Mock 8 Sol

CP/20/C08
CLAT MOCK – 8 (Unproctored)

(Answer and explanation)
SECTION – I: ENGLISH
Q.1) Option (A).
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Q.2) Option (C).
Q.3) 7th Para

Option (B).
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Q.4) 4th Para
Option (D).
Q.5) 1st Para

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Option (B).
Q.6) 8th Para

Option (C).
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Q.7) 7th Para

Option (C).
Q.8) Option (A).

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Q.9) 1st Para

Option (D).
Q.10) 2nd Para

Option (B).
Q.11) 2nd Para

Option (B).
Q.12) over is the correct preposition

Option (B).
Q.13) folded is the correct tense

Option (B).
Q.14) whispered is the correct tense

Option (C).
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A Team Satyam Offering
CP/20/C08
Q.15) stirring is the correct tense

Option (C).
Q.16) tear is the correct tense

Option (A).
Q.17) on is the correct preposition

Option (D).
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Q.18) No error
Option (D).
Q.19) where he ‘continued along’ a boulevard. Use ‘along’ instead of ‘about’.
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Option (B).
Q.20) ‘At’ some point along his final walk.

Option (A).
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Q.21) in the 1950s
Option (B).
Q.22) Galende ‘directed’ me to a book of his that narrates the history of the church grounds.
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Option (B).
Q.23) No error.
Option (D).
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Q.24) It means to hate.

Option (A).
Q.25) It means determined.

Option (C).
Q.26) It means to throw something hard.

Option (A).
Q.27) It means reserved.

Option (B).
Q.28) It means positive.

Option (C).
Q.29) CD and AB form a pair.

Option (C).
CP/20/C08
Q.30) DA form a pair. Passage starts with B and then goes to C.

Option (B).
Q.31) CDA forms a pair. B is the last statement of the set.

Option (C).
Q.32) AB and CD form a pair. Passage starts with AB.

Option (A).
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Q.33) CBD forms a pair with BD mentioning the past situation.
Option (B).
Q.34) instantly.
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Option (B).
Q.35) good invention.

Option (B).
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Q.36) very different from.
Option (C).
Q.37) to sleep.
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Option (C).
Q.38) Option (B).
Q.39) Option (B).

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Q.40) Option (D).
SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q.41) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is considered to be the most important fundamental right
because it ensures the protection of our fundamental rights. It helps the citizens in moving court in case
of violation of their fundamental rights.
Option (B)
Q.42) Article 360 is associated with imposition of financial emergency in the country. Article 356,
commonly known as President’s rule deals with “Failure of constitutional machinery in the State”
Option (A)
Q.43) One of the two headstreams of the holiest river Ganga, Alaknanda originates from glaciers at the
head of the Alaknanda valley in Uttarakhand’s Chamoli district.
Option (C)
CP/20/C08
Q.44) The pact signed by B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes abandoned the separate
electorates for the depressed classes.
Option (B)
Q.45) Tidal port are the ports in which the water level within the port are subject to change with the
ocean tides.
Option (B)
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Q.46) The five–day session was inaugurated by Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and
attended by Union Science &Technology Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan on 3rd January, 2019.
Option (C)
Q.47) Located at the Dubai Industrial Park, the 280,000 square feet plant will process Waste Electrical
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and Electronic Equipment (WEEE), IT asset disposition (ITAD), refrigerant gas and specialised waste.
Option (D)
Q.48) Approximately four different islands from Andaman and one island from Nicobar have been
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selected to fly seaplanes. These are Havelock, Long Island, Neil Island and Hutbay Island in Andaman and
Car Nicobar in Nicobar.
Option (B)
Q.49) The LokSabha passed the Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019, which seeks to amend
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Sections 13, 16 and 27 of the RTI Act, a move that links the status of Central Information Commissioners
with that of Election Commissioners and the State Information Commissioners with the State Chief
Secretary.
Option (D)
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Q.50) Karnataka assembly Speaker KR Ramesh Kumar in July 2019 announced disqualification of three
MLAs — R Shankar (Ranebennur) , Ramesh Jharkiholi (Gokak) and Mahesh Kumthahalli (Athani) — under
the provisions of the anti–defection law, setting off a new crisis for the BJP ahead of its efforts to form
the next government.
Option (D)
Q.51) Pranav R Mehta is a visionary in the field of Solar Energy and the chairman of National Solar
Energy Federation of India (NSEFI).
Option (B)
Q.52) Allan Donald was the first bowler from his country to take 300 Test wickets and is one of the
players credited with South Africa’s success in the game after their return to international cricket in
1991.
Option (D)
Q.53) The Second Belt and Road Forum for International Cooperation (BRF) , titled as ‘Working together
to deliver a Brighter Future for Belt and Road Cooperation”, held in Beijing, China on 25–27th April 2019
attracted wide international attention.
CP/20/C08
Option (C)
Q.54) It was held at Babina Cantonment in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh from April 8 to 11.
Option (B)
Q.55) Indian Captain Virat Kohli was picked as one of the Wisden’s Five Cricketers of the Year, along with
Tammy Beaumont, Jos Buttler, Sam Curran and Rory Burns.
Option (C)
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Q.56) Methane emissions from rice paddies in countries such as India have risen in recent years. The
stomachs of cattle, fermentation in rice fields, coal mines, burning forests — they all produce methane.
Option (A)
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Q.57) The money raised via the bond will be used for green investments, including wind farms, large
bike parks, strengthening dykes and improving home insulation.
Option (B)
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Q.58) The Kalahari Desert is a large semi–arid sandy savannah in southern Africa covering much of
Botswana and parts of Namibia and South Africa.
Option (A)
Q.59) Trans–Siberian Railway is the longest railway route of the world with a length of 9289 Km. It
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connects St. Petersburg to Vladivostok.

