Mock Clat-22 (Question Paper) Section - I: English

CP/20/C22
MOCK CLAT–22
(Question Paper)
Section – I: English
S.1–5) Directions for questions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
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After months of jockeying, 20 of the Supreme Court’s 21 judges have made public their assets on the
court’s website. The declaration, which comes after a war of words between the judiciary and the
legislature, is ‘voluntary’ and has been done in accordance with a procedure agreed to by SC judges
in 1997. This is an important step forward in imposing accountability and transparency for judges.
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However, there is still some way to go for full transparency in the judiciary. Since the disclosure of
wealth is entirely voluntary there are no guidelines that have to be followed by judges. Indeed, there
is no binding obligation on all judges to declare their assets and, even when they do so, to show
everything that they own. Thus, many of the SC judges, including the Chief Justice, have not declared
their bank account details and savings. As for the high courts, only judges of the Kerala and
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Karnataka high courts have so far declared their assets, though it is expected that all of them will do
so following the Supreme Court’s decision. But as and when these do happen, they would also be
voluntary.
The voluntary nature of the judges’ declaration of wealth is due to the fact that unlike politicians,
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who are bound by law under the Representation of the People Act to declare their assets when they
contest elections, it is not mandatory for the judiciary to do so. In fact, the judiciary has resisted
putting itself under the ambit of the Right to Information Act. The Supreme Court challenged a chief
information commissioner (CIC) order earlier this year directing the SC to disclose information on
judges’ assets. When the Delhi high court upheld the CIC order, the apex court decided to appeal.
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The next hearing is scheduled later this month.

It’s a pity the apex court has preferred to keep itself out of RTI’s purview. The Court has to be the
most accountable institution in any democracy because of its role as a watchdog. Indeed, judges
must be held to standards that are higher than other government officials. And the apex court, as
the highest judiciary authority of the land, should be the first to embrace the ethics of transparency.
The Supreme Court, through its rulings has been instrumental in imposing accountability on MPs and
other public servants. That is why it has enjoyed a high reputation among citizens. However, there
has been considerable controversy in recent times on corruption in the judiciary. Voluntary
acceptance of RTI and clear guidelines of declaration of judges’ assets would go a long way in
scotching such accusations.
Q.1) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
a) First Step
b) RTI and the Supreme Court.
c) Judiciary vs. Legislature.
d) Multiple standards.
Q.2) Which act makes it mandatory for the MPs to declare their assets?
a) The Representation Act.

b) The Right to Information Act
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c) The Representation of the People Act

d) None of the above.
Q.3) What can you not infer about the SC from the passage?
a) The SC has been instrumental in making public servants feel accountable for their actions.
b) The SC should take upon itself to set an example of transparency in judiciary.
c) The SC has made sure that the judiciary also becomes liable to reveal information under the Right
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to Information Act.
d) The SC has challenged a CIC order earlier this year.
Q.4) What is the fallout of the declaration of assets being voluntary, as mentioned in the paragraph?
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a) The judges are not going to disclose all their assets.
b) The judges may or may not disclose all their assets.
c) The SC will have to struggle its way out of the ambit of the Right to Information Act.
d) The high court judges are going to follow the footsteps of the SC judges.
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Q.5) What was the decision of the Delhi high Court about the CIC order?
a) The Delhi high court refused to acknowledge the decision.

b) The Delhi high court believed that the order should be respected.
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c) The SC intervened before the Delhi high court could pass a verdict.
S.6–9) Directions for questions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
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follow it.
Either this will ring bells for you, or it won’t. A printed banner has appeared on the concourse of a
petrol station near to where I live. “Come inside” it says, “for CD’s, VIDEO’s, DVD’s, and BOOK’s” If
this satanic sprinkling of redundant apostrophe causes no little gasp of horror or quickening of the
pulse, you should probably put down this book at once. By all means congratulate yourself that you
are not a pedant or even a stickler; that you are happily equipped to live in a world of plummeting
punctuation standards; but just don’t bother to go any further. For any true stickler, you see, the
sight of the plural word “Book’s” with an apostrophe in it triggers a ghastly private emotional
process similar to the stages of bereavement, though greatly accelerated.
It’s tough being a stickler for punctuation these days. One almost dare not get up in the mornings.
True, one occasionally hears a marvelous punctuation joke about a panda who “eats, shoots and
leaves” but in general the stickler’s exquisite senses are assaulted from all sides, causing feelings of
panic and isolation. A sign at a health club will announce, “It’s party time, on Saturday 24th May we
are have a disco / party night for free, it will be a ticket only evening” Advertisements offer
decorative services to “wall’s – ceiling’s – door’s ect”. Meanwhile a newspaper placard announces
“FAN’S FURY AT STADIUM INQUIRY” which sounds quite interesting until you look inside the paper
and discover that the story concerns a quite large mob of fans, actually – not just the lone hopping–
mad fan so promisingly indicated by the punctuation.
Everywhere one looks, there are signs of ignorance and indifference. What about that film ‘Two
Weeks Notice’? Guaranteed to give sticklers a very nasty turn, that was – its posters slung along the
sides of buses in letters four feet tall, with no apostrophe in sight. I remember, at the start of the
‘Two Weeks Notice’ publicity campaign in the spring of 2003, emerging cheerfully from Victoria
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Station (was I whistling?) and stopping dead in my tracks with my fingers in my mouth. Where was
the apostrophe? Surely there should be an apostrophe on that bus? If it were “one month’s notice”
there would be an apostrophe (I reasoned); yes, and if it were “one week’s notice” there would be
an apostrophe. Therefore “two weeks’ notice” requires an apostrophe! Buses that I should have
caught sailed off up Buckingham Palace Road while I communed thus at length with my inner
stickler, unable to move or, indeed, regain any sense of perspective.
Part of one’s despair, of course, is that the world cares nothing for the little shocks endured by the
sensitive stickler. While we look in horror at a badly punctuated sign, the world carries on around us,
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blind to our plight. We are like the little boy in ‘The Sixth Sense’ who can see dead people, except
that we can see dead punctuation. Whisper it in petrified little–boy tones: dead punctuation is
invisible to everyone else – yet we see it all the time. No one understands us seventh–sense people.
They regard us as freaks. When we point out illiterate mistakes we are often aggressively instructed
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to “get a life” by people who, interestingly, display no evidence of having lives themselves. Naturally
we become timid about making our insights known, in such inhospitable conditions. A sign has gone
up in a local charity–shop window which says, baldly, “Can you spare any old records” (no question
mark) and I dither daily outside on the pavement. Should I go in and mention it? It does matter that
there’s no question mark on a direct question. It is appalling ignorance. But what will I do if the
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elderly lady gives me the usual disbelieving stare and then tells me to, get a life and mind my own
business?
On the other hand, I’m well aware there is little profit in asking for sympathy for sticklers. We are
not the easiest people to feel sorry for. We refuse to patronise any shop with checkouts for “eight
items or less” (because it should be “fewer”), and we got very worked up after 9/11 not because of
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Osama bin Laden but because people on the radio kept saying “enormity” when they meant
“magnitude” and we really hate that. When we hear the construction “Mr Blair was stood” (instead
of “standing”) we suck our teeth with annoyance, and when words such as “phenomena” “media” or
“cherubim” are treated as singular, some of us cannot suppress actual screams. Sticklers never read
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a book without a pencil at hand, to correct the typographical errors. In short, we are unattractive
know–all obsessives who get things out of proportion and are in continual peril of being disowned by
our exasperated families.
I know precisely when my own stickler personality started to get the better of me. In the autumn of
2002, I was making a series of programmes about punctuation for Radio 4 called Cutting a Dash. My
producer invited John Richards of the Apostrophe Protection Society to come and talk to us. At that
time, I was quite tickled by the idea of an Apostrophe Protection Society, on whose website could be
found photographic examples of ungrammatical signs such as “The judges decision is final” and “No
dog’s”. We took Mr Richards on a trip down Berwick Street Market to record his reaction to some
‘green coloured’ punctuation (“Potatoe’s” and so on), and then sat down for a chat about how
exactly one goes about protecting a conventional printer’s mark that, through no fault of its own,
seems to be terminally flailing in a welter of confusion.
What the APS does is write courteous letters, he said. A typical letter would explain the correct use
of the apostrophe, and express the gentle wish that, should the offending “BOB,S PETS” sign (with a
comma) be replaced one day, this well–meant guidance might be borne in mind. It was at this point
that I felt a profound and unignorable stirring. It was the awakening of my Inner Stickler. “But that’s
not enough!” I said. Suddenly I was a–buzz with ideas. What about issuing stickers printed with the
words “This apostrophe is not necessary”? What about telling people to shin up ladders at dead of
night with an apostrophe – shaped stencil and a tin of paint? Why did the Apostrophe Protection
Society not have a militant wing? Could I start one?
Q.6) The tone of the passage is
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a) humorous.
b) satirical.
c) sarcastic.
d) critical.
Q.7) The main reason for a stickler’s despair at the pathetic state of punctuation marks is :
a) There is no appreciation for a stickler’s refined taste for punctuation.
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b) There is no recognition for the pain caused to a stickler by wrong punctuation marks.
c) Nothing is being done to stem the rot.
d) The inability of a stickler to express his dislike for misplaced apostrophes.
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Q.8) The last few lines of the passage
a) show the streaks of violence hidden in the author.

b) illustrate the author’s passion for proper punctuation marks.
c) list ways and means to overcome the problem.
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d) are proof of the creative streak in the author.
Q.9) With which of the following use of punctuation marks would the author definitely not agree
with?
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a) In European paintings, the painters have…….

b) Through the 1990’s ………
c) The phenomenon of the formation of a rainbow involves……..
d) It’s an ill wind that ……..
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S.10–13) Directions for questions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow:
The romance of whaling is not much appreciated nowadays. The hunters are denounced on shirts
and bumper stickers. Cuddly whales are sold in toyshops. Recordings of the noises whales make are
played to comfort human babies in the womb. Leviathan has become a precious and friendly
companion for man, chatty and petted, while his ancient connotations of monstrous terror have got
transferred to the whalers. The heroes of the seascapes and stories which whaling formerly
inspired—images of collective triumph, won by the discipline of dedicated men over a looming fate
in deadly environments—have been turned into the villains of a modern saga of readjusted
ecological values. As almost the world’s last eaters of whales, Japanese have borne a lot of the
opprobrium. Resentment of foreign reproaches has made a taste for whale meat a patriotic badge in
Japan and turned the flaccid, insipid fillets into a reputed delicacy.
Revulsion from the romance of whaling probably started with the practice of the whalers
themselves. Anxieties about conservation and sentimentality over the prey came later. When
Herman Melville wrote Moby– Dick, the most gripping and moving of all whaling romances, in 1851,
the whalers’ battle with their quarry was still nicely poised between the primal beast and the
primitive technology. To Melville the whale fishery was a calling of “imperial dignity,” but the
harpoonists aboard the Pequod were all “primitives” themselves, drawn into the story from a
remote age. They hunted the whale to within a harpoon’s throw in open boats that could be
crunched or flailed to splinters. When a monster was seized—worried and wearied and harried to
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death—the carcass, lashed to the side of the ship, would make her list. Then the whole crew would
kneel between decks in blood and blubber to chop the fat for rendering before it turned putrid.
Within a few years of Melville’s book, the industrial revolution came to the world of whaling. The
romance fled with the risk and the raw, coarse trauma. In 1865, Svend Foyn introduced the killer
ship. From his steam powered ironclad, mounted with a hefty cannon on a pivot at the prow, a five–
foot harpoon of a hundred pounds’ weight thudded into the target’s hide at short range. The hollow
iron cap was filled with blasting powder; a timed fuse exploded the bomb inside the whale’s body.
Using fast engines, the carcass could be towed into port for processing. Every kind of whale could
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now be hunted—none too big or too powerful—and every part of it used. The flesh, which had
formerly been discarded, could be ground for fertilizer. When the Japanese joined in factory whaling
after the Second World War, they refrigerated it aboard and ate it.
Thus the industrialization of whaling kept pace with the “modernization” of Japan; the place of the
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whale in the modern Japanese menu is a result of the coincidence of both processes. The shared
experience of the Japanese with western peoples did not mean assimilation to western ways or
tastes, or incorporation in western history. Judged by the origins of their movement, as well as by
the results, it is misleading to characterize the modernizers as imitators of Europe or the U.S.A.
Nor—contrary to western self–flattery—was it western initiatives that brought isolation to an end
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and got the modernizers started. Butterfly’s wings were already flapping before Pinkerton fluttered
them.
Q.10) Whales are now considered man’s friend because

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a) they soothe babies in the womb.

b) children like them as soft toys.
c) now man sympathizes with them for the deadly environment they survive in.
d) of the cruelty meted out to them while hunting.
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Q.11) Earlier whalers were considered to be heroes
a) because whaling was a majestic calling.

b) while others were thought to be primitives.
c) due to the grotesque nature of their jobs.
d) as whale meat is delicious and rare.
Q.12) The paradox mentioned in the passage is
a) whaling was appreciated earlier while now it is looked down upon.

b) that even though the Japanese shared experiences with the west it didn’t result in adopting their
ways, tastes or history.
c) the place of whales in Japan is a result of both modernization and industrialization.
d) the harpoonists aboard the Pequod were all “primitives”, drawn into the story from a remote age.
Q.13) The sentence “Butterfly’s wings were already flapping before Pinkerton fluttered them” means
a) changes were underway in Japan even before a third party took initiative.
b) it was modernization that heralded industrialization in whaling.
c) modernizers of Japan were not imitators of the west.
d) foreign resentment made Japanese eat whales all the more.
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S.14–21) Directions for questions: Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions.
The establishment of Green Courts is not a novel concept and these are in operation in 134
countries. The establishment of such courts has not only improved the environment but also
condensed and resolved various environmental problems affecting both, the individual and the
society on a holistic level.
One of the primary exemplar of such set–up is the LEC, established under the Land and Environment
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Court Act, 1979, which is a superior court of record having same jurisdiction as the Supreme Court of
New South Wales. It is composed of Judges and nine technical and conciliation assessors. The Judges
and Commissioners are appointed by the Governor and should have special knowledge or
qualification in town planning, environmental planning, environmental science including matters
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relating to protection of the environment and environmental assessment, architecture, engineering,
surveying or building construction, management of natural resources and urban design or heritage.
In addition to this, a consultative committee known as Closed User’s Group is also established whose
main function is to recommend to the Chief Judge improvements in the functioning and services
provided by the Court and act as a communication channel to disseminate court related information.
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The Group has a wide range of membership across engineering, architectural, planning, surveying
streams along with representatives of the legal profession.
The proceedings in this court are conducted with as little technicality as possible and with as much
expedition. The Court is not bound to follow rules of evidence.
The “Australasian model” is very relevant to the study of the recent development of green justice in
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India because both the Supreme Court and the Law Commission of India, which described these
experiments as ‘ideal’, have relied heavily on them to define the proposed Environmental Courts
system.
The New Zealand Environment Court is more recent, being established under the Resource
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Management (Amendment) Act of 1996.Like the New South Wales Court, it is an independent
specialized court, composed of judges and environmental commissioners, nominated by the
government as technical experts.
The Governor–General appoints them for a period of five years on the recommendation of the
Minister of Justice, while ensuring a mix of knowledge and experience including commercial and
economic affairs, local government, community affairs, planning and resource management,
heritage protection, environmental science, architecture, engineering, minerals and alternative
disputes resolution processes.
It has specialised provisions through which, with the consent of the parties, at any time after
proceedings are lodged, the Court may ask one or more of its Environment Commissioners to
conduct mediation or conciliation to resolve the dispute. It is interesting to note that the New
Zealand Court, with reference to this power has been defined as the “adjudicator of sustainability.”
U.S.A has the Vermont’s Environmental Court that was created by the Uniform Environmental Law
Enforcement Act in 1989, and took effect in November 1990. The same statute gave the Secretary of
the Agency of Natural Resources increased enforcement powers applying to a range of
environmental programs.
Q.14) What are the benefits of the establishment of green courts?
a) Improving the environment

b) Solving the environmental problem
c) Preventing global warming
d) Both a and b
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Q.15) Which of the following were members of the LEC?
a) Judges
b) Technical and conciliation assessors
c) Governor
d) Both a and b
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Q.16) Which of the following recommend the Chief Judge about the improvements in the
functioning and services provided by the Court?
a) Governor
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b) Technical assessors
c) Closed User’s Group
d) None of the above
Q.17) Which of the following is false according to the passage?

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a) The proceedings in court are conducted with as little technicality as possible
b) The proceedings are conducted with expedition
c) Court is not bound to follow rules of evidence.
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Q.18) In which year the New Zealand Environment Court was established?
a) 1979
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b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1996
Q.19) In which of the following county an environmental court is not established?
a) India
b) Australia
c) New Zealand
d) U.S.A
Q.20) What is the tone of the passage?
a) Narrative
b) Descriptive
c) Inquisitorial
d) Analytical
Q.21) What is the source of the passage?
a) An excerpt from a biography

b) A research work
c) A blog on current issues
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d) An extract from a judgment
S.22–23) Directions for questions: Fill in the blanks keeping in mind the correct usages:
Q.22) Last year Tiwari had decided to lose weight and then _________.
a) he started to work on it
b) he has been starting to work on it
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c) he will have started to work on it
d) he was starting on it
Q.23) _________ I wish to travel on only one of them.
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a) There are many aircrafts on the runway and
b) There are many aircraft on the runway so
c) There are many aircrafts on the runway since
d) There are many aircraft on the runway and
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S.24–25) Directions for questions: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From
the pairs of words given below, choose the pair that fills the blanks most appropriately.
Q.24) In later years as popular __________ against the new generation of party bosses increases,
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they will, for sheer self–preservation, be led to make increasing attempts to capture votes by
__________ to caste, communal and regional interests and ultimately even to ‘rig’ elections.
a) fretfulness . . . catering
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b) discontent . . . pandering
c) dissatisfaction . . . cushioning
d) vexation . . . conciliating
Q.25) Whether on land, under water, in the skies or beyond, our ability to achieve new goals is
__________ by the available technology and __________ by improvement to it.
a) circumscribed . . . maximized
b) interlaced . . . amplified
c) bounded . . . minimized
d) limited . . . enhanced
S.26–28) Directions for questions: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when
properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Indicate the
correct sequence of letters, which forms a logically coherent paragraph, in the box provided below
each question.
Q.26)
(a) It is implied that teaching is done from a distance.
(b) As against a university, which enrolls students of a similar age, has definite time schedule, and is
confined to a geographical area or campus, an ‘open university’ can cater to all kinds of students – of
various ages, living in different and even far places, who wish to combine education with
employment or work at home.
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(c) The role of media in distance education needs a specific mention.

(d) It can provide a great variety of courses.
(e) It is also understood that education is imparted through correspondence, audio–visual aids like
radio, television and telephone, besides personal contacts.
a) aebcd
b) caebd
c) eacbd
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d) dbeac
Q.27)
(a) The area of its utilisation has been vastly extended.
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(b) In fact, the computer has transformed man’s access to and use of information on any subject.
(c) The computer, which started as a “calculation machine”, is today called the “electronic brain”.
(d) It can process information with incredible speed.
(e) Computers can accept or reject messages, reduce or expand them, file them, index them or
answer back with their own messages.
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a) cadeb
b) eacbd
c) dbace
d) abcde
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Q.28)
(a) Historically, languages that were swept in with strong political, economic, or religious backing—
Latin, Greek, Sanskrit, Hebrew, Arabic, Persian, and Chinese in the Eurasian core— were held to be
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the oldest, the holiest, and the most perfect in structure, and their “classical” status cemented by
the received weight of canonical tradition.
(b) One by one, the nationalists of Central and Eastern Europe adopted Herder’s program, as has
virtually every modern nation–state sooner or later: warding off imperial languages from without by
establishing a dominant standardized language within, at the expense of minority languages and
local varieties.
(c) By the nineteenth century, the imperial nation–states of Europe were politely shunting them off
to the museum and imposing their own equivalents: newly standardized “modern” languages like
English and French.
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder’s Treatise on the Origin of Language (1772) inspired would–be nation–
builders to document, restore, and develop their own neglected vernaculars.
(e) Perceptions of linguistic superiority or inferiority are based on power, class, and social status.
a) eacdb
b) bdaec
c) cbade
d) edabc
S.29–30) Directions for questions: Each question presents a sentence in four different ways. Choose
the option that is grammatically the most suitable.
Q.29)
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a) Elections today require communication experts, image consultants, media planners and social
engineering.
b) Elections require today communication experts, image consultants, media planners, and social
engineering.
c) Elections today require communication experts, image consultants, media planners, and social
engineers.
d) Today’s elections requires communication experts, image consultants, media planners and social
engineering.
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Q.30)
a) Some tribal people are very unique in that they use only locally available natural resources for
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living.
b) Tribal people are unique since they use only local resources.
c) Tribal people are unique as they use only local available resources.
d) Some tribal peoples are unique in that they use only locally available natural resources for there
living.
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S.31–35) Directions for questions: Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
IN 1918, misfortune befell the 22–year–old poet Suryakant Tripathi, better known as Nirala or “the
strange one.” “I travelled to the riverbank in Dalmau and waited,” he wrote in his memoir, A Life
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Misspent. “The Ganga was swollen with dead bodies. At my in–laws’ house, I learned that my wife
had passed away.” Many other members of Nirala’s family died too. There was not enough wood to
cremate them. “This was the strangest time in my life,” he recalled later. “My family disappeared in
the blink of an eye. All our sharecroppers and labourers died, the four who worked for my cousin, as
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well as the two who worked for me. My cousin’s eldest son was fifteen years old, my young
daughter a year old. In whichever direction I turned, I saw darkness.” These deaths were not just a
coincidence of personal tragedies visited upon the poet, they were connected: “The newspapers had
informed us about the ravages of the epidemic,” Nirala wrote.
The epidemic was actually a pandemic that affected not just the subcontinent but the entire globe.
The disease, influenza, claimed between 50 and 100 million lives worldwide—possibly more than
both world wars combined—and India was the country that bore the greatest burden of death.
Though other countries lost a higher fraction of their populations—Western Samoa (now Samoa)
lost 22 percent, for example, compared to 6 percent in India—because of the larger size of the
Indian population, that 6 percent translated into a staggering slew of death. Between 1918 and
1920, an estimated 18 million Indians lost their lives to influenza or its complications, making India
the focal point of the disaster in terms of mortality. Asia as a whole experienced some of the highest
flu–related death rates in those years, but the story of how the disease ravaged the continent is
relatively unknown. The 1918 flu pandemic has been called the “forgotten” pandemic, and ironically
the continent that seems to have forgotten it most thoroughly is the one that bore the brunt of it.
As Stalin is supposed to have observed, a single death is a tragedy, a million deaths is a statistic.
Perhaps that is why we turn to a poet to tell us what it felt like to live through that terrible
moment—to translate the sterile numbers into human experience. Nirala is now recognised as a
leading figure in modern Hindi literature, and there is no doubt that the 1918 flu pandemic left a
deep impression on him, as it did on many Indians. In fact, as I argue in my book on the Spanish flu—
as the pandemic was sometimes known, though there was nothing particularly Spanish about it—
there is a good case to be made that the devastation wrought by the disease exacerbated social
tensions in India, contributing to an eruption of violence and significantly strengthening the
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independence movement. To understand why, it is necessary to understand the nature of flu

pandemics in general, and of the 1918 flu pandemic in particular.
Q.31) Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a) Nirala was already a famous poet when his family died.

b) The Flood after the flu caused Nirala’s family to die.
c) The deaths of various member’s of Nirala’s family were unconnected.
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d) Nirala was deeply influenced by the epidemic and its aftermath.
Q.32) Which of the following does the author not disagree with?
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a) the flu weakened the independence movement in Spain.
b) the flu strengthened the independence movement in India.
c) the flu had nothing to do with India.
d) the flu affected western Samoa more than it affected India.
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Q.33) Why does the writer say that the epidemic was actually a pandemic?
a) it affected the entire continent of Asia

b) it affected not just the continent but two others also
c) it affected the entire world including the Indian subcontinent
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d) it claimed the maximum number of people in the sub–continent
Q.34) Why do we need to turn to a poet?

1. because stalin tells us to do that
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2. because only a poet can bring out the pathos of a situation like the one Nirala found himself and
other countrymen in.
3. because Nirala could convert numbers into experience.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Q.35) This passage has been taken from?
a) A biography on Nirala
b) The Autobiography of Nirala
c) A dissertation on why flu occurs
d) An article on the 1918 flu pandemic
Section – II: Current Awareness

S.36–70) Directions for questions: Read the questions below and choose the correct option:
Q.36) The member states of the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) devised a roadmap to
develop policy to combat nitrogen challenge. The Declaration has set an aim to halve generation of
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nitrogen waste by 2030. The declaration is named after the city where the UNEP member states
met. What is the name of this Declaration?
a) Delhi Declaration on Sustainable Nitrogen Management

b) Colombo Declaration on Sustainable Nitrogen Management
c) Delhi Declaration on World Nitrogen Conference
d) Colombo Declaration on World Nitrogen Conference
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Q.37) India along with two other countries agreed to develop a Trans Border Conservation Park.
Although other parks have existed in the past that aimed to develop bio–diversity rich landscapes,
the current project is the first that aims to develop the park’s conservation model completely based
on landscape. Which are the other two countries which have signed a MoU with India to develop
00
this Trans Border Conservation Park?
a) Bangladesh and Nepal

b) Bangladesh and Bhutan
c) Bhutan and Nepal
d) China and Bangladesh
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Q.38) The European Union (EU) annually awards the ‘Sakharov Prize for Human Rights’ to individuals
for their prominent contribution to free speech. The award is constituted in the memory of Soviet
physicist Andrei Sakharov. It was awarded this year to Ilham Tohti, an intellectual who had
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immensely contributed and written against Chinese crackdown. Which Chinese crackdown did Ilham
Tohti speak out against?
a) Crackdown in Hong Kong

18
b) Crackdown in Tibet
c) Crackdown against Uighur Muslims
d) Crackdown against liberals
Q.39) The CBSE and NCERT recently launched an aptitude test for students of 9th and 10th classes in
order to help them make better career choices. The test has no system of passing or failing students
but only helps students make better choices of subjects for 11th and 12th. What is this commonly
dubbed as?
a) Tamanna
b) Manzil
c) Aashaiyen
d) Disha
Q.40) Wushu is a from of Chinese martial art which involves forms like kickboxing, wrestling, close
range kicking and punching etc. The World Wushu Championships are held every two years and are
organised by the International Wushu Federation. India won its first ever gold medal in the year
2017. This year India won its second ever gold medal in the competition. Who secured the second
gold medal for India in the competition?
a) Praveen Kumar
b) Sushil Kumar
c) Pooka Kadian
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d) Sanathoi Devi
Q.41) The Non Aligned Movement is a summit of 120 developing countries around the world who
historically did not align with any power bloc during the Cold War. This is largest international
organization of nations after the United Nations. India is one of the founding members of NAM.
India’s delegation to NAM Summit was led this year by Vice President Venkaiah Naidu. Where was
the NAM Summit held this year?
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a) Jakarta, Indonesia
b) Cairo, Egypt
c) Belgrade, Siberia
d) Baku, Azerbaijan
00
Q.42) United Nations Day is celebrated every year to mark the coming into force of the United
Nations Charter in 1945. With the ratification of this founding document by the majority of its
signatories, including the five permanent members of the Security Council, the United Nations
officially came into being. United Nations completed 74 years of its establishment this year. When is
UN Day celebrated every year?
60
a) October 24th
b) November 24th
c) October 26th
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d) November 26th
Q.43) Scientists in France have recently found a stabled form of a dangerous radioactive particle in.
The discovery is of massive significance since unstable form of this radioactive particle is difficult to
18
store, transport or dispose. When this radioactive particle is dumped underground it has the
potential of contaminating all water sources around a radius of 10 km. What is this radioactive
particle?
a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Radium
d) Polonium
Q.44) The role of secretary is to act administrative head of a department or ministry of the
government. The power secretary of India therefore heads all administrative tasks of the Ministry of
Power. Recently, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the appointment of a senior
IAS officer as power secretary. Who is the new Power Secretary?
a) Sanjeev Nandan Sahai

b) Subhash Chander Garg
c) B.R. Sharma
d) Nagendra Nath Sinha
Q.45) The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory body under the Aadhar Act
which functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Technology. The function of the body is to
issue randomized 12–digit unique numbers to all residents of India. Additionally, it also regulates the
allotment of such numbers and ensures action against fake circulation of these unique numbers.
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Recently the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointment of an IAS
officer as the Chairman of UIDAI. Who is the new Chairman of UIDAI?
a) Sanjeev Nandan Sahai

b) Nagendra Nath Sinha
c) Pankaj Kumar
d) B.R. Sharma
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Q.46) The world’s oldest natural pearl was recently discovered by archeologists. It is estimated that
the pearl dates back to almost 5,800–5,600 BCE during the Neolithic age.Where was this pearl
found?
00
a) UAE
b) Saudi Arabia
c) Egypt
d) Qatar
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Q.47) Recently the cabinet of a state government decided to not allow government jobs to
individuals with more than two children. The same government had in 2017 passed a law under its
Population and Women Empowerment Policy. Among the Indian states this state particularly has the
problem of population explosion. Which of the following states are being talked about here?
11
a) Bihar
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Haryana
d) Assam
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Q.48) There is an armament race around the world to produce missiles five times faster than the
speed of light. These missiles are called hypersonic missiles and can carry nuclear payloads instantly
at extremely fast speeds. China, Russia and the USA have already been testing this missile. India
recently begun manufacturing these missiles. Which Indian organization is taking charge of this
production?
a) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)

b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
c) Reliance Defence
d) Ordnance Department
Q.49) Col. Chewang Rinchen Setu was recently inaugurated by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
Standing at a height of 14,650 ft, it is India’s highest altitude all weather permanent bridge ever
made. The bridge is named after Col. Chewang Rinchen, a highly decorated officer of the Indian army
and popularly called the ‘Lion of X’ who is also a recipient of Maha Vir Chakra twice. Where is this
bridge located?
a) Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh

b) Nathu La, Sikkim
c) Union Territory of Ladakh
d) Jaigaon, West Bengal
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Q.50) Presidential Elections for Indonesia took place on 17th April 2019. The incumbent President
was re–elected to power with a vote share of 55.5%. During his oath ceremony the President said
that he would dedicate his final term to fighting poverty and facilitating Indonesia’s growth as a
developed economy by the year 2045. Who is the President of Indonesia?
a) Ma’aruf Amin
b) Joko Widodo
c) Prabowo Subianto
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d) Sandiaga Uno
Q.51) The Interpol is an International Police organisation with 194 member states. The organisation
hosts its General Assembly every year to discuss general policy making. During the ongoing General
00
Assembly of Interpol, India moved a proposal to host the Interpol’s General Assembly in India in the
year 2022. The proposal was voted in India’s favour and India was granted hosting rights over the
91st Interpol General Assembly. Where is the current general assembly session of 2019 being held?
a) Santiago, Chile
b) Brasilia, Brazil
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c) London, United Kingdom
d) Moscow, Russia
Q.52) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is an intergovernmental

11
organization of 14 oil producing nations, headquartered since 1965 in Vienna, Austria. Recently, one
of its members has declared to withdraw from OPEC from January 1, 2020. According to the
government, this was needed to achieve financial stability in the country. Which country has made
such declaration?
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a) Chile
b) Republic of Congo
c) Qatar
d) Ecuador
Q.53) Wildlife Week is celebrated all over the country every year with the aim to preserve animal life
in India. The Wildlife Week was first celebrated in 1972 and is organized by the National Board of
Wildlife. The event includes various symposiums, workshops, lecture, etc. to educate people the
value of animal life. The theme of this year’s Wildlife Week is ‘Life Below Water: For People and
Planet’. When is this event celebrated?
a) 1st to 7th October

b) 2nd to 8th October
c) 1st to 7th September
d) 2nd to 8th September
Q.54) Nobel Prize for Medicine is given every year for ground breaking research in the field of
medicine. This year the award is shared by a team of scholars who identified the molecular
machinery that regulates the activity of genes to varying levels of oxygen. Their method could
potentially pave the way for better research and treatment of cancer. Who received this award in
2019?
CP/20/C22
a) Peter Ratcliffe, William Kaelin and Gregg Semenza

b) James P. Allison, Tasuku Honjo
c) Peter Ratcliffe, William Kaelin and Tasuku Honjo
d) James P. Allison, Tasuku Honjo and Gregg Semenza
Q.55) World Space Week is celebrated from 4th – 10th October every year. It is the biggest space
event with more than 80 nations participating in it. This year’s theme celebrates the 50th
anniversary of human kind’s first step on moon on 20th July 1969. What is this year’s theme for
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World Space Week?
a) Moon Unites the World

b) The Moon: The Future Home
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c) Our Natural Satellite: The Moon
d) The Moon: Gateway to the Stars
Q.56) The Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded 113 times to 213 Nobel Laureates between 1901
and 2019. The 2019 Nobel Prize for Physics has been awarded to Swiss Michel Mayor, Didier Queloz
60
and James Peebles. What was the research for which this year’s Nobel Prize that was awarded?
I. Theoretical discoveries in physical cosmology.
II. Discovery of an exoplanet orbiting a star similar to sun
a) Only statement I is true.

11
b) Only statement II is true.

c) Both statement I and statement II are true.
d) None of the statements are true.
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Q.57) The C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group (C40) is a group of 94 cities around the world that
represents one twelfth of the world’s population and one quarter of the global economy. This year
the C40 summit is to be held from 9th October – 12th October 2019 with the aim to show how cities
are delivering their strong commitments for healthier, sustainable, resilient and inclusive future.
Where will this summit be held?
a) Copenhagen, Denmark
b) New Delhi, India
c) Bengaluru, India
d) Paris, France
Q.58) Global Competitiveness Index is a yearly rank list of the countries declared by the World
Economic Forum (WEF) based on the competitiveness of these countries. This year WEF has mapped
141 countries using 103 indicators to compile this index. Singapore has replaced US to gain the first
spot in the index. What is India’s rank in this index?
a) 15
b) 55
c) 68
d) 38
Q.59) The Nobel Prize in Chemistry is awarded annually by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences
to scientists in the various fields of chemistry. This award was first introduced in 1901 and given to
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Jacobus Henricus van’t Hoff, for his discovery of the laws of chemical dynamics and osmotic pressure
in solutions. The 2019 Nobel Prize in Chemistry has been awarded to John B Goodenough, M Stanley
Whittingham and Akira Yoshino. For what research has this year’s Nobel Prize has been awarded?
a) Development of lithium–ion batteries

b) Development of polyester batteries
c) Development of solar batteries
d) Development of smart batteries
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Q.60) On 8th October 2019, 20 new moons of a planet were discovered. With this discovery this
plant becomes the planet with highest number of moons. Presently, this planet has 82 moons and its
successor has 79 moons. Which planet is this?
00
a) Saturn
b) Uranus
c) Jupiter
d) Neptune
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Q.61) National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog released India Innovation Index (III)
2019 to analyze innovation at state level and promote competitiveness among the states to promote
efficiency. This Index would help the government to decide the status quo of the states and supply
sufficient funding. Which state has topped this Index?
11
a) Kerala
b) Maharashtra
c) Karnataka
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d) New Delhi
Q.62) The Appointments Committee of Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has
appointed a new Director General of the National Security Guard (NSG), also known as ‘black cats
commando’. The post was vacant for two months after the retirement of the previous Director
General. Who has been appointed to the post?
a) Anup Kumar Singh

b) Sudeep Lakhtakia
c) Vijay Singh
d) Deepak Tiwari
Q.63) The International Monetary Fund launches its biennial report called ‘The World Economic
Outlook’ to show performance of the world economy. According to its report released recently on
15th October 2019, it revealed that the world economy was growing at its slowest pace ever. In
2017, the report had highlighted that the world economy was growing at 3.8%. What was the
growth rate of the world economy in 2019?
a) 3%
b) 2.5%
c) 4%
d) 1.8%
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Q.64) The United States Government recently ordered a round of sanctions against Turkey. The
sanctions will result in a freeze on Turkish assets held by the US government and will also led to an
embargo on financial transactions between the two countries. Which of the following are the
reasons behind these round of US sanctions against Turkey?
I. Turkey’s trade war with the United States
II. Turkish military attacks on the Kurdish population
a) Only I
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b) Only II
c) Neither I nor II
d) Both I & II
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Q.65) Tunisian citizen recently elected their new President with a huge majority mandate. The 61
year old president is an independent candidate who no prior experience in the political field. In
2010–11, the Tunisian uprising had toppled the then ruler Zine El Abidine Ben Ali. This was the
second free presidential elections conducted in Tunisia since then. Who was elected as President of
Tunisia?
60
a) Beji Caid Essebsi
b) Youssef Chahed
c) Nabil Karoui
d) Kais Saied
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Q.66) An international trade organisation’s Dispute Settlement Body recently held that the United
States had the right to impose tariffs on the European Union in retaliation to the illegal subsidies
that it had provided to Airbus. This is a part of a pair of cases between the Airbus and its US rival and
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Boeing against whom charges of receiving illegal subsidies have been running for almost 15 years.
The verdict in the case of Boeing is still due for 2020. Which international organization’s Dispute
Settlement Body is being talked about here?
a) General Agreement on Trade & Tariffs

b) International Trade Organzation
c) World Trade Organization
d) Organization of Petroleum and Exporting Countries
Q.67) The Booker Prize is awarded every year for the best original novel written in English language
and published in the United Kingdom (UK). It was awarded this year to two authors namely,
Margaret Atwood for her work titled, ‘The Testament’ and to Bernardine Evaristo for her work
titled,’Girl, Woman, Other’. In relation to this what historic thing that happened in relation to this
year’s award among the following?
I. First Black Woman ever to win this award.
II. First joint winners ever
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I & II
d) Neither I nor II
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Q.68) This year’s Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to jointly to Indian–American Abhijit
Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremen of the United States. As compared to other Nobel Prizes,
the Nobel Prize in Economics was not created by their founder but only in 1968 by the Swiss Central
Bank. Which among the following is true about this year’s Nobel Prize in Economics?
I. Esther Duflo became the first woman to win a Nobel Prize in Economics
II. The trio’s worked involved in research on poverty eradication and an experimental approach
towards policy making
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a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I & II
d) Neither I nor II
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Q.69) Sourav Ganguly recently became the new President of the Board Control of Cricket in India.
The pre–election phase saw a tough battle between Sourav Ganguly and his competitor but finally it
was decided that Sourav Ganguly would alone stand for the post of the President without
opposition. Who was his competitor to the post of President of the BCCI?
60
a) Rajeev Shukla
b) Brijesh Patel
c) Jay Shah
d) N Srinivasan
11
Q.70) India recently signed a 190 million dollar loan with an international bank for the upgradation
of road transport in the State of Rajasthan. India is one of the founding members of this bank and
currently the fourth largest shareholder of it. The bank was established in the year 1966. Which bank
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is being talked about here?
a) Asian Development Bank

b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
c) International Bank of Asia
d) Asian Monetary Fund
Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

Q.71) Principle: Whoever, intending to take any moveable property dishonestly out of the
possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such
taking, is said to have committed “theft”. It is not necessary that the person from whose possession
the moveable property is being removed should be the owner.
Facts: Vikram is a practising advocate in the High Court of Telangana and is known for being
meticulous, having never asked for an adjournment. After the court closes for the Sankranthi
vacations, he goes to Fabrikare, the well–reputed dry cleaners in town, to get his robes and coat
(that he wears to court) dry cleaned because they had become dirty. Arjun, the in–charge at the dry–
cleaners, asks him to collect both the items in a week. One day before the commencement of the
court, Vikram lands at the dry cleaners to collect his clothes. At the time of billing, he realizes he has
insufficient money for both items. Arjun tells him that he can give Vikram only the coat and packs
the coat in a carry bag. Fearing that he would tarnish his good image in the court by failing to appear
CP/20/C22
in his robes, Vikram surreptitiously slips his robes into the carry bag when Arjun was not looking. Has
Vikram committed theft?
a) Vikram is guilty of theft but will be pardoned because wearing of robes is compulsory to appear in
the court and he did not want to tarnish his image.
b) Vikram is not guilty of theft because the robes were his property and there was no actual
dispossession taking place.
c) Vikram is guilty of theft because he moved his robes in a dishonest manner from the possession of
81
Arjun without his consent.
d) Vikram is not guilty of theft because he surely intended to pay the left–over amount to Arjun on a
later occasion.
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Q.72) Principle: A “contract” is an agreement freely entered into between parties. However, a
legislation passed by the government does not come within the ambit of a contract as it is not
necessary for all parties affected to consent to such a legislation for it to be held valid.
Facts: Anthony runs a dhaba on the highway and his main clientele are students from a nearby
engineering college. He has an alcohol permit, which allows him to sell and serve liquor on his
60
premises. The State Government passes a legislation wherein sale and consumption of alcohol was
banned along highways and to ensure strict implementation, there would be patrol vehicles on the
highways. This legislation was passed owing to the increase in the number of accidents being caused
by drunk truck drivers. Initially, Anthony follows the law but he faces innumerable losses due to the
ban. He resumes serving alcohol and is caught red–handed in the act, serving the engineering
11
students. Anthony claims that the legislation was forced on him by the government and he did not
freely enter into an agreement to not sell or serve alcohol on his premises.
a) Anthony would succeed because he had never consented to the legislation being imposed on him.
18
b) Anthony would not succeed because a legislation passed by the government does not come
within the ambit of a contract and his consent becomes irrelevant.
c) Anthony would succeed because the legislation was detrimental to his business and he faced
losses due to it.
d) Anthony would not be liable because he was serving students when he was caught and not truck
drivers who could potentially cause an accident.
S.73–74) Directions for questions: Questions have the same set of principles but different factual
situations. Apply the relevant principles to the given factual situations to choose the correct answer
from the options that follow.
Principles:
(a) An employer will be liable for all the negligent acts of his employee in the course of employment,
even if such acts were committed by a third party due to the negligence of the employee.
(b) Course of employment is a legal consideration of all circumstances, which may occur in the
performance of a person’s job, especially during a period of time where specific objectives are given
by the employer to the employee.
(c) The employer will be held liable even if there were explicit instructions from their end that
prohibited the employee from acting in a negligent manner.
Q.73) Vedant was a food delivery executive at Swiggers and his shift was during the peak hour. Apart
from making deliveries, Vedant was in–charge of training the new recruits and he was assigned
Avinash. One day, they were out making deliveries of various food orders in their designated
CP/20/C22
Swiggers van. After driving for nearly four hours at a stretch, Vedant tells Avinash to drive the van as
he was dead tired and needed to rest. Swiggers had a policy that prohibited trainers from permitting
the new recruits from driving their delivery vans. Avinash ends up crashing the van into the divider
and the packed food begins to leak on impact. The customers who had placed their orders wish to
sue Swiggers.
a) Swiggers will be liable because their new recruit had caused irreparable damage to the food that
the customers had ordered.
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b) Swiggers will not be liable because Vedant had given Avinash the responsibility to drive the van
and had gone against the policy that prohibited new recruits from driving the delivery vans.
c) Swiggers will not be liable because Vedant was no longer in the course of employment the minute
he fell asleep.
00
d) Swiggers will be liable because Vedant had acted in a negligent manner during the course of his
employment.
Q.74) Roshan is the owner of the Kingdom of Stunts, an enthralling and edgy series of performances
conducted by professionals, witnessed by a live audience. His top performers were Vaibhav and
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Kumarjeet, who would ride motorcycles blind–folded and perform various nerve–wracking stunts
that would leave the audience screaming for encores. One day, their friend Sonali suggests that they
should try performing stunts on the same motorcycle. Vaibhav and Kumarjeet start practising
various stunts where the former would ride the bike while latter would perform acrobats on the
pillion rider’s seat and also used additional props, including swords. Roshan was asked by them to
11
review these stunts and though impressed, Roshan forbid them from performing these modified
stunts since they were very dangerous. Vaibhav and Kumarjeet were disheartened but decided that
during the next show, they would perform these stunts and take due care to ensure no mishap takes
place. Arun, a nine–year old, attends this next show with his parents and is standing very close to the
18
railing from where Kumarjeet and Vaibhav were expected to move past to perform their stunts.
While performing the stunts, Vaibhav loses control of the bike due to the rickety surface and
Kumarjeet crashes into the railing where Arun was standing. Arun gets grievously injured by the
sword that Kumarjeet was holding. Arun’s parents wish to sue Roshan.
a) Roshan is not liable to pay any compensation to Arun’s parents because he had explicitly
forbidden Vaibhav and Kumarjeet from performing the modified stunts.
b) Vaibhav and Kumarjeet knew the consequences of their act and how dangerous it was. They
should be held liable despite along with Sonali gave the idea for such a dangerous stunt.
c) Roshan will be liable because he is the employer of Vaibhav and Kumarjeet and their negligent act
caused the injury to Arun.
d) Vaibhav and Kumarjeet will not be held liable because they ensured that they took the necessary
precautions before performing the stunts and Arun contributed to his injury by being precariously
too close to the railing.
Q.75) Principles:
(a) Nuisance is an injury to the right of a person, in possession of a property, to undisturbed
enjoyment of it and such injury results from an improper use by another person in his property.
(b) If a person interferes with that undisturbed enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds,
pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party
may make a claim in nuisance.
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(c) It is essential that the injury or annoyance or discomfort or inconvenience must be such which
the law considers as substantial or material. In other words, the nuisance must not be trivial and
should be unreasonable taking into account the situation prevailing in the surrounding locality.
Facts: Nikhil is unemployed and is living with his parents in a residential colony, where commercial
activities are banned. One day, his parents get tired of his lackadaisical attitude and tell him to make
a living out of the one thing he is good at i.e. forging. Nikhil finally finds purpose to his life and makes
arrangements for opening a forgery in the garage of his house. His neighbour Paul is an elderly man
and initially, he is happy to see that Nikhil is finally working. However, Nikhil continues to work on
81
his orders till 3 a.m. on a number of occasions and due to the disturbance, Paul is unable to sleep.
His blood pressure shoots up because of inadequate sleep and he decides to sue Nikhil for nuisance.
However, Nikhil claims that nobody in the residential colony was being affected by his forging work
and Paul’s complaint was not substantial.
00
a) Nikhil is liable for causing nuisance because his act of forging was causing substantial injury to Paul
and the work was happening in a residential colony where commercial activity was banned.
b) Nikhil is liable for causing nuisance because he should have chosen a better time to forge.
c) Nikhil is not liable because only Paul was affected by Nikhil’s forging and not the entire residential
colony; it was a stray case.
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d) Nikhil is not liable because he was finally doing something with his life and stopping him now
would push him into a downward spiral.
Q.76) Principle: “Time is the essence of a contract.” There is an express need for timely completion
11
i.e. indicating that one or more parties to the contract must perform by the time which the parties
have agreed; if a delay is caused, it will result in material harm. A minor delay that does not cause
material harm will not result in breach of contract.
Facts: Vadodarawala is a sweet–shop in Mumbai and is one of the most reputed in the market. They
18
require large quantities of besan for making motichur ladoos at the time of Diwali and place an order
with BB Royal Co. for 1000 kgs of their finest besan. At the time of placing the order, Vadodarawala
specifically mentions that they need the delivery before Diwali i.e. before 20th November because of
the innumerable orders that have been placed with them and that needed to be delivered on the
morning of Diwali. However, only part–delivery of besan (500 kgs) is made by BB Royal Co. on the
day before Diwali and the remaining consignment is delivered in the evening on Diwali. Due to the
delay, Vadodarawala incurs heavy losses and a considerable reputation hit. They wish to sue BB
Royal Co.
a) Vadodarawala can claim damages from BB Royal Co. because time was of essence for the contract
and despite part–delivery, Vadodarawala was unable to deliver to his customers.
b) Vadodarawala cannot claim damages from BB Royal Co. because they delivered part–consignment
on the agreed date and it was a minor delay.
c) Vadodarawala can claim damages from BB Royal Co. as long as the latter does not take the
defence of inability to perform from their end due to frustration of contract.
d) Vadodarawala cannot claim damages from BB Royal Co. because the delay was very minor and
motichur ladoo can also be had after Diwali.
Q.77) Principles:
(a) Nothing is an offence, which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Every person
has a right to defend his own body, and the body of any other person, against any offence affecting
the human body or the property, whether movable or immovable, of himself or of any other person,
CP/20/C22
against any act, which is an offence falling under the definition of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal
trespass or which is an attempt to commit any of the aforementioned acts.
(b) The right of private defence of the body commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of
danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence, though the offence may
not have been committed; and it continues as long as such apprehension of danger to the body
continues.
(c) When an act, which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason of the
want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the person doing
81
that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has the same
right of private defence against that act which he would have, if the act were that offence.
(d) The right to private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm than that which is
necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence.
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Facts: The Watsons had recently moved into the Mahalakshmi Defence Colony and had a friendly
golden retriever named Cassie. Their neighbour Shweta was really scared of dogs because of an
unfortunate incident in her childhood when she was almost mauled by street dogs. She meets Mrs.
Watson at the supermarket one day and sees that Cassie does not have a leash around her. Shweta
urges Mrs. Watson to use the leash and explains her condition to her. Mrs. Watson assures her that
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she will ensure that Cassie is on leash in public the next time. A few days later, Shweta is returning
home from her and she sees Cassie playing in the garden with the Watson children. Suddenly, Cassie
spots Shweta and playfully gallops towards her. Even before Cassie was anywhere near her, Shweta
begins screaming, reaches for her pepper spray, chases Cassie who had begun retreating hearing
Shweta’s screams and sprays on Cassie’s face. Cassie develops an acute inflammation due to
11
inhalation of the pepper and does not survive. The Watsons want to sue Shweta.
a) The Watsons will succeed because Shweta’s actions were unreasonable and would not come
under the ambit of self–defence.
18
b) The Watsons will succeed because Shweta hated dogs for personal reasons and she deliberately
caused death to Cassie.
c) The Watsons will not succeed because Shweta was terrified of dogs due to the tragic accident in
her childhood and her reaction is understandable.
d) The Watsons will not succeed because despite Shweta’s request, Cassie was not on leash.
S.78–79) Directions for questions: Questions have the same principle but different factual
Principle: Any act committed by any child below the age of 12 years is not an offence, given that
such child is not mature enough to understand the nature and consequences of such an act.
Q.78) Anirudh and Shourya are best friends and are polar opposites to each other. While Anirudh is a
docile ten–year old, Shourya is a year older to Anirudh and is very troublesome. However, Anirudh
often takes the blame for Shourya’s misdemeanours and only later on, realises the consequences of
such misdemeanours. One day, when they were playing in a park, Shourya introduces his cousin
Ashwin to Anirudh. Ashwin is actually a drug dealer and wants to get the children in the park
addicted to the drugs he is selling. Shourya is aware that Ashwin wants to sell drugs. He gives these
drugs to Anirudh, tells him that it is candy and he wants Anirudh to distribute the candy to the other
children as an apology for all the times he (Shourya) misbehaved with them. Mohit, a five–year old,
is excited to see the candy, eats a large amount of it and since these were actually drugs, he
CP/20/C22
overdoses and is rushed to the hospital. Mohit is pronounced dead upon arrival and his parents
come to know that Anirudh had given Mohit the drugs. Decide if Anirudh can be held guilty.
a) Anirudh is guilty because he should have double–checked the food items that Shourya had given
him, owing to the latter’s reputation.
b) Anirudh is guilty because he administered the drugs to Mohit, passing them off as candy.
c) Anirudh is not guilty because Shourya and his cousin were the real culprits who passed off the
drugs as candy.
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d) Anirudh is not guilty because he was not mature enough to understand the nature and
consequences of his act.
Q.79) Vito Corleone is an infamous don in Goa and runs the show, having a stake in almost all
00
businesses in the port city. Due to this, he has created several enemies, who are eager to dislodge
him from holding this much power in Goa. Vito Corleone has a son named Michael from his first
wife, who passed away during childbirth. After her death, Vito marries Sophia, who gives birth to
twins. Vito’s rivals see this as the opportune moment to create differences in the family and start
sowing seeds of doubt in Michael’s head ever since he was a child, making it look as though Vito was
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favouring the twins instead. On Michael’s 11th birthday, a soothsayer predicts that Michael will be
left with no wealth as his father would leave behind all his properties and monies to the twins.
Michael is enraged to hear this prophecy and consults Vito’s closest aide Tom Hagen, who is actually
working towards ensuring the downfall of Vito. Tom tells Michael that in order to ensure the
prophecy doesn’t come true, he would have to figure out a way to get rid of the twins. Michael is
11
shocked to hear this proposal and despite initially refusing to act in a murderous manner, he is
somehow convinced by Tom to administer poison to the twins. The twins die and Michael is found
by their bedside, sobbing inconsolably, with a bottle of poison in his hand. Has Michael committed
an offence?
18
a) Michael has committed an offence because he was engulfed with jealousy and hatred towards his
step–siblings and murdered them.
b) Michael has committed an offence because he was mature enough to understand the nature and
consequences of his action of administering the poison.
c) Michael has not committed an offence because he was influenced by Tom Hagen to poison his
step–siblings and was only acting out on his instructions.
d) Michael has not committed an offence because he is below the age of 12 years and after
administering the poison, it was apparent that he was regretting the action.
S.80–81) Directions for questions: Questions have the same principle but different factual
Principles:
(a) Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or
otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite
disaffection towards the Government established by law in India is said to have committed the
offence of sedition and shall be punished with imprisonment for life.
(b) “Disaffection” includes disloyalty and feelings of enmity.
(c) Comments that disapprove the measures and administrative actions of the Government with a
view to obtain their alteration by lawful means, without exciting or attempting to excite hatred,
contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence.
CP/20/C22
(d) “Government established by law in India” would mean any government that comes to power
through means of democratic elections.
Q.80) Umair is the student leader of the Indira Gandhi Open University, a government–controlled
central university. Recently, the Government introduced a fee hike in the tuition and hostel fees and
this was met by severe criticism as most students studying at the university hailed from middle–
income family backgrounds. Umair is approached by several classmates to write an opinion piece
about the fee hike in the local newspaper so that more outsiders become aware of the actual
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problem being faced by the students and can extend their support to them by lawful means. Umair
writes a severely critical article against the Government, mainly focusing on how the introduction of
the fee hike would be detrimental to the students of the IGOU and he merely implores to the
Government to reconsider its decision. However, once the article is published, Umair is arrested for
00
trying to excite disaffection towards the Government.
a) Umair is not guilty of sedition because there was no large scale violence carried out by the
students after his article was published and his article cannot be said to have brought in hatred or
contempt towards the Government.
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b) Umair is guilty of sedition because he published an article in the local newspaper speaking against
the government’s decision to hike the tuition and hostel fees.
c) Umair is not guilty of sedition because his opinion piece consists of comments and observations
regarding the effects that a particular government action could possibly have.
d) Umair is guilty of sedition because he demanded that the government withdraw this decision of
11
hiking the fees and in the event that the government decides against withdrawing the decision, the
public would have hatred and contempt against the government.
Q.81) It is the year 2025. India is being ruled by a dictator named Phunsukh Wangdu, who came to
18
power by autocratic means. There were no elections conducted and he rose to power by conducting
a military coup on the previous government, thereafter declaring himself the Supreme Leader of
India. The people of India are living in fear; however, a few brave souls led by Subhash are able to
band together and draw international attention towards the crisis being faced by several Indians.
They receive tremendous support and begin planning a revolution, where their first goal is to remind
Indians that the current government is wrongfully restraining their freedom and that it needs to be
removed from power. However, this secret revolution comes to the attention of Phunsukh’s aides,
who immediately inform him. Phunsukh wants to try Subhash and his friends under the existing
sedition law in India. Will he succeed?
a) Subhash and his friends have committed sedition because they were planning a revolution to
remove the current government from power.
b) Subhash and his friends have committed sedition because they involved other countries in a
matter of national interest and thereby, brought international disaffection towards Phunsukh’s
government.
c) Subhash and his friends have not committed sedition because they were merely in the planning
stage of the revolution and cannot be said to have excited disaffection of the people towards the
government.
d) Subhash and his friends have not committed sedition because Phunsukh’s government was not
established by law in India.
Q.82) Principle: A partner is liable for the debts incurred by the other partners in the course of
partnership.
CP/20/C22
Facts: Deepika Bhatt and Alia Padukone are the leading actresses in Bollywood and have been
friends since film school. Both of them have always wanted to produce a film that was based on a
true story and when Alia finds the story that they were looking for, she decides to also direct the
movie. They enter into a partnership to produce the film. However, the audience did not find the
movie to be impactful and it did not perform well in the theatres. Deepika and Alia have a fall out
and their partnership ends. Alia is desperately in need of money given the financial toll that the
movie took on her personal savings. Their mutual friend Randhir offers to help Alia and assumes that
Alia requires the money for clearing the debts incurred during the partnership. However, Alia does
81
not correct Randhir and absconds with the money to New York. Randhir sues Deepika for the money
claiming that he had lent the money for the partnership.
a) Deepika is liable to return Randhir’s money because Alia had borrowed the money to clear the
00
debts incurred during the partnership.
b) Randhir was negligent when he lent the money to Alia because he should have ensured that Alia
and Deepika were still in a partnership given that the movie had performed terribly. It is a case of
contributory negligence.
c) Deepika is not liable because when Alia borrowed the money from Randhir, the partnership had
already dissolved.
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d) Deepika is not liable as Alia absconded with the money meant to be used for the partnership.
S.83–87) Directions for questions: Questions have two different factual situations and need to be
answered, by applying the relevant principles as mentioned, to choose the correct answer from the
11
options that follow.
Principles:
(a) An owner of land has the absolute right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The
18
owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it, to the extent of infinity.
(b) Rights above the land extend only to the point they are reasonably essential to any use or
enjoyment of land.
(c) An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put
to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have no reasonable use of
it and it does not affect the reasonable employment of his or her land.
Facts: Mustafa owns a farmhouse attached to agricultural land, spanning across 10 acres on the
outskirts of Hyderabad near Shamirpet. There is an Air Force Station in the Hakimpet village nearby
and the Indian Air Force launches its fighter jets for practice training very frequently. These fighter
jets fly across the entirety of Mustafa’s farm. The distance between Mustafa’s house and the fighter
jets above varies between 10 kms to 20 kms and this is the highest the planes can fly. Mustafa files a
case against the Indian Air Force claiming that his property rights have been violated by them due to
the routing they follow during the practice training sessions.
Q.83) If you are allowed to apply only Principle (a), your decision would be passed:
a) In favour of the Indian Air Force because the height at which the fighter planes were flying could
not have been said to be infringement of property.
b) In favour of Mustafa because he has the right to the space above his land, to the extent of infinity.
c) In favour of the Indian Air Force because Mustafa’s claim is absurd and this would encourage
several other persons to claim the space above and below their lands as their own.
d) In favour of Mustafa because he was being caused immense disturbance and he had the right to
use his land in any manner he desires.
CP/20/C22
Q.84) If you are allowed to apply Principle (b) and Principle (c), your decision would be passed:
a) In favour of the Indian Air Force despite the fact that Mustafa’s right over the land he owns
extends above and below his land.
b) In favour of Mustafa because he is being immensely disturbed by the fighter planes.
c) In favour of the Indian Air Force because they were putting to use the space above Mustafa’s land
at a height at which he would not have reasonable use of it.
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d) In favour of Mustafa because the distance between his land and the fighter jets was unreasonably
low.
S.85–87) Directions for questions: Questions have the same principles but different factual
00
Surekha has been living in her ancestral house for more than fifty years. On either side of her house,
there are commercial buildings owned by Aditya and Junaid, who have put up a hoarding for
60
advertisements that goes above Surekha’s single storeyed building and casts a permanent shadow
on her terrace. The hoarding is at a height of 25 feet above her roof. A few years later after the
hoarding is put up, when Surekha’s grandchildren return from US, she decides to put up a screen for
them on her terrace to view movies. The screen is to be 30 feet above her roof and is a reasonable
permissible height for structures to be installed on a building. She files a case against Aditya and
11
Junaid to remove the hoarding that is blocking the space above her house.
Q.85) If you are allowed to apply only Principle (b), your decision would be passed:
18
a) In favour of Aditya and Junaid because Surekha can make arrangements for a screen that is below 25
feet.
b) In favour of Surekha because she has infinite right on the space above her house.
c) In favour of Aditya and Junaid because putting up a screen 30 feet above her roof is not essential
to the use and enjoyment of Surekha’s land.
d) In favour of Surekha because she has the right to put her land to any use and going into the
intentions of her putting up a screen 30 feet above her roof is not required.
Q.86) If you are allowed to apply only Principles (a) and (b), your decision would be passed:
a) In favour of Aditya and Junaid because Surekha’s use of the space above her land was
unreasonable and her rights were not absolute.
b) In favour of Surekha because she has an infinite right on the space above her house and has the
right to put the space above her land to any use.
c) In favour of Surekha because she has an infinite right on the space above her house.
d) In favour of Aditya and Junaid because their right to use the space above their buildings was being
infringed upon.
Q.87) If you are allowed to apply only Principle (c), your decision would be passed:
a) In favour of Surekha because the permanent shadow cast by the hoarding affects her use or
enjoyment of her land.
b) In favour of Surekha because she has an infinite right on the space above her house.
CP/20/C22
c) In favour Aditya and Junaid because Surekha’s enjoyment of her land was not being affected by
the hoarding installed by them.
d) In favour of Aditya and Junaid because the height at which they were making use of the space
above Surekha’s house was of no reasonable use to Surekha.
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Principles:
(a) Judicial confession are made to a judicial magistrate or before the court during the trial. They can
be relied as proof of guilt against the accused person, if it appears to the court to be voluntary and
00
true. A conviction can be based on a judicial confession.
(b) Extra–judicial confessions are those which are made to any person other than those authorized
by law to take a confession. It may be made to any person or to the police during the investigation of
an offence. Extra–judicial confessions alone cannot be relied on as it needs support of other
supporting evidence. Conviction cannot be solely based on an extra–judicial confession.
60
Q.88) Aishwarya is happily married to Rakesh and lives with her in–laws in Bengaluru. They have
been married for three years and there have been no instances of trouble whatsoever. However,
when Rakesh loses his job due to the slowdown in the economy, the family is left in doldrums.
Rakesh and his parents force Aishwarya to ask her parents for money despite knowing that
11
Aishwarya does not hail from a rich family. She is unable to take the constant torture that is being
meted out to her by Rakesh and her in–laws and she commits suicide. During the interrogation
conducted by the police, Rakesh is overpowered by tremendous remorse and confesses that he and
his parents pushed Aishwarya to her limit and that they were responsible for her death. The police
18
record this confession and present it along with other evidence that proves that Rakesh and his
parents were responsible for Aishwarya’s death. The other evidence includes a suicide note left by
Aishwarya and video footage taken by a neighbour where Aishwarya was being physically assaulted
by her in–laws for having failed to arrange for the money. The court convicts Rakesh and his parents
for abetting Aishwarya’s suicide.
a) The conviction is not valid because an extra–judicial confession cannot be relied on as evidence.
b) The conviction is valid because Aishwarya’s death occurred before the expiry of seven years since
her marriage and any suspicious death is deemed to be a dowry–related death.
c) The conviction is valid because there was other evidence available that supported the extra–
judicial confession made by Rakesh.
d) The conviction is valid because Rakesh made it before the police that was authorised by law to
take a confession.
Q.89) In the factual situation given in Question 18, what if, before the investigation procedure was
initiated, Rakesh lands up at the judicial magistrate and confesses to having abetted Aishwarya’s
suicide? However, there is no additional evidence available that can support his confession. Can
Rakesh and his parents be convicted based on such a confession without any additional evidence?
a) Rakesh and his parents will be convicted based on such a confession because he had approached
the judicial magistrate and was not forced by extraneous factors.
b) Rakesh and his parents will not be convicted based on such a confession because there is no
supporting evidence to base such a conviction on.
CP/20/C22
c) Rakesh and his parents will not be convicted based on such a confession because the police is yet
to commence the investigation.
d) Rakesh and his parents will be convicted based on such a confession because it was a judicial
confession and such a confession can solely be used for conviction.
Q.90) Veeraswamy was returning from working at his farm late night when he sees a group of men
assaulting a woman and leaving her in an unconscious state in the field. Veeraswamy helps the
woman onto the main road and when the public sees him with the unconscious women, they
81
assume that he is responsible for her state and immediately call the police to hand him over. In
custody, Veeraswamy is thrashed mercilessly by the police during interrogation. The police tell him
that when he appears before the judicial magistrate, he must confess to having assaulted the
woman; otherwise, the police will make his family suffer. When Veeraswamy is brought before the
00
judicial magistrate, he confesses to having assaulted the woman. At the time of the trial,
Veeraswamy’s lawyer submits proof that Veeraswamy had been tortured in police custody before
the confession was made to the judicial magistrate. They attach pictures of the injuries he suffered
and also, submit statements from Veeraswamy’s family who said that the police had threatened
them as well to not speak against them. Furthermore, the court is not provided with any additional
60
evidence to support the claim that Veeraswamy had assaulted the woman.
a) Veeraswamy will be convicted because he had made a confession before the judicial magistrate
and no additional evidence is required to further corroborate such a confession.
b) Veeraswamy will not be convicted because there is evidence available that the judicial confession
11
made by Veeraswamy was not voluntary and true.

c) Veeraswamy will not be convicted because even in the case of a judicial confession, additional
evidence must be adduced.
d) Both (b) and (c).
18
Q.91) Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of a common
intention, each of the persons is liable for the act as if it were done by him alone.
Facts: Amit and Dhruv run a factory which is running into financial trouble as a result of competition
in the area. They seek to destroy their rival factory. A plan was devised and Amit moved towards the
transformer in the area and crippled it, thereby depriving the entire locality of electricity. Under the
cover of the darkness, Dhruv proceeds to the factory and sets up explosives and detonates them.
Decide.
a) Amit is liable for damaging the transformer and Dhruv is liable for destroying the factory.
b) There was a common intention to destroy the factory, hence both Amir and Dhruv are liable for its
destruction.
c) Amit and Dhruv are both liable for the destruction of the factory and damaging the transformer,
as they acted in furtherance of a common intention.
d) There was no common intention present to commit a criminal activity, hence neither of them are
guilty.
Q.92) Principle: Nothing done by a person in the exercise of his right to private defence is an
offence. This right does not exist against lawful acts.
Facts: The government of Uttar Pradesh has passed into law an Act which authorizes local mafia
groups to be hired by local authorities to enforce legal punishments. Rajesh, a farmer whose cattle
had been ordered by a court to be seized, is tilling his fields when he notices a large group of armed
men coming towards his field. They destroy the fence and jump into his farm, proceeding towards
CP/20/C22
the cattle. Rajesh, wary of what is happening and to prevent the seizure of his cattle, pulls out his
own firearm and shoots at 3 of them. He is arrested and claims the right of self–defence. Decide.
a) Rajesh acted in self–defence, as he saw a group of armed men approaching his farm. It was
enough for him to apprehend danger.
b) The group of men did not declare themselves to be on a lawful mission to retrieve the cattle,
hence, Rajesh is not guilty.
c) Rajesh is guilty of killing the 3 people, as he did not have the right to self–defence.
81
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q.93) Principle: A duty of care exists when it is reasonably foreseeable that the actions of a person
may affect another.
00
Facts: Deats Audio is a prominent manufacturer of audio equipment, including headphones. In its
warranty, it limits its liability to only the person who has purchased the headphones directly from
them, and not to any person who owns the products as a result of subsequent transactions. B is an
owner of a pair of headphones, which had been sold and resold a few times before he used them.
One day, while using the headphones, a manufacturing defect caused the internal battery of the
60
headphones to undergo a minor explosion, as a result of which B suffered serious injuries. He sues
Deats Audio for breach of a duty of care.
a) There exists a duty of care owed to B by Deats Audio even though liability was limited only to
direct purchasers, but he cannot sue Deats Audio.
11
b) There does not exist a duty of care as it was not reasonably foreseeable to Deats that B would in
possession of these headphones, as a result of their disclaimer.
c) There was a duty of care owed to B, as it was reasonably foreseeable that a manufacturing defect
would gravely injure any person using the headphones.
18
d) There does not exist a duty of care, as a result of the contractual disclaimer which limits liability.
Q.94) Principle 1: A contract, whose consent has been obtained through coercion, undue influence,
fraud or misrepresentation can be rescinded by the party whose consent was so affected.
Principle 2: Where a party, after coming to know of his right to rescind the contract, affirms it, the
right to rescission is lost.
Facts: A glib car salesman, Eshan, convinces Pranav to purchase a second hand car, representing it to
be in perfect condition, while he knew that its engine was damaged. Pranav purchases the car. The
next day, on the first trip, the car broke down as a result of the damaged engine. Eshan offered to
pay for a part of the repair, as he realized that he was in trouble, and Pranav agreed. On the next
trip, the car broke down again and Pranav seeks to repudiate the contract.
a) Pranav can still repudiate the contract, as the car is beyond repair and was sold to him
fraudulently.
b) Pranav lost the right to repudiate the contract when he discovered the fraud on the first trip.
c) Pranav can still rescind the contract, but must settle the amount that Eshan offered to pay for the
repairs.
Q.95) Statement: Fraud is an intentional wrong, while misrepresentation could be innocent. Fraud
can be defended by proving that it was a fact that a reasonable person, with reasonable diligence,
ought to have known without any specific mention of the same by the other party.
CP/20/C22
Misrepresentation claims can be met with the defence that the person had the means of discovering
the truth. Which of the following can be deduced from the above Statement?
a) Fraud and misrepresentation are closely connected.

b) Fraud cannot be defended by claiming that the victim had the means to know the truth.
c) Misrepresentation involves the willful deception of a person.
d) Both fraud and misrepresentation may be defended by stating that the victim had the means to
know the truth.
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Q.96) Public nuisance comprises of acts that either affect the public at large or some considerable
portion of it, thus interfering with the rights which members of the community might otherwise
enjoy. For a private right of action, a person must show a particular injury to himself greater than
00
that which is suffered by the rest of the public; such injury must be direct and not a mere
consequential injury and the injury must be of a substantial nature. Which of the following
statements can be inferred from the above passage?
a) If A digs up a road that multiple commuters use, then B has a private right to sue A as he was the
60
only commuter who used the entire patch of the road dug on a particular day.
b) If A creates loud noises every day at a particular time, B has a private right of action if his nearby
restaurant loses customers as a result.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b).
11
Q.97) Principle: When a person represents to another something as a true fact, knowing fully well
that it is not true, he is guilty of fraud. The agreement is voidable on the part of the injured party.
Facts: Kunal is an influencer on Instagram and charges brands money to market their goods on his
18
account. He claims to have 1,00,000 followers, despite having bought half the followers from bot-
farms. He enters into agreement with De Bears, a diamond company that sells diamonds in the
shape of bears to market their product. While signing the contract the CEO asks Kunal specifically
whether all of his followers are human as this was why they were taking him on board, he simply
nods to this. However, after sometime, Bears realises that half of his followers were fake. They want
to leave the agreement.
a) They can avoid the agreement after discovering the fake followers.
b) They cannot avoid it since they should have checked the followers to see if they were fake.
c) They cannot avoid since Kunal never said anything about the followers.
Q.98) Principle: It is illegal to engage in domain squatting.

