Question Paper 6

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All India Mock CLAT 05 (2021)
English Language
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Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer
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each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more than
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one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and
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comprehensively answers the question.
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Passage – 1
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When a scientific paradigm breaks down, scientists need to make a leap into the unknown. These are moments of
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revolution, as identified by Thomas Kuhn in the 1960s, when the scientists' worldview becomes untenable and the
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agreed-upon and accepted truths of a particular discipline are radically called into question. Beloved theories are
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revealed to have been built upon sand. Explanations that held up for hundreds of years are now dismissed. A
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particular and productive way of looking at the world turns out to be erroneous in its essentials. The great scientific
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revolutions - such as those instigated by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton, Lavoisier, Einstein and Wegener - are times of
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great uncertainty, when cool, disinterested reason alone doesn't help scientists move forward because so many of
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their usual assumptions about how their scientific discipline is done turn out to be flawed. So they need to make a
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leap, not knowing where they will land. But how?

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To explain how scientists are able to make this leap, the philosopher of science Bas van Fraassen in The Empirical
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Stance (2002) drew on Jean-Paul Sartre's Sketch for a Theory of the Emotions (1939). Sartre was dissatisfied with the
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major mid-20th-century theories about emotions (especially those by William James and Sigmund Freud) that treated
emotions as mere passive states. You might fall in love, or be gripped with jealousy. It seemed that emotions
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happened to you without any agency on your part. Sartre, by contrast, held that emotions are things that we do. They
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have a purpose, and they are intentional. For example, when we get angry, we do so to seek a solution, to resolve a
tense situation. Sartre wrote:
When the paths before us become too difficult, or when we cannot see our way, we can no longer put up with such an
exacting and difficult world. All ways are barred and nevertheless we must act. So then we try to change the world.
The world that Sartre referred to is the world of our subjective experience. It is the world of our needs, our wants, our
fears and our hopes. In his view, emotions transform the world like magic. A magical act, such as voodoo, alters the
attitude of the practitioner to the world. Magical spells and incantations don't change the physical environment, but
they change our world, by shifting our desires and hopes. Similarly, emotions change our outlook and how we engage
with the world. Take Sartre's example of sour grapes: seeing that the grapes are unreachable, you decide, 'they are
too sour anyway'. Though you didn't change the chemical property of the grapes in any way, the world has become a
bit more bearable. Anticipating contemporary ideas about embodied cognition, Sartre speculated that physical actions
help us to produce emotions. We clench our fists in anger. We weep in sadness.
Applying this idea to scientific practice, Van Fraassen argues that scientists draw on their emotions when dealing with
new, bewildering ideas, especially those that sprout up during scientific revolutions. If the paradigm is faltering,
scientists need to change the way they view the world - and this requires that they change themselves. Scientists need
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to transform both who they are and what they know. Only once scientists themselves are transformed in this way can
they accept a theory that they originally thought outlandish or ridiculous.
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Q 1. 11649100 All of the following be inferred from the passage EXCEPT:
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a) Even established scientific concepts and methods may be proven wrong sometimes.
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b) Established scientific concepts and methods are unalterable.
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c) Not all scientific researches are done with clear methods and desired results in sight.
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d) Science may not always be devoid of human emotions.
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Q 2. 11649100 According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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a)
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According to Kuhn, moments of revolution are the times when the established scientists' worldview becomes
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unsustainable.
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b) Scientists' worldview, once established as true, remains the same forever.

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c) Scientists have relied on their emotions during scientific revolution.
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d) Scientists need to change themselves during the time when the scientific paradigm weakens.
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a) Science is fixed and cannot be changed either by the changing times or by the new scientists.
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b) Science is purely pragmatic in its approach and there is no room for mistakes.
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c) When the existing scientific paradigm is rendered invalid scientists explore a new approach.
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d) Scientific approaches are subjective and are always based on emotions.

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Q 4. 11649100 Which of the following is consistent with Van Fraassen's argument?
a) Scientists do not have to change themselves and their worldviews.
b) Scientists never look at their studies emotionally.
c) Scientists draw on their emotions when dealing with new and bewildering ideas.
d) Sartre's reference to the world is purely based on personal experience and needs.
Q 5. 11649100 Which of the following is the logical corollary to the last sentence of the given passage?
a) Van Fraassen doesn't specify which emotions can help scientists.
b) There are a few problems with this theory.

c) The need for cognitive accommodation makes you aware that there is a lot you don't know.
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One way to salvage the Sartre and Van Fraassen account is to propose that emotions are under our indirect control.
Passage – 2
It is a watershed moment for start-ups in the defence production space in India. At the recently concluded Aero-India
show, the government signed a Rs 48,000 crore contract to procure 83 Tejas aircrafts from HAL, the largest "Make in
India" deal ever. More importantly, the Air Force Chief R K S Bhadauria clearly underlined the importance of building
indigenous defence capability with participation from our private sector. These developments are a "call-to-action" for
India's tech-savvy startups to now make their presence felt in the national security realm.
Today, India has the third largest startup ecosystem in the world, with close to 50,000 startups. According to data
provided by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, 1,300 new tech startups were born in 2019 alone, which means
that two to three tech startups are born every day in our country. However, not enough of our mavericks are daring to
enter the defence space. One only needs to look at the sectoral spread of our unicorns to find the evidence for this.
Out of the 21 Indian unicorns identified by the Hurun Global Unicorn List 2020, seven were in e-commerce, three in
fintech, two each in the shared economy, on-demand delivery and logistics and one each in the new energy, edu-tech,
big data, communications and gaming segments. Unfortunately for us, defence was not among the first 10 sectors of
our economy to produce at least one unicorn.
The above identified problem has taken on a serious dimension since the escalation of tensions with China last year.
India needs to ramp up indigenous defence production not only for the sake of increasing export-driven
manufacturing, but also for self-reliance in the face of a formidable adversary. Regrettably, in 2018-19, defence
procurement from Indian vendors was at a five-year low. Currently, the private sector in India has less than 5 per cent
annual share of direct orders from the defence ministry for manufacturing. While these are statistics that may be cause
for concern for citizens and fiscal deficit hawks, they illustrate a massive opportunity for start-ups.
India is currently the world's second-largest arms importer, accounting for 9.2 per cent of the global arms imports
between 2015-19. With a government poised to reduce import-dependence at the helm, start-ups have a large pie to
go after. India is the third-largest military spender in the world with its military spending at $71.1 billion in 2019.
India's start-ups with best-in-class capabilities in automation, robotics, navigation systems, drones and big data should
now target the defence production sector with a laser focus. From a "winner-takes-all" approach that is prevalent in the
digital economy, startups now need to move to an "all-are-winners" approach to succeed in the national security space.
When the technological prowess of our start-ups adds to our military might, it will be a win-win for citizens and soldiers
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as well as entrepreneurs and government officials committed to building self-reliance.

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Q 6. 11649100 Which of the following statements, if true, would most likely be supported by the author of the
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passage?
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a) The government should offer more opportunities to retired persons.

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b) The government should focus on improving ties with the neighbouring countries.
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c) The government should support start-ups interested to contribute to the defence industry.
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d) The government should invite foreign companies for contribution to the defence sector.
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Q 7. 11649100 Out of the following options, which one appropriately captures the central idea of the passage?
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a) Time to introduce start-ups in the defence sector

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b) Time to introduce foreign collaboration in the defence sector

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c) Innovation in the defence sector

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d) Defence sector: Striving towards excellence

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Q 8. 11649100 Outof the following options, which one is a synonym of the phrasal verb 'Ramp up' as used in the
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a) Persuade b) Defuse c) Atrophy d) Augment
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Q 9. 11649100 Out of the following options, which one is factually correct in the light of the passage?
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a) Indian start-ups have proven to be the best in the world.
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b) Indian start-ups have proven excellence in drone technology.
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c) Indian start-ups still do not have the expertise to contribute to the defence sector.
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d) Indian start-ups often suffer from fund crunch and so, the government should help them.
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Q 10. 11649100 In the light of the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?
a) Many banks offer loans to individuals and so, start-ups are possible.
b) Start-ups can be instrumental in bringing valuable foreign exchange.
c) In India, the entrepreneurial mindset has gained prominence in the recent past.
d) In India, people are interested in start-ups because government jobs are scarce.
Passage – 3
Not only are humans changing the surface and temperature of the planet, but also its sounds - and those shifts are
detectable even in the open ocean, according to research published Thursday. Changes in the ocean soundscape
affect wide swaths of marine life, from tiny snapping shrimp to huge right whales, the researchers found. "Sounds
travel very far underwater. For fish, sound is probably a better way to sense their environment than light," said Francis
Juanes, an ecologist at the University of Victoria in Canada and a co-author of the review paper in the journal Science.
While light tends to scatter in water, he said, sounds travel much faster through water than through air. Many fish and
marine animals use sound to communicate with each other, to locate promising locations to breed or feed, and
possibly to detect predators. For example, snapping shrimp make a sound resembling popping corn that stuns their
prey. Humpback whale songs can resemble a violinist's melodies. But increased noise from shipping traffic, motorized
fishing vessels, underwater oil and gas exploration, offshore construction and other human activity is making it harder
for fish to hear each other. The researchers sifted through thousands of data sets and research articles documenting
changes in noise volume and frequency to assemble a comprehensive picture of how the ocean soundscape is
changing - and how marine life is impacted. Using underwater microphones, scientists can record fish sounds - which
tend to hover around the same low frequencies as shipping traffic noise. "For many marine species, their attempts to
communicate are being masked by sounds that humans have introduced," said Carlos Duarte, a marine ecologist at
the Red Sea Research Center in Saudi Arabia and co-author of the paper. The Red Sea is one of the world's key
shipping corridors, full of large vessels traveling to Asia, Europe and Africa. Some fish and invertebrates now avoid the
noisiest areas, as the sound effectively fragments their Red Sea habitat, he said. Meanwhile the overall number of
marine animals has declined by about half since 1970. In some parts of the ocean, scientists now record "fewer
animals singing and calling than in the past - those voices are gone," said Duarte. Climate change also influences
physical processes that shape ocean sounds, such as winds, waves and melting ice, the researchers found. "Imagine
having to raise your kids in a place that's noisy all the time. It's no wonder many marine animals are showing elevated
and detectable levels of stress due to noise," said Joe Roman, a University of Vermont marine ecologist, who was not
involved in the paper. "When people think of threats facing the ocean, we often think of climate change, plastics and
overfishing. But noise pollution is another essential thing we need to be monitoring," said Neil Hammerschlag, a
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University of Miami marine ecologist, who was not involved with the paper. "If you make something for the ocean, think
about how to make it quieter."
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Q 11. 11649100 Which of the following would be the most appropriate title of the given passage?
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a) b)
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The need for human intervention in marine life Researches on the effect of human noise on marine life
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communication c)
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Disruption of marine life communication by human noise
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d) Human noise and marine animals
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Q 12. 11649100 Identify the figure of speech used in the sentence "Imagine having to raise your kids in a place that's
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noisy all the time."
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a) Metonymy b) Analogy c) Metaphor d) Litotes
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Q 13. 11649100 According to the given passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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a) Increased level of stress is detected in marine life due to the sounds produced by humans.
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b) Fish rely more on sound to find their ideal locations for breeding.
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c) Sounds possibly help fish to detect their predators.
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d) Sounds travel much faster through air than through water.
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Q 14. 11649100 It can be inferred from the given passage that:

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noise pollution, as a threat to ocean, has always been considered as serious as climate change, plastics and
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overfishing.
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noise pollution, as a threat to ocean, will never be considered as serious as climate change, plastics and overfishing.
c) noise pollution, as a threat to ocean, is still not considered as serious as climate change, plastics and overfishing.
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noise pollution, as a threat to ocean, will be considered more serious than climate change, plastics and overfishing in
the future.
Q 15. 11649100 Which of the following is the antonym of the word 'comprehensive' as used in the given passage?
a) Inclusive b) Limited c) Ambiguous d) Abstruse
Passage – 4
Helen Taylor tells us at the beginning of Why Women Read Fiction: The stories of our lives, women account for 80 per
cent of fiction sales. More women than men are members of libraries and book clubs …literary festivals and bookshop
events ... audio books and attend more literary evening classes. Most literary bloggers are women … In order to
answer her central question, she "conducted lengthy interviews with selected women writers and professionals in
publishing and the media" … She put together an informal email questionnaire, of thirty-nine questions requiring
detailed answers, which is included in full as an appendix, that she sent out to as many women as possible … What
she was told by her 428 respondents … lies at the heart of Why Women Read Fiction.
In order to get to the why, she first explores the questions of how, where, when and what women are reading. Early on,
she cites Hermione Lee's description of two kinds of reading, "vertical" and "horizontal": "the first regulated,
supervised, orderly, canonical and productive, the second unlicensed, private, leisurely, disreputable, promiscuous and
anarchic". The "negative associations with the latter" are "all too frequently assigned to female readers". Oddly though,
Taylor does not overturn the lazy stereotyping that casts horizontal reading as negative. Among the questionnaire
correspondents she quotes … there is a general trend towards that most galling of terms, "guilty pleasure", and of the
time spent reading novels as being time greedily snatched…
While not denying that this is the reality for some, I would have loved to see a broader sampling that included more
women readers for whom reading is not first and foremost a "guilty pleasure", and who do not think of "private,
leisurely" etc as bad things. Of the many beloved novels mentioned by name by the women Taylor spoke to, two came
up significantly more often than any others: Pride and Prejudice and Jane Eyre. The image of Taylor's composite
woman reader really couldn't be more stereotypical if one tried. We could look to the New York Times book critic Parul
Sehgal, for example, whose reading habits can't be mapped onto Lee's binaries. On a recent episode of the New York
Times Book Review podcast, Sehgal described how she can only read lying down, and preferably late at night, when
everyone else is asleep, so there is something furtive and languorous about the experience, yet she is also one of the
smartest, most perceptive critics writing today. For Sehgal, the "private" and the "productive" converge …
The logic of this argument notwithstanding, this wasn't the only occasion I found myself wondering about the
undeclared age range of Taylor's interviewees; the thinking of many of them seems to be rigidly bound up in rather
outdated gender norms. "Boys are not encouraged to live in a make believe world", one "older" correspondent
declares, arguing that she believes the gendered categories of her childhood still prevail today: "Books for males are
informative and boys' books used to mould the future man. Men 'do', women are introspective". Taylor recognizes that
this "may seem like a dangerous generalization", but, she argues, "there's plenty of anecdotal evidence that men and
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women connect with and share fiction in different ways"…

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a) The author seems to underpin the age groups and gender norms of Taylor's interviewees.
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b) Fiction sales are more contingent on women readers than men readers.
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c) Taylor is agog about gleaning information in more than one way.

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d) Taylor's inquiring nature of women's nature is multipronged.

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Q 17. 11649100 According to the passage, Hermione Lee's description refers to all of the following EXCEPT
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a) monitored and fruitful. b) c) unhurried and licentious d)

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authoritative and unlicensed, brisk and

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supervised. lawless.
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Q 18. 11649100 We can infer that "private, leisurely" according to the author's perspective implies:
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a) it comprises women with horizontal reading. b) the survey could have included more women readers.
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c) it could be termed as 'negative' reading. d) this group of readers are less preferred by Taylor.
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Q 19. 11649100 According to the passage, which of the following is not part of Helen's effort?
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a) Reading is a secretive and indolent activity.
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b) Most women read fiction from a host of sources.
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c) Both men and women have some commonality in reading fiction.
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d) Why Women Read Fiction: The stories of our lives has the responses to Taylor's questionnaire.
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Q 20. 11649100 Which of the following can be inferred from an older correspondent's opinion given in the passage?
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a) Girls are encouraged to read fiction. b) Boys are not less discouraged to read fiction.
c) Women reflect while men execute. d) Gender diversity is less germane presently.
Passage – 5
Since Independence, the Indian government has struggled to achieve political modernity within acceptable religious
boundaries. Religious diversity in India necessitates governmental sensitivity toward sometimes opposing principles,
and yet, when religious practices threaten an individual's access to the rights of citizenship, a secular government has
to intervene. The Indian Supreme Court case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum and others brought to
the forefront issues of citizenship, minority identity, and national sovereignty amidst an environment of fear and tension
during the mid-1980s.
The case and its ensuing controversy reflect the threat religious fundamentalism can pose to liberal democracy without
the intervention of a uniform civil code. India suffers from a specific brand of communalism that was fostered by British
imperialists as a means of weakening the Nationalist Movement by forcing religious rather than national allegiance.
Religious identification was a means of mobilizing politically, and the resulting political divide between Hindus and
Muslims worsened progressively despite the efforts of Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru, eventually leading to
Partition in 1947.
The Shah Bano controversy was the first of the Rajiv Gandhi government, which came into power following the 1984
assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi. What began with a citizen, Shah Bano Begum, utilizing her Fundamental Right to
petition the court, became a permeating political dilemma with far-reaching consequences. From India's beginnings as
an independent nation, nationalist leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru devoted themselves to the
ideals of tolerance, equality, and unity. With Shah Bano, those ideals became contradictory, and the politicization of
religion usurped the practice of democratic government by fomenting disunity among the Indian populace. Muslim
fundamentalists sacrificed equality to preserve their religious identity.
The meaning of secularism became a struggle between the state's responsibility to protect the individual, and the
preservation of oppressive religious traditions. The unwillingness of the Indian government led by Prime Minister Rajiv
Gandhi to enforce the equal rights of Muslim women in the case of Shah Bano represented a monumental failure of
government to protect the rights of the individual citizen. Social equality was undermined by religious politics and
secularism became a weapon with which Hindus and Muslims alike sought to alter the Indian Constitution. In the
aftermath of the Supreme Court judgment in Shah Bano, the maintenance of personal laws served as a rallying point
for communal demands and brought into question the true meaning of the religious tolerance so valued by the
founders of Democratic India.
Islamic personal law, known as the Shariat, governs marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other family affairs. When the
Indian Supreme Court interpreted the Shariat as a means of applying it to their ruling in the Shah Bano case, the
subsequent involvement of Muslim fundamentalists, Hindu extremists, and women's rights activists led to one of the
most dangerous political crises India had faced since Partition. The Shah Bano case evoked a tremendous response
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among almost every citizen of India and reinforced the principle that secular nations like India cannot allow religious
communalism to distort their commitment to democracy.
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Q 21. 11649100 According to the passage, all of the following are true about the Shah Bano case EXCEPT:
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a)
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Muslim fundamentalists, Hindu extremists, and women's rights activits involved themselves at some point in the case.
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b) The case brought to the forefront issues of national sovereignty, minority identity, and citizenship.
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c) The case evoked a tremendous response among each and every citizen of India.
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d) The case had far-reaching consequences.
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Q 22. 11649100 Which of the following would the critics of the assertion "India suffers from a specific brand of
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communalism that was fostered by British imperialists as a means of weakening the Nationalist Movement by forcing
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religious rather than national allegiance." most likely say?
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a)
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Despite their effort to mix religion and nationalism, the British imperialists could not prevent the independence of India
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in 1947.
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The policy of religious allegiance over national allegiance had been born in India a long time before British rule and
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British imperialists fanned the flames.

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India's brand of communalism is a product of post-independence religious extremism rather than the policies of the
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British imperialists.
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British imperialist policies play only a minor role in developing India's brand of communalism, with the divisive policies
of pre-British era Muslim rulers being majorly responsible for it.
Q 23. 11649100 All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT:
a)
Religious fundamentalism and politicisation of religion hindered the equality that could have been achieved through the
Shah Bano case.
b)
The government failed to protect the rights of the individual citizen in the Shah Bano case in its endeavour to protect
religious tolerance.
c)
The Supreme court's application of Shariat to their decision in the Shah Bano case led to the maintenance of personal
laws becoming a major communal demand.
d)
Indian secularism has had to face a tension between religious fundamentalism and the protection of rights granted to
every Indian citizen.
Q 24. 11649100 Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the author behind writing this passage?
a)
To describe the politicisation and religious fundamentalism associated with the Supreme court judgement in the Shah
Bano case of the 1980s.
b)
To comment on the impact of the Shah Bano case on India's secular democracy in the context of religious
fundamentalism and politicisation of religion.
c)
To criticise the role of the government and religious fundamentalism in harming the fabric of Indian democracy through
the Shah Bano case of the 1980s.
d)
To give a historical perspective of the Shah Bano case and show how the case snowballed into something much larger
than itself.
Q 25. 11649100 What does the word 'weapon' as used in Para 4 imply?
a) An empowering tool that Hindus and Muslims could wield to seek religious justice.
b) A religious tool used by both Hindus and Muslims in a similar way to change the Indian Constitution.
c)
A tool that Hindus and Muslims could use equally to defend against constitutional changes imposed on their religion.
d) A tool using which both Hindus and Muslims attempted to pursue their partisan interests.
Passage – 6
80 years ago, when the Summer Olympics opened on Aug. 1, 1936, in Berlin, it became increasingly clear that
Germany only wanted to see its athletes in one light: the stars of the Aryan race, superior for their genetic makeup
rather than their athleticism, says Barbara Burstin, history lecturer at the University of Pittsburgh and Carnegie Mellon
University. "It provided Hitler with a showcase," Burstin says. "It was a propaganda bonanza for him."
Adolf Hilter, who had effectively become Germany's dictator in 1933, had instituted an "Aryans-only" policy throughout
all German athletic organizations, sparking global outrage, especially among American athletes. Some athletes and
Olympics organizers in the United States and Europe considered pulling out of the Olympics altogether to compete
elsewhere. Avery Brundage, then the president of the American Olympic Committee, opposed a boycott, arguing that
"the Olympic Games belong to the athletes and not to the politicians."
Some academics, including Burstin, now believe that Brundage was complicit in the Nazi's anti-Semitism in the
Olympics, and that he even attempted to paint American Jews as unpatriotic and misguided for supporting a boycott.
Meanwhile, the Nazis, seeing the negative reaction to what was supposed to be a great moment for Germany,
temporarily took down anti-Jewish propaganda and did what they could to clean up Germany's image prior to the
games. In the end, the U.S. would send several Jewish athletes to the games, and many journalists covered the
games with a degree of positivity, with TIME reporting in 1936 that most newspapers focused on "the ceremonious
procession" of the Olympics' first modern Torch Relay rather than "other doings in Berlin."
Though Hitler's attempt to see Aryan athletes triumph was not a complete success-most famously due to the medal
sweep brought by U.S. track star Jesse Owens-German athletes did walk away with the most Olympic medals. Some
thought the games showed Germany had successfully crawled out of the economic ditch it had fallen into post-WWI
and had ultimately acted as a great host.
And so those Olympics would have repercussions that went far beyond the world of sports.
"It kind of dulled the opposition to [Hitler] that clearly had been quite evident up to 1936," Burstin says. "A lot of people
felt he was clearly heading in the wrong direction, and by going to the Olympics we gave him the opportunity to appear
sane, rational and tolerant."
Behind the scenes, however, the Olympics presented hardly a pause in the terrible progress of Nazism.
As Jesse Owens was running to victory, two Jewish runners for the U.S. team, Marty Glickman and Sam Stoller, had
been pulled by their coach from the 4×100 meter relay the day before the event, in what was believed by Glickman to
be an attempt to not embarrass Germany. And after the games, William E. Dodd, then the U.S. ambassador to
Germany, said Jews awaited the restoration of anti-Semitic Nazi actions "with fear and trembling," according to the
U.S. Holocaust Memorial Museum. The head of the Olympic village, Captain Wolfgang Furstner, killed himself two
days after the games upon his dismissal from military service due to his Jewish ancestry.
Several aspects of the 1936 games still exist today in Olympics-the torch relay, the television broadcast, and above all
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the deep-seated element of politics and extreme nationalism.

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Q 26. 11649100 According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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a) The consequences of Summer Olympics went beyond the realm of sports.

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b) Germany faced economic hardships after World War I.

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c)
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Avery Brundage attempted to portray American Jews as unpatriotic for supporting a boycott of the Summer Olympics.
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d)
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Today's Olympics retain many aspects of the Summer Olympics of 1936, such as the torch relay, the TV broadcast,
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and politics and extreme nationalism.

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Q 27. 11649100 What does Avery Brundage imply when he says, "the Olympic Games belong to the athletes and not
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to the politicians."?
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a) The policies and biases of politicians do not impact a game of the stature of Olympics.
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b) In Olympics, the concerns of politicians should not matter as much as the concerns of athletes.
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c) Sports-related, and not political considerations should hold power over Olympics.
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d) The policies of politicians cannot be allowed to rule over sports.
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Q 28. 11649100 Based on the passage, what is the most likely reason that Jesse Owens' win diminished the
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"propaganda bonanza" for Hitler?
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a) Jesse Owens was a US Jewish athlete, and thus, as per Hitler, of a lower genetic make-up.
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b) Jesse Owens was an American black athlete and should not have participated as per Hitler's rules.
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c) Jesse Owens' win pointed to his superior genetic make-up despite being African-American.
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d) Jesse Owens was not an Aryan, and thus, as per Hitler, not of a superior genetic make-up.
Q 29. 11649100 Which of the following can be stated about the outcome of Olympics 1936 for Hitler?
a)
The Olympics revealed that Hitler was a rational leader and a great host, and Germany an economically sound nation.
b) The Olympics managed to seep in the element of politics and extreme nationalism in sports.
c)
The German athletes bagging most of the medals partially justified to the world Hitler's belief in the superiority of the
Aryan race, and he kept perpetuating his anti-Semitic policies.
d) The Olympics improved the image of Hitler and thus reduced the opposition towards him.
Q 30. 11649100 Why has the author written the second last para "As Jesse Owens was…ancestry"?
a)
To illustrate how deep seated and pervasive the bias against Jews was and one sports event was hardly sufficient to
eliminate it.
b)
To illustrate how the rationality and tolerance of Hitler was a mere façade in Olympics and Nazism continued unabated
despite them.
c) To show instances of varying degrees of discrimination against the Jews in the aftermath of Olympics.
d)
To illustrate how, in reality, Nazism hardly paused and stood bolstered because of the Olympics as seen by acts of
discrimination inside and outside Germany.
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

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Passage-01
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Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has presented the Union Budget 2021-22 in Parliament. This was Sitharaman’s
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third budget under the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. In a
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significant departure from the tradition, this year’s Budget was not printed and was only made available in a digital
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format. In a significant change amid digitalisation, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman this year unveiled a [1] tablet
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replacing the traditional briefcase before presenting Budget 2021.

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With the move aimed at a paperless Budget, now 'bahi khata' (a ledger wrapped in a red cloth) has been completely
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removed from this year -- a move to reinforce Prime Minister Narendra Modi's ambitious 'Digital India' mission. In
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1947, India's first Finance Minister [2] carried a leather portfolio to present the first Budget.
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In significant changes to the taxation process, Sitharaman announced the scrapping of income tax for senior citizens
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under certain conditions, new rules for removal of double taxation for NRIs, and a reduction in the time period of tax
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assessments among other measures. Startups will get an extension in their tax holiday for an additional year.
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Sitharaman also announced that the advance tax liability on dividend income shall arise after declaration of payment of
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dividend. In her speech, Sitharaman announced that India’s fiscal deficit is set to jump to 9.5 per cent of Gross
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Domestic Product in 2020-21 as per Revised Estimates. This is sharply higher than 3.5 per cent of GDP that was
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projected in the Budget Estimates. A slump in government revenues amid the Covid-19 pandemic has led to a sharp
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rise in deficit and market borrowing. In health care spending, Sitharaman announced a total spend of around Rs 2 lakh
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crore on healthcare with Rs [3] on Covid-19 vaccine development and innoculation.
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Q 31. 11649100 In a significant change amid digitalisation, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman unveiled a '[1]' tablet
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replacing the traditional briefcase before presenting Budget 2021. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in
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the passage above?
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a) Atmanirbar in India b) Made in India c) Pandamic in India d) Vaccine in India
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Q 32. 11649100 In 1947, India's first Finance Minister [2] carried a leather portfolio to present the first Budget. Who is
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the India’s first Finance Minister whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
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a) John Matthai b) Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh

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c) R. K. Shanmukham Chetty d) Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari
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Q 33. 11649100 In health care spending, Nirmala Sitharaman announced a total spend of around Rs 2 lakh crore on
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healthcare with Rs [3] on Covid-19 vaccine development and innoculation. Which of the following has been redacted
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with [3] in the passage above?

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a) Rs 25,000 crore b) Rs 35,000 crore c) Rs 55,000 crore d) Rs 75,000 crore

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Q 34. 11649100 The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in the Article
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___________ of the Constitution of India.

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a) Article 110 b) Article 111 c) Article 112 d) Article 113

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Q 35. 11649100 As of January 2021, who among the following finance ministers has presented the highest number of
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budgets?
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a) Morarji Desai b) P Chidambaram c) Pranab Mukherjee d) Yashwant Sinha
Q 36. 11649100 Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that this year's budget was based on 6 pillars to ensure
the overall development of the country. Which of the following is not one among the 6 pillars announced in the Union
Budget 2021-2022?
a) Physical & financial capital & infrastructure b) Inclusive development for aspirational India
c) Reinvigorating human capital d) Make India pharmacy superpower in the world
Passage-02
As the first-ever treaty to ban nuclear weapons entered into force on [1], India said that it does not support the treaty
and shall not be bound by any of the obligations that may arise from it.
The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) was approved by the United Nations General Assembly in
2017, but none of the [2] countries known or believed to possess nuclear weapons supported it and neither did the
NATO alliance. The treaty came into force on [1].
In a statement, the Ministry of External Affairs said India continues to attach high priority and remains committed to
universal, non-discriminatory and verifiable nuclear disarmament.
"As far as the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) is concerned, India did not participate in the
negotiations on the TPNW and has consistently made it clear that it will not become a party to the Treaty," the MEA
said.
India does not support the treaty and shall not be bound by any of the obligations that may arise from it, it said.
India believes that the treaty does not constitute or contribute to the development of customary international law, nor
does it set any new standards or norms, the statement said.
The MEA stated that India reiterates its commitment to the goal of a nuclear-weapon-free world.
India believes that this goal can be achieved through a step-by-step process underwritten by a universal commitment,
and an agreed global and non-discriminatory multilateral framework, as outlined in the country's working paper titled
'Nuclear Disarmament', submitted to the UN General Assembly and the Conference on Disarmament.
In this regard, India supports the commencement of negotiations on a comprehensive Nuclear Weapons Convention in
the Conference on Disarmament, which is the world's single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum working on the
basis of consensus, the MEA said.
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India stands ready to work with all UN member states towards the objective of a world free of nuclear weapons, it said.
Q 37. 11649100 The first-ever treaty to ban nuclear weapons entered into force on [1], which of the following has
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been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

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a) 31 December 2020 b) 22 January 2021 c) 26 January 2021 d) 1 February 2021

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Q 38. 11649100 The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons was approved by the United Nations General
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Assembly in 2017, but none of the [2] countries known or believed to possess nuclear weapons supported it and
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neither did the NATO alliance. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
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a) Five b) Six c) Nine d) Fifteen

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Q 39. 11649100 The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear
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supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and
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technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. The NSG was founded in response to the
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_____________ nuclear test in May 1974.

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a) China b) Germany c) India d) Israel

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Q 40. 11649100 The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear
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tests, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It was adopted by the United Nations General
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Assembly on_____________.
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a) 10 September 1976 b) 10 September 1991 c) 10 September 1996 d) 10 September 2000
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Q 41. 11649100 According to the report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) released in
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April 2020, what is the India rank in terms of military spending?
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a) Second b) Third c) Fourth d) Fifth
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Passage-03
The Reserve Bank has decided to conduct purchase of government securities under [1] for an aggregate amount of
Rs.20, 000 crore on February 10, 2021. This announcement comes in the wake of sharp jump in yields of government
bonds over the past two weeks.
After the announcement, India 10-year bond yield eased to 6.034% as compared to previous close of 6.071%.
Holding policy interest rates unchanged at record lows, RBI Governor [2] assured investors that its stance on liquidity
remained accommodative and that the government's Rs.12.06 trillion borrowing programme for the fiscal year starting
April would be managed in a smooth and orderly manner.
Despite the pledge from the RBI, bond yields had surged as investors had been hoping for a more clarity in the form of
a bond purchase calendar. Yields on most bonds however retreated later on, following the debt auction results.
The central bank sold only Rs. 9000 crore of bonds versus Rs. 31000 crore it had set out to sell, with underwriters to
the auction buying Rs.8810 crore worth of the paper, after the market demanded higher yields.
In a statement, announcing its [1] operations, the central bank today said: "The Reserve Bank stands committed to
ensure the availability of ample liquidity in the system in order to foster congenial financial conditions. On a review of
current liquidity and financial conditions, therefore, the Reserve Bank has decided to conduct purchase of Government
securities under [1] for an aggregate amount of Rs.20,000 crore on February 10, 2021."
Eligible participants should submit their bids in electronic format on the Reserve Bank of India Core Banking Solution
0
[3] system between 10:00 am and 11:00 am on February 10, 2021. Only in the event of system failure, physical bids
10
would be accepted.
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Q 42. 11649100 The Reserve Bank has decided to conduct purchase of government securities under [1] for an
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aggregate amount of Rs.20, 000 crore on February 10, 2021. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the
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passage above?
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a) Open Market Operations (OMO) b) Long Term Repo Operations (LTRO)

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c) Repo Rate d) Marginal Standing Facility

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Q 43. 11649100 Who is the current Governor of Reserve Bank of India whose name has been redacted with [2] in the
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passage above?
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a) Urjit Patel b) Shaktikanta Das c) Viral V. Acharya d)

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Raghuram Govinda Rajan

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Q 44. 11649100 What is the name of the Reserve Bank of India Core Banking Solution which has been redacted with
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[3] in the passage above?
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a) TCS BaNCS b) E-Kuber c) YONO d) Finacle
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Q 45. 11649100 It is a tool under which the central bank provides one-year to three-year money to banks at the
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prevailing repo rate, accepting government securities with matching or higher tenure as the collateral
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called___________.
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a) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) b) Long Term Reverse Repo Operation (LTROs)
10
c) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
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Q 46. 11649100 When the RBI wants to increase the money supply in the economy, what does it do?
64
a) b) It sells government securities to public.
It purchases the government securities from the market c) It will increase the interest rates
d) All of the above
Passage-04
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Chauri Chaura centenary celebrations at Chauri Chaura in [1] through
video conferencing on February 4, 2021.
The Prime Minister also released a postal stamp dedicated to mark the beginning of centenary celebrations of the
Chauri Chaura incident. Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath was present on the occasion.
A group of freedom fighters had set ablaze a police station at Chauri Chaura in [1] on February 4, 1922, to protest
against the high-handedness of the British regime. The incident claimed the lives of 22 policemen and three freedom
fighters. As many as 19 freedom fighters were given capital punishment for this one incident.
The Yogi Adityanath government in Uttar Pradesh attempted to create a world record during the Chauri Chaura
centenary celebrations, when around 50,000 children from all districts recited 'Vande Mataram' on February 3 from 10
am to 12 noon on February 4.
On the 1922 episode, Modi said, "Whatever happened in Chauri Chaura 100 years ago was seen as a simple incident
of arson at a police station. The fire was not only at the police station but in the hearts of Indians as well," he said.
The prime minister did not refer to Mahatma Gandhi's decision to call off the [2] over the violence by his followers.
"Chauri Chaura was a self-motivated struggle of the common people. It is unfortunate that martyrs in this incident were
not given a prominent place in the pages of history," he said, appreciating the Uttar Pradesh government's plan to
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commemorate it.
0
Q 47. 11649100 Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Chauri Chaura centenary celebrations at Chauri
49
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Chaura in [1] through video conferencing on February 4, 2021. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the
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passage above?
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a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh b) c) Meerut, Uttar Pradesh d) Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh

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Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh

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Q 48. 11649100 Mahatma Gandhi, who was strictly against violence, halted the [2] on the national level on 12
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February 1922, as a direct result of Chauri Chaura incident. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the
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passage above?
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a) Quit India Movement b) c) d)
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Civil Disobedience Non Cooperation Movement Salt Satyagraha Movement
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Movement
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Q 49. 11649100 What is the name of the political party formed on 1 January 1923 by Indian politicians and members
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of the Indian National Congress such as Motilal Nehru and CR Das who had opposed Mahatma's suspension of all
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civil resistance on 12 February 1922 in response to the Chauri Chaura tragedy?
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a) Swaraj Party b) Purna Swaraj Hindustan c) Ajad Hindustan d)
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India Independence Party
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Q 50. 11649100 Name the viceroy of India when the Chauri Chaura incident took place on 4th February 1922.
a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Reading c) Lord Mayo d) Lord Irwin
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Q 51. 11649100 Two days before the incident, on 2 February 1922, volunteers participating in the Non-cooperation
64
Movement led by a retired Army soldier named___________, protested against high food prices and liquor sale in the
marketplace.
a) Bhagwan Ahir b) c) Raghuvir Singh d) Jagdev Singh

Daroga Gupteshwar Singh
Passage-05
Government think tank [1] has asked Jaipur-headquartered research organisation Consumer Unity and Trust Society
(CUTS) International to conduct a study on the “economic impact” of various judgments delivered by Supreme Court,
the high courts, and quasi-judicial bodies such as the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the “judicial activism” of such
courts and tribunals.
“Judicial decisions have far-reaching economic impacts which are often not taken into account at the time of decision
making. The absence of ex-ante analysis of the economic costs associated with a decision is further exacerbated
when judicial activism by courts and tribunals is also in play,” a project brief of the study notes.
The objective of the study, being funded completely by the [1], aims a “narrative building for sensitising the judiciary on
the economic impact of their decisions” and the findings will be used as a “training input for judges of commercial
courts, NGT, HCs, SC,” according to the documents.
The study, initially supposed to start in February 2020 and get over by the end of this month, was delayed due to a
nationwide lockdown to prevent the spread of Covid-19. CUTS International has approached the [1] with a plea to
extend the timelines but is yet to get any response from the think tank. The total cost of the project, which was initially
Rs 24.8 lakh, is likely to go higher this time around.
The first study is on the economic impact of the ban that was imposed by the apex court in March 2019 on the
construction of a Greenfield airport at [2]. The top court had suspended an economic clearance granted for the airport
and had then asked the Expert Appraisal Committee to revisit its decision. The ban on construction was lifted by an
order of the top court in January 2020 but had several revised conditions.
The four other judgments, for which the economic impact assessment study will be carried out by CUTS International,
include the SC’s February 2018 ban on iron ore mining in Goa, a 2013 NGT ban on sand mining in the Yamuna river in
Gautam Buddha Nagar, the recurring SC ban on construction of buildings in Delhi and National Capital Region as well
00
as the apex court’s decision rejecting the opening of Vedanta’s Sterlite copper plant, which has been closed since April
2018.
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Q 52. 11649100 Government think tank [1] has asked Jaipur-headquartered research organisation Consumer Unity
64
and Trust Society (CUTS) International to conduct a study on the “economic impact” of various judgments delivered by
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courts in India. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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a) National Development Council b) NITI Aayog
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c) Finance Commission of India d) Prime Minister Economic Advisory Council
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Q 53. 11649100 The first study is on the economic impact of the ban that was imposed by the apex court in March
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2019 on the construction of a Greenfield airport at [2]. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage
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above?
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a) Mopa in Goa b) Kochi in Kerala c) Bhubaneswar, Odisha d) Titupati, Andhra Pradesh
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Q 54. 11649100 Which of the following is/are the significance of conducting a study on the “economic impact” of
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various judgments?
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a) The findings will be used as a training input for judges of commercial courts, NGT, High Courts and SC.
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b)
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It would contribute to public discourse among policymakers for promoting an “economically responsible approach by
64
judiciary” in its decisions.
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c)
6
The study is also a part of the larger umbrella project undertaken by [1] under which it wants to establish a judicial
performance index.
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d) All of the above

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Q 55. 11649100 Which of the following is not a quasi-judicial body in India?
a) National Green Tribunal b) Central Information Commission

c) Securities and Exchange Board of India d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Q 56. 11649100 Which of the following articles allows the Supreme Court of India to pass any order necessary to do
“complete justice” in any case?
a) Article 140 b) Article 141 c) Article 142 d) Article 143
Passage-06
A team of scientists at the Berkeley Lab has reported some of the properties of element [1] in the periodic table called
“Einsteinium”, named after Albert Einstein. It was discovered in 1952 in the debris of the first hydrogen bomb (the
detonation of a thermonuclear device called “[2]” in the Pacific Ocean). Since its discovery, scientists have not been
able to perform a lot of experiments with it because it is difficult to create and is highly radioactive. Therefore, very little
is known about this element.
With this new study published in the journal Nature, for the first time researchers have been able to characterise some
of the properties of the element.
When [2] was detonated on November 1, 1952, as part of a test at a remote island location called Elugelab on the
Eniwetok Atoll in the South Pacific, it produced an explosion that was about 500 times more destructive than the
explosion that occurred at Nagasaki. Subsequently, the fallout material from this explosion was sent to Berkeley in
California for analysis, which was examined by Gregory Choppin, Stanley Thompson, Albert Ghiorso, and Bernard
Harvey, who within a month had discovered and identified over 200 atoms of the new element.
According to a podcast run by Chemistry World, the discovery of the element was not revealed for at least three years
and it was first suggested that the element be named after Einstein in the Physical Review in 1955.
The scientists worked with less than 250 nanograms of the artificial element, which was manufactured at the Oak
Ridge National Laboratory’s High Flux Isotope Reactor, which is one of the few places in the world capable of making
einsteinium.
Specifically, the team worked with einsteinium-254, one of the more stable isotopes of the element that has a half-life
of 276 days. The most common isotope of the element, einsteinium 253 has a half-life of 20 days.
Because of its high radioactivity and short half-life of all einsteinium isotopes, even if the element was present on Earth
00
during its formation, it has most certainly decayed. This is the reason that it cannot be found in nature and needs to be
manufactured using very precise and intense processes.
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Q 57. 11649100 A team of scientists at the Berkeley Lab has reported some of the properties of element [1] in the
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periodic table called “Einsteinium”, named after Albert Einstein. Which of the following elements has been redacted
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with [1] in the passage above?

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a) 85 b) 99 c) 100
00 d) 113
1
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Q 58. 11649100 What is the name of the thermonuclear device which has been redacted with [2] in the passage
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above?
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a) Ivy Mike b) RDS-9 c) Joe-1 d) Castle Union

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Q 59. 11649100 In 2016, Scientists have discovered four new elements, with this discovery which of the following
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periods of the periodic table of elements is completed?

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a) 4th period b) 5th period c) 6th period d) 7th period

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Q 60. 11649100 The 2019 is the International Year of the Periodic Table of Chemical Elements, marking 150 years
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since ____________ordered the elements into a table.

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a) Dimitri Mendeleev b) Henry Moseley c) John Alexander d) Ernest Rutherford

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Q 61. 11649100 International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) is an international federation of National
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Adhering Organizations that represents chemists in individual countries. IUPAC Secretariat is located
6
in_____________.
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a) Tokyo, Japan b) Paris, France c) London, UK d)

11
North Carolina, United

64
States
Passage-07
A glacier break is suspected to have caused the flash floods in [1]’s Chamoli district. Last October, the National
Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which is headed by [2], had issued detailed guidelines on how to reduce and
deal with disasters caused by what is scientifically called Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
When glaciers melt, the water in glacial lakes accumulates behind loose, natural “glacial/moraine dams” made of ice,
sand, pebbles and ice residue. A GLOF refers to the flooding that occurs when the water dammed by a glacier or a
moraine is released suddenly.
Unlike earthen dams, the weak structure of the moraine dam leads to the abrupt failure of the dam on top of the glacial
lake, which holds large volume of water. A failure of the dam has the potential of releasing millions of cubic metres of
water in a short period, causing catastrophic flooding downstream. Peak flows as high as 15,000 cubic metre per
second have been recorded in such events.
According to NDMA, glacial retreat due to climate change occurring in most parts of the Hindu Kush Himalaya has
given rise to the formation of numerous new glacial lakes, which are the major cause of GLOFs. Since glaciers in the
Himalayas are in a retreating phase, glacial lakes are growing and pose a potentially large risk to downstream
infrastructure and life.
NDMA has recommended use of Synthetic-Aperture Radar imagery to automatically detect changes in water bodies,
including new lake formations, during the monsoon months. It has said methods and protocols could also be
developed to allow remote monitoring of lake bodies from space.
00
To manage lakes structurally, the NDMA recommends reducing the volume of water with methods such as controlled
breaching, pumping or siphoning out water, and making a tunnel through the moraine barrier or under an ice dam.
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Q 62. 11649100 A glacier break is suspected to have caused the flash floods in [1]’s Chamoli district. Which of the
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following states of India has been redacted with [1] passage above?
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a) Himachal Pradesh b) Uttarakhand c) Sikkim d) Arunachal Pradesh

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Q 63. 11649100 National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the [2], who among the following has
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been removed with [2] in the passage above?

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a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India c) Home Minister of India d) Defence Minister of India
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Q 64. 11649100 The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is a

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a) Constitutional Body b) c) Statutory body d) Non- Constitutional Body

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Extra Constitutional Body

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Q 65. 11649100 The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government. The ‘Nodal Ministry’
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in the central government for management of natural disasters is

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a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

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c) Ministry of Finance Affairs d) Ministry of Defence Affairs

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Q 66. 11649100 Under which of the following acts, National Executive Committee (NEC) has been issuing guidelines
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about the Lockdown and Unlock phases in India so as to prevent the spread of COVID-19 in the country recently?
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a) Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 b) Disaster Management Act, 2005
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c) Epidemic Diseases Act, 2020 d) Disease Control and Medical Care Act, 1955
Legal Aptitude
1 00
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Directions for questions 67 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
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passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information
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given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent
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is to be applied.
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Passage – 1
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The Union Ministry of Environment has been in the spotlight on more than one occasion during the pandemic, as it
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worked to push through retrograde environmental decisions in an atmosphere of general paralysis. In April,
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Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar used a virtual conference to ensure that the National Board for Wildlife's
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Standing Committee stamped its approval on several projects, with serious implications for conservation. He now
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wants to hurriedly make a fundamental change to the process of project approvals, by introducing a new Environment
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Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification. Now in draft, it seeks to replace the existing EIA notification of 2006. The
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proposed provisions show that the Ministry has gone to great lengths to reduce or even remove public participation,
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and by extension independent expert opinion, from the process of granting environmental clearances; public reporting
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of violations may also not be taken cognisance of.

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While there can be no argument about the importance of development projects, it has resorted to sophistry in
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classifying activity for exemptions. Section 26 provides a list of projects that would not attract environmental clearance
10
or permission, including coal mining and seismic surveys for oil, methane and shale gas on some lands. Section 14
provides exemption for these and some other projects from public consultation, also limiting the scope of public
91
involvement to the districts concerned, in the case of national parks and sanctuaries where pipeline infrastructure will
64
pass. Roads and highways get liberal concessions. Further, it retains the clause that if a public agency or authority
considers the local situation not conducive to participation by citizens, the public consultation need not include a public
hearing.
In spite of the far-reaching nature of its proposed actions, the Centre has displayed unseemly haste to get them in
place and Mr. Javadekar has not aided credibility by trying to shut down public responses to the draft early. The
exercise has been further muddied by the mysterious blocking of some activist websites calling for the EIA proposal to
be dropped, and demanding a new approach towards conserving natural resources for future generations. Clearly, the
Centre's attempts at weakening checks and balances are not new. A study of coal mining clearances shows that 4,302
hectares of forest were diverted during 2014-18, favouring extraction over conservation.
0
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'In reverse gear: on draft EIA notification', Editorial published in The Hindu,
10
July 28, 2020).

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Q 67. 11649100 What are the fundamental problems voiced by the author with the proposed changes to the
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Environment Impact Assessment?

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a) Public participation is not mandatory in most cases.

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b) Local people's reporting of environmental violations may go un-heeded.

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c) Environmental scientists can no longer have a voice.
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d) All of the above.
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Q 68. 11649100 Mr. X, is a renowned environmental expert. A proposal to set up oil refinery in the district of Kutch of
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Gujarat is vehemently opposed by Mr. X. He says this would disrupt the flora and fauna of the place resulting in
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acceleration in climate change process. Suppose the proposed draft EIA is passed in its present form. Decide.
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a) Mr. X's voice will have substantial importance in policy making.
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b) Mr. X's voice will go largely unheard.
11
c) Mr. X has vested interests in the project.
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d) Mr. X can be put in prison for any opposition of the project.
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Q 69. 11649100 A recent survey found considerable deposits of coal in Bellary district of Karnataka. The government
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auctions the coal field and 'XYZ' is the successful bidder. Suppose the draft EIA is passed in its present form. Decide.
6
a) XYZ needs to get expert opinion and public participation done before embarking on the project.
91
b) XYZ may not need compulsory public participation or expert's opinion.
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c) XYZ is guilty of corruption.
d)
The government and XYZ together need to compulsorily get public participation and experts' opinion before any
construction of the project begins.
Q 70. 11649100 A project to link the Godavari river and Krishna is given nod by the cabinet. The relevant district in-
charge officer found stiff resistance and possibility of violence from the locals in the districts. He decides not to consult
the locals and gave a go-ahead to the project. Suppose the draft EIA is passed in its present form. Decide.
a) The officer in-charge is justified in his decision.
b) The officer in-charge is not justified in his decision.
c) The officer in-charge must take consent of the relevant Principal Chief Secretaries.
d) The officer in-charge must take consent of the relevant Chief Ministers.
Q 71. 11649100 A gas pipeline is planned in the Askot Wildlife Sanctuary located in Uttarakhand. The pipeline will
cause substantial loss to biodiversity in the Sanctuary. At the same time, it will foster development of the state.
Suppose draft EIA is passed in its present form. Decide.
a) The gas pipeline cannot be set up.

b) No development project can take place in any Wildlife Sanctuary or a National Park.
c) The gas pipeline can be set up only after the consent of the Chief Minister of Uttarakhand.
d) The gas pipeline can be set up subject to other requisites under the EIA.
is to be applied.
Passage – 2
The CPI(M) has called upon the government to invoke Clause 92 of the Patents Act and issue compulsory license to
manufacturers to produce the generic version of Remdesivir used for treating coronavirus patients, given that the drug
was too "expensive" for common people.It also said that the price of Remdesivir in the United States is USD 3,000 or
Rs 2.25 lakh for a five-day course.
The cost of manufacturing Remdesivir for a full course as worked out by experts is less than USD 10 or Rs 750 in the
US, and about Rs 100 in India. Gilead, by virtue of its patent monopoly, is holding the world to ransom by asking a
price that is hundreds of times its cost," the statement said.
Section 92 of Patents Act - Special provision for compulsory licences on notifications by Central Government. If the
Central Government is satisfied, in respect of any patent in force in circumstances of national emergency or in
circumstances of extreme urgency, that it is necessary that compulsory licenses should be granted at any time after
the sealing thereof to work the invention, it may make a declaration to that effect, by notification in the Official Gazette,
and thereupon the following provisions shall have effect, that is to say-
(i) the Controller shall on application made at any time after the notification by any person interested, grant to the
applicant a license under the patent on such terms and conditions as he thinks fit;
(ii) in settling the terms and conditions of a license granted under this section, the Controller shall endeavour to secure
that the articles manufactured under the patent shall be available to the public at the lowest prices consistent with the
patentees deriving a reasonable advantage from their patent rights. 0
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Issue compulsory license to Indian manufacturers to produce generic
10
Remdesivir CPI-M to govt', Editorial published in The Week, July 05, 2020).
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Q 72. 11649100 What seems to be the most reasonable reason behind the enactment of 'Compulsory License' regime
91
in India?
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a) To ensure the patent creators have maximum profits thereby incentivizing further inventions.
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b) To strike a balance between the patent creator's labour and affordability by general public.
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c) To get huge profits on sales of patented drugs by taxing at higher bracket.

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d) To give poor of India all medical drugs free of cost.

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Q 73. 11649100 A new pharmaceutical drug is invented which gives relief from symptoms of mild acidity in just 5
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seconds. Keerti Pharma Pvt. Ltd. claims credit for this drug and gets a patent for the same. Can the government issue
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a compulsory license for this patented drug?

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a) Yes, as the drug is newly invented.

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b) Yes, as the drug gives relief from acidity in merely 5 seconds.

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c) No, as the drug does not give relief from any national emergency level disease.
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d) No, as once patent is issued, compulsory license cannot be granted under any circumstances.
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Q 74. 11649100 A novel bacterial infection spreads in Mumbai and adjoining areas. Rats are the primary carrier of this
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infection. It is similar to plague that spread in the financial capital some hundred years ago during British rule. Experts
6
noted that the increase in clogged severs leading to higher breeding rates of rats, as one of the major reasons for
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spread of the disease. Around 1 lakhs people died in the first week itself. A company 'Frost Solution' manufactured an
6
anti-dote. It got patent from the government. The price of the patented drug was Rs. 50,000 per tablet. A treatment
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required approximately 10 tablets to be taken twice daily for 5 days consecutively. Can the government issue
11
compulsory license for the patented drug?
a) Yes, as the price of the drug is pretty high.

b) Yes, as there is public emergency.
c) Both (A) and (B).

d) No, as 'Frost Solutions' will be demotivated to do further research and development.
Q 75. 11649100 The Central government issued a notification granting 'XYZ' company compulsory license to
manufacture and sell a patented drug 'KoraKagaz'. The drug is effective against multi-resistant TB (Tuberculosis). The
cost of production to the patent holder company, 'Vishnu Pharma' comes to Rs. 5 per tablet. Vishnu Pharma sold the
tablet at Rs. 10 per tablet earning a profit of Rs. 5 per tablet. XYZ company sold the tablet at Rs. 1 per tablet as the
government bore the entire cost of production. This led to heavy losses to Vishnu Pharma as no one would purchase a
drug at five times the price. Choose the most appropriate option.
a) The compulsory license issuing authority did not follow the proper procedure.
b) XYZ company can sell the medicine at any price it wishes.

c) Government will make all tablets issued by Vishnu Pharmatax free.
d) The government will give credit to Vishnu Pharma at half the rate of interest.
Q 76. 11649100 The government issued a notification granting compulsory license of 'AndhaKanoon', a patented drug
effective against AIDS to 'Govardhan Institute'. The patent holder of AndhaKanoon is 'Dr. Swamy Labs'. Dr. Swamy
Labs pegged the drug at Rs. 10,000 per tablet. Govardhan Institute started selling the same at Rs. 20,000 per tablet.
Since government provided logistics support to Govardhan Institute, it was able to reach many unreached areas and
therefore earned hefty profits. Decide.
a) The step by Govardhan Institute will help reduce the menace of AIDS in India.
b) Section 92 guidelines are not properly followed in the instant case.
c) Govardhan Institute has to pay half the profits to the government.
d) Half the profits generated by Govardhan Institute will go to the PM-CARES fund.
is to be applied.
Passage – 3
In the landmark case of Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab, some observations regarding differences between culpable
homicide and murder were made. Sections 299 and 300 of IPC define culpable homicide and murder. In both cases
'death' is caused by the act of the accused. According to the judgement Sections 299 and 300 are very confusing as
they overlap at several instances. It is very difficult to clearly demarcate what cases will be culpable homicide and what
murder.
In order to resolve this conflict, a test was laid. If the degree of probability or likelihood of death of the victim resulting
00
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from the intended bodily injury inflicted by the accused is grave, it would be murder. Whereas if the probability or
likelihood of death resulting from the intended bodily injury is less, it would be culpable homicide.
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Q 77. 11649100 Prakash owned a piece of land. Adjoining to his land was Kushank's land. Prakash usurped some
64
portion of Kushank's land. When Kushank came to know about this, he along with his elder brother, Abhishek, and two
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11
other friends went to recapture the land. They also carried a sickle, hockey sticks and two swords. While they were
10
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rightfully removing Prakash's wire fencing over their land, Prakash barges in. A fight ensues. Abhishek thrusts a sword
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into Prakash's abdomen. The sword penetrated into Prakash's bowels and three coils of intestines came out of the
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wound. Prakash succumbed to his injuries and was dead in two minutes. Decide.
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a) Abhishek is liable for murder.
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b) Abhishek is liable for culpable homicide.
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c) Abhishek is liable for causing grievous injury to Prakash.
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d) Abhishek is not liable as he was using private defence in order to secure his rightful property.
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Q 78. 11649100 Venkalu and Kokalu were arch enemies. One day Kokalu got to know that Venkalu was alone in his
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10
home. On the false pretext of ending their bitterness, he went to Venkalu's house carrying some alcoholic drinks.
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Venkalu drank and ate some snacks. Just then Kokalu secretly spread alcohol around Venkalu and on the furniture
1
items. He then went out and ignited the room and ran away. Soon the entire room is engulfed in fire and Venkalu is
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also caught in it. He tried to rush out but his body caught fire. Neighbours rushed in and doused the fire on Venkalu's
64
body. Venkalu is taken to the hospital. Venkalu died 10 days later due to multiple organ failure. Decide.
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10
a) b) Kokalu is liable for causing grievous injury to Venkalu.

6
Kokalu is not liable for either murder or culpable c) Kokalu is liable for culpable homicide.
homicide.
91
d) Kokalu is liable for murder.

11
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Q 79. 11649100 Shivani loved Raj and wished to marry him some day. Her father did not like Raj as he was not from
a well to do family. He forcefully got Shivani married to Yogesh, a software engineer in US(a) A year later, Yogesh
shifted to India with Shivani. Shivani accidently meets Raj in a mall. She laments her marriage and asks Raj to do
something. The two hatch a plan to kill Yogesh after which Shivani can marry Raj. Raj buys poison and asks Shivani to
mix it in the milk she gives to her husband before he goes to sleep. She does accordingly. By fortune, before Yogesh
could drink the glass of milk, it slipped from his hand and spilled over the floor. Decide.
a) Raj only is liable for culpable homicide.

b) Shivani only is liable for culpable homicide.
c) Shivani and Raj both are liable for culpable homicide.
d) Neither Shivani nor Raj is liable for culpable homicide or murder.
Q 80. 11649100 Mangal had a ferocious crocodile. He kept it illegally in his farmhouse. He had made all
arrangements to keep it safe and confined. The crocodile measures over 15 feet and its single bite is enough to kill a
human being. The farm house is located in a serene place. Mangal invited his friends for a party at his farm house. His
friends were not aware about the crocodile. After the party, one of his friends, Gopal, went to check his car, when he
heard some weird noise. He followed towards it. At the end he found a closed gate. Unable to control his curiosity he
climbed over the gate and walked inside. The crocodile hopped and caught hold of Gopal's thigh. Gopal shouted for
help but by the time Mangal and other arrived, he was already dead and half eaten by the crocodile. Decide.
a) Mangal is liable for culpable homicide only.
b) c) Mangal is liable for murder.

Mangal is not liable for either culpable homicide or d) Gopal is liable for culpable homicide.
murder.
Q 81. 11649100 Fiza's mother, Mrs. Fatima, suffered from severe asthma. She always kept an inhaler with her just in
case she has an attack. Asthma attack is such that if the inhaler in not used immediately, the person may even die out
of breathlessness. Mrs. Fatima went to her daughter-in-law's house, who had recently given birth to her grandson,
Ahmed. Ahmed was only 6 months old. She started playing with Ahmed and after a while went in the kitchen leaving
her purse near Ahmed. Ahmed opened it and took out the inhaler. He started nibbling it and the medicated gas inside
the inhaler got leaked out. Mrs. Fatima is allergic to peanut. She eats a chutney only to realize later that it had peanut.
She suffers an asthma attack. When she reaches for her inhaler, there was no medicine left in it. Fatima suffocates
and dies. Choose the most appropriate option.
a) No one is liable for Fatima's death.
b) Ahmed is liable for culpable homicide.
c)
Mrs. Fatima herself is liable for culpable homicide as she left her purse containing the inhaler near a 6 months baby.
d) Ahmed's mother is liable for culpable homicide as she did not keep Ahmed in confinity.
is to be applied.
Passage – 4
The Copyright Act of India was enacted in 1957. Section 14 of the Act reads -
For the purposes of this Act, "copyright" means the exclusive right to do or authorise the doing of any of the following
acts in respect of a work or any substantial part thereof, namely -
• In the case of a literary, dramatic or musical work - to reproduce the work in any material form including the storing of
it in any medium by electronic means;to issue copies of the work to the public not being copies already in circulation;to
perform the work in public, or communicate it to the public;to make any cinematograph film or sound recording in
respect of the work; to make any translation of the work; to make any adaptation of the work.
• In the case of a computer programme - to do any of the acts specified in the case of a literary, dramatic or musical
work or to sell or give on commercial rental or offer for sale or for commercial rental any copy of the computer
programme.
• In the case of an artistic work - to reproduce the work in any material form including depiction in three dimensions of
a two dimensional work or in two dimensions of a three dimensional work;to communicate the work to the public;to
issue copies of the work to the public not being copies already in circulation;to include the work in any cinematograph
film; to make any adaptation of the work.
• In the case of a cinematograph film - to make a copy of the film including a photograph of any image forming part
thereof;to sell or give on hire or offer for sale or hire, any copy of the film, regardless of whether such copy has been
sold or given on hire on earlier occasions; to communicate the film to the public.
• In the case of a sound recording - to make any other sound recording embodying it;to sell or give on hire, or offer for
00
sale or hire, any copy of the sound recording, regardless of whether such copy has been sold or given on hire on
earlier occasions.
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Q 82. 11649100 Dheeraj participated in a singing competition organized by 'Kony TV'. He got selected and won the
64
national level title. In the form that he signed, it was agreed that all songs sung by the participant while contesting in
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the competition will be copyrighted property of 'Kony TV'. Dheeraj launches a YouTube channel and uses one of the
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songs he sang while participating in the competition. He gets over a million views in a week. 'Kony TV' alleges violation
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of its copyright. Decide.
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a) Dheeraj has violated 'Kony TVs' copyright.
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b) Dheeraj has not violated 'Kony TVs' copyright.
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c) Dheeraj has all the rights to use his song as he wishes.
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d) Uploading songs on YouTube is an exception under copyright law.
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Q 83. 11649100 Mrinalini was interested in dancing since childhood. She would look at artists performing on TV and
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try to mimic them. She developed her own dancing steps and got them successfully copyrighted. She then uploads it
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10
on YouTube showing a warning about the steps being copyrighted. A famous Bollywood director, KanuragGashyap,
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uses the entire steps in one of his movie songs, without informing Mrinalini. The song gets very famous for the novel
1
dance steps. The film also gets a huge box office collection. Choose the most appropriate option.
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a) Kanurag Gashyap is bound to share with Mrinalini half the income earned on the profit of the film.
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b) Kanurag Gashyap has violated Mrinalini's copyright.

10
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c)
Kanurag Gashyap has not violated Mrinalini's copyright as by including her steps in his movie, he has indirectly made
91
Mrinalini famous.
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d)
By uploading her dance steps on a public platform, Mrinalini has implicitly consented to the usage of the dance steps
by public.
Q 84. 11649100 Prashant joins a reputed CLAT coaching institute, 'KST' in Lucknow. He enrolls in the regular 1-year
course. He also subscribes for online mocks which are copyrighted. The mocks could be either taken live online or
downloaded in PDF format, printed and then taken on paper. Only the subscriber is entitled to use the mocks.
Prashant shared the PDF format of the mocks with his wats app group of five friends who were not KST students and
also posted it on a public platform named 'Telegram' channel from where the mocks can be freely downloaded. The
coaching institute on coming to know about this, files a criminal case against Prashant and his friends for copyright
infringement. The next day this episode is published in newspapers bringing social shame on Prashant and his family.
Decide.
a)
Prashant is not liable for copyright infringement as it is the bounden duty of a friend to share notes and other materials
with his friends.
b)
Prashant is not liable for copyright infringement as it is common nowadays to exchange relevant material on wats app
and telegram.
c) Prashant is liable for copyright infringement as he shared the mocks with his friends.
d) Prashant is liable for copyright infringement as he made profit by sharing the mocks with his friends.
Q 85. 11649100 Nagendra developed a new software. It could be used to restore anything which has been deleted
even from 'Recycle Bin' of a computer or laptop. It takes approximately 1 second per MB time for data restoration.
Nagendra got it copyrighted and sold the copyright entirely to Kinfosis Ltd., a software developing company in India.
Kinfosis Ltd. sold it to 'Mekenzie', another software company located in USA. Mekenzie uploaded the software free of
cost on its website. Bhuvan downloads the software from Mekenzie's website and uses it. Decide.
a) Bhuvan has violated the copyright of Mekenzie. b) Bhuvan has violated the copyright of Kinfosis Ltd.
c) Bhuvan has violated the copyright of Nagendra. d) Bhuvan has not violated any copyright.
Q 86. 11649100 Rohit Rodana, a YouTube sensation makes a short video and gets it copyrighted. He then sells it
along with all the copyrights to YouTube. YouTube offers the video for Rs. 25 to public. Rajeshwari pays Rs. 25 using
her father's credit card and watches the video on her mobile. Choose the most appropriate option.
a) Rajeshwari has violated RohitRodana's copyright.
b) Rajeshwari has violated YouTube's copyright.

c) Rajeshwari has not violated any copyright.
d) Anyone can watch the video even without paying the rental amount.
is to be applied.
Passage – 5
Every citizen has been given freedom to speak and express their views under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian
Constitution. However, this freedom is not absolute and some reasonable restrictions have been imposed on freedom
of speech and expression under Article 19(2). But when a person does an act by his words, signs or representation
which is held to be contemptuous towards the Government of India, then such act is punishable under section 124-A
of Indian Penal Code, 1860. Sedition is an offence that criminalizes speech that is regarded to be disloyal to or
threatening to the state. The provision of Section 124A is very wide and it covers the act of defamation of the
Government excluding any criticism in good faith of any particular measures or acts of administration.
The term 'Sedition' means "conduct or speech which results in mutiny against the authority of the state". Law of
Sedition deals with section 124A of IPC, 1860, is considered as a reasonable restriction on freedom of speech. It was
drafted by Thomas Macaulay and introduced in 1870.Section 124 A reads as follows- "Whoever, by words, either
spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government shall be punishable with Life
Imprisonment"
In India, what constitutes 'Sedition' is highly debated. As per the Indian Penal Code, for an act to be called "seditious",
it should have the following components:
1. Any words, which can be either written or spoken, or signs which include placards/posters (visible representation)
2. Must bring hatred/contempt/disaffection against the Indian Government
3. Must result in 'imminent violence' or publicdisorder.
Some examples of Sedition are- Raising of slogans against the government - example - "Khalistan Zindabad" by
groups. A speech made by a person must incite violence / public disorder for it to be considered as seditious.
Sedition is considered as a high-value crime in the Indian Penal Code which is against the sovereignty of the country.
It is a cognizable offence which allows arrest without warrant and police can start the investigation without the
permission of the court. There are some legal procedures regarding the charges of Sedition:
Sedition and Freedom of Speech and expression - The Concept of Free Speech has attained global importance and
all have supported it as a basic fundamental right of a human being. In India, such rights are provided under Part-III
and Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. The said right has no geographical indication because it is the right of the
citizen to gather information with others and to exchange thoughts and views within or outside India.
Courts have been given the power to act as guarantors and protectors of the rights of the citizen. Article 19(1)(a)
secures the 'freedom of speech and expression' but it has been bound by the limitation which has been given under
Article 19(2) which states the permissible legislative abridgement of the right of free speech and expression. Freedom
of speech and expression does not extend to inciting hatred towards a country or causing public disorder and creating
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unruly mobs. Hence, the defence of freedom of speech and expression shall stand only when an individual has not
committed the above said acts.
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Q 87. 11649100 Farmers were protesting against the newly introduced Farm laws in the state of India. E, who was a
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part of the protest, displayed a placard stating 'Pakistan Zindabad' and asked people to throw stones at the army
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personnel who were overlooking the situation. Can E be held guilty under sedition?
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a)
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placard is his will.

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b) E can be held guilty under chapter 7 of IPC that is offense against defence forces but not for sedition.
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c) E shall be held guilty for sedition under Indian penal code 1860.
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d) E shall be held guilty only if mensrea is proved in the following scenario.

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Q 88. 11649100 Saree Dutta was a high-profile journalist. Once Dutta on air commented that "Present government
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has become reluctant and no longer works for the welfare of the citizens. People need to realise the necessity of
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bringing fresh political faces in the next election". This enraged the government and Dutta was charged for sedition.
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Decide.
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a)
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Dutta shall be held liable for sedition as she publicly commented ill on the government which might lead to mutiny and
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public unrest.
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b)
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Dutta shall be held liable for sedition as she publicly commented upon the ruling government which might negatively
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affect their poll results in the upcoming elections.

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c)
Dutta shall not be held liable for sedition as journalists taking political sides is a common practise nowadays and no
one will take it seriously.
d)
Dutta shall not be held liable for sedition as her words do not excite nor attempt to excite hatred or disaffection towards
the government but just an opinion.
Q 89. 11649100 Rajiv started an online chatting app 'endin-dia'. Due to its controversial sounding name many Taliban,
Isis and other terrorist party members started actively discussing anti- Indian agendas and ideologies in the app. Even
after realising the mishap, Rajiv did nothing as the app was running successfully due to increasing activity of anti-
national elements. Rajiv was held liable for sedition. Decide.
a) Rajiv shall not be held liable as he did not involve in any activities nordid he invite any anti national.
b) Rajiv shall be held liable for sedition under article 124A of the Indian penal code 1860.
c) Rajiv shall be held liable under information technology act 2000 and not under Indian penal code.
d) Rajiv shall not be held liable as he is just an ostensible observer and not an active participant.
Q 90. 11649100 Which of the following statements regarding Section 124A is false?
a) Sedition is a cognizable offense with the maximum of life imprisonment.
b) Sedition is a cognizable offense with the maximum punishment of 30 years imprisonment.

c) Sedition is a non-cognizable offense with the maximum imprisonment for life.
d) Sedition is a non-bailable offense with the maximum imprisonment of 25 years prison.
Q 91. 11649100 Which of the following statements is false in light of the passage given above?
a)
Sedition is considered as a high-value crime in the Indian Penal Code which is against the sovereignty of the country.
b) IPC was drafted by Thomas Macaulay and introduced in 1870.
c)
The Concept of Free Speech has still not attained global importance and very few have supported it as a basic
fundamental right of a human being.
d)
Any words, which can be either written or spoken or signs which include placards/posters (visible representation) are
examples for sedition.
is to be applied.
Passage – 6
A man's reputation is considered valuable property and every man has a right to protect his reputation. This right is
acknowledged as an inherent personal right and is a jus in rem i.e., a right good against all persons in the world.
Defamation refers to any oral or written statement made by a person which damages the reputation of another person.
If the statement made is written and is published, then it is "libel". If the defamatory statement is spoken, then it is a
"slander".
Elements of Defamation:
The Statement should be made- A statement can be made by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by
signs or by visible representations.
The Statement must refer to the plaintiff- The defamatory statement must refer to the person, class of persons or
the trustees of a company.. It is not necessary that the plaintiff has to be mentioned by name, if he can still be
recognized. The person referred to in the defamatory statement can be living or dead, however, defamation suit on
behalf of a dead person can be filed only if the person filing the suit has an interest.
The Statement must be defamatory- Defamation starts with someone making a statement, and any person who
makes a defamatory statement can be held liable for defamation. A defamatory statement tends to diminish the good
opinion that others hold about the person and it has the tendency to make others look at him with a feeling of hatred,
ridicule, fear or dislike. Abusive language may also be defamatory, for example, to call a man hypocrite or a habitual
drunkard. A few illustrations to understand what is defamatory and what is not. To say a motorist drives negligently is
defamatory. To criticize goods is not defamation. To say that a baker's bread is always unwholesome is defamatory. To
state that a person has not that degree of skill which he holds himself as possessing is defamatory.
The intention of the wrongdoer- The person making the defamatory statement knows that there are high chances of
other people believing the statement to be true and it will result in causing injury to the reputation of the person
defamed.
The Statement should be false- A defamatory statement should be false because the truth is a defence to
defamation.
The Statement should not be privileged- In some cases, the statements may be privileged i.e. the person who has
made the statement is protected from such liability.
The Statement must be published- For defamation to occur, the statement should be published. The statement
should be communicated to a third party. In Mahendra Ram v. Harnandan Prasad, the defendant was held liable
because he had sent a defamatory letter written in Urdu despite knowing the fact that the plaintiff could not read Urdu
and ultimately the letter will be read by someone else.
The third party believes the defamatory matter to be true- The other people of the society believe that the
defamatory matter said about the plaintiff is true.
The Statement must cause injury- The statement made should harm or injure the plaintiff in some way. For example,
the plaintiff lost his job because of the statement made.
Defamation by one or more person-When two or more persons agree together to write or utter defamatory words of
another, and one of them writes or utters the words in the presence of others, who have so agreed, all of them may be
sued as a joint tortfeasor provided the defamatory matter has been published to persons other than those who were
acting together or the plaintiff.
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Q 92. 11649100 R and his wife F were participating in a local drama where they played role of couples who fought
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regularly. One day they were practising the roles at their house. G their neighbour heard the voices and went on to tell
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the entire village that R was a characterless drunkard who used to abuse his wife. R filed a case of defamation against
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G. Decide.
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a) G shall be held liable as he tarnished the reputation of R by defaming him in the entire village.
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b) G shall not be held liable as it was an honest mistake from his side.
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c) G shall not be held liable as any reasonable man would have done the same.
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d) G shall be held liable as he had to go to the police station and should not have spread the news across the village.
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Q 93. 11649100 W, worked as an executive director of a company located in Maharashtra. One day W sent a review
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letter to P who reported to him. In review W wrote that the skills of P were very poor and this level would not fetch him
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any job outside nor would allow him to stay in the company for longer. The letter was typed in English presuming that
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everyone in the company knew English. P did not know English and only knew Marathi. P asked his friend E to read
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the letter for him. E after reading the letter made a laughing stock of P in front of his colleagues. P filed a defamation
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case against W.
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a) W shall be held liable as he had to know that P did not know English.
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b) W shall not be held liable as he had no intention to harm the reputation of P and the review was an honest one.
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c) W shall not be held liable as if P doesn't know English he isn't suited to work in the company.
d) W shall not be held liable but E should.

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Q 94. 11649100 Arabian was a local newspaper in India. Arabian printed false and derogatory news regarding a
famous politician knowingly. Arabian was charged with defamation. Decide.
a) Newspapers are exempted from the charge of defamation.

b) Arabian shall not be held liable for defamation but for voyeurism.
c) Arabian shall be held liable for defamation.
d) Arabian shall be dealt under the press act 1878.
Q 95. 11649100 Which of the following is not a slander? (Assuming all the information as false)
a) R publicly stated Narendra Podi the PM of India was a goon and is working for a radical terrorist organisation.
b) T stated that his political opponent X is of low character and has an extramarital affair with over 10 women.
c) H recorded an ISIS speech and played it to local youths.
d) H stated that her boss was sexually harassing her, which came out to be false.
Q 96. 11649100 Which of the following is false in light of the given passage?
a)
The defamatory statement is made in some permanent and visible form, such as writing, printing, pictures and effigies
is a libel.
b)
Any statement written in a personal diary or sent as a personal message does not amount to defamation, but if the
sender knows that it is likely that a third person may read it, then it amounts to defamation.
c) The statement made should harm or injure the plaintiff in some way.
d) If the statement is true even then there can be defamation.
is to be applied.
Passage – 7
"Caveat Emptor" is a Latin phrase that translates to "let the buyer beware". The doctrine of Caveat Emptor is an
integral part of the Sale of Goods Act.. It lays the responsibility of their choice on the buyer themselves. It is specifically
defined in Section 16 of the act "there is no implied warranty or condition as to the quality or the fitness for any
particular purpose of goods supplied under such a contract of sale" A seller makes his goods available in the open
market. The buyer himself is responsible for the choice he made. So the doctrine attempts to make the buyer more
conscious of his choices. It is the duty of the buyer to check the quality and the usefulness of the product he is
purchasing. Let us see an example. A bought a horse from B. A wanted to enter the horse in a race.Turns out the
horse was not capable of running a race on account of being lame. But A did not inform B of his intentions. So B will
not be responsible for the defects of the horse. The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor will apply. However, the buyer can shift
the responsibility to the seller if the three following conditions are fulfilled. - 1) if the buyer shares with the seller his
purpose for the purchase.2) the buyer relies on the knowledge and/or technical expertise of the seller.3) and the seller
sells such goods Exception to doctrine of caveat emptor-
1. Fitness of Product for the Buyer's Purpose
A goes to B to buy a bicycle. He informs B he wants to use the cycle for mountain trekking. If B sells him an ordinary
bicycle that is incapable of fulfilling A's purpose the seller will be responsible.
2. Goods Purchased under Brand Name
When the buyer buys a product under a trade name or a branded product the seller cannot be held responsible for the
usefulness or quality of the product. So there is no implied condition that the goods will be fit for the purpose the buyer
intended.
3. Goods sold by Description
When the buyer buys the goods based only on the description there will be an exception. If the goods do not match the
description then in such a case the seller will be responsible for the goods.
4. Goods of Merchantable Quality
Section 16 (2) deals with the exception of merchantable quality. The sections state that the seller who is selling goods
by description has a duty of providing goods of merchantable quality, i.e. capable of passing the market standards.
So if the goods are not of marketable quality then the buyer will not be the one who is responsible. It will be the seller's
responsibility. However if the buyer has had a reasonable chance to examine the product, then this exception will not
apply.
5. Sale by Sample
If the buyer buys his goods after examining a sample then the rule of Doctrine of Caveat Emptor will not apply. If the
rest of the goods do not resemble the sample, the buyer cannot be held responsible. In this case, the seller will be the
one responsible.
6. Sale by Description and Sample
If the sale is done via a sample as well as a description of the product, the buyer will not be responsible if the goods do
not resemble the sample and/or the description. Then the responsibility will fall squarely on the seller.
7. Usage of Trade
There is an implied condition or warranty about the quality or the fitness of goods/products. But if a seller deviated
from this then the rules of caveat emptor cease to apply. For example, A bought goods from B in an auction of the
contents of a ship. But B did not inform A the contents were sea damaged, and so the rules of the doctrine will not
apply here.
8. Fraud or Misrepresentation by the Seller
This is another important exception. If the seller obtains the consent of the buyer by fraud then caveat emptor will not
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apply. Also if the seller conceals any material defects of the goods which are later discovered on closer examination
then again the buyer will not be responsible. In both cases, the seller will be the guilty party.
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Q 97. 11649100 A's son asked him to buy a bicycle that comes with gear. A visited a bicycle shop and was looking for
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one. A saw a very attractive cycle whichcarried a poster reading "All new and geared up". A immediately brought the
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bicycle only to realise later that it was not a bicycle which was equipped with gear. A sues the seller. Decide.
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a) The seller will be held liable as he has wrongfully displayed it as a gear-cycle.
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b)
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The principle of caveat emptor applies as A should have been vigilant enough to ensure whether the cycle had the
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required modification. The seller shall not be held liable.
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c)
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The principle of caveat emptor shall not apply as the seller wrongfully portrayed it as a gear-cycle. Hence, he shall be
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held liable.
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d) The principle of caveat venditor applies and not caveat emptor.
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Q 98. 11649100 R went to a local shop and asked for 1 box of N90 masks. The seller gave her a box of masks which
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were not N90. Can the seller be held liable?
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a) The seller cannot be held liable as the buyer has to be aware and vigilant.
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b) The seller can be held liable as selling of fake N90 masks has turned out to be a huge scam.
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c)
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The seller shall be held liable as the buyer specifically asked for a certain product. Principle of caveat emptor does not
apply.
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d) The dispute should be resolved through Arbitration if the principle of 'Caveat Emptor' has to be applied.
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Q 99. 11649100 Y saw a T.V add regarding a floor cleaning machine. The description of the item was given as '6 feet
tall and Powerful, with the capability to kill 99.99% germs". Y ordered the product. When she received the product, it
was very fragile and 4 feet tall. She filed a suit claiming the sellers have cheated her. Decide.
a) The principle of caveat emptor applies, and Y shall not receive any compensation.
b) Y cannot claim for relief as she had to know better that these t.v add-products are fake and not trustworthy.
c)
Y shall get the relief as it falls under the exception from principle of caveat emptor, the product ought to match the
description given.
d) The principle of caveat emptor does not apply as it is a product ordered through electronic form.
Q 100. 11649100 Which of the following is not an exception for the application of 'Caveat emptor'?
a) Usage of trade b) c) d) Extended time period.

Fraud or misrepresentation Goods of Merchantable
Quality
Q 101. 11649100 In which of the following situations the doctrine of caveat emptor shall not apply?
a) R buys a 500-dollars pen from a shop, later realises that it was of black ink and he needed a blue one.
b) H visits a shop and asks for a LED 4k T.V. The seller gives him an LCD TV.
c)
O visits an amusement park and buys 5 tickets for his family. After the printing and billing he realises he had an 50%
offer voucher which was given to him by his company. He asks them to apply it on the ticket. Park disagrees as the
tickets were already printed. He sues the park.
d) F buys a gold chain thinking it to be of 24 carat gold but later realises it is 22 carat. He sues the seller.
is to be applied.
Passage – 8
The privilege of private defence is a significant right and it is essentially preventive in nature and not punitive. It is
accessible even with hostility when the state help isn't accessible. Section 96 state that nothing is an offence, which
was done in the 'right of private defence'. Section 97 is bestowed with the subject matter of private defence, which
contains the right to secure the body or property of the people practising the right or of some other individual. The
privilege may be practised against all offences influencing the human body or endeavour or sensible danger of the
commission of any such offence or offence of burglary, theft, mischief or criminal trespass and endeavours to carry out
any of such offences in connection to the property.. Indian law on the right of private defence doesn't necessitate that
the defence must be identified with the individual whose body or property is a topic of hostility. It offers right to
everyone to protect anyone's and everyone's body or property against offences for which right of private defence, is
given there is no opportunity to take plan of action to the assurance of the open specialists and the power utilized isn't
more than what is important to ensure the body or property of an individual.
Right of private defence can't be said to be an offence consequently. The privilege of self-defence under Section 96 is
not outright, however, is obviously qualified by Section 99 which says that the right for no situation reaches out to the
incurring of more damage than it is essential with the end goal of private defence. It is very much settled that in a free
battle, no right of private defence is accessible to either party and every individual is answerable for his very own
demonstrations. The privilege of private defence will totally clear an individual from all blame in any event when he
causes the demise or death of someone else in the accompanying in the following circumstances:
1. On the off chance that the deceased was the genuine attacker, and
2. On the off chance that the offence submitted by the deceased, which occasioned the reason for the activity of the
privilege of private protection of body and property falls inside any one of the six or four classifications identified in
Section 100 and Section 103 of the Indian Penal Code.
Section 97 discusses the right of private defence of the body and of property:-Every individual has a right, subject to
the limitations contained in Section 99, to protect;
1. His very own body, and the body of some other individual, against any offence affecting the human body;
2. The property, regardless of whether moveable or steady, of himself or of some other individual, against any
demonstration which is an offence falling under the meaning of burglary, devilishness or criminal trespass, or which is
an endeavour to carry out burglary, theft, mischief for criminal trespass.
This section limits exercise of the privilege or right of private defence to the degree of supreme need. It must not be
more than what is vital for guarding animosity. This section separates the right of private defence into two sections, for
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example, the initial section manages the right of private defence of the individual, and the second part with the right of
private defence of property.
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Q 102. 11649100 D was a housewife. One day a salesman who appeared on her door tried to physically abuse her.
64
The salesman pushed her down the floor and started removing his belt. Fearing for harassment D threw a flower vase
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at him. The salesman was seriously injured. Can D claim the defence of private defence in the given case?
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a) D cannot claim private defence as the act committed was not proportional to the amount of risk that was present.
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b)
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D can claim private defence as the act of D was committed to protect her own body from the imminent threat that was
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present.
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c) D cannot claim private defence as she had other solutions such as calling for help, or escaping.
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d) D can claim the defence of private defence but has to pay compensation to the salesman.
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Q 103. 11649100 W, lived alone at his house. One night, thieves entered his place. W immediately got up from sleep
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and switched on the lights. Seeing movements, thieves started running. W chased them and shot 2 of them intheir
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legs. Can the private defence be taken?
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a) W can take the defence of private defence as his act was to save his property and body.
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b) W can take the defence of private defence as his act was only a retaliation.
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c) W cannot take the defence of private defence as the act of W was not proportional to the threat present.
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d)
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W cannot take the private defence as he could have called out the neighbours and then chased the thieves instead of
shooting at their legs.
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Q 104. 11649100 In the above question, can private defence be pleaded (After shooting) if the thieves were shooting
bullets around and were aggressively entering the house.
a) Yes b) Maybe
c) No d) More factual explanation is needed.
Q 105. 11649100 Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Section 97- Right of private defence to body and property

b) Section 100- 4 classification of private defence
c) Section 103- 6 classification of private defence

d) Section 98- Right to private defence in special circumstances
Logical Reasoning
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Directions for questions 106 to 130: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments
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set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
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corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some
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instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
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most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

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Passage – 1
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Water scarcity may be caused by a variety of factors - temporal or long-term, local or regional, both natural and
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anthropogenic. The polluted grey and black waters from municipal/industrial effluents, agricultural chemicals and other
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sources affect all aquatic systems. Almost 50 to 80 per cent of wastewater goes untreated into streams, rivers and
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groundwater, which hinders our development capabilities and affects our food security. The virus that causes COVID-
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19 has been detected in untreated wastewater, but the Centres for Disease Control and Prevention in the United
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States (CDC) has said there was no evidence that the novel corona virus can be contracted by coming into contact
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with it. Rivers, water bodies and aquatic life, mountains, forests and wildlife in India symbolise a culture of peace and
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coexistence with nature. But the projected future scenarios for wastewater are dark - water quality will be deteriorating
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further by 2030 under all scenarios. Population growth was found to have the highest impact on future water quality
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deterioration, while climate change had the lowest, although not negligible.
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Q 106. 11649100 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate title of the given passage?
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a) Industrial effluents and how they can be treated b) The use of water by industries
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c) Contamination of water by the COVID-19 virus d) The importance of water resources
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1
Q 107. 11649100 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements:
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a) In the next decade, the quality of water will slump.
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6
1
9
1
0
49
b) In the next decade, the quality of water will improve.
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01
1
10
11
6
16
c) The effect of climate change on water can be ignored.
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00
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11 649 100 11
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d) Water scarcity is a threat that is often blown out of proportion.
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6
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a) Vehicular pollution has caused grave damage to water resources.
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b) Anyone coming in contact with contaminated water can be affected by the Corona virus.
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c) Activities of humans have given rise to water scarcity.

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d) Thermal power plants have diminished the quality of water on our planet.
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Q 109. 11649100 Out of the following statements, which of the following if true, would strengthen the author's
6
argument as expressed in the passage?

91
a) Aquatic organisms hardly have an impact on the ecology.

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64
b) Aquatic organisms suffer because of industrial sewage.
c) Aquatic organisms generally survive in hilly regions.
d) All aquatic organisms will become extinct if industrial pollution continues.
a) Aquatic organisms have evolved over time owing to industrial activity.

b) Ecological interdependence has been proved to be wrong in recent researches.
c) Overpopulation can cause damage to water resources.
d) Western countries have better water management practices.
Passage – 2
As social media becomes all-pervasive, it has had a significant impact on society. Almost everybody is on social media
today. As more people join Facebook, Instagram, Twitter, YouTube, and other networking sites, there is far greater
sharing of information, content, thoughts and ideas than ever before. Social media helps build online communities,
connect audiences, and generate revenue. However, the downside to these activities is the desire to stay in the
spotlight. This can consequently lead to low self-esteem and create a negative perception of one's "body image". Body
image is how people think about their appearance and how they perceive themselves. A negative body image harms
individuals who are affected by the impractical, often absurd, manner in which they view themselves. The assumption
that a person must always look good on social media has become a disorder in itself. There is a strong connection
between social media and body image issues. While, on the one hand, social media has opened up many avenues for
networking, it has brought with it, the pressure to look good, get thousands of likes and positive comments on various
00
platforms. This can affect the mental health of many young people. Validation from the online community has become
something of an addiction.
91
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64
a) How social media controls the social narratives b) How social media has helped people come closer
0
49
11
c) How social media affects teenagers

10
d) How social media controls the way we see ourselves
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1
Q 112. 11649100 The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following statements:
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49
11 649 100
00 11
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a) People on social media often harm themselves while trying to do heroic acts on camera.
64
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0
11
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b) People often seek approval and appreciation from the prevalent social norms.
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10
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c) People often seek approval and appreciation from strangers whom they meet online.
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9
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1
1
d) People on social media are often victims of online fraud because they believe strangers.
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91
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00 11
10
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64
Q 113. 11649100 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

6
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0
49
11 649 100 11
10
a) Too much of social media addiction can cause mental agony.

10
6
16
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11
b) Too much of social media addiction can cause eye problems.

1
6
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c) Too much of social media addiction can cause renal problems.

49
11
00 11
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d) Too much of social media addiction can affect the family dynamics of people.
6
0
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10
Q 114. 11649100 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

6
11
a) People having accounts on social media are always happy.

91
b) Body shaming, at times, takes place on social media.

11
64
c) People who have accounts on social media live a peaceful and contented life.
d) People having accounts on social media are psychologically deranged.
Q 115. 11649100 Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen the author's belief as expressed in the
passage?
a) Social media is relatively unknown in poorer countries of the world.

b) Of late, social scientists are concerned about the ways interpersonal relations are evolving.
c) Social media has become the most popular in developing countries.

d) Social media has both gains and losses.
Passage – 3
India's Department of Science and Technology (DST) on Monday opened access to its geospatial data and services,
including maps, for all Indian entities by saying, "what is readily available globally does not need to be regulated." The
move is said to release a lot of data that is currently restricted and not available for free. The update represents a
major change in the country's mapping policy, which earlier required individuals and companies to seek approval for
use of mapping data under the Geospatial Information Regulation Act, 2016. Geospatial data includes location
information about natural or man-made, physical or imaginary features, whether above the ground or below,
boundaries, points of interest, natural phenomena, mobility data, weather patterns, and other statistical information.
"Liberalisation of the mapping industry and democratization of existing datasets will spur domestic innovation and
enable Indian companies to compete in the global mapping ecosystem by leveraging modern geospatial technologies,"
the ministry said in a release. The announcement comes at a time when advances in mapping technology, including
aerial vehicles, mobile mapping systems, LIDAR and RADAR sensors, and satellite-based remote sensing techniques,
are giving a lift to innovation in eCommerce, logistics and urban transportation sectors. India has so far been reliant on
foreign resources for mapping technologies and services. "The new guidelines for Maps and Geospatial Data are a
path breaking reform ending decades of regulatory inertia. It has completely liberalised the generation and usage of
maps and made it possible for India to take advantage of future map technologies," Rahul Matthan, a lawyer, said in a
tweet. Commenting on the government's move, Rohan Verma, CEO of MapMyIndia, said there will be an
unprecedented value creation for Indian economy and society as result of making geospatial data available for general
0
10
use.
0
Q 116. 11649100 What is the Central Idea of the passage above?

49
10
6
a) The old Indian mapping policy required individuals and companies to seek approval for use of mapping data.
0
49
11
10
b) India is making its mapping and geospatial data available for general use.
6
0
0
49
11
c) India's mapping technology requires improvement.

10
10
6
0
d)
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49
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10
Liberalization of mapping industries in India will enable Indian companies to compete in the global mapping
6
0
0
49
11
ecosystem.
11
10
10
6
0
0
0
49
49
Q 117. 11649100 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage above?
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10
10
10
6
6
a) Geospatial data was readily available to Indian entities in India.

0
49
0
49
49
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11
10
10
6
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11 6
6
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b) Some geospatial data was made available to only those Indians who paid for it.
64
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6
c) Geospatial data is still not made fully available to all Indian entities for free.
0
0
49
11
10
10
64
d) Indian companies were not interested in having access to geospatial data.
49
11
11
Q 118. 11649100 What does the author indicate when he uses the line "Liberalisation of the mapping industry and
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6
6
11 649 100
00 11
11
democratization of existing datasets will spur domestic innovation…" in the given passage?
64
a) Mapping industry in India is not properly developed yet.
0
11 649
11
10
b) Mapping industry in India will completely stop using foreign resources.
11
c) Mapping industry in India will be able to outdo foreign mapping companies.
91
d) Mapping industry in India will follow the principles of democracy.
64
Q 119. 11649100 Which of the following would strengthen the author's argument?
a) India is likely to continue to depend on the resources from foreign countries in the field of mapping.
b) India has so far not depended on the resources from foreign countries in the field of mapping.
c) India has so far depended on the resources from foreign countries in the field of mapping.
d) India has never regulated its geospatial data and services, including maps.
Q 120. 11649100 It can be inferred from the given passage that:
a) The new guidelines for Maps and Geospatial Data will enable India to generate its own maps.
b) The new guidelines for Maps and Geospatial Data may still prevent India from generating its own maps.
c) The new guidelines for Maps and Geospatial Data are modelled on the old guidelines.
d) The new guidelines for Maps and Geospatial Data will be revised after a certain period of time.
Passage – 4
In July, the Communist Party of China (CCP) will celebrate its centenary. This is the most important event in the CCP's
political calendar. It presents an opportunity for the leadership to highlight developmental achievements, which are
seen as critical to its legitimacy. Economic development, however, is one of many factors that feed the algorithm of
legitimacy. Viewing the question of legitimacy simply from a transactional prism of the party ensuring developmental
outcomes in exchange for obedience is reductive, resulting in a misunderstanding of what sustains CCP rule in China.
History, or more precisely, building and guiding a supportive historical narrative is crucial too.
Soon after assuming power as CCP general secretary in late 2012, Xi Jinping clamped down on what he warned were
"nihilistic" views of history. Since then, there has been an effort to weed out deviations from the party's historical
canon. The CCP's version of history draws upon the narrative of the century of humiliation to then present a neat
classification of periods within which China has "stood up, grown rich, and is becoming strong" under CCP rule. Such
simplistic framing overlooks the different visions of the directions that post-Qing China could have taken, the grave
failures of Mao Zedong's time in power, and the policy contestation that led to and followed the start of reform and
00
opening up. These rarely ever get reflected in official public discourse, for doing so would undermine the notion of a
party driven by a "historical purpose" and vision towards a destination called national rejuvenation.
91
49 100
64
a) In its centenary year, the CCP's revisionist history b) The condition of Chinese politics in the present age
0
49
11
10
c) China and its socialist history d) China's imperialist ambitions
16
00
00
1
91
Q 122. 11649100 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
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00 11
10
64
a) The CCP believes that China's condition has worsened under its rule.
64
0
49
49 100 11
0
49
b) The CCP believes that the Chinese are no longer interested in the socialist ideals propagated by the party.
11 649 100 11
10
10
6
16
c) The CCP believes that China has developed during its regime.
49 100
9
11 649 100 11
00
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1
d) The CCP believes that China can develop nuclear power under its rule.
91
91
49
00 11
00 11
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64
Q 123. 11649100 The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following statements:
6
11
0
49
11 649 100 11
a) In today's age, political parties have lost the trust of the common people.
10
6
16
11
b) Any developmental activity lends credence to a party.

1
1
6
91
c) Socialism has lost its credibility in the present day context.
11
00 11
64
d) The CCP should be more focused on people centric activities.
0
49
11
10
Q 124. 11649100 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

6
a) The CCP wants to keep the existing historical narratives intact.

91
b) The CCP wants to build a presidential form of government.

11
64
c) The CCP has wanted to modify the historical narratives in the recent past.
d) The CCP believes in a democratic form of governance.
Q 125. 11649100 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
a) Mao Zedong was a failure as a ruler. b) Mao Zedong was successful as a ruler.
c) d) Mao Zedong failed because he was a myopic ruler.
Mao Zedong failed because of his faulty economic
policies.
Passage – 5
On January 13 this year, subscribers of English newspapers in India woke up to full-page advertisements from
WhatsApp on the front pages. Earlier in the week, WhatsApp had announced an upcoming change to its privacy
policy, which led to growing concerns around privacy among many users, and who started switching over to other
messaging services such as Signal and Telegram. This led WhatsApp to issue the advertisements, which committed to
protecting the privacy of its users. This unprecedented move by the Facebook-owned company indicates that Indian
consumers are becoming more aware and concerned about data protection and privacy - a trend that has become
stronger in the recent past. The issue of privacy is crucial for government technology platforms and services as
governments typically have a monopoly in providing public services, unlike the private sector. Hence, "porting out" or
"digital migration", as seen in the case of WhatsApp, is not an option. What is needed instead, is an examination of
government technological platforms to create better awareness. We saw this in action in the case of Aadhaar (the
Government of India's biometric digital identity platform) and Aarogya Setu (the Government of India's contact tracing
application during the novel coronavirus pandemic).Since the announcement of the first lockdown on March 24, 2020,
at least 35 mobile apps that specifically address COVID- 19 were developed by 25 States and Union Territories of
00
India. Of these, 27 mobile apps provide general information on COVID-19 and seven allow tracking of nearby COVID-
19 cases.
91
49 100
Q 126. 11649100 Which of the following would be the most appropriate title of the passage?
64
a) Concerns of WhatsApp privacy policy b) Digital migration from WhatsApp to other platforms
0
49
11
10
c) Fine-tuning the Indian app technology d) Indian app technology versus foreign app technology
16
00
00
1
91
Q 127. 11649100 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
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0
11 649 100
00 11
10
64
a) Keener scrutiny of the technology platforms of India can lead to improved public services and user confidence.
64
0
49
49 100 11
0
49
b) The technology platforms of India's states should not be scrutinized as they meet the requirements of the users.
11 649 100 11
10
10
6
16
c) The technology platforms of India's states are better than the private technology platforms.
49 100
9
11 649 100 11
00
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1
d) The technology platforms of India's states are inspired by private technology platforms.
91
91
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00 11
00 11
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64
Q 128. 11649100 Which of the following would weaken the author's argument in the given passage?
6
11
0
49
11 649 100 11
a) It is possible to port out of the apps whose platforms are provided by private companies.
10
6
16
11
b) It is not possible to port out of the apps whose platforms are provided by the government of India.
1
1
6
91
c) It is not possible to port out of the apps whose platforms are provided by private companies.
11
00 11
64
d) Arogya Setu is an app that was created to trace the COVID-19 patients in India.
0
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11
10
Q 129. 11649100 Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
6
a) WhatsApp's assurance of protecting its users' privacy has ensured the retention of its existing users.
91
b) WhatsApp's announcement of changes in its policies stemmed the migration of its users to Signal and Telegram.
11
64
c) Signal and Telegram's users' privacy policies are better than that of WhatsApp's.
d) More people are likely to migrate from WhatsApp to Signal and Telegram in the future.
Q 130. 11649100 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given passage?
a) People in India are now becoming more aware of data protection and privacy.
b) In the distant past, people in India were not as strongly aware of data protection and privacy as they are now.
c) Data protection policies in India are still not as strong as they are in other countries.
d) Both b and c.
Directions for questions 131 to 133: Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning ability in different
0
10
situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each of them respectively:
00
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0
9
Q 131. 11649100 When students from the University of the Gambia heard that their political science lecturer, Ismaila
10
64
Ceesay, had been arrested without any substantial evidence, they mobilised. By evening, 50 of them, along with the
00
49
49 100 11
president of the students' union, were protesting outside police headquarters in Banjul. By morning, hundreds more
91
16
had arrived. Police sources who spoke on condition of anonymity told that they had been instructed to arrest Ceesay
00
49 100
1
64
by the government of Adama Barrow, who won the 2016 election on a promise of change from the repression and
91
human rights violations that marked his predecessor's rule.
11 649 100
49
00 11
64
6
0
49
11 649 100 11
0
11 649 100 11
Which one of the following can be logically concluded from the given passage?
10
10
6
6
49 100
a) Ceesay has jeopardized his position as an academic by meddling in politics.
11 649 100 11
00
11
b) The students of Gambia are politically aware and showcase a just disposition.
91
6
91
49
00 11
00 11
c) The Gambian police force is fearful of Barrow.
64
64
6
11
0
49
d) Adama Barrow's election as a ruler is possibly ironical.
11 649 100 11
10
6
16
11
Q 132. 11649100 Nearly 40 years after Natalie Wood died mysteriously on a boat trip to Santa Catalina Island,
1
investigators have named the actor's husband Robert Wagner as a person of interest. Los Angeles County sheriff's
1
91
11
00 11
investigators told 48 Hours, the CBS news magazine series, that they intend to speak to Wagner, 87, regarding the
64
circumstances of Wood's death in 1981. CBS will be airing a special about the case - Natalie Wood: Death in Dark
0
49
Water - which was reopened in 2011 after the captain of the Splendour, Dennis Davern, stated he had initially lied to
10
6
police and believed Wagner to be responsible for Wood's death. Davern alleged that Wagner and Wood had an
argument that evening that escalated.
91
11
64
Which one of the following can be logically concluded from the given passage?
a) The case could have been resolved much before had Davern not lied.
b) Wood's death is still very much an interesting topic in the popular imagination.
c) The police would not have reopened the case but for the airing of the documentary.
d) Wood's husband is a corrupt and deplorable man.
Q 133. 11649100 A study has revealed that people who have been successful in studies are generally not the ones to
earn high salaries. Good academic performance does not guarantee good earnings.
Which of the following justifies the conclusion of the given argument?
a) People can earn less and it does not matter as long as they are satisfied with their jobs.
b) In most cases academic performance depends on theoretical knowledge, but job requires practical knowledge.
c)
Getting a decent job is purely based on luck; even a mediocre student can get a high-paying job with a bit of help from
lady luck.
d) Both academics and jobs require immense dedication and hard work.
Q 134. 11649100 There are five members in a family having a lady doctor whose mother, D, is a teacher. E is the
banker's wife and she is an engineer, whereas their son is a lawyer. A is the brother of C, whose nephew is B. Select
the statement that is true regarding the family.
a) The grandson of E is a lawyer. b) The doctor is married to the engineer.
c) B is the son of the banker. d) The nephew of E is a doctor.
Q 135. 11649100 Five friends - P, Q, R, S and T - get their report cards at the end of the academic year. R gets a
higher score than Q and P in both Mathematics and English. S gets the second lowest in one and the lowest score in
the other. T gets the highest score in Mathematics. P gets more than T, who gets more than S and Q in English. P gets
second lowest in one and second highest in the other subject.
If the total marks for both subjects is 100, then which of the following statements CANNOT be true?
a) R gets 60 marks in one subject. b) P gets 80 marks in one subject.
c) T gets a total of 160 marks in both subjects. d) S gets a total of 200 marks in the two subjects.
Quantitative Techniques
0
10
00
11 649
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
91
0
11
In the figure given below ABCD is a rectangular park in which a semicircular area is demarcated as the play area. The
10
64
remaining shaded area of the rectangle is used to grow flowering plants. Within the play area is a circular lawn within
0
00
49
64 910 0 1 1164 169410 910 0 1 164 910
which is a triangular water body. The radius of the semicircle is 14 feet.
91
16
91 00 116 114691 49010 0016 116 491 00
11 649 100
64
1
64
91
0
00 11
0
49
00 11 1149 4900 00 11
0
10
16
0
0 0016 1691 910 0
00
10
0
1
1
0 64 6 1 1
16
91
49
49 4900 0 11 1149 49
00 00 11
64
91
6
0
11
91 910 0
10
4
0
4
6
Q 136. 11649100 What is the area in which flowering plants are grown?
64 6410 1
16 1691 9 0 0
49
11
a) 98 square feet b) 84 square feet c) 308 square feet d) 168 square feet
6
1
11
64 64
Q 137. 11649100 If triangle EFG is equilateral and the water body has a depth of 2 feet, then what is the approximate
1
1
volume of water that it can hold?

11
11 649 100
a) 117 cubic feet b) 70 cubic feet c) 127 cubic feet d) 154 cubic feet
1
1
1
0
49
1
Q 138. 11649100 If triangle EFG is equilateral, then what is the approximate cost of mowing the lawn at Rs.12 per
1
10
16
square feet?
0
00
10
0
1
a) Rs.848 b) Rs.1,182 c) Rs.1,024 d) Rs.1,084

1
91
00
49
00 11
64
Q 139. 11649100 What is the ratio of the circumference of the circular lawn to the perimeter of the semicircular play
1
6
1
49
11
0
49
area?
10
10
6
a) 11 : 18 b) 13 : 19 c) 15 : 19 d) 14 : 17
0
49
11
49
00 11
6
91
6
Q 140. 11649100 What will be the cost of constructing a fence on the outer boundary of rectangle ABCD at the rate of
11
11
64
Rs.55 per foot?

64
91
11
11
0
10
1
1
6
a) Rs.4,020 b) Rs.4,500 c) Rs.4,620 d) Rs.4,920
00
11 649
11
91
11
64
The bar graph shows the percentage concentration of different ingredients in five drinks - A, B, C, D and E.
0
10
0
49
Q 141. 11649100 If the total quantity of Apple Juice is 240 ml, then what was the quantity of water in drink D?
10
6
a) 44 ml b) 50 ml c) 48 ml d) 36 ml
0
49
11
10
6
Q 142. 11649100 If the total quantity of drink E was 320 ml, then what was the total quantity of Orange Juice in drink
0
49
11
10
C?
0
6
0
49
a) 160 ml b) 150 ml c) 240 ml d) 180 ml

10
11
10
6
00
49
00
49
11
Q 143. 11649100 If the ratio of the quantities of Coke in drinks A and B was 4 : 3, then the quantity of water in drink A
91
6
was what percentage more or less than the quantity of water in drink B?
91
6
0
0
11
11
10
64
10
64
9
00 11
10
49 100 1
64
11 649 10
64
a) 80% b) 68.5% c) 110% d) 220%
00
00
11 649
0
11
49
11
10
91
Q 144. 11649100 If there was 80 ml of Apple Juice in drink C, then what was the total quantity of Coke in drinks B and
91
6
00 11
11
A?
64
64
91
0
a) 120 ml b) 80 ml c) 200 ml d) 240 ml
49
11 649 100 11
11
10
64
16
00
Q 145. 11649100 If 20 ml of mixture is removed from a 100 ml of drink E and 20 ml of Apple Juice along with 20 ml of
1
Coke are added to it, then what is the percentage of Apple Juice in the new drink?
91
6
49
00 11
a) 25% b) 30% c) 20% d) 18%
64
6
0
49
11
11
10
6
11
The table given below shows the cost price, profit or loss percentage, selling price and marked price of five items - K,
91
L, M, N and P. Some cells are vacant and their values need to be calculated in the course of solving the problems.
11
64
00
91
49 100
Q 146. 11649100 If the shopkeeper gets a profit of 10% by the sale of Item K, then what is the discount offered on the
64
marked price of Item K?
0
49
11
10
a) 15% b) 20% c) 12% d) 18%
16
00
00
1
Q 147. 11649100 If the marked price for item L is Rs.8,000 and the shopkeeper gives a discount of 15%, then what is
91
91
6
0
the cost price of item L?

11 649 100
00 11
10
64
64
a) Rs.8,500 b) Rs.7,540 c) Rs.9,455 d) Rs.7,250

0
49
00 11
0
49
11 649 100 11
10
10
6
16
Q 148. 11649100 What is the percentage loss in the sale of Item P if the marked price is the same as its cost price?
0
9
11 649 100 11
00
10
64
a) 15% b) 12% c) 16% d) 20%

91
91
49
00 11
00 11
64
64
Q 149. 11649100 What is the difference between the cost price and marked price of item M if the shopkeeper offers a
1
6
49
11
0
49
discount of 10%?
11 649 100 11
10
6
16
a) Rs.900 b) Rs.1,200 c) Rs.1,050 d) Rs.1,000

49
11
1
1
6
91
Q 150. 11649100 If the shopkeeper gets a profit of 25% on the sale of Item N, then what is the discount offered on the
11
00 11
marked price?
64
0
49
11
a) 10% b) 4% c) 6% d) 8%
10
6
91
11
64

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All India Mock CLAT 05 (2021)

leap, not knowing where they will land. But how?

b) Scientists' worldview, once established as true, remains the same forever.

d) Scientific approaches are subjective and are always based on emotions.

Q 4. 11649100 Which of the following is consistent with Van Fraassen's argument?

a) Scientists do not have to change themselves and their worldviews.

b) Scientists never look at their studies emotionally.

a) Van Fraassen doesn't specify which emotions can help scientists.

b) There are a few problems with this theory.

as well as entrepreneurs and government officials committed to building self-reliance.

a) The government should offer more opportunities to retired persons.

a) Time to introduce start-ups in the defence sector

b) Time to introduce foreign collaboration in the defence sector

c) Innovation in the defence sector

d) Defence sector: Striving towards excellence

noisy all the time."

Q 14. 11649100 It can be inferred from the given passage that:

a) Inclusive b) Limited c) Ambiguous d) Abstruse

women connect with and share fiction in different ways"…

c) Taylor is agog about gleaning information in more than one way.

d) Taylor's inquiring nature of women's nature is multipronged.

a) monitored and fruitful. b) c) unhurried and licentious d)

authoritative and unlicensed, brisk and

religious rather than national allegiance." most likely say?

British imperialists fanned the flames.

the deep-seated element of politics and extreme nationalism.

a) The consequences of Summer Olympics went beyond the realm of sports.

b) Germany faced economic hardships after World War I.

and politics and extreme nationalism.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

replacing the traditional briefcase before presenting Budget 2021.

a) John Matthai b) Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh

with [3] in the passage above?

a) Rs 25,000 crore b) Rs 35,000 crore c) Rs 55,000 crore d) Rs 75,000 crore

___________ of the Constitution of India.

a) Article 110 b) Article 111 c) Article 112 d) Article 113

a) Morarji Desai b) P Chidambaram c) Pranab Mukherjee d) Yashwant Sinha

c) Reinvigorating human capital d) Make India pharmacy superpower in the world

been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) 31 December 2020 b) 22 January 2021 c) 26 January 2021 d) 1 February 2021

a) Five b) Six c) Nine d) Fifteen

_____________ nuclear test in May 1974.

a) China b) Germany c) India d) Israel

a) Open Market Operations (OMO) b) Long Term Repo Operations (LTRO)

c) Repo Rate d) Marginal Standing Facility

a) Urjit Patel b) Shaktikanta Das c) Viral V. Acharya d)

Raghuram Govinda Rajan

d) All of the above

a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh b) c) Meerut, Uttar Pradesh d) Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh

Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh

a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Reading c) Lord Mayo d) Lord Irwin

a) Bhagwan Ahir b) c) Raghuvir Singh d) Jagdev Singh

d) All of the above

Q 55. 11649100 Which of the following is not a quasi-judicial body in India?

a) National Green Tribunal b) Central Information Commission

a) Article 140 b) Article 141 c) Article 142 d) Article 143

with [1] in the passage above?

a) Ivy Mike b) RDS-9 c) Joe-1 d) Castle Union

periods of the periodic table of elements is completed?

a) 4th period b) 5th period c) 6th period d) 7th period

since ____________ordered the elements into a table.

a) Dimitri Mendeleev b) Henry Moseley c) John Alexander d) Ernest Rutherford