Option (B)
Q.60) Chief Minister of Arunachal Pema Khandu had inaugurated India’s longest 300–meter single–lane
steel cable suspension bridge over River Siang in Upper Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh, which
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borders China. The suspension bridge is also known as Byorung Bridge.

Option (A)
Q.61) India has been ranked at 41st at the 11th edition of EIU Democracy Index 2018, which provides a
glimpse of the state of world democracy for 165 independent states and two territories.
Option (D)
Q.62) India–born Dr. Rattan Lal, a soil scientist at The Ohio State University, has been awarded the 2019
Japan Prize for his outstanding contribution to sustainable soil management.
Option (B)
Q.63) An eight–member search panel formed to select members of anti–corruption ombudsman Lokpal
Tuesday held its first meeting in January 2019.
Option (A)
Q.64) Sushil Chandra, Former Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has assumed charge
as the new Election Commissioner (EC) of India on 15th of February 2019.
Option (B)
CP/20/C08
Q.65) 2nd edition of India–Myanmar bilateral Army exercise ‘IMBEX 2018–19’ took place at Chandi
Mandir military station in Haryana that houses the headquarters of the Western Command of the Indian
Army.
Option (C)
Q.66) Kohli scored 1,322 runs at an average of 55.08 in 13 Tests with five hundreds during the calendar
year while in 14 ODIs he amassed 1202 runs at an astonishing average of 133.55 with 6 centuries.
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Option (D)
Q.67) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has released its biannual World Economic Outlook (WEO)
update at the World Economic Forum (WEF–2019) in Davos in February 2019.
Option (A)
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Q.68) The Union cabinet approved a proposal for setting up the Centre for Disability Sports at Gwalior in
Madhya Pradesh to benefit para–sports in the country.
Option (B)
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Q.69) Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated an Indo–Russian joint venture (JV) that will
manufacture the new 7.62x39 mm caliber Kalashnikov AK–203 rifle in Korwa near Amethi, Uttar
Pradesh.
Option (D)
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Q.70) Indian Air Force Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman was honoured with the first–ever
‘Bhagwan Mahavir Ahimsa Puraskar’, which is instituted by the Akhil Bharatiya Digambar Jain
Mahasamiti.
Option (B)
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Q.71) India has invited the leaders of BIMSTEC to Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s inauguration on 30
May, signalling the primacy of neighbourhood and economic diplomacy, as well as connectivity, in
Modi’s second term in office.
Option (A)
Q.72) Mizoram has once again become a “completely dry state” following a new liquor law that
prohibits the sale and consumption of alcohol.
Option (C)
Q.73) Panchkula has topped the state with the highest SRB of 982, while Jhajjar has performed dismally
and is at the bottom of the tally, followed by Sirsa and Mahendragarh.
Option (B)
Q.74) The draft policy aims at consolidating the export norms for each product as applicable at different
government agencies.
Option (B)
CP/20/C08
Q.75) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is planning to set up a new institute, to be known as the College of
Supervisors, in Mumbai to train and build up a cadre for supervisory roles in the financial system.
Option (A)
Q.76) The excavation in the Baghpat district of U.P. was first started in 2018 and resumed in January this
year, the process of listing and preservation at the site was on at the moment. Three chariots, some
coffins, shields, swords and helmets had been unearthed.
Option (C)
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Q.77) Former Supreme Court Judge Justice A. K. Sikri has been appointed as the Chairperson of the
News Broadcasting Standards Authority (NBSA) .He will assume office on May 26, 2019. Justice Sikri will
succeed Justice R. V. Raveendran, who completes his term on May 25, 2019.
Option (B)
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Q.78) NPP is registered as regional party in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Nagaland.
Option (A)
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Q.79) Union cabinet has approved the proposal of National Investigation Agency, to empower the
agency to register and investigate terror acts on foreign soil if Indian nationals or interests are harmed.
Option (D)
Q.80) The Ebola outbreak has been raging in Democratic Republic of Congo since August where more
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than 2,000 cases have been recorded, two–thirds of them fatal.

Option (D)
Q.81) Nagaland has highest unemployment rate among states at 21.4% and Meghalaya the lowest at
1.5%, as per the Periodic Labour Force Survey for 2017–18, figures tabled by the government in
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Parliament.
Option (C)
Q.82) The proposal, however, had been criticised by automobile associations who called for a “practical
approach” to usher in electric mobility.
Option (A)
Q.83) Amish Tripathi is author of best selling books like Secret of Nagas, Sita–Warrior of Milthila. The
Nehru Centre, London is a cultural centre located at the South Audley Street, London
Option (B)
Q.84) Femina Miss India 2019 event was held at Mumbai on June 15, 2019. Shivani Jadhav was crowned
as Miss Grand India 2019, Sanjana Vij was Miss India runner up 2019. Shreya Shankar was crowned Miss
India United Continents 2019.
Option (A)
Q.85) SIDBI has introduced web–based application system for contribution from Fund of Funds for
Startups (FFS).
CP/20/C08
Option (D)
Q.86) The Union Cabinet has given ex–post facto approval to the Inter – Institutional Agreement (IIA)
between India and the USA in the areas of regenerative medicine and 3D bio-printing, new technologies,
exchange of scientific ideas/information and technologies, and joint use of scientific infrastructure.
Option (A)
Q.87) Indian batting icon Sachin Tendulkar has been inducted into the International Cricket Council
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(ICC)’s Hall of Fame alongside South African pace legend Allan Donald and Australian woman cricketer
Cathryn Fitzpatrick.
Option (D)
Q.88) Capital of Nigeria is Abuja.
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Option (C)
Q.89) Volga is considered as the longest river of Europe. Next in length is Danube, it is the longest river
in European Union area. Ural River is the third longest river in Europe, flows through Russia and
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Kazkhstan. The Amur River or Heilong Jiang is the world’s tenth longest river.
Option (B)
Q.90) Nandan Nilekani has launched an account aggregator model – Sahamati – via which, individuals
and small businesses can share their digital financial data with 3rd parties in a safe and secure manner.
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Option (C)
SECTION – III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

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Q.91) Let the income of x and y be 4a & 3a and their expenditure be 12b & 7b respectively.
Then, 4a– 12b = 6400 ............(i)
3a – 7b = 6400 ...........(ii)
3a – 9b = 4800.........(iii) [3/4 × (i)]
–  –
2b = 1600
b = 800
4a = 6400 + 9600
a = 4000
Income of x = 4a
= 4 × 4000= 16000
Option (D).
Q.92) Let the CP of an article be 100%.

Then Profit = 20%
and S.P. = 120%
20 2
Profit on S.P. =  100  16 %
120 3
CP/20/C08
Option (A).
Q.93)
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1 2
Volume = r h
3
1

 r 2 l 2  r 2
3

1 22
00
   7  7 100  49
3 7
1
  22  7  51
3
154
 51 m3
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3
Option (D).
Q.94) a + b + c = 0
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a3  b3  c3
 –3  30  50  20
 –90000
Option (A).
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Q.95) 1 × 56  H.C.F. = 1,
Number of tiles = 56
2 × 28  H.C.F. = 2,
Number of tiles = 1 × 14 = 14
4 × 14  H.C.F. = 2,
7 × 8 = 56, H.C.F. = 1,
So, minimum number of tiles = 14
Option (C).
Q.96) It doesn’t matter how much money the person spends before the increment or after the
increment.
Income = Expenditure + Savings
If any two of the given variables is increased by x%, then the third variable will also increase by x%.
Hence, if income and expenditure both is increased by 30% then the savings will also be increased by
30%. No calculation is required.
Option (A).
CP/20/C08
Q.97) Simplifying,
2 2 x 1 2 1
1   1  
3 7 7 4 3 6
5 2 x 5 2 1
     
3 7 7 4 3 6
5 7 x 5 2
     6
3 2 7 4 3
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Solving above, we get x = 6
Option (D).
Q.98) Let Shubham had Rs.x with her
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Amount received by Vertika from Shubham = 40% of x = (2/5)x
Amount received by Priyanka from Vertika = one fourth of 2x/5 = Rs. (x/10)
Priyanka gave Rs.200 to cab driver and left with Rs.600
x
Hence,  200  600
10
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Solving, we get x = Rs.8000
Option (B).
Q.99) Product of three selected number is negative.

