of rights of
human dignity and liberty as enshrined in Articles 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India. It oscillates
between an individual’s right to privacy and the interest of the larger public to know. The
development of this right as a commercial property is still stunted if compared to its development in
other jurisdictions.
Q.92) Which of the following can be said to be an essential element of the right of publicity?
a) Emotional harm caused to an individual.

b) Loss of reputation of the concerned person.
c) Protection of the economic interests of the individual.
Q.93) What can said to be the major difference between the right of publicity as understood in India
and in other jurisdictions?
I. While India makes no distinction between the right of privacy and the right of publicity, other
jurisdictions have a very stark and segregated understanding of these rights.
II. The right of publicity in India is understood to be enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution while
in other jurisdictions, it is a judicially determined right.
III. In India, the right of publicity of a celebrity extends beyond the celebrity’s death while in other
jurisdictions it does not.
a) Only II
b) Both I and III
c) Only I
Q.94) Remo, a struggling actor asks his friend, D’Souza, a commercial photographer, to conduct a
photo–shoot for him so that he could have photographs for his portfolio. D’Souza does the same and
asks him to wait for a day before he can send him the final edited photographs. In that period,
D’Souza sends Remo’s photographs to an advertiser who was looking for a fresh face for an ad
campaign, and was ready to pay a certain commission fee to whoever sent in the photographs.
D’Souza receives the commission fee after which he sends the final edited photos to Remo. Has
D’Souza violated Remo’s right of publicity?
a) No, as D’Souza sent the photographs to the advertiser for Remo’s benefit.
b) Yes, as D’Souza used Remo’s photographs without his consent for a commercial gain.
c) No, as D’Souza was the owner of those photographs, he could put them to any use.
d) Yes, as D’Souza caused an emotional injury to Remo by hurting his chances at commercial gain.
Q.95) Consider that in the factual scenario provided in the above question, D’Souza wanted to
surprise Remo with an offer from an advertiser for a modeling position and sent his photographs
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accordingly without telling Remo. The advertiser likes Remo’s photographs and offers him a
modeling assignment. Elated, D’Souza gives this news to Remo who is angry at the fact that D’Souza
used his photographs without his consent. He comes to you, his lawyer, asking whether D’Souza
violated his right of publicity. Based on your reading of the passage, what would you say?
a) That Remo’s right of publicity was violated as D’Souza used Remo’s photographs without his
consent.
b) That Remo’s right of publicity was intact as there was no economic injury was caused to him.
c) That Remo should rather take an action against D’Souza for violating his right of privacy.
Q.96) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following statements cannot be inferred?
I. As long as an individual’s consent is taken, one can use the individual’s name, likeness, photograph
or image for whatever purpose without violating the individual’s right of publicity.
II. In India, the understanding of the right of publicity is derivative, understood from other rights
embedded in the Constitution.
III. The right of publicity, although distinct from the right of privacy, has traditionally been
understood as a subset of the same.
a) Only I
b) Both I and III
c) Only III
d) Both II and III
S.97–101) Directions for questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on topics that
arise out of the excerpted passage. Answers may be implied by facts mentioned in the passage but
need not be so. Please answer each question on its own merit on the basis of your knowledge of
current affairs and general knowledge.
Passage 7
In chapter IV of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) are grouped together the cases in which an act that
would ordinarily be an offence is not an offence by reasons of special circumstances in which it is
done. These are described as general exceptions. They may be pleaded in defence by an accused
person charged with any crime whether under the IPC or any local or special law.
Insanity as a defence in a criminal prosecution is embodied in Section 84 of the IPC. The section runs
as follows:
"Nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by reason of
unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either
wrong or contrary to law".
The rationale of the law of insanity as embodied in this section has its source in the M’Naghten’s
rules. These are really answers by 15 judges of England to questions put to them by the House of
Lords. The M'Naghten rules were formulated in the following circumstances:
In 1843, M'Naghten was tried for the murder of one Mr. Drummond, private secretary to Sir Robert
Peel. M'Naghten suffered from an insane delusion that Sir Robert Peel had injured him. He mistook
Drummond for Sir Robert, shot and killed him. He was tried in London before Chief Justice Tindall
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and two other judges. Chief Justice Tindall in his charge to the jury said that the question for them to
determine was whether at the time he committed the act the prisoner had or had not the use of his
