LST Mock 65 2021 (CLAT)

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LST Mock 65 2021 (CLAT)
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English Language
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge
Legal Reasoning
Logical Reasoning
Quantitative Techniques
Sec 1
https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/Solution.jsp?qsetId=q9Xi/1CtqdQ=&qsetName=LST Mock 65 2021 (CLAT) 1/252

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
Passage – 1
The head of the British electronic spy agency, Robert Hannigan, created a minor flap last
week in political circles
when he wrote for the Financial Times. In effect, Hannigan argued
that more robust encryption procedures by
private Internet companies were unwittingly
aiding terrorists such as the Islamic State (IS) or al Qaeda, by making
it harder for
organizations like the NSA and GCHQ to monitor online traffic. The implication was clear: The
more
our personal privacy is respected and protected, the greater the danger we will face
from evildoers.
It's a serious issue, and democracies that want to respect individual privacy while
simultaneously keeping citizens
safe are going to have to do a much better job of reassuring
us that vast and (mostly) secret surveillance capabilities
overseen by unelected officials such
as Hannigan won't be abused. I tend to favor the privacy side of the argument,
both because
personal freedoms are hard to get back once lost, but also because there's a propaganda that
these
surveillance activities are making us significantly safer.
So here's a wild counterfactual for you to ponder: What would the United States, Great Britain,
and other wealthy
and powerful nations do if they didn't have these vast surveillance powers?
For starters, they'd have to rely more heavily on tried-and-true counterterrorism measures:
infiltrating extremist
organizations and flipping existing members, etc., to find out what they
were planning, head attacks off before they
occurred, and eventually roll up organization
themselves. States waged plenty of counterterrorism campaigns
before the Internet was
invented, and while it can be difficult to infiltrate such movements and find their vulnerable
points, it's not exactly an unknown art. If we couldn't spy on them from the safety of internet,
we'd probably be
doing a lot more of this.
Second, if we didn't have all these expensive high-tech capabilities, we might spend a lot
more time thinking about
how to discredit and delegitimize the terrorists' message, instead
of repeatedly doing things that help them make
their case and recruit new followers. If the US
leaders genuinely want to help these societies, or if they are
responding to a legitimate threat;
the crude message that drones, cruise missiles, and targeted killings send is
rather different.
Third, and somewhat paradoxically, if we didn't have drones and the NSA, we'd have to think
more seriously about
boots on the ground, at least in some places. But having to think harder
about such decisions might be a good
thing, because it would force the United States (or

others) to decide which threats were really serious and which

countries really mattered. As
we've seen over the past decade, what the NSA, CIA, and Special Ops Command do
is in
some ways too easy: It just doesn't cost that much to add a few more names to the kill list, to
vacuum up a few
more terabytes of data, or to launch a few more drones in some new
country, and all the more so when it's done
under the veil of secrecy.
Q.1 [11617692]
Which of the following is an example of the paradox mentioned in the passage?
a A reduction in online surveillance has resulted in the return of several soldiers from
diverse sites of
international conflict.
b Several terrorist organizations now employ IT professionals to counter the increasing

online snooping
done by international counter-terrorist organizations.
c Due to the commitment displayed by world leaders, a lot of extremists are willing to work
towards effectively
resolving the global terrorism threat peacefully.
d Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
 Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
The same can be inferred from the last paragraph of the
passage.
The other options don't discuss a paradox at all.
Hence (a) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 1
it harder for

more
from evildoers.
both because
these
and other wealthy
we'd probably be
rather different.
is in
vacuum up a few
Q.2 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
a Breach of privacy is a necessary collateral damage of waging the war against terrorism.
b Privacy is sacrosanct and any effort to compromise with that is akin to terrorism.

c Invasion of personal privacy is not an acceptable policy, irrespective of the context.
d Counter terrorism measures may not necessarily involve breach of privacy.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
Option (a) is what the author is arguing against. Though the
author
argues against breaching privacy, he isn't equating it with terrorism,
so option (b) is a
distortion. Both options (c) and (d) are acceptable
premises of the author's argument.
However, option (c) mentions
that invasion of privacy isn't acceptable, irrespective of
context
which is a slight exaggeration of what the author is saying. Option
(d) captures the
author's argument more accurately. Hence (d) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 1
it harder for
more
from evildoers.
both because
these

and other wealthy
we'd probably be
rather different.
is in
vacuum up a few
Q.3 [11617692]
As per the author, counter terrorism needs to focus more on all of the following EXCEPT:
a Using internet to spy on terrorist organizations so that attacks can be intercepted and
stopped before
they occur.
b Infiltrating terrorist organizations and securing critical information which can help
apprehend their actions.
c Delegitimizing the message of terrorists.
d Prioritizing the nature of threats and deploying armies accordingly.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The author mentions all of the options except option (a). In
fact, his
whole argument is that governments need to rely less on internet
and digital
spying. Hence (a) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 1
it harder for
more
from evildoers.
both because
these
and other wealthy

we'd probably be
rather different.
is in
vacuum up a few
Q.4 [11617692]
Which of the following has been mentioned by the author as one of the biggest shortcoming
of the war on
terrorism?
a Failure to discredit such movements and challenge their narrative.
b Inability to build effective partnerships with the local population.
c Lack of support for the legitimate local governments.
d Inability to change political regimes that support such activities.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Options (b), (c) and (d) are not mentioned in the passage at all.
Option (a) can be inferred from the lines, " ……. if we didn't have
all these expensive high-
tech capabilities, we might spend a lot
more time thinking about how to discredit and
delegitimize the
terrorists' message, instead of repeatedly doing things that help
them
make their case and recruit new followers."
FeedBack Bookmark

passage. Please
Passage – 1
it harder for
more
from evildoers.
both because
these
and other wealthy
we'd probably be
rather different.


is in
vacuum up a few
Q.5 [11617692]
Which of the following has not been mentioned as an adverse effect of over reliance on
internet to counter
terrorism?
a Breach of privacy
b Use of more sophisticated technology by the terrorists.
c Unwittingly providing legitimacy to the terrorists' message.
d Inclination towards convenience rather than long-term strategic vision.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Options (a) and (c) are mentioned clearly all throughout the
passage, so they cannot be the answer. Option (d) is also mentioned
in the last few lines
where the author says that presently the
strategy is random because it's very convenient to
do so. Option
(b) isn't mentioned at all. The author has stated that intelligence
experts
complain against the technological robustness of private
internet companies. Hence (b) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 2
In 1983, when the public's fear of AIDS far exceeded researchers' understanding of the
disease -- not to mention
society's commitment to equal rights for gay and bisexual men --
the U.S. Food and Drug Administration banned
blood donations from any man who has had
sex with another man since 1977.
Now, a federal advisory committee has recommended scrapping it and replacing it with a
caveat, that is, men
could give blood as long has they've had no sex with other men in 12
months. The FDA should accept this
recommendation as a first step toward further relaxing
the restriction.
It's not clear how much this change would increase the number of blood donors. But that's
not the only goal. More
important is to institute a policy that reflects science and avoids
needless discrimination, without compromising
blood recipients' safety.
This change appears to meet that test -- based on the experience so far in Australia, which
more than a decade
ago swapped its blood-donation ban with a one-year deferral.
Most European countries maintain the lifetime ban. Last year, Canada ended its ban but set a
time limit -- not
based on evidence that any longer time is warranted, however.
Why have a deferral period at all? Given that every unit of donated blood is tested for HIV and
the virus can be
detected as soon as nine days after transmission, 365 days is an arbitrarily
long time.
The idea is that a waiting period might limit the number of high-risk donors and thus reduce
the small chance of
using infected blood that falsely tests negative. It also addresses the
concerns of blood recipients -- which are
rooted as much in fear as in science.
Yet these are imperfect rationales. If the FDA ends the blood-donation ban and finds that it
doesn't lead to an
increase in HIV-positive blood, it should then consider shortening the
deferral period. For donors who are in
monogamous, long-term relationships, perhaps the
ban should be lifted altogether.

Q.6 [11617692]
Which of the following if true, most weakens the argument of the author?
a The safety of blood recipient is paramount and should not be compromised at any cost.
b Blood donation is a voluntary act and needless change in such deferrals will not lead to
much increase in
such donations.
c Science has not evolved to a stage where HIV virus can be detected within days and a
minimum of one
year is required for detection.
d Even a small quantity of infected blood, if accepted in blood banks, may have
cataclysmic results and
therefore maximum caution should be exercised.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Option a: the author argues his point within the ambit of the
safety
of recipients. He thinks it is safe to donate blood with a deferral
period of 1 year.
Therefore this option can be ignored. Option b:
One benefit of change in deferral rules, as
per the author, will be
increase in the blood availability due to increase in number of
donors.
However, the author himself says that it is not the primary
reason. The main point is
discrimination. Option c: If this is correct
then the risk is a lot more and therefore the policy
decision to defer
makes sense. Option d: This seems alarming and hypothetical and
nothing
in the passage suggests this. Hence (c) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 2
the restriction.
more than a decade
time limit -- not
the virus can be
long time.
the small chance of
doesn't lead to an

Q.7 [11617692]
Which of the following will support the author's argument the most?
a Homosexual men are more empathetic than others and therefore are more likely to
donate blood, thereby
substantially increasing the number of blood donors.
b Homosexual men are often victimized and discriminated against and such unscientific
regulations further
reinforce the prejudice and bias of the public.
c Research has shown that the number of heterosexuals being afflicted with HIV is much
higher than
homosexuals.
d Surveys show that the number of homosexual men is much more than estimated earlier
and their
exclusion can severely cripple the blood availability.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
Option a: Being empathetic or charitable need not lead to blood
donation. Option b: The major grouse of the author is discrimination
meted out to
homosexuals; therefore this is a strong supporting
point. Option c: Number of HIV
heterosexuals being more doesn't
mean the probability is also more as the absolute number
of
heterosexuals may be much higher. Option d: This seems entirely
based on conjecture.
Hence (b) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 2
the restriction.
more than a decade
time limit -- not
the virus can be
long time.
the small chance of
doesn't lead to an

Q.8 [11617692]
Which of the following will be the strongest rebuttal of the suggestion made by the author in
the last sentence?
a Social scientists have proved that married homosexual couples are more likely to have
multiple sexual
partners.
b In conservative countries, homosexual couples may not be ready to declare their

relationships due to
fear of social censure.
c This will be tantamount to a person's personal life dictating his social acceptance and is
a step towards
an authoritarian society.
d It is hypocritical and discriminatory to expect homosexuals to maintain puritanical

standards for acceptance
under the guise of bogus scientific claims.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Option a: Since this is as much a social issue as medical,
therefore
such research needs to be given due weightage and therefore is
a strong rebuttal
of the author's suggestion. Option b: This is an
exception and does not devalue the
suggestion. Option c: Since
the suggestion intends to dilute the existing discriminatory
practice,
it cannot be classified as discrimination. Option d: Same as option
(c). Hence (a) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 2
the restriction.
more than a decade
time limit -- not
the virus can be
long time.
the small chance of
doesn't lead to an

Q.9 [11617692]
Which of the following is a synonym of 'caveat'?
a Consonance
b Admonition
c Conformity
d Recklessness
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
Caveat refers to a warning or proviso of specific stipulations,
conditions or limitations. Thus, 'admonition' is its synonym. Hence
(b) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 2
the restriction.
more than a decade
time limit -- not
the virus can be
long time.
the small chance of
doesn't lead to an

Q.10 [11617692]
Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a Many countries maintain an indefinite ban rather than a deferral period for homosexual
men donating
blood.
b If one was a homosexual, one could have donated blood in USA in 1983.
c Australia has waived off any restrictions with regards to homosexual men donating
blood.
d FDA replaced the ban on homosexual men donating blood with a one- year deferral
period in 1983.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Option (b): one could have donated blood, as long as one had
not
had sex with another man since 1977. Option (c): Australia maintains
a 1 year deferral
period. Option (d): Is factually incorrect, the
deferral was not done in 1983. Option (a): As
mentioned in the
passage: "Most European countries maintain the lifetime ban.".
Hence (a)
is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 3
If you look around what do you see? Parents are poring over brochures showing pictures of
students in front of
lush trees. High schoolers are plotting which activities are the "right" ones
to enroll in. Admissions officials in the
nation's top colleges are beginning to court not just
high school seniors to fill their next class, but also juniors,
sophomores and freshmen -- even
reaching out to some middle school students.

This "right college" frenzy is responsible for hundreds of millions of dollars in revenue for
companies in college
preparation and college admissions, and it's shortening the childhood
of our nation's teenagers. It's not sustainable,
either.
"It's not a pretty picture in the ecology overall," says Mitchell Stevens, professor at Stanford
and author of "Creating
a Class: College Admissions and the Education of Elites." "It's a hyper
competitiveness for a small number of
schools and a maldistribution of seats in the more
open access. There are 5,000 colleges and universities in the
United States; there are plenty
of seats in the system overall. There are just a limited number of seats at the top."
Because of many changing factors over the past decades, the children of the baby boomers
entered a college
landscape drastically different from the one their parents saw. The group of
college-going students is larger than
in the past and experiences more stress and a longer
timeline for college admissions. While some see the payoff
in the form of increased salaries
after graduation, many never finish college or, if they do finish, they don't obtain
the skills
needed for employment, and are saddled with loans they can't pay. These factors have led to
a crescendo
over the last decade that is about to change the landscape of college
admissions -- again.
There are more students considering college than in the past. And that means more people
to compete with and
more students to choose from.
From population increases seen with the children of the baby boomers, there are more
college-aged students in
general. Between 2000 to 2010, the population of 18 to 24-year-olds
surged from 27 million to well over 30 million,
a 13 percent increase. By contrast, the increase
in children aged 5 to 17 was 1.6 percent. The greatest increase
of any age group was for the
aging baby boomers -- 31.5 percent for ages 45 to 65 -- who are the parents of these
college-
aged students.
There are also more students considering college. Between 1980 and 2012, the overall
college enrollment rates
increased from 26 percent to 41 percent. More students now see
college as an option. Some will apply and are
accepted into selective colleges (those that
accept less than half of applicants) but the increase has also been
driven by demand. More
students are also eligible to consider college. The percentage of young women and men
with
at least a high school education increased from 79 to 84 percent for women and from 75 to
81 percent for
men from 1980 to 2012.
Q.11 [11617692]
The author mentions which of the following as the reason for the college admission frenzy?
a The fact that the number of top-class colleges that students aspire to is very less.

b The burst of the economic bubble which highlighted the financial sustainability through
college education.
c The number of colleges and seats being far less than the number of applicants.
d The fact that parents are increasingly getting involved in the process due to the high cost
of college
education.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
As mentioned in para 4: "There are 5,000 colleges and
universities
in the United States; there are plenty of seats in the system overall.
There are
just a limited number of seats at the top." Hence (a) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 3
either.


entered a college
the skills
a crescendo
to compete with and
college-
aged students.
with
81 percent for
Q.12 [11617692]
Which of the following, according to the passage, is an indication of the frenzy with respect
to college
admissions?
a Colleges targeting middle school students.
b Parents getting their children enrolled in tutorials for admission tests.
c A marked drop in extra-curricular activities due to a fear of decline in grades.
d All of the above.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
As mentioned in the first para:"Admissions officials in the
nation's
top colleges are beginning to court not just high school seniors to
fill their next
class, but also juniors, sophomores and freshmen --
even reaching out to some middle
school students". Hence (a) is
the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 3
either.
entered a college

the skills
a crescendo
to compete with and
college-
aged students.
with
81 percent for
Q.13 [11617692]
Which of the following has NOT been mentioned as a disadvantage of the frenzy with respect
to college
admissions?
a Increasing stress amongst the students.
b Students not learning the proper skills to survive in the real world.
c Poor delivery of education in colleges.
d Increasing competition in admissions and more dropouts.

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
It is mentioned that this frenzy is shortening the childhood of
teenagers indicating stress. It's also mentioned that many students
don't finish college or
don't acquire adequate skills for employment.
Hence (c) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 3
either.
entered a college
the skills
a crescendo

to compete with and
college-
aged students.
with
81 percent for
Q.14 [11617692]
Which of the following best describes the mood of the author as per the issue highlighted by
him?
a Mildly alarmed
b Fervent
c Subdued and pessimistic
d Analytical and Pedantic

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The author is analyzing the issue and is a little worried by the
trend
on display. He doesn't come across as someone who is frenzied in
his worry. And
although he is not positive about the changes, he
isn't entirely negative about the future
either. Option (d) becomes
less acceptable because of the word 'pedantic" as the tone of the
author is definitely not lecturing or dictating. Therefore, mildly alarmed
is the best choice.
Hence (a) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 3
either.
entered a college
the skills

a crescendo
to compete with and
college-
aged students.
with
81 percent for
Q.15 [11617692]
Which of the following would weaken the author's argument in the passage above?
a College admissions go through cycles and there have been phases earlier, when
admissions have
peaked, just to subside again.
b The data considered for highlighting the increased competition has been taken only from
the top colleges
and is not reflective of the whole industry.
c Most students apply for colleges but change their minds subsequently, so application
numbers are a
poor indicator of the career path pursued by the students.
d All of the above.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
Since the author has already emphasized that most of the rush
is
for top colleges, therefore option b is negated. The passage is not
touching upon the
point of increased number of applications. Hence
(a) is correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 4
A sanctuary may be defined as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active.
Till quite recently
Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only
as a tool-using animal in comparatively
small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there
is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming
forces at his command. He can
strangle to death all the nobler wildlife in the world to-day. Tomorrow he certainly
will have
done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime. There is not the
slightest
doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can
breed. And it is always the
largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and
elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and
flies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is
inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am
speaking of tonight. Civilized
man begins by destroying the very forms of wildlife he learns to appreciate most
when he
becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier stage,
when it is
easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game
preserves, the selective protection of
certain species, and sanctuaries. I have just defined a
sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of
Nature active. But this general
definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to protect
a
sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially active by
destroying pests
and parasites, like bot-flies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for
diseases like the epidemic which periodically
kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of
the carnivores to death. But, except in cases where experiment has
proved his intervention to
be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature, the better, even when he tries to
be an
earthly providence.

