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LST CLAT Mock–17 (New Pattern)
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
CURRENT AFFAIRS INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
LEGAL REASONING
LOGICAL REASONING
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Sec 1
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Directions for questions 1 to 29: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
The head of the British electronic spy agency, Robert Hannigan, created a minor ap last week in political circles
when he wrote for the Financial Times. In effect, Hannigan argued that more robust encryption procedures by
private Internet companies were unwittingly aiding terrorists such as the Islamic State (IS) or al Qaeda, by
making it harder for organizations like the NSA and GCHQ to monitor online tra c. The implication was clear:
The more our personal privacy is respected and protected, the greater the danger we will face from evildoers.
It's a serious issue, and democracies that want to respect individual privacy while simultaneously keeping
citizens safe are going to have to do a much better job of reassuring us that vast and (mostly) secret
surveillance capabilities overseen by unelected o cials such as Hannigan won't be abused. I tend to favor the
privacy side of the argument, both because personal freedoms are hard to get back once lost, but also because
there's a propaganda that these surveillance activities are making us signi cantly safer.
So here's a wild counterfactual for you to ponder: What would the United States, Great Britain, and other wealthy
and powerful nations do if they didn't have these vast surveillance powers?
For starters, they'd have to rely more heavily on tried-and-true counterterrorism measures: in ltrating extremist
organizations and ipping existing members, etc., to nd out what they were planning, head attacks off before
they occurred, and eventually roll up organization themselves. States waged plenty of counterterrorism
campaigns before the Internet was invented, and while it can be di cult to in ltrate such movements and nd
their vulnerable points, it's not exactly an unknown art. If we couldn't spy on them from the safety of internet,
we'd probably be doing a lot more of this.
Second, if we didn't have all these expensive high-tech capabilities, we might spend a lot more time thinking
about how to discredit and delegitimize the terrorists' message, instead of repeatedly doing things that help
them make their case and recruit new followers. Ifthe US leaders genuinely want to help these societies, or if
they are responding to a legitimate threat; the crude message that drones, cruise missiles, and targeted killings
send is rather different.
Third, and somewhat paradoxically, if we didn't have drones and the NSA, we'd have to think more seriously
about boots on the ground, at least in some places. But having to think harder about such decisions might be a
good thing, because it would force the United States (or others) to decide which threats were really serious and
which countries really mattered. As we've seen over the past decade, what the NSA, CIA, and Special Ops
Command do is in some ways too easy: It just doesn't cost that much to add a few more names to the kill list, to
vacuum up a few more terabytes of data, or to launch a few more drones in some new country, and all the more
so when it's done under the veil of secrecy.
Q.1
Which of the following is an example of the paradox mentioned in the passage?
a A reduction in online surveillance has resulted in the return of several soldiers from diverse sites of
international con ict.
b Several terrorist organizations now employ IT professionals to counter the increasing online snooping done
by international counter-terrorist organizations.
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c Due to the commitment displayed by world leaders, a lot of extremists are willing to work towards
effectively resolving the global terrorism threat peacefully.
d Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
The same can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage. The other
 Answer key/Solution
options don't discuss a paradox at all. Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 1
Q.2
Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
a Breach of privacy is a necessary collateral damage of waging the war against terrorism.
b Privacy is sacrosanct and any effort to compromise with that is akin to terrorism.
c Invasion of personal privacy is not an acceptable policy, irrespective of the context.
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d Counter terrorism measures may not necessarily involve breach of privacy.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Option (a) is what the author is arguing against. Though the author argues against
breaching privacy, he isn't equating it with terrorism, so option (b) is a distortion.
Both options (c) and (d) are acceptable premises of the author's argument.
However, option (c) mentions that invasion of privacy isn't acceptable,
irrespective of context which is a slight exaggeration of what the author is saying. Option (d) captures the
author's argument more accurately. Hence (d) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 1
Q.3
As per the author, counter terrorism needs to focus more on all of the following EXCEPT:
a Using internet to spy on terrorist organizations so that attacks can be intercepted and stopped before they
occur.
b In ltrating terrorist organizations and securing critical information which can help apprehend their actions.
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c Delegitimizing the message of terrorists.
d Prioritizing the nature of threats and deploying armies accordingly.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : c
The author mentions all of the options except option (a). In fact, his whole
argument is that governments need to rely less on internet and digital spying.
Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 1
Q.4
Which of the following has been mentioned by the author as one of the biggest shortcoming of the war on
terrorism?
a Failure to discredit such movements and challenge their narrative.
b Inability to build effective partnerships with the local population.
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c Lack of support for the legitimate local governments.
d Inability to change political regimes that support such activities.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
Options (b), (c) and (d) are not mentioned in the passage at all. Option (a) can be
inferred from the lines, " ……. if we didn't have all these expensive high-tech
capabilities, we might spend a lot more time thinking about how to discredit and
delegitimize the terrorists' message, instead of repeatedly doing things that help them make their case and
recruit new followers."
FeedBack
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Passage – 1
Q.5
Which of the following has not been mentioned as an adverse effect of over reliance on internet to counter
terrorism?
a Breach of privacy
b Use of more sophisticated technology by the terrorists.
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c Unwittingly providing legitimacy to the terrorists' message.
d Inclination towards convenience rather than long-term strategic vision.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
Options (a) and (c) are mentioned clearly all throughout the passage, so they
cannot be the answer. Option (d) is also mentioned in the last few lines where the
author says that presently the strategy is random because it's very convenient to
do so. Option (b) isn't mentioned at all. The author has stated that intelligence experts complain against the
technological robustness of private internet companies. Hence (b) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 2
In 1983, when the public's fear of AIDS far exceeded researchers' understanding of the disease -- not to mention
society's commitment to equal rights for gay and bisexual men -- the U.S. Food and Drug Administration banned
blood donations from any man who has had sex with another man since 1977.
Now, a federal advisory committee has recommended scrapping it and replacing it with a caveat, that is, men
could give blood as long has they've had no sex with other men in 12 months. The FDA should accept this
recommendation as a rst step toward further relaxing the restriction.
It's not clear how much this change would increase the number of blood donors. But that's not the only goal.
More important is to institute a policy that re ects science and avoids needless discrimination, without
compromising blood recipients' safety.
This change appears to meet that test -- based on the experience so far in Australia, which more than a decade
ago swapped its blood-donation ban with a one-year deferral.
Most European countries maintain the lifetime ban. Last year, Canada ended its ban but set a time limit -- not
based on evidence that any longer time is warranted, however.
Why have a deferral period at all? Given that every unit of donated blood is tested for HIV and the virus can be
detected as soon as nine days after transmission, 365 days is an arbitrarily long time.
The idea is that a waiting period might limit the number of high-risk donors and thus reduce the small chance of
using infected blood that falsely tests negative. It also addresses the concerns of blood recipients -- which are
rooted as much in fear as in science.
Yet these are imperfect rationales. If the FDA ends the blood-donation ban and nds that it doesn't lead to an
increase in HIV-positive blood, it should then consider shortening the deferral period. For donors who are in
monogamous, long-term relationships, perhaps the ban should be lifted altogether.
Q.6
Which of the following if true, most weakens the argument of the author?
a The safety of blood recipient is paramount and should not be compromised at any cost.
b Blood donation is a voluntary act and needless change in such deferrals will not lead to much increase in
such donations.
c Science has not evolved to a stage where HIV virus can be detected within days and a minimum of one year
is required for detection.
d Even a small quantity of infected blood, if accepted in blood banks, may have cataclysmic results and
therefore maximum caution should be exercised.
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Option a: the author argues his point within the ambit of the safety of recipients.
He thinks it is safe to donate blood with a deferral period of 1 year. Therefore this
option can be ignored. Option b: One bene t of change in deferral rules, as per the
author, will be increase in the blood availability due to increase in number of donors. However, the author
himself says that it is not the primary reason. The main point is discrimination. Option c: If this is correct then
the risk is a lot more and therefore the policy decision to defer makes sense. Option d: This seems alarming
and hypothetical and nothing in the passage suggests this. Hence (c) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 2
Q.7
Which of the following will support the author's argument the most?
a Homosexual men are more empathetic than others and therefore are more likely to donate blood, thereby
substantially increasing the number of blood donors.
b Homosexual men are often victimized and discriminated against and such unscienti c regulations further
reinforce the prejudice and bias of the public.
c Research has shown that the number of heterosexuals being a icted with HIV is much higher than
homosexuals.
d Surveys show that the number of homosexual men is much more than estimated earlier and their exclusion
can severely cripple the blood availability.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Option a: Being empathetic or charitable need not lead to blood donation. Option
b: The major grouse of the author is discrimination meted out to homosexuals;
therefore this is a strong supporting point. Option c: Number of HIV heterosexuals
being more doesn't mean the probability is also more as the absolute number of
heterosexuals may be much higher. Option d: This seems entirely based on conjecture. Hence (b) is correct.
FeedBack
Passage – 2
Q.8
Which of the following will be the strongest rebuttal of the suggestion made by the author in the last sentence?
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a Social scientists have proved that married homosexual couples are more likely to have multiple sexual
partners.
b In conservative countries, homosexual couples may not be ready to declare their relationships due to fear
of social censure.
c This will be tantamount to a person's personal life dictating his social acceptance and is a step towards an
authoritarian society.
d It is hypocritical and discriminatory to expect homosexuals to maintain puritanical standards for

acceptance under the guise of bogus scienti c claims.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Option a: Since this is as much a social issue as medical, therefore such research
needs to be given due weightage and therefore is a strong rebuttal of the author's
suggestion. Option b: This is an exception and does not devalue the suggestion.
Option c: Since the suggestion intends to dilute the existing discriminatory
practice, it cannot be classi ed as discrimination. Option d: Same as option (c). Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 2
Q.9
Which of the following is a synonym of 'caveat'?
a Consonance
b Admonition
c Conformity
d Recklessness
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
Caveat refers to a warning or proviso of speci c stipulations, conditions or
limitations. Thus, 'admonition' is its synonym. Hence (b) is correct.
FeedBack
Passage – 2
Q.10
Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a Many countries maintain an inde nite ban rather than a deferral period for homosexual men donating
blood.
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b If one were a homosexual, one could have donated blood in the USA in 1983.
c Australia has waived off any restrictions with regards to homosexual men donating blood.
d FDA replaced the ban on homosexual men donating blood with a one- year deferral period in 1983.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Option (b): one could have donated blood, as long as one had not had sex with
another man since 1977. Option (c): Australia maintains a 1 year deferral period.
Option (d): Is factually incorrect, the deferral was not done in 1983. Option (a): As
mentioned in the passage: "Most European countries maintain the lifetime ban.".
Hence (a) is the answer.
FeedBack
4/12/2020
Passage – 3
If you look around what do you see? Parents are poring over brochures showing pictures of students in front of
lush trees. High schoolers are plotting which activities are the "right" ones to enroll in. Admissions o cials in
the nation's top colleges are beginning to court not just high school seniors to ll their next class, but also
juniors, sophomores and freshmen -- even reaching out to some middle school students.
This "right college" frenzy is responsible for hundreds of millions of dollars in revenue for companies in college
preparation and college admissions, and it's shortening the childhood of our nation's teenagers. It's not
sustainable, either.
"It's not a pretty picture in the ecology overall," says Mitchell Stevens, professor at Stanford and author of
"Creating a Class: College Admissions and the Education of Elites." "It's a hyper competitiveness for a small
number of schools and a maldistribution of seats in the more open access. There are 5,000 colleges and
universities in the United States; there are plenty of seats in the system overall. There are just a limited number
of seats at the top."
Because of many changing factors over the past decades, the children of the baby boomers entered a college
landscape drastically different from the one their parents saw. The group of college-going students is larger
than in the past and experiences more stress and a longer timeline for college admissions. While some see the
payoff in the form of increased salaries after graduation, many never nish college or, if they do nish, they don't
obtain the skills needed for employment, and are saddled with loans they can't pay. These factors have led to a
crescendo over the last decade that is about to change the landscape of college admissions -- again.
There are more students considering college than in the past. And that means more people to compete with and
more students to choose from.
From population increases seen with the children of the baby boomers, there are more college-aged students in
general. Between 2000 to 2010, the population of 18 to 24-year-olds surged from 27 million to well over 30
million, a 13 percent increase. By contrast, the increase in children aged 5 to 17 was 1.6 percent. The greatest
increase of any age group was for the aging baby boomers -- 31.5 percent for ages 45 to 65 -- who are the
parents of these college-aged students.
There are also more students considering college. Between 1980 and 2012, the overall college enrollment rates
increased from 26 percent to 41 percent. More students now see college as an option. Some will apply and are
accepted into selective colleges (those that accept less than half of applicants) but the increase has also been
driven by demand. More students are also eligible to consider college. The percentage of young women and
men with at least a high school education increased from 79 to 84 percent for women and from 75 to 81
percent for men from 1980 to 2012.
Q.11
The author mentions which of the following as the reason for the college admission frenzy?
a The fact that the number of top-class colleges that students aspire to is very less.
b The burst of the economic bubble which highlighted the nancial sustainability through college education.
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c The number of colleges and seats being far less than the number of applicants.
d The fact that parents are increasingly getting involved in the process due to the high cost of college
education.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
As mentioned in para 4: "There are 5,000 colleges and universities in the United
States; there are plenty of seats in the system overall. There are just a limited
number of seats at the top." Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
4/12/2020
Passage – 3
Q.12
Which of the following, according to the passage, is an indication of the frenzy with respect to college
admissions?
a Colleges targeting middle school students.
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b Parents getting their children enrolled in tutorials for admission tests.
c A marked drop in extra-curricular activities due to a fear of decline in grades.
d All of the above.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
As mentioned in the rst para:"Admissions o cials in the nation's top colleges
are beginning to court not just high school seniors to ll their next class, but also
juniors, sophomores and freshmen -- even reaching out to some middle school
students". Hence (a) is the answer.
FeedBack
4/12/2020
Passage – 3
Q.13
Which of the following has NOT been mentioned as a disadvantage of the frenzy with respect to college
admissions?
a Increasing stress amongst the students.
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b Students not learning the proper skills to survive in the real world.
c Poor delivery of education in colleges.
d Increasing competition in admissions and more dropouts.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
It is mentioned that this frenzy is shortening the childhood of teenagers
indicating stress. It's also mentioned that many students don't nish college or
don't acquire adequate skills for employment. Hence (c) is the answer.
FeedBack
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Passage – 3
Q.14
Which of the following best describes the mood of the author as per the issue highlighted by him?
a Mildly alarmed
b Fervent
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c Subdued and pessimistic
d Analytical and Pedantic
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
The author is analyzing the issue and is a little worried by the trend on display. He
doesn't come across as someone who is frenzied in his worry. And although he is
not positive about the changes, he isn't entirely negative about the future either.
Option (d) becomes less acceptable because of the word 'pedantic" as the tone of
the author is de nitely not lecturing or dictating. Therefore, mildly alarmed is the best choice. Hence (a) is
correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 3
Q.15
Which of the following would weaken the author's argument in the passage above?
a College admissions go through cycles and there have been phases earlier, when admissions have peaked,
just to subside again.
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b The data considered for highlighting the increased competition has been taken only from the top colleges
and is not re ective of the whole industry.
c Most students apply for colleges but change their minds subsequently, so application numbers are a poor
indicator of the career path pursued by the students.
d All of the above.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Since the author has already emphasized that most of the rush is for top colleges,
therefore option b is negated. The passage is not touching upon the point of
increased number of applications. Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
Passage – 4
A sanctuary may be de ned as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active. Till quite recently
Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only as a tool-using animal in
comparatively small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there is no place left where man cannot go with
overwhelming forces at his command. He can strangle to death all the nobler wildlife in the world to-day.
Tomorrow he certainly will have done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime.
There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can
breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and elephants, lions
and eagles, go. The rats and ies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is
wanton killing off that I am speaking of tonight. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wildlife he
learns to appreciate most when he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at
an earlier stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game preserves,
the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries. I have just de ned a sanctuary as a place where
man is passive and the rest of Nature active. But this general de nition is too absolute for any special case. The
mere fact that man has to protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be
bene cially active by destroying pests and parasites, like bot- ies or mosquitoes, and by nding antidotes for
diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of the carnivores to
death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to be bene cial, the less he upsets the
balance of Nature, the better, even when he tries to be an earthly Providence.
Q.16
In the concluding lines of the passage, the author implies that his initial de nition of a sanctuary is:
a totally wrong
b somewhat idealistic
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c unhelpful
d indefensible
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
The author's initial de nition was that man is passive which he subsequently
agrees is not practical, more so when man also takes up cudgels to protect other
species. Hence (b) is the answer.
FeedBack
Passage – 4
Q.17
The author's argument that destroying bot- ies and mosquitoes would be a bene cial action is most weakened
by all of the following except:
a Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of various populations.
b The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature.
c Pests themselves are an integral part of the food chain.
d These insects are introduced to an area due to human activities
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Option (d) does not strengthen or weaken the argument. It is just a connected
piece of information. All the other options weaken the argument, which is that if
at all we have to kill other animals, it should be parasites and pests. Hence (d) is
the answer.
FeedBack
Passage – 4
Q.18
It can be inferred that the passage is:
a part of an article in a scienti c journal.
b extracted from the minutes of a nature club meeting.
c a speech delivered in a court of environmental law.
d from a polemical article published in a magazine.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
The article is not scienti c enough for the rst option and does not contain
enough legal-speak for option (c) to be correct. It is hardly in the form of minutes.
Since the passage is severely critical of the actions of mankind, therefore option
(d) seems to be the best t. Polemical means of or involving strongly critical or
disputatious writing or speech.
FeedBack
Passage – 4
Q.19
The purpose of the last sentence is:
a to sum up the main points of the author's argument.
b to urge a solution to an increasingly pressing problem.
c to propose a program.
d to suggest that man should not intervene in natural processes in any situation.
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
The last sentence states: "But, except in cases where experiment has proved his
intervention to be bene cial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature the better,
even when he tries to be an earthly providence.". Here, the author obviously
cautions against intervening in natural processes, except when proven to be
bene cial. This is what he has been trying to explain all throughout the passage. Option (d) also says the
same thing except that it's a sweeping rejection of intervention without any exceptions, whereas the author is
saying that we can intervene if bene cial. Hence (a) is the answer.
FeedBack
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Passage – 5
More than breathtaking adventure owed from America's moon conquest. A new era of exploration was opened.
The scienti c experiments were unprecedented and will be studied for years. Important lessons were learned
for future missions. On top of that, a watching world began to re-evaluate U.S. and Russian achievements in
space. The heroes are home - and the full signi cance of America's voyage to the surface of the moon is now
being carefully assessed. Worldwide, the mission is regarded as a landmark in man's history, far surpassing all
the greatest expeditions of centuries past. Here on earth, practical evidence was given that the U.S. has
emerged, after a decade of self-doubt, as the most technologically and scienti cally advanced of all nations.
The U.S. won the race to the moon and threw the challenge back into the face of the Soviet Union. Russia's
failure to land its unmanned Luna 15 spaceship safely on the moon on July 22 only served to sharpen the
contrast.
Then there was this fact, virtually overriding all else in immediate terms: The United States, at a time of unease
and problems, was given a great psychological uplift. The aim of President Nixon, clearly, was to keep the
momentum going in dealing with problems both at home and abroad.
The rest of the world, with Communist China the only big exception, shared the adventure, viewing it not only as
a triumph for the U.S. but as a feat of all mankind. As a French scholar put it:"Americans reached out and
touched the moon. But it was a victory for the indomitable spirit of every man."
The greatest success by far was the collection by astronauts of an estimated 60 pounds of rocks and dust from
several locations around their Eagle spacecraft. The material was vacuum-packed in metal containers and
brought back to earth. They hope to learn from the samples more about the moon's origin and whether it has - or
ever had - any form of life. These are questions men have been asking for centuries.
A moonquake detector, or seismometer, was set up and left on the moon to measure vibrations in an effort to
tell whether the moon is "alive" inside - or simply a cold and dead body.
Also erected and left on the moon was an 18-inch re ector. It was a target for mapmakers and geologists on
earth who started aiming laser beams at it in an effort to get a "bounce" and thereby measure the distance
between earth and the moon with a precision of six inches, and perhaps also establish whether the earth's
continents are slowly drifting apart.
A "solar wind" sampler was set up for more than an hour near the spaceship to collect atomic particles raining in
from the sun in a steady solar wind. This aluminum-foil shade was rolled up and brought back for study by
scientists who want to know what kind of material the sun keeps pouring into space.
Q.20
Which of the following are the likely results from the exploration?
a An opportunity to ascertain whether the continents are moving away from each other.
b Discovery of any trace of life on the moon.
c Research on the emission of particles by the sun.
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d All of the above
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
As mentioned "Also erected and left on the moon was an 18-inch re ector. ….and
perhaps also establish whether the earth's continents are slowly drifting apart."
So,option (a) is mentioned. Also, "They hope to learn from the samples more
about the moon's origin and whether it has - or ever had - any form of life.".
Therefore option (b) is also mentioned. Again, as per the passage: A "solar wind" sampler was set up …….to
know what kind of material the sun keeps pouring into space.". So, option (c) is also mentioned. Hence (d) is
the answer.
FeedBack
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Passage – 5
contrast.
Q.21
Which of the following can be said about the passage above?
a It is an article celebrating America's moon voyage.
b It is an article chartering the space exploration journey of America.
c It is an article written in commemoration of the astronauts who rst set foot on the moon.
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d It is an article promoting America's hegemony in the domain of space exploration.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
The tone of the passage indicates that the author is clearly and demonstratively
celebrating the moon voyage of USA. Hence (a) is correct.
FeedBack
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Passage – 5
contrast.
Q.22
Which of the following was not brought back by the astronauts?
a Collection of rocks from the moon's surface.
b A boulder from a famous moon crater.
c Atomic particles raining from sun.
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d Dust from the moon's surface vacuum-packed in metal containers.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Option (b) isn't mentioned and rest all are clearly mentioned in the passage.
Hence (b) is the answer.
FeedBack
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Passage – 5
contrast.
Q.23
Which of the following cannot be inferred as a fallout of the success of the voyage?
a It gave America the upper hand against Russia in the space race.
b It helped boost the mood in the face of various political, social and economic problems plaguing America.
c It helped unite the citizens of various nations in celebrating the success as mankind's unique achievement.
4/12/2020
d It helped America gain political leverage over its opponents in global politics.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
We cannot infer that the USA got any political leverage from this exploratory
mission. It stood tall as a global leader in space exploration but inferring option
(d) would be a stretch. Hence (d) cannot be inferred. The other options can be
inferred from the passage.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 5
contrast.
Q.24
Which of the following cannot be concluded from the passage?
a Russia had sent a spacecraft to the moon before the successful voyage by America.
b Before America's successful moon expedition, Russia had overtaken America as the world leader in space
exploration.
c China is a communist nation that is hostile towards America.
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d The success of the voyage was perceived as a victory of human spirit.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
As mentioned in the passage: "Russia's failure to land its unmanned Luna 15
spaceship safely on the moon on July 22 only served to sharpen the contrast.".
Therefore option (a) is true. The tone of the rst paragraph suggests that Russia
probably had an advantage over USA in space exploration, therefore option (b)
can also be inferred. Option (c) isn't mentioned anywhere and just because China did not join the other
countries in celebrating this voyage cannot be seen as evidence of enmity between the two countries. Option
(d) can be inferred from the statements by the French. Hence (c) is the answer.
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Passage – 6
Health is wealth. We keep guards to protect our wealth from thieves. Similarly, we should protect our health
from disease. Physical exercise guards our health. Good health is impossible without proper exercise. Physical
exercise prevents the attack of disease. There are some diseases which can be cured through physical exercise.
Different people do different exercises. It depends upon their physical constitution and their likings. Morning
walk and evening walk in open, green spaces are recommended for all. But those who have weak constitutions
are advised not to go for gymnastics.
Free-hand exercises can be easily practiced by all. In schools and colleges, there are facilities for outdoor
games. In villages, some rural sports are played. Those include kho-kho, kabaddi, monkey-dance on trees etc.
Young boys climb trees to collect fruits. These kinds of games and habits serve as fun alternatives for
exercises. Boating and riding are also good examples of exercise. Playing football, hockey and cricket in school
and college has become very popular. In advanced age, people should adopt morning walk in order to keep
themselves active.
Mental work has increased for modern man. He does more mental work and less of physical work. In this way
he ruins his body. He becomes an easy victim to different ailments. Only physical exercise can help him in being
healthy. It is a matter of grief that the scope for physical exercise is gradually decreasing.
Students are busy in preparing for competitive examinations. They are not paying attention to their health. They
believe that only consuming good food can keep them healthy. But it is a wrong idea. They can be "healthy and
strong" in the truest sense only if they do regular physical exercise.
Q.25
Which of the following CANNOT be identi ed as the tone of the passage?
a Motivating and Inspirational
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b Enthusiastic and Energetic
c Belligerent and Bellowing
d Exhorting and Advising
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
The author has tried to encourage the readers to do something constructive i.e.
regular physical exercise and suggests a variety of methods for the same. So, the
tone of the passage is generally motivational and inspirational. The author is also
very keen, eager and earnest in his opinions. The overall feel of the passage is
positive and energetic. So, his tone is de nitely not aggressive. Therefore, we cannot call it belligerent. Hence
(c) is the answer.
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Passage – 6
themselves active.
4/12/2020
Q.26
Which of the following can be inferred to be an exercise that the author will recommend for people of all age
groups:
a Mild physical exercises like running and swimming.
b Brisk walk at home or o ce, to be undertaken frequently at short intervals.
c Regular walking, ideally outdoors, during morning or evening.
d Slow walking, with measured steps and at a monitored pace, to maintain equilibrium of heart rate and
pulse.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
In the second paragraph of the passage, it is clearly given that: "Different people
do different exercises. It depends upon their physical constitution and their
likings. Morning walk and evening walk in open, green spaces are recommended
for all. But those who have weak constitutions are advised not to go for
gymnastics." This implies that ideally these walks should be at a speci c time, when one is not engaged in
routine activities. Also, the sentence suggests that a walk should be a ritual/a routine, so in a way, we can infer
that these walks will be more effective if taken outdoors rather than at home. Hence (c) is the most
appropriate choice.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
themselves active.
Q.27
Which of the following is NOT an example of the rural sport mostly played in villages?
a Kabaddi
b Kho-Kho
c Boating and Riding
d Tree Climbing
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
As mentioned in the passage: "In villages, some rural sports are played. Those
include kho-kho, kabaddi, monkey-dance on trees etc. Young boys climb trees to
collect fruits." Boating and riding, though mentioned in the next sentence, are not
clearly identi ed as a rural sport. Hence (c) is the answer.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
themselves active.
Q.28
Which of the following is not true according to the given passage?
a Students busy in preparing for competitive examinations believe that merely consuming good food can
keep them healthy.
b In advanced age, people should not adopt morning walks in order to avoid injuries or accidents.
c People who have weak constitutions are advised not to go for gymnastics.
d One should take steps to ensure one's physical well-being as it is also a kind of wealth.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
All the other statements except option b are correct.The author has mentioned
that walking is an ideal exercise for people in all age groups. So, option (b) is the
answer.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
themselves active.
Q.29
How does the modern man ruin his body?
a Less mental work, more physical work
b More mental work, less physical work
c More healthy food, less mental work
d Less healthy food, more physical work
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
The Modern man ruins his body by doing more mental work and less physical
work. Hence (b) is the answer.
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Sec 2
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Passage – 1
President Ram Nath Kovind nominated former Chief Justice of India (CJI) (1) to the Rajya Sabha. "In exercise of
the powers conferred by sub-clause (a) of clause (1) of article 80 of the Constitution of India, read with clause
(3) of that article, President is pleased to nominate (1) to Council of States to ll the vacancy caused due to the
retirement of one of the nominated members," the Home Ministry said in its noti cation. The vacancy was
created due to the retirement of K.T.S. Tulsi at the end of February.
(1), who retired in November, 2019, headed the ve judges Bench that delivered the verdict in the sensitive
Ayodhya land title dispute on November 9, 2019. (1) who had a tenure of a little more than 13 months after
being sworn in on October 3, 2018, also headed a bench that had held that the o ce of the CJI was a public
authority and came under the purview of the Right to Information Act. (1) legacy is not restricted to just judicial
matters. As the head of administration of the Supreme Court, he also passed orders on making available the top
court's judgments in seven languages including English and Hindi. (1) also headed the benches that heard
matters like a review of the apex court's verdict allowing the entry of women into the Sabarimala temple and the
Rafale ghter jet deal. While the court gave a clean chit to the government in the Rafale case, in the Sabarimala
review the bench referred the larger question of religious freedom to a nine-judge bench.
The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 members, out of which (2) are nominated by the President of
India. The nominated members are usually amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience
in literature, science, art and social service. Before (1), at least two retired Supreme Court judges were sent to
the Rajya Sabha. The Indira Gandhi government nominated Justice (3) to the Rajya Sabha in June 1983. (3) had
already served in the Rajya Sabha twice before becoming a judge.In 1998, the Congress sent Justice
Ranaganath Mishra to the Rajya Sabha. He had retired as the CJI in November 1991. Atal Bihari Vajpayee was
the prime minister at the time. Additionally, Justice M Hidayatullah was appointed the vice president and
thereby the chairman of the Rajya Sabha in 1979, he had retired from the Supreme in 1970.
Q.30
President Ram Nath Kovind nominated former Chief Justice of India (CJI) (1) to the Rajya Sabha. Who among
the following former Chief Justices has been redacted with (1) in the above passage?
a Justice Dipak Misra
b Justice T.S. Thakur
c Justice Ranjan Gogoi
d Justice Jagdish Singh Khehar
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
President Ram Nath Kovind nominated former Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan
Gogoi to the Rajya Sabha.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 1
Q.31
India. Which of the following is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
a 10
b 12
c 15
d 20
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 members, out of which 12 are
nominated by the President of India.
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Passage – 1
Q.32
The Indira Gandhi government nominated Justice (3) to the Rajya Sabha in June 1983and had already served in
the Rajya Sabha twice before becoming a judge. Who among the following has been redacted with (3) in the
above passage?
a Justice Vijay Prabhakar
b Justice P.N. Bhagawati
c Justice Arun Bahadur
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d Justice Baharul Islam
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Justice Baharul Islam was a Indian politican and Judge of the Supreme Court of
India. He was elected to the Rajya Sabha, upper house of the Parliament of India
as a member of the Indian National Congress and in 1972 he resigned from the
Rajya Sabha to became a judge in the Gauhati High Court after he retired as chief
Justice of the Gauhati High Court he was recalled and made a Judge of the Supreme court.
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Passage – 1
Q.33
President of India nominated (1) to Council of States to ll the vacancy caused due to the retirement of one of
the nominated members," K.T.S. Tulsi. He is a famous:
a Lawyer
b Writer
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c Theatre Artist
d Kannada Song Writer
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
K.T.S. Tulsi is an Indian politician and a senior advocate in the Supreme Court of
India. He has represented many notable people in various cases.
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Passage – 1
Q.34
Who is the only person to have served in all three o ces of Chief Justice of India, President of India, and the
Vice President of India?
a Gopal Swarup Pathak
b Zakir Husain
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c Mohammad Hidayatullah
d Engalaguppe Seetharamiah Venkataramiah
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Mohammad Hidayatullah became the only person to have served in all three
o ces of Chief Justice of India, President of India, and the Vice President of
India.
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Passage – 1
Q.35
In the Lok Sabha, two seats were reserved for members of the Anglo-Indian community and were nominated by
the President of India. In January 2020, these two seats in the Parliament were abolished by the
4/12/2020
a 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
b 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
c 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
d 107th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Between 1952 and 2020, two seats were reserved in the Lok Sabha, the lower
house of the Parliament of India, for members of the Anglo-Indian community.
These two members were nominated by the President of India on the advice of
the Government of India. In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the
Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
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Passage – 2
The former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and freedom ghter (1) have been named by the TIME magazine
among world's 100 powerful women who de ned the last century in a new project that "spotlights in uential
women who were often overshadowed." TIME named (1) as 'Women of the Year' for 1947 and Gandhi for (2) in
special covers recreated by the publication.
The pro le in TIME said that in (2), Gandhi, "'Empress of India' had become India's great authoritarian." Daughter
of India's rst prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru, Gandhi was "as ruthless as she was charismatic," the pro le
said, adding that by 1975, as a result of economic instability, Gandhi's government was "swamped by an
avalanche of street protests, and after her election was deemed invalid, she declared an emergency."
Daughter of India's rst prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru, Gandhi was "as ruthless as she was charismatic," the
pro le said, adding that by 1975, as a result of economic instability, Gandhi's government was "swamped by an
(1) pro le said that the young princess returned to India in 1918 after studying at Oxford and soon became
fascinated by Mahatma Gandhi's teachings. After India got independence in 1947, (1) became the rst woman
to join the Cabinet, serving as (3) for 10 years.
To recognize these women, TIME created 89 new TIME covers, many of which were designed by prominent
artists. The publication left intact the 11 covers for women who had been named Person of the Year. The 100
choices in this project are the result of a months-long process that began with more than 600 nominations
submitted by TIME staff.
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Q.36
among world's 100 powerful women. Which of the following freedom ghters has been redacted with (1) in the
above passage?
a Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
b Annie Besant
c Sarojini Naidu
d Aruna Asaf Ali
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Former prime minister Indira Gandhi and freedom ghter Amrit Kaur have been
named by the TIME magazine among world's 100 powerful women who de ned
the last century in a new project that "spotlights in uential women who were often
overshadowed."
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4/12/2020
Passage – 2
Q.37
After India got independence in 1947, (1) became the rst woman to join the Union Cabinet, serving as (3) for 10
years. Which of the following cabinet ministries is redacted with (3) in the above passage?
a Health Ministry
b Foreign Ministry
c Information and Broadcasting Ministry
d Education Ministry
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : b
After India got independence in 1947, Amrit Kaur became the rst woman to join
the Cabinet, serving as health minister for 10 years.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 2
Q.38
Who has been recognized as the Person of the 20th century?
a Franklin D. Roosevelt
b Albert Einstein
c Mahatma Gandhi
d Adolf Hitler
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : a
Time 100: The Most Important People of the Century is a compilation of the 20th
century's 100 most in uential people, published in Time magazine in 1999. In a
separate issue on December 31, 1999, Time recognized Albert Einstein as the
Person of the Century. In 1949, Winston Churchill was named "Man of the Half-Century", and the last issue of
1989 named Mikhail Gorbachev as "Man of the Decade". The December 31, 1999 issue of Time named Albert
Einstein the "Person of the Century". Franklin D. Roosevelt and Mahatma Gandhi were chosen as runners-up.
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Passage – 2
Q.39
TIME named (1) as 'Women of the Year' for 1947 and Indira Gandhi for (2) in special covers recreated by the
publication. Which of the following years is redacted with (2) in above passage?
a 1971
b 1973
c 1976
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d 1984
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : b
TIME named Kaur as 'Women of the Year' for 1947 and Gandhi for 1976 in special
covers recreated by the publication.
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Passage – 2
Q.40
Who is the rst Indian movie star to be featured on the cover of the Time magazine?
a Hema Malini
b Jeenat Aman
c Parveen Babi
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d Sridevi
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Parveen Babi, was the rst Indian movie star to be featured on the cover of the
Time magazine.
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Passage – 3
The exoplanet, 390 light years away towards the constellation (1), has days when its surface temperatures
exceed 2,400 Celsius, su ciently hot to evaporate metals. Its nights, with strong winds, cool down the (2) vapor
so that it condenses into drops of (2). This is the rst result with the high resolution spectrograph ESPRESSO, an
instrument co-directed by the IAC and installed on the Very Large Telescope (VLT) of ESO, in Chile. (3) receives
thousands of times more radiation from its central star than arrives at the Earth from the Sun. Its daytime face
is so hot that the molecules split into atoms, and metals such as (2) evaporate into the atmosphere. The
difference of more than a thousand degrees between night and day produces strong winds that take the (2)
vapor into the coolest part of the exoplanet.
The planet, which is 640 light-years from us, is so close to its star it takes just 43 hours to complete one
revolution. Another of the planet's interesting features is that it always presents the same face to the star - a
behaviour scientists call being "tidally locked". Earth's Moon does exactly the same thing; we only ever see one
side. This means, of course, the permanent dayside of (3) is being roasted. In fact, this hemisphere must be so
hot that all clouds are dispersed, and all molecules in the atmosphere are broken apart into individual atoms.
Using the Espresso spectrometer, the scientists detected a strong (2) vapour signature at the evening frontier, or
terminator, where the day on (3) transitions to night. But when the group observed the morning transition, the (2)
signal was gone. "What we surmise is that the (2) is condensing on the nightside, which, although still hot at
1,400C, is cold enough that (2) can condense as clouds, as rain, possibly as droplets. (3) is a monster gas
planet that's twice the width of our Jupiter. Its unusual name comes from the UK-led Wasp telescope system
that detected the world four years ago.
Q.41
exceed 2,400 Celsius. The constellation redacted with (1) in the above passage is:
a Gemini
b Virgo
c Capricorn
d Pisces
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : a
The exoplanet, 390 light years away towards the constellation Pisces, has days
when its surface temperatures exceed 2,400 Celsius.
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Passage – 3
Q.42
The Exoplanet (3) receives thousands of times more radiation from its central star than arrives at the Earth from
the Sun. Which of the following exoplanets is redacted with (3) in the above passage?
a KIC 12557548 b
b HD 209458 b
c WASP-76b
d Kepler-1625b
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
WASP-76b receives thousands of times more radiation from its central star than
arrives at the Earth from the Sun.
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Passage – 3
Q.43
The interesting feature of the exoplanet (3) is that it always presents the same face to the star - a behaviour
scientist's call being "tidally locked". What do you mean by "tidally locked"?
a a body has the same rotational period as its orbital period around a partner
b a body has no rotational features of orbitting
c a body has the rotation period of 24 hours
d a body has the same revolution period as its orbital period around a partner
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Tidal locking is the phenomenon by which a body has the same rotational period
as its orbital period around a partner.
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Passage – 3
Q.44
Which of the following is suitable feature of Spectrometer?
a A class of devices that accelerates subatomic particles in a constant electric eld
b A spectrometer is a scienti c instrument used to separate and measure spectral components of a physical
phenomenon
c A class of devices that accelerates charged atomic or subatomic particles in a constant magnetic eld
d A high-powered vacuum tube that works as a self-excited microwave oscillator
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
A spectrometer is a scienti c instrument used to separate and measure spectral
components of a physical phenomenon. Spectrometer is a broad term often used
to describe instruments that measure a continuous variable of a phenomenon
where the spectral components are somehow mixed.
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Passage – 3
Q.45
The exoplanet WASP-76b nights has strong winds which cool down the (2) vapor so that it condenses into
drops of (2). Which of the following metals is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
a Iron
b Gold
c Silver
d Nickel
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
This exoplanet, 390 light years away towards the constellation Pisces, has days
when its surface temperatures exceed 2,400 Celsius, su ciently hot to evaporate
metals. Its nights, with strong winds, cool down the iron vapour so that it
condenses into drops of iron. This is the rst result with the high resolution spectrograph ESPRESSO, an
instrument co-directed by the IAC and installed on the Very Large Telescope (VLT) of ESO, in Chile.
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Passage – 4
India suffered a setback at the (1) in a dispute against the (2) that had challenged its key export subsidy
schemes including the one for special economic zones. The (1) has ruled that these export subsidy
programmes violated provisions of the trade body's norms. New Delhi is likely to appeal the ruling before the
organisation's Appellate Body. A dispute panel in the (1) ruled that these export subsidy programmes provided
by the Indian government violated provisions of the trade body's norms.
"The dispute panel rejected India's claim that it was exempted from the prohibition on export subsidies under
the special and differential treatment provisions of the (1)'s Agreement on Subsidies & Countervailing Measures
(SCM)," the panel said in its ruling. The other affected schemes are - Merchandise Exports from India Scheme
(MEIS), Export Oriented Units Scheme and sector speci c schemes, including Electronics Hardware Technology
Parks Scheme and Bio-Technology Parks Scheme; Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme; and Duty-Free
Imports for Exporters Scheme.
"According to the Indian Government, thousands of Indian companies are receiving subsidies totaling over $7
billion annually from these programs, and India has increased the size and scope of these programmes,". It said
India gives prohibited subsidies to producers of steel products, pharmaceuticals, chemicals, information
technology products, textiles, and apparel. Last year, the (2) challenged India's export programmes at the (1)
claiming them to harm American workers citing the agreement that envisages the eventual phasing out of
export subsidies.
The agreement provides a period of eight years for graduating countries (least developed and developing) which
cross the $1,000-mark at 1990 exchange rate to phase out export subsidies. While the panel has recommended
withdrawal of the export-contingent subsidies within 90-180 days, dated from the formal adoption of the ruling,
India is likely to appeal the ruling in the Appellate Body.
Q.46
schemes including the one for special economic zones. Which of the following is redacted with (1) in the above
passage?
a World Trade Organization (WTO)
b International Criminal Court (ICC)
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c International Court of Justice (ICJ)
d World Bank
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
India suffered a setback at the World Trade Organization (WTO) in a dispute
against the US that had challenged its key export subsidy schemes including the
one for special economic zones.
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Passage – 4
export subsidies.
Q.47
Which of the following countries is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
a Japan
4/12/2020
b China
c USA
d South Korea
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
India suffered a setback at the WTO in a dispute against the US that had
challenged its key export subsidy schemes including the one for special
economic zones.
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Passage – 4
export subsidies.
4/12/2020
Q.48
In the passage given above, (1) was o cially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the _____________signed by
123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
a Marrakesh Agreement
b Geneva Agreement
c Paris Agreement
d Milan Agreement
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : c
The WTO o cially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh
Agreement, signed by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
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4/12/2020
Passage – 4
export subsidies.
Q.49
The Agreement on TRIPS is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the (1). What is
the full form of TRIPS?
a Trade-Relation Among Intellectual Property Rights
b Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
c Trade-Related Aspects of International Party Rights
d Transferrable-Relation Among Intellectual Property Rights
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World
Trade Organization (WTO).
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Passage – 4
export subsidies.
Q.50
What is "Blue box subsidy"?
a A category of domestic support or subsidies under the (1)'s Agreement on Fertilizers
b A category of domestic support or subsidies under the (1)'s Agreement on Agriculture
c A category of domestic support or subsidies under the (1)'s Agreement on Precious Metals
d A category of domestic support or subsidies under the (1)'s Agreement on Generic medicines
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Blue Box refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO's
Agreement on Agriculture. Blue box supports are subsidies that are tied to
programmes that limit production. The Blue box subsidies aim to limit production
by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land.
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Passage – 5
Sharing the waters of the (1), which originates in the Himalayas and ows to merge with the Brahmaputra in
Assam is perhaps the most contentious issue between two friendly neighbours, India and (2). The river covers
nearly the entire oodplains of Sikkim, while draining 2,800 sq km of (2), governing the lives of hundreds of
thousands of people. For West Bengal, (1) is equally important, considered the lifeline of half-a-dozen districts in
North Bengal. (2) has sought an "equitable" distribution of (1) waters from India, on the lines of the Ganga Water
Treaty of 1996, but to no avail.
"Estimates suggested that the (1)has a mean annual ow of approximately 60 billion cubic metre (BCM). A
signi cant amount of this water ows during the wet season, between June and September. The importance of
the ow and the seasonal variation of this river is felt during the lean season (from October to April/May) as the
average ow is about 500 million cubic metre (MCM) per month. Consequently, there are oods during
monsoons and droughts during the dry periods,". The West Bengal Chief Minister opposed an arrangement in
2011, by which India would get 42.5% and (2) 37.5% of the water during the lean season, and the plan was
shelved.
A recent memorandum of understanding signed by (2) allows India to withdraw 1.82 cusecs (cubic feet per
secon(d) of water from the Feni river to meet the drinking water needs of Sabroom town in Tripura. A tributary of
the Brahmaputra river (known as Jamuna in (2)), the (1) with its origin at the (1) Kangse glacier above 7,068 m,
ows southward through the states of Sikkim and West Bengal in India, and crosses over to (2).
Q.51
Sharing the waters of the river (1), which originates in the Himalayas and ows through Sikkim and West Bengal
is perhaps the most contentious issue between two countries. Which of the following rivers is redacted with (1)
in the above passage?
a Lohit
b Dihang
c Teesta
d Subansiri
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Sharing the waters of the teesta which originates in the Himalayas and ows
through Sikkim and West Bengal to merge with the Brahmaputra in Assam and
(Jamuna in Bangladesh), is perhaps the most contentious issue between two
friendly neighbours
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Passage – 5
shelved.
Q.52
Sharing of water is the most contentious issue between two friendly neighbours India and (2). Which of the
following countries is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
a Nepal
b Bhutan
c Bangladesh
d Myanmar
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Sharing the waters of the Teesta which originates in the Himalayas and ows to
merge with the Brahmaputra in Assam is perhaps the most contentious issue
between two friendly neighbours, India and Bangladesh.
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Passage – 5
shelved.
Q.53
The river (1) forms boundary between which of the following two states of India?
a Sikkim and West Bengal
b West Bengal and Bihar
c Assam and Meghalaya
d Nagaland and Manipur
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Teesta River forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal.
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Passage – 5
shelved.
Q.54
Which of the following is not a tributary of River (1)?
a Rangeet River
b Rangpo River
c Lachung River
d Kolong River
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
The Kolong River or Kailang is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
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Passage – 5
shelved.
Q.55
Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution gives power to the Union Government to enter any
transboundary river water related treaty with a riparian state?
a Article 237
b Article 243
c Article 248
d Article 253
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Article 253 of Indian Constitution gives power to the Union Government to enter
any transboundary river water related treaty with a riparian state.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
The (1) is a non-banking nancial company (NBFC), or 'shadow bank'. It was established over 30 years ago, the
conglomerate funds infrastructure projects across India. Some of the projects it has helped develop are 9-km
(2) (India's longest road tunnel), Delhi-Noida Toll Bridge, Ranchi-Patratu Dam Road, Baleshwar-Kharagpur
Expressway, Tripura Power Project, and Gujarat International Finance Tech-City (GIFT). Among (1) shareholders
are LIC, SBI, Japan's Orix Corporation, HDFC and CBI. The subsidiaries of (1) include transportation network
subsidiary (1) Transportation Networks Ltd (ITNL), engineering and procurement company (1) Engineering and
Construction Co Ltd and nancier (1) Financial Services Ltd.
(1) Financial Services fell short of cash and defaulted on several of its obligations. Even as new infrastructure
projects dried up, (1) running construction projects faced cost overruns amid delays in land acquisition and
approvals. It defaulted on repayment of bank loans (including interest), term and short-term deposits and also
failed to meet commercial paper redemption obligations.
It reported that it had received notices for delays and defaults in servicing some of the inter-corporate deposits
accepted by it. Following the defaults, rating agency ICRA downgraded the ratings of its short-term and long-
term borrowing programmes. The defaults also jeopardised hundreds of investors, banks and mutual funds
associated with (1), and sparked panic among equity investors, even as several non-banking nancial
companies faced turmoil amid a default scare.The (1) group operates over a hundred subsidiaries and is sitting
on a debt of Rs 94,000 crore.
Q.56
In the passage given above, (1) is a non-banking nancial company (NBFC), or 'shadow bank'. It funds
infrastructure projects across India. Which of the following companies is redacted with (1) in the above
passage?
a Power Finance Corporation Limited
b Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS)
c Tata Capital Financial Services Ltd
d Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Limited
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
The Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS) is a nonbanking nancial
company (NBFC), or 'shadow bank'. Established over 30 years ago, the
conglomerate funds infrastructure projects across India.
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Passage – 6
Q.57
Which of the following tunnels has been redacted with (2) in the above passage, which is India's longest road
tunnel?
a Pir Panjal Tunnel
b Manali Tunnel
c Banihal Qazigund Road Tunnel
d Chenani-Nashri Tunnel
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel, also known the Syama Tunnel and formerly
known as the Chenani-Nashri Tunnel, is a road tunnel in the Indian union territory
of Jammu and Kashmir on NH 44 (former name NH 1A before renumbering of all
national highways). The work was started in 2011 and was inaugurated on 2 April 2017 by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
Q.58
GIFT City is India's rst operational smart city and international nancial services centre located in:
a Rajasthan
b Gujarat
c Madhya Pradesh
d Maharashtra
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
GIFT is an operational smart city developed in the Gandhinagar metropolitan
region as a green eld development.
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Passage – 6
Q.59
Where is the headquarters of (1) located?
a New Delhi
b Mumbai
c Hyderabad
d Bengaluru
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services Limited (IL&FS) is an Indian
infrastructure development and nance company headquarter is located at
Mumbai.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 6
Q.60
In the passage given above, (1) was formed in 1987 as an "RBI registered Core Investment Company" by three
nancial institutions, namely the Central Bank of India______________ and Unit Trust of India (UTI), to provide
nance and loans for major infrastructure projects.
a Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC)
b State Bank of India (SBI)
c Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
d Bank of Baroda
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : b
IL&FS was formed in 1987 as an "RBI registered Core Investment Company" by
three nancial institutions, namely the Central Bank of India, Housing
Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) and Unit Trust of India (UTI), to provide
nance and loans for major infrastructure projects.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 7
The disease known as the (1) was rst reported in North America in January 1918 in Kansas. The in uenza
killed between 17 and 18 million Indians, more than all the casualties in World War One. India bore a
considerable burden of death - it lost 6% of its people. More women - relatively undernourished, cooped up in
unhygienic and illventilated dwellings, and nursing the sick - died than men. The (2) is believed to have infected
a third of the world's population and claimed between 50 and 100 million lives. The 1918 (1) happened in the
pre-antibiotic era, and there was simply not enough medical equipment to provide to the critically ill. Also
western medicines weren't widely accepted in India then and most people relied on indigenous medication. The
H1N1 in uenza is one of the deadliest disasters in history. It killed more people than the First World War - and in
less time. But there are many misconceptions about the (2). Firstly, 50 million is a conservative estimate for the
number of dead - the gure could be many times that number.
Late last year another new respiratory (3) invaded the human population, and the reality of a (2) is now upon us.
Although clearly a serious threat to human health, it does not appear to be as deadly as the 1918 in uenza (2).
But it is far more lethal than 2009's H1N1 (swine u) (2), and the corona does not resemble SARS, MERS or
Ebola, all of which can be easily contained.
About 15 years ago, after yet another global contagion the so-called bird u emerged in Asia, killing about 60
percent of the people it infected and threatening a catastrophic in uenza (2), governments worldwide began to
prepare for the worst. This effort included analyzing what happened in 1918 to identify public-health strategies
to mitigate the impact of an outbreak. Since I had a historian's knowledge of 1918 events, I was asked to serve
on the initial working groups that recommended what became known as non-pharmaceutical interventions, that
is, things to do when you don't have drugs.
Q.61
The disease known as the (1) was rst reported in North America in January 1918 in Kansas. Which of the
following diseases is redacted with (1) in the above passage?
a Plague
b Swine Flu
c Spanish Flu
d Cholera
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
The disease known as the Spanish u was rst reported in North America in
January 1918 in Kansas.
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Passage – 7
Q.62
A disease that has spread across a large region, for instance multiple continents, or worldwide is redacted with
(2) in the above passage. What is most suitably known as (2)?
a Pandemic
b Epidemic
c Endemic
d Corona
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
A pandemic is a disease epidemic that has spread across a large region, for
instance multiple continents, or worldwide.
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Passage – 7
Q.63
In uenza, commonly known as "the u", is an infectious disease caused by (3). Which of the following is
redacted with (3) in the above passage?
a Bacteria
b Fungi
c Virus
d Protozoa
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
In uenza, commonly known as "the u", is an infectious disease caused by an
in uenza virus.
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Passage – 7
Q.64
The Bird Flu is also known as:
a H1N1
b H5N1
c H7N5
d H8N9
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : a
Two types, H5N1 and H7N9, have infected some people during outbreaks in Asia,
Africa, the Paci c, the Middle East, and parts of Europe. There have also been
some rare cases of other types of bird u affecting people in the United States.
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Passage – 7
Q.65
The worst (2) in terms of the death toll is referred to as the BLACK DEATH. What was it an epidemic of ?
a Flu
b Cholera
c Bubonic Plague
d Small Pox
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : b
The Death Toll of Black Death was estimated between 75 – 200 million. The
cause was Bubonic Plague. From 1346 to 1353 an outbreak of the Plague ravaged
Europe, Africa, and Asia.Thought to have originated in Asia, the Plague most
likely jumped continents via the eas living on the rats that so frequently lived aboard merchant ships. Ports
being major urban centers at the time, were the perfect breeding ground for the rats and eas, and thus the
insidious bacterium ourished, devastating three continents in its wake.
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Sec 3
Direction for questions 66 to 103: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Few things cast a long shadow on human failing as much as sex selection does. To choose on the basis of
gender and eliminate new life if the gender is not 'favourable' can easily be among humanity's worst moments.
Years after it was believed that awareness generation and targeted behaviour change communication had led to
people giving up the inhuman practice of feeding female infants with the toxic milk of a local herb, the news that
a couple had reportedly used the same method to kill their second girl child, just a month old, had child rights
activists wringing their hands in frustration. This is no isolated case in a nation of missing girls. Data on sex
ratio at birth (SRB) culled from the Civil Registration System, show an alarming fall over the years. From 903
girls for every 1,000 boys in 2007, it dropped to 877 in 2016. This despite the fact that the Pre-Conception and
Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act was enacted and amended to arm the state to wage a war against the
pernicious practice of sex determination.
The Centre's 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' campaign aimed at saving girl children has a huge un nished task in
front of it. It is time again for the government to ramp up awareness building exercises, and this time use
technology to monitor every single pregnant woman right down to taluk levels until at least one year after birth.
While punitive aspects might offer a measure of deterrence, true change can only be brought about by a change
in attitude. As Amartya Sen argued: while at birth boys outnumber girls, 'after conception, biology seems on the
whole to favor women'. The weapon that the government needs to use now is one that will be powerful enough
to eliminate the perversion of son preference from people's minds.
Q.66
Chekkanoorani, a suburb near Usilampatti, in Madurai district, was the scene of the crime, where police arrested
a young couple and the paternal grandfather of the child for having fed the 31-day-old with the toxic juice, killing
her. Based on the essence of the passage, what would be the author's stand on the killing?
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a Author would oppose the killing since he is assured that problem lies in the laxity in the implementation of
law.
b Author would oppose the killing since the failure of law is compounded by prejudiced gender biased
attitude of the society.
c Author would be neutral on the killing since he is more concerned about the change in the behavior and
attitude of the society towards female infanticide.
d Author would oppose the killing since the funds are key determinant in the operationalizing the mandate of
the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : a
Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given
situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the
case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b)
Last paragraph says "While punitive aspects might offer a measure of deterrence, true change can only be
brought about by a change in attitude." Therefore, only preferable choice is (b) since the failure of law is
compounded by prejudiced gender biased attitude of the society.
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Passage – 1
Q.67
Four States have an SRB equal to or below 840: Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan (806), Bihar (837), Uttarakhand
(825) and Tamil Nadu (840). Activists point out that while infanticide may have come down, sex selective
abortion at scan centres continues as the preferred vehicle for parents (and grandparents) obsessed with son
preference. Based on the information provided in the passage, choose the appropriate solutions given
hereunder to address the falling sex ratio
1. Information, Education and Communication
2. Awareness generation
3. Targeted behaviour and attitudinal change
4. Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act's stricter enforcement
5. Technology to monitor every single pregnant woman
6. Rejecting bail to offenders of sex detection and infanticide
7. Imposing exemplary nes
8. Protecting Right to life of fetus
9. Relaxing the standards of rights of accused
a 1, 2,3, 4, 5,6,7 and 8
b 2,3, 4 and 8
c All of the above
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d 1,4, 5, 7 and 9
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
situation with the given information. You have to assimilate the inference and
evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a)
All the solutions like information, education and communication, awareness generation, targeted behavior and
attitudinal change,pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic techniques act's stricter enforcement, technology
to monitor every single pregnant woman, rejecting bail to offenders of sex detection and infanticide, imposing
exemplary nes, protecting right to life of fetus can be read and inferred from the passage except relaxing the
standards of rights of accused.
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Passage – 1
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Q.68
Tamil Nadu effectively employed the Cradle Baby Scheme to counter infanticide, along with effective awareness
campaigns. The cradles are still there, and the babies are coming too, but the SRB has been steadily dropping
since 2011. Based on the author's reasoning what could be the most appropriate reason?
a Most appropriate reason behind declining SRB in Tamil Nadu is problem lies in the lack of governance and
male biased policies.
b Most appropriate reason behind declining SRB in Tamil Nadu is the rising prosperity facilitating access to
fetal elimination technologies.
c Most appropriate reason behind declining SRB in Tamil Nadu is retrograde behavior and gender biased
attitude of the society.
d Most appropriate reason behind declining SRB in Tamil Nadu is the lack of awareness about the BBBP
campaign of the government.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Correct Answer is (c)
Last paragraph says "While punitive aspects might offer a measure of deterrence, true change can only be
brought about by a change in attitude." Therefore, only preferable choice is (c) since Tamil Nadu exhibits the
prevailing retrograde behavior augmented by gender biased attitude of the society.
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Passage – 1
Q.69
Recently, an amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, is proposed with a view to make
abortions illegal. Based on the ruling of the Court, what will be the stand of Author on the proposed
amendment?
a Author would oppose the proposed amendment since Right to life includes the Right to procreate and
reproduce of married individuals.
b Author would welcome the proposed amendment since the marriage provides a personal space wherein
the decisions taken by married couples should be free from the State's interference.
c Author would welcome the proposed amendment since the parliament represents the wisdom of entire
nation and the amendment is in the public interest and preserves the Right to Life.
d Author would oppose the proposed amendment since the amendments violates the reproductive autonomy,
bodily integrity and right to health instead of addressing the underlying problems in the gender prejudiced
society.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and
look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (d)
Facts are saying that the amendmentsproposed to make abortions illegal. Only option which provides
su cient reasoning and the inference is Option (d) thereforeopposition is inevitable since the amendments
violates the reproductive autonomy, bodily integrity and right to health instead of addressing the underlying
problems in the gender prejudiced society.
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Passage – 1
Q.70
Dr. Vardhan has a clinic registered under PCPNDT Act. Couple wanted a female child. Based on the author's
reasoning, sex determination in favour of females be considered legal?
a Dr. Vardhan should be let off after reprimanding him.
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b Dr. Vardhan should be penalised since killing the womb and committing foeticide is a heinous crime
punishable by law.
c Sex determination is illegal since the Act does not allow commission of sex determinative operations.
d Sex determination in favour of male child should not be held illegal as it will help in balancing the sex ration
of a society.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Passage mentions"This despite the fact that the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act
was enacted and amended to arm the state to wage a war against the pernicious practice of sex
determination."Therefore, Option (c) is the most appropriate option as it encapsulates the essence of the
passage and the law. Taking into the letter and spirit of law option (c) is the most logical choice.
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Passage – 1
Q.71
Rajiv makes a website offering services for medical termination of pregnancy for a very nominal amount.
Decide.
a Rajivis not liable under the law.
b Rajiv's liability depends upon the 'nominal' amount she is charging.
c Rajiv is liable for stringent punishment as provided under the law.
d Rama's liability depends upon the success of medical termination of pregnancy.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Only logical choice is option (c) making Rajiv liable for the illegal act.
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Passage – 1
Q.72
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 state that a pregnancy shall be terminated
within 20 weeks. Runu is a rape victim. She got to know about the pregnancy after 20 weeks. She aborts the
child. Is she liable?
a Yes, Runu is liable since she has violated the constitutional principle of Right to Life.
b No, Runu is not liable since she is a victim of rape therefore law should not further traumatize her.
c Yes, Runu is liable since she has violated the provision of the Bill by breaching the mandated time limit.
d No, Runu is not liable because accused is guilty of crime perpetrated on her. It is a clear case of failure of
security apparatus of the State.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 state that a
pregnancy shall be terminated within 20 weeks. Runu is liable since she has
violated the provision of the Bill by breaching the mandated time limit.Only logical choice is option (c) making
Runnu liable for the illegal act.
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Passage – 1
Q.73
The Bill states that no registered medical practitioner will be allowed to reveal the name and other particulars of
a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated, except to a person authorised by any law. Anyone who
contravenes this provision, will be punishable with imprisonment of up to one year, or with a ne, or both. Dr.
Vardhan reveals the name of a patient in order to cooperate in an investigation. Decide.
a Dr. Vardhan is not liable under the law.
b Dr. Vardhanis liable since the right to privacy is protected under Article 21
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c Dr. Vardhanis not liable since the information given to a person authorized by law.
d Dr. Vardhan is protected under the immunity clause of Medical Council of India Act.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Only logical choice is option (c) saving Dr. Vardhan from the penal provisions
since he is doing what has been mandated by law.
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Passage – 2
The Haryana Assembly last week passed a Bill to split the 20% quota for Scheduled Castes (SCs) in the state's
higher educational institutions into two, creating a quota within the quota for a new group of "Deprived
Scheduled Castes". Section 3(1) of The Haryana Scheduled Castes (Reservation in Admission in Government
Educational Institutions) Act, 2020 lays down that "twenty per cent seats shall be reserved for the members of
the Scheduled Castes while making admission…" Thereafter, Section 3(2) says: "Fifty per cent of the 20 per cent
seats reserved for Scheduled Castes for admission in any Government educational institution shall be set aside
for candidates belonging to deprived Scheduled Castes as enumerated in the Annexure".
Article 341(2) says President may include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes by a noti cation
issued under clause (1) any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as
aforesaid a noti cation issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent noti cation.
In the matter of E.V. Chinnaih v. State of A.P. the division of SCs into four classes by the state of A.P. was
invalidated by the court primarily because the states are incompetent to tinker with the list of SCs prepared by
the President but also because such classi cation could not be justi ed under Article 14.
Q.74
The administrative control over the members of district and subordinate judiciary in the States vest with the
concerned High Court. High Court frames the Rules and Regulations regarding the issues of appointment and
reservations of Judicial O cers in the State Judicial Service. If Haryana government extends reservation to
judiciary. Based only on the principle of law, would such a reservation be valid?
a Reservation would be valid, since the government has to maintain the e ciency and representation of
deprived sections in the Judiciary.
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b Reservation would not be valid, since reservation policy is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
c Reservation would be valid if Haryana government is right in law and logic by according reservation to the
deprived sections.
d Reservation would not be valid, since the Haryana Government is encroaching in the domain of High Court.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : b
Question says "The administrative control over the members of district and
subordinate judiciary in the States vest with the concerned High Court. High Court
frames the Rules and Regulations regarding the issues of appointment and reservations of Judicial O cers in
the State Judicial Service." Thus, only option which is aligned is option d.
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Passage – 2
Q.75
Uttar Pradesh government bifurcated the Scheduled Caste quota into two categories: Block A and Block B. Is
the bifurcation consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court in E V Chinnaiah vs State Of Andhra Pradesh?
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a Yes, bifurcation is consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court since equality and equity in the
representation of backward sections of the society is the constitutional rule of law.
b No, bifurcation is not consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court since the bifurcation is not
reasonable, not inclusive and do not have the back up of socio-economic study of the bifurcated Scheduled
Castes.
c Yes, bifurcation is consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court since Article 14, 15 and 16 provides
the power and authority to confer reservation.
d No, bifurcation is not consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court because sub-classi cation violates
Article 14 and only President can modify the Scheduled Castes.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Passage says "In the matter of E.V. Chinnaih v. State of A.P. the division division
of SCs into four classes by the state of A.P. was invalidated by the court primarily
because the states are incompetent to tinker with the list of SCs prepared by the President but also because
such classi cation could not be justi ed under Article 14." Thus, only option which is aligned is option d.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 2
Q.76
"Deprived Scheduled Castes" is "only 4.7%, 4.14% and 6.27% in Group A, Group B and Group C services
respectively, even though their population is about 11% of the total State population". Gathering the information
from the passage, what could be the possible solution to increase the representation of the Groups if the apex
court ruling is not made applicable?
a Possible solution to increase the representation is by increasing the access to education towards
academic excellence.
b Possible solution to increase the representation is by creating non-discriminatory space in the employment
avenues.
c Possible solution to increase the representation is by listing providing greater representation in the public
employment through the instrument of reservation.
d Possible solution to increase the representation is by diminishing the relative backwardness of castes
through sub-classi cations.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : a
such classi cation could not be justi ed under Article 14."Herein you need to choose the option which is
invalidated by the court thus, only option which is aligned is option (d).
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Passage – 2
Q.77
The "minimum prescribed educational quali cation for majority of the posts of Group A, B & C services is
Graduation, the SECC (Socio-Economic Caste Census) data reveals that in terms of education, only 3.53%
population of the Deprived Scheduled Castes is Graduate, 3.75% of them are Senior Secondary level and 6.63%
are Matric/Secondary level. Also 46.75% of them are illiterate". Based on the facts provided, what will be most
effective measure to increase the representation in the service posts?
a Most effective measure to increase the representation in the service posts is by sub-classifying the
Deprived Scheduled Castes from the Scheduled Castes category.
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b Most effective measure to increase the representation in the service posts is by creating employment
opportunities.
c Most effective measure to increase the representation in the service posts through the instrument of
reservation and positive discrimination
d Most effective measure to increase the representation in the service posts is by increasing the access to
and representation in higher education.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : b
Facts demonstrates that number of Graduates are low and minimum quali cation
is graduation." Thus, only option which is aligned is option (d).
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Passage – 2
Q.78
President by an Ordinance divided the 57 castes enumerated in the Presidential List into 4 groups based on
inter-se backwardness. Based on the apex court ruling whether the classi cation valid?
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a Yes, classi cation is valid since it only seeks to eliminate backwardness in the society.
b No, classi cation is not valid since the division done is illusory, extraneous and arbitrary.
c Yes, classi cation is valid since the President has the power to tinker with the list.
d No, classi cation is not valid since it runs inconsistent with the decision of the Supreme Court.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
such classi cation could not be justi ed under Article 14" and furthers adds "Article 341(2) says President
may include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes by a noti cation issued under clause ( 1 ) any
caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe." Thus, only option which is aligned is
option c.
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Passage – 2
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Q.79
Constitution has no provision for the reservation in the private sector for Deprived Scheduled Castes.
Government has noti ed the reservation in jobs in the private sector companies where Government has even
partial shares. In the absence of Constitutional provision, the noti cation is challenged, would the petition
deserve to be dismissed?
a Petition deserves to be dismissed since in the context of reservation in private sector, reservation is not a
solution.
b Petition does not deserve to be allowed since the private sector needs to expand the recruitment policy for
the marginalized section, especially the SC and ST at all levels.
c Petition deserves to be allowed since private sector needs to encourage the skill development and training
especially for the SC and ST.
d Petition deserves to be dismissed since the noti cation lacks the source of power in the Constitution
therefore the noti cation can be successfully challenged.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and
look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is d
It can be inferred from the question asked and the principle of law that Constitution has no provision for the
reservation in the private sector. In the absence of any source of law, noti cation introducing the reservation
in the private sector is liable to be dismissed. Thus, only option which is aligned is option d.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 2
Q.80
Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following statements is most inferential
with respect to introduction of sub-classi cation in the SC/ST reservation made in the passage above?
a SC/ST reservation policy resulted into inequality and conferred unequal bene ts to some castes or
communities within the Scheduled caste.
b SC/ST reservation policy has will help in aligning with the object of the Constitution and social justice
norms.
c SC/ST reservation policy will help to further social justice, equality and egalitarian socialism.
d SC/ST reservation policy has led in the uplifting of communities and castes that were at historical
disadvantaged and socially oppressed.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Rationale: This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option
that align with that reasoning.
Statement given "SC/ST reservation policy resulted into inequality and conferred unequal bene ts to some
castes or communities who swept the bene ts at the expense of others." cannot be inferred from the passage
and do not ow from any argument given by the author. Choice (a) become least inferential as a part of the
argument made in the above passage.
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Passage – 2
Q.81
Article 16(6) have been inserted in the constitution. This enables the State to provide the bene ts of reservation
on preferential basis to the Deprived Scheduled Castes in civil posts and services in the Government of India
without adversely affecting the proportionate seats of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward
Classes. Based on the author's argument and given information, will the Deprived Scheduled Castes reservation
adversely affect the SC/STs reservation?
a Yes, Deprived Scheduled Castes reservation adversely affects the SC/STs reservation since it has breached
the limit of 50% limit of the reservation.
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b No, Deprived Scheduled Castes reservation will not adversely affect the SC/STs reservation since it is
consistent with the morality, philosophy and equality norms of the constitution.
c Yes, Deprived Scheduled Castes reservation adversely affects the SC/STs reservation since the policy will
not promote socioeconomic and political justice.
d No, Deprived Scheduled Castes reservation will not adversely affect the SC/STs reservation since the
reservation won't affect adversely the proportionate seats of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Only choice (d) assimilate the inference and the principle of law givenPassage
says "In the matter of E.V. Chinnaih v. State of A.P. the division division of SCs into
four classes by the state of A.P. was invalidated by the court primarily because the states are incompetent to
tinker with the list of SCs prepared by the President but also because such classi cation could not be justi ed
under Article 14" and furthers adds "Article 341(2) says President may include in or exclude from the list of
Scheduled Castes by a noti cation issued under clause ( 1 ) any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within
any caste, race or tribe." Thus, only option which is aligned is option d. Here, there is not sub classi cation but
only preferential treatment is accorded.
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Passage – 3
Property is mainly divided into two parts, namely movable and immovable. Any offence which is committed in
regard to any property whether it is movable or immovable is punishable under the provisions of the law of
Crimes or the Indian Penal Code.
PROPERTY OFFENCES ARE PROVIDED HEREUNDER, APPLY THEM WHEREVER APPLICABLE:
1. Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other, and thereby
dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any property or valuable security, or anything signed
or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security, commits "extortion".
2. Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without
that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
3. Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion over property, dishonestly
misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, or dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in
violation of any direction of law, commits criminal breach of trust.
4. A person commits cheating when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver the latter's property to
him.
5. Whoever dishonestly receives a stolen property, knowing or having reason to believe the same to be stolen
shall be punished.
him.
7. Mischief is an injury to property with the intention of causing wrongful loss to any person or public. The
person to whom the loss is wrongfully caused by mischief needs not be the owner of the property himself.
8. Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other, and thereby induces
the person so put in fear to deliver any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be
converted into a valuable security, commits "extortion".
Q.82
A threatens to send goons to plough up Z's eld unless Z signs and delivers to B a bond binding Z under a
penalty to deliver certain produce to B, and thereby induces Z to sign and deliver the bond. Whether A has
committed extortion?
a Yes, A has committed extortion as he has put Z in fear to coerce him to sign a bond in favour of B.
b Yes, A has committed extortion because he has threatened Z with dire consequences.
c No, A has not committed extortion because he is just trying to help B.
d No, A has not committed extortion because Z had owed money to B.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Answer is option: (a)
The facts are clear that A has committed extortion by threatening to send goons
to plough up Z's land.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
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Q.83
Ravi gives his watch to Shyam for repairing. Initially, after taking a look at the watch Shyam quotes a price of Rs
1000/- for repairs. After a few days when Ravi goes to Shyam's shop to take delivery of his watch Shyam tells
Ravi that there were other faults in the watch as well and therefore demands a price of Rs 2500 for the repairs.
While Shyam and Ravi start negotiating for the nal price, Ajay walks into the shop to get his watch repaired.
Since there is no one else at that time to manage the shop except Shyam, Shyam excuses himself from Ravi and
goes to attend Ajay. Ravi nding that Shyam is busy attending to Ajay, walks out with the watch. Shyam les a
report of theft against Ravi at the Police Station. Decide.
a Ravi is not guilty of theft because it was his watch and he was the rightful owner.
b Ravi is not guilty because he did not intend to cause wrongful loss to Shyam but only wanted to get his
watch back.
c Ravi is guilty because he had not paid Shyam the price for repairs.
d Ravi is guilty because he had taken the watch out of the possession of Shyam without his consent.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Answer is option: (d)
Ravi is guilty of theft because the watch at that time was in Shyam's possession
and he has moved it without Shyam's consent. The facts thus clearly show a
dishonest intention on part of Ravi to take away the watch without paying the price of repairs, out of the
possession of Shyam.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
Q.84
Manohar Mishra, the local Pandit, without any reason tells Sudhanshu that his stars are really bad and therefore
he needs to get a puja performed and give fty thousand rupees in dakshina (grant) to him. Sudhanshu, being a
deeply religious man, believes Manohar and gives him the money. Is Manohar guilty of cheating?
a Yes, Manohar has fraudulently induced Sudhanshu to pay fty thousand rupees.
b No, Manohar has given astrological advice to Sudhanshu and therefore is not guilty for cheating.
c No, Manohar is a Pandit and he ought to be respected for his knowledge and advice.
d Yes, Manohar has used his Sanskrit learning in a wrong way and is therefore liable to be punished.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
It is clear from the facts that there was no reason for Manohar to give an advice in
such a way to Sudhanshu. He has clearly defrauded Sudhanshu, relying on the
fact that Sudhanshu is very religious.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
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Q.85
Amrish runs a farm of cows and produces milk which he then sells in his locality. Sometime later Pankaj also
starts a farm in the same locality. Pankaj has better breed of cows and therefore the milk coming from his farm
becomes very popular resulting in loss of business for Amrish. One day Amrish nds two of the cows from
Pankaj's yard grazing in a nearby eld. He attacks both with an axe with the intention to kill or maim them but
the cows ran away with minor injuries. Pankaj les a police complaint against Amrish for Mischief. Decide.
a Amrish is guilty because he has attacked the cows with the intention of causing wrongful loss to Pankaj.
b Amrish is not guilty because he did not kill or maim the cows. The cows were able to run away with minor
scratches.
c Amrish is not guilty because he did not have the intention to cause wrongful loss to Pankaj but was just
angry at the cows.
d Amrish should be booked under the local cow slaughter act.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Amrish is guilty as he attacked the cows with an intention to kill or maim them
that too with an axe. He clearly wanted to cause wrongful loss to Pankaj.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
Q.86
Akash wants to buy a new Rolex watch. He has only a thousand rupees with him. Akash therefore goes to the
"Chor Bazar" of the city and is able to buy a Rolex in just ve hundred rupees. The watch is actually a very good
imitation of a Rolex watch and not actually Rolex. Akash though believes that he has a Rolex and tells all his
friends that he has bought a Rolex. Is Akash guilty of receiving stolen property?
a Akash is not guilty because there is nothing illegal in buying from Chor Bazar.
b Akash is guilty because he has received a stolen property from Chor Bazaar.
c Akash is guilty because his intention was to buy a stolen property.
d Akash is not guilty because he has not bought a stolen property but a fake property.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Akash is not guilty because it is clear from the facts that the watch was not stolen
from someone but was an imitation of a Rolex watch.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
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Q.87
Anwar is a mechanic in a garage. He repairs cars, bikes and scooters. Anees comes to the garage one day and
shows his bike to Anwar. Anwar advises Anees that the bike has really broken down and therefore he should not
waste his money in getting it repaired. Anees believing Anwar sells his bike to Anwar itself at a very low price.
Anwar then does a few repairs to the bike and sells it at a very good price. When Anees learns about the high
price paid on his bike he les a police complaint of cheating against Anwar. Decide.
a Anwar is not guilty of cheating because the practice of taking the old bike, repairing it and then selling it is
well accepted.
b Anwar is not guilty because he has not fraudulently induced Anees to deliver his property as Anees himself
came to the garage to get his bike repaired.
c Anwar is guilty because he himself intended to make a pro t.
d Anwar is guilty because he fraudulently induced Anees to sell his bike.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The facts clearly show that Anwar fraudulently induced Anees to sell his bike by
telling him that it has broken down. It is clear that Anwar wanted to sell the bike at
a higher price and earn pro t out of it.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
Q.88
Ashish and Manish are brothers who were jointly given a car by their father. Their father had made it expressly
clear that both had equal ownership of the car. Both of them took turns to drive the car. One day, Meena, a
college friend of both Ashish and Manish agrees to go for a movie with Ashish. Ashish takes away the car for
the movie. When Ashish tells Manish about the movie with Meena, Manish becomes furious with jealousy and
anger, as he also likes Meena. In a t of anger, he takes an iron rod and starts hammering the car. Ashish les a
police complaint for mischief against Manish. Decide.
a Manish is not guilty because the car also belonged to him and he could do with it as he wanted.
b Manish is not guilty because he was not in his senses when he damaged the car.
c Manish is guilty because he caused wrongful loss to property which also belonged to his brother.
d Manish is guilty because he got angry and jealous with his own brother.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Answer is option: (c)
The facts state that the car belonged jointly to Ashish and Manish. Manish thus
has caused wrongful loss to Ashish by hammering the car.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
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Q.89
Alex is a butler at the house of Wayne family. One day he nds that his master (Bruce Wayne) has left his
diamond embedded cu ink on the dash board of the bed. He picks up the cu inks and puts them in the family
closet safely. Alex then goes for a trip outside the city for two weeks. Bruce is not able to nd his cu inks the
next day. He calls up the police to report that his cu inks have been stolen. Is Alex guilty of theft?
a Alex is not guilty of theft, even though he has moved the property without the consent of Bruce Wayne.
b Alex is not guilty because he is the butler and he can remove the cu inks as per his wish.
c Alex is guilty because he has moved the property without the consent of Bruce Wayne.
d None of the above
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The facts are clear that Alex had moved the cu inks for their safe keeping.
Therefore he is not liable for theft.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
Q.90
Anwar Ibrahim, a gangster in Mumbai, calls up Jamshed Bata, a reputed builder in Mumbai, to pay up a sum of
Rs.10 crores which Jamshed had taken from Vishambhar Agarwal a friend and partner of Anwar as a loan and
refused to pay. Anwar makes it very clear that either Jamshed pay up the money or else he will make sure that
there are 10 bullet holes in Jamshed's body by the end of the day. Jamshed gets scared and immediately
withdraws money from the bank and gives it to Vishambhar Agarwal. Is Anwar Ibrahim guilty of extortion?
a Anwar Ibrahim is trying to help his friend and therefore is not guilty.
b This is a bad debt on part of Jamshed and therefore paying this does not amount to extortion.
c Anwar is guilty because he has put Jamshed in fear as a result of which Jamshed had to pay the money
d Anwar Ibrahim is guilty because law does not recognize him being a Robin Hood.
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Anwar is guilty of extortion because he has put Jamshed in fear of his life and
thereby forced him to pay money to Vishambhar. As per the principle it is not
important whether Vishambhar had a rightful claim for the money or not.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
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Q.91
Ajit and Amit are best friends. They are both good hunters and often go hunting together. Once, when they were
out on a hunting spree, they made a shack for themselves. Amit was hunting from the shack while Ajit was
sleeping there. Suddenly Amit saw a big bear roaming around. Just as he took out his ri e he realized that he
had run out of bullets. He took out bullets from Ajit's bag with the intention of replacing them and shot ve
rounds at the bear. The shots killed the bear. Ajit woke up after hearing the shots and thereafter the two friends
rejoiced together. After spending some more time at the forests they went home. Amit completely forgot about
the bullets he had taken from Ajit's bag. Is Amit liable for theft?
a Yes, Amit is liable for theft because he has taken out bullets from Ajit's Bag without his consent.
b No, Amit is not liable because he did not have the intention to steal the bullet but merely wanted to kill the
Beer with the bullets.
c No, Amit is not liable because he did not dishonestly take out the bullets and he had thought of returning
them to Ajit as soon as possible.
d Yes, Amit is liable because Ajit has suffered a loss.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Amit is not liable for theft. It is clear from the facts that he wanted to give the
bullets back to Ajit and it was because of the joy of having killed the beer that he
forgot to buy new bullets for Ajit. There is no dishonest intention on part of Amit to remove the bullets out of
the possession of Ajit.
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Passage – 3
him.
shall be punished.
him.
Q.92
Manisha and Ridhima are good friends but envious of each other's material possessions. Manisha's husband
Ajay gifts a diamond bracelet to her on their anniversary. Manisha shows her bracelet to Ridhima who turns
green with jealousy on seeing it. Finding a golden opportunity, when Manisha is not around, Ridhima takes up
Manisha's bracelet and throws it in the swimming pool. Avinash, the domestic help of Manisha, sees this and
manages to safely retrieve the bracelet from the swimming pool. Manisha les a case of mischief against
Ridhima. Decide.
a Ridhima is guilty of mischief because she has intentionally thrown away the bracelet to cause wrongful
loss to Manisha.
b Ridhima is guilty of mischief because she has tried to hurt Manisha out of jealousy.
c Ridhima is not guilty because the bracelet has been safely retrieved and there is no wrongful loss.
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d Ridhima is not guilty because there was no intention to actually hurt Manisha, she just intended to throw
away the bracelet.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Ridhima had the intention to cause wrongful loss to Manisha but there was
neither any actual loss nor any injury/damage to the property because Avinash
safely retrieved the bracelet from the pool. She might be guilty of some other offence.
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Passage – 4
Consideration is "Something which is given and taken." Section 2 (d) of the Contact Act 1872 de nes contract
as "When at the desire of the promissory, the promise or any other person has done or abstained from doing or
does or abstains from doing or promise to do or abstain from doing. Something such act or abstinence or
promise is called a consideration for the promise." Consideration is the foundation of ever contract. The law
insists on the existence of consideration if a promise is to be enforced as creating legal obligations. A promise
without consideration is null and void.
FOLLOWING LEGAL PRINCIPLES ARE TO BE KEPT IN PERSPECTIVE WHILE APPROACHING THE QUESTIONS:-
1. When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee has done something; such an act is called a consideration
for the promise.
2. Consideration must be of some value in the eyes of law.
3. Promisor is the person who makes the offer and promisee is the person to whom the offer is made.
4. An agreement without consideration is void unless it is a promise to compensate wholly or in part, a person
who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor.
5. An agreement to interfere with the course of justice is void.
6. A company incorporated under the Companies Act is a juristic person, capable of entering into binding
contracts.
7. Every agreement by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in
respect of any contract by the usual legal proceedings in ordinary tribunals is void.
8. A suit in respect of a contractual dispute may be led at the place where the contract was signed, or where
the cause of action arises or where the plaintiff generally resides.
9. A contract with a minor (person below the age of 18) is void ab initio. Rati cation relates back to the date of
making the contract.
10. When a party to a contract has refused to perform or has disabled himself from performance of his promise
in its entirety, the other party may put an end to the contract, unless the other party has signi ed by words or
conduct his acquiescence in its continuance.
11. When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, in the absence of a contract to the
contrary, compel any of such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise. A contract which completely
bars the jurisdiction of the courts of law is void.
12. An agreement made without consideration is void unless it is a promise, made in writing or otherwise, by the
person to be charged with, to pay wholly a debt, which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law
of limitations of suits.
Q.93
X was engaged by Y to play violin his theatre for three nights. X performed on the rst night and the next day he
fell ill and could not perform. X presented himself at Y's theatre on the third night but Y refused to let him play
and told him that he has rescinded the contract. Decide whether Y had the right to rescind the contract?
a Yes, Y had the right to rescind the contract as X did not perform the contract in its entirety.
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b Yes, Y had the right to rescind the contract as X disabled himself from performing the contract, therefore
did not perform the contract in its entirety.
c Yes, Y had the right to rescind the contract as X refused to perform, in entirety, his obligations under the
contract.
d None of the above
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The principle lays down that when a party has refused or disabled himself from
performing the contract as a whole, the other party can rescind the contract. In
this case, the contract was to perform for three nights. As X could not perform for one night, he did play part
of his promise but did not disable himself from the performance of the entire contract. Hence, Y cannot
rescind the contract.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.94
Sammy bought a new car. All his friends were impressed and he promised them to take them out for lunch.
While on the way, he got a call from his family that his mother had fallen ill. Abandoning his friends, he rushed to
the hospital where his mother was admitted. One of his friends got angry and decided to sue him for not
keeping up his promise.
a There was a valid agreement and Sammy should have kept his promise.
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b There was no consideration for Sammy and he is not liable.
c Sammy has bought a new car which was his consideration for providing lunch to his friends.
d Sammy is not liable as his mother was sick and he could not have kept his promise.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Sammy was the promisor here and his friends were promisee. Since Sammy had
bought the car himself there was nothing of value that his friends i.e. the
promisee did. Hence there was no consideration.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.95
Anees and Ibrahim were good friends. They stayed together and pooled in money to pay for the rent of the at.
One day, Anees requested Ibrahim to lend him his bike as he was getting late for his o ce. Ibrahim agreed, but
on a condition that Anees will have to completely bear the rent for the on-going month. While on the way,
Ibrahim's bike broke down and Anees could not reach o ce on time. He later refused to pay the whole rent.
Decide.
a There was a valid agreement and Anees will have to pay the whole rent.
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b Since the objective was not complete it cannot be said to be a valid agreement.
c Agreement is unlawful.
d None of the above.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
At the desire of Anees, Ibrahim lent him his bike. The consideration was valid and
Anees will have to pay the complete rent.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.96
A purchased a gold chain from B. At that time, he was a month shy from turning 18. After two months of the
purchase, he executed an agreement with B, in which he acknowledged his debt and promised to pay back the
amount due for the chain. A later refused to be bound by the contract. B led a suit for breach of contract and to
recover the amount. Whether a valid binding contract has come into existence making A liable under the
contract?
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a No, as the contract was made when A was a minor, no valid contract has been made, hence he cannot be
made liable under the contract.
b Yes, as A acknowledged his debt after attaining the age of majority, thereby ratifying the earlier contract.
The contract has been perfected by the application of doctrine of rati cation
c No, even though a valid contract has arisen, A cannot be made liable as the doctrine of restitution does not
apply to minor's contract.
d Yes, as minority is no bar to an action for breach of contract.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
In this case, a valid contract has not arisen and therefore A, cannot be made liable
under the contract as he was a minor at the time of making the contract. Minors
contracts are void ab initio, i.e. void from the very beginning, and since rati cation relates back to the date of
making the contract, a contract which was void from the beginning cannot be rati ed.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.97
X and Y are brothers. They were renovating their ancestral home. They entered into a contract with Z, wherein Z
promised to supply cement to X and Y. The contract provided that Z was to deliver the cement at the site of
construction at his own cost. It was further provided that the payment was to be made only after the repair and
renovation work was over. The claims under the contract were to be raised against both the brothers and any
dispute was subject to arbitration and the decision of the arbitrator was to be nal and binding. After the repair
work was complete, Z raised a claim against X for payment. Decide whether the claim of Z will be upheld.
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a No, as the contract completely bars the jurisdiction of the court of law, therefore the contract cannot be
enforced.
b Yes, as the principle clearly states that a contract can be enforced against any one of the promisors.
c No, as Y has not been made a party to the claim.
d Yes, as Z has supplied cement under the contract and has raised his claim only after the completion of the
work, therefore he is entitled to claim his money.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The principle states that a claim can be raised against any of the parties but the
principle is subject to the terms of the contract. The contract provides that a
claim can be raised only against both the parties, since in this case, Z has raised a claim only against X,
therefore the claim cannot be upheld. As far as the arbitration clause is concerned, it does not completely bar
the jurisdiction of the courts, it only provides that dispute must rst be referred to an arbitrator. Hence the
claim cannot be upheld.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.98
A owed a sum of Rs. 50,000/- to B. The agreement stated that A was to return the money to B within one year
from the date on which the money was advanced otherwise B can enforce his right by ling a suit. After one
year, B asked A for his money but A refused. In the meantime, B left for abroad and returned after ten years.
After coming back, B led a suit against A in order to recover the money but the suit was dismissed as it was
barred by the law of limitation. A gave an oral promise to B to pay half the amount he owed to B. However A
again refused to honour his commitment and B led a suit against A. Decide whether B can enforce the promise
given by A?
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a No, as the promise was not written and signed he cannot enforce the promise against A.
b Yes, as it was a promise to pay a time barred debt therefore B can enforce the promise against A.
c Yes, as an oral promise to pay a time barred debt is enforceable, therefore B can enforce the promise
against A.
d No, as A merely promised to return half the amount he owed to B.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The principle lays down that even an oral promise to pay a time barred debt is
enforceable however the promise must be to pay the debt wholly. In this case,
even though A made an oral promise which could have been enforced against him however, he only promised
to satisfy half the debt and did not promise to pay the debt wholly, therefore the contract is not enforceable
against A.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.99
Rosie, a wealthy widow, was approached by her alma mater university for a donation that the school intended to
use for constructing a hostel for women. Rosie offered to donate an amount that would cover fty percent of
the capital required for the building. If Rosie were to later refuse, can the university sue her to pay?
a No, because the university does not need a women's hostel.
b Yes, if the university can show that they commenced construction of the hostel relying on Rosie's promise.
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c No, because Rosie's promise is merely a gratuitous promise.
d Yes, because Rosie has a moral obligation.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
In the present case Rosie has given a promise to the school to give money for the
construction and on the basis of that promise, if the school constructs a women
hostel then Rosie is liable to pay the amount promised.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.100
Phillip was a fan of Hollywood movies. There was a new action movie being released on Friday but there was no
one with whom he could go to the theatre. He promised his friend Boetang that he will cook him dinner for the
entire next week if he goes to watch the movie with him. Boetang obliged but got very bored and left at the
interval. When Phillip returned, Boetang asked him to cook dinner. Phillip refused stating Boetang did not ful ll
his part of the promise. Decide.
a Agreement was valid and Phillip will have to cook.
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b There was no real consideration and hence the agreement was void.
c Agreement would have been valid if Boetang would have watched the whole movie.
d None of the above.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : b
At the desire of Phillip, Boetang went with him to watch the movie. The
consideration was going for the movie and watching the complete movie was not
mentioned. Boetang ful lled his part of the agreement.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.101
A and B formed a company. They sought C's help for registration of the company under the Companies Act,
before the Registrar of Companies (ROC). After the company was registered, A and B became its directors and
they executed a bond on behalf of the company as its directors, promising to appoint C as a director on the
board of directors for the services rendered by C. C sought appointment on the board, but was refused. C led a
suit against the company. Decide.
a C can seek appointment on the board as he rendered his services in registering the company.
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b C cannot seek appointment as the services were not rendered to the company.
c C cannot seek appointment as the act was not voluntary.
d Both B and C
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
Answer is option: (b)
The principle requires that the services rendered must have been voluntary and
must have been done for the promisor. In this case the services were neither
voluntary nor rendered for the company. However option B is the more appropriate answer because the
promise to appoint him as a director for the services rendered was made by the company through its directors.
When the services were rendered the company was not in existence as it was not registered, therefore it was
not a juristic person. In other words, to determine whether the services were voluntary or otherwise, it has to
be rst established that the promisor was in existence at the time when the services were rendered.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.102
Mr. A was involved in a long pending litigation against his brother. The case was pending before the Court for
almost ten years. After the nal arguments on the case were presented, the Court decided that the verdict shall
be pronounced in a week's time. Three days before the pronouncement of the verdict, A organised a puja for his
success in the case, followed by a dinner. The presiding Judge of the case, who was A's neighbour, was invited
for the puja. The priest conducted the puja and left soon after without collecting his fee. The case was decided
in A's favour. The priest who conducted the puja claimed his fee but A refused. Decide.
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a The agreement between the priest and A cannot be enforced as the object of the agreement was to
interfere with the course of justice.
b The agreement between the priest and A can be enforced as it did not interfere with the course of justice.
c The presence of the Judge at the occasion renders the entire event void. Therefore any contract arising out
of it also cannot be enforced.
d The agreement between the priest and Mr. A can be enforced as it was entered into by two consenting
adults on their own.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The agreement was valid as it arose out of a private arrangement between A and
the priest and had nothing to do with the administration of Justice. It cannot be
said that organising such pujas can in uence the course of Justice. Therefore the contract is a valid one.
Option (c) is not applicable as the facts merely state that the Judge was invited but it does not state that he
attended the function.
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Passage – 4
for the promise.
contracts.
Q.103
A and B entered into a contract whereby A agreed to supply electrical turbines to B for a hydroelectric project
being developed by B in Himachal Pradesh. B was a resident of Mumbai and the agreement was signed at Delhi.
A clause in the contract clearly provided that any dispute regarding the contract would be subject to the
jurisdiction of the Mumbai courts only. A dispute having been arisen, B decided to le a suit against A at
Mumbai. A challenged the agreement on the ground that the agreement is void as it places a restriction on the
parties to le the suit at only one place. Decide.
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a The contract is void as it restricts the parties from enforcing its rights through usual legal proceedings
before ordinary tribunals.
b The contract is not void as it does not absolutely restrict the parties from enforcing their rights through
usual legal proceedings before ordinary tribunals.
c The contract is void as it places a partial restriction on the rights of the parties in relation to enforcement of
its rights through usual legal proceedings before courts.
d The contract is not void as parties can choose not to submit their disputes to legal proceedings before
courts.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The contract is absolutely valid. The principle states that an agreement which
absolutely bars the jurisdiction of the courts is void. In this case, the agreement
does not absolutely bars the jurisdiction of the courts, it merely provides that the dispute arising out of the
contract are subject to the jurisdiction of courts of one particular place, competent to adjudicate on the
matter. In this case, the Mumbai courts are competent to adjudicate on the matter as B, the plaintiff, resides
there. Therefore the contract is valid and binding.
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Sec 4
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Directions for questions 104 to 123: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to
you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose
the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
Still, although rubbish may be relative, and although hoarding has not always been possible, shouldn't we admit
that those who ll their houses from oor to ceiling with precarious piles of newspapers and boxes have a
mental health problem? I accept that the relationship between hoarder and possessions is unusual, and also
think that it is unwise to ll one's house with junk, but I am still not entirely convinced that hoarding is best
thought of as a mental disorder. Remember, rst, that there are many habits and behaviours that are unwise but
that we do not pathologize. For example, many of us reduce our life expectancy by years because we fail to
exercise or to eat healthily. Others fail to back-up computer les, or to save adequately for old age. Maybe
hoarding differs from such examples of folly in that hoarding is more unusual, but rarity in itself cannot
transform a pattern of behaviour from a bad habit into a disorder. Those who consider hoarding a disorder will
likely point out that hoarding disorder is associated with distinctive patterns of brain activity, and can be further
distinguished from 'normal behaviour' by its natural history, treatment response, and the way in which it seems
to run in families.
Q.104
Based on which observations does the author state that it is hard to state conclusively that hoarding is a mental
disorder?
a It is not incumbent that we pathologize every other imprudent activity.
b We do not consider smoking cigarettes as a pathological disorder.
c If lack of exercising can be seen to be natural then so can be hoarding.
d It is not genetic in nature as other mental health issues.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
The author states in the passage that, 'that there are many habits and behaviors
that are unwise but that we do not pathologize' while mentioning why she is not
entirely convinced about hoarding being a pathological issue. Options (b) and (c)
supplement (a) but are not the reasons why hoarding is not a pathological
disorder.
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Passage – 1
to run in families.
Q.105
Which of the following is an example of the argument used by the author to not place hoarding as an example of
mental health disorder?
a Just because something appears suddenly, does not mean that it is novel.
b One's eating pattern and the way they store food is not a marker of the person's overall wellbeing.
c Motion pictures were extremely uncommon in late 19th century but it still was not a new art form.
d Doctors are not sure whether the rare virus is behind the rare disease.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
The author states that, 'rarity in itself cannot transform a pattern of behaviour
from a bad habit into a disorder'. In other words, just because something is rare
does not mean that it can be categorized into something new. Option (c) is
closest to this argument.
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Passage – 1
to run in families.
Q.106
Based on the passage, which of the following may negate the entire premise of hoarding?
a It is no different than a stamp collection.
b It is not a phenomenon which can be clearly described.
c In today's world where space crunch is a serious issue it is not possible to hoard.
d What one may look at as accumulation of useless stuff is a relative observation.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
In the passage it is stated that rubbish may be relative. If rubbish is relative then
the entire concept of hoarding may or may not exist. The other options are invalid
here.
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Passage – 1
to run in families.
Q.107
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
a Unusual activities are certainly not disorders.
b Saving adequately for the future is a form of madness.
c Neither (a) or (b).
d Both (a) and (b).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Option (a) is invalid because of the use of 'certainly'.
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Passage – 1
to run in families.
Q.108
Which of the following is a marker of mental health disorders?
a The presence of multiple perspectives of reality.
b Unique cerebral functioning.
c A strong history of illness in family.
d Distinguishing features from normal people.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
In the passage it is stated that, 'Those who consider hoarding a disorder will likely
point out that hoarding disorder is associated with distinctive patterns of brain
activity'. Option (d) is vague and does not shed any light on the issue.
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Passage – 2
We cannot know if there is such a thing as altogether unappreciated genius or whether it is the daydream of
those who are not geniuses; but we can be reasonably sure that posthumous fame will not be their lot. Fame is
a social phenomenon; adgloriam non estsatisuniusopinio (as Seneca remarked wisely and pedantically), "for
fame the opinion of one is not enough," although it is enough for friendship and love. And no society can
properly function without classi cation, without an arrangement of things and men in classes and prescribed
types. This necessary classi cation is the basis for all social discrimination, and discrimination, present opinion
to the contrary notwithstanding, is no less a constituent element of the social realm than equality is a
constituent element of the political. The point is that in society everybody must answer the question of what he
is-as distinct from the question of who he is-which his role is and his function, and the answer of course can
never be: I am unique, not because of the implicit arrogance but because the answer would be meaningless.
Posthumous fame seems, then, to be the lot of the unclassi able ones, that is, those whose work neither ts the
existing order nor introduces a new genre that lends itself to future classi cation.
Q.109
Which of the following is consistent with the above passage?
a Society and bias are intrinsically woven together.
b Society cannot function without a constitution.
c Politics and society have similar fundamental basis.
d Society thrives on contradictions.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
In the passage it is mentioned that discrimination is a constituent element of
social realm. This makes (a) the correct option. The other options cannot be
veri ed from the given passage.
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Passage – 2
Q.110
Which of the following strengthens the author's contention that fame is a social component?
a Fame is contrasted with personal and individual experiences.
b Fame is stated to be useful only when the recipient is alive.
c Fame is maintaining equality in politics.
d Fame is the basis of bringing together geniuses in society.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
The question here is whether or not fame is a social phenomenon. Option (a)
contrasts fame with individual experiences like love and friendship. The other
options cannot be validated from the given passage.
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Passage – 2
Q.111
Which of the following do you think is a logical reason behind stating that single opinion is not enough for
fame?
a Famous people are subjected to myriad judgments.
b Famous people need to be prescribed by society.
c To be or not be famous is an attribute that society will determine.
d Fame cannot be measured through a single point of view since it must be pleasing to all.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
In the passage it is stated that fame is a social phenomenon. Option (d) is
incorrect since there is no mention of fame being a socially pleasing factor. The
other options cannot be inferred from the given passage.
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Passage – 2
Q.112
Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
a Society is dependent on hierarchies.
b To categorize is primal to societies.
c Both (a) and (b).
d Neither (a) or (b).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
In the passage it is stated that, 'no society can properly function without
classi cation, without an arrangement of things'.
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Passage – 2
Q.113
Which of the following is essential towards a work becoming famous while the creator lives?
a The work must go beyond the designated social realm of the age.
b It must be visionary in nature.
c It should follow past traditions.
d The work dealing with existing social structures.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
In the passage it is stated that, 'Posthumous fame seems, then, to be the lot of
the unclassi able ones, that is, those whose work ts the existing neither order
nor introduces a new genre that lends itself to future classi cation.' This means to
make a work famous while one is living one should place the work within the
realm of existing social structures. The other options cannot be validate from the given passage.
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Passage – 3
Q.114
Which of the following strengthens the notion that absence of match day could be detrimental for sporting
teams who are not at the top?
a Lower league teams receive bene ts from tourists coming to visit their matches.
b Lower league teams draw bene t from European air travel.
c Lower league teams are already under immense nancial strain.
d Lower league teams will lose broadcasting revenues.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
The passage mentions that, 'There will be a sharper sense of peril lower down the
leagues. The experience of clubs deprived of vital matchday revenue - and often
recklessly close to their nancial limits'. Although (d) might look logical, it goes
beyond the scope of the passage.
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Passage – 3
Welcome to the world of the post-modern pandemic, where anxiety spreads ahead of the tideline, where
unravelling the semiotics of plague and plague politics seems to be almost as pressing as the plague itself. And
where even sport, the great distracter, can be cancelled at a stroke. It is highly likely we will now see the
postponement of the Euro 2020, a tournament designed during the nancial crisis to take advantage of cheap
and easy European travel, which now seems almost comically un t for purpose. There will be a sharper sense of
peril lower down the leagues. The experience of clubs deprived of vital matchday revenue - and often recklessly
close to their nancial limits - is likely to mirror problems in other sports. There will be a clashing of gears over
all this and no shortage of legal threats as time and resources are divvied up. Sport will survive. The beauty, the
grace, the basic pleasure of these gaudy entertainments will remain unaffected. But a great deal of practical
help will be required to ensure it is not offered only to those victims of this nasty little bug who can shout the
loudest, that precarious livelihoods and the infrastructure of amateur sport are also protected.
Q.115
Which of the following can be logically derived from the given passage?
a The author considers contemporary politics to be in a state of doom.
b Europe is currently a hotbed of anxiety.
c Amateurs in Europe will nd it hard to evolve with the current scare of disease.
d Football's powers of distraction are necessary at the time of plague.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
The author compares politics with the plague. The author further compares the
political rhetoric to be as morbid as the spreading of plague. Hence, (a) is the
correct choice.
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Passage – 3
Q.116
Which of the following weakens the notion that all sports may survive?
a No plague is permanent.
b There is hegemony in sporting structures.
c Human civilization cannot do away with entertainments.
d Legal threats to cancelling of sports will help it.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
The author mentions in the passage how sporting leagues and teams situated at
the bottom of the ladder are already at a nancial disadvantage. If a crisis hits
sports in general, help will be given to those who are already in a position of
power and wealth. There is a clear hierarchy in sports. The other options cannot
be determined from the given passage.
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Passage – 3
Q.117
a Euro 2020 was going to be a victory for corruption.
b Matchday revenues sustain sports.
c Both (a) and (b).
d Neither (a) nor (b).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
None of the give options can be inferred from the given passage.
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Passage – 3
Q.118
Which of the following follows the author's thoughts about Euro 2020?
a Domes built will remain unless there is another world war.
b Cheap masks manufactured keeping pro t in mind has become redundant as summer has put an end to
the u.
c Food rationed in fear of ood will get wasted now that the warning was found out to be false.
d Earthquake shelters are great if there are earthquakes or else they are simply a waste of money.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
The author states that Euro 2020 was conceived during a nancial crisis and was
supposed to take advantage of cheap travel prices. However, with a pandemic in
place and most traveling being banned it has turned into an ironical situation.
Option (b) is similar to that strain of thought.
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4/12/2020
Passage – 4
Governments should act with the same urgency on climate as on the corona virus, leading campaigners say, as
evidence mounts that the health crisis is reducing carbon emissions more than any policy. Unlike the response
to global heating, it has shown how political and corporate leaders can take radical emergency action on the
advice of scientists to protect human wellbeing. In China the actions taken by authorities have inadvertently
demonstrated that hefty 25% carbon dioxide cuts can bring less tra c and cleaner air with only a small
reduction in economic growth, according to a study. Even a slowdown in CO2 could buy time for climate action
and, more importantly, inspire long-term behavioural changes - particularly in travel. More carbon savings will
come from the cancellations of international conferences. Global air tra c decreased by 4.3% in February with
cancellations of tens of thousands of ights to affected areas. But Rob Jackson, the chair of Global Carbon
Project, said this would only be meaningful if it led to long-term behavioural change, particularly in aviation.
There are encouraging signs. The 189-nation International Monetary Fund and its sister lending organisation,
the World Bank, will replace their usual spring gathering in Washington with a virtual teleconference. This is a
one-off emergency measure, but the economic and carbon savings could prompt calls for this to become the
norm every year.
Q.119
Which of the following can be used to support that aviation is most detrimental to climate?
a People take ights to attend conferences.
b Corporate leaders invest mostly in aviation.
c Aviation is the reason behind a globalised world and globalization has exacerbated global warming.
d Aviation is the prime focus when it comes to transportation and carbon savings.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
The passage states that, 'Global air tra c decreased by 4.3% in February with
cancellations of tens of thousands of ights to affected areas. But Rob Jackson,
the chair of Global Carbon Project, said this would only be meaningful if it led to
long-term behavioural change, particularly in aviation.' This particular thrust in
curbing aviation makes (d) the right choice.
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Passage – 4
norm every year.
Q.120
Which of the following observations maybe true keeping in mind the above passage?
a Mass behavioural changes are possible only when humanity faces radical adversities.
b Health crisis makes strange bedfellows.
c Corona virus will force human beings to become individualistic.
d Teleconferences are the way forward for humanity.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
The passage shows how the health crisis caused by a novel virus has forced
masses to change behaviour radically. Most of these changes are for the better
and should have been done much earlier. This shows (a) to be the correct answer.
The other options cannot be veri ed from the given passage.
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Passage – 4
norm every year.
Q.121
Which of the following was used to weaken the ght against carbon emission?
a It will make environmental studies redundant.
b It will take a toll on economy.
c It will stop the need for traveling.
d International seminars would get affected.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
The passage mentions how reduction of carbon in China has made negligible
impact on the economy. This shows that economy was used as a factor against
implementing radical changes which would curb carbon emission.
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Passage – 4
norm every year.
Q.122
a It is now impossible to reduce global warming.
b International gatherings contribute to climate change.
c Both (a) and (b).
d Neither (a) or (b).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : b
In the passage it is mentioned that, 'More carbon savings will come from the
cancellations of international conferences.' Thus a reduction in international
gatherings would dramatically save carbon emission. This also means that such
gatherings in the past have contributed to climate change. Option (a) is incorrect
as the entire passage talks about how it is still possible to ght against climate change and thus global
warming.
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Passage – 4
norm every year.
Q.123
Which of the following is similar to the way politicians and corporate leaders look at climate change?
a Since we cannot visually witness time, it is not a real thing.
b The students attended the mass only after the principal warned them with reduction of recess time.
c The senior grad student refused to help the freshman once he realized that he may have to spend some of
his own resources.
d Bullies stopped hitting he child the moment they realized that the principal is the guardian of the child.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
The passage states that political and corporate leaders have previously ignored
pleas to take emergency measures to tackle global heating. One of the reasons
behind this lethargy is stated directly or indirectly throughout the passage to be
that of economy. Option (c) is the most similar to this situation.
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Directions for questions 124 and 125: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
Q.124
Tamimi worked in West Jerusalem and Tel Aviv before moving to London in 1997 where he was head chef at the
deli Baker & Spice. Here he met Yotam Ottolenghi, an Israeli who also grew up in Jerusalem. It was while they
were putting together recipes for their 2012 bestseller Jerusalem that Tamimi began to appreciate how his
Palestinian roots in uenced his food.
Which of the following can be inferred to be the theme of the given passage?
a It talks about the effects of traveling while cooking.
b It talks about the way one makes acquaintances while traveling.
c It talks about how good and cultural origins are related.
d It talks about how a profession can take you to places.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The passage speaks about two people from two different cultural roots and how
one of them realises the in uence of Palestinian roots in his food.
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Directions for questions 124 and 125: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
Q.125
Supporting people aged 50 and over to remain in the workforce could add an additional 1.3% to GDP a year by
2040. But while it is an opportunity for some women, for others it is the "culmination of inequalities that have
built up over a lifetime, remaining in low-paid, insecure or poor quality work and delaying retirement through
nancial necessity", said Patrick Thomson, programme manager at the Centre for Ageing Better.
Which of the following can be stated about women in workforce from the above passage?
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a Women at workplaces have been victims of systematic malaise which span generations.
b Women at workplaces are denied the opportunity to help boosting national economies.
c Women at workplaces are prone to being subjected to biases.
d Women at workplaces suffer from more age related illnesses than men
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The passage discusses how most women workers have suffered from systematic
issues which have been ranging for a long time. The other options cannot be
validated from the given information.
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Directions for questions 126 to 128: In each of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two
assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are
implicit in the statement.
(a) Give answer (a) if only assumption I is implicit

(b) Give answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Give answer (c) if neither I and II is implicit.
(d) Give answer (d) if both I and II are implicit
Q.126
Statement: Due to the corona virus scare, most footballing leagues have decided to put an end to matches till
the situation improves. The board of the cricketing team Jumbo has decided that the next meeting will take
place after six months.
Assumptions:
I. Footballing leagues have been dissolved for the foreseeable future.
II. The footballing teams will be functional and keep on practicing.
a
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
Neither of the options is implicit here. The statement mentions clearly that the
leagues are stalled till the situation improves. It will not be dissolved. Whether or
not the teams will be practicing could depend on many factors which are not
implicit here.
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Q.127
Statement: With the new documentary on effects of food sources out, people prefer Kollegs quinoa over Manos'
since Manos uses quinoa sources from the war ravaged plains of Kalkulthan.
Assumptions:
I. Kollegs has generated a better reputation among consumers over the Manos varieties.
II. Manos as a brand is suffering as a result of mass hysteria.
a
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
I can be directly inferred from the statement. It mentions how the documentary
has effected people's quinoa consumption. Thus, Kollegs' reputation is on the rise
as opposed to Manos'.
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Q.128
Statement: The signi cance of International Worker's Day lies in its attempt to strike a ne balance.
Assumptions:
I. Workers are neglected by general people.
II. In a corporate world it is important we pay more attention to workers
a
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Neither of the two assumptions is implicit.
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Directions for questions 129 to 131: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are three married couples in a group of six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F. They travel by a van having three
rows - numbered 1, 2 and 3 from front to back- with two seats in a row. At least one pair of husband and wife sit
beside each other. There are two entrepreneurs, one doctor, one actor, one professor and one politician in the
group. The politician is married to D, who is an entrepreneur. No lady in the group is either an actor or a
professor. A is not married to B. Neither E nor A is an entrepreneur. The doctor sits in row 2 along with an
entrepreneur, who sits exactly behind the politician. C, the professor, is married to F, who is a doctor. Both the
entrepreneurs are females and one is sitting behind F.
Q.129
Which two male members sit adjacent to each other?
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a Politician, Professor
b Actor, Entrepreneur
c Politician, Entrepreneur
d Professor, Actor
Solution:
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Correct Answer : a
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Q.130
Select the incorrect husband - wife pair.
a A-D
b C-F
c B-D
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d E-B
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
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Q.131
Select the statement that is true regarding the given arrangement.
a Three females sit in three different rows.
b E and D sit adjacent to each other.
c A and F sit adjacent to each other.
d None of these
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
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Directions for questions 132 and 133: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W – are seated at a square table such that four of them are at the corners
and four are at the middle of the sides. Equal number of persons are facing towards the centre as well as away
from the centre. It is also known that:
I. V faces R, who sits at the middle of one of the sides and is on the immediate left of both S and P.
II. W sits on the immediate right of both U and P.
III. T faces P and sits on the immediate right of Q and V.
Q.132
Select the option in which the third person is sitting exactly between the rst and the second.
a Q–T–P
b P–R–W
c W–V–U
d R–V–T
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
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Directions for questions 132 and 133: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W – are seated at a square table such that four of them are at the corners
and four are at the middle of the sides. Equal number of persons are facing towards the centre as well as away
from the centre. It is also known that:
I. V faces R, who sits at the middle of one of the sides and is on the immediate left of both S and P.
II. W sits on the immediate right of both U and P.
III. T faces P and sits on the immediate right of Q and V.
Q.133
Which of the following pairs may not be seated adjacent to each other?
a U and R
b Q and S
c S and R
d W and U
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
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Sec 5
A store sells grocery, apparel and footwear. The radar graph given below shows the percentage spent on the
purchase of these three categories of items during 2016, 2017 and 2018.
It is known that Rs. 25,000 was spent on the purchase of apparel in 2016. The amount spent on the purchase of
all categories of items doubled in 2017 with respect to the previous year. There was a 30% increase in the
amount spent on the purchase of grocery in 2018 with respect to 2017.
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Q.134
What was the ratio of the amount spent on Footwear in 2016 and 2017 respectively?
a 2:3
b 5:6
c 4:5
d 6:7
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Required ratio = 62500 : 75000 = 5 : 6.

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4/12/2020
Q.135
What was the total amount spent (in Rs.) on the purchase of all categories of items in 2018?
a 375000
b 250000
c 275000
d 325000
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Total amount spent on the purchase of all categories of items in 2018

= 130000 + 130000 + 65000 = Rs. 3,25,000.
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4/12/2020
Q.136
For which category of items was there a decrease in the amount spent on purchase with respect to the previous
year and during which year?
a Footwear, 2017
b Apparel, 2017
c Footwear, 2018
d Grocery, 2017
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
After calculating the amount spent on each of the categories by the store during the three given years we can
see that there was a decrease in the amount spent on the purchase of Footwear in 2018 with respect to 2017.
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4/12/2020
Q.137
If the store made a pro t of 25% on the whole in 2018, then what was the amount gained?
a Rs.81,250
b Rs.75,250
c Rs.65,000
d Rs.62,500
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Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
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Q.138
What was the total amount spent on the purchase of Footwear during 2016 to 2018?
4/12/2020
a Rs.2,50,000
b Rs.2,05,500
c Rs.2,25,000
d Rs.2,02,500
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Total amount spent on the purchase of Footwear during 2016 to 2018 = 62500 + 75000 + 65000 = Rs.
2,02,500.
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The table given below shows the Product-wise Production of Petroleum Products (in metric tonnes) by various
plants of Indian Oil Corporation during 2016-17.
Q.139
Which plants of Indian Oil Corporation do not produce at least three out of the above mentioned ten petroleum
products?
a Panipat, Koyali
4/12/2020
b Guwahati, Dighboi
c Barauni, Guwahati
d Dighboi, Mathura
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
By observing the table, we can see that the plants at Guwahati and Dighboi do not
produce exactly three out of the above mentioned ten petroleum products.
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Q.140
What was the total quantity of Naptha and Furnace Oil (in metric tonnes) produced by the only plant of Indian Oil
Corporation that produces Lube Oil?
a 1268.64
b 1050.16
c 1126.43
d 1369.89
4/12/2020
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
By observing the table, we can see that only the plant at Haldia produces Lube Oil.
Total quantity of Naptha and Furnace Oil (in metric tonnes) produced by Haldia
plant = 502.86 + 867.03 =1369.89 metric tonnes.
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Q.141
Which plant of Indian Oil Corporation ranked lowest in the production of at least ve of the ten above mentioned
products?
a Haldia
b Mathura
c Digboi
d Panipat
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
By observing the table, we can see that the plant at Digboi ranks lowest in the
production of LPG, Motor Spirit, Naphtha, SKO and Diesel.
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4/12/2020
Q.142
If the plants are ranked according to the total quantity of all the products, then which two plants are at rst and
second positions?
a 1st : Panipat, 2nd : Koyali
b 1st : Mathura, 2nd : Haldia
c 1st : Koyali, 2nd : Panipat
d 1st : Haldia, 2nd : Koyali
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
By observing the table, we can see that if the plants are ranked according to the
total production, then the plants at Panipat and Koyali are at rst and second
positions with 14968.02 and 12814.12 metric tonnes of petroleum products
during the year 2016-17 respectively.
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4/12/2020
Q.143
The production of which two products at all the plants put together were highest and lowest respectively?
a Motor Spirit and Lube Oil
b Diesel and Coke
c Diesel and Lube Oil
d Motor Spirit and Diesel
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
By observing the table, we can see that the production of Diesel was the highest
at 24413.91 metric tonnes whereas the production of Lube Oil was the lowest at
183.13 metric tonnes.
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4/12/2020
The pie chart represents the number of Ongoing Projects in the country under the Department of Biotechnology
for the year 2015-16.
Q.144
If half the Ongoing Projects from Telangana are shifted for collaborative research to Karnataka and Maharashtra
in the ratio 4 : 5, then which among the following options represents the given states in ascending order of their
Ongoing Projects?
a Tamilnadu < Maharashtra < Karnataka < Delhi
b Maharashtra < Tamilnadu < Karnataka < Delhi
c Delhi < Karnataka < Maharashtra < Tamilnadu
d Maharashtra < Tamilnadu < Delhi < Karnataka
4/12/2020
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Half the Ongoing Projects in Telangana is 90. It is given that 40 are shifted to
Karnataka making it 300 there and 50 are shifted to Maharashtra making it 270
there.
Hence, the correct order of states will be Maharashtra (270) < Tamilnadu (290) <
Karnataka (300)< Delhi (360).
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Q.145
If three-fourths of the Ongoing Projects in Delhi and Maharashtra have been sponsored by the Centre for
Agricultural Research, then nd the number of projects not funded by it.
a 120
b 135
c 145
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d 150
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
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Q.146
The total number of Ongoing Projects in Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal form approximately what percentage of
the total number of Ongoing Projects in the country?
a 28%
b 13%
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c 20%
d 17%
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
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Q.147
If 40 projects each from Tamilnadu and Maharashtra come to an end and no new projects are added in the year
2016 - 17, then the number of Ongoing Projects in Telangana forms what fraction of the total Ongoing Projects
in the country in 2016 - 17?
a 2/9
b 1/12
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c 1/10
d 3/10
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
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Mr. Goel travels from Delhi to Agra by a passenger train. There was some railway track repair work going on at a
distance of 80 km from Delhi so the train had to slow down to 80% of its original speed. It continued the rest of
its journey at this slow pace and reached Agra 1.4 hours late. The next day Mr. Gupta travelled by the same train
from Delhi to Agra. This time the repair work was at a distance of 120 km from Delhi. Again the train slowed
down and travelled at 80% of its speed for the rest of the journey thereby reaching Agra 1 hour late.
Q.148
What is the normal speed of the passenger train?
a 20 km/hr
b 15 km/hr
c 30 km/hr
d 25 km/hr
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Solution:
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Correct Answer : d
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Q.149
What is the distance between Delhi and Agra?
a 240 Km
b 200 Km
c 220 Km
d 250 Km
4/12/2020
Solution:
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Correct Answer : c
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Q.150
If the train starts from Delhi at 8:00 AM on a day when there is no track repair work going on, then at what time
does it reach Agra?
a 2:48 PM
b 4:48 PM
c 3:28 PM
d 4:24 PM
4/12/2020
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
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Join:- Mock Analysis

LST CLAT Mock–17 (New Pattern)

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CURRENT AFFAIRS INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

d Both (a) and (b)

c Invasion of personal privacy is not an acceptable policy, irrespective of the context.

d Counter terrorism measures may not necessarily involve breach of privacy.

c Delegitimizing the message of terrorists.

d Prioritizing the nature of threats and deploying armies accordingly.

a Failure to discredit such movements and challenge their narrative.

b Inability to build effective partnerships with the local population.

c Lack of support for the legitimate local governments.

d Inability to change political regimes that support such activities.

b Use of more sophisticated technology by the terrorists.

c Unwittingly providing legitimacy to the terrorists' message.

d Inclination towards convenience rather than long-term strategic vision.

d It is hypocritical and discriminatory to expect homosexuals to maintain puritanical standards for

a Colleges targeting middle school students.

b Parents getting their children enrolled in tutorials for admission tests.

c A marked drop in extra-curricular activities due to a fear of decline in grades.

d All of the above.

a Increasing stress amongst the students.

c Poor delivery of education in colleges.

d Increasing competition in admissions and more dropouts.

c Subdued and pessimistic

d Analytical and Pedantic

d All of the above.

a Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of various populations.

c Pests themselves are an integral part of the food chain.

d These insects are introduced to an area due to human activities

a part of an article in a scienti c journal.

b extracted from the minutes of a nature club meeting.

c a speech delivered in a court of environmental law.

d from a polemical article published in a magazine.

a to sum up the main points of the author's argument.

b to urge a solution to an increasingly pressing problem.

b Discovery of any trace of life on the moon.

c Research on the emission of particles by the sun.

d All of the above

a It is an article celebrating America's moon voyage.

b It is an article chartering the space exploration journey of America.

d It is an article promoting America's hegemony in the domain of space exploration.

a Collection of rocks from the moon's surface.

b A boulder from a famous moon crater.

c Atomic particles raining from sun.

d Dust from the moon's surface vacuum-packed in metal containers.

c China is a communist nation that is hostile towards America.

d The success of the voyage was perceived as a victory of human spirit.

a Motivating and Inspirational

b Enthusiastic and Energetic

c Belligerent and Bellowing

d Exhorting and Advising

a Mild physical exercises like running and swimming.

b Brisk walk at home or o ce, to be undertaken frequently at short intervals.

c Regular walking, ideally outdoors, during morning or evening.

c Boating and Riding

a Less mental work, more physical work

b More mental work, less physical work