understanding so as to know that he was violating the laws both of God and man. The jury gave a
verdict of not–guilty on the ground of insanity. The judges ruled that it must be clearly proved that
at the time of committing the act, the party accused was labouring under such a defect of reason,
from disease of the mind as (1) not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing; or (2) if
he did know it, that he did not know he was doing what was wrong. The mode of putting the latter
part of the question to the jury on these occasions has generally been, whether the accused at the
time of doing the act knew the difference between right and wrong. This is popularly known as the
“Right and Wrong Test”.
The word 'insanity' is not used in S. 84 of the Indian Penal Code. The section uses the expression
'unsoundness of mind'. There appears to be no difference in the etymological meaning of the two
words which may mean a defect of reason arising from a disease of the mind. However, the term
'unsoundness of mind' appears to be more comprehensive. To invoke the benefit of S. 84, it must be
proved that at the time of commission of the offence, the accused was insane and unsoundness was
of such a degree as to fulfil one of the tests laid down in S. 84; firstly, the accused was incapable of
knowing the nature of the act, secondly, that the accused was incapable of knowing that the act was
wrong or contrary to law. The insanity should be of such a nature that it destroys the cognitive
faculty of the mind to such an extent that a person is incapable of knowing the nature of his act or
what he is doing is wrong or contrary to law. Therefore, it is important to note that the law makes a
difference between medical insanity and legal insanity, and grants exemption only in cases of legal
insanity, i.e. the person should have lost all reasoning power and not be able to make logical
decisions.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Essays on the Indian Penal Code, KN Pillai)
Q.97) Ramola and Sikand had been married for three years. Over time, Sikand started having doubts
that Ramola was secretly in love with someone else. His doubts grew stronger when Ramola started
being absent for long periods during the day. One day when Ramola came back home, Sikand in a fit
of anger threw a glass bottle at her which burst on her head, causing her a severe head injury. One
part of her face was eventually paralysed. Sikand claims that he was under the delusion that Ramola
was unfaithful to him, and therefore at the time of throwing the bottle at her was uncapable of
knowing the nature of his act. Based on your reading of the above passage, which of the following
options is correct?
a) Sikand can claim the benefit of Section 84 as at the time of the commission of the offence, he was
incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
b) Sikand cannot claim the benefit of Section 84 as he cannot be proven to be of an ‘unsound mind’
at the time of the commission of the offence as is required in that Section.
c) Sikand can claim the benefit of Section 84 as he genuinely believed that Ramola was unfaithful to
him.
Q.98) Harish was accused of robbing a bank and was awaiting trial for the same. On the day of the
trial, the doctor tending to Harish in the prison certified him to be of an ‘unsound mind’ and
incapable of knowing the nature of his acts or the impact of his actions. Harish’s lawyer tells the
court that as Section 84 grants exemption from liability to those with an unsound mind, the charges
against Harish should be dropped. You are the judge in this case. What would you decide?
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a) You would grant Harish the exemption of Section 84 as the doctor has clearly certified that he is of
an ‘unsound mind’
b) You would not grant Harish the benefit of Section 84 as that requires that the unsoundness of
mind exist at the time of the commission of the offence, and not later.
c) You would grant Harish the benefit of Section 84 as being of an ‘unsound mind’, he cannot
possibly know the nature of his actions.
Q.99) Girish is addicted to alcohol. One day his craving for alcohol was so bad that while waiting in
line at the shop he grabbed a bottle from the counter and made a dash to the door. When the store
manager tried to stop him, he struck him with the bottle causing a deep laceration in the store
manager’s wrist at the vein, making him losing a lot of blood, and passing out. Can Girish claim the
exemption from liability as stated in Section 84?
a) Yes, as his addiction to alcohol drove him to be in such a state that he did not know what he was
doing.
b) Yes, as such cravings usually make a person lose control of their mind.
c) No, as the requirement of ‘unsoundness of mind’ as per Section 84 at the time of the commission
of the offence has not been satisfied.
Q.100) Laxman, a person medically certified to be of an ‘unsound mind’, entered into a fight with his
neighbour, Kush. Things went out of hand and Laxman ended up stabbing Kush in his stomach.
Thereafter, he bolted the front door of his house to prevent arrest. He even tried to run away from
the back door. When the police tried to catch him from the back side of his house, he ran back inside
and bolted the door from inside. He even tried to disperse the crowd by throwing bricks from inside
the house through the window. Can Laxman claim the exemption under Section 84?
a) Yes, as he is medically certified to be of an ‘unsound mind’, he is covered under the ambit of

Section 84 and can claim the benefit of the Section.
b) No, as his conduct after the offence shows that he had not lost all reasoning power and that he is
not legally insane, as required by Section 84.
c) Yes, as medical insanity is enough to prove that at the time of the commission of the offence, a
person cannot be the best judge of his actions.
Q.101) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?
I. Section 84 requires the doer of an act to know that the act being committed by him is wrongful in
law.
II. The M’Naghten Rules are now obsolete and are no longer used by courts.
III. The degree of insanity required by Section 84 is such that it renders the person incapable of
knowing the consequences of his actions.
a) Only I
b) Both II and III
c) Only II
d) Only III
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Passage 8
In a bid to contain the Covid–19 pandemic, governments across the world are using means and
measures that would otherwise be considered invasive and illegitimate. In some countries—China
and Israel, among others—the State has used phone tracking devices to monitor the movements of
persons who have either contracted the virus or have come into contact with someone who might
have done so.
In India, the trouble begins with the lack of a clear legal regime. Originally, various state
governments had invoked The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, a colonial era law. On 23 March 2020,
the Union government invoked the National Disaster Management Act, 2005, to seemingly provide a
lawful basis for a nation–wide lockdown. Notably, though, neither legislation provides governmental
authorities any explicit legal basis to disclose personal information of persons who have either been
inflicted with the virus or who have been quarantined for other reasons (such as their travel history).
The right to privacy, as we know, is a fundamental right. The Supreme Court’s judgment in
Puttaswamy I makes it clear that the right includes a right to informational self–determination, that
is the authority of every individual to decide for herself, when and within what limits information
about her private life should be communicated to others. Now, when governments disclose, as the
State of Karnataka has done, residential addresses, phone numbers and travel histories of persons
who have both been infected by Covid–19 or otherwise been quarantined there is a prima facie
violation of the right to privacy. The question that we need to ask ourselves, though, is whether the
infringement in this case is legitimate and constitutionally justifiable given the prevailing
circumstances.
There can be little doubt that the right to privacy, like every other fundamental right, is not an
absolute guarantee. But, as the Supreme Court held in Puttaswamy I, to restrict the right
legitimately the State must first show us that there exists a valid piece of legislation permitting it to
place a constraint on the right. In the present case, neither the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 nor the
NDMA accords the government the power to disclose personal information of any kind. Thus, the
disclosures made are, as such, illegitimate.
There is no doubt that these are extraordinary times. They call for special actions by the State.
Chandrachud, J’s plurality opinion in Puttaswamy I explicitly recognises public health as a valid
ground on which certain forms of restrictions can be placed on the right to privacy. “…the state may
assert a legitimate interest in analysing data borne from hospital records to understand and deal
with a public health epidemic such as malaria or dengue to obviate a serious impact on the
population,” he wrote. “If the State preserves the anonymity of the individual it could legitimately
assert a valid state interest in the preservation of public health to design appropriate policy
interventions on the basis of the data available to it.”
(Extracted from, with revisions and edits, “Coronavirus and the Constitution – IV: Privacy in a Public
Health Crisis”, Suhrith Parthasarathy,
https://indconlawphil.wordpress.com/2020/03/29/coronavirus–and–the–constitution–iv–privacy–
in–a–public–health–crisis/)
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Q.102) Which of the following was not held by the Supreme Court in the Puttaswamy I judgment?
I. The right to privacy is a fundamental right and cannot be subject to any restrictions.
II. In a time of public health crisis, the State has all the rights to publish personal information of the
affected patients.
III. The right to privacy also includes the right of people to decide what information about
themselves they want disseminated in public.
a) Only II
b) Both II and III
c) Only III
d) Both I and II
Q.103) Shahana, an aspiring actress, signed a contract with a talent agency for sending her portfolio
out to several production houses for audition opportunities. She had also shared a copy of her rent
agreement with the talent agency as part of a residence proof in the city. One day, she got a call for
an audition and while she was giving her audition, one of the panellists asked her whether she
wanted to move to an apartment with a lower rent. She comes to you seeking advice whether her
right to privacy was violated. What would you advice?
a) That her right to privacy has been violated as she never meant to disclose details about her rental
household to the panellists at the audition.
b) That her right to privacy has not been violated as she had herself shared a copy of her rent
agreement with the talent agency.
c) That her right of privacy was violated the very moment she handed over a copy of her rent
agreement to the talent agency.
d) That her right to privacy has not been violated as a simple question about moving to a lower rent
apartment does not indicate any malice.
Q.104) Consider that in the factual scenario described above, the contract entered into between
Shahana and the talent agency required her to furnish a copy of her rent agreement to the talent
agency. Now, if the panellist at the audition asks her the same question (whether she wanted to
move to an apartment with a lower rent), has her right of privacy been violated?
a) No, as Shahana was required to share a copy of the rent agreement under the contract.
b) Yes, as she still has the right to not let anyone know about the details in her rent agreement.
c) No, as Shahana had voluntarily shared a copy of her rent agreement.
Q.105) Which of the following moves by the State of Karnataka do you think would be most
agreeable to the author of the above passage?
I. That the State publish the data of the affected victims of Covid–19 anonymously.
II. That the State install CCTV cameras outside the door of every Covid–19 patient’s house or hospital
bed.
III. That the State frame a legislation whereby the power to publish reasonable information about
affected patients is accorded to the State, in the times of a public health crisis.
a) Only II
b) Both I and II
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c) Both I and III

d) Only I
Q.106) Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?
I. The State cannot restrict an individual’s right to privacy without a valid piece of legislation
permitting it to place restraints.
II. The provisions of the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 and the NDMA have sufficient provisions which
allow the State to place restrictions on an individual’s right to privacy.
III. It was in Puttaswamy I that the Supreme Court recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental
right for the first time.
a) Both I and III

b) Both II and III
c) Only III
d) Only I
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

S.107–111) Directions for questions:
There are only five brands of Bike named Hero, TVS, Yamaha, Honda and Bajaj in the market.
For the year 2019, details about their market share in terms of sales volume (in terms of units), is
given in pie chart whereas unit selling price and profitability are given in the table chart.
Profitability is defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue.
Market share (%)

10
Brand Unit Selling Price (Rs.) Profitability
20 30 Hero 60,000 25
Hero
TVS 40,000 10
TVS
Yamaha 25,000 20
Yamaha
Honda 45,000 40
Honda
Bajaj 75,000 30
Bajaj
15
25
In 2020, sales volume of bike increased by 30% as compared to that in 2019, while market share of
all five brands remained same. Profitability of Honda, in 2020, becomes half of its value in 2019. The
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profitability values of the other four brands remained same in 2020 as they were in 2019. Unit selling
price of each brands increased by 20% in 2020 as it were in 2019.
Q.107) Find the percentage increase in revenue for Honda?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 56%
Q.108) Which brand has lowest revenue in 2019?
a) Bajaj
b) Yamaha
c) TVS
d) Honda
Q.109) The brand that had the highest profit in 2019 is:
a) Honda
b) Hero
c) Bajaj
d) Yamaha
Q.110) The brand that had the lowest profit in 2020 is:
a) TVS
b) Honda
c) Yamaha
d) None of these
Q.111) Find the revenue for Bajaj in 2020.
a) 225,000
b) 270,000
c) 351,000
d) Can’t be determined
S.112–116) Directions for questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Adheer, Saurabh and Rahul decided to work in agriculture. They invested the amount in 3 : 4 : 5 and
took twenty acre of land in lease for ten years. Saurabh invested three lakhs more to manage the
other expenses. They planted mango and apple trees and after 6 years when it was mature in 2019,
the crop was harvested. The total revenue generated was 40% of the total amount put in by them
together and it was shared by Adheer, Saurabh and Rahul in the ratio of 6 : 9 : 10 according to their
total amount spent by them.
Q.112) What was the amount invested by Adheer?
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a) 15 Lakhs
b) 18 Lakhs
c) 24 Lakhs
d) None of these
Q.113) What was the amount received by Rahul in 2019?
a) 20 Lakhs
b) 15 Lakhs
c) 12 Lakhs
d) 10 Lakhs
Q.114) Total amount invested by Saurabh is how much percentage more/less than Rahul?
a) 10%
1
b) 11 %
9
c) 12.5%
d) Can’t be determined
S.115–116) Additional information for question:
Mango and apple trees are planted in the ratio 3 : 1. Mango trees were 400 more than apple trees.
The revenue generated from the mango and apple trees was in the ratio 3 : 7
Q.115) What was the value of output per tree for mangoes?
a) Rs. 1500
b) Rs. 1200
c) Rs. 1800
d) Rs. 1000
Q.116) What was the value of output per tree for apple?
a) Rs. 900
b) Rs. 2100
c) Rs. 10000
d) Rs. 10500
Table given below gives the market share (in terms of percentage of total revenue) of five brands in
the skin cream industry for three mention cities. Revenue is defined as number of unit sold × unit
selling price.
Lucknow Delhi Chandigarh

2018 2019 2018 2019 2018 2019
Glossier 28 27 32 22 33 40
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Lotus 24 30 25 28 30 22
Herbivore 18 17 20 25 23 18
Olay 12 8 10 11 6 7
Versed 9 10 8 7 5 6
Q.117) If unit price for Glossier and Olay is in the ratio 3:2 for Lucknow in 2019, then number of units
sold by Olay is what percentage more/less than Glossier for Lucknow in 2019.
a) 50%
b) 55.55%
c) 125%
d) 225%
Q.118) Find the percentage change in market share (in terms of revenue) for Versed from 2018 to
2019 in Delhi.
a) 12.5%
b) 14.28%
c) 11.11%
d) None of these
Q.119) If, in 2019, total revenue were 500 million $, 600 million $, 700 million $ for the cities
Lucknow, Delhi and Chandigarh respectively, then which of the following are equal:
a) Glossier revenue in Lucknow and Chandigarh in 2019

b) Lotus revenue in Lucknow and Delhi in 2019
c) Olay revenue in Lucknow and Chandigarh in 2019
d) Versed revenue in Chandigarh and Delhi in 2019
Q.120) If the revenue for Herbivore in Delhi has increased by 10% in 2019 over 2018, then find
percentage increase/decrease in total revenue of skin cream industry in Delhi from 2018 to 2019.
a) 20% increase
b) 20% decrease
c) 12% increase
d) 12% decrease
Q.121) If combined market share (in terms of revenue) of Lotus in Delhi and Chandigarh together is
27% in 2018. Then find the ratio of total revenue in skin cream from Chandigarh and Delhi in 2018.
a) 2:3
b) 3:2
c) 5:6
d) 6:5
Section – V: Logical Reasoning
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Passage 1
Some mothers suffer agony from incessantly crying babies during the first three months of life. They
usually conclude that there is something radically, physically wrong with the infants and try to treat
them accordingly. They are right, of course, that there is something physically wrong; but it is
probably effect rather than cause. The vital clue comes with the fact that this so called ‘colic’ crying
ceases, as if by magic, around the 3rd or 4th month of life. It vanishes at just the point where the
baby is beginning to be able to identify its mother as a known individual.
A comparison of the parental behaviour of mothers with crybabies and those with quieter infants
gives the answer. The former are tentative, nervous and anxious in their dealings with their
offspring. The latter are deliberate, calm and serene. The point is that even at this tender age the
baby is acutely aware of differences in tactile ‘security’ and ‘safety’ on one hand, and tactile
‘insecurity’ and ‘alarm’ on the other. An agitated mother cannot avoid signaling her agitation to her
new–born infant. It signals back to her in the appropriate manner, demanding protection from the
cause of agitation. This only serves to increase the mother’s distress, which in turn increases the
baby’s crying.
All that is necessary to break the vicious cycle is for the mother to accept the situation and become
calm herself. Even if she cannot manage this (and it is almost impossible to fool a baby on this score)
the problem corrects itself, as I said, in the 3rd or 4th month of life, because at that stage the baby
instinctively begins to respond to her as the ‘protector’. The ‘colic’ disappears.
Q.122) Which of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
a) The incessant crying of some babies during the first three months of life is not due to colic, but is
due to distress caused by nervousness and anxiety in the mother.
b) The incessant crying of some babies during the first three months of life vanishes at just the point
where the baby is beginning to be able to identify its mother as a known individual.
c) Some mothers suffer agony from incessantly crying babies during the first three months of life.
d) Even at a tender age of less than 3 months, the baby is acutely aware of differences in tactile
‘security’ and ‘safety’ on one hand, and tactile ‘insecurity’ and ‘alarm’ on the other.
Q.123) Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the author’s claim that mothers with cry
babies are tentative, nervous and anxious in their dealings with their offspring?
a) A study has revealed that babies less than 4 months who were assumed to be colic, cried less
when looked after by someone who was calm and serene.
b) The babies who were assumed to be colic, did not stop crying incessantly even after 4 months.
c) Neither (a) nor (b).
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q.124) Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s claim that the incessant crying of some
babies is because their mothers are nervous and anxious in their dealings with them?
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a) The incessant crying of babies below four months is what causes anxiety to their mothers.
b) According to a research the digestive system of babies less than three months may produce a
great deal of wind which can cause pain, but such problems disappear as the baby grows.
Q.125) Based on his statements in the passage above, which of the following is the author most
likely to agree with?
a) The problem of colic in kids disappears around the 3rd or 4th month of life.
b) The infants recognise their mothers as protectors.
c) The babies of more than 3 months show such behaviour as eye contact, smiling at a familiar face,
distress when a familiar person goes away.
d) All of the above.
Q.126) Which of the following arguments best parallels the argument of the author for the reason of
incessant crying of babies under 3 months?
a) The rains this season have been sporadic. Therefore, we may see an inflation in food prices.
b) The lockdowns are happening only in places where there are chances of community transmission
of virus. Since there are no lockdowns yet in our city, there is no possibility of community
transmission of virus.
c) Two babies in our family who had premature birth suffer from asthma. Therefore, babies who are
born prematurely have high probability of having asthma.
d) People with high blood pressure are more nervous and anxious than people who do not have high
blood pressure. Therefore, this particular combination of personality traits causes a person to
develop high blood pressure.
Passage 2
I was concerned to read of the proposals for compulsory fluoridation of water. Fluoride is a
medication and one with well–reported side effects, such as increased incidence of osteoporosis.
Those not wealthy enough to afford water filtering systems will be forced to consume it; the dose
will not depend on any perceived ‘need’ but on the amount of water consumed: I get through up to
seven litres a day so my dosage would be up to 14 times that of many people.
Additionally, the measure merely serves as a temporary cover for the real problem – that of sugar
consumption; it is not unfluoridated water but sugar which causes tooth decay; it also causes
diabetes, immune system impairment and obesity.
Fluoridation therefore merely enables people to salve their consciences in the short term regarding
bad diet and to do themselves long–term damage; it is like shooting the miner’s canary.
It is a civil liberties issue; if fluoride, why not any other medication? It is frightening to think that this
question is even being raised.
CP/20/C34
(Karen Rodgers, Letters to the editor, The Independent, 11 September 2003)
Q.127) What role does the author’s claim that fluoridation merely enables people to salve their
consciences in the short term regarding bad diet and to do themselves long–term damage play in
the argument?
a) It is the premise that supports the author’s claim that those not wealthy enough to afford water
filtering systems will be forced to consume fluoridated water.
b) It is the premise that supports the author’s claim that the measure to fluoridate water merely
serves as a cover for the real problem – that of sugar consumption.
c) It is the conclusion that follows from the author’s claim that the measure to fluoridate water
serves as a temporary cover for the real problem – that of sugar consumption.
d) It is the conclusion that follows from the author’s claim that fluoride is a medication with well–
reported side effects, such as increased incidence of osteoporosis.
a) The proposed policy for compulsory fluoridation of water should not be put into action as it shifts
the focus from the real problem and goes against civil liberties.
b) The proposed policy of compulsory fluoridation of water should not be undertaken as merely
serves as a temporary cover for the real problem – that of sugar consumption.
c) Fluoride is a medication and one with well–reported side effects, such as increased incidence of
osteoporosis.
d) Those not wealthy enough to afford water filtering systems will be forced to consume to consume
fluoridated water against their will.
Q.129) What is the assumption required by the author’s argument?
a) Fluoridation of water would cause more harm than it would benefit.

b) Bringing down the levels of sugar consumption is a far better option to prevent tooth decay than
fluoridation of water.
c) The people are not aware of ill–effects of fluoridation.
d) If water is fluoridated, people will have no incentive to cut down on sugar consumption.
Q.130) Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s argument?
a) The people are aware of ill–effects of fluoridation.

b) Messages about the ill–effects of sugar–consumption on dental health will be publicised along–
with the fluoridation of water.
c) People tend to get complacent with their health when they are under the perception that their
health is being taken care.
d) The side–effects of fluoride are well documented.
Q.131) Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author’s argument?
a) The ratio of fluoride to water will be maintained to an effective level to reduce the incidence of
tooth decay, while minimizing the risk of side–effects.
b) The side–effects of fluoride are usually very mild and infrequent.
CP/20/C34
c) A policy that effectively gives people no choice as to whether they took a particular medication
could be justified only if it had massive and widespread benefits that could not be achieved in any
other way; fluoridation of water supplies does not come in this category.
d) All of the above.
Passage 3
Those who believe organic food is good for the countryside and the environment should think a little
harder.
Organic yields are significantly lower than intensive yields. To grow the same amount of food,
organic farming therefore requires land that could otherwise be used for nature reserves, forests or
wetlands – or golf courses and low–cost housing if we so choose. To irrigate the additional land
more water is required, reducing rivers and aquifers. Moreover, since organic farms still use tractors,
water pumps, harvesters and other fossil–fuel powered implements, and these have to travel over a
greater area to produce a given quantity of food, they produce higher CO2 emissions.
As for farmers’ markets, consider what would happen if the eight million people in London were
forced to drive out to rural areas to source their food – not only would there be chaos, but also the
resultant emissions from cars would dwarf the emissions of the relatively few large lorries that
currently bring food to supermarkets in town and the short car journeys we make to the
supermarket.
Since energy and land are both costs, the market will ensure structures that make the most efficient
use of both. Organic farming does the reverse, to the detriment of all.
(Tim Hammond, Letters to the Editor, The Times, Thursday 11 January 2007)
Q.132) Which of the following forms the premise for the author’s argument that organic farming
may lead to chaos?
a) The emissions from cars travelling from homes in cities to supermarkets would be less than the
emissions from cars going to farmer markets to buy food.
b) The organic foods presently do not find their way into the supermarkets located in the cities.
c) Organic farming uses more resources such as land and energy than other methods of farming.
Q.133) Which of the following can we infer from the passage above?
a) Organic farmers usually sell their food very close to where it is grown.
b) Organic farmers do not care about increase in carbon emissions by automobiles.
CP/20/C34
Q.134) Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s argument that organic farming is
not more efficient in use of land and energy than traditional farming?
a) The land and energy costs of production and distribution of pesticides and chemical fertilisers
used in traditional farming more than compensates for additional costs of land and energy required
in organic farming.
b) The organic farmers save the costs incurred by conventional farmers in bulk stocking and
distribution of their produce.
c) Some farmers who do conventional farming do not use pesticides.
d) The organic farmers are working towards bringing down their production costs by following some
of the farming techniques used by the traditional farmers.
Q.135) Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the author’s argument that emissions from
cars traveling from cities to rural areas will dwarf the combined emissions from the lorries and car
journeys to supermarkets?
a) In UK, the lorries have almost the same per litre mileage as the cars.
b) The private cars follow stricter emission norms than the lorries.
c) The supermarkets are few and far in most towns adjoining the rural areas.
d) Organic farmers are not likely to sell their food in larger centres very far from their farms, in near
future.
a) Organic farming is harmful for the environment and inefficiently uses land and energy.
b) Organic yields are significantly lower than intensive yields.
c) Organic farming will lead to higher CO2 emissions than traditional farming.
d) People are not well–informed about the effects of organic farming on the environment.
Passage 4
Yesterday’s report by the distinguished experts on the risk posed by mobile phones is a good review
of the current state of knowledge, and its conclusion can be summed up as a large ‘Don’t know’.
That is the kind of conclusion which modern society, with its lust for certainty, is bad at handling.
Only three effects of using mobiles have been proved. One is a slight heating of the brain. On that
basis, we might as well prevent children from wearing hats.
The second is a speeding up of reaction times in robust, controlled experiments that compare
random groups of people whose heads were subjected – or not – to the low levels of microwaves
emitted by mobile phones. That is worrying, because it suggests that this kind of radiation has some
biological effect. That warrants caution and further research.
CP/20/C34
The third is an increased chance of death or injury from using a mobile while driving. The risk is
greatest when the phone is hand–held but still significant when it is hands–free, because the driver
visualises the disembodied other party and cannot see the road or its obstacles.
Let us, therefore, get the priorities in the right order. We should stop the parents using mobiles in
the car, not the children using them in the street.
Q.137) Which of the following expresses the main point of the passage?
a) The top priority should be to stop the parents from using mobiles in the car and not the children
from using mobiles in the street.
b) The risks posed by mobile phones are largely unknown.
c) There is an increased chance of death or injury from using a mobile while driving.
d) The modern society is bad at handling conclusions that are lack certainty.
Q.138) What is the assumption required for the author’s dismissal of the effect that mobiles cause
slight heating of the brain as not important?
a) Preventing children from wearing hats will prevent heating of their brains.
b) Using a mobile phone does not heat the brain any more than does wearing a hat.
Q.139) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the author’s argument that speeding up of
reaction times is not sufficiently worrying to stop children from using mobile phones?
a) The people were subjected to similar levels of microwaves in the controlled experiments as they
would normally be subjected while using mobile phones.
b) The microwaves emitted by mobile phones have similar effects on adults as they have on children.
c) Speeding up of reaction times is an indication of a more serious health condition in children.
Q.140) Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage above?
a) The risk of accidents due to using mobiles while driving is greater when the phone is hand–held
than when it is hands–free.
b) Talking to someone else who is in the car is as likely to increase the chance of an accident as
talking to someone on the mobile using hands–free.
c) The risk of accidents due to using mobiles while driving is sufficient reason to stop people from
doing so.
d) None of the above can be inferred.
Q.141) The reasoning in the author’s argument regarding lack of sufficient proof to stop children
from using mobiles is flawed because it
a) mistakes an effect for a cause

b) treats a failure to prove a claim as constituting proof of the denial of that claim
c) offers, in place of support for its conclusion, a mere restatement of that conclusion
d) assumes what it seeks to establish
CP/20/C34
Q.142) Statements:
Some pigeons are parrots.
All the parrots are fish.
Conclusions:
I. All fish are parrots.
II. Some pigeons are fish.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Both I and II follow
d) Neither I nor II follows
Q.143) Statements:
Some Toys are Cars.
All Balls are Chairs.
All Cars are Balls.
Conclusions:
I. Some Toys are Balls
II. All Balls are Cars
III. All Chairs are Toys
IV. All Balls are Toys
a) Only I & II follow

b) Only II follows
c) Only I & IV follow
d) None of these
Q.144) Statements:
Some ships are boats.
All boats are submarines.
Some submarines are yatches.
Conclusion:
I. Some yatches are boats.
II. Some submarines are boats.
III. Some submarines are ships.
a) All follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only III follows
d) Only I follows
CP/20/C34
From among three girls – X, Y and Z and four boys – P, Q, R and S, a group of four is to be formed
such that at least 1 girl and at least 2 boys are selected.
Further conditions are as follows:

i. If Q is selected, then Z is selected.
ii. X and P are never selected together.
iii. P is selected only if S is selected.
iv. S and Q are never selected together.
v. If Y is selected then neither R nor S is selected.
Q.145) In how many ways can the group be formed if S has to be selected?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Q.146) Who among the following can never be selected?
a) X
b) Y
c) P
d) R
Q.147) Which of the following cannot be selected if Q is selected?
a) Z
b) X
c) R
d) P
Six people – Andy, Benny, Candy, Denny, Edward and Farhan like exactly one of the games – Chess,
Golf, Baseball, Cricket, Badminton and Football, not necessarily in order. No game is liked by more
than one person. Each of them belongs to a different city – Dehradun, Lucknow, Delhi, Chandigarh,
Varansi and Ranchi not necessarily in same order. Denny doesn’t like Cricket and belongs to
Lucknow. The one who belongs to Chandigarh likes Badminton. Edward belongs to Varansi and does
not like Chess. Andy doesn’t belong to Ranchi and he likes Baseball. Candy belongs to Dehradun.
Benny likes Golf and he doesn’t belong to Delhi. The one who belongs to Dehradun doesn’t like
Cricket or Chess.
Q.148) From which city does Benny belongs to?
a) Chandigarh
b) Varansi
c) Ranchi
CP/20/C34
d) Delhi
Q.149) Who among the following likes Football?
a) Denny
b) Edward
c) Farhan
d) Candy
Q.150) The one, who likes Baseball, belongs to which city?
a) Delhi
b) Varansi
c) Lucknow
d) Dehradun

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CP/20/C34

Q.8) What is Authors tone in the given passage?

a) More babies being born

Q.11) According to the passage what is ‘death control’?

a) Population’s rate of increase must be controlled

Q.13) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) Only 2 and 3 are correct

a) Superstitions exist in civilized societies

Q.15) What does ‘witchcraft’ mean in the passage?

a) The practice of seeking knowledge of the future by supernatural means –divinations

Q.17) Which of the following best explains the passage?

[Extracted from websource:

Q.18) This passage can be best described as:

a) An essay on the origin of Bharata Natyam

Q.19) The Devadasis were:

a) Female musicians who served the deity in temples

Q.20) Which of the following is true about Bharat Natyam?

a) Only women generally perform it

Q.21) Which is the status of Bharata Natyam today?

a) It is practiced all over India

In the questions 23-30 mark your answers as the following

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.31) What is [1] referred to as in the above passage?

Q.32) What is [2] referred to as in the above passage?

Q.33) Among the following is not an observer state of SCO?

Q.34) India is not a member of which of the following organizations?

Q.35) What is [3] referred to as in the above passage?

Q.36) Gram Nyayalayas act was passed by parliament in which year.

Q.38) Which state has maximum number of Gram Nyayalayas presently?

Q.40) Gram Nyalayayas is headed by

a) Head of village Panchayat

a) Nobel Peace Prize

a) Joint Commission Plan of Action

Q.49) What is the largest Iranian export after petroleum products?

Q.50) Capital of Iraq?

Q.52) 'Umbrella Protest' occurred in which of the following years?

a) Punjab National Bank

Q.61) Which is not among the 3 themes of budget 2020–21?

a) Rakhi Gadi in Haryana

a) Vivad se Vishwaas Scheme

Q.65) How many more airports will be developed under UD A N by 2024?

a) Vidya Laxmi scheme

Section – III: Legal Reasoning

i. Obligation towards lawful visitors

Invitees can be considered as examples of lawful visitors. An occupier of a premises is supposed to

a) Yes, as carbon monoxide is a dangerous substance to have in one’s premises.

a) Both II and III

a) The right to a reasonable accommodation

(Extracted from, Mahendra Pal Singh, V.N. Shukla’s Constitution of India)

Q.82) Which of these is not a characteristic of directive principles of State policy?

a) Both I and III

a) That they are both the part of the same Constitution.

Therefore, detaining of an individual doesn’t equate to a denial of rights. However, as soon as

“(3) Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply—

a) It gives unbridled power to the detaining authorities.

a) Emotional harm caused to an individual.

a) Yes, as he is medically certified to be of an ‘unsound mind’, he is covered under the ambit of

c) Both I and III

a) Both I and III

Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

S.107–111) Directions for questions:

Profitability is defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue.

Market share (%)