Q.16 [11617692]
In the concluding lines of the passage, the author implies that his initial definition of a
sanctuary is:
a totally wrong
b somewhat idealistic
c unhelpful
d indefensible
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
The author's initial definition was that man is passive which he
subsequently agrees is not practical, more so when man also
takes up cudgels to protect
other species. Hence (b) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 4
Till quite recently
will have
slightest
when he
when it is
a
destroying pests
be an
earthly providence.
Q.17 [11617692]
The author's argument that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial action
is most weakened
by all of the following except:
a Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of various populations.
b The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature.
c Pests themselves are an integral part of the food chain.
d These insects are introduced to an area due to human activities

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Option (d) does not strengthen or weaken the argument. It is
just a
connected piece of information. All the other options
weaken the
argument, which is that if at all we have to kill other animals, it
should be
parasites and pests. Hence (d) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 4
Till quite recently
will have
slightest
when he
when it is
a
destroying pests
be an
earthly providence.

Q.18 [11617692]
It can be inferred that the passage is:
a part of an article in a scientific journal.
b extracted from the minutes of a nature club meeting.
c a speech delivered in a court of environmental law.
d from a polemical article published in a magazine.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The article is not scientific enough for the first option and does
not
contain enough legal-speak for option (c) to be correct. It is hardly
in the form of
minutes. Since the passage is severely critical of the
actions of mankind, therefore option
(d) seems to be the best fit.
Polemical means of or involving strongly critical or disputatious
writing or speech.
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passage. Please
Passage – 4
Till quite recently
will have
slightest
when he
when it is
a
destroying pests
be an
earthly providence.
Q.19 [11617692]
The purpose of the last sentence is:
a to sum up the main points of the author's argument.
b to urge a solution to an increasingly pressing problem.
c to propose a program.
d to suggest that man should not intervene in natural processes in any situation.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : b
The last sentence states: "But, except in cases where
experiment
has proved his intervention to be beneficial, the less he upsets the
balance of
Nature the better, even when he tries to be an earthly
providence.". Here, the author
obviously cautions against
intervening in natural processes, except when proven to be
beneficial. This is what he has been trying to explain all throughout
the passage. Option (d)
also says the same thing except that it's a
sweeping rejection of intervention without any
exceptions, whereas
the author is saying that we can intervene if beneficial. Hence (a)
is the
answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 4
Till quite recently
will have
slightest
when he
when it is
a
destroying pests
be an
earthly providence.
Q.20 [11617692]
Identify the synonym of 'providence' from the choices given.
a Fortuity
b Recklessness
c Carelessness
d Afterthought

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Providence means God or a force that is believed to have
control
over our lives and the things that happen to us in a way that
protects us. Fortuity
means a chance occurrence and is a close
synonym. The other words are antonyms.
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passage. Please
Passage – 5
More than breathtaking adventure flowed from America's moon conquest. A new era of
exploration was opened.
The scientific experiments were unprecedented and will be studied
for years. Important lessons were learned for
future missions. On top of that, a watching
world began to re-evaluate U.S. and Russian achievements in space.
The heroes are home -
and the full significance of America's voyage to the surface of the moon is now being
carefully assessed. Worldwide, the mission is regarded as a landmark in man's history, far
surpassing all the
greatest expeditions of centuries past. Here on earth, practical evidence
was given that the U.S. has emerged,
after a decade of self-doubt, as the most
technologically and scientifically advanced of all nations. The U.S. won
the race to the moon
and threw the challenge back into the face of the Soviet Union. Russia's failure to land its
unmanned Luna 15 spaceship safely on the moon on July 22 only served to sharpen the
contrast.
Then there was this fact, virtually overriding all else in immediate terms: The United States, at
a time of unease and
problems, was given a great psychological uplift. The aim of President
Nixon, clearly, was to keep the momentum
going in dealing with problems both at home and
abroad.
The rest of the world, with Communist China the only big exception, shared the adventure,
viewing it not only as a
triumph for the U.S. but as a feat of all mankind. As a French scholar
put it:"Americans reached out and touched
the moon. But it was a victory for the indomitable

spirit of every man."
The greatest success by far was the collection by astronauts of an estimated 60 pounds of
rocks and dust from
several locations around their Eagle spacecraft. The material was
vacuum-packed in metal containers and brought
back to earth. They hope to learn from the
samples more about the moon's origin and whether it has - or ever had
- any form of life.
These are questions men have been asking for centuries.
A moonquake detector, or seismometer, was set up and left on the moon to measure
vibrations in an effort to tell
whether the moon is "alive" inside - or simply a cold and dead
body.
Also erected and left on the moon was an 18-inch reflector. It was a target for mapmakers
and geologists on earth
who started aiming laser beams at it in an effort to get a "bounce"
and thereby measure the distance between
earth and the moon with a precision of six inches,
and perhaps also establish whether the earth's continents are
slowly drifting apart.
A "solar wind" sampler was set up for more than an hour near the spaceship to collect atomic
particles raining in
from the sun in a steady solar wind. This aluminum-foil shade was rolled
up and brought back for study by
scientists who want to know what kind of material the sun
keeps pouring into space.
Q.21 [11617692]
Which of the following are the likely results from the exploration?
a An opportunity to ascertain whether the continents are moving away from each other.
b Discovery of any trace of life on the moon.
c Research on the emission of particles by the sun.
d All of the above

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
As mentioned "Also erected and left on the moon was an 18-
inch
reflector. ….and perhaps also establish whether the earth's
continents are slowly
drifting apart." So, option (a) is mentioned.
Also, "They hope to learn from the samples more
about the moon's
origin and whether it has - or ever had - any form of life.". Therefore
option
(b) is also mentioned. Again, as per the passage: A "solar
wind" sampler was set up …….to
know what kind of material the
sun keeps pouring into space.". So, option (c) is also
mentioned.
Hence (d) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 5
surpassing all the
contrast.
abroad.


rocks and dust from
- any form of life.
body.
Q.22 [11617692]
Which of the following can be said about the passage above?
a It is an article celebrating America's moon voyage.
b It is an article chartering the space exploration journey of America.
c It is an article written in commemoration of the astronauts who first set foot on the
moon.
d It is an article promoting America's hegemony in the domain of space exploration.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The tone of the passage indicates that the author is clearly and
demonstratively celebrating the moon voyage of USA. Hence (a) is
correct.
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passage. Please
Passage – 5
surpassing all the
contrast.
abroad.
rocks and dust from


- any form of life.
body.
Q.23 [11617692]
Which of the following was not brought back by the astronauts?
a Collection of rocks from the moon's surface.
b A boulder from a famous moon crater.
c Atomic particles raining from sun.
d Dust from the moon's surface vacuum-packed in metal containers.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Option (b) isn't mentioned and rest all are clearly mentioned in
the
passage. Hence (b) is the answer.
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passage. Please


Passage – 5
surpassing all the
contrast.
abroad.
rocks and dust from
- any form of life.
body.

Q.24 [11617692]
Which of the following cannot be inferred as a fallout of the success of the voyage?
a It gave America the upper hand against Russia in the space race.
b It helped boost the mood in the face of various political, social and economic problems
plaguing America.
c It helped unite the citizens of various nations in celebrating the success as mankind's
unique achievement.
d It helped America gain political leverage over its opponents in global politics.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
We cannot infer that the USA got any political leverage from
this
exploratory mission. It stood tall as a global leader in space
exploration but inferring
option (d) would be a stretch. Hence (d)
cannot be inferred. The other options can be
inferred from the
passage.
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passage. Please
Passage – 5


surpassing all the
contrast.
abroad.
rocks and dust from
- any form of life.
body.

Q.25 [11617692]
Which of the following cannot be concluded from the passage?
a Russia had sent a spacecraft to the moon before the successful voyage by America.
b Before America's successful moon expedition, Russia had overtaken America as the
world leader in
space exploration.
c China is a communist nation that is hostile towards America.
d The success of the voyage was perceived as a victory of human spirit.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
As mentioned in the passage: "Russia's failure to land its
unmanned
Luna 15 spaceship safely on the moon on July 22 only served to
sharpen the
contrast.". Therefore option (a) is true. The tone of the
first paragraph suggests that Russia
probably had an advantage
over USA in space exploration, therefore option (b) can also be
inferred. Option (c) isn't mentioned anywhere and just because
China did not join the other
countries in celebrating this voyage
cannot be seen as evidence of enmity between the two
countries.
Option (d) can be inferred from the statements by the French.
Hence (c) is the
answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 6
Health is wealth. We keep guards to protect our wealth from thieves. Similarly, we should
protect our health from
disease. Physical exercise guards our health. Good health is
impossible without proper exercise. Physical exercise
prevents the attack of disease. There
are some diseases which can be cured through physical exercise.
Different people do different exercises. It depends upon their physical constitution and their
likings. Morning walk
and evening walk in open, green spaces are recommended for all. But
those who have weak constitutions are
advised not to go for gymnastics.
Free-hand exercises can be easily practiced by all. In schools and colleges, there are facilities
for outdoor games.
In villages, some rural sports are played. Those include kho-kho, kabaddi,
monkey-dance on trees etc. Young
boys climb trees to collect fruits. These kinds of games
and habits serve as fun alternatives for exercises. Boating
and riding are also good examples
of exercise. Playing football, hockey and cricket in school and college has
become very
popular. In advanced age, people should adopt morning walk in order to keep themselves
active.
Mental work has increased for modern man. He does more mental work and less of physical
work. In this way he
ruins his body. He becomes an easy victim to different ailments. Only
physical exercise can help him in being
healthy. It is a matter of grief that the scope for
physical exercise is gradually decreasing.
Students are busy in preparing for competitive examinations. They are not paying attention to
their health. They
believe that only consuming good food can keep them healthy. But it is a
wrong idea. They can be "healthy and
strong" in the truest sense only if they do regular
physical exercise.
Q.26 [11617692]
Which of the following CANNOT be identified as the tone of the passage?
a Motivating and Inspirational
b Enthusiastic and Energetic

c Belligerent and Bellowing
d Exhorting and Advising
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The author has tried to encourage the readers to do something
constructive i.e. regular physical exercise and suggests a variety
of methods for the same.
So, the tone of the passage is generally
motivational and inspirational. The author is also
very keen, eager
and earnest in his opinions. The overall feel of the passage is
positive and
energetic. So, his tone is definitely not aggressive.
Therefore, we cannot call it belligerent.
Hence (c) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 6
for outdoor games.
become very
active.
their health. They
physical exercise.
Q.27 [11617692]
Which of the following can be inferred to be an exercise that the author will recommend for
people of all age
groups:
a Mild physical exercises like running and swimming.
b Brisk walk at home or office, to be undertaken frequently at short intervals.

c Regular walking, ideally outdoors, during morning or evening.
d Slow walking, with measured steps and at a monitored pace, to maintain equilibrium of
heart rate and
pulse.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
In the second paragraph of the passage, it is clearly given that:
"Different people do different exercises. It depends upon their
physical constitution and
their likings. Morning walk and evening
walk in open, green spaces are recommended for
all. But those
who have weak constitutions are advised not to go for gymnastics."
This
implies that ideally these walks should be at a specific time,
when one is not engaged in
routine activities. Also, the sentence
suggests that a walk should be a ritual/a routine, so in
a way, we
can infer that these walks will be more effective if taken outdoors
rather than at
home. Hence (c) is the most appropriate choice.
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passage. Please
Passage – 6
for outdoor games.
become very
active.
their health. They
physical exercise.
Q.28 [11617692]
Which of the following is NOT an example of the rural sport mostly played in villages?
a Kabaddi
b Kho-Kho

c Boating and Riding
d Tree Climbing
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
As mentioned in the passage: "In villages, some rural sports
are
played. Those include kho-kho, kabaddi, monkey-dance on trees
etc. Young boys climb
trees to collect fruits." Boating and riding,
though mentioned in the next sentence, are not
clearly identified as
a rural sport. Hence (c) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 6
for outdoor games.
become very
active.
their health. They
physical exercise.
Q.29 [11617692]
Which of the following is not true according to the given passage?
a Students busy in preparing for competitive examinations believe that merely consuming
good food can
keep them healthy.

b In advanced age, people should not adopt morning walks in order to avoid injuries or
accidents.
c People who have weak constitutions are advised not to go for gymnastics.
d One should take steps to ensure one's physical well-being as it is also a kind of wealth.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
All the other statements except option (b) are correct. The
author
has mentioned that walking is an ideal exercise for people in all age
groups. So,
option (b) is the answer.
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passage. Please
Passage – 6
for outdoor games.
become very
active.
their health. They
physical exercise.
Q.30 [11617692]
How does the modern man ruin his body?
a Less mental work, more physical work
b More mental work, less physical work

c More healthy food, less mental work
d Less healthy food, more physical work
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The Modern man ruins his body by doing more mental work
and
less physical work. Hence (b) is the answer.
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Sec 2

Passage – 1
The Group of seven (G-7) advanced economies on June 5, 2021 secured a landmark deal on
taxing multinational
companies as per which the minimum global tax rate would be at least
[1] per cent.
The agreement by finance ministers of US, UK, Germany, France, Canada, Italy and Japan
paves way for levies
on multinationals in countries where they operate, instead of just where
they are headquartered.
Several critics have argued over the years that the global taxation system allowed big
companies to save billions
of dollars in tax bills by shifting jurisdictions, reported Bloomberg.
Major digital companies are making money in
multiple countries and pay taxes only at home.
A 'New York Times' report said the agreement would impose an additional tax on some of the
largest multinational
companies, potentially forcing technology giants like Amazon,
Facebook and Google as well as other big global
businesses to pay taxes to countries based
on where their goods or services are sold, regardless of whether they
have a physical
presence in that nation. It however, said garnering wider support will not be easy.
Under the new agreement, countries where big firms operate would get the right to tax at
least 20% of profits
exceeding a 10% margin which would apply to the largest and most
profitable multinational enterprises. The deal
is aimed at modernizing the century-old
international tax code and cools transatlantic tensions that threatened to
spill into a trade
war under Donald Trump, the report added.
The decision would be placed before the [2] countries, a group of developing and developed
nations, in a meeting
scheduled for July in Venice. [3], which has a tax rate of 12.5 percent,
has come out against the global minimum
tax, arguing that it would be disruptive to its
economic model. Some major countries such as China have been
quietly tracking the
proceedings but are considered unlikely to buy in.
Q.31 [11617692]
taxing
multinational companies as per which the minimum global tax rate would be at least
[1] per cent. Which of
the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a 15
b 20
c 25

d 30
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The Group of seven (G-7) advanced economies on June 5
secured
a landmark deal on taxing multinational companies as per which the
minimum
global tax rate would be at least 15 per cent. The agreement
by finance ministers of US, UK,
Germany, France, Canada, Italy
and Japan paves way for levies on multinationals in
countries
where they operate, instead of just where they are headquartered.
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Passage – 1
[1] per cent.
have a physical
spill into a trade
Q.32 [11617692]
The decision of imposing minimum global tax rate [1] per cent would be placed before the [2]
countries, a
group of developing and developed nations, in a meeting scheduled for July,
2021 in Venice. Which of the
following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a United Nations Organization
b World Trade Organization
c G-20

d G-77
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The decision of imposing minimum global tax rate 15 per cent
would
be placed before the G-20 countries, a group of developing and
developed nations, in
a meeting scheduled for July, 2021 in Venice.
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Passage – 1
[1] per cent.
have a physical
spill into a trade
Q.33 [11617692]
Which of the following countries has come out against the global minimum tax, arguing that
it would be
disruptive to its economic model which has been redacted with [3] in the passage
above?
a Russia
b Spain
c India

d Ireland
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
Ireland, which has a tax rate of 12.5 percent, has come out
against
the global minimum tax, arguing that it would be disruptive to its
economic model.
Some major countries such as China have been
quietly tracking the proceedings but are
considered unlikely to buy
in.
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Passage – 1
[1] per cent.
have a physical
spill into a trade
Q.34 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is Not true regarding India's equalisation levy?
a India was the one of the first countries to introduce a 5 per cent equalisation levy in
2006, but the levy was
restricted to online advertisement services.
b Indian Government in April, 2020 widened the scope to impose a 2 per cent tax on non-
resident ecommerce
players with a turnover of Rs 2 crore.

