Mock Clat-21: Question Paper Section - I: English

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MOCK CLAT–21
Question Paper
Section – I: English
S.1–5) Directions for questions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
Passage 1
Buddhism is an Eastern religion, but Buddhism is also considered a philosophy, because there’s
much more to Buddhism than meeting in a church and praying. Buddhism involves all facets of life.
While other religious traditions are meant to include all life activities as well, they often fail to
actively address that issue in the way that these issues are addressed in Buddhism.
The Buddha teaches that, in order to reach enlightenment, a person has to shun all material objects.
That includes ties with relatives and friends. The seeker of enlightenment must also be aware that
the human senses are deceptive. Being alone, in both body and mind, is the only way to reach true
enlightenment for the Buddhist. There is generally no mention of any god in Buddhism. Some view
Buddhism as a philosophy as opposed to a religious teaching.
There is a strict, prescribed path that must be followed. Despite this, the respect that Buddhist
individuals have for others is still very strong, and the way they shun material issues stops them from
being greedy, envious, covetous, or having other “traits” that would be seen as undesirable in many
people. Since this is the case, they are very able to show a great deal of respect toward their fellow
human beings.
The main point of the Buddhist teachings is elimination of suffering. The material world is all
suffering, since people are constantly afraid of things such as death, disease, and old age. The only
way to be free from all this suffering is to work toward a total, deep, inner calm. The Buddhists
believe this calm can be achieved and after it has been, the one who achieves it, when he dies, will
not be reincarnated again. They say this person will gain a blessed calm and he will be reborn no
more.
While rebirth is generally thought to be a religious issue, the calmness and lack of fear and suffering
that Buddhists work toward tie into philosophy more strongly than religion. Plato, for example, also
contemplated human nature and the issues behind truth, justice, and peace. Buddhists meditate by,
among other things, keeping to the self, both physically and in the mind. It is said that the body has
to go into seclusion first, because it makes the detachment of the mind easier. Although meditation
is not the same thing as prayer, devout Buddhists are clearly shunning the everyday things in the
search for something more meaningful, just as both philosophers and religious advocates have done
for centuries.
The contemplation and relaxation that often accompanies Buddhism makes many of these people
very calm and tranquil. They look at things from the larger picture, and they don’t worry too much
about small things, because they’re convinced these things will sort out in the end. The Buddhist
would usually rather examine a scenario from many different angles before he actually make a
decision about what the best thing is to do in any given circumstance. This opinion of tranquilly and
examination — both of the self and others — helps the Buddhist to show respect to society that he
might not otherwise have felt comfortable with.
No definitive stance is available on whether Buddhism is completely a religion or completely a
philosophy, as it seems to mix traits from both of those areas. A lot of information into the teachings
of Buddha and how to follow him if one wishes to can be found online. However it’s classified,
Buddhism brings peace and joy and tranquility to its followers, which is something they value and
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are willing to take the time to seek out. That makes it beneficial to those who follow it, regardless of
how it’s classified.
Q.1) Which of the following is the best interpretation of the word “shun” as used in the third
paragraph?
a) To dislike
b) To stay away from
c) To disobey
d) To discourage
Q.2) Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?
a) Buddhism
b) Lord Buddha’s way of life
c) Philosophy vs Religion
d) Eastern Philosophy
Q.3) Why is there confusion regarding the classification of Buddhism as a philosophy or a religion?
a) There is no confusion in reality.

b) This is because of confusion between the difference between Religion and Philosophy.
c) This is because Buddhism is not understood well.
d) This is due to the scope of Buddhism, which is not limited to religious actions and the lack of
existence of a God in it.
Q.4) Which of the following can be ascribed as the tone of the author?
a) Reverential
b) Appreciative
c) Neutral
d) Deprecating
Q.5) Which of the following is a Buddhist likely to agree with?
a) Buddhism is not for the faint hearted.

b) Human senses can be deceptive.
c) A person can be a very good Buddhist without going into seclusion.
d) Jealousy is an accepted trait in an individual.
Passage 2
Socrates, in the Republic, attempts to prove that justice is good in and of itself. In other words,
Socrates made a non–consequentialist argument for justice. But before he arrived at the non–
consequentialist view on justice he pointed out to Thrasymachus that justice is also consequentialist,
meaning it is relative to the actions of a person that pleases another. The interesting conversation
regarding justice started when Thrasymachus, Socrates’ interlocutor in Plato’s Republic, argued that
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morality and justice are not based on intrinsic properties that are inherent in these same values that
are independent of human perceptions or actions.
In short, what makes human actions just is not justice itself but the by–product of deeds that elicit
positive response in others. The thing is just because it pleases a person or is useful to him that js
what makes them just or morally good. Individual preferences then come into play in deciding if an
action is just or not. Socrates countered the arguments forwarded by Thrasymachus by saying that
justice and morality have two parts. First, he points out that justice can be useful and pleasing to all
not just to certain groups or persons depending greatly on human preferences unlike what
Thrasymachus believes. Justice can be good to all because some social arrangements could lead to
the advantage of the entire community. Justice therefore is just and advantageous to all, not just to
some or disadvantageous to others.
Socrates provides the natural dependence of humans on others as a perfect example of the
encompassing virtue of justice. According to Socrates, each needs others for their wants. All is
insufficient on his own. And this holds true in every situation whether economically or socially.
Division of labor has led to material and social benefits for all. Therefore, justice is good because it is
instrumental to the attainment of economic and social goods all need. Therefore, justice is
applicable to all. And each of us derived some good from justice.
This brings us to the second argument raised by Socrates – that justice is good in and of itself. In this
second view, Socrates convincingly made a non–consequentialist argument for justice. This is the
principal part of Socrates’ argument in response to Thrasymachus. This proves that the usefulness of
justice does not depend on the need to acquire something for ourselves. Justice is good in and of
itself. He argues that justice is intrinsic and independent of benefits and rewards. Justice is a virtue in
itself and does not need external validation.
Socrates argues that justice is the principal virtue of the human soul since justice serves as the basis
for the three other cardinal virtues – wisdom, courage and moderation. To delve deeper into this
claim by Socrates it is important to understand his definition of the human soul, the meaning of
virtue and the relationship of justice and human virtues.
Human soul means the total of human psychological faculties. The human soul separates people
from objects. It is immortal. Virtue in humans pertains to the capacity to carry out tasks well. Virtue
is always identified with a task or job. It is always related to something to perform a task.
Q.6) Define ‘interlocutor’ as used in paragraph 1:
a) Someone who translates information from one language to another.

b) Someone who takes part in a conversation.
c) Someone who facilitates conversation between two opposing individuals.
d) Someone who asks questions during a conversation.
Q.7) Which of the following would Thrasymachus agree with?
a) If a person does not like the outcome of your actions, you didn’t do justice.
b) If a person likes your actions, you didn’t do justice.
c) Justice is not meant for the entire society.
d) Justice is independent of morals.
Q.8) Which of the following is the central idea of this passage?
a) Socrates
b) Virtue
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c) Morals
d) Justice
Q.9) Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
a) Factual
b) Inferential
c) Analytical
d) Judgmental
Q.10) Why are the three virtues of courage, wisdom and moderation called “cardinal”?
a) Because they have been said by God.

b) Because all other virtues can be derived from these.
c) Because these are the most important of all virtues.
d) Because these three virtues are never found together.
Passage 3
MILTON FRIEDMAN argued for legalising insider trading on the grounds that it benefited all investors
by quickly disseminating new information. These days such leave–it–to–the–market views are
unfashionable. Regulators, lambasted for snoozing through the bubble, are keen to be seen rooting
out manipulation. The case they have brought against Raj Rajaratnam, co–founder of Galleon, a big
hedge–fund group, and five alleged co–conspirators could do much for their credibility.
At $25m, the ring’s alleged profits were not unusually large. More shocking is the breadth of
companies and the seniority of the individuals involved. Mr Rajaratnam, who is accused of soliciting
and trading on non–public information but denies wrongdoing, is a well–known investor in
technology stocks. Those said to have passed on tips about deals and upcoming earnings news at
various public companies include a senior executive at IBM and employees from Moody’s, a rating
agency, McKinsey, a consultancy, and Intel, a chipmaker.
The intricacy of this web highlights how many firms have access to privileged information from large
companies. Rating agencies, for instance, are told about pending deals so they can be ready with
upgrades or downgrades when the announcement comes. In this case a Moody’s analyst, who has
not been charged, allegedly received $10,000 for letting slip that Hilton Hotels was about to be
bought by Blackstone, a private–equity firm.
Insider trading can be hard to prove. The recipient of information must be shown to have
encouraged or known about a breach of fiduciary duty. The line between legitimate research and ill–
gotten information is fuzzy. There are other quirks. An insider–trading case against Mark Cuban,
owner of the Dallas Mavericks, a basketball team, was dismissed in July because he had not
promised not to trade on sensitive information.
Nailing hedge funds can be particularly difficult. Many trade in and out of stocks so frequently—
Galleon might do so more than 1,000 times a day—that it can be hard to link wrongdoing to specific
transactions. Front–running takeovers is just one concern. Funds can exploit small price movements,
often caused by mundane news—about, say, product development—and use derivatives.
The case against Mr Rajaratnam is based in part on the novel use of wiretaps, a technique previously
reserved for blue–collar criminals such as mobsters and terrorists. According to the complaint, he
was taped telling a co–conspirator to “buy and sell and buy and sell” shares in AMD, a technology
firm, to avoid drawing attention to illicit trades. Galleon’s traders were encouraged to sail close to
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the wind—as one put it, you “get an edge or you’re gone”. Investors are now flocking to pull their
money out, prompting Mr Rajaratnam to say on October 21st that he would wind down Galleon’s
funds. The affair even rocked share prices in his native Sri Lanka.
Regulators are looking to gain an edge, too, by stepping up their data–mining efforts. The Galleon
case benefited from the detection of suspicious trades by the New York Stock Exchange’s systems.
They are also looking for help from poachers–turned–gamekeepers, such as the Goldman Sachs man
hired to help shake up the Securities and Exchange Commission’s (SEC) enforcement division.
Officials warn of more big cases to come. Friedman would not be amused, but many will be only too
happy to see more Wall Street grandees in cuffs.
Q.11) Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage above?
a) The Galleon Affair

b) Inside Trading as per Friedman
c) Arresting Wall Street
d) SEC asleep behind the wheel
e) Affairs of the rich
Q.12) What is the overall attitude of the passage?
a) Factual
b) Opinionated
c) Judgmental
d) Inferential
e) Inferential and Judgmental
Q.13) Which of the following is likely to cause damage in the downfall of Galleon?
a) Jail time for the owner

b) Loss of reputation
c) Initiation of regulatory proceeding
d) All of the above
Q.14) What is the likely effect of the Rajaratnam case on the credibility of regulators?
a) It will increase
b) It will decrease
c) It will stay the same
d) It is not predictable
e) It depends on whether Rajaratnam wins the case
Q.15) According to the passage, which of the following can be used as a basis for manipulating the
prices for a stock?
I. No. of shares sold
II. Information about takeovers
III. Rating from a Rating Agency
IV. News related to product development
V. Earnings information
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a) I & II only
b) II, III & IV only
c) I, II & III only
d) II, III, IV & V only
e) I, II, III, IV & V
S.16–18) Directions for questions: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form
a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of
sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph,
Q.16)
A. One by one they all went ‘business casual’.
B. This sartorial revolution started, inevitably in Silicon Valley, but by last spring it had stormed even
the most sober and traditional banks, consultancies and law firms of Manhattan and the city of
London.
C. Only a year ago, the suit and tie seemed headed for extinction – along with other old economy
anomalies like profits, proven products and payment in cash.
D. In the new economy, workers would wear whatever clothing best got their creative juices flowing,
without unduly restricting freedom of movement and engaging in other activities de rigueur in the
modern cutting–edge working environment.
a) ADCB
b) CDBA
c) BACD
d) DBAC
Q.17)
A. When Big Steel and the auto industry were under pressure during the 70s from low–cost imports,
their first instinct was not change their outmoded manufacturing plants but to beseech the court, to
bar the outlanders.
B. But even favourable rulings like the one the Record Industry Association of America won in district
court against popular website MP3.com provide only temporary respite.
C. The legal system may be the last refuge of doomed business models.
D. The record industry has taken a similar track, charging the purveyors of digital music with
violating copyright law and Hair Use agreements.
a) ADCB
b) CBDA
c) CDAB
d) CADB
Q.18)
A. Africa is a place where the west prefers to salve its conscience on the cheap.
B. On the one hand, we feel a genuine moral pang when slaughter rages there.
C. On the other, Americans are not willing to die to stop it.
D. And sometimes a third factor makes the dilemma still more intractable.
a) CABD
b) ABCD
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c) DACB
d) ACDB
S.19–20) Directions for questions: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form
a coherent paragraph. The first and the last sentences are 1 and 6 and, the four in between are
labelled with a letter each. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
Q.19)
1. Make your friends instantly jealous or bored with your vacation snaps while you give them a call
on their mobile phones.
A. The J–SH04 allows users to transmit colour photos to other mobiles as e–mail attachments.
B. The phone’s screen is able to display stored images and even show the picture of a friend when
they call you.
C. This month Japanese communications firm J–phone will release the first mobile phone with a
built–in digital camera.
D. Images can also be instantly printed using a Sharp colour mobile printer.
6. Your boss could soon ask you to prove it the next time you say that you are in, your sick bed.
a) ABCD
b) DBAC
c) CDAB
d) CADB
Q.20)
1. Economist J.M. Keynes once suggested that when the IMF imposed strict conditions on a nation
seeking help for its ailing economy, the fund was merely being ‘grandmotherly.’
A. The IMF, critics also charge, has attempted to reform the economies of developing countries into
the image and likeness of Western Industrial nations – a new kind of imperialism.
B. But Thais and other Asians who had to turn to the Fund for help after the 1997 financial crisis
complain that grandmother was never like this.
C. Recovery everywhere has been slow and uneven.
D. Some of the structural changes the IMF demanded not only inflicted unnecessary pain on these
countries’ populations but also failed to achieve the intended effect.
6. A well–researched report issued this month by a former IMF staffer, argues that some of these
complaints have merit.
a) BDCA
b) DABC
c) ADBC
d) CABD
S.21–23) Directions for questions: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the
last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the
paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Q.21) Everything in this world has to have a ‘structure’, otherwise it is chaos. Before the advent of
mass transport and mass communications, the structure was simply there, because people were
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relatively immobile. People who wanted to move did so; witness the flood of saints from Ireland
moving all over Europe. ______
a) There was a great exodus of people during times of disaster.

b) The Irish saints or the scholars of the University of Paris had a very special reason to move.
c) There were channels of communication; there was mobility, but no foot–looseness.
d) Now, a great deal of structure has collapsed, and a country is like a big cargo ship in which the
load is in no way secured.
Q.22) Aside from our pursuit of health and its psychic corollary, wellness, another even more
powerful lure drives us – particularly women – toward the creed of slenderness: ‘beauty’. The
concept of beauty has a long, complex and variegated history but today the fashion industry and
advertisers have decreed that slim and fit are beautiful and that fat and flabby are worse than ugly.
They are hideous. And mere slenderness is not enough. Our ideal women, from dancer and Olympic
athletes to professional beauties like fashion models to the socially celebrated, like the Princess of
Wales, are women whose thin bodies appear to have not an ounce of subcutaneous flab. ______
a) We have virtually redefined beauty.

b) The face has lost its priority as the measure of loveliness.
c) Fashion magazines no longer focus primarily on clothes and cosmetics; their emphasis is on bodies
and how to perfect them.
d) Today, the average model is 23 percent below average weight.
Q.23) Despite the fact that China produces over half of the world’s Christmas decorations, the arrival
of the Christ–child remains deeply unwelcome in the offices of the Chinese Communist Party (CPC).
Since Mao Zedong died in 1976, two things have grown exponentially: the economy and religion –
and specifically Christianity. Not only is China now the largest economy in the world, it is set to
become the most Christian country within the next couple of decades. ______
a) While the Chinese government has been delighted with its world–beating economic performance,
it is worried that when Christians say that Jesus is lord and king, they are making a political
statement.
b) There are now more Chinese Christians (around 100 million) than there are members of the
Chinese Communist Party (85 million).
c) It is not the religion bit per se that the atheistic Communist party minds so much, it is the fact that
religious people acknowledge a different source of authority and are thus, potentially, a threat to
the state.
d) How ironic it is that an officially communist country makes for the most effective capitalists, and
that an officially atheistic country makes for the largest number of believers!
S.24–25) Directions for questions: Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised and
highlighted. From the italicised and highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (a or b) to
form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may
be selected to correctly complete to the set of sentences. Identify the letter corresponding to
correct word or phase in each sentence and indicate the correct sequence of letters in the box
provided below each question.
Q.24) Several multi–stored buildings were razed (a) / raise (b) to the ground due to the devastating
earthquake.
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People looked at him with a/an amused (a) / bemused (b) expression when he suddenly burst out in
anger.
A panel of intellectuals was convoked (a) / invoked (b) to discuss the issue.
He eventually paid a heavy price for turning a deaf ear to the wise counsel (a) / council (b) of his elders.
She has a flair (a) / flare (b) for dressing up in style and can carry herself well in any outfit.
a) ABAAA
b) ABBAA
c) BABBA
d) ABAAB
Q.25) One must not transgress (a) / transcend (b) the limits of decency.
His popularity was on the wane (a) / vane (b) ever since his involvement in the scandal.
The rioters doused (a) / dowsed (b) the effigy with petrol and set it ablaze.
The management was forced to accede (a) / secede (b) to the demands of the workers.
Politicians are generally evasive and forbear (a) / forebear (b) from commenting on sensitive issues.
a) AAAAA
b) AABAA
c) BBAAB
d) ABABA
Q.26) Architects and stonemasons, huge palace and temple clusters were built by the Maya without
benefit of the wheel or animal transport.
a) huge palace and temple clusters were built by the Maya without benefit of the wheel or animal
transport
b) without the benefits of animal transport or the wheel, huge palace and temple clusters were built
by the Maya
c) the Maya built huge palace and temple clusters without the benefit of animal transport or the
wheel
d) there were built, without the benefit of the wheel or animal transport, huge palace and temple
clusters by the Maya
Q.27) In astronomy the term “red shift” denotes the extent to which light from a distant galaxy has
been shifted toward the red, or long–wave, end of the light spectrum by the rapid motion of the
galaxy away from the Earth.
a) to which light from a distant galaxy has been shifted

b) to which light from a distant galaxy has shifted
c) that light from a distant galaxy has been shifted
d) of light from a distant galaxy shifting
Q.28) William H. Johnson’s artistic debt to Scandinavia is evident in paintings that range from
sensitive portraits of citizens in his wife’s Danish home, Kerteminde, and awe–inspiring views of
fjords and mountain peaks in the western and northern regions of Norway.
a) and
b) to
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c) and to
d) with
Q.29) In 1978 only half the women granted child support by a court received the amount awarded;
at least as much as a million and more others had not any support agreements whatsoever.
a) at least as much as a million and more others had not any

b) at least as much as more than a million others had no
c) more than a million others had not any
d) more than a million others had no
Q.30) According to a recent poll, owning and living in a freestanding house on its own land is still a
goal of a majority of young adults, like that of earlier generations.
a) like that of earlier generations

b) as that for earlier generations
c) just as earlier generations did
d) as it was of earlier generations
Section – II: Current Awareness
S.31–60) Directions for questions: Read the questions below and mark the option based on current
factual accuracy.
Q.31) A list of all the legal citizens of Assam is being prepared, the only state with such a document.
It has its roots in the Memorandum of Settlement or the Assam Accord signed between the Assam
State Students Union and the Government of India in 1985. The accord was an outcome of the
violent anti–migrant movement of the 1980s and contained various clauses to curb illegal migration.
Present exercise of preparing such a document has been conducted under the supervision of the
Supreme Court. Which document is being referred to here?
a) Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019

b) National Register of Citizens
c) Census 2021
d) Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunal) (IMDT) Act
Q.32) Recently, the Tamil Nadu Government told the Supreme Court that social media profiles of
users should be linked with their Aadhaar numbers. The Supreme Court has highlighted that there is
a need to find a balance between the right to online privacy and the right of the state to trace the
origins of hateful messages and fake news. Such a need for regulation of Social Media is becoming a
moot point due to –
1. Exponential increase in social media profiles
2. Quick spread of information or disinformation
3. To curb illegal activities such as spread of fake news, pornographic and anti–national content
4. To disempower some sections– which have been empowered by the anonymity of social media
such as women and certain caste groups.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below –
a) 1, 2 & 3
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b) 1 & 3
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Q.33) Recently the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court was increased from 31 to 34 including
the Chief Justice of India. Originally, under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution the strength of
Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). Which institution does
the Article 124 empower/authorise to increase the number of judges if it deems necessary?
a) Parliament
b) President
c) Committee consisting of four senior most judges of the Supreme Court
d) Chief Justice of India
Q.34) Recently, US formally labeled China a currency manipulator, further escalating its trade war
with China. It has “significantly weakened global expansion” late last year besides restructuring of
Global value chains (GVCs) and triggering currency war. It has had both positive and negative impact
on the Indian economy like ––
1. Growth in exports in the long term due to the fall out between the US and China.
2. increased investment and capital flow between India and the US and India and China as China and
the US seek to disentangle themselves.
3. Benefit to India’s Steel sector as the US is the world’s biggest steel importing country
4. weakening of the US dollar and decline of India’s exports.
Identify from the above the positive impacts on India –
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Q.35) Recently, the 10th Mekong–Ganga Cooperation Ministerial Meeting (10th MGC MM) was held
in Bangkok, Thailand. It is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries. Both the
Ganga and the Mekong are civilizational rivers, and the MGC initiative aims to facilitate closer
contacts among the people inhabiting these two major river basins. Which among the following
countries are not a part of the accord?
a) Myanmar
b) Thailand
c) Philippines
d) Laos
Q.36) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) G–7 is an intergovernmental organisation that was formed in 1975

b) The G7 or ‘Group of Seven’ are Canada, France, Australia, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and
the United States
c) The G7 was known as the ‘G8’ for several years. The Group returned to being called G7 after
Russia was expelled as a member in 2014.
d) India is not a member of the G7 group.
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Q.37) Recently, the draft legislation of the new Direct Tax Code (DTC) was submitted by the task
force, headed by Akhilesh Ranjan, to the Government of India. It is an attempt by the Government of
India to simplify the direct tax laws in India. Which of the following is not a desirable outcome of
direct taxes?
a) Simplification of processes for taxpayers due to features such as basic tax slabs
b) Reduction in malpractices through faceless assessment
c) Disincentive Effect on Work Effort and Saving
d) Bring objectivity in tax architecture
Q.38) Consider the following statements –

1. A cyclical slowdown is a more deep–rooted phenomenon, driven by disruptive technologies,
changing demographics, and/or change in consumer behaviour.
2. Current slowdown in India is due to, inter alia, slowdown in global economy, tight monetary and
fiscal policy and series of disruptions like demonetization and GST.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.39) Minimum Support Price (MSP) is issued by the government of India on the recommendations
of CACP for 25 crops. For which amongst the following crops Fair and Remunerative Price is issued
instead of MSP?
a) Maize
b) Tea
c) Jute
d) Sugarcane
Q.40) Recently, President gave assent to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The new Act, which
would replace the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, is not an amendment to the 1986 law, but a new
consumer protection law. Which amongst the following institutions is not provided for by the new
act?
a) National Consumer Rights Board

b) Central Consumer Protection Authority
c) Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions
d) Consumer Protection Councils
Q.41) Recently, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) released its Special Report on
Climate Change and Land (SRCCL). This report presents the most recent evidence on how the
different uses of land like forests, agriculture, urbanisation are affecting and getting affected by
climate change. As discussed in the report, how does climate change negatively affect land
degradation?
1. gradual changes in temperature and rainfall patterns, as well as changes in the “distribution and
intensity of extreme events”.
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2. influencing species invasions and the degradation that they cause.

3. Increased Heat waves threaten the already drought–prone areas.
Choose the answer from the codes given below –
a) Only 1
b) 1 & 2
c) 1 & 3
d) 1, 2 & 3
Q.42) The core idea behind National River Linking Project (NRLP) is transfer of ‘surplus’ water from
one basin to another ‘deficit’ basin. It is being managed by India’s National Water Development
Agency (NWDA), under the Union Ministry of Water Resources. Which amongst the following river
linking projects has been approved by the Union Government recently?
a) the Ken–Betwa link project

b) the Damanganga–Pinjal link project
c) the Godavari–Cauvery link project
d) Kosi–Mechi river–interlinking project
Q.43) Recently, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has declared Ocean Energy as renewable
energy. A variety of different technologies are currently under development throughout the world to
harness this energy in all its forms. In this direction, the Government has been trying to utilize the
Ocean Energy Capacity. Which among the following are not included in the ocean energy?
a) Tidal energy
b) Cyclonic energy
c) Ocean thermal Energy Conservation
d) Current energy
Q.44) The Composite Water Management Index 2019 measures the performance of States on a
comprehensive set of water indicators and reports relative performance in 2017–18 as well as trends
from previous years (2015–16 & 2016–17). Consider the following statements about the index ––
1. Both surface water and groundwater in India was highly exploited with Chandigarh as the most
water–stressed
2. The NITI Aayog releases the index
Which amongst the following is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.45) Recently, the Draft National Resource Efficiency Policy (NREP) 2019 was placed in public
domain. It is guided by the principles of – Reduction in primary resource consumption to
‘sustainable’ levels, in keeping with achieving the Sustainable Development Goals and staying within
the planetary boundaries – Creation of higher value with less material through resource efficient and
circular approaches. Which Ministry/Department/ organization is responsible for drafting it?
a) The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
CP/20/C21
b) Department of Consumer Affairs

c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Q.46) Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the Environmental
and Social Management Framework (ESMF) in public domain. It is part of a World Bank–funded
project named ENCORE (Enhancing Coastal and Ocean Resource Efficiency Program). Which of the
following is its objective?
a) to manage the social and environment impacts through appropriate measures

b) to implement the SDGs regarding environmental and social issues
c) to evolve the strategy for mitigating adverse impacts of climate change
d) to involve civil society and other stakeholders in increasing green cover
Q.47) Recently, The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued operational
guidelines for the implementation of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan
Mahabhiyan (PM Kusum) Scheme. Which form of renewable energy is covered under this scheme?
a) Hydel energy
b) Wind energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Solar energy

1. The concept of granting legal rights to non–human entities is very new.
2. It has been recently applied in India, being the first such instance in the world.
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 & 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.49) Gogabeel is an ox–bow lake in Bihar’s Katihar district. It is formed from the flow of the rivers
Mahananda and Kankhar in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. It has been declared as a
–
a) Wetland of Bihar
b) Bird Sanctuary
c) Community Reserve
d) Wildlife sanctuary
Q.50) On the World Population Day (July 11th), some concerns were raised that there has been a
“population explosion” in the country. Consider the following statements with respect to the
population of India –
1. India is passing through the last phase of Demographic transition – high growth rate with definite
signs of slowing down.
2. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS)–4 revealed that majority of the states in the country
have already achieved replacement level fertility (2.1).
CP/20/C21
Which of the above statements are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.51) Emissions Gap Report–2019 warns that the Earth’s average temperature may rise by 3.2
degrees Celsius by 2100. Moreover, despite all scientific warnings and political commitments
emissions of greenhouse gases (GHG) couldn’t decrease globally. It states that GHG emissions have
increased by 1.5% since last decade and that carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions have reached an all–
time high figure of 55.3 gigatons. China, United States of America (USA), European Union (28) and
India are among the top four greenhouse gas emitters. Which amongst the following organizations
releases Emission Gap Report?
a) World Bank
b) Greenpeace
c) United Nations Environmental Program
d) Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change
Q.52) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code provides for a time–bound process to resolve insolvency
and it creates various institutions to facilitate resolution of insolvency. The Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) has referred Dewan Housing Finance Corp. Ltd (DHFL) for insolvency proceedings, making it the
first financial services player to go for a possible debt resolution. Which amongst the following
tribunals/commissions is responsible for resolution of such insolvency issues of corporates?
a) Debt Recovery Tribunal

b) National Company Law Tribunal
c) Asset Reconstruction Company
d) Competition Commission of India
Q.53) The 47th All India Police Science Congress (AIPSC) was organised from 28–29 November 2019
by Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D). The conference deliberated on major
changes in penal acts like Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and Indian Penal Code (IPC), along with
Arms Act and Narcotics Acts to strengthen internal security. Where among the following places was
the conference held?
a) Hyderabad
b) Pune
c) Bengaluru
d) Lucknow
Q.54) The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has launched the India chapter of its
new initiative, Accelerator Lab in New Delhi. The objective behind launching lab is to address some
of the most pressing issues facing India, including air pollution, through innovation. To achieve its
objectives, the UNDP has also partnered with Atal Innovation Mission (AIM). Which is the nodal
organisation/ministry implementing AIM?
a) Ministry of HRD
CP/20/C21
b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

c) Niti Aayog
d) Ministry of Science and Technology

1. BRAHMOS has been jointly developed by India and Russia and has been in service with Indian
Navy since 2005.
2. It is world’s fastest cruise missile and has a strike–range of over 290 km.
3. BRAHMOS missile have subsonic speed of Mach 0.8.
Which of these are the correct statements?
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1 & 3
c) 1 & 2
d) 2 & 3
Q.56) Satish Dhawan Space Centre (or SHAR spaceport) at Sriharikotta is responsible for integration
of launchers. SDCC houses two operational launch pads from where all GSLV and PSLV flights take
place. Union Government is planning to set up a new rocket launch pad which is intended to be used
for future Indian rockets including– Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mk III, Avatar
Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV), Unified Modular Launch Vehicle (UMLV), Small Satellite Launch
Vehicle (SSLV), and even older ones like Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous
Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). In which of the following places is the new launch pad proposed to
be set up?
a) Kulasekarapattinam in Tamil Nadu

b) Kottayam in Kerela
c) Srikakulam in Andhra Pradesh
d) Jagatsinghpur in Odisha
Q.57) The 1st International Conference on ‘Landslides Risk Reduction and Resilience – 2019’ was
held in New Delhi. This international event will develop a road map towards landslide risk reduction
and resilience via networking, collaboration and coordination amongst different stakeholders. It was
organised by a premier institute for trainings and capacity development in India and the region,
which has been assigned nodal responsibilities for research, capacity building, human resource
development (HRD), training, documentation and policy advocacy in field of disaster management.
Which organization/ ministry is being referred to?
a) National Disaster Management Authority

b) National Institute of Disaster Management
c) National Mission for Himalayan Ecosystem
d) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change

1. The Lokpal would consist of a chairperson and a maximum of ten members of which 50 per cent
shall be judicial members.
2. The ambit of Lokpal would cover all categories of public servants, excluding the Prime Minister
and the armed forces.
CP/20/C21
3. Lokpal is appointed based on the recommendation of the five–member panel comprising the
Prime Minister, the Lok Sabha Speaker, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India and
an eminent jurist nominated by the President.
4. Lokpal will also have powers of superintendence and direction over any investigation agency
including CBI for cases referred to them by the Lokpal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 3 & 4
Q.59) Launched in 2015 with an aim to provide loans up to 10 lakh to the non–corporate, non–farm
small/micro enterprises, this scheme provides loans through Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance
Banks, Cooperative Banks, MFIs and NBFCs. Loans are provided under three categories: Shishu,
Kishor and Tarun. Which is the scheme being referred to?
a) Prime Minister Employment Guarantee Program

b) Start Up and Stand Up Program
c) NBFC – MFI
d) PM MUDRA Yojna
Q.60) The Sumatran Rhinos are the smallest of the five extant rhino species in the world. In India the
Sumatran Rhinos occurred in parts of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Tripura and Chittagong hills in the
19th century. However, the last Sumatran Rhino of India was killed in 1967. The species is now
extinct in India. With the death of Iman, there are only 80 Sumatran Rhinos left in the world. All the
80 are currently in Indonesia in the Indonesian part of Borneo and Sumatra Island. Which country
did Iman belong to?
a) Myanmar
b) Thailand
c) Philippines
d) Malaysia
Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

S.61–64) Directions for questions: These questions have the same principles, but different factual
situations. Apply the relevant principles to the given factual situations to choose the correct answer
from the options that follow.
Principles:
A. Individuals deserve to be protected against the possibility of exploitation inherent in standard
form contracts. Such contracts, also known as “contracts of adhesion” mean that the individual has
no choice but to accept and adhere to the conditions stated in them. These are common in contracts
with big organizations or in executing tasks like parking, dry–cleaning etc.
B. An acceptor will not be bound by the terms and conditions of such contracts if the person
delivering the document does not give adequate notice to the offeree of the printed terms and
conditions.
CP/20/C21
C. The notice of the terms should be given before or at the time of the contract and not afterwards.
Q.61) Sidhu and Archana had been working very hard on a project. As soon as it was completed, they
wanted to cool their heels and signed up for a yoga retreat in the Shiwaliks. They paid Rs. 30,000 as
advance for the package. When they checked into the hotel where the retreat was, there was a
notice on the wall that read, “The organizers of the retreat will not be personally responsible for any
loss of belongings or injury accruing to patrons at the venue.” Archana twisted her ankle while
performing some of the yoga poses. Are the organizers liable?
a) Yes, because Sidhu and Archana did not sign any express contract regarding the retreat.
b) Yes, because Sidhu and Archana were unsuspecting about the terms of the retreat.
c) No, because Sidhu and Archana were bound by the standard form contract of the retreat as soon
as they had paid the advance amount.
d) No, because Sidhu and Archana should have been more careful and should have double–checked
before paying for the retreat.
Q.62) Meeta went to the dry–cleaners’ to give her vintage winter coat for drycleaning. There, she
was taken aback to see that there was a huge queue. When she inquired, the lady standing in queue
in front of her said, “Well, there’s this new system here now. They have a two–page long agreement
that each patron has to sign before handing in their clothes. Apparently, they had some sour
experiences a few days back and want to protect themselves for future.” Meeta, who knew the
owner, Nikhil, peeked inside and said, “Nikhil, please just take this coat. I’ll sign the document or
whatever it is immediately. I trust you.” Nikhil hands her the document which she signs without a
glance and deposits her coat with him. A few days later, Meeta discovers that her coat has been
damaged during the cleaning. Nikhil offers to pay her the value of the coat as compensation as per
the terms of the agreement she had signed. Meeta flips, “What? I will sue you. I didn’t know that
document of yours had these unreasonable conditions!”
a) Meeta is correct because she never read and understood the terms and conditions before signing
the document.
b) Meeta is correct because Nikhil should have drawn her attention to such onerous terms and
conditions before accepting her clothes.
c) Meeta is incorrect because she herself did not take adequate notice of the terms and conditions
that were being presented by Nikhil.
d) Meeta is incorrect because the compensation being offered to her is a fair deal.
Q.63) Yaseen was boarding a ship from Dahej to Thiruvananthapuram. He deposited his bag in the
luggage compartment and got a folded chit of paper in return. There were some conditions printed
at the back of that chit but there was a huge black stamp across them that made them almost
unintelligible. On reaching Thiruvananthapuram, Yaseen was shocked to find his bag missing. He was
told by the luggage in–charge that the chit of paper handed to him clearly exempted the latter from
any liability for loss of belongings of passengers in transit. Is the luggage in–charge liable in this case?
a) Yes, because such a blanket exemption is unreasonable.

b) Yes, because Yaseen had not been given proper notice of the terms.
c) No, because Yaseen should have checked for such terms and conditions before or on handing his
bag.
d) No, because the terms and conditions were present on that chit of paper and Yaseen should have
made an effort to read them.
CP/20/C21
Q.64) Maitri went to park her vehicle at the cinema hall parking. Before pressing the button on the
parking ticket machine slot, she read the notice beside it that said, “Parking charges Rs. 50 FLAT for
all vehicles.” Maitri pressed the button and the ticket was issued. She was astonished to see that it
was for Rs. 100. She went to the parking office to inquire about this and was told that this was the
amount she would have to pay now that the ticket had been issued. Who is correct in this scenario?
a) Maitri, because she can still evade the situation by not parking her vehicle there at all.
b) Maitri, because she was not given adequate notice of the charges beforehand.
c) The parking authorities, because the ticket was issued only after Maitri pressed the button.
d) The parking authorities, because such small variations in parking charges are commonplace and
acceptable.
Principles:
A. The tort of negligence involves a breach of a legal duty to take care that results in damage,
undesired by the defendant, to the plaintiff.
B. In order for liability under this tort to arise, the plaintiff must prove the following essentials–
(1) The defendant owes a duty of care to the plaintiff;
(2) The defendant made a breach of the duty, that is, he failed to exercise due care and skill;
(3) The plaintiff suffered damage as a consequence of this.
Q.65) Seema and her eight–year old son, Vivek, go to the temple on a busy day. Seema is buying
some offerings from a vendor when Vivek leaves her side and starts roaming around. Prabhat,
another vendor, notices that a bull is charging towards Vivek. He starts shouting for help but before
anyone can come to the rescue, the bull rams into Vivek, injuring him badly. Seema comes rushing
and Prabhat tells her that he tried to call for help but by then the catastrophe had already struck.
Seema wants to sue Prabhat for negligence. Advise her.
a) Prabhat can be proved guilty of negligence because he was an eyewitness and owed a duty of care
to Vivek.
b) Prabhat can be proved guilty of negligence because Vivek is a minor and as a neighbor and de
facto guardian, Prabhat owed him a legal duty of care.
c) Prabhat is not guilty of negligence because he is a mere bystander and does not owe any legal
duty of care to Vivek or Seema.
d) Prabhat is not guilty of negligence because he tried to fulfill his legal duty of care towards Vivek
but failed in spite of it.
Q.66) Latika goes to Romila, a renowned dentist, for surgery on her wisdom tooth. Before the
surgery commences, Latika is asked to fill up a form regarding her past medical condition and other
details that the doctor should be aware of before operating on her. In a rush to get the surgery
done, Latika ticks ‘Yes’ in all the columns. When starting with the operation, Romila notices that
Latika has ticked a ‘Yes’ in the column on ‘Would you prefer not being given anesthesia during the
surgery?’ She begins with the surgery after only numbing a part of Latika’s mouth for the extraction
of her wisdom tooth. Latika is overcome with fear during the surgery and starts flailing her arms,
disturbing Romila and a needle gets lodged in her mouth. Is Romila liable for negligence?
CP/20/C21
a) Yes, because she should have been aware that lack of anesthesia during such a surgery may cause
problems.
b) Yes, because being a competent dentist, she should not have been affected by Latika’s actions.
c) No, because Latika was at fault for not having read the form correctly.
d) No, because Romila did not owe a legal duty of care to Latika.
Q.67) Assume that in the above facts, while Latika had filled the form correctly, during the surgery
Romila skipped reading some parts that were not relevant to the surgery and operated on Latika.
Post the surgery, Latika heard Romila mentioning this to a nurse, “Some parts of the form need to be
truncated because they are not that relevant to the surgeries here.” Can Latika sue Romila for
negligence?
a) Yes, because it could have cost Latika her life.

b) Yes, because Romila mentioned it to a nurse and so it must have been of consequence.
c) No, because no harm accrued to Latika from the injury.
d) No, because Latika should have ensured that Romila reads the form in its entirety.
Q.68) Latika’s sister, Pramila, comes to pick her up after the surgery. She sees an altercation
between Latika and Romila and seeing that Romila is about to thrust a needle in Latika in fury,
Pramila steps between them. The needle pierces through Pramila’s stomach and she falls to the
floor, writhing in pain. Is Romila liable for negligence in the instant case?
a) Yes, because she is a doctor and should be more careful with such equipment.
b) Yes, because Pramila is related to Latika, who is Romila’s patient.
c) No, because Romila acted under grave and sudden provocation.
d) No, it is not a case of negligence.
S.69–70) Directions for questions: For the next two questions, read the accompanying passage given
and select the deduction that seems most appropriate.
Q.69) “…most English judges and commentators saw common–law reasoning (the incremental
creation or modification of law through judicial resolution of particular disputes) as supreme, as
declaring existing law, as discovering the requirements of “Reason,” as the immemorial wisdom of
popular “custom.”“ [Source: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/austin–john/]
a) India is a common–law jurisdiction.

b) India is not a common–law jurisdiction.
c) In India, judges rely solely on codified law.
d) None of the above
Q.70) “normative force of law—i.e., law’s claim to rightfully tell people what they ought to do.”
[Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/philosophy–of–law/Positivism] Which of these may be
considered normative in nature?
a) Traffic rules must be obeyed.

b) Whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
c) Both (a) and (b)
CP/20/C21
Principles:
A. All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
B. The above right includes the liberty of the press.
C. This does not mean that the operation of any existing law, or the State making any law is
prevented as long as the law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the above right in
the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations
with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation
or incitement to an offence.
Q.71) Bhairav is a firebrand journalist, known for his staunch opposition of the ruling party. While he
runs his own newspaper, Voice Here, he is also a regular on many news channel debate panels on
television. The legislature passes a law as per which journalists cannot run newspapers of their own
and be a part of televised debates on political issues, citing a tendency of ‘some journalists’ to go
overboard with government criticism in a bid to grab more eyeballs. Is this law permissible in light of
the Principles?
a) Yes, because it is made to protect public order.

b) Yes, because it is made in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India.
c) No, because it amounts to pre–censorship.
d) No, because it does not impose reasonable restrictions.
Q.72) Bhairav files a writ petition against this law, claiming that there is no reasonable basis behind
it. The Court recommends that the legislature re–look at the law. After much deliberation in
Parliament, the law is modified such that if a journalist who is active on televised debates on political
issues wants to publish in print media, whether his own or owned by anyone else, he/she needs to
submit the article for approval to a Press Division Committee (PDC) headed by a Chairperson chosen
by the Parliament and three other members chosen from among the political parties present. In light
of the Principles given, is the modified law permissible?
a) Yes, because it is non–partisan in nature given the composition of the PDC.

b) Yes, because it does not amount to a total ban on the pursuits of journalists.
c) No, because it amounts to an unreasonable restriction on the pursuits of journalists.
d) No, because the nature of the PDC is likely to be biased.
Q.73) Imtiaz makes a film, Dhula Dhaaga, about the issue of child labour in garment factories in India
and in some other neighbouring South Asian countries such as Bangladesh and Vietnam. The censor
board orders Imtiaz to delete the parts of the film pertaining to Bangladesh and Vietnam because
they are both countries having friendly relations with India. Is this direction of the censor board in
accordance with the Principles?
a) Yes, because it is within the ambit of the grounds mentioned in Principle C.

b) Yes, because there is no total prohibition on the right of Imtiaz to exhibit his film.
c) No, because this is against Principle B.
CP/20/C21
d) No, because this is not a reasonable restriction in line with Principle C.
Q.74) The government passes an order as per which a newspaper cannot publish more than 10
pages daily, citing that massive wastage of paper has been noticed owing to indiscriminate use of
paper in publishing glossy supplements and advertisements with no intrinsic “journalistic value”. The
Newspapers Consortium Limited (NCL) cites that this order amounts to a violation of the freedom of
the press. Is the NCL’s claim correct?
a) Yes, because freedom of the press includes the freedom to publish as one pleases.
b) Yes, because freedom of the press includes the freedom of circulation and such an order may
adversely affect it.
c) No, because freedom of the press is restricted to content and not such technical requirements.
d) No, because freedom of the press here is restricted based on Principle C.
Principles:
A. Where a person moves a movable property intending to take it dishonestly, out of the possession
of any person without that person’s consent, he is said to commit theft.
B. The consent mentioned in Principle A above may be express or implied, and may be given by the
person in possession, or by any person having express or implied authority for that purpose.
Q.75) Valusha is a fashion designer of repute. During the Pune Fashion Week (PFW), she has a major
falling–out with one of the other designers, Cameron, who, unfortunately also happens to be close
to the organizers of the PFW. He gets Valusha thrown out of the premises and retains some of the
attire from her collection with the intention of presenting it as his own. Valusha breaks into the
premises a day before the fashion show and takes away the attire designed by her for she would
never let Cameron take credit for her work and creativity. Is Valusha guilty of theft here?
a) Yes, because the attire was in Cameron’s custody at the time she took it.
b) Yes, because she had no right to break into the premises and take the attire.
c) No, because a person cannot be guilty of taking away their own thing.
d) No, because the attire was wrongfully retained by Cameron.
Q.76) Valusha runs away with the attire and reaches home only to find that it is stained with
markings, along which Cameron was supposedly wanting to cut and modify the dress. The next day
she goes to the laundry and gives the dress for cleaning. The laundry manager, Jignesh, tells her that
since the fabric of the dress is very delicate, the cleaning process will be more time–consuming and
technical, and cost her Rs. 2,000 in all. Valusha agrees. The truth is that the laundry owner is ripping
her off because the process would not cost more than Rs.1,000 at any other shop but Valusha knows
of no other place nearby and agrees. A few days later, she comes to know that her friend got a
similar laundry job done for Rs.800 and gets enraged. She goes to the laundry shop and discreetly
takes away her attire hanging on the side to teach the laundry person a lesson. Is Valusha guilty of
theft?
a) Yes, because the dress was in the laundry shop owner’s possession at the time that she took it
away.
CP/20/C21
b) No, because the laundry shop owner tried to rip her off by charging exorbitantly and deserved
this.
c) No, because no one can be held guilty for taking away for her own things.
d) Yes, because she had stolen the dress from Cameron in the first place.
Q.77) Sonia is Tanya’s best friend. Sonia goes to Tanya’s house for working on a science project. She
is surprised to find that Tanya had to run for an errand and has left a message for Sonia to continue
with the project at her house and they can meet tomorrow. Sonia asks to see the model of the solar
system that they were building and Tanya’s roommate, Shirley, lets her enter. Sonia picks up the
model and tells Shirley that she is taking it to her place to work on it for the day. Has Sonia
committed theft?
a) Yes, because she has taken away the model without Tanya’s consent.
b) Yes, because she has taken away the model despite Tanya’s clear instructions to the contrary.
c) No, because Sonia is Tanya’s best friend.
d) No, because Sonia did not take away the model dishonestly.
Q.78) Vedika runs a pharmacy. She leaves her sister, Mihika, in charge one evening because she has
to go and buy new supplies. During this time, Chintu comes to the pharmacy and asks Mihika to
hand him two strips of Paracetamol tablets and a bottle of cough syrup, saying that he had paid for
them when Vedika was there a few hours ago but the medicines were not there and she had said
that he could come and collect them later. Mihika tries calling Vedika to confirm but when the latter
does not answer the calls, Mihika trusts Chintu and gives him the medicines without payment. When
Vedika returns to the shop, she is shocked to hear of this incident because she had not taken any
advance from the said man. Is Chintu guilty of theft?
a) Yes, because he lied about having paid Vedika an advance.

b) Yes, because he did not take Vedika’s consent before taking the medicines.
c) No, because he took the medicines with Mihika’s consent.
d) No, because Vedika should have picked up when Mihika had called to verify Chintu’s claim.
S.79–80) Directions for questions: These questions have the same principle, but different factual
situations. Apply the relevant principle to the given factual situations to choose the correct answer
Principle: Fraud arises by–

(1) the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true;
(2) the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact;
(3) a promise made without any intention of performing it;
(4) any other act fitted to deceive;
(5) any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent.
Q.79) Kunal appears in a job interview and seeks a salary of Rs. 60,000 per month. The employer,
Mandana, is impressed with his resume and sends him an offer letter with a salary of Rs. 70,000 per
month. Kunal joins work but is paid Rs.60,000 at the end of the month. When he confronts Mandana
about this, she tells him that that is the amount he had asked for initially anyway. Is Kunal a victim of
fraud in the instant case?
a) Yes, because he joined the job based on Mandana’s offer.
CP/20/C21
b) No, because he got the salary he had sought.

c) No, because there are always standard deductions from the salary stated on the offer letter.
d) It cannot be determined
Q.80) Fatima puts up pictures of anklets she bought in Jaipur for sale online, stating– ‘Vintage silver
anklets for sale.’ When a prospective customer, Payal, contacts her to purchase the anklets, Fatima
quotes Rs. 7,000 for the set. Payal asks her if she knows more about the history of the anklet
because the online advertisement stated that the anklets are ‘vintage’. Fatima says that she bought
the anklets just outside Hawa Mahal from a shop that sells replicas of royal jewellery. Payal
purchases the anklets but is disappointed to find that the anklets did not resemble the pictures
posted by Fatima online but came in a box with a ‘Hawa Mahal Replica Gems’ label. Has Payal been
defrauded?
a) Yes, because the anklets are counterfeit.

b) Yes, because Fatima has done an act to deceive Payal.
c) No, because Payal should have verified Fatima’s claims before the purchase.
d) No, because the box with the anklets is genuine and in line with Fatima’s claims.
Q.81) Legal Principle: A person is said to have caused an effect “voluntarily” when they cause it by
means whereby they intended to cause it, or by means which, at the time of employing those
means, he knew or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it. A person is presumed to intend and
know the natural consequences of his act and therefore in performing the act he voluntarily causes
the consequence.
Fact situation: X hits the head of Z with a laathi, so that Y, his friend and co–accused can steal Z’s
belongings. Z dies from the impact on his head. Can it be said that X caused Z’s death voluntarily?
a) Yes, because he used violent means to commit the robbery

b) No, because his ulterior motive was to steal
c) Yes, because he would have known that a head injury can cause death
d) No, his intention was not to kill Z but just to commit robbery
Q.82) Legal Principle: A person abets an offence, who abets the commission of an offence.
Fact situation: A and D are neighbours in a village. They have had family disputes going on for the
last four generations. B, A’s friend comes to his village to visit him. In the course of a few days, A
gives B a gun and instigates him to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation poisons D. D,
however does not die and recovers after a month. Would A be guilty of abetting B to commit
murder?
a) No, because D did not die

b) Yes, because B attempted acted on the instigation
c) No, because B used poison to attempt the murder, and not the gun that A gave him
d) Yes, because A’s crime is abetting murder which is independent on the consequence
Q.83) Legal Principle: Whoever moves a property out of the possession of any person without that
person’s consent with an intention to take it dishonestly is said to commit theft.
Fact situation: Roshan is visiting his friend Saahil at the latter’s residence. As Sahil is out for his
morning walk, Roshan is asked to wait for him to return. Roshan wanders into Sahil’s library, all
alone, and takes a book, for the purpose of reading. When will this act become an act of theft?
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a) If Roshan makes use of the book and reads the book in the library while he waits
b) If Roshan takes it away with him without asking Sahil, with an intention of returning it
c) If Roshan keeps it in his pocket and forgets to keep it back
Q.84) Legal Principle: When an agent commits a wrongful act in the course of performing his duty as
an agent, the principal for whom the agent is working is also liable vicariously.
Fact situation: The driver of a jeep, which belonged to A, negligently left the ignition key in the jeep
and went to a grocery store to buy some vegetables. This provided a chance to B to get inside the
jeep and drive it away. Just down the road, it resulted in an accident. Will the owner of the car be
liable in this case?
a) No, because he was not driving the car

b) Yes, because he will be liable for the driver’s negligent act of leaving the car unattended with the
key
c) No, because the driver who was in his employment did not cause the accident
d) Yes, because the accident resulted in two people getting grievously injured
Q.85) Legal Principle: Defamatory statement is a false statement, written or oral, which tends to
injure the reputation of the a person in eyes of the members of the society.
Fact situation: Mary and Steven are classmates in college. They have a fight after which Mary writes
the following on whiteboard of her classroom: “Steven is an ugly person and a rascal”. This is out
there for all to read before someone informs Steven about it and he complains to the principal of the
college. Steven is offended, and feels that what Mary wrote was a defamatory statement as all their
friends read it. Is this defamation?
a) Yes, because Steven is offended and hurt by the statement

b) No, because the statement is restricted only to their classmates and not to the world at large
c) Yes, because Mary had a malicious intention while doing this
d) No, because Mary did not make any factual claims about Steven but just wrote her opinion.
S.86–90) Directions for questions: In every democratic country, in modern times, relatively only a
small part of the total legislative output is enacted by the legislature. The role of state has
undergone a change over time. The coming of the welfare state and vast technological
developments has enormously increased the work of government necessitating a mass of legislation.
A large bulk of legislation is increasingly being issued as delegated legislation, in the form of rules,
regulations or bye–laws. These are made by various administrative authorities under powers
conferred on them by the legislature. In such a case, the authority acts as the delegate of, and within
the framework of the power conferred by, the legislature. In India, as elsewhere, the mechanism of
delegated legislation is used extensively. Practically, every statute passed by Parliament or a State
Legislature confers rule–making power on the government or on some other administrative agency.
Q.86) Which of the following rightly follows or concludes the said premise:
a) The administrative authorities which draft and implement rules, regulations and bye–laws are
effectively more powerful than the legislative assemblies
b) A government which does not delegate legislation–making, cannot govern efficiently
c) Delegated legislation is a relatively modern necessity
d) Technological advancement has made it easier to produce a large bulk of delegated legislation
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Q.87) What is the underlying assumption behind the aforesaid premise:
a) The administrative authorities that make delegated legislation is the fourth pillar of a democracy
b) The legislature is the competent law making body in India and other democratic countries
c) Welfare state is better in terms of productivity than laissez–faire state
d) India is a welfare state
Q.88) Which of the following weakens the premise:
a) The legislature and the executive can be at loggerhead with each other
b) There is a risk of legislature delegating the policy aspect of legislation to the executive which is an
not an elected body
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q.89) Which of the following strengthen the above premise
a) Delegated legislation can be challenged in Courts of law

b) The executive is not an elected body
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) not (b)
Q.90) Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above
a) Delegated legislation in India has lessened the burden of the legislature

b) In India executive and legislature work as separate watertight bodies
c) Legislature does not always have the resources to map the implementation of a law
d) Rules, regulations and bye–laws have to be in consonance with the objectives of the parent
legislation
Section – IV: Data Interpretation

S.91–95) Directions for questions: Read the following information and answer the questions
followed.
Maharashtra Legislative Assembly is the lower house of legislature of the Indian state of
Maharashtra. Presently, 288 members are directly elected from the single–seat constituencies and
one member is nominated. To form the government, a majority of at least 145 elected members is
required. Following graph gives the number of seats won by different political parties in
Maharashtra in past five elections.
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Maharashtra Legislative Assembly

140
122
120
105
100
82
75 71
80
69 58 62 69 62 63
56 54 53 56 54
60
46 45 42 41 44
40 32
30 20 29
20
0
1999 2004 2009 2014 2019
BJP SS CONGRESS NCP OTHERS
Further it is known as, BJP generally make natural alliance with SS while Congress and NCP are
natural allies.
Q.91) In 2019, If half of NCP splits and extend their support to BJP while SS decide not to support any
party, then What percentage of others, needs to support BJP so that BJP+ alliance gets 10 seats
more than number required for majority?
a) 23%
b) 79.3%
c) 57.2%
d) 33.5%
Q.92) For which year, the percentage change in the number of seats won by NCP was greatest as
compared to previous election?
a) 2004
b) 2009
c) 2014
d) 2019
Q.93) Which among the following alliance may have formed the government in 2009?
a) BJP + SS + others
b) Congress + others
c) NCP + congress
d) None of these
Q.94) The sum of number of seats won by NCP + Congress is what percent less than sum of seats
won by BJP + SS in 2019?
a) 39%
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b) 41%
c) 56%
d) 31 %
Q.95) Among the two–natural alliance, the alliance which have won the majority maximum times in
past 5 elections as shown in the graph, won majority in how many elections?
a) 4
b) 1
c) 3
d) 2
followed.
Number of complaints
Firm A Firm B Firm C Firm D

100
80
60
40
20
0
2019 Q1 2019 Q2 2019 Q3 2019 Q4
The Line graph shows the number of online complaints filed by the customers against top 4 pharma
companies in four quarters of year 2019.
Q.96) Against which Firm, maximum number of online complaints were filed in the year 2019?
a) Firm B
b) Firm C
c) Firm A
d) Firm D
Q.97) The firm which has maximum percentage drop in online complaints against it in any two
consecutive quarters has the drop of what percent?
a) 44.44%
b) 90%
c) 80%
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d) 50%
Q.98) Which among the following is true?
a) From Q1 to Q2, among all four firms, Firm C has maximum percentage rise in the number of
online complaints against it.
b) Average number of online Complaints against Firm C in four quarters in 2019 is more than that of
Firm B.
c) Total number of online complaints against C and B is more than total number of online complaints
against A and D in the year 2019.
d) None of these.
Q.99) What is the total sum of all the online complaints against all the four given firms in year 2019?
a) 880
b) 870
c) 860
d) 850
Q.100) Which Firm shows continuous increase or continuous decrease in the number of online
complaints against it in the given four quarters?
a) Firm B
b) Firm D
c) Firm C
d) None
followed.
The number of students enrolled in Science, Commerce and Arts in two colleges A and B are in the
ratio 6:10:7 and 7:16:10 respectively. The number of students in commerce department in college B
is 36% less than those in College A. Total number of students in both colleges combined in all these
three streams is 1810. Ratio of male students to female students in Science stream in college A and B
are 3:2 and 4:3 respectively. Ratio of male and female students in Commerce department in college
A and B is 1:1 and 15:17 respectively. Total number of female students in college A and college B are
570 and 350 respectively.
Q.101) Find the number of male students in Arts Department in college A?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 150
d) 200
Q.102) Find the Number of students in Commerce Department in College B?
a) 200
b) 250
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c) 320
d) 260
Q.103) What is the difference in the total number of Science students in College A and College B?
a) 160
b) 130
c) 140
d) 180
Q.104) What is the ratio of male students in science in college A to Female students in arts in college
B?
a) 4 : 5
b) 1 : 1
c) 2 : 3
d) 3 : 2
Q.105) What is the difference in total students of College A and that of College B?
a) 490
b) 540
c) 280
d) 420
Section – V: Inferential Reasoning

S.106–109) Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Twenty–one participants from four states (Uttrakhand, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Punjab) attended
Annual State Conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, Farming, health,
Education, and Child Care. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(I) The number of Farming experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the
three other categories.
(II) Uttrakhand did not send any Farming expert. Otherwise, every state, including Uttrakhand, sent
at least one expert for each category.
(III) None of the states sent more than three experts in any category.
(IV) If there had been one less Maharashtra expert, then the Bihar would have had twice as many
experts as each of the other states.
(V) Akshay and Manav are leading experts of Education who attended the conference. They are from
Maharashtra.
Q.106) Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?
a) 2 experts in Education from the Bihar and 2 health experts from Uttrakhand attended the
conference.
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b) 2 experts in Education from the Bihar and 1 health expert from Uttrakhand attended the
conference.
c) 3 experts in Child Care from the Bihar and 1 health expert from Uttrakhand attended the
conference.
d) Uttrakhand and Bihar each had 1 expert in Education attending the conference.
Q.107) If Pankaj is the lone Bihar expert in Education, which of the following is NOT true about the
numbers of experts in the conference from the four states?
a) There is one expert in health from Uttrakhand.

b) There is one expert in Child Care from Uttrakhand.
c) There are two experts in health from the Bihar.
d) There are three experts in Child Care from the Bihar
Q.108) Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
a) Number of Farming experts from the Bihar.

b) Number of health experts from Punjab.
c) Number of health experts from Maharashtra.
d) Number of experts in Child Care from Uttrakhand.
Q.109) Abhishek, a Bihar expert in Child Care, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What
can be inferred about the number of Bihar experts in Child Care in the conference, excluding
Abhishek?
(i) Atleast one
(ii) Atmost two
a) only (i) and not (ii)

b) only (ii) and not (i)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) Neither (i) and (ii)
given.
Four mountain climbers, Kile, Nile, Tile and Alex each saw a thing on their climb of Mt. Everest – a
Dog, a cat, Bat and a crow. However, none saw what any of the others saw. In order to alleviate the
tedium back at base camp they decide to quiz the other members of the camp. Each makes two false
statements and one true statement. Read their statements and answer the questions that follow.
Kile: I saw Bat. Nile saw the crow. Tile did not see the cat.
Tile: Kile saw Bat. Nile did not see Bat. I saw the cat.
Nile: Tile saw the cat. I did not see the crow. Alex didn’t see the Dog.
Alex: I saw a crow. Nile saw the cat. Kile saw the Dog.
Q.110) Kile saw
a) A Dog
b) A cat
c) A Crow
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d) A bat
Q.111) Nile Saw
a) A Dog
b) A cat
c) A Crow
d) A bat
Q.112) Tile Saw
a) A Dog
b) A cat
c) A Crow
d) A bat
Q.113) Alex Saw
a) A Dog
b) A cat
c) A Crow
d) A bat
Q.114) Five persons P, Q, T, S, M lives in a hut, palace, hotel, cottage, penthouse not necessarily in
that order. Each of them like two colours out of red, green, yellow, blue and black. P likes red and
blue. Q lives in a hut. T likes yellow and black and S likes Red and black the person who lives in a
palace doesn’t like blue or black colour where does M stay?
a) Palace
b) Hut
c) Cottage
d) Penthouse
Q.115) Lavinia and six of her friends want to go to the movies together. They can’t decide what to
see, so they are going to a theatre complex that is showing several movies and they will break up
into smaller groups. Four of the friends live in Windy City, and three are from Mill City. Four of them
want to see “Out of Asparagus,” and three want to see “Chili Revenge.” Puru, Aaron, and Desiree are
from the same city. Lavinia and Jennifer are from different cities. Xavier, Lavinia, and Sparky want to
see the same movie. Aaron and Jennifer do not want to see the same movie. Which of the friends is
from Mill City and can see “Chili Revenge”?
a) Aaron
b) Xavier
c) Jennifer
d) Puru
Q.116) Advertisement: iFabric leaves clothes soft and smelling fresh. We conducted a test with 100
consumers to prove iFabric is the best fabric softener. Each consumer was given one towel washed
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with iFabric and one towel washed without it. Almost ninety percent of the consumers preferred the
towel washed with iFabric. So, iFabric is the most effective fabric softener available.
The advertisement’s reasoning is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it fails to consider
whether:
a) any of the consumers were also using other products of the company that owns iFabric
b) iFabric is cheaper than other fabric softeners
c) the consumers tested find the benefits of using fabric softeners worth the expense
d) the consumers tested also got the chance to test fabric softeners other than iFabric
Q.117) Forester: The recent claims that the White rhino is not extinct are false. The White rhino’s
natural habitat was taken over by deforestation, resulting in the animal’s systematic elimination
from the area. Since then naturalists working in the region have discovered no hard evidence of its
survival, such as carcasses or tracks. In spite of alleged sightings of the animal, the White rhino no
longer exists. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the forester’s argument
depends?
a) Deforestation drove the last White rhinos to starvation by chasing them from their natural
habitat.
b) Every naturalist working in the White rhino’s natural habitat has looked systematically for
evidence of the rhino’s survival.
c) The White rhino did not move and adapt to a different region in response to the loss of habitat.
d) Those who have reported sightings of the White rhino are not experienced naturalists or
foresters.
Q.118) Advertisers have learned that people are more easily encouraged to develop positive
attitudes about things toward which they originally have neutral or even negative attitudes if those
things are linked, with pictorial help, rather than exclusively through prose, - to things about which
they already have positive attitudes. Therefore, advertisers are likely to _______. Which one of the
following most logically completes the argument?
a) not use any, written prose in their advertisements

b) persuade people to develop positive attitudes about their products
c) place their advertisements on social media rather than in newspapers
d) create advertisements containing pictures of things most members of the target audience like
Q.119) Carolyn: The artist Marc Quinn has displayed, behind a glass plate, biologically replicated
fragments of Sir John Sulston’s DNA, calling it a “conceptual portrait” of Sulston. But to be a portrait,
something must bear a recognizable resemblance to its subject.
Arnold: I disagree. Quinn’s conceptual portrait is a maximally realistic portrait, for it holds actual
instructions according to which Sulston was created.
The dialogue provides most support for the claim that Carolyn and Arnold disagree over whether the
object described by Quinn is a conceptual portrait of Sir John Sulston
a) should be considered piece of art

b) should be considered Quinn’s work
c) bears a recognizable resemblance to Sulston
d) is actually a portrait of Sulston
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Q.120) Many big corporations have started putting national flag atop their roofs in hopes of boosting
their employees’ patriotism. However, almost all employees at these corporations are already
patriotic. So, the use of flags is unlikely to achieve its intended purpose.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
a) fails to consider whether corporations that do not currently use the national flag would increase
their employees’ patriotism if they began using the flag
b) takes for granted that, with respect to their employees’ patriotism, corporations that use the
national flag are representative of big corporations in general
c) fails to consider that some employees would not get motivated by mere symbolism
d) fails to consider that even if employees are already patriotic, the flag may increase that patriotism
Q.121) Roofer: My friends say I will one day have an accident because I am clumsy at my job. But,
apparently carpenters have very low accident rates at job compared to roofers. So, by switching
from being a roofer to a carpenter, I would lower my risk of having an accident at job. The reasoning
in the roofer’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that this argument
a) infers a cause from a mere correlation

b) relies on a sample that is too narrow
c) misinterprets evidence that a result is likely as evidence that the result is certain
d) mistakes a condition sufficient for bringing about a result for a condition necessary for doing so
Q.122) News channels rarely cover local politics thoroughly, and local political business is usually
conducted secretively. These factors each tend to isolate local politicians from their electorates. This
has the effect of reducing the chance that any particular act of resident participation will elicit a
positive official response, which in turn discourages resident participation in local politics.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the author’s statements?
a) If local politicians were less isolated from their electorate, acts of resident participation would be
likely to elicit a positive response from them.
b) Local political business should be conducted less secretively because this would encourage
resident participation in local politics.
c) A resident’s decision as to whether to participate in local politics is most dependent on the chance
that the participation will elicit a positive official response.
d) More–frequent thorough coverage of local politics by news channels would reduce at least one
source of discouragement from resident participation in local politics.
Q.123) Philosopher: An action is morally right if it would be reasonably expected to increase the
aggregate well–being of the people affected by it. An action is morally wrong if and only if it would
be reasonably expected to reduce the aggregate wellbeing of the people affected by it. Thus, actions
that would be reasonably expected to leave unchanged the aggregate well–being of the people
affected by them are also right. The philosopher’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the
following is assumed?
a) Only wrong actions would be reasonably expected to reduce the aggregate wellbeing of the
people affected by them.
b) No action is both right and wrong.
c) Any action that is not morally wrong is morally right.
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d) There are actions that would be reasonably expected to leave unchanged the aggregate well–
being of the people affected by them.
Q.124) Mobile companies solicit consumer information on such factors as whether the camera is
good or whether the touch-screen is amply responsive. However, designer interaction with
consumers is superior to survey data; the data may tell the designer why a feature on last year’s
model was given a low rating, but data will not explain how that feature needs to be changed in
order to receive a higher rating. The reasoning above conforms most closely to which one of the
following propositions?
a) Getting consumer input for design modifications can contribute to successful product design.
b) Mobile companies traditionally conduct extensive post market surveys.
c) Designers aim to create features that will appeal to specific market niches.
d) A mobile will have unappealing features if consumers are not consulted during its design stage.
S.125–126) Directions for questions: These two questions are based on the information provided in
the following text:
Wife: I do not find any use of grandmother’s bangles. The practical thing to do would be to sell them
while they are still worth something, and thereby fund our son’s college education.
Husband: How could you even think like that? These bangles are the only thing you own that
belonged to your grandmother. They may not be good enough for your use, but they have great
sentimental value. And, you should keep them as a memory of your grandmother.
Q.125) Which one of the following principles, if established, does most to justify the husband’s
reply?
a) Gifts offered as sentimental tokens of affection should not be accepted if the recipient intends to
sell them later for profit.
b) Things that remind us of somebody whom we loved are more valuable than the money they could
be sold for, whatever the amount.
c) It is more important for us to keep memories of our loved ones in form of tangibles than it is to
enable our children to attend the college of their choice.
d) We have a duty to preserve family heirlooms only if they have promised their parents or
grandparents that they would do so.
Q.126) The husband uses which one of the following argumentative techniques in replying to the
wife’s suggestion?
a) invoking a competing obligation that he judges to override her practical considerations

b) questioning her aesthetic judgment
c) claiming that the reasons she gives are based on emotions rather than on rational considerations
d) asserting that the evidence she cites in support of her suggestion is false
Q.127) Questions have arisen regarding the accuracy of the reports the university’s archaeological
museum issues on its sales and acquisitions for the year. To forestall controversy, this year’s report is
being reviewed by three archaeologists from other universities. Since these archaeologists will be
given full access to all documents on which the report is based, they will be able to determine
whether it is indeed accurate. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
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a) does not specify whether the reviewers will have access to data about objects that have been in
the museum’s collection for many years
b) provides no information regarding the size or quality of the archaeological museum’s collection
c) omits any mention of whether the museum’s collection is on display or is available only to
researchers
d) ignores the possibility that there might have been some sales or acquisitions during the past year
that were not mentioned in the documents on which the report was based
Q.128) Statements:
Some books are copies.
All copies are green.
Some green are yellow.
Conclusions:
I. All copies are yellow.
II. Some yellow are green.
III. Some copies are yellow.
IV. All green are copies.
a) Only II
b) Either III or IV only
c) Either II or IV only
d) None
Q.129) Statements:
All chairs are tables.
No table is a book.
All tables are stones.
Conclusions:
I. No chair is a book.
II. No stone is a book.
III. Some stones are book.
IV. All tables are chairs.
a) Only I
b) Only I and either II or III
c) Only I and III
d) Either II or III
Q.130) Statements:
Some apples are watermelons.
All watermelons are fresh.
Some potatoes are fresh.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are fresh.
II. Some potatoes are apples.
III. Some watermelons are potatoes.
IV. Some watermelons are apples.
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a) Only I follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) Only I and IV follow
d) Either II or III and I follow
Q.131) Statements:
All teachers are doctors.
All doctors are engineers.
All engineers are typists.
Conclusions:
I. Some typists are teachers.
II. All doctors are typists.
III. Some engineers are teachers.
IV. All doctors are teachers.
a) Only I and II follow

b) Only I and III follow
c) Either II or IV follows
Q.132) Let F1 and F2 be sentences as stated below:

F1: If the president does not want to take responsibility and the rioters are not tired of rioting, then
riots will spread.
F2: If the president does not have appropriate authority or if he does not want to take the
responsibility, then neither order will be restored nor will the rioters stop spreading unless the
rioters become tired of rioting and the local authorities begin to take conciliatory actions.
Then which of the following statements is true?
a) F2 is a logical consequence of F1.

b) F1 is a logical consequence of F2.
c) Both F1 and F2 are logical consequences of each other.
d) Neither F1 nor F2 is a logical consequence of each other,
Q.133) If Praveen is Maninder’s next door neighbor, then Praveen’s annual income is more than 10
lakh rupees. If Praveen’s annual income is more than 10 lakh rupees, then earth is square. Earth is
not square.
If Madhukar is Maninder’s next door neighbor, then Madhukar flies from the hostel to the class. If
Madhukar goes by cycle from the hostel to the class, then he does not fly from the hostel to the
class. Madhukar goes by cycle from the hostel to the class.
If Praveen is not Maninder’s next door neighbor, then either Madhukar or Deepayan is Maninder’s
next door neighbor.
If the above statements are true then which of the following follows?
a) Praveen is Maninder’s next door neighbor.

b) Madhukar is Maninder’s next door neighbor.
c) Deepayan is Maninder’s next door neighbor.
d) Praveen’s annual income is more than 10 lakh rupees.
Q.134) Which of the following best completes the passage below?
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A primary factor in perpetuating the low salaries of women workers has been their segregation in
the so–called pink–collar occupations, such as nursing, teaching, library science, and secretarial
work. Partly because these jobs have traditionally been held by women, their salary levels have been
depressed, and, despite increased attempts to unionize these workers in recent years, their pay
continues to lag. Moreover, although a large percentage of women than ever before are now
entering and remaining in the job market, most continue to gravitate toward the pink–collar fields,
despite the lower salaries. It seems clear, therefore, that if the average salaries of women workers
are to approach those of men, ______
a) more women must enter occupations other than those traditionally reserved for them
b) society’s perception of pink–collar jobs as less important and less demanding than other jobs
must be changed
c) more men must be encouraged to enter fields traditionally occupied by women
d) the number of jobs in the pink–collar fields relative to the size of the work force as a whole must
be markedly increased
Q.135) Determining the authenticity of purported pre–Harappan artifacts is never easy. Carbon–14
dating of these artifacts is often impossible due to contamination by radioactive palladium (which
occurs naturally in the soils of North and West India). However, historians and anthropologists have
evolved two reliable criteria, which, utilized in combination, have proven effective for dating these
artifacts. First, because authentic pre–Harappan artifacts characteristically occur in a coarse,
granular matrix that is shifted by major earthquakes, they often exhibit the unique scratch patterns
known as gridding. In addition, true pre–Harappan artifacts show a darkening in surface color that is
caused by centuries of exposure to the minute amounts of magnesium in the soil of the north
western regions of India. The criteria above would be LEAST useful in judging the authenticity of
which of the following?
a) An ax head of black obsidian, unearthed from a kitchen midden

b) A pottery bowl with a red ocher design, found in the ruins of a temple
c) A set of gold ear weights, ornamented with jasper pendants
d) A cotton shawl probably used by a man

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CP/20/C21

Q.2) Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?

a) There is no confusion in reality.

Q.5) Which of the following is a Buddhist likely to agree with?

a) Buddhism is not for the faint hearted.

Q.6) Define ‘interlocutor’ as used in paragraph 1:

a) Someone who translates information from one language to another.

Q.7) Which of the following would Thrasymachus agree with?

Q.8) Which of the following is the central idea of this passage?

a) Because they have been said by God.

a) The Galleon Affair

Q.12) What is the overall attitude of the passage?

a) Jail time for the owner

a) There was a great exodus of people during times of disaster.

a) We have virtually redefined beauty.

a) to which light from a distant galaxy has been shifted

a) at least as much as a million and more others had not any

a) like that of earlier generations

a) Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019

Q.36) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) G–7 is an intergovernmental organisation that was formed in 1975

Q.38) Consider the following statements –

a) National Consumer Rights Board

2. influencing species invasions and the degradation that they cause.

a) the Ken–Betwa link project

a) The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)

b) Department of Consumer Affairs

a) to manage the social and environment impacts through appropriate measures

Q.48) Consider the following statements –

Which of the above statements are true?

a) Debt Recovery Tribunal

b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Q.55) Consider the following statements –

a) Kulasekarapattinam in Tamil Nadu

a) National Disaster Management Authority

Q.58) Consider the following statements –

a) Prime Minister Employment Guarantee Program

Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

a) Yes, because such a blanket exemption is unreasonable.

a) Yes, because it could have cost Latika her life.

a) India is a common–law jurisdiction.

a) Traffic rules must be obeyed.

d) None of the above

a) Yes, because it is made to protect public order.

a) Yes, because it is non–partisan in nature given the composition of the PDC.

a) Yes, because it is within the ambit of the grounds mentioned in Principle C.

d) No, because this is not a reasonable restriction in line with Principle C.

a) Yes, because he lied about having paid Vedika an advance.

Principle: Fraud arises by–

a) Yes, because he joined the job based on Mandana’s offer.

b) No, because he got the salary he had sought.

a) Yes, because the anklets are counterfeit.

a) Yes, because he used violent means to commit the robbery

a) No, because D did not die

a) No, because he was not driving the car

a) Yes, because Steven is offended and hurt by the statement

Q.87) What is the underlying assumption behind the aforesaid premise:

Q.88) Which of the following weakens the premise:

Q.89) Which of the following strengthen the above premise

a) Delegated legislation can be challenged in Courts of law

Q.90) Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above

a) Delegated legislation in India has lessened the burden of the legislature

Section – IV: Data Interpretation