Explanation: Domain squatting refers to the act of buying up domain names that belong to a
trademark or well known-brand name, to sell it at a significantly higher price.
Facts: Kamil trades in domain names. He routinely buys domain names around common words and
popular phrases. He bought a domain name in 2016, known as Gapple.com for Rs. 10,000. Gapple, is
also a trademarked name of a phone company started in 2015, that only became popular in 2019.
After having realised that Kamil owns the domain name related to their trademark, they offer to buy
it from him. He says that he would only sell the trademark for 15 million dollars. Gapple files a case
for domain squatting against him.
a) Kamil’s act is illegal, since he bought a trademarked domain.
CP/20/C22
b) This is Kamil’s business, and calling it illegal would harm his future customer relations.
c) Kamil’s act is not illegal as he was only selling it to Gapple at a fair margin.
d) Kamil’s act is fair since Gapple is a large company and can afford to pay the price.
Q.99) Principle 1: Right to freedom of expression is a fundamental right.

Principle 2: All fundamental rights are subject to reasonable restrictions. These restrictions can be
imposed in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of State, friendly relations with
foreign States, decency or morality, in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an
81
offence.
Facts: Anurag Kash is a prominent director. He makes a movie on Gangs in a city in North India. The
State Government of UP does not allow the movie to be screened as it shows the State in a bad light
and is likely to cause public order issues.
00
a) This is not a violation of his freedom of speech, since the State has a legitimate interest in
preventing public order issues.
b) This is not a violation public order is a reasonable restriction.
c) This is a violation since the reason provided by the State does not fall under the reasonable
restrictions.
60
Q.100) Principle: The reorganisation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha elections can only be done
once in 25 years. The reorganisation is not subject to judicial review.
Facts: The last reorganisation of constituencies took place in 2011, the government feels that the
11
exercise then was unsatisfactory so decides to conduct the reorganisation process again. Petitions
were filed against this move stating that this was not allowed. The government argues that the
reorganisation is beyond judicial review, therefore courts cannot look at the question.
a) The courts are allowed to look at the procedure under which reorganisation has been conducted.
18
b) The courts are not allowed to review any matter related to reorganisation.
c) The courts are allowed to review the procedure or substance only after the reorganisation process is
over.
d) The court cannot sit on judgement over the matter since it is a political matter.
Q.101) Principle: The President can recommend changes to a Bill.

Facts: Dilbek Singh is the President of India. He is a staunch follower of Marx, and a firm believer
that only Communism can uplift a society. He receives a Bill to sign on Company Law, but sends it
back with his suggested changes, incorporating Marx’s principles in it. The Parliament refuses to
change the Bill as suggested by him. Before signing the Bill, he himself makes changes in the
document in his capacity as President and sends it for publication in the Gazette.
a) The act by the Dilbek Singh is valid since he is President.

b) The Act signed by Dilbek Singh is not valid law, since it was not passed according to constitutional
procedures.
c) The act of Dilbek Singh is invalid as he should have given the Parliament time to respond before
passing the Bill.
d) As the President, Dilbek Singh has the authority to make appropriate changes in the law.
Q.102) Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be the exact mirror image of the proposal.
Facts: Rohini offers to sell a bottle of Dettol to Mohini for Rs. 61. Mohini says that she will buy the
bottle for Rs. 16. Is there a valid agreement here?
CP/20/C22
a) Mohini accepted Rohini’s offer there is a valid agreement.

b) Rohini accepted Mohini’s offer, there is a valid agreement.
c) Mohini’s response was not a mirror image of Rohini’s offer.
d) Mohini’s may have been in the nature of a counter-offer.
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Principle: Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other,
and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property or
valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security,
00
commits “extortion”.
Facts: Catherine runs a fashion retail company. One day, when she is signing employee salary
cheques (all are bearer cheques), she gets a call from the Customer Care department requiring her
to immediately come there and address the issue. In her absence, one of the employees, Ursula,
steals two–three signed cheques and disappears to get them encashed and make off with the
money.
60
Q.103) Is there extortion in the instant case?
a) Yes
11
b) No, because no valuable security is involved

c) No
18
Q.104) Catherine catches Ursula at her apartment and fires her, but does not lodge any police
complaint taking pity on her. The next month, Ursula barges into Catherine’s office, forces her at
gunpoint to sign her a cheque of Rs.80,000, and after taking it, runs away. Is there extortion in the
instant case?
a) Yes
b) No, because no valuable security is involved.
c) No
Q.105) Catherine is tired of Ursula’s gimmicks and decides to teach her a lesson. She ambushes
Ursula near her apartment one night, and forces Ursula at gunpoint to give Catherine her wallet,
jewelry and luxury watch as compensation for the loss caused to Catherine. Is there extortion in the
instant case?
a) Yes
b) No, because Catherine is simply giving Ursula a taste of her own medicine.
c) No, because Catherine has a right to get compensation for loss caused by Ursula.
Section – IV: Data Interpretation
CP/20/C22
S.106–110) Directions for questions: The following bar graph represents the number of mobiles (in
lakhs) manufactured and sold by companies A, B, C, D and E. While series 1 shows the number of
mobile phones manufactured by the 5 companies, series 2 shows the number of mobile phones sold
by the companies in the same year.
4.5
4 3.75
4
3.5 3.25 3.5 3.5
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3.5
3
2.5 2.25
2.5
2 Series1
2
00
1.5 Series2
1.5
1
0.5
0
60
A B C D E
Q.106) Find the ratio of the number of mobile phones manufactured by A and C together to the
number of mobile phones sold by them together?
11
a) 24:23
b) 29:21
c) 25:24
18
d) 10:9
Q.107) The number of mobile phones sold by company E is what percent of the number of mobile
phones manufactured by company C?
a) 50%
b) 56.25%
c) 59.5%
d) 60%
Q.108) The number of mobile phones manufactured by company B is approximately what percent of
the number of mobile phones manufactured by company A?
a) 71%
b) 75%
c) 80%
d) 79%
Q.109) What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones manufactured by companies A, B and C
together to that of the number of mobile phones sold by companies C, D and E together?
a) 7:9
b) 9:10
CP/20/C22
c) 10:9
d) 8:7
Q.110) What is the difference between the average number of mobile phones manufactured by all
the companies and the average number of mobile phones sold by the all the companies?
a) 25,000
b) 45,000
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c) 75,000
d) 35,000
S.111–115) Directions for questions: The given line graph represents the sales in rupees made by
00
the five marketing employees of XYZ ltd. in a particular month. The employees A, B, C, D and E
belong to different grades – I, II and III. A and B belong to grade III, C and E belong to grade II and D
belongs to grade I. Based on their grades, they are paid sales commission as follows: a grade III
salesperson gets 12%, grade II salesperson gets 10% while a grade I salesperson gets 8%.
60
60000
50000
50000
43000
40000
36000
11
30000
27000
20000
24000
10000
18
0
A B C D E
Q.111) Who among the mentioned five employees received the highest sales commission?
a) E
b) C
c) D
d) B
Q.112) The accountant made a mistake while calculating the sales commission and interchanged the
percentage values of grade II and grade III employees. How much more/less will the company have
to pay as sales commission for the month because of the mistake?
a) Rs.700 less
b) Rs.240 more
c) Rs.360 less
d) None of these
Q.113) If C is promoted to grade I next month and he also increases his sales by 10%, what would be
the difference in the commission obtained by him in the 2 months?
CP/20/C22
a) Rs.1000
b) Rs.600
c) Rs.1200
d) Rs.2000
Q.114) Find the difference in the highest commission in rupees received by an employee and the
lowest commission in rupees received by an employee?
81
a) Rs.2120
b) Rs.2450
c) Rs.2530
00
d) Rs.2440
Q.115) If there is a drop of Rs.8000 in the sales made by E, what will be the % drop in his expected
commission?
a) 12.5%
60
b) 22.22%
c) 37.5%
d) 30%
11
S.116–120) Directions for questions: The given pie chart shows the spending of a state on various
sports activities for the year 2019. Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions that
follow: (The given numbers are the value of central angle of each sector)
18
4
63
Cricket
144
Football
45
Tennis
Kabaddi
Badminton
12 Hockey
Others
42
50
Q.116) What percentage of total spending is spent on Hockey?
a) 18.5%
b) 16.5%
c) 17.5%
d) 19.5%
Q.117) If the amount spent on Kabaddi is Rs.36 lakhs, then what is the amount spent on others?
CP/20/C22
a) Rs.11 lakhs
b) Rs.12 lakhs
c) Rs.10 lakhs
d) Rs.13 lakhs
Q.118) Amount spent on cricket is by what percentage more than the amount spent on Football?
81
a) 188%
b) 178%
c) 190%
d) 185%
00
Q.119) Total amount spent by the state in the year 2019 for various games is Rs.2 crores. If the
amount spent on cricket in 2020 is decreased by 20%, then what is the amount spent on cricket in
2020?
a) Rs.60,00,000
60
b) Rs.64,00,000
c) Rs.62,00,000
d) Rs.72,00,000
11
Q.120) By how many percentage points does the spending on football exceed the amount spent on
tennis?
a) 8%
18
b) 28.8%
c) 35%
d) 2.22%
Section – V: Inferential Reasoning

Q.121) A person is facing the north direction. He takes a 175 degree in the anticlockwise direction
followed by a 40 degree turn in the clockwise direction. If these two turns together are called a pair
turn and he takes 12 such pair turns, which direction does he finally face?
a) south
b) north
c) east
d) west
Q.122) There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed
by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of
chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different
packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?
a) 152
b) 89
CP/20/C22
c) 79
d) 158
Q.123) The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October
1999. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her
birthday, if it was not a leap year?
a) Sunday
81
b) Monday
c) Wednesday
d) Tuesday
00
Q.124) If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as ‘rips’ and
‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?
a) SOMAD
b) SOLID
c) NASIA
60
d) SOFIA
Q.125) Coding and decoding 9 : 72 : : 8 : ?

11
a) 34
b) 46
c) 56
d) 43
18
S.126–127) Direction for questions: Read the following information carefully and choose the most
appropriate option in the questions given below.
A. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to Anil, Anita, Anant, Annu,
Anju and Anubhav.
B. Anita gets a North–facing flat and is not next to Annu.
C. Annu and Anubhav get diagonally opposite flats.
D. Anant, next to Anubhav gets a South–facing flat and Anju gets a North–facing flat.
Q.126) If the flats of Anju and Anil are interchanged, the flat next to that of Anju will belong to?
a) Anant
b) Anita
c) Anil
d) Anju
Q.127) The flat between Anita and Annu belongs to?
a) Anju
b) Anant
c) Anubhav
d) Anil
CP/20/C22
Q.128) Find the missing term: 0, 1, 0, 4, –4, 5, ?
a) 9
b) –22
c) 20
d) None of these
81
Q.129) Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of
the daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
a) Son
00
b) Brother
c) Cousin
d) Brother–in–law
Q.130) If + means x, – means /, x means – and / means +, then find the value of 5 / 7 + 10 × 3 – 2?
60
a) 29.5
b) 34.5
c) 73.5
d) 67.5
11
S.131–135) Directions for questions: Rawls propounded a thought experiment of original position.
He said that in the original position, there were a bunch of rational negotiators, who are placed
under a veil of ignorance, where people do not know any facts about themselves or their
18
surrounding concepts. The veil of ignorance would create neutral conditions, so that the principles
are not derived out of coloured mindsets of the people. He further stated that the negotiators in
such a blank state would be risk–averse and thus they will maximize the worst case scenarios,
whereby they will ensure that the people who are the worst off will be treated fairly.
I. There should be fair equality of opportunity.
II. Social and economic inequalities are permissible so long as this equality is beneficial to the least
advantaged persons in that group.
III. Each person is to have an equal right to an extensive liberty compatible with the society.
IV. In order to arrive at the principles of justice one should not impose ideology upon another.
V. Individual interests and ideology must be prioritized over society’s.
Q.131) Which of the following would strengthen Rawls’ theory?
a) I
b) I, II, V
c) I, II, III, IV
d) I, II, III, IV, V
Q.132) Which one would weaken Rawls’ theory?
a) V
b) I, IV, V
c) I, II, III, IV
CP/20/C22
d) I, II, III, IV, V
Q.133) Which of the following is the correct inference?
a) There cannot be any original position as propounded by Rawls.

b) Unbiased decisions are fair and just.
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
81
Q.134) Which of the following necessarily follows?
a) Rawls is a propounder of substantive equality.
00
b) Rawls is a propounder of strict/absolute equality.
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Q.135) Giving unequal levels of liberty is justified under Rawls’ theory.

60
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say
11
S.136–137) Directions for questions: Read the passage and answer the following question.
Q.136) Matter has mass. That energy does not contain mass is an undisputed fact. Significantly, what
18
does not have mass is not spatial and consequently, is not vulnerable to force. Evidently, no
vulnerability to force means no dissolution. What escapes from dissolution is also free from
destruction. Therefore, energy is immortal. In this argument, one premise is missing. Complete the
argument by choosing from the following.
a) Nothing is free from destruction.

b) What is indestructible is immortal.
c) There is no matter.
d) Matter does exist.
Q.137) Matter has mass. That energy does not contain mass is an undisputed fact. Significantly, what
does not have mass is not spatial and consequently, is not vulnerable to force. Evidently, no
vulnerability to force means no dissolution. What escapes from dissolution is also free from
destruction. Therefore, energy is immortal. Under the same fact & situation as above, which one of
the following, if true, seriously affects the argument presented above?
a) Matter is not bound by space.

b) Matter is indestructible.
c) Whatever exists is not necessarily affected by force.
d) What does not have mass also is vulnerable to force.
Q.138) In India, a Lok Sabha candidate who advertises in Radio Karela will get maximum votes from
young voters. The statement above logically conveys which of the following?
CP/20/C22
a) For maximum votes from young voters, a Lok Sabha candidate need not advertise in media other
than in Radio Karela.
b) Maximum votes from young voters will help a candidate to win the election.
c) Radio Karela advertising reaches to every section of voters in India.
d) Advertising in radio is the most important factor in political campaigns in India.
S.139–140) Directions for questions: In the question, a statement is followed by four options.
81
Choose the option that provides the strongest support or objection (as mentioned in the question)
to the given statement.
Q.139) Most of those who study in premier engineering colleges in India should migrate to
00
developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
Strongest Support:
a) Engineers from premier engineering colleges in India do not get the state of the art facility in their
field; they can get to work in a state of the art facility only in a developed country.
60
b) All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations are ready to pay the entire cost of
their education which the government subsidizes.
c) Developed countries often give a differential treatment to the people from other countries.
d) All the students joining these colleges sign a bond at the time of admission to the effect that they
will remain in India at least for ten years after they complete education.
11
Q.140) Even if the explicit intent of a film is to make fun of people who stammer, so what? Such a
mockery always reflects badly on those doing the mocking, not on those being mocked. Why be so
sensitive to criticism and mockery (or even abuse)?
18
Strongest Objection:
a) SRK (in ‘My name is Khan’) did not spare any one when mocked at for his autistic behavior.
b) Anyone who is challenged, mentally or physically, takes his/her short coming very seriously. So
any criticism and mockery hurts them to a great extent.
c) A person who stammers will check his stammering consciously only if he is mocked at.
d) Stammering is a speech malfunction which is developed by the individual only. So they should not
mind any criticism and mockery.
Q.141) In the following question, four premises lead to a conclusion. Three premises and the
conclusion derived from four are given. From among the given alternatives, identify the missing
premise.
1st Premise: If an art is good, then the artist is good.
2nd Premise: If the artist is good, he is content with life and challenges.
3rd Premise:
4th Premise: But the artist John is not happy.
Conclusion: Therefore, John’s art may not be good.
a) If John is happy, he is a good artist.

b) If the artist is good, then his art is good.
c) If an artist is happy, he is content with life and challenges.
d) If an artist is content with life and challenges, he is happy.
CP/20/C22
Q.142) Identify the statement that can neither be proved nor disapproved.
a) I have pain in my joints.

b) My teacher gave me a book to read.
c) When the algorithm started its frenetic buying spree, the measures designed to shut it down did
not work.
d) Although it was not directly triggered by high frequency traders, the official reports suggested
they helped fuel the uncontrolled selling.
81
S.143) Directions for question: For the following three questions, there are two or more statements
along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of
the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if
00
you believe the statement is actually false.
Q.143) Statement 1: All cars are polluting.

Statement 2: All cars are autos.
Statement 3: Some autos are not cars.
Statement 4: Some polluting are not cars.
60
Conclusions:
I. All cars are polluting autos.
II. Some autos are not polluting.
III. All polluting are cars.
11
IV. Some cars are not polluting.
a) I and II follow
b) III and IV follow
18
c) Only I follows
d) All follow
S.144–150) Directions for questions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
S.144–146) Passage for questions: In economics textbooks, markets are supposed to be

competitive. In reality there is growing evidence that markets are becoming ever less so. From tech
to airlines to banking, the biggest companies are growing more dominant. Ownership of many firms
is more concentrated. Profits have soared relative to workers’ pay. And executive pay has soared
relative to that of workers. All this suggests modern capitalism may do more to benefit insiders than
foster competition.
Q.144) Which of the following best summarises the argument of this paragraph?
a) Markets are not fostering competition and on the contrary benefitting a select few.
b) Modern capitalism needs to be more equitable so that disparity of income can be reduced.
c) In modern capitalism, the people at the top benefit at the expense of the workers.
d) Modern capitalism has not grown in the direction it was expected to grow.
Q.145) Which of the following is not implied in the paragraph given above?
a) In general, competition in the economy works for the good of all.
CP/20/C22
b) A competitive market can never ensure fair completion.

c) Bigger, dominant companies result in concentration of power.
d) Workers pay should be in proportion to the earnings of the executives.
Q.146) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument given in the paragraph given
above?
a) The large companies have given rise to numerous smaller ones that cater to the new markets
81
created by the bigger companies.
b) Concentration of capital with a few in the economy ensures that availability of new products is
controlled by a few.
c) By being big employers, many companies can get manpower at low costs.
00
d) Socialism could never ensure progress and hence gave way to a more progressive capitalism.
S.147–148) Passage for questions: Seventy seven thousand years ago, a man with a stone point,
etched a geometric design in the flat surface of a cliff—simple crosshatchings framed by two parallel
lines with a third line down the middle. Today the stone offers no clue to its original purpose. It
60
could have been a religious object, an ornament or just an ancient doodle. But to see it is to
immediately recognize it as something only a person could have made. Carving the stone was a very
human thing to do.
Q.147) Which of the following best summarises the information given in the above paragraph?
11
a) Humans have always wanted to create something and leave a mark.

b) Humans have a history at least seventy seven thousand year old.
c) From ancient etchings, it is difficult to conclude the purpose for which they were made.
18
d) Some human abilities have been present since the very beginning.
Q.148) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion the paragraph above is
trying to establish?
a) Several patterns have been discovered on ancient trees that look human made at first sight.
b) Geometry is a fairly new subject that can be traced to mathematicians of the Renaissance period.
c) Geometric patterns often appear in nature caused by objects trapped in soft rocks as they
hardened.
d) There are many humans in modern times that cannot draw simple straight lines.
S.149–150) Passage for questions: For world literature, we should ask ourselves, in accord with the
comparatist Jean Weisgerber, “not only whether a unified theory of literature is possible but also
whether it is to be wished for. Are universal categories relevant and accurate enough to describe
particulars? [...] Theories may be so abstract as to lose all contact with empirical reality, ‘over–
abstraction’ is sometimes of no avail.”
Q.149) Which of the following best summarises the idea presented in the paragraph given above?
a) We should always look for differences in the literature of the world.

b) The world literature can never be judged by a single parameter.
c) Sometimes theories are so abstract that they have no resemblance to reality.
d) It is doubtful that universal parameters can be used in describing the wide variety of literature.
CP/20/C22
Q.150) Which of the following, if true, directly contradicts the idea presented in the paragraph?
a) Literary beauty is universal in nature and the world literature has common underlying features.
b) Literature over the years and over different parts of the world has developed in diverse cultural
settings.
c) Abstraction is difficult for most people to understand and hence use meaningfully.
d) Many cultures treasure their ancient literature while others have only a recent history of their
81
literature.
00
60
11
18

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CP/20/C22

The next hearing is scheduled later this month.

Q.1) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

a) The Representation Act.

c) The Representation of the People Act

a) The Delhi high court refused to acknowledge the decision.

Q.6) The tone of the passage is

a) There is no appreciation for a stickler’s refined taste for punctuation.

a) show the streaks of violence hidden in the author.

a) In European paintings, the painters have…….

Q.10) Whales are now considered man’s friend because

a) they soothe babies in the womb.

Q.11) Earlier whalers were considered to be heroes

a) because whaling was a majestic calling.

Q.12) The paradox mentioned in the passage is

a) whaling was appreciated earlier while now it is looked down upon.

Q.14) What are the benefits of the establishment of green courts?

a) Improving the environment

Q.15) Which of the following were members of the LEC?

Q.17) Which of the following is false according to the passage?

Q.19) In which of the following county an environmental court is not established?

Q.20) What is the tone of the passage?

Q.21) What is the source of the passage?

a) An excerpt from a biography

d) An extract from a judgment

Q.23) _________ I wish to travel on only one of them.

(c) The role of media in distance education needs a specific mention.

independence movement. To understand why, it is necessary to understand the nature of flu

Q.31) Which of the following is true as per the passage?

a) Nirala was already a famous poet when his family died.

a) it affected the entire continent of Asia

d) it claimed the maximum number of people in the sub–continent

Q.34) Why do we need to turn to a poet?

Q.35) This passage has been taken from?

Section – II: Current Awareness

a) Delhi Declaration on Sustainable Nitrogen Management

a) Bangladesh and Nepal

a) Crackdown in Hong Kong

a) Sanjeev Nandan Sahai

a) Sanjeev Nandan Sahai

a) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)

a) Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh

Q.52) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is an intergovernmental

a) 1st to 7th October

a) Peter Ratcliffe, William Kaelin and Gregg Semenza

a) Moon Unites the World

a) Only statement I is true.

b) Only statement II is true.

a) Development of lithium–ion batteries

a) Anup Kumar Singh

a) General Agreement on Trade & Tariffs

is being talked about here?

a) Asian Development Bank

Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

options that follow.

made by Veeraswamy was not voluntary and true.

a) Fraud and misrepresentation are closely connected.

Q.98) Principle: It is illegal to engage in domain squatting.

a) Kamil’s act is illegal, since he bought a trademarked domain.

Q.99) Principle 1: Right to freedom of expression is a fundamental right.

Q.101) Principle: The President can recommend changes to a Bill.

a) The act by the Dilbek Singh is valid since he is President.

a) Mohini accepted Rohini’s offer there is a valid agreement.