This can be done in two cases
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First, All three selected numbers are negative which can be done in 6C3 = 20 ways.
Second, 1 number has to be negative and another two has to be positive which can be done in
(6C1)×(5C2) = 60 ways.
So, the total number of ways that Shyam can select the numbers = 20 + 60 = 80 ways.
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Option (C).
Q.100) Total amount of = 30×15 = 450 man–days.

In first 5 days, 30 men can do = 30×5 = 150 man–days.
In next 5days, 25 men can do = 25×5 = 125 man–days.
Hence, in total 20 days, the entire 450 man–days units work will be completed.
Option (B).
Q.101) Change in total weight of 10 students = difference in weight of the student who joined and the
student who left Weight of first student who left = 30 + (10×2) = 50
Weight of the student who joined last = 50 – 10 = 40
Thus change in average weight = (40 – 30)/10 = 1
Option (B).
Q.102) The amount after 7 years will become the principal for the next years.
Let ‘r’ is the rate of interest.
CP/20/C08
According to the question,

3
 r 
17280  13310  1  
 100 
Solving, we get r = 9.09%
Option (A).
Q.103) In order to find the average age of the family before Ram was born, we need to know the age of
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the youngest member of the family. Thus, the answer is can’t be determined.
Option (D).
Q.104) Let the current age of elder brother = x

Then,
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The current age of younger brother = x – 8
After 10 years
Age of elder brother = x + 10
Age of younger brother = x – 8 + 10 = x + 2
According to Question,
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 x + 10 + x + 8 = 2(x + x – 8)
 2x + 12 = 2(2x – 8)
 2x + 12 = 4x – 16
 2x = 28
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 x = 14
So we have
Age of elder brother = 14 years
Age of younger brother = 14 – 8 = 6 years
6
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Required ratio= = 3 : 7
14
Option (D).
Q.105) Required Bricks

20  100  100  100 cm3
  8000
25  12.5  8 cm3
Option (B).
Q.106) Ratio in which money should be distributed

1 1 1
 : :
4 5 6
= 30 : 24 : 20
= 15 : 12 : 10
= 37 (× 15)
Ratio in which money is distributed
=4:5:6
= 15 (× 37)
So, Excess amount received by C
CP/20/C08
= 37 × 6 – 15 × 10
= 222 – 150
= Rs.72
Option (A).
Q.107) Total number of students  3 29791  31

Option (C).
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Q.108) Let fraction are a, b and c.
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abc  ...(i)
24
a 7
 ...(ii)
00
c 6
7 1
 b
6 3
7 1 21  3 5
b   
6 3 18 6
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59 5 39
From eq. (i) a  c   
24 6 24
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From eq. (ii) 7K  6K 
24
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3 1
K 
24 8
7 6 3 5
 a  7K  , c  6K   , b 
8 8 4 6
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Option (B).
Q.109) Let after t year, population be equal

136000 – 2400t =84000 + 1600t
4000t =52000
t =13 years.
Option (C).
Q.110) The expression can be written as –

36 33 5
3 1 2
99 99 99
36  33  5
2
99
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2
99
 2.64
Option (D).
CP/20/C08
SECTION – IV: LEGAL REASONING

Q.111) The Rules apply in this case. While the money was legally owed by Mrs. Morris since she is the
one getting the documents made, Jeremy makes the payment on her behalf. While (c) could also have
been correct, (a) is the most appropriate answer in the instant case because he made the payment for
Mrs. Morris, and as her lawyer is interested in the case.
Option (A).
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Q.112) The facts and Gary’s statements clearly indicate that Gary acted out of generosity and there was
no legally binding non-gratuitous consideration in this case. Hence, (d) is correct.
Option (D).
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Q.113) While Matt helped Gary with the money for the EMI earlier, this does not mean that Gary is
obliged to help Matt with his legal troubles. His legal liability only extends to repayment of the sum
borrowed for the EMI. (d) is incorrect because there is some responsibility of Gary towards Matt.
Option (B).
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Q.114) The manager is liable as per the Rule because while Hillary did not suffer any actual loss or
damage due to the manager’s action, the refusal to honour her cheque unjustifiably is an infringement
of her legal right.
Option (A).
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Q.115) The fact that this is an instance of injuria sine damnum remains, and is independent of the nature
of the bank and Hillary’s privilege/position as a customer.
Option (D).
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Q.116) The Supreme Court has begun the hearing in the Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation case
regarding decriminalization of homosexuality (striking down Section 377 of the IPC). All three Articles–
14, 19 and 21– are being considered to weigh the constitutionality of Section 377.
Option (D).
Q.117) Merely because Rocco is a foreign national, he cannot be denied protection under Indian laws.
Article 14 applies to all, including foreigners.
Option (C).
Q.118) Since the right to life includes the right to privacy, an individual has this integral right, which
cannot be overridden, except in exceptional cases. Thus, Delton is correct in his claim.
Option (C).
Q.119) Anita does not come into the ambit of the defence because she did not do anything to harm any
of them. Romesh and Somesh were both acting in an unlawful manner and without proper care and
caution, which means that the defence of the Rule does not apply to them.
Option (D).
CP/20/C08
Q.120) Since the two friends were engaged in a mutually consensual duel, and one tripped and hurt
himself, the defence is applicable.
Option (A).
Q.121) While Dylan may have acted without malice, he did not maintain due care and caution which led
to this incident.
Option (C).
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Q.122) Since Gautami has been transferred by the State due to her caste, this is clear case of
discrimination and hence, unjustified as per Rule A.
Option (A).
Q.123) Rule B. only applies in case of measures taken by the State. Since this is a measure/initiative by a
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private company, Rule B. is not applicable here.
Option (C).
Q.124) The facts do not mention whether the book legally was under copyright or whether Mini got a
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‘copyleft’ for it, to allow its free modification. (Note: It would be wrong to assume that merely by virtue
of being a book, it is subject to copyright.)
Option (C).
Q.125) The facts do not mention whether the fan fiction being written was legally under copyright or
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‘copyleft’, intended to allow its free modification.

Option (C).
Q.126) Direct application of Rule A.

Option (A).
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Q.127) Both cases of breach involve refusal by a party to perform the contract, whether before or during
the period of performance of the contract. In the instant case, a mishap has resulted in Shashi’s inability
to perform the contract on time, and not his express refusal.
Option (C).
Q.128) Since Dolphy Catering Co. stepped away from the contract when the first day of the cruise had
already started, the period of performance of the contract will be taken to have begun, and hence, it is
breach during performance. Statements 3 and 4 are true by virtue of direct application of Rule B.
Option (B).
Q.129) Direct application of the Rule. The legality of the relationship is not in issue in the question. Also,
the rules of evidence are independent of the religion of the parties in this case.
Option (A).
Q.130) (c) and (d) are not correct as already explained in the answer to the previous question. (b) is not
correct because the Rule clearly states- “any person who, as a member of the family or otherwise”,
which means that non-relatives are also included.
CP/20/C08
Option (A).
Q.131) For (b), the correct answer is: wrongful restraint- abridgement of one’s liberty; wrongful
confinement- absolute suspension of liberty beyond certain prescribed limits.
Option (A).
Q.132) To begin with, the garden belonged to Siri and whatever the circumstances, it is her call to make
as to when to allow/revoke permission for anyone to use the garden, including Vini. Secondly, Siri acted
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to ensure Vini’s safety.
Option (C).
Q.133) Since Vini is willfully obstructing Siri from proceeding in a particular direction (using the main
gate).
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Option (B).
Q.134) The facts, at no point, indicate that Ryan either falsely professed to possess the skill to solve the
IoT case or was dishonest in his efforts to solve it. That he did not eventually succeed is another matter.
Option (C).
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Q.135) The correct option is self-explanatory. It would have been an issue if Ryan had implied that he
was an expert in IoT cases, or something similar.
Option (D).
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Q.136) The fact that Vridhi wanted to implement this policy in public governance renders it problematic
because Rule B. only extends to the liberty o manage religious affairs, not all aspects of administration.
Option (D).
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Q.137) The exception given in the Rule would only be applicable where religious matters are concerned,
whereas here, Vridhi is undertaking an activity as an aspiring political leader. (b) is, of course, possible.
Option (B).
Q.138) Rule D. requires that land owned and acquired by a religious denomination be administered “in
accordance with law”, and hence, the right is not absolute.
Option (B).
Q.139) Option (C).
Q.140) Option (D).
Q.141) The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction
Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law
(HCCH) that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from
one member country to another. (Note: Not to be confused with the Hague Conventions of 1899 and
1907, which were among the first formal statements of the laws of war and war crimes in the body of
secular international law.
CP/20/C08
Option (B).
Q.142) While the Supreme Court is mulling the idea of the need for a separate law to prevent mob
lynchings in view of the spate of such crimes in the past few days, there are legal provisions that deal
with rioting in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Procedure Code.
Option (B).
Q.143) Option (A).
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Q.144) Direct application of Rule D.
Option (D).
Q.145) As per Rule E, the witness’ statement may be used by the prosecutor only after taking due
00
permission from the Court. Thus, the result of Simrit’s strategy depends on whether she succeeds in
getting such permission from Court, and how she uses the statement.
Option (C).
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Q.146) The facts indicate that Ramsha was most impressed with the flower samples sent by Param
because of their unqiuecolour combination. As the buyer, she has full right to inspect the goods and
refuse to accept delivery if they are different from the samples initially shown.
Option (A).
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Q.147) Rule B. may be applied here. If Ramsha inspected and then forwarded the flowers to Maitri, she
is expected to have done so only if she was satisfied that the bulk corresponded with the sample, which
constitutes acceptance. Thus, she is not entitled to reject the goods now.
Option (D).
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Q.148) As per Rule A., it would have been a case of dowry death if she died an unnatural death within 7
years of marriage, i.e. by 2014. This is not the case here.
Option (C).
Q.149) The nature of the quarrels does not indicate that it was one for dowry. Further, the death does
not seem to have occurred in unnatural circumstances. Thus, this is not a case of dowry death.
Option (D).
Q.150) While it may have been dowry when the money was exchanged between the two families (Rule
B., b.), as regards the application of Rule A., it is not applicable here because Indu did not die as a result
of dowry harassment.
Option (D).
Q.151) Please note that Article 18 only prohibits conferment of discriminatory titles by the Indian State
and not from addressing foreigners with a title, which has been conferred by their governments, when
they visit India. Rule C. is not applicable in this case.
Option (C).
CP/20/C08
Q.152) Rule B. would only apply in case of a title being conferred by a foreign state on an Indian citizen.
However, in the instant case, it is an award, not covered within the prohibited titles elaborated in Rule
D.
Option (C).
Q.153) Direct application of Rule A. Cognitive ability of Ashish is irrelevant here since he is below seven
years of age.
Option (D).
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Q.154) As per Rule B., while she was not cognizant of the penal consequences of her actions, she knew
that her actions would hurt someone, thus, since she is above seven years of age and below twelve in
this case, she may be guilty.
Option (A).
00
Q.155) There was an imminent threat to Elvis’ house and life from that journalist. Furthermore, the high
walls and the barbed wire would have all been visible to anyone, and he did not exercise the right to
private defence disproportionately.
Option (A).
60
Q.156) Elvis is a popular star and is entitled to construct reasonable safety mechanisms in and around
his property. The fact that the child tried to jump the wall, despite the shards of glass being clearly
visible, does not make Elvis liable under tort.
11
Option (A).
Q.157) His fear of dogs is not sufficient to justify planting something as dangerous as land mines in the
garden, that too without putting any general warning sign for visitors etc. Thus, the defence of private
defence is not applicable in this case.
18
Option (D).
Q.158) Justice Jawad Rahim was the Acting Chairperson of the NGT before the appointment of Justice
Adarsh Kumar Goel as the Chairperson.
Option (C).
Q.159) It is usually used for a person/group who is not a party to an action, but has a strong interest in
the matter, and will petition the court for permission to submit a brief in the action with the intent of
influencing the court’s decision.
Option (C).
Q.160) In the past, the Uttarakhand High Court has given legal entity status to the rivers Ganga and
Yamuna, but the Supreme Court put a stay on this.
Option (D).
SECTION – V: LOGICAL REASONING

Q.161) Option (A).
CP/20/C08
Q.162) Option (B).
Q.163) Option (B).
Q.164) Option (C).
Q.165) Option (A).
81
Q.166) Option (D).
Q.167) Option (D).
00
Q.168) Option (B).
Q.169) Option (C).
Q.170.Option (D).
60
Q.171) Option (C).
Q.172) Option (D).

11
Q.173.Option (A).
Q.174) Assumption 1 is the opposite of statement. 2 explains the surprise. The tomatoes are expensive
and the speaker is surprised how they could be bad. 3 is not correct as the statement shows surprise at
18
the rottenness and price, but we can’t inverse it and say that speaker would’ve been ok had they been
cheap.
Option (C).
Q.175) Assumption 1 is making a general rule by saying that everything that looks good has damaging
effect while here it’s only about hair colour. 2 is an advice. It cannot be an assumption as advice is
always a conclusion. 3 is also not warranted as from the statement we cannot make out what’s more
desirable as author has not made any choice
Option (C).
Q.176) One wants to protect gut health shows it’s important. But the statement doesn’t prove that no
one knows about this.
Option (A).
Q.177) Here sports importance is equated to both body and brain. Now whether they are good or bad
we don’t know but if they’re good, it’s good for both body and brain and bad then bad for both body
and brain
Option (C).
CP/20/C08
Q.178) Option (D).
S.179–180) Solution for Questions:
Lets number the positions from 1 to 5 from west to east.

NORTH
WEST_1__2__3__4__5_EAST
Now, as P sits 2nd from the west end  P sits at 2.
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R is right of P. So, R can be on positions 3 or 4 or 5.
Now, as Q is not left of R, thus, R cannot be on 1 but can be on 3 or 4 or 5.
Also, given that Q is not adjacent to R. This means R cannot be at 4 (as if R is on 4, then Q has to take 3
or 5 which will be adjacent to R). This means R and Q can be on 3 and 5 in some order. But since Q is not
left of R  Q = 5 and R = 3
00
Also, S has more than 1 person to his right  S = 1 and therefore, T = 4
The final arrangement looks like: SPRTQ
Hence,
Q.179) Option (B).

60
Q.180) Option (C).
Q.181)
11
18
Option (D).
Q.182) The series can be seen as –
Option (B).
S.183–187) Directions for Solution:
Mhoni sits third from the left end but is neither from Delhi nor Bangalore. There are four friends sitting
between Cirat and the person Hyderabad. Only 3 friends sit to the left of the friend from Delhi. Cirat is
not among these 3 friends… From these statements it is clear that the arrangement will look like –
MHONI CIRAT
HYDERABAD DELHI
CP/20/C08
Now consider - The person from Bangalore sits at least 3 positions left of Badeja who is not from Ranchi
=> In this case if Badeja is from Delhi (position immediate right of Mhoni), then Bangalore will go on
extreme left – which is not possible. Thus, the case possible is as follows –
MHONI BADEJA CIRAT

HYDERABAD BANGALORE DELHI
Maina sits left of the friend from Bangalore =>Maina is from Hyderabad. Gujara sits right of Mhoni
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=>Gujara will be from Delhi (between Mhoni and Badeja). Also, Bahane doesn’t sit right of Mhoni
=>Bahane is from Bangalore. Further, as there are two friends whose name start with same initial letter
as the city in which they reside =>Mhoni must be from Mumbai to fulfill this criteria. Also, since there
are two friends who belong to the same city are sitting adjacent each other but they are not from Ranchi
00
=>Badeja must be from Delhi and therefor, Cirat is from Ranchi.
The final arrangement is as follows -

MAINA BAHANE MHONI GUJARA BADEJA CIRAT
HYDERABAD BANGALORE MUMBAI DELHI DELHI RANCHI
60
Hence,
Q.183) Option (A).

11
Q.184) Option (C).
Q.185) Option (B).

18
Q.186) Option (D).
Q.187) Option (C).
Q.188) Dollar, Peso and Yen are currencies while Ounce is a unit of weight.
Option (C).
Q.189) First character of each term is: 2nd, 4th, 6thand 8th letter of alphabet (difference is 2)
Second character of each term is: 4th, 7th, 10th, 13th and 16th letter of alphabet (difference is 3)
Third character of each term is: 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, and 7th letter of alphabet (difference is 1)
Hence, the next term: 10th letter followed by 16th letter followed by 7th letter which is JPG.
Option (B).
Q.190) Coding is as follows:

N U R E M B E R G
–3 –3 –3 –3 +1 +4 +4 +4 +4
K R O B N F I V K
CP/20/C08
Hence, the answer is

A M S T E R D A M
–3 –3 –3 –3 +1 +4 +4 +4 +4
X J P Q F V H E Q
Option (B).
Q.191) Movement is as follows:
81
00
Applying Pythagoras Theorem,
24  72   25
60 2
Distance from starting point is
And direction from starting point is South East.
Option (C).
11
Q.192) Series is in the form of first letter of the months of October, November, December, January, …..
May, June and the next term will be July
Hence, the answer is J
Option (D).
18
Q.193) Total number of students = 12 + 1(Ramesh) + 29 = 42

Option (C).
Q.194) For Year 1901 + 02+ 03 + 04 + 05 + 06, the

Number of odd days = 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7 i.e. 0 odd days.
Thus, year 1907 has same calendar as year 1901.
Option (D).
S.195–200) Solution for Questions:
As per data given above,

A=D+3
G>F
B–F=C–D
Also, B is the middle number.
Let’s consider the arrangement (in ascending order as) :
Note: That between each consecutive number there is a gap = 1.
______B______
CP/20/C08
Now, As A = D + 3,
D cannot be smallest (as when D = smallest, A = B, which is not possible)
Also, D cannot be among the largest 3 numbers as then D + 3 = A will not be possible)
So, D can be the second smallest (or) third smallest.
Consider, D as second smallest: __D__B______
Then, A = D + 3 … can be expressed as __D__BA____
Also, we need to fulfill the condition: B – F = C – D
Suppose, F is smallest then, B – F = 3, then C – D = 3  C = D + 3, but then D + 3 = A (here) which is not
81
possible.
So, let’s take B – F = 1, then C – D = 1, but then C and F will both take same value as per case. This is
again not possible. Thus, D cannot be the second smallest number.
So, thus means D must be the third smallest number: ____DB______
Then, A = D + 3 …. can be expressed as ____DB__A__
00
So, now we need to fulfill the condition: B – F = C – D
This is only possible when B – F = C – D = 2
i.e. __FDBCA__
Also, as G > F, thus, G must be largest and E must be smallest. The numbers are in ascending order as
follows –
60
EFDBCAG
Thus, now let’s answer the questions that follow –
Q.195: The fifth integer in ascending order is C.

11
Q.196: A – F = 4, so G – 4 = D
Q.197: If A = 7, then E + G = 2 + 8 = 10
Q.198: As per the data above, A – F = 4
Q.199: C – E = 4, then T – C = 4
Also, T = A + E C + 4 = A + C – 4 A = 8
18
Now, A – D = 3 (as per arrangement)

So, 8 – D = 3  D = 5
Q.200: The smallest possible value of D = 3 (when E = 1)
The greatest possible value of C = 8 (when G = 10)
Thus, the difference = 8 – 3 = 5
Hence,
Q.195) Option (B).
Q.196) Option (D).
Q.197) Option (B).
Q.198) Option (D).
Q.199) Option (D).
Q.200) Option (D).
CP/20/C08
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00
60
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CP/20/C08

CLAT MOCK – 8 (Unproctored)

Q.3) 7th Para

Q.5) 1st Para

Q.6) 8th Para

Q.7) 7th Para

Q.8) Option (A).

Q.9) 1st Para

Q.10) 2nd Para

Q.11) 2nd Para

Q.12) over is the correct preposition

Q.13) folded is the correct tense

Q.14) whispered is the correct tense

Q.15) stirring is the correct tense

Q.16) tear is the correct tense

Q.17) on is the correct preposition

Q.19) where he ‘continued along’ a boulevard. Use ‘along’ instead of ‘about’.

Q.20) ‘At’ some point along his final walk.

Q.24) It means to hate.

Q.25) It means determined.

Q.26) It means to throw something hard.

Q.27) It means reserved.

Q.28) It means positive.

Q.29) CD and AB form a pair.

Q.30) DA form a pair. Passage starts with B and then goes to C.

Q.31) CDA forms a pair. B is the last statement of the set.

Q.32) AB and CD form a pair. Passage starts with AB.

Q.35) good invention.

Q.38) Option (B).

Q.39) Option (B).

Q.40) Option (D).

SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

connects St. Petersburg to Vladivostok.

borders China. The suspension bridge is also known as Byorung Bridge.

than 2,000 cases have been recorded, two–thirds of them fatal.

Q.88) Capital of Nigeria is Abuja.

SECTION – III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Q.92) Let the CP of an article be 100%.

Q.98) Let Shubham had Rs.x with her

Q.99) Product of three selected number is negative.

Q.100) Total amount of = 30×15 = 450 man–days.

According to the question,

Q.104) Let the current age of elder brother = x

Q.105) Required Bricks

Q.106) Ratio in which money should be distributed

Q.107) Total number of students  3 29791  31

Q.109) Let after t year, population be equal

Q.110) The expression can be written as –

SECTION – IV: LEGAL REASONING

‘copyleft’, intended to allow its free modification.

Q.126) Direct application of Rule A.

Q.139) Option (C).

Q.140) Option (D).

Q.143) Option (A).

SECTION – V: LOGICAL REASONING

Q.162) Option (B).

Q.163) Option (B).

Q.164) Option (C).

Q.165) Option (A).

Q.167) Option (D).

Q.169) Option (C).

Q.172) Option (D).

Q.178) Option (D).

S.179–180) Solution for Questions: