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CP/20/C30

MOCK CLAT–30
(Answer and explanation)

Section – I: English Language


Q.1) Option (B).
The museum’s director says he would have given up after throwing up three times.

Q.2) Option (D).


colour of food is not mentioned in the passage. Genetic reasons/ instinct is mentioned as a
mechanism to protect humans from harmful foods. (b) and (c) relate to learned acceptance of
disgusting food.

Q.3) Option (B).


if they are tasty, Americans would be surprised why these are included among disgusting foods. (d)
is irrelevant.

Q.4) Option (C).


“That, says Mr Ahrens, is the point. When people recognise that disgust depends in part on
upbringing, they can learn to overcome it, at least some of the time. They can open themselves to
new experiences. And maybe, just maybe, they might learn to be more tolerant of people from
unfamiliar cultures.”

Q.5) Option (A).


people may like some foods but find the cooking disgusting.

Q.6) Option (B).


the passage states that disgust can be genetic.

Q.7) Option (C).


the example is used in illustrating a fact that even extremely disgusting foods can be a delicacy to
some others.

Q.8) Option (A).


“When people recognise that disgust depends in part on upbringing, they can learn to overcome it,
at least some of the time.” Indicates that unpleasantness about food comes from upbringing and is
not inherent in the food.

Q.9) Option (A).


“A serious message lurks behind the grossness. Disgust is a necessary emotion. Without it, our
ancestors would have eaten rotten food and died.” Other reasons are not mentioned in the passage.

Q.10) Option (D).


last paragraph of the passage mentions this.

Q.11) Option (C).


a scholar is most likely to do research.

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Q.12) Option (D).


because this led to companies prioritising quarterly earnings over customer relationships. (a) is not
the answer because maximizing shareholder value is fine as long as this does not lead to
compromising on enhancing customer value.

Q.13) Option (C).


“giving value to customers maximises returns to shareholders as well.”

Q.14) Option (C).


the other three are mentioned in the second paragraph.

Q.15) Option (A).


this is shown by research the author has done.

Q.16) Option (B).


“After decades in which disposable fast fashion reigned supreme, brands will need to work hard to
help consumers make the paradigm shift to thinking that clothes aren’t short–term purchases but
long–term investments.”

Q.17) Option (C).


“The North Face seems to understand that design plays a crucial role not only in the sustainable
creation of new products”

Q.18) Option (C).


she proposes to her bosses

Q.19) Option (D).


“This limited–edition collection is more of a showcase than a representation of where the North
Face’s designers will take the brand’s garments.”

Q.20) Option (B).


“This process illustrates that clothes have an afterlife,”

Q.21) Option (A).


“four North Face designer had access to a pile of garments that were beyond repair, and each of
them created a one–of–a–kind piece from these scraps.”

Q.22) Option (B).


Hennessy learnt about parts that wear or tear first such as zippers and buttons.

Q.23) Option (A).


has not been mentioned. Others have been mentioned in para 3

Q.24) Option (A).


mentioned in the last paragraph.

Q.25) Option (C).


optimistic about making garments less harmful to the environment.

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Q.26) Option (C).


mentioned in paragraph 3

Q.27) Option (C).


at high temperatures, the pathogens remain inactive.

Q.28) Option (D).


has been mentioned in the last paragraph.

Q.29) Option (D).


has not been mentioned in the paragraph. The rest are mentioned in the first paragraph.

Q.30) Option (C).


the passage warns of pathogens becoming more active in future.

Section – II: Current Awareness


Q.31) Option (C).

Q.32) Option (D).

Q.33) Option (B).

Q.34) Option (C).

Q.35) Option (D).

Q.36) Option (C).

Q.37) Option (C).

Q.38) Option (A).

Q.39) Option (D).

Q.40) Option (D).

Q.41) Option (B).

Q.42) Option (D).

Q.43) Option (B).

Q.44) Option (A).

Q.45) Option (B).

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Q.46) Option (B).

Q.47) Option (A).

Q.48) Option (B).

Q.49) Option (D).

Q.50) Option (A).

Q.51) Option (C).

Q.52) Option (A).

Q.53) Option (B).

Q.54) Option (D).

Q.55) Option (B).

Q.56) Option (A).

Q.57) Option (A).

Q.58) Option (C).

Q.59) Option (A).

Q.60) Option (A).

Q.61) Option (A).

Q.62) Option (A).

Q.63) Option (A).

Q.64) Option (C).

Q.65) Option (C).

Q.66) Option (D).

Q.67) Option (A).

Q.68) Option (B).

Section – III: Legal Reasoning

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Q.69) Option (B).


Passage clearly talks the imprisonment must be wrongful or erroneous. A parent punishing their
child for committing a wrong would not fall in that category as such parent has parental authority.

Q.70) Option (D).

Q.71) Option (A).


Answer in last paragraph

Q.72) Option (A).


Last paragraph of passage

Q.73) Option (A).


Other things are not important. The paragraph does not talk about the capacity to carry out a threat.
The intention required is only to restrain the freedom of a person.

Q.74) Option (A).


The intention to restrain the person’s freedom of movement to the extent of the room was present.
The kiss was not a reasonable condition and the past relations do not justify the demand nor does
the fact that the girl had come in of her own volition. (The facts are silent as to why she wishes to
leave, maybe there was an argument and she does not want to continue her relation with Garfield
and in such a situation the kiss will not be justified at all.)

Q.75) Option (A).


The intelligence of Bruce has been established very clearly thus that should not be under question. If
there were a reasonable escape opportunity, he would have escaped. Assumptions regarding
windows would be wrong. The window could be grilled or way too high above the ground for Bruce
to reach. Irrespective, it was not traceable by a reasonable person. Hence, it cannot be consider a
reasonable escape route.

Q.76) Option (A).

Q.77) Option (B).


Option is self–explanatory

Q.78) Option (B).


State of mind is now important as per the passage and hence in the absence of intention to imprison
some, false imprisonment cannot happen.

Q.79) Option (A).


First para of passage contains the answer

Q.80) Option (A).


Apprehension was caused in the mind of the Y.

Q.81) Option (A).


There was no use of force by X.

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Q.82) Option (D).


Chasing down amounts to assault. Further, as soon as Romeo realized the hand coming up towards
his face there must have been an apprehension of hurt a split second before the slap hit.

Q.83) Option (C).

Q.84) Option (C).


The fact that he says those words clarify that he will not be attacking and hence there can be no
apprehension

Q.85) Option (A).


Holding a sword so close to the neck must have caused apprehension in the mind of the person that
the other person is about to inflict harm on him.

Q.86) Option (A).


The sudden drawing of the sword would result in an apprehension in the other person.

Q.87) Option (A).


The phrase would result in apprehension.

Q.88) Option (A).


The phrase would result in apprehension.

Q.89) Option (C).


The phrase would not result in apprehension due to the friendship between them.

Q.90) Option (A).


The passage does not talk about unfairness but only prescribes a certain procedure to be followed.

Q.91) Option (A).


The passage does not talk about unfairness but only prescribes a certain procedure to be followed
and 9 day–notice has been given.

Q.92) Option (D).


There is no information regarding the same. The procedure prescribed is for a meeting for urgent
business.

Q.93) Option (B).


The decisions shall become final when Directors of the entire company vote in favour of them, and
not a majority of those who were present. Hence, the decision becomes final only after at least one
absent Director ratifies the same.

Q.94) Option (B).


The passage prescribes the available means of sending notice in the first para.

Q.95) Option (B).


The friend has not induced any action of Raghav. Raghav had the bones and he still has them. Lying,
by itself, is not cheating.

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Q.96) Option (B).


There was no false representation for the sake of deceiving.

Q.97) Option (D).


The fact that there was intent to deceive and the offer was given completes the requirements.

Q.98) Option (C).


Rudolph did not make any representations. Had Nideovon even once mentioned to Rudolph that the
discount is because Rudolph is a IT officer, then Rudolph would have had to clarify.

Q.99) Option (B).


False misrepresentation with the intention to deceive.

Q.100) Option (B).


Joint intent was absent. No agreement happened.

Q.101) Option (D).


All of them agreed to implement the plan to kill Light

Q.102) Option (B).


Secretly entering someone’s house with the intention to do would be illegal. However, it was not
done with the required ‘mens rea’.

Q.103) Option (D).


Since he locked the room without the intention to restrain someone.

Q.104) Option (C).


Agreement to do something illegal + shooting + 5 people.

Q.105) Option (D).


Light did not aid the robbery knowingly. He just dropped his friends home.

Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques


S.106–110) Solution for questions:
Total vehicles sold excluding export in December 2019
= 124375 + 44254 + 30870 + 37953 + 6544
= 243996
Total vehicle sales in December 2019 = 302408
Export Sales = 302408 – 243996
= 58,412 vehicles

Q.106) Option (B).

Q.107) Option (D).


Required value = (66622/302408)  100 = 22%

Q.108) Option (A).

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Let the total vehicles sold by Hyundai in December 2018 be T.


Therefore, 90/100 of T = 42093
9T = 420930
T = 46770

Q.109) Option (D).


Required value = [(302408–314676)/314676]  100
= –4% (approximately)

Q.110) Option (B).

S.111–115) Solution for questions:


Let the length of the Train from A and it’s speed be l metres and S m/sec respectively.
In the first case, (l + 200)/S = 10
l + 200 = 10S –––––––––(1)
In the second case, l/(S – 5) = 5 –––––––––––––(2)
Therefore, l = 5S – 25
Substituting in –––––––––––(1), we have
5S – 25 + 200 = 10S
5S = 175
S = 35 m/sec
Substituting in ––––––––––(1) we get l = 150 m
Train from A starts at 8 am and reaches B at 4 pm ie it takes 8 hours.
Train from B starts at 10 am and reaches A at 10 pm ie it takes 12 hours.
The time taken by the 2 trains is in the ratio 8:12 ie 2:3 and so the speeds will be in the ratio 3:2.
Let the speed of the train from B be y m/sec.
So, 35/y = 3/2
y = 70/3 m/sec.
Let us first convert the speeds into kmph.
35 m/sec = 35  18/5 = 7  18 = 126 kmph
70/3 m/sec = 70/3  18/5 = 14  6 = 84 kmph
Train from A covers the distance in 8 hours.
Therefore, distance AB = 126  8 = 1008 km

Q.111) Option (B).

Q.112) Option (D).


Train from A starts at 8 am ie 2 hours before the train from B.
Distance covered in 2 hours = 126  2 = 252 km
Remaining distance = 1008 – 252 = 756 km
Relative speed = 126 + 84 = 210 km/hr
Time taken = 756/210 = 252/70
= 126/35 in hours
= 18/5 hours
= 3 hours and 36 minutes past 10 am.
The 2 trains will meet at 1.36 pm.

Q.113) Option (D).

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Q.114) Option (A).


The train from B met with an accident after travelling for 1 hour ie at 11 am.
Distance covered till 11 am by train from A = 126  3 = 378 km
Distance covered till 11 am by train from B = 84  1 = 84 km
Total distance covered = 378 + 84 = 462 km
Remaining distance = 1008 – 462 = 546 km
Speed of the second train = 84/2 = 42 kmph
Relative speed = 126 + 42 = 168 kmph
Time taken post 11 am = 546/168
= 78/24
= 13/4 hr
= 3.25 hours ie 3 hours and 15 minutes past 11 am.
The 2 trains will now meet at 2.15 pm

Q.115) Option (C).

S.116–120) Solution for questions:


In all such questions, the easiest approach is to solve the question in the reverse order ie from last to
first.
It is known that after the 3rd round A, B and C had Rs.1000, Rs.2000 and Rs.3000 respectively. Also,
the 3rd round was lost by C and so C must have doubled the amounts with A and B.
We must also know that in a question like this, the total amount within the system remains the
same.
Therefore, before the 3rd round A must have had Rs.500, B must have had Rs.1000 and the
remaining Rs.4500 must have been with C. (The total amount within the system is Rs.6000)
So, before the 3rd round they had
A: 500 B: 1000 C: 4500
Similarly, before the 2nd round they had
A: 250 B: 3500 C: 2250
Before the 1st round they had
A: 3125 B: 1750 C: 1125

Q.116) Option (B).

Q.117) Option (B).


Required value is [(2000–1750)/1750]  100
= (250/1750)  100
= 100/7 = 14.28%

Q.118) Option (D).


Amount with A at the end of round 1.

Q.119) Option (C).

Q.120) Option (D).


Required answer = [(1000–250)/250]  100 = 300%

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Section – V: Logical Reasoning


Q.121) Option (D).
Statement I is incorrect and contrary to the statement. It is not the underlying assumption for the
statement made. Hence options a and c are out. Option d is the right choice as statement II is the
underlying assumption. If people did not respond to such ads, it would have been immaterial for the
author to advertise it. Hence d is the right choice.

Q.122) Option (B).


Both statements I and II are incorrect choices hence b is the right answer. I is contrary to the
statement and hence cannot be said to be the right assumption. II is unrelated to the statement and
hence cannot be said to be the underlying assumption. It does not pertain to the style of drafting,
which is the theme of the premise.

Q.123) Option (c).

Q.124) Option (C).


Only I is the right choice. The premise states an ideal present for all occasion thus the underlying
assumption is that people like to give presents. I is therefore correct. While II maybe correct fact, it is
not an assumption underlying the premise. Hence, c is the right choice.

Q.125) Option (B).


Both I and II are contrary to the premise of reliance on Uber. Thus, b is the right choice.

Q.126) Option (B).


Applying the if conditional X therefore Y is correct. Government tapping calls is X hence Y i.e.
Government tapping new messaging forms, is also correct. Option b is the correct answer.

Q.127) Option (A).


Option a weakens the argument in favour of privacy as it points of the lack of guidelines that are
going to be safeguarding person data. Thus, weakens the argument in favour of privacy. Option b
strengthens the argument in favour of data privacy. Hence a is the right choice.

Q.128) Option (B).


Statement a weakens the argument in favour of privacy as it states that there is no safeguard
providing guidelines in place and the State can claim data. Hence a is weakening the premise in
favour of data privacy. Option b is the right choice as option b states the need for monitoring of data
that the state may collect. Hence b is the right choice as it is providing for a safeguard.

Q.129) Option (B).


Option b strengthens the need for surveillance against unlawful material and hence b is the right
choice. Option a suggests that data cannot be decrypted and hence beyond anyone’s domain and
beyond state surveillance as well; and hence a, c, and d are not the correct options.

Q.130) Option (A).


Option a brings out the weakness in the argument. This is so as it brings out the problem in tapping
phones itself. Hence a is the right choice.

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Q.131) Option (B).


Option b is the best option as it brings out the move of the government that is being discussed under
the paragraph. Moreover, it discusses the safeguards that should be incorporated hence b is the
right choice. Option a is a fact from the passage but is too generic to be a title and hence b is the
best suited choice.

Q.132) Option (C).


Both a and b bring out the similarities between the two countries hence both would further add to
the premise. Hence c is the right choice.

Q.133) Option (D).


From an economic boost as discussed in option a to advantages of crude oil and bio–energy, all
options are positive for entering into a relationship hence d is the right choice.

Q.134) Option (A).


Option a is suggesting a course of action which would further enhance the relationship and hence is
the right choice. Option b is only a statement and is not suggesting any course of action and as is
option c. Hence a is the right choice.

Q.135) Option (A).


Option a is more specific to the paragraph and hence is the right choice.

Q.136) Option (C).


Both options a and b bring out the duty of the Speaker to be neutral and independent and hence c is
the right choice. Option a is a comment on the state of being i.e. the speaker acting impartially and
hence strengthens the premise. Option b is emphasising on the principle of neutrality and hence c is
the right choice.

Q.137) Option (A).


Option a is the right choice and can be concluded from the para above. Option b cannot necessarily
be concluded from the above para and hence is not the right choice.

Q.138) Option (B).


Option b is the right choice as it illustrates the problem with non–neutral decisions. Hence b is the
right choice. Option a is contrary to the premise. Hence b is the right choice.

Q.139) Option (A).


Applying the if conditional, X  Y hence a is the right choice.

Q.140) Option (C).


The premise is drawing attention towards the urgency in addressing climate change hence both a
and b are right choices and c is the correct answer.

Q.141) Option (D).


Option a focuses on vulnerability arising out of heat waves, option b discusses reduction of outdoor
work hours, option c deals with the negative impact on GDP. Hence all strengthen the need to
address climate change and d is the right choice.

Q.142) Option (A).

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Applying the if conditional, x  y follows and hence option a follows.

Q.143) Option (C).


Option a and b suggest the loss due to climate change and hence c is the right answer.

Q.144) Option (B).


Option a is points of the gravity of the situation. Option b gives the incentive behind climate
solutions. Hence b is the right choice.

Q.145) Option (A).


Option a is the right choice as it targets the basis of the premise i.e. need for action to fight climate
change. Hence a is the right choice. Option b is a statement in furtherance of the premise stating
that McKinsey report supplements Thunber’s arguments however, option a is more accurate and
hence the right choice.

S.146–150) Solution for questions:


It is given that one of them had selected one sport, the other two and so on. Badminton was chosen
by only Mahesh which means Mahesh must be the person who chose all the 5 sports.
Also, Chess was the only sport selected by Raaghav and so Chess must be the sport selected by all
five of them.
There were at least three sports common between Reyyansh and Dhairya which means they would
have chosen 3 and 4 sports but not in any order.
Also, Reyyansh did not select Badminton and Football and so Reyyansh must have selected 3 sports
and Dhairya must have selected 4 sports.
Now, apart from football, every sport was selected by at least two people. So, Football must be
selected by two people.
So, for pratyush, one sport is definitely Chess and the other can be either Cricket or Carrom.
The solution looks as follows:
Mahesh: Cricket, Football, Badminton, Carrom, Chess.
Dhairya: Cricket, Football, Carrom, Chess.
Reyyansh: Cricket, Carrom, Chess.
Pratyush: Chess, Cricket or Carrom………………………….(2 cases)
Raaghav: Chess.

Q.146) Option (B).

Q.147) Option (B).

Q.148) Option (D).

Q.149) Option (A).

Q.150) Option (C).

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