c The scope was further widened in the Finance Act 2021-22 to cover e-commerce supply
or service
when any activity takes place online.
d Since May 2021, this also includes any entity that systematically and continuously does
business with
more than 3 lakh users in India.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
India was the one of the first countries to introduce a 6 per cent
equalisation levy in 2016, but the levy was restricted to online
advertisement services. India has expanded the scope of the
equalisation levy over the last
few years, to tax non-resident digital
entities. While the levy applied only to digital
advertising services till
2019-20 at the rate of 6 percent, the government in April last year
widened the scope to impose a 2 per cent tax on non-resident ecommerce
players with a
turnover of Rs 2 crore. The scope was
further widened in the Finance Act 2021-22 to cover
e-commerce
supply or service when any activity takes place online. Since May
2021, this
also includes any entity that systematically and
continuously does business with more than
3 lakh users in India.
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Passage – 1
[1] per cent.
have a physical
spill into a trade
Q.35 [11617692]
Which of the following countries recently announced 25% tariffs on over $2 billion worth of
imports from six
nations over their digital services taxes, but immediately suspended the
duties to allow time for international
tax negotiations to continue?
a The United States
b Russia
c China

d UK
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
The United States recently announced 25% tariffs on over $2
billion worth of imports from six nations over their digital
services
taxes, but immediately suspended the duties to allow time for
international tax
negotiations to continue. The US. Trade
Representative's office had approved the
threatened tariffs on
goods from Britain, Italy, Spain, Turkey, India and Austria after a
"Section 301" investigation concluded that their digital taxes
discriminated against U.S.
companies. The potential tariffs aim to
equal the amount of digital taxes that would be
collected from U.S.
firms.
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Passage – 1
[1] per cent.
have a physical
spill into a trade
Q.36 [11617692]
Which of the following is/are concerns associated with India's Digital services tax?
1. The tax may become a burden for Digital Consumers.
2. It could invite retaliatory tariffs.
3. It would also result in double taxation.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
a 1 only

b 1 and 2 only
c 2 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Associated Concerns regarding India's Digital services tax are:
1.
Eventually the tax may become a burden for Digital Consumers. 2.
It could invite
retaliatory tariffs (such as the latest one), as similar
tariffs were imposed by the US on
France. 3. It would also result in
double taxation. India says Digital services tax is not
discriminatory
but it is very much needed because Business models employed by
non-
resident digital service providers obviate the need for a physical
presence in India and
profits earned here could easily escape the
Indian income tax net. Hence, this kind of
taxation is necessary.
Changing International Economic Order: Countries such as India
which provide large markets for digital corporations seek a greater
right to tax incomes.
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Passage – 2
Maldivian foreign minister [1] was elected President of the 76th United Nations General
Assembly (PGA) with an
overwhelming majority. He garnered 143 votes in favour with 48
against - that gave him victory by a three-fourths
majority, two people familiar with the
development said separately.
The post of the UN General Assembly President rotated annually among regional groupings.
The 76th session
(2021-22) is the turn of the Asia-Pacific group and this is the first time
Maldives will be occupying the office of the
PGA, said one of the two people mentioned
above.
Maldives had announced [1]'s candidature in December 2018 with no other candidate in the
fray. "India announced
its support for [1] during the visit of Foreign Secretary to Maldives in
November 2020. Even at that time, he was the
only candidate in the fray," the second person
cited above said.
However, in a suprising twist, in mid-January 2021, Afghan Foreign Minister Zalmai Rassoul
thre his hat into the
ring complicating the election. While Rassoul was seen as having strong
credentials, by the time his candidature
was announced, Maldives had already garnered
extensive support. Another factor working in favour of Shaid was
the fact that his country, the
Maldives has never held the office of PG(a) Afghanistan did once previously - during
the 21st
General Assembly session in 1966-67.
Both Maldives and Afghanistan have friendly ties with India. India's vote however went to the
Maldives since New
Delhi had committed support to [1] prior to Rassoul entering the fray, the
first person cited above said. The PGA's
office is the highest office in the UN System, and
reflects the collective goodwill of the [2] Member States of the UN.
Q.37 [11617692]
Who among the following has been elected President of the 76th United Nations General
Assembly (PGA)
with an overwhelming majority whose name has been redacted with [1] in
the passage above?
a Abdullah Shahid
b Ibrahim Mohamed Solih
c Sheikh Imran Abdulla
d Ibrahim Ameer

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Maldivian foreign minister Abdullah Shahid was elected
President
of the 76th United Nations General Assembly (PGA) with an
overwhelming
majority. He garnered 143 votes in favour with 48
against - that gave him victory by a three-
fourths majority, two
people familiar with the development said separately.
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Passage – 2
The 76th session
above.
cited above said.
the 21st
Maldives since New

Q.38 [11617692]
Who was the first Indian woman to be elected president of the United Nations General
Assembly?
a Indira Gandhi
b Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
c Sarojini Naidu
d Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician
who
was elected as the first female President of the United Nations
General Assembly.
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Passage – 2
The 76th session
above.
cited above said.
the 21st
Maldives since New
Q.39 [11617692]
How many members are there in the United Nations General Assembly which has been
redacted with [2] in
the passage above?
a 189
b 191
c 192
d 193

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
At present, there are 193 members in the United National
General
Assembly.
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Passage – 2
The 76th session
above.
cited above said.
the 21st
Maldives since New
Q.40 [11617692]
As on June 2021, how many times India elected as non-permanent member of the powerful
UN Security
Council for a two-year term?

a 5
b 6
c 7
d 8
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
With India formally elected as non-permanent member of the
powerful
UN Security Council for a two-year term, it is eighth time India
elected as non-
permanent member of the UNSC. There were five
vacant seats in the UNSC, out of which
four were filled by the first
round of voting. Along with India, Kenya, Ireland, Mexico and
Norway
obtained the requisite two-thirds majority in the General Assembly.
India was the
sole candidate for a non-permanent seat from the
Asia-Pacific category for the 2021-22
term. It's victory was
expected since it had already got endorsement from the 55-member
Asia Pacific group, including China and Pakistan, last year.
Previously, India has been
elected as a non-permanent member of
the Council for the years 1950-1951, 1967-1968,
1972-1973, 1977-
1978, 1984-1985, 1991-1992 and most recently in 2011-2012.
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Passage – 2
The 76th session
above.
cited above said.
the 21st
Maldives since New
Q.41 [11617692]
The United Nations Security Council formally approved Secretary-General Antonio Guterres
for a second
term, assuring that the former Prime Minister of ____________retains the top job
for five more years starting
January 1, 2022.
a Colombia
b Argentina
c Portugal
d Spain

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The United Nations Security Council formally approved
Secretary-
General António Guterres for a second term, assuring that the
former Prime
Minister of Portugal retains the top job for five more
years starting January 1, 2022. The
recommendation will now go
to the 193-member General Assembly, which is expected to
make
the appointment on June 18.
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Passage – 3
Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Minister Nirmala Sitharaman reviewed the progress
of the National
Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) as the government seeks to accelerate
infrastructure spending in the economy.
The NIP has been expanded from 6,385 projects at the time of its introduction a year ago, to
more than 7,300
projects, and is making progress despite the pandemic, the government said
in a statement.
"The NIP is a part of the Government of India's initiative to provide world-class infrastructure
to its citizens and
enhance the ease of living," Ms. Sitharaman said, urging Ministries to
promote investible projects by holding
discussions with prospective investors. The Minister
reviewed progress of the NIP, with a specific focus on 34
water and health-related
infrastructure projects worth Rs. 3.6 lakh crore.
It was explained in the meeting that despite the pandemic, the NIP has managed to achieve
substantial progress.
The NIP was launched with 6,835 projects, which has now been
expanded to more than 7,300. Projects identified
under the NIP require investment of a
whopping Rs [1] lakh crore during 2020-25. Many ministries/departments
have shown
substantial progress in project implementation and expenditure, especially in the second
quarter of
2020-21, the statement said.
In addition, the majority of ministries/departments have targeted substantially high infra

expenditure in the current
fiscal than the actual expenditure of FY'20. Ministries were also
asked to update the National Infrastructure Pipeline
dashboard regularly to allow seamless
online monitoring.

Q.42 [11617692]
The Projects identified under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) require investment of
a whopping
Rs. [1] lakh crore during 2020-25. Which of the following has been removed with
[1] in the passage above?
a Rs 50 lakh crore
b Rs 75 lakh crore
c Rs 90 lakh crore
d Rs 111 lakh crore
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
expanded to more than 7,300. Projects identified under the NIP
require investment of a whopping Rs 111 lakh crore during 2020-
25.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 3
of the National
more than 7,300
in a statement.
to its citizens and
have shown
quarter of

online monitoring.
Q.43 [11617692]
Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which of the following sectors accounts for
largest investments
(in terms of percentage)?
a Energy
b Roads
c Urban
d Railways

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
NIP will enable a forward outlook on infrastructure projects
which
will create jobs, improve ease of living, and provide
equitable access
to infrastructure for all, thereby making growth more inclusive. NIP
includes economic and social infrastructure projects. During the
fiscals 2020 to 2025,
sectors such as Energy (24%), Roads (19%),
Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) amount to
around 70% of the
projected capital expenditure in infrastructure in India. The Centre
(39%)
and state (40%) are expected to have almost equal share in
implementing the NIP in India,
followed by the private sector (21%).
FeedBack Bookmark
Passage – 3
of the National
more than 7,300
in a statement.
to its citizens and
have shown
quarter of

online monitoring.

Q.44 [11617692]
What are the expected shares in implementing the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) in
India?
a 39:40:21
b 33:33:34
c 50:25:25
d 40:40:20
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
NIP will enable a forward outlook on infrastructure projects
which
will create jobs, improve ease of living, and provide
equitable access
to infrastructure for all, thereby making growth more inclusive. NIP
includes economic and social infrastructure projects. During the
fiscals 2020 to 2025,
sectors such as Energy (24%), Roads (19%),
Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) amount to
around 70% of the projected capital expenditure in infrastructure in India. The Centre
(39%)
and state (40%) are expected to have almost equal share in
implementing the NIP in India,
followed by the private sector (21%).
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 3
of the National
more than 7,300
in a statement.
to its citizens and
have shown
quarter of

online monitoring.
Q.45 [11617692]
Who among the following headed the task force on National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and
submitted its
final report in May 2020 to the Union Finance Minister?
a Atanu Chakraborty
b Gopala Krishna
c Rajarao
d T V Somanathan

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
The task force headed by Atanu Chakraborty on National
Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), in May 2020, submitted its final
report
to the Finance Minister. Important recommendations and observations
made:
Investment needed: Rs. 111 lakh crore over the next five
years (2020-2025) to build
infrastructure projects and drive
economic growth. Energy, roads, railways and urban
projects are
estimated to account for the bulk of projects (around 70%). The
centre (39
percent) and state (40 percent) are expected to have
an almost equal sharein implementing
the projects, while the private
sector has 21 percent share.
FeedBack Bookmark
Passage – 3
of the National
more than 7,300
in a statement.
to its citizens and
have shown
quarter of

online monitoring.

Q.46 [11617692]
Which of the following are the benefits of National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP)?
1. It will enable more infra projects, grow businesses and create jobs.
2. It will provide equitable access to infrastructure for all, making growth more inclusive.
3. It will improve ease of living.
4. It enhances the level of economic activity, creates additional fiscal space by improving the
revenue base
of the government, and ensures the quality of expenditure focused in
productive areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a 1 and 4 only
b 1, 2 and 4 only
c 1 and 2 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
The benefits of NIP: 1. Economic: Well-planned NIP will enable
more
infra projects, grow businesses, create jobs, improve
ease of
living, and provide equitable access to infrastructure for all, making
growth more
inclusive. 2. Government: Well-developed
infrastructure enhances the level of economic
activity, creates
additional fiscal space by improving the revenue base of the
government,
and ensures the quality of expenditure focused in
productive areas. 3. Developers: Provides
a better view of project
supply, provides time to be better prepared for project bidding,
reduces aggressive bids/ failure in project delivery, ensures
enhanced access to sources of
finance as a result of increased
investor confidence. 4. Banks/financial institutions
(F1s)/investors:
Builds investor confidence as identified projects are likely to be
better
prepared, exposures less likely to suffer stress given active
project monitoring, thereby less
likelihood of NPAs.
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Passage – 4
In its latest risk assessment for SARS-C0V-2 variants, Public Health England (PHE) has said a
staggering 61% of
the samples sequenced are now of the [1] variant (B.1.617.2). This means
the [1] variant, first detected in India, is
more dominant in the UK than the Alpha variant that
had last year triggered a surge in the UK.
Multiple SARS-CoV-2 variants are circulating globally. One of these is the B.1.617 lineage,
detected in India earlier
this year. Early evidence suggests that its sub-lineage B. 1.617.2,
known as the [1] variant, is more transmissible
than contemporary lineages.
The World Health Organizaton (WHO), which has given it the label [1], has categorised it as a
variant of concern
(VOC). It has said it continues to observe "significantly increased
transmissibility" and a "growing number of
countries reporting outbreaks associated with this
variant".
Different variants are characterised by mutations - or alterations in the virus's genetic

material. An RNA virus, such
as SARS-CoV-2, is made of about 30,000 base pairs of amino
acids, placed like bricks next to each other.
An alteration in any of these base cause a mutation, effectively changing the shape and
behaviour of the virus.
The[1] variant contains multiple mutations in the spike protein. At least
four mutations are important.
One of these is called L452R, first reported in Denmark in March last year. This mutation has
been found more
transmissible than wild-type strains and also been associated with reduced
antibody efficacy and reduced
neutralisation by vaccine sera. The mutation P681R has been
associated with chemical processes that may
enhance transmissibility, PHE says.
The D614G mutation was first documented in the US early in the pandemic, having initially
circulated in Europe.
"There is evidence that variants with this mutation spread more quickly,"
the Centers for Disease Prevention and
Control (CDC) says. Another mutation in [1] is T478K.
This was present in around 65% of occurrences in variant
B.1.1.222, first detected in Mexico
last year and associated with higher infectivity.
Q.47 [11617692]
What is the name of the Indian variant which has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a Alpha
b Delta

c Gama
d Beta
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Multiple SARS-CoV-2 variants are circulating globally. One of
these
is the B.1.617 lineage, detected in India earlier this year. Early
evidence suggests that
its sub-lineage B.1.617.2, known as the
Delta variant, is more transmissible than
contemporary lineages.
The World Health Organisation (WHO) has said only B.1.617.2, one
of the three strains of the B.1.617 COVID-19 variant first detected
in India, is a "variant of
concern" now. The B.1.617 variant was
first detected in India and was divided in three
lineages - B.1.617.1,
B.1.617.2 and B.1.617.3.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 4
staggering 61% of
variant of concern
variant".

been found more
Q.48 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the World Health Organization
(WHO)?
a It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public

health.

b It is headquartered in New York, USA.
c The WHO was established by constitution on 7 April 1948, which is commemorated as

World Health
Day.
d Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus is an Ethiopian biologist has been serving as Director-

General of the
World Health Organization.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency
of
the United Nations responsible for international public health. The
WHO Constitution,
which establishes the agency's governing
structure and principles, states its main objective
as "the attainment
by all peoples of the highest possible level of health". It is
headquartered
in Geneva, Switzerland, with six semi-autonomous
regional offices and 150 field offices
worldwide. The WHO was
established by constitution on 7 April 1948, which is
commemorated
as World Health Day. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus is an Ethiopian
biologist has served since 2017 as Director-General of the World
Health Organization.
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Passage – 4
staggering 61% of
variant of concern
variant".

been found more

Q.49 [11617692]
The World Health Organizaton (WHO) classifies a variant as a variant of concern (VOC) when
it is associated
with which of the following?
1. Increase in transmissibility or detrimental change in Covid-19 epidemiology.
2. Increase in virulence (Ability to cause severe/life-threatening disease).
3. Decrease in the effectiveness of public health measures or available diagnostics, vaccines

and
therapeutics.
a 3 only
b 1 and 2 only
c 2 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : b
Errors in the viral RNA are called mutations, and viruses with
these
mutations are called variants. Variants could differ by a single or
many mutations.
The World Health Organizaton (WHO) classifies a
variant as a variant of concern (VOC)
when it is associated with
an increase in transmissibility or detrimental change in Covid-19
epidemiology or Increase in virulence (Ability to cause severe/lifethreatening
disease) or
Decrease in the effectiveness of public
health measures or available diagnostics, vaccines
and
therapeutics.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 4
staggering 61% of
variant of concern
variant".

been found more

Q.50 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the mutations?
1. A mutation means a change in the genetic sequence of the virus.
2. In the case of SARS-CoV-2, which is an Ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus, a mutation means a
change in the
sequence in which its molecules are arranged.
3. A mutation in an RNA virus often happens when the virus makes a mistake while it is
making copies of
itself.
a 1 only
b 1 and 3 only
c 2 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
A mutation means a change in the genetic sequence of the
virus. In
the case of SARS-CoV-2, which is an Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
virus, a mutation
means a change in the sequence in which its
molecules are arranged. A mutation in an RNA
virus often happens
when the virus makes a mistake while it is making copies of itself.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 4
staggering 61% of
variant of concern
variant".

been found more

Q.51 [11617692]
Why is Variant [1] more dangerous than other variants?
1. This variant has multiple mutations that appear to give it an advantage over other strains.
2. The most important advantage is that the mutations may make the strain more
transmissible. This will
make the [1] variant the most dangerous variant yet.
3. One study indicated that the [1] variant may be up to 50% more transmissible than the
B.1.1.7 (U.K./
Alpha) variant.
a 1 only
b 2 only
c 1 and 2 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Delta Variant is more dangerous than other variants because
this
variant has multiple mutations that appear to give it an advantage
over other strains.
The most important advantage is that the
mutations may make the strain more
transmissible. This will make
the delta variant the most dangerous variant yet. One study
indicated that the Delta variant may be up to 50% more transmissible
than the B.1.1.7
(U.K./Alpha) variant.
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Passage – 5
The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) in its latest bulletin said the storm that formed
over the Bay of Bengal,
'Yaas', intensified into a "very severe cyclonic storm" and crossed
north [1] and [2] coasts between Paradip and
Sagar islands.
Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Yaas was a relatively strong and very damaging tropical cyclone
that made landfall in
[1] and brought significant impacts to [2] during late May 2021. The
second cyclonic storm, second severe cyclonic
storm, and second very severe cyclonic storm
of the 2021 North Indian Ocean cyclone season, Yaas formed from
a tropical disturbance
that the Indian Meteorological Department first monitored on May 23.
Even as authorities of both [1] and [2] are pressed in action on war footing to mitigate the
impact of the storm on
lives, the Internet is abuzz with chatter over the peculiar name of the
cyclone, especially days after another
cyclone with a strange name, Tauktae, battered the
west coast of the country and left a trail of death and destruction.
'Yaas' (pronounced as Yass) got its name from [3]. The word has its origin in the Persian
language and means the
flower jasmine in English. The cyclones are named to identify the
storms to send out warning notifications about
their development. As the technical names
could be difficult for the common people to remember and spread
awareness on, naming
them gives a unique identifier to these cyclones and makes it easier for the media and
various authorities to disseminate information on them. If the speed of a cyclone is more
than 34 nautical miles per
hour then a panel gives it a special name.
The panel comprising 13 countries, including India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Pakistan, the
Maldives, Oman, Sri
Lanka, Thailand, Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and
Yemen, name cyclones in the region. In
2020, a new list of names was released that had [4]
names of cyclones, having 13 suggested names each from
13 countries.
Q.52 [11617692]
that made
landfall in [1] and brought significant impacts to [2] during late May 2021. Which of
the following two states
have been redacted with [1] and [2] in the passage above?
a Kerala and Maharashtra
b Karnataka and Kerala
c Odisha and West Bengal

d Gujarat and Maharashtra
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Yaas was a relatively strong and
very
damaging tropical cyclone that made landfall in Odisha and brought
significant
impacts to West Bengal during late May 2021. The second
cyclonic storm, second severe
cyclonic storm, and second very
severe cyclonic storm of the 2021 North Indian Ocean
cyclone
season, Yaas formed from a tropical disturbance that the Indian
Meteorological
Department first monitored on May 23.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 5
Sagar islands.
Maldives, Oman, Sri
13 countries.
Q.53 [11617692]
Who is the current Director General of India Meteorological Department (IMD)?
a Chandrashaker Azad
b Mrutyunjay Mohapatra
c Debi Prasad Chattopadhyaya
d Anil Kumar Pandey

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
In a weather alert, IMD director general Mrutyunjay Mohapatra
said
that the impact of the cyclone is severe for six hours
before and
after the landfall and Chandbali in Odisha will bear the maximum
brunt of the
storm.
FeedBack Bookmark
Passage – 5
Sagar islands.
Maldives, Oman, Sri
13 countries.

Q.54 [11617692]
Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Yaas got its name from [3]. Which of the following countries has
been redacted
with [3] in the passage above?
a Oman
b Thailand
c Iran
d Sri Lanka
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
'Yaas' (pronounced as Yass) got its name from Oman. The word
has its origin in the Persian language and means the flower jasmine
in English. The
cyclones are named to identify the storms to send
out warning notifications about their
development.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 5
Sagar islands.
Maldives, Oman, Sri
13 countries.
Q.55 [11617692]
Which of the following has been redacted with [4] in the passage above?
a 121
b 144
c 169
d 196

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
The panel comprising 13 countries, including India,
Bangladesh,
Myanmar, Pakistan, the Maldives, Oman, Sri
Lanka, Thailand, Iran,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Yemen, name
cyclones in the region. In 2020, a new list of names was released
that had 169 names of
cyclones, having 13 suggested names
each from 13 countries.
FeedBack Bookmark
Passage – 5
Sagar islands.
Maldives, Oman, Sri
13 countries.

Q.56 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Indian Meteorological
Department (IMD)?
a It names the cyclonic storms rising in the north Indian Ocean when their forecast says
that the depression
has intensified into cyclonic storms with three-minute sustained wind
speeds of at least 63kmph.
b The names are selected keeping in mind that they are gender, religion, culture, and
politically neutral.
c The next cyclone in the region will be called 'Gulab', as recommended by Pakistan, while
the one after it
will be 'Shaheen', as named by Qatar.
d IMD is headquartered in Chennai and operates hundreds of observation stations across

India and Antarctica.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
The Indian Meteorological Department names the cyclonic
storms
rising in the north Indian Ocean when their forecast
says that the
depression has intensified into cyclonic storms with three-minute
sustained
wind speeds of at least 63kmph. The names are selected
keeping in mind that they are
gender, religion, culture, and politically
neutral; they should not be offensive, or hurt
anyone's sentiments;
they ought to be short and easy to pronounce; and the maximum
length of the name should be eight letters. The list of 13 names
prepared by each of the 13
nations are out in public domain. The
next cyclone in the region will be called 'Gulab', as
recommended
by Pakistan, while the one after it will be 'Shaheen', as named by
Qatar. At
present the first list is in use. Once the names in the first
list are exhausted, the second list
of the names in the table will be
used, and so on. IMD is headquartered in Delhi and
operates
hundreds of observation stations across India and Antarctica.
Regional offices are
at Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Nagpur, Guwahati
and New Delhi.
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Passage – 6
The US has started formally withdrawing troops from Afghanistan, beginning the end of what
President Joe Biden
called "the forever war". The US and [1] have had a presence in
Afghanistan for almost 20 years.
But the withdrawal, which runs until 11 September, comes amid escalating violence, with
Afghan security forces
on high alert for reprisal attacks. The Taliban have warned they are no
longer bound by an agreement not to target
international troops.
Under a deal signed last year between the militants and then-President Donald Trump, foreign
forces were to have
left by 1 May while the Taliban held off attacking international troops.
Officials told Reuters during this time the Taliban has been protecting western military bases
from rival Islamist
groups. That has not stopped Taliban attacks on Afghan forces and
civilians.
US General Scott Miller warned against attacks on foreign troops as they start to withdraw.
US President Joe Biden pushed back the 1 May pullout, saying some troops would stay on
until 11 September this
year, the 20th anniversary of the 9/11 attacks, citing the security
situation.
On 11 September 2001, attacks in America killed nearly 3,000 people. [2], the head of Islamist
terror group al-
Qaeda, was quickly identified as the man responsible.
The Taliban, radical Islamists who ran Afghanistan and protected Bin Laden, refused to hand
him over. So, a
month after 9/11, the US launched air strikes against Afghanistan.
As other countries joined the war, the Taliban were quickly removed from power. But they
didn't just disappear -
their influence grew back and they dug in. Since then, the US and its
allies have struggled to stop Afghanistan's
government collapsing, and to end deadly attacks
by the Taliban.
US President Joe Biden says the US pull-out is justified as US forces have made sure the
country cannot again
become a base for foreign jihadists to plot against the West. And
Afghan President Ashraf Ghani says government
forces are fully capable of keeping
insurgents at bay.
Q.57 [11617692]
Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a UN Peace Keeping Force
b NATO
c Comecon
d Collective Security Force (CSF)
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The US has started formally withdrawing troops from
Afghanistan,
beginning the end of what President Joe Biden called "the forever
war". The
US and Nato have had a presence in Afghanistan for
almost 20 years. The North Atlantic
Treaty Organization (NATO),
also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental
military
alliance between 30 European and North American countries. The
organization
implements the North Atlantic Treaty that was signed
on 4 April 1949. NATO constitutes a
system of collective defence
whereby its independent member states agree to mutual
defence
in response to an attack by any external party. NATO's Headquarters
are located in
Haren, Brussels, Belgium, while the headquarters of
Allied Command Operations is near
Mons, Belgium.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 6
President Joe Biden
forces were to have
from rival Islamist
civilians.
situation.
terror group al-
him over. So, a
by the Taliban.
insurgents at bay.

Q.58 [11617692]
terror group
al-Qaeda, was quickly identified as the man responsible. Who among the
following has been removed with
a Abdullah Azzam
b Osama Bin Laden
c Hafiz Saeed
d Zafar Iqbal
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
On 11 September 2001, attacks in America killed nearly 3,000
people.
Osama Bin Laden, the head of Islamist terror group al-Qaeda, was
quickly identified
as the man responsible. The Taliban, radical
Islamists who ran Afghanistan and protected
Bin Laden, refused
to hand him over. So, a month after 9/11, the US launched air strikes
against Afghanistan.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 6
President Joe Biden
forces were to have
from rival Islamist
civilians.
situation.
terror group al-
him over. So, a
by the Taliban.
insurgents at bay.
Q.59 [11617692]
What was the name of the operation code which was launched to kill [2] in the passage
above?

a Operation Red Dawn
b Operation Neptune Spear
c Operation Urgent Fury
d Operation Vittles
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Osama bin Laden, the founder and first leader of the Islamist
militant
group al-Qaeda, was killed in Pakistan on May 2, 2011 by United
States Navy SEALs
of the U.S. Naval Special Warfare Development
Group (also known as DEVGRU or SEAL
Team Six). The operation,
code-named Operation Neptune Spear, was carried out in a
CIAled
operation with Joint Special Operations Command, commonly
known as JSOC,
coordinating the Special Mission Units involved in
the raid. In addition to SEAL Team Six,
participating units under
JSOC included the 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
(Airborne)-also known as "Night Stalkers"-and operators from the
CIA's Special Activities
Division, which recruits heavily from former
JSOC Special Mission Units. The operation
ended a nearly 10-year
search for bin Laden, following his role in the September 11 attacks
on the United States.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 6
President Joe Biden
forces were to have
from rival Islamist
civilians.
situation.
terror group al-
him over. So, a
by the Taliban.
insurgents at bay.
Q.60 [11617692]
On February 29, 2020, the United States and the Taliban signed a peace agreement in:

a Kabul
b Doha
c Dubai
d New York
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
On February 29, 2020, the United States and the Taliban signed
a
peace agreement in Doha, Qatar, officially titled the Agreement for
Bringing Peace to
Afghanistan. The provisions of the deal include
the withdrawal of all American and NATO
troops from Afghanistan,
a Taliban pledge to prevent al-Qaeda from operating in areas
under
Taliban control, and talks between the Taliban and the Afghan
government. Along
with this, a separate joint declaration was also
signed between the Afghan government and
the US at Kabul. The
peace deal is expected to kick-off two processes- a phased
withdrawal
of US troops and an 'intra-Afghan' dialogue. The deal
is a fundamental step to deliver a
comprehensive and permanent
ceasefire and the future political roadmap for Afghanistan
peace
process and the Central region.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 6
President Joe Biden
forces were to have
from rival Islamist
civilians.
situation.
terror group al-
him over. So, a
by the Taliban.
insurgents at bay.
Q.61 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the impacts of US- Taliban Peace
Deal on India?

a US- Taliban Peace Deal alters the balance of power in favour of the Taliban, which will
have strategic,
security and political implications for India.
b Withdrawal of US troops could result in the breeding of the fertile ground for various anti-
India terrorist
outfits like Lashkar-e-Taiba or Jaish-e-Mohammed.
c India has a major stake in the continuation of the current Afghanistan government in
power, which it
considers a strategic asset vis-à-vis Pakistan.
d As Afghanistan is the gateway to India to rule in Central Asia, the deal might dampen
India's interest in
Central Asia.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : a
The impacts of US- Taliban Peace Deal on India are: US-
Taliban
Peace Deal alters the balance of power in favour of the Taliban,
which will have
strategic, security and political implications for
India. The deal may jeopardise the key
stakes of India in Afghanistan:
India has a major stake in the stability of Afghanistan. India
has
invested considerable resources in Afghanistan's development.
India has a major stake
in the continuation of the current Afghanistan
government in power, which it considers a
strategic asset vis-àvis
Pakistan. An increased political and military role for the Taliban
and
the expansion of its territorial control should be of great concern
to India since the Taliban
is widely believed to be a protégé of
Islamabad. As Afghanistan is the gateway to Central
Asia, the deal
might dampen India's interest in Central Asia. Withdrawal of US
troops could
result in the breeding of the fertile ground for various
anti-India terrorist outfits like
Lashkar-e-Taiba or Jaish-e-Mohammed.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 7
[1] has retained the top rank in Niti Aayog's SDG India Index 2020-21, while [2] has been
adjudged as the worst
performer, according to a report released. The Index for Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) evaluates
progress of states and union territories on social,
economic and environmental parameters.
The country's overall SDG score improved by 6 points - from 60 in 2019 to 66 in 2020-21.
This positive stride towards achieving the targets is largely driven by exemplary country-wide
performance in
clean water and sanitation, and affordable and clean energy, the Niti Aayog
said in a statement.
[1] retained its rank as the top state with a score of 75. Both Himachal Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu took the second
spot with a score of 74.
[2], Jharkhand and Assam were the worst performing states in this year's index. The third
rendition of India's SDG
Index was launched by Niti Aayog vice chairman [3].
Further, [4] maintained its top spot among the union territories (UTs) with a score of 79,
followed by Delhi (68).
Mizoram, Haryana and Uttarakhand were the top gainers in 2020-21 in terms of improvement
in score from 2019,
with an increase of 12, 10 and 8 points, respectively.
While in 2019, 10 states/UTs belonged to the category of front-runners (score in the range
65-99, both inclusive),
12 more states/UTs find themselves in this category in 2020-21.
Under the health sector goals, Gujarat and Delhi were the top performers among the states
and the UTs, respectively.
Under the goal of quality education, Kerala and Chandigarh were the top performers among
the states and UTs,
respectively.
Under the goal of no poverty, Tamil Nadu and Delhi were the best performers among the
states and UTs, respectively.
Under the goal of reduced inequalities, Meghalaya and Chandigarh (Achiever, with Index
score of 100) emerged as
the best performers among the states and UTs.

Q.62 [11617692]
Which of the following states topped the Niti Aayog's SDG India Index 2020-21 which has
been replaced with
a Kerala
b Maharashtra
c Punjab
d Goa
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
Kerala has retained the top rank in Niti Aayog's SDG India Index
2020-21, while Bihar has been adjudged as the worst performer,
according to a report
released. The Index for Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) evaluates progress of
states and union
territories on social, economic and environmental parameters.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 7
performance in
in score from 2019,
the states and UTs,
respectively.

Q.63 [11617692]
Which of the following states adjudged as the worst performer in the Niti Aayog's SDG India
Index 2020-21
which has been replaced with [2] in the passage above?
a Telangana
b Odisha
c Madhya Pradesh
d Bihar
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
Kerala has retained the top rank in Niti Aayog's SDG India Index
2020-21, while Bihar has been adjudged as the worst performer,
according to a report
released. The Index for Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) evaluates progress of
states and union
territories on social, economic and environmental parameters.
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 7
performance in
in score from 2019,
the states and UTs,
respectively.

Q.64 [11617692]
Who is the current Vice Chairman of Niti Aayog whose name has been redacted with [3] in the
passage
above?
a Rajive Ranjan
b Rajiv Kumar
c Arvind Panagariya
d Arvind Subramanyam
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The third rendition of India's SDG Index was launched by Niti
Aayog
vice chairman Rajiv Kumar. Further, Chandigarh maintained its top
spot among the
union territories (UTs) with a score of 79, followed
by Delhi (68).
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 7
performance in
in score from 2019,
the states and UTs,
respectively.

Q.65 [11617692]
Which of the following Union Territories (UTs) has topped the Niti Aayog's SDG India Index
2020-21 which
has been replaced with [4] in the passage above ?
a Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b Lakshadweep Islands
c Chandigarh
d Puducherry
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The third edition of India's SDG Index was launched by Niti
Aayog
vice chairman Rajiv Kumar. Further, Chandigarh maintained its top
spot among the
union territories (UTs) with a score of 79, followed
by Delhi (68).
FeedBack Bookmark

Passage – 7
performance in
in score from 2019,
the states and UTs,
respectively.

Q.66 [11617692]
India's SDG Index was developed in collaboration with the___________, measures the progress
at the
national and sub-national level in the country's journey towards meeting the global
goals and targets.
a World Economic Forum
b United Nations in India
c World Bank
d International Monetary Fund
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The first edition of India's SDG Index was launched in
December
2018, the index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress
on the
SDGs in the country and has simultaneously fostered
competition among the states and
union territories by ranking them
on the global goals. The index, developed in collaboration
with the
United Nations in India, measures the progress at the national and sub-national
level in the country's journey towards meeting the
global goals and targets. It has been
successful as an advocacy
tool to propagate the messages of sustainability, resilience and
partnerships as well.
FeedBack Bookmark
Sec 3
Directions for questions 67 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the
information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law
howsoever prominent is to be
applied.
Passage – 1
Trespass to a person under torts deals with a threat of, or actual use of unlawful forces

against a person. Trespass

can be said to be an action exceeding the limit carved by the law.
It is an intentionally directed, unreasonable
interference with one's person and property. The
word 'intention' here implies committing the wrong voluntarily and
it is an essential element.
Trespass allegation can be level if the interference is with one's and third person's body
and
private property. There are basically 3 types of trespass against person and those are:
i. Battery: The use of force on the person of another without lawful justification. Battery
consists of touching
another person hostilely or against his will directly or indirectly, however,
slightly. Essentials of battery include:
• Direct or indirect physical contact without lawful justification and intentional
• Use of force
• It must be voluntary or intentional
Accidental touch or push in the market is not wrongful and does not constitute battery.
ii. Assault: It is the causing of unreasonable apprehension of body injury and damage in the
mind of another
person and usually a prelude to a battery. This means that assault occurs
when the defendant does something
that scares the plaintiff into thinking that he/she is
going to be subjected to unjustified use of force. A
necessary requirement for assault is that
the defendant should have the ability to do harm. Assault can be
both direct and indirect. It
can be carried out by the person himself or through a third person. Essentials of
assault
include:
• Intent
• Apparent ability to carry out the purpose
• Apprehension
• Knowledge of threat
iii. False Imprisonment: This tort occurs when a person is deprived of his liberty. For eg: when
someone locks
another person in the room. Essentials:
• The plaintiff's liberty had been totally restrained
• The restrain was imposed without any lawful justification
Defence against trespass to body
i.Consent of Plaintiff: When plaintiff consented with the defendant on the specific act then
defendant can't be
said to be trespassing if there is a mutual understanding between the
parties for the act.
ii. Contributory negligence: When there is negligence of the plaintiff included in the act, then
the defendant's
liability can be mitigated to the extent and compromise can be arrived at or
liability can be divided.
iii. Self-defence: A person, to protect himself from an unruly element or any other such
person or incidents, can
trespass on the property to preclude the act from consummation.
But proportionality and probability should
be kept in mind while using the property of the
plaintiff to intrude and so it is to be proved by the defendant
that there was no other option
with the defendant other than to intrude in the property of the plaintiff.
iv. Statutory authority: Authorities compelled by the law to carry out search and seizures and

cases where
consent is taken to conduct a bodily search would not be construed as a
trespass on the body of a person.
Entry in public places and private property used for a commercial purpose is not trespass
considering the
societal and public interest in mind.
v. Preservation of public peace.
Q.67 [11617692]
X entered the train without a ticket as he was in a rush but when Y, the ticket collector asked
him for a ticket
X refused to show it. X was asked to step out but on refusal Y used force to
make him get out. Decide?
a A suit for battery cannot be executed as force used was justified.
b A suit for battery can be executed as the force was not justified.
c A suit for battery can be executed as the force was voluntary and intentional.
d A suit for battery can be executed as the force was direct and physical.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The force was justified as X being without a ticket was a
trespasser.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 1

and
• Use of force
mind of another
assault
include:
• Intent
• Apprehension
someone locks
defendant can't be
the defendant's
cases where

considering the
Q.68 [11617692]
A prisoner X was acquitted but before his release he was taken to the cell and detained there
for 2 hours. X
was said that he was kept because there were some procedures due. Whether
it is a case of False
Imprisonment?
a It is not a case of False Imprisonment as X was kept because of some due procedure.
b It is a case of False Imprisonment as X was detained and there was restraint on the
liberty.
c It is not a case of False Imprisonment as X was kept only for 2 hours.
d It is not a case of False Imprisonment as the restraint was lawfully justified.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : a
The tort of False Imprisonment occurs when a person is
deprived
of his liberty and the time is immaterial.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 1
and

• Use of force
mind of another
assault
include:
• Intent
• Apprehension
someone locks
defendant can't be
the defendant's
cases where
considering the

Q.69 [11617692]
In a verbal spat between A and B, A approached B with a clenched fist saying that he will beat
him up if B
doesn't stop. The bystanders stopped A from doing so. Can A be made liable for
assault?
a A will be liable for battery not assault as he approached B with a clenched fist.
b A will not be liable as there was no physical contact with B.
c A will be liable as there is an apprehension of body injury to B.
d A will not be liable as the element of intent is not there.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Assault occurs when the defendant does something that
scares
the plaintiff into thinking that he/she is going to be subjected to
unjustified use of
force.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 1
and

• Use of force
mind of another
assault
include:
• Intent
• Apprehension
someone locks
defendant can't be
the defendant's
cases where
considering the

Q.70 [11617692]
In which of the following cases a defence against a trespass to a person can be taken?
a X while driving rashly hit Y who was driving on the wrong side of the road.
b X was being chased by a ferocious dog and because of this he entered the premises of Y
to save
himself.
c Y entered Y's house as X gave his home-keys to Y to look after his house while he is not
in the city.
d All of the above
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
In the first case a defence of Contributory negligence can be
taken
while in second and third the defence of Self-defence and Consent
of Plaintiff can be
taken respectively.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 1
and

• Use of force
mind of another
assault
include:
• Intent
• Apprehension
someone locks
defendant can't be
the defendant's
cases where
considering the

Q.71 [11617692]
Which of the following is not a trespass to a person?
a X was restrained by Y to move on a particular path and he was advised to take another
path to reach his
destination.
b X who lost both of his limbs, threatened Y that he will shoot him.
c Both (a) and (b)
d None
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The case given under option (a) does not constitute False
Imprisonment as there is not a total restraint in the liberty and under
option (b) it will not
constitute Assault as X is incapable to shoot Y.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 2
Strike is one of the oldest and the most effective weapons of labour in its struggle with
capital for securing economic
justice. Section 2 (q) of the Industrial Disputes Act defines:
"Strike means a cessation of work by a body of persons
employed in any industry acting in
combination, or a concerted refusal, or a refusal under a common understanding,
of any
number of persons who are or have been so employed to continue to work or to accept
employment." There
are some essentials elements which are to be fulfilled to constitute a
strike and those are: There must be cessation
of work; The cessation of work must be by a
body of persons employed in any industry; There must be a concerted
refusal; Refusal under
a common understanding of any number of persons who are or have been so employed to
continue to work or to accept employment; and They must stop work for some demands

relating to employment,
non-employment or the terms of employment or the conditions of
labour of the workmen. Justification of Strike
means whether the reason for which the strike
was called was serious enough or had enough potential to significantly
affect the conditions
of labour or terms of employment or employer-employee relationships. However, use of
coercion or violence during a strike negates whatever justification a strike may have. The
Strike is illegal if: it is in
breach of Contract of Employment; Notice regarding Strike is not
given.
Lockout is a work stoppage in which an employer prevents employees from working. It is

declared by employers
to put pressure on their workers to come to their way by consensus
about settlement of issues that lead to lockout.
This is different from a strike, in which
employees refuse to work. Thus, a lockout is employers' weapon while a
strike is raised on
part of employees. According to Section 2(1) of Industrial Disputes Act 1947, lock-out means
the
temporary closing of a place of employment or the suspension of work or the refusal by
an employer to continue
to employ any number of persons employed by him. Lock made is
not permanent that can be closed and opened.
The word 'out' can be understood as keeping
temporarily away management and employees from the factory, till
settlement of the issues
caused to lockout. A lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike is legal. A legal
lockout can become a strong tool in the hands of the employer in critical situations. There
can be a number of
reasons behind Lockout like: Disputes or clashes in between workers and
the management; Unrest disputes or
clashes in between workers and workers; Illegal strikes,
regular strikes or continuous strikes by workers may lead
to lockout of factory or industry;
External environmental disturbance due to unstable governments may lead to
lockouts of
factories or industries etc.
No employer carrying on any public utility service shall lock-out any of his workman:
• without giving them notice of lock-out as hereinafter provided, within six weeks before
locking-out; or
• within fourteen days of giving such notice; or
• before the expiry of the date of lock-out specified in any such notice as aforesaid; or
• during the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and seven
days after the
conclusion of such proceedings.
Q.72 [11617692]
The employees of X factory went on a strike with a common demand regarding the
employment. They
decided to march on the road on a specific day to show their unity and the
march turned violent causing
injury to 5 persons. The employees claimed that it was because
of the unwanted people who were not
allowed in the march. Decide?
a The strike is justified as the march was not a part of the strike rather it was a part of
showing unity.
b The strike is not justified as it included violence in it which negated its justification.

c The strike is justified as the employees were having a common demand regarding
employment.
d The strike is justified as the violence was caused by the unwanted element and the
Employees were not
liable.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
Use of coercion or violence during a strike negates whatever
justification a strike may have.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 2
of any
employment." There

given.

strike is raised on
the
can be a number of
lockouts of
locking-out; or
days after the
Q.73 [11617692]
In a factory named XYZ, a group of employees went on a strike and so that the rest of the
employees
became less productive and ultimately led to the cessation of work. In this
situation the employer declared
lockout until the employees end the strike. Decide?
a The lockout is not justified because there were some employees who were working.
b The lockout is not justified because some employees were already on strike.
c The lockout is justified as employer may declare a lockout against an illegal strike,
d The lockout is justified as it reduced the productivity of the Factory.

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : b
A lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike is legal.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 2
of any
employment." There
given.

strike is raised on
the


can be a number of
lockouts of
locking-out; or
days after the
Q.74 [11617692]
A factory was facing continuous strikes by the employees regarding different demands and
due to these
consecutive strikes, the profit ratio of the factory started to decline rapidly. The
employer in consequence of
these strikes declared a permanent closure of the factory.
Decide?
a This is a case of lockout as the employer decided to close the factory because of
continuous strike.
b This is a case of strike as the employees had a common demand which was not illegal.
c It was firstly a strike but it turned out as a lockout when the employer declared the
closure.
d It is neither strike nor lockout.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
It is neither strike nor lockout as the employer decided to close
down the factory permanently. The word 'out' can be understood
as keeping temporarily
away management and employees from
the factory, till settlement of the issues caused to
lockout.
FeedBack Bookmark

applied.
Passage – 2
of any
employment." There
given.

strike is raised on
the
can be a number of
lockouts of

locking-out; or
days after the
Q.75 [11617692]
In which of the following all the essentials of strike is present?
a A number of employees of industry X went on strike with a common understanding for a

demand related
to employment and refused to work in protest.
b A number of employees of industry X went on strike for a common demand but few of
them restarted
their work in the middle of strike.
c A number of people whose employment was not confirmed went on strike against
industry X for a common
demand.
d A number of employees of industry X went on strike but half of them agreed to work on
the condition that
they will be paid double the salary.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
There are some essentials elements which are to be fulfilled to
constitute a strike and those are: There must be cessation of work;
The cessation of work
must be by a body of persons employed in
any industry; There must be a concerted refusal;
Refusal under a
common understanding of any number of persons who are or
have been so
employed to continue to work or to accept employment;
and They must stop work for some
demands relating to employment,
non-employment or the terms of employment.
FeedBack Bookmark


applied.
Passage – 2
of any
employment." There
given.

strike is raised on
the
can be a number of
lockouts of
locking-out; or

days after the
Q.76 [11617692]
Which of the following cannot be a reason for Lockout?
a A policy was introduced by the government which caused the imbalance in the external
environment and
due to this employer declared lockout.
b Two groups of employees indulged themselves in a fight almost every other day and in
consequence of
this the employer declared lockout.
c Both (a) and (b)
d Both are valid reasons for a Lockout
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
There can be a number of reasons behind Lockout like: Unrest
disputes or clashes between workers and workers and External
environmental disturbance
due to unstable governments etc.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 3
The word contingent means when an event or situation is contingent, i.e. it depends on some
other event or fact.
Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term 'Contingent
Contract' as follows: 'A contingent contract
is a contract to do or not to do something, if
some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen'. The
contracts of insurance,
indemnity, and guarantee are some examples of contingent contracts. The essential

elements which constitutes a Contingent Contract are: The contract will be valid only if it is
about performing or
not performing an obligation; The condition for which the contract has
been entered into must be a future event,
and it should be uncertain; The happening or non-
happening of the event should be collateral to the contract and
should exist independently
and should not be a part of the consideration of the contract; and The event should not
at all
to be dependent on the promisor. Provisions related to the enforcement of the contingent
contract are given
under section 32 to 36 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as follows:
Condition 1- enforcement of contract contingent on the happening of an event: The

contingent contracts to do or
abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event
happens. However, the contract cannot be enforced by
law unless the event takes place. If
the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.
Condition 2- enforcement of contract contingent on an event not happening: The contingent

contracts to do or
abstain from doing something if an uncertain future event does not
happen can be enforced when the happening
of that event becomes impossible. If the event
takes place, then the contingent contract is void.
Condition 3- when an event on which contract is contingent to be deemed impossible if it is

the future conduct of
a living person: If a contract contingent upon how a person will act at a
future time, the event shall be considered
impossible when such person does anything which
makes it impossible for the event to happen.
Condition 4- contract contingent of impossible event void: If an agreement to do or not to do

is based on the
impossible event, then such agreement is void, whether the impossibility of
the event is known or not to the parties
to the agreement at the time when it is made.
The Contingent Contract differs from Wager agreement in the following aspects:
• A
wagering agreement is absolutely void while on the other hand a contingent contract is a
valid contract.
• In a contingent contract, the future uncertain event is merely collateral whereas in a

wagering agreement the
uncertain event is a sole determining factor of the agreement.
• In a wager, the parties are not interested in the occurrence of the event except for winning
or losing the best
amount while in a contingent contract the parties have a real interest in
occurrence or non-occurrence of the
event.
• All wager contracts are contingent contracts, but all contingent contracts are not by way of
the wager.
Q.77 [11617692]
A executed a loan in favour of B on account of C as C promised that he will indemnify A if any
suit arises
against B. Decide whether it is a Contingent Contract or not?

a It is not a Contingent Contact as there was a mere promise.
b It is a Contingent Contract as C promised to indemnify A making it a contract of

Indemnity.
c It is not a Contingent Contract as it was not based on a happening of an uncertain event.
d It is a Contingent Contract as it includes three parties.
FeedBack Bookmark  Answer key/Solution
applied.
Passage – 3
about performing or
at all
contract are given



contracts to do or


is based on the
• A
valid contract.

or losing the best
event.
the wager.
Q.78 [11617692]
A ordered goods from an online shopping store and selected the cash on delivery option as a
mode of
payment which made him liable to pay only when the goods are delivered. Decide
whether it is a Contingent
Contract?
a This is not a Contingent contract since A was under obligation to make payment.
b This is a Contingent Contract because it was based on the happening of a future event.
c This is not a Contingent contact as making a payment is not a collateral event.
d Both (a) and (c)

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The happening or non-happening of the event should be
collateral
to the contract and should exist independently and should not be a
part of the
consideration of the contract.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 3
about performing or
at all
contract are given


contracts to do or



is based on the
• A
valid contract.

or losing the best
event.
the wager.
Q.79 [11617692]
A entered into a contract to pay Rs. 20,000 to B regarding the receipt of horse which was sold
last year.
Decide the type of contract?
a It is a wagering agreement since parties are not interested in the event.
b It is a Contingent Contract since it is based on a future event.
c It is neither a Contingent contract nor a wagering agreement.
d It is both a Contingent Contract and a Wagering Agreement.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The event on which the contract is a past event and it is
necessary
that the event should be a future event in order to constitute a
Contingent
Contract or Wagering Agreement
FeedBack Bookmark

applied.
Passage – 3
about performing or
at all
contract are given


contracts to do or


is based on the
• A

valid contract.

or losing the best
event.
the wager.
Q.80 [11617692]
Which of the following is a Contingent Contract?
a X promises Y to pay Rs. 10,000 if Y becomes immortal.
b X promises Y to pay Rs. 10,000 if Y's pitch to the board of directors gets selected.
c X promises Y to pay Rs. 10,000 if Y is able to buy a unique house, meanwhile Z already
bought the
house.
d X promises Y to pay Rs. 10,000 which is the rent for the house to the next month, with
the rent of that
month.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
The case given under option (a) is not a contingent contract as
the
event is an impossible event so the contract is void. Option (c) and
(d) is a scenario
when it is not possible to perform the contract and
obligation/consideration to contract
respectively, disqualifying them
as Contingent Contract.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 3

about performing or
at all
contract are given


contracts to do or


is based on the
• A
valid contract.

or losing the best
event.
the wager.

Q.81 [11617692]
Decide which pair describes a Contingent Contract and a Wagering Agreement respectively?
I. X promised to pay Rs. 1000 to Y if Y settles down in Delhi within a week.
II. X bets with Y to pay Rs. 1000 if Mumbai Indian wins the IPL series.
III. X promised to pay Rs. 1000 to Y if Y returns the life of his pet.
a I and III
b II and III
c I and II
d III and I
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The situation given under I is a contingent contract as it is
based on
a future event and the situation given under II relates to wagering
which is void
but the situation given under III is impossible and it is
neither a contingent contract nor a
wagering agreement.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 4
The Special Marriage Act (SMA) deals with inter-caste and inter-religion marriages. Inter
caste marriage is a
marriage between people of two different castes. This Act includes
Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and
Buddhist's marriages and also to Indian
nationals who live abroad. This act applies to all Indian states, except
Jammu & Kashmir. The
fundamental requirement under this Act for a valid marriage is the consent of both parties
to
the marriage. For marriage under this Act, the parties must file with the district's Marriage

Registrar a notice
stating their intention to marry each other in which at least one of the
parties to the marriage has lived for at least
30 days prior to the date on which such notice is
filed. After the expiry of 30 days from the date that such notice was
published, the marriage
is then said to be solemnized. But if any person related to the parties objects to this
marriage
and the registrar finds that it is a reasonable cause of objection, on such grounds he can
cancel the
marriage. For a valid marriage, the parties must also give their consent to the
marriage before the marriage officer
and three witnesses. These are the conditions to qualify
for a marriage under this Act:
• The bridegroom must be at least 21, and at the time of the marriage, the bride must be at
least 18 years of
age. This is the minimum age limit respectively for a boy/girl to marry.
• At the time of their marriage, both parties must be monogamous; i.e., they must be
unmarried and at that
time should not have any living spouse.
• In order to be able to decide for themselves, the parties should be mentally fit, i.e., they must
be sane at the
time of marriage.
• They should not be related to themselves through blood relationships; i.e. they should not
be subjected to
prohibited relationships that otherwise act as a ground for dissolving their
marriage.
The Act prohibits marriage solemnization if the intending parties fall within the degree of
prohibited relationships as
per the customs governing any of the parties. The degrees of
prohibited relationship vary from custom to custom.
The Act's First Schedule provides for a
comprehensive list of relationships that may be considered prohibited.
However, the rule is
that it may be solemnized if a custom governing at least one of the parties allows marriage
as
intended.
If the marriage officer believes that the objection he/she has received regarding the marriage
is not reasonable and
is not made in good faith, the person making the objection may be on
the receiving end of objective costs of up to
Rs. 1,000. The sum received will be awarded to
the parties of the proposed marriage for this purpose.
After clearing objections, the marriage may be solemnized at the expiry of 30 days, if any
field. The notice is valid
for 3 months. Before the marriage is solemnized, the parties and
three witnesses should sign declarations in the
prescribed form in the presence of the
marriage officer.
Q.82 [11617692]
Rina, who was Hindu by birth was planning to marry Ahmad, who was a follower of Islam.
They both belonged
to Jammu and Srinagar respectively but were living in Delhi from past
one year. Will they be able to solemnize
their marriage under Special Marriage Act?
a The marriage will solemnize as they started living in Delhi and left J&K.
b The marriage will not be solemnized as both of them belonged to J&K and the Act does
not apply to the
citizens of J&K.

c The marriage will solemnize but with the condition that they register under the office in
Delhi.
d The marriage will not solemnize as the act is not applicable to people following Islam.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : d
The Special Marriage Act applies to all Indian states, except
Jammu
& Kashmir.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 4
caste marriage is a
to
Registrar a notice
marriage
cancel the
least 18 years of


be sane at the
time of marriage.
be subjected to
marriage.
as
intended.
marriage officer.
Q.83 [11617692]
Sanket and Dipti who were the followers of Buddhism decided to get married under SMA as
Sanket renounced
Buddhism and became a follower of Christianity. It was later found that
they came under Prohibited degree
relationships. In what condition can the marriage
besolemnized?
a The marriage can solemnize only if one of the parties shows that his/her custom allows
such marriage.
b The marriage cannot solemnize as the parties fall within the degree of prohibited
relationships.
c The marriage can solemnize in every condition as they belong to different religions.
d The marriage can not solemnize as Sanket was not born Christian.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The Act prohibits marriage solemnization if the intending
parties fall
within the degree of prohibited relationships. However, the rule is
that it may be
solemnized if a custom governing at least one of the
parties allows marriage as intended.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 4
caste marriage is a
to
Registrar a notice
marriage
cancel the
least 18 years of
be sane at the
time of marriage.
be subjected to
marriage.

as
intended.
marriage officer.
Q.84 [11617692]
Mutinity, a follower of Christianity, had her roots in India but procured Green card (Permanent
resident card)
of U.S, decided to get married to Shubham who was a follower of Hinduism
and having roots of India but a
permanent resident of UK. Can a marriage be solemnized
under SMA?
a The marriage can be solemnized as both the parties had roots in India.
b The marriage can be solemnized as the parties were followers of Different religions.
c The marriage cannot be solemnized as the parties were not the nationals of India.
d The marriage cannot be solemnized as it is applicable to parties who once resided in

India.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
This Act includes Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains,
and
Buddhists marriages and also to Indian nationals who live abroad
not the person who
once resided in India.
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applied.
Passage – 4
caste marriage is a
to
Registrar a notice
marriage
cancel the
least 18 years of
be sane at the
time of marriage.
be subjected to
marriage.
as
intended.


marriage officer.
Q.85 [11617692]
In which of the following conditions a marriage solemnized under SMA is valid?
a X (male) and Y (female) who were the age of 20 and 18 respectively got married under
SMA as they were
major according to Indian Majority Act.
b X (male) and Y (female) aged 22 and 20 and unmarried, got married when both were of
sound mind.
c X (male) and Y (female) got married but it was held that Y was having a lunatic attack at
the time of
marriage.
d X (male) and Y (female) got married but it was later discovered that at the time of
marriage X had a wife
living who was not divorced.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
There are certain conditions for marriage under SMA like: The
bridegroom must be at least 21, and at the time of the marriage, the
bride must be at least
18 years of age. This is the minimum age limit
respectively for a boy/girl to marry; At the
time of their marriage,
both parties must be monogamous; and the parties should be
mentally fit, failing to which a marriage will not be valid.
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applied.
Passage – 4
caste marriage is a


to
Registrar a notice
marriage
cancel the
least 18 years of
be sane at the
time of marriage.
be subjected to
marriage.
as
intended.
marriage officer.
Q.86 [11617692]
In which of the following situations a marriage between P (male) and Q (female) will not be
valid?
I. After clearing the objection raised, both got married on the 28th day.
II. There were two witnesses for the solemnization of witnesses.
III. When both the parties were citizens of India but were living abroad.

a I and II
b I and III
c II and III
d None
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Marriage under I and II is not valid as after clearing objections,
the
marriage may be solemnized at the expiry of 30 days, if any
filed
and for a valid marriage, the parties must also give their consent to
the marriage
before the marriage officer and three witnesses
respectively.
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applied.
Passage – 5
In wake of the COVID-19 crisis and nationwide lockdown, India has been grappling with
unprecedented challenges
that range from maintaining law and order, access to medical
facilities, food, social security to availability of
medical facilities. The newest hurdle to have
joined this bandwagon has been a systematic increase in incidents
of attacks and
harassment of its nurses, doctors and other medical personnel. Fueled by paranoia and fear
in an
increasingly trying time, these ill-informed attacks seem to target medical professionals
who are feared to be
carrying and spreading the diseases. The Ministry of Health and Family
Welfarein its press release dated April 22,
2020 said that, "perceived as carriers of the
diseases, there has been stigmatization and ostracization and
sometimes worse, acts of
unwarranted violence and harassment against our medical professionals. Such a
situation
tends to hamper the medical community from performing their duties to their optimum best
and maintaining
their morale, which is a critical need in this hour of national health crisis."
Necessitated by the growing incidents, and upon asserting that the government has a zero
tolerance for violence
or intimidation of its medical professionals, which includes its
dedicated group of doctors, nurses and paramedics
who are spearheading a global health

crisis, the Union Cabinet on April 22, 2020 approved the Epidemic Diseases
(Amendment)
Ordinance, 2020, an Ordinance to amend the Epidemics Diseases Act, 1897. Key Features of
the
Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance
• It makes any attack upon them a cognizable and a non-bailable offence.
• It solidifies the definition of what constitutes as violence i.e., harassment, physical injury
and damage to
property, as well as who is covered under the ambit of healthcare personnel.
• Further, commission or abetment of any acts of violence against said healthcare

professionals shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term of three months to five years,
followed with a fine of Rs.50,000/- to
Rs.2,00,000/-. In aggravated cases concerning grievous
hurt, the ordinance directs imprisonment for a
term of six months, and up to seven years, and
with a fine of Rs.1,00,000/- to Rs.5,00,000/.
• The law also envisions time bound investigations, in addition to compensation for injury or
damage to property,
to almost twice the fair market value.
Sanctioned by President Ram Nath Kovind, the Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance,
2020 seeks to
cover the limitations and gaps in our existing state laws that usually do not
cover occupational harassment at
home and workplace. It is unfortunate that our greatest
assets during the pandemic are under attack, and the
same cannot be allowed to continue. It
was after the cabinet meeting, that Mr. Amit Shah tweeted, "safety and
dignity of our doctors
at their workplace is non-negotiable. It is our collective responsibility to ensure a conducive
atmosphere for them at all times." The COVID-19 pandemic poses a unique challenge, and
several states have
enacted special laws, such as the present ordinance, to offer protection
to doctors and other medical professionals.
It is contemplated that the Ordinance will
positively impact the morale and reinstate trust and confidence back into
our healthcare
community, such uphold the nobility and integrity of their profession and its influence.
Q.87 [11617692]
During the pandemic of Covid-19, X was admitted who was suffering severely from covid,
unfortunately he
died after two days. Shattered by this incident Y (X's son) attacked the
doctor and later he applied for bail.
Decide?
a The bail will be granted as it is a matter of right.
b The bail will not be granted as the offence is a non-bailable one.
c The bail can be granted as Y attacked the doctor in sudden and grave provocation.
d The bail cannot be granted as there was no fault of the doctor.

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 makes any
attack
upon medical staff a cognizable and a non-bailable offence.
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applied.
Passage – 5
of attacks and
in an
situation
and maintaining
(Amendment)
the
and damage to



damage to property,
2020 seeks to
several states have
our healthcare
Q.88 [11617692]
X was suffering from mild covid-19 symptoms so he was admitted to a nearby hospital, later
it was found
that he developed black fungus and due to this he died within a few hours. X's
family member Z asked all the
villagers to come forward and attack the doctor. Decide?
a Z will face imprisonment for a term of three months to five years for the commission of
crime.
b Z will face imprisonment for a term of six months, and up to seven years for the
abetment of crime.
c Z will face imprisonment for a term of three months to five years followed with a fine of
Rs.50,000/- to
Rs.2,00,000/- for abetment of crime.
d Z will face imprisonment for a term of six months, and up to seven years with a fine of
Rs.1,00,000/- to
Rs.5,00,000/ for the commission of crime.

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
The time when Z asked the villagers to come forward to attack
the
doctor, he abetted the offence and for this it is decided that person
abetting shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term of three
months to five years, followed with a fine of
Rs.50,000/- to
Rs.2,00,000/- as it was not clear whether the hurt was grievous
or not.
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applied.
Passage – 5
of attacks and
in an
situation
and maintaining
(Amendment)
the
and damage to

damage to property,
2020 seeks to
several states have
our healthcare
Q.89 [11617692]
A group of healthcare workers went to locality P to take the rapid antigen test for taking
account of Covid-19
spread. A mob got violent due to some misunderstanding and attacked
those workers resulting in the death
of one healthcare worker. Decide?
a The mob will be liable for the death of a healthcare worker under Epidemic Diseases
(Amendment)
Ordinance.
b The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance applies to private persons and not
mobs.
c The mob will not be liable for the death of a healthcare worker as they never intended to
attack on
workers.
d The whole mob can not be made liable for the death of one healthcare worker.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 protects
the health care workers from any attack or harassment from the
general public and it is
immaterial whether it involves a single person
or a mob.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 5
of attacks and
in an
situation
and maintaining
(Amendment)
the
and damage to



damage to property,
2020 seeks to
several states have
our healthcare
Q.90 [11617692]
Due to rising covid cases P went to Q's home who was a nurse by profession and asked her
to use any
backdoor method for admitting P's son. In what condition P will be liable under
this ordinance?
a P broke the windows of Q's house when she refused to help him.
b P hit Q with a table in order to compel her to admit his son in the hospital.
c P harassed Q's minor child when he was out with some work.
d All of the above
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 is for
the
protection of medical professionals from any kind of violence and
definition of what
constitutes as violence is harassment, physical
injury and damage to property, as well as
who is covered under
the ambit of healthcare personnel.
FeedBack Bookmark

applied.
Passage – 5
of attacks and
in an
situation
and maintaining
(Amendment)
the
and damage to

damage to property,
2020 seeks to


several states have
our healthcare
Q.91 [11617692]
In which of the following conditions will a person not be liable under Epidemic Diseases
(Amendment)
Ordinance?
a A was admitted in city hospital as he was suffering from covid-19 and he hit a doctor
mistakenly due to
breathing difficulty.
b A was admitted in city hospital for covid treatment but he assaulted one of the nurses as
she was not
able to cure him immediately.
c Both (a) and (b)
d None
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : a
In the scenario given under option (a), A will not be liable as he
hit
the professional mistakenly but in option (b), A assaulted one of the
nurse intentionally.
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applied.
Passage – 6

The United States Supreme Court agreed to review a restrictive Mississippi law that will give
its newly expanded
conservative majority a chance to diminish the landmark Roe vs Wade
verdict of 1973 that guaranteed a woman's
right to choose abortion. The law passed in 2018
aims to ban almost all restrictions post 15 weeks of pregnancy,
which is two months prior to
that given by Roe verdict and other subsequent decisions. The decision comes at a
pivotal
moment in the long history of debates over abortion rights in America. Ever since the
Supreme Court
underwent a conservative tilt, and particularly after the appointment of Amy
Coney Barrett to replace Ruth Bader
Ginsberg, Republican states have put forward hundreds
of abortion restrictions, including near total bans. The
latest is a law passed by Texas on
Wednesday, that bans abortion after six weeks of pregnancy. The Supreme
Court has now
agreed to hear the Dobbs vs Jackson Women's Health Organization that challenges the
constitutionality of the Mississippi law. If it overturns the Roe verdict, states would have
greater powers in regulating
abortions, with state-level politics having a significant impact on
the matter.
What was the historic Roe vs Wade verdict of 1973?
In 1973 that the right to abortion was upheld by the Roe vs Wade verdict. The plaintiff was
Norma McCorvey from
Texas, who at the age of 21 in June 1969 discovered that she was
pregnant with her third child. When she
attempted an illegal abortion, she discovered the only
unauthorised facility had closed down. Thereafter her child
was born and put up for adoption.
In 1970, however, McCorvey's attorneys, Linda Coffee and Sarah Weddington filed suit in the
US district court for
the northern district of Texas on her behalf under the alias Jane Roe. The
three-judge panel heard her case and
ruled in her favour. Texas then appealed the ruling to
the Supreme Court. In January 1973, Supreme Court justices
ruled by a 7:3 vote that women
had a constitutional right to abortion. The judgment was based on the 'right to
privacy' clause
mentioned in the US Constitution. The court held that the foetus is not a person and thereby
does
not have constitutional rights of its own.
The court also set up a trimester system to regulate the right to abortion. Accordingly, the
woman has absolute
right to abortion in the first three months of pregnancy. In the second
trimester the state can make some regulations
only to protect the health of the woman.
Finally, the state could prohibit abortions in the third trimester since the
foetus nears a point
wherein it can live outside the womb. However, a woman in the third trimester can obtain
abortion if doctors certify that it is required to save her life.
The judgment struck down many federal and state laws. It also ignited an ongoing national
debate on the right to
abortion, the role of religious and moral views in the matters, and who
should decide on the legality of abortion. The
Roe vs Wade verdict reshaped American
politics for decades to come and split public opinion between abortion
rights (pro-choice)
and anti-abortion (pro-life) movements. Every year on the anniversary of the judgement
thousands
of anti-abortion activists march up Constitution Avenue to the Supreme Court

building in Washington DC in the

'March for life'. Overturning Roe vs Wade would not only
make abortion illegal but would also allow states to make
their own rules.
Q.92 [11617692]
Why Mississippi's new abortion law is considered restrictive and oppressive of women's
right?
a Because it aims to ban almost all restrictions post 15 weeks of pregnancy.
b Mississippi abortion law violates the standards set by the supreme court in the case of
Roe v Wade.
c The new abortion laws restrict women's right to abortion and give increased autonomy of
abortion control
to the state.
d The law bans women's right to abortion and gives power to the churches.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
All the options are close to accurate. Option b has to be chosen
over the other because it precisely points out how the Mississippi
law is violative of the
standards set thus making it oppressive and
restrictive.
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applied.
Passage – 6
its newly expanded
pivotal

Supreme Court
Court has now
the matter.
Norma McCorvey from
privacy' clause
does
woman has absolute
rights (pro-choice)
thousands
their own rules.

Q.93 [11617692]
According to the passage, what would be the possible outcome of overturning the Roe v
Wade judgement?
a Women would lose their right to abortion and this would give rise to illegal abortions.
b Women would approach illegal abortions which would put their lives under risk.
c States would have greater powers in regulating abortions, with state-level politics having
a significant
impact on the matter.
d The supreme court by overturning Roe v Wade would undermine the fundamental right to
privacy mentioned
in the US constitution.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
All answers would possibly be correct considering the wider
ambit
of the issue. But referring to the passage option c should be the
correct answer.
Option c is given in the last 3 sentences of the first
paragraph.
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applied.
Passage – 6
its newly expanded
pivotal
Supreme Court


Court has now
the matter.
Norma McCorvey from
privacy' clause
does
woman has absolute
rights (pro-choice)
thousands
their own rules.
Q.94 [11617692]
According to the passage when did the republican states started putting hundreds of
abortion restrictions,
including near total bans?

a Since the election of Donald Trump as the president of the USA.
b Since the passage of heartbeat law in 2019.
c Since the supreme court underwent a republican tilt especially after the election of Ruth
Bader Ginsberg.
d Since the supreme court underwent a conservative tilt especially after the election of
Amy Coney Barrett.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
Refer to the 7th line of the 1st paragraph.
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applied.
Passage – 6
its newly expanded
pivotal
Supreme Court
Court has now

the matter.
Norma McCorvey from
privacy' clause
does
woman has absolute
rights (pro-choice)
thousands
their own rules.
Q.95 [11617692]
What was the rationale behind the judgement Roe vs Wade (1973)?
a The judgement was based on the 'right to privacy' clause mentioned in the US
constitution.
b The court held that the foetus is not a person and thereby does not have constitutional
rights of its own.

c The court held constricting abortion was violative of right to life and liberty of women.
d Both a and b.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : b
In the given question the rationale of court for deciding is being
asked. The rationale is the consideration of right to privacy as well
as foetus not getting the
constitutional status. Both are to be
considered. Hence option d is the correct answer.
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applied.
Passage – 6
its newly expanded
pivotal
Supreme Court
Court has now
the matter.

Norma McCorvey from
privacy' clause
does
woman has absolute
rights (pro-choice)
thousands
their own rules.
Q.96 [11617692]
D was 10 weeks pregnant in the USA. She wanted to medically terminate her pregnancy.
However, the
government authorities did not allow her to get the abortion. Pick the correct
answer in the light of judgement
Roe v Wade?
a D cannot have medical termination without consulting a doctor and getting a certified
for the same.
b D has the absolute right to get medical termination as she is in her first trimester.
c D can get medical termination only if there is a risk to her health.
d D cannot get medical termination after 8 weeks of pregnancy.

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
As mentioned in the case of Roe v Wade during the first
trimester
a woman has absolute right of getting abortion done. Hence option
b is the
correct answer.
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applied.
Passage – 7
In the past, the Kerala High Court has delivered many landmark judgements in relation to
Muslims' divorce. This
time, a Division Bench of the High Court was dealing with the issue of
conditions in "Khula", divorce initiated by the
wife. The legal issue before the Court was
whether a Muslim wife, once she has decided to leave the marriage for
reasons that she feels
are appropriate, has the right to pronounce unilateral extra-judicial divorce through Khula
against her husband.
Undoubtedly, without the intervention of courts, a Muslim woman can unilaterally divorce her
husband if, by contract,
the husband has delegated the right to divorce to his wife. The
second method is divorce by mutual consent,
through the process called Mubaarat. Another
right of a Muslim woman to divorce is by way of Khula, wherein she
decides to terminate the
marriage. This process may be called wife-initiated Talaq. Till now, Ulemas, particularly of
the
Hanafi School, have interpreted that Khula can be exercised only when the husband accedes
to the wife's
request. If he refuses, the woman has no option but to approach courts of law
under the provisions set out in the
Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act of 1939.
The Kerala High Court feels that compelling the wife to go to court for Khula frustrates the
right guaranteed to her
in the personal law, which is largely based on two primary sources -
the Quran and Hadith (words or actions of the
Prophet). The court draws an analogy from the
right of the husband to pronounce unilateral Talaq, to say that both
are of similar nature,
adding that the husband's approval as a condition in Khula is not correct. The judgment

proceeds to clarify that the right to pronounce Khula is an "absolute right" conferred on the
married Muslim woman
and no specific reasons are required to invoke it, once there is a
declaration from the wife for repudiation or
termination of a marriage. It also says that the
right to pronounce Khula cannot be invalid in case the wife does not
offer to return the dower
or any other material gain received by her during the subsistence of the marriage at the
time
of the said pronouncement. The only thing the wife must do before the pronouncement of
Khula is to undertake
efforts of reconciliation - just like a man is obliged to, before
pronouncing husband-initiated Talaq, as declared in
the Shamim Ara Judgment of the
Supreme Court (2002).
The All India Muslim Personal Law Board agreed with the judgment to the extent it
recognises Khula as an extrajudicial
remedy but has objected to the portrayal of Khula as a
unilaterally-exercisable prerogative without the
husband acceding to it. According to the
board, the husband's acceptance is a prerequisite in the process of
Khula. On the question of
returning the gifts and the mehr (dower), the court says that Khula would not depend on
fulfilling such obligations by the wife because they are only "procedural aspects". The court
further clarifies that the
Quran confers on a Muslim wife the right of Khula to annul her
marriage without prescribing a procedure, adding
that "fairness is a matter relative
consideration in a context to be followed when such a course is opted by a wife"
Q.97 [11617692]
Whose interpretation of 'Khula' has been provided in the passage?
a Ulemas, particularly of the Hanafi School.
b Sufi's of Shia school
c Interpretation of Hadia
d Prophet Mohammed in Quran.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
Refer to 2nd paragraph 4th line.
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applied.
Passage – 7
the
to the wife's
time

Q.98 [11617692]
Why All India Muslim Personal Law (AIMPL) Board defers with the decision of Kerala High
court in case of
the portrayal of Khula as a unilaterally-exercisable?
a Because under Muslim law marriage is a contract and there is an obligation of returning
gifts and Dower.
b Under Muslim law men are considered to be the sacred right holders in an institute of
marriage.
c In the Quran it is mentioned that in the case of Khulawomen have to take the express
permission of the
husband.
d AIMPL has not given any reason for deferring from the Kerala high courts rational in the
passage.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : a
In the passage there has not been any reason mentioned for
AIMPL's
decision to disagree with Kerala High court in case of the portrayal
of Khula as a
unilaterally-exercisable.
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applied.
Passage – 7


the
to the wife's
time

Q.99 [11617692]
What was the rationale behind Kerala high court's decision to consider Khula as unilaterally
exercisable?
a The court draws an analogy from the right of the husband to pronounce unilateral Talaq,
to say that both
are of similar nature.
b Court feels that proceeding with husband's permission to invoke Khula is violative of
personal laws of
Muslim, right to equality as well as right to life under constitution.
c Kerala high court said that the Quran and Hadith always intend to keep Khula as
unilaterally exercisable.
d Kerala high court took into consideration the precedence that is the case of Shahbano
Begum.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : c
Refer to 3rd paragraph 3rd line for the answer.
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applied.
Passage – 7


the
to the wife's
time
Q.100 [11617692]
Which of the following is also a part of Kerala High court's judgement that is being discussed
in the passage?
a In case of Talaq men can unilaterally divorce women without their consent.
b Right to pronounce Khula cannot be invalid in case the wife does not offer to return the
dower or any
other material gain received by her during the subsistence of the marriage

c A woman cannot invoke Khula if she has not tried to reconcile with her husband.
d None of the above.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Refer to 3rd paragraph 8th line. While explaining the judgement
the
following information is also stated.
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applied.
Passage – 7
the
to the wife's


time
Q.101 [11617692]
B a Muslim women wanted to divorce her husband as he was abusive. She tried to reconcile
but in vain.
Later she decided to give her husband divorce by invoking her right to Khula. Her
husband did not agree with
the idea of divorce and rejected her invocation of Khula. Pick the
correct answer in the light of the abovementioned
judgement of Kerala High court.
a B needs to talk to her husband and make him realise the necessity of following personal
laws.
b B cannot divorce her husband through Khula and has to approach court as he has not
given consent to
Khula.
c The husband's consent is not required and Khula is a unilateral right of the women.
d The husband should assent to his wife's invocation of Khula and he has no other option.

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
As held in the above judgement wife no longer needs to take
the
assent of her husband to invoke Khula. Hence option c is the
correct answer.
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applied.
Passage – 8
In England, the Crown is regarded as the Executive head and the civil services are part of the
Executive. The
doctrine of Pleasure means that the Crown has the power to terminate the
services of a civil servant at any time
they want without giving any notice of termination to
the servant. Thus, the civil servants work at the pleasure of the
Crown which can remove
them at any time. When the civil servants are removed from their service, they do not
have
the right to sue the Crown for wrongful termination and they also cannot ask for damages
undergone due to
wrongful termination.
The doctrine of pleasure is also followed in India. Since the President of India is the Executive
Head of the Union
and he enjoys the same position as the Crown enjoys in England, the
President has been vested with the power
to remove a civil servant at any time under this
doctrine.
While this doctrine has been adopted in India it has not been blindly copied in the same
manner as it is followed in
England and there are some modifications which exist in India's
adoption of this doctrine from that of England. In
India, Article 310 of the Indian Constitution
embodies the provision for this doctrine.
According to Article 310, except for the provisions provided by the Constitution, a civil
servant of the Union works
at the pleasure of the President and a civil servant under a State
works at the pleasure of the Governor of that
State. This implies that the operation of the
Doctrine of Pleasure can be limited by constitutional provisions. Under
the constitution, the
following are excluded from the operation of this doctrine: Judges of the Supreme Court,
Judges of the High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor
General of India.

Thus, this doctrine is not absolute and is subject to Constitutional provisions. The civil
servants can also be
excluded from the operation of this doctrine because they have been
provided with some protection under Article
311 and thus this doctrine's application can be
limited to civil servants as well.
The Civil servants are granted some protection under Article 311. The following are the
protections available to a
civil servant under Article 311 of the Constitution:
No dismissal by subordinate authority- Under Clause 1 of Article 311, a civil servant can only
be removed from his
services by the authority who had appointed him or some other person
who has the same authority or rank as the
appointing authority. So, any person who is
subordinate in authority to the appointing authority, cannot remove a
civil servant and in case
he does remove him, the removal will not be valid.
The reasonable opportunity of being heard -Under Clause 2 of Article 311, the civil servants
are provided with the
right of being heard. As per this Clause, to remove a civil servant from
his post the following steps should be
followed:
1. Holding an enquiry in the allegations made against the civil servant. This enquiry is known
as departmental
enquiry;
2. Providing the accused civil servant with the information about what charges have been
levelled against him;
3. Providing such a civil servant with a reasonable chance of being heard in the case.
If the civil servant has been found guilty of a criminal offence, in such cases the protection
under Article 311 cannot
be availed for him and in such cases, he can be removed for
misconduct without getting a chance of being heard.
Q.102 [11617692]
B was an IAS officer at the state of New Puri. He had an experience of 15 years. Once there
was an
allegation of corruption regarding certain activities conducted by B. According to
allegations B along with the
chief minister's son and other eminent persons committed a
scam. The department faced pressure to
dismiss B. B was given an opportunity to be heard
and subsequently he was removed from his office with a
reason that his story did not appear
credible. Has the correct method been followed to remove B?
a Yes, the correct method has been followed to remove B as he was given an opportunity
to present
himself.
b No, the correct method is not followed as the procedure mentioned in the constitution
has not been
adhered to.

c Yes, as it was a criminal allegation there was no compulsion to allow B to present

himself.
d B was informed regarding the charges that have been levied against him.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
Correct method is not followed as the three steps provided in
Article 311 were not complied with. The department failed to form
a committee to
investigate and also did not mention B regarding the
charges. Hence, option b is the precise
option.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.
Passage – 8
Executive. The
have
undergone due to
Head of the Union
doctrine.


General of India.
be removed from his
followed:
as departmental
enquiry;

Q.103 [11617692]
D was a civil servant in the district of Bodh Nagar. Once a diamond ring of one of the
departmental staff was
found missing. A police complaint was lodged and the police
considered D to be the prime suspect. A trial
took place and D was found guilty. It is worth
mentioning that D was a great officer and ever since the
beginning of his stint, corruption and
bribery were nullified. Now the department wants D to be removed
while D contests that it
was a bogus case which involved all the staff in order to get him dismissed. Does D
have a
right to be heard before dismissal?
a D has the constitutional right to be heard before dismissal as mentioned under article
311(2).
b D should file an appeal in the higher court and when the case is pending, he cannot be
removed.
c D can be removed without being heard as he is held guilty in a criminal case.
d D cannot be removed as the doctrine of pleasure is only limited to England.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
As mentioned in the last paragraph in case of found guilty in a
criminal case a civil servant can be immediately removed without
being heard.
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applied.
Passage – 8
Executive. The

have
undergone due to
Head of the Union
doctrine.
General of India.
be removed from his
followed:
as departmental
enquiry;

Q.104 [11617692]
C was a civil servant in England. C was very popular and involved himself in major political
decisions and
discussions. Once the political opponents of C created a false allegation of
financial fraud on C which
created a lot of public anger and protest. To control the entire
situation the Queen of England dismissed C of
his position. Can the Queen do so without
permitting C to present his defence?
a Yes, the queen enjoys the doctrine of pleasure and can terminate the civil services any
time according to
her wish.
b No, the recent amendments have changed the laws and the queen no longer has the
power to terminate
anyone as she pleases.
c No, the queen needs to consult with the prime minister before terminating any public
officer.
d Yes, the queen can dismiss anyone including the prime minister according to her whims
and fancies.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
In England, under the doctrine of pleasure the queen has full
right
to dismiss any civil servant as she pleases. Hence, option a is the
correct answer.
FeedBack Bookmark
applied.

Passage – 8
Executive. The
have
undergone due to
Head of the Union
doctrine.
General of India.
be removed from his


followed:
as departmental
enquiry;
Q.105 [11617692]
Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a A civil servant cannot be dismissed by his subordinate authority barring exceptional

circumstances.
b In England, civil servants do not have the right to sue the crown for wrongful termination.
c In India, the doctrine of pleasure is adopted but with various conditions and protection.
d There are 3 steps that have to be followed before dismissing a civil servant according to
article 311.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
A civil servant cannot be dismissed by his subordinate.
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Sec 4

Directions for questions 106 to 125: Each set of questions in this section is based on the
reasoning and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on
the basis of what is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any
information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one
option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
Still, although rubbish may be relative, and although hoarding has not always been possible,
shouldn't we admit
that those who fill their houses from floor to ceiling with precarious piles
of newspapers and boxes have a mental
health problem? I accept that the relationship
between hoarder and possessions is unusual, and also think that it
is unwise to fill one's
house with junk, but I am still not entirely convinced that hoarding is best thought of as a
mental disorder. Remember, first, that there are many habits and behaviours that are unwise
but that we do not
pathologize. For example, many of us reduce our life expectancy by years
because we fail to exercise or to eat
healthily. Others fail to back-up computer files, or to save
adequately for old age. Maybe hoarding differs from such
examples of folly in that hoarding
is more unusual, but rarity in itself cannot transform a pattern of behaviour from
a bad habit
into a disorder. Those who consider hoarding a disorder will likely point out that hoarding
disorder is
associated with distinctive patterns of brain activity, and can be further
distinguished from 'normal behaviour' by its
natural history, treatment response, and the way
in which it seems to run in families.
Q.106 [11617692]
Based on which observations does the author state that it is hard to state conclusively that
hoarding is a
mental disorder?
a It is not incumbent that we pathologize every other imprudent activity.
b We do not consider smoking cigarettes as a pathological disorder.
c If lack of exercising can be seen to be natural then so can be hoarding.
d It is not genetic in nature as other mental health issues.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The author states in the passage that, 'that there are many
habits
and behaviors that are unwise but that we do not pathologize'
while mentioning why
she is not entirely convinced about hoarding
being a pathological issue. Options (b) and (c)
supplement (a) but
are not the reasons why hoarding is not a pathological disorder.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 1
shouldn't we admit
but that we do not
a bad habit
disorder is
Q.107 [11617692]
Which of the following is an example of the argument used by the author to not place
hoarding as an
example of mental health disorder?
a Just because something appears suddenly, does not mean that it is novel.

b One's eating pattern and the way they store food is not a marker of the person's overall
wellbeing.
c Motion pictures were extremely uncommon in late 19th century but it still was not a new
art form.
d Doctors are not sure whether the rare virus is behind the rare disease.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : b
The author states that, 'rarity in itself cannot transform a
pattern of
behaviour from a bad habit into a disorder'. In other words, just
because
something is rare does not mean that it can be categorized
into something new. Option (c)
is closest to this argument.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 1
shouldn't we admit
but that we do not
a bad habit
disorder is
Q.108 [11617692]
Based on the passage, which of the following may negate the entire premise of hoarding?
a It is no different than a stamp collection.
b It is not a phenomenon which can be clearly described.
c In today's world where space crunch is a serious issue it is not possible to hoard.
d What one may look at as accumulation of useless stuff is a relative observation.

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
In the passage it is stated that rubbish may be relative. If
rubbish is
relative then the entire concept of hoarding may or may not exist.
The other
options are invalid here.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 1
shouldn't we admit
but that we do not
a bad habit
disorder is
Q.109 [11617692]
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
a Unusual activities are certainly not disorders.
b Saving adequately for the future is a form of madness.

c Neither (a) or (b).
d Both (a) and (b).
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : a
Option (a) is invalid because of the use of 'certainly'.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 1
shouldn't we admit
but that we do not
a bad habit
disorder is
Q.110 [11617692]
Which of the following is a marker of mental health disorders?

a The presence of multiple perspectives of reality.
b Unique cerebral functioning.
c A strong history of illness in family.
d Distinguishing features from normal people.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
In the passage it is stated that, 'Those who consider hoarding a
disorder will likely point out that hoarding disorder is associated
with distinctive patterns of
brain activity'. Option (d) is vague and
does not shed any light on the issue.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 2
We cannot know if there is such a thing as altogether unappreciated genius or whether it is

the daydream of those
who are not geniuses; but we can be reasonably sure that
posthumous fame will not be their lot. Fame is a social
phenomenon; adgloriam non
estsatisuniusopinio (as Seneca remarked wisely and pedantically), "for fame the
opinion of
one is not enough," although it is enough for friendship and love. And no society can properly
function
without classification, without an arrangement of things and men in classes and
prescribed types. This necessary
classification is the basis for all social discrimination, and
discrimination, present opinion to the contrary
notwithstanding, is no less a constituent
element of the social realm than equality is a constituent element of the
political. The point is
that in society everybody must answer the question of what he is-as distinct from the
question
of who he is-which his role is and his function, and the answer of course can never
be: I am unique, not because
of the implicit arrogance but because the answer would be
meaningless. Posthumous fame seems, then, to be
the lot of the unclassifiable ones, that is,
those whose work neither fits the existing order nor introduces a new
genre that lends itself
to future classification.
Q.111 [11617692]
Which of the following is consistent with the above passage?
a Society and bias are intrinsically woven together.
b Society cannot function without a constitution.
c Politics and society have similar fundamental basis.
d Society thrives on contradictions.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
In the passage it is mentioned that discrimination is a
constituent
element of social realm. This makes (a) the correct option. The
other options
cannot be verified from the given passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 2

opinion of
function
question
Q.112 [11617692]
Which of the following strengthens the author's contention that fame is a social component?
a Fame is contrasted with personal and individual experiences.
b Fame is stated to be useful only when the recipient is alive.

c Fame is maintaining equality in politics.
d Fame is the basis of bringing together geniuses in society.
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
The question here is whether or not fame is a social
phenomenon.
Option (a) contrasts fame with individual experiences like love and
friendship. The other options cannot be validated from the given
passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 2

opinion of
function
question

Q.113 [11617692]
Which of the following do you think is a logical reason behind stating that single opinion is
not enough for
fame?
a Famous people are subjected to myriad judgments.
b Famous people need to be prescribed by society.
c To be or not be famous is an attribute that society will determine.
d Fame cannot be measured through a single point of view since it must be pleasing to all.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
In the passage it is stated that fame is a social phenomenon.
Option
(d) is incorrect since there is no mention of fame being a socially
pleasing factor.
The other options cannot be inferred from the
given passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 2

opinion of
function
question
Q.114 [11617692]
Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
a Society is dependent on hierarchies.
b To categorize is primal to societies.
c Both (a) and (b).
d Neither (a) or (b).

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
In the passage it is stated that, 'no society can properly
function
without classification, without an arrangement of things'.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 2

opinion of
function
question
Q.115 [11617692]
Which of the following is essential towards a work becoming famous while the creator lives?
a The work must go beyond the designated social realm of the age.
b It must be visionary in nature.

c It should follow past traditions.
d The work dealing with existing social structures.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
In the passage it is stated that, 'Posthumous fame seems, then,
to
be the lot of the unclassifiable ones, that is, those whose work fits
the existing neither
order nor introduces a new genre that lends
itself to future classification.' This means to
make a work famous
while one is living one should place the work within the realm of
existing social structures. The other options cannot be validate
from the given passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 3
Welcome to the world of the post-modern pandemic, where anxiety spreads ahead of the
tideline, where unravelling
the semiotics of plague and plague politics seems to be almost as
pressing as the plague itself. And where even
sport, the great distracter, can be cancelled at a
stroke. It is highly likely we will now see the postponement of the
Euro 2020, a tournament
designed during the financial crisis to take advantage of cheap and easy European
travel,
which now seems almost comically unfit for purpose. There will be a sharper sense of peril
lower down the
leagues. The experience of clubs deprived of vital matchday revenue - and
often recklessly close to their financial
limits - is likely to mirror problems in other sports.
There will be a clashing of gears over all this and no shortage of
legal threats as time and
resources are divvied up. Sport will survive. The beauty, the grace, the basic pleasure of
these
gaudy entertainments will remain unaffected. But a great deal of practical help will be
required to ensure it is
not offered only to those victims of this nasty little bug who can shout
the loudest, that precarious livelihoods and
the infrastructure of amateur sport are also
protected.

Q.116 [11617692]
Which of the following strengthens the notion that absence of match day could be
detrimental for sporting
teams who are not at the top?
a Lower league teams receive benefits from tourists coming to visit their matches.
b Lower league teams draw benefit from European air travel.
c Lower league teams are already under immense financial strain.
d Lower league teams will lose broadcasting revenues.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The passage mentions that, 'There will be a sharper sense of
peril
lower down the leagues. The experience of clubs deprived of vital
matchday revenue -
and often recklessly close to their financial
limits'. Although (d) might look logical, it goes
beyond the scope of
the passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 3
travel,
lower down the
these
protected.
Q.117 [11617692]
Which of the following can be logically derived from the given passage?
a The author considers contemporary politics to be in a state of doom.
b Europe is currently a hotbed of anxiety.
c Amateurs in Europe will find it hard to evolve with the current scare of disease.
d Football's powers of distraction are necessary at the time of plague.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : d
The author compares politics with the plague. The author
further
compares the political rhetoric to be as morbid as the spreading of
plague. Hence,
(a) is the correct choice.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 3
travel,
lower down the
these
protected.
Q.118 [11617692]
Which of the following weakens the notion that all sports may survive?
a No plague is permanent.
b There is hegemony in sporting structures.

c Human civilization cannot do away with entertainments.
d Legal threats to cancelling of sports will help it.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The author mentions in the passage how sporting leagues and
teams situated at the bottom of the ladder are already at a financial
disadvantage. If a crisis
hits sports in general, help will be given to
those who are already in a position of power and
wealth. There is
a clear hierarchy in sports. The other options cannot be determined
from
the given passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 3
travel,
lower down the
these
protected.

Q.119 [11617692]
a Euro 2020 was going to be a victory for corruption.
b Matchday revenues sustain sports.
c Both (a) and (b).
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : c
None of the give options can be inferred from the given
passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 3
travel,
lower down the
these
protected.
Q.120 [11617692]
Which of the following follows the author's thoughts about Euro 2020?
a Domes built will remain unless there is another world war.
b Cheap masks manufactured keeping profit in mind has become redundant as summer
has put an end to
the flu.
c Food rationed in fear of flood will get wasted now that the warning was found out to be
false.
d Earthquake shelters are great if there are earthquakes or else they are simply a waste of
money.

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
The author states that Euro 2020 was conceived during a
financial
crisis and was supposed to take advantage of cheap
travel prices.
However, with a pandemic in place and most traveling being banned
it has
turned into an ironical situation. Option (b) is similar to that
strain of thought.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 4
Governments should act with the same urgency on climate as on the corona virus, leading
campaigners say, as
evidence mounts that the health crisis is reducing carbon emissions
more than any policy. Unlike the response to
global heating, it has shown how political and
corporate leaders can take radical emergency action on the advice
of scientists to protect
human wellbeing. In China the actions taken by authorities have inadvertently demonstrated
that hefty 25% carbon dioxide cuts can bring less traffic and cleaner air with only a small
reduction in economic
growth, according to a study. Even a slowdown in CO2 could buy time
for climate action and, more importantly,
inspire long-term behavioural changes - particularly
in travel. More carbon savings will come from the cancellations
of international conferences.
Global air traffic decreased by 4.3% in February with cancellations of tens of thousands
of
flights to affected areas. But Rob Jackson, the chair of Global Carbon Project, said this would
only be meaningful
if it led to long-term behavioural change, particularly in aviation. There are
encouraging signs. The 189-nation
International Monetary Fund and its sister lending
organisation, the World Bank, will replace their usual spring
gathering in Washington with a
virtual teleconference. This is a one-off emergency measure, but the economic
and carbon
savings could prompt calls for this to become the norm every year.
Q.121 [11617692]
Which of the following can be used to support that aviation is most detrimental to climate?
a People take flights to attend conferences.

b Corporate leaders invest mostly in aviation.
c Aviation is the reason behind a globalised world and globalization has exacerbated
global warming.
d Aviation is the prime focus when it comes to transportation and carbon savings.
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Your Answer : d
The passage states that, 'Global air traffic decreased by 4.3% in
February with cancellations of tens of thousands of flights to
affected areas. But Rob
Jackson, the chair of Global Carbon Project,
said this would only be meaningful if it led to
long-term behavioural
change, particularly in aviation.' This particular thrust in curbing
aviation makes (d) the right choice.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 4
campaigners say, as
of
only be meaningful
and carbon
Q.122 [11617692]
Which of the following observations maybe true keeping in mind the above passage?
a Mass behavioural changes are possible only when humanity faces radical adversities.
b Health crisis makes strange bedfellows.
c Corona virus will force human beings to become individualistic.
d Teleconferences are the way forward for humanity.

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The passage shows how the health crisis caused by a novel
virus
has forced masses to change behaviour radically. Most of these
changes are for the
better and should have been done much
earlier. This shows (a) to be the correct answer.
The other options
cannot be verified from the given passage.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 4
campaigners say, as
of
only be meaningful
and carbon
Q.123 [11617692]
Which of the following was used to weaken the fight against carbon emission?
a It will make environmental studies redundant.

b It will take a toll on economy.
c It will stop the need for traveling.
d International seminars would get affected.
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : b
The passage mentions how reduction of carbon in China has
made
negligible impact on the economy. This shows that economy was
used as a factor
against implementing radical changes which would
curb carbon emission.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 4
campaigners say, as
of
only be meaningful
and carbon
Q.124 [11617692]
a It is now impossible to reduce global warming.
b International gatherings contribute to climate change.
c Both (a) and (b).

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
In the passage it is mentioned that, 'More carbon savings will
come
from the cancellations of international conferences.' Thus a
reduction in international
gatherings would dramatically save carbon
emission. This also means that such gatherings
in the past have
contributed to climate change. Option (a) is incorrect as the entire
passage
talks about how it is still possible to fight against climate
change and thus global warming.
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reasoning and
option that most
Passage – 4
campaigners say, as
of
only be meaningful
and carbon
Q.125 [11617692]
Which of the following is similar to the way politicians and corporate leaders look at climate
change?

a Since we cannot visually witness time, it is not a real thing.
b The students attended the mass only after the principal warned them with reduction of
recess time.
c The senior grad student refused to help the freshman once he realized that he may have
to spend some
of his own resources.
d Bullies stopped hitting he child the moment they realized that the principal is the
guardian of the child.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
The passage states that political and corporate leaders have
previously ignored pleas to take emergency measures to tackle
global heating. One of the
reasons behind this lethargy is stated
directly or indirectly throughout the passage to be
that of economy.
Option (c) is the most similar to this situation.
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Directions for questions 126 and 127: Each set of questions in this section is based on the
reasoning and
option that most
Q.126 [11617692]
Tamimi worked in West Jerusalem and Tel Aviv before moving to London in 1997 where he
was head chef at
the deli Baker & Spice. Here he met Yotam Ottolenghi, an Israeli who also
grew up in Jerusalem. It was while
they were putting together recipes for their 2012
bestseller Jerusalem that Tamimi began to appreciate how
his Palestinian roots influenced
his food.
Which of the following can be inferred to be the theme of the given passage?
a It talks about the effects of traveling while cooking.

b It talks about the way one makes acquaintances while traveling.
c It talks about how food and cultural origins are related.
d It talks about how a profession can take you to places.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
The passage speaks about two people from two different
cultural
roots and how one of them realises the influence of Palestinian
roots in his food.
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Directions for questions 126 and 127: Each set of questions in this section is based on the
reasoning and
option that most
Q.127 [11617692]
Supporting people aged 50 and over to remain in the workforce could add an additional 1.3%
to GDP a year
by 2040. But while it is an opportunity for some women, for others it is the
"culmination of inequalities that
have built up over a lifetime, remaining in low-paid, insecure
or poor quality work and delaying retirement
through financial necessity", said Patrick
Thomson, programme manager at the Centre for Ageing Better.
Which of the following can be stated about women in workforce from the above passage?
a Women at workplaces have been victims of systematic malaise which span

generations.
b Women at workplaces are denied the opportunity to help boosting national economies.
c Women at workplaces are prone to being subjected to biases.
d Women at workplaces suffer from more age related illnesses than men

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : b
The passage discusses how most women workers have
suffered
from systematic issues which have been ranging for a long time.
The other options
cannot be validated from the given information.
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Directions for questions 128 to 130: In each of the questions below, you are provided a
statement, and two
assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine
which assumption or assumptions are
implicit in the statement.
(a) Give answer (a) if only assumption I is implicit
(b) Give answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Give answer (c) if neither I and II is implicit.
(d) Give answer (d) if both I and II are implicit
Q.128 [11617692]
Statement: Due to the corona virus scare, most footballing leagues have decided to put an
end to matches
till the situation improves. The board of the cricketing team Jumbo has
decided that the next meeting will
take place after six months.
Assumptions:
I. Footballing leagues have been dissolved for the foreseeable future.
II. The footballing teams will be functional and keep on practicing.
a

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : d
Neither of the options is implicit here. The statement mentions
clearly
that the leagues are stalled till the situation improves. It will not be
dissolved.
Whether or not the teams will be practicing could depend
on many factors which are not
implicit here.
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statement, and two
Q.129 [11617692]
Statement: With the new documentary on effects of food sources out, people prefer Kollegs
quinoa over
Manos' since Manos uses quinoa sources from the war ravaged plains of
Kalkulthan.
Assumptions:
I. Kollegs has generated a better reputation among consumers over the Manos varieties.
II. Manos as a brand is suffering as a result of mass hysteria.
a

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
I can be directly inferred from the statement. It mentions how
the
documentary has effected people's quinoa consumption. Thus,
Kollegs' reputation is on
the rise as opposed to Manos'.
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statement, and two
Q.130 [11617692]
Statement: The significance of International Worker's Day lies in its attempt to strike a fine
balance.
Assumptions:
I. Workers are neglected by general people.
II. In a corporate world it is important we pay more attention to workers.
a
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
Neither of the two assumptions is implicit.
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Directions for questions 131 to 133: Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning
ability in different
situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each
of them respectively:
Q.131 [11617692]
What were the talents that allowed certain inventors and entrepreneurs to turn their visionary
ideas into
disruptive realities? What led to their creative leaps? Why did some succeed and
others fail? In his masterly
saga, Isaacson begins with Ada Lovelace, Lord Byron's daughter,
who pioneered computer programming in
the 1840s. He explores the fascinating
personalities that created our current digital revolution, such as
Vannevar Bush, Alan Turing,
John von Neumann, J.C.R. Licklider, Doug Engelbart, Robert Noyce, Bill Gates,
Steve Wozniak,
Steve Jobs, Tim Berners-Lee, and Larry Page. This is the story of how their minds worked
and
what made them so inventive. It's also a narrative of how their ability to collaborate and
master the art of
teamwork made them even more creative
What can be the likely name of the book discussed above?
a The Innovators
b Dawn of the Digital Era
c Effective leadership
d Isaacson's mystery
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Your Answer : a
The above story intends to make the readers aware of how to
be
a successful entrepreneur by giving examples of the techniques
used by the mastermind
programmers, like Ada Lovelace, Robert
Noyce, Bill Gates, Steve Jobs, for flaring up the
current digital
revolution. Moreover, it also throws light on how they creatively
built up their
thoughts and turned them into actions which gave
them success and made them a legend.
Option (d) is pretty vague.
There isn't any mystery involved. The effective leadership of
these
legends did lead to the development of the digital era but at the end,
the main focus is
on the Innovators who were behind the digital
revolution. Hence option (a) supersedes the
rest. Hence (a)
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Q.132 [11617692]
So how does YouTube bring in revenue? Well, it tries to sell advertisements alongside its
videos. The
problem is that the videos attracted by psychological Free-pirated material, cat
videos, and other forms of
user-generated content-are not the sort of thing that advertisers
want to be associated with. In order to sell
advertising, YouTube has had to buy the rights to
professionally produced content, such as television shows
and movies. Credit Suisse put the
cost of those licenses in 2009 at roughly two hundred and sixty million
dollars. For Anderson,
YouTube illustrates the principle that Free removes the necessity of aesthetic judgment.
(As
he puts it, YouTube proves that "crap is in the eye of the beholder.") But, in order to make
money,
YouTube has been obliged to pay for programs that aren't crap. To recap: YouTube is
a great example of
Free, except that Free technology ends up not being Free because of the
way consumers respond to Free,
fatally compromising YouTube's ability to make money
around Free, and forcing it to retreat from the
"abundance thinking" that lies at the heart of
Free. Credit Suisse estimates that YouTube will lose close to
half a billion dollars this year. If
it were a bank, it would be eligible for TARP funds.
Which of the following best explains the mood of the highlighted question in the paragraph:
So how does
YouTube bring in revenue??
a Interrogative
b Deliberating
c Analytical
d Rhetorical

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Your Answer : c
The question is not interrogative as it is evident that the author
is
not really expecting the readers to answer the question. It is not
analytical as the
paragraph does not ONLY explain the earning
model of You Tube. It is a supporting
argument to discuss the
pricing policy of such online platforms. Rhetorical questions are
the ones, where the author exhorts the readers, prods them to a
new line of thinking. This is
not the case as the author straight
away answers the question. The question is almost as if
the author
is thinking aloud and sharing his thoughts with the readers.
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Q.133 [11617692]
Find the statement which is necessarily true according to the given information:
The Vir is an evergreen tree that grows in the Nilay. The Vir has a fleshy, poisonous fruit.
Recently, Pout, a
substance found in the bark of the Vir, was discovered to be a promising
new antidepressant drug.
a Pout, when taken by healthy people, is poisonous.
b Pout has the potential to cure all mental disorders.
c People should not eat the fruit of the Vir.
d No treatment for anxiety was known till Pout was discovered.
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Your Answer : c
As the paragraph clearly states that the Vir has a poisonous
fruit,
it is obvious that people should not eat it. There is no basis for the
remaining options,
in the passage.
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Q.134 [11617692]
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are seated at a square table such that four of them
are at the
corners and four are at the middle of the sides. Equal number of persons are facing
towards the centre as
well as away from the centre. It is also known that R faces V, who sits
at the middle of one of the sides and
is on the immediate left of both S and P. W sits on the
immediate right of both U and P. T faces P and sits on
the immediate right of Q and V.
Select the option in which the third person is sitting exactly between the first and the second.
a Q-T-P
b P-R-W
c W-V-U
d R-V-T
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
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Q.135 [11617692]
Five persons – A, B, C, D and E – own five cars – KIA, Xylo, Alto, Zen and Polo – not
necessarily in the same
order. These cars are parked in a parking lot which has row-wise
slots numbered 1 to 5 from left to right. The
Zen belongs to A whereas D parks his car in slot
number 4. There is a gap of one slot between Kia and Polo;
also neither car belongs to D or B.
Neither B nor C has an even numbered parking space. The Alto is parked
in slot 1.
For how many people can we distinctly find the parking slot number and type of car?
a Three
b Two
c Four
d Five
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
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Sec 5

Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the salaries of six persons
working in the sales and
marketing department of a company. The bar graph given below
shows the percentage distribution of the various
components of each person's salary.
(Assume that these are the only persons in the department and the expenditure
on monthly
salary disbursement for the department is Rs.8 lakh).
Q.136 [11617692]
What is average Basic salary of A, B and C (to the nearest rupee)?
a Rs.33,667
b Rs.36,773
c Rs.37,663

d Rs.33,336
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
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given.
on monthly

Q.137 [11617692]
The HRA earned by E is what percentage more or less than the HRA earned by B?
a 24%
b 48%
c 76%
d 38%

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
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given.
on monthly

Q.138 [11617692]
If 10% of the Others component of the salary is disbursed in food coupons, then what is the
total value of the
coupons given to C, D and E?
a Rs.4,352
b Rs.3,542
c Rs.4,053
d Rs.4,235

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Value of coupons disbursed to C, D and E
= 0.1 × (0.08 × 0.18 + 0.15 × 0.12 + 0.1 × 0.22) × 800000
= 0.1 × 43520 = Rs.4,352.

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given.
on monthly

Q.139 [11617692]
What is the difference between the total TA & DA earned by A and F?
a Rs.16,980
b Rs.17,280
c Rs.18,690
d Rs.19,680

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
The total TA & DA earned by A = 0.17 × (0.2 + 0.18) × 800000
=
Rs.51,680
The total TA & DA earned by F = 0.16 × (0.11 + 0.14) × 800000

= Rs.32,000
Hence, required difference = 51680 – 32000 = Rs.19,680.
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given.
on monthly

Q.140 [11617692]
If in the new financial year D gets a hike of 20% in his Basic but B does not, then what is the
difference
between the total salaries of B and D?
a Rs.12,980
b Rs.17,280
c Rs.18,400
d Rs.16,680

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Original difference in B and D's salaries = 0.03 × 800000 =
Rs.24,000
Increase in D's salary = 0.15 × 0.3 × 0.2 × 800000 = Rs.6,720
Difference in the salaries of B and D in the new financial year
= 24000 – 6720 = Rs.17,280.

FeedBack Bookmark
given.
An exhibition featuring - apparel, books, appliances and cosmetics - has square areas allotted
to each section
and the total perimeter of all four sections is 300 m. The perimeter of the
cosmetic section is 20 m and the books
section has 5 times its perimeter. The perimeter of
apparel section is to the appliance section is in the ratio 1 : 2.
There are three types of bulbs
– A, B and C – which are used to illuminate the exhibition. In every 100 sq. meter of
area four
bulbs of type A are used, in every 10 sq. meter of area 2 bulbs of type B are used and for
every 5 m of the
perimeter one bulb of type C is used.
Q.141 [11617692]
What is the total number of bulbs of all types used to illuminate the cosmetics and apparel
sections together?
a 54
b 68
c 76
d 81

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
to each section
area four
every 5 m of the
Q.142 [11617692]
What approximate percentage of the total number of bulbs of type B were used to illuminate
the Books
section?
a 30.5%
b 42%
c 21.5%
d 35.2%

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
to each section
area four
every 5 m of the
Q.143 [11617692]
What is the ratio of bulbs A and C respectively used in the apparel and appliance sections
together of the
exhibition?
a 5:4
b 3:2
c 4:3
d 2:5

Solution:
Correct Answer : a
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
to each section
area four
every 5 m of the
Q.144 [11617692]
What will be the cost of lighting up the Books section given that Bulb A costs Rs.90, Bulb B
costs Rs.70 and
Bulb C costs Rs.10?
a Rs.12,400
b Rs.14,400
c Rs.10,200
d Rs.11,200

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
to each section
area four
every 5 m of the
Q.145 [11617692]
If the consumption of electricity for the bulbs is as follows, Bulb A : 0.2 units/day, Bulb B : 0.4
units/day and
Bulb C : 0.6 units/day, then what is the total electricity consumption for the
cosmetics section for two days?
a 4.6 units
b 9.2 units
c 8.6 units
d 7.2 units

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
The table given below shows the quote buy and sell price of five different stocks on five
different days of a trading
week. On any day an investor can buy one unit of a stock at the buy
price and sell it at the sell price. All prices are
given in Rupees.
Q.146 [11617692]
If a person invests Rs.4.5 lakh on Monday in buying units of a single stock and sells all of it
on Friday, then
which stock gives him the maximum profit?
a E
b B
c A

d D
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
The difference between the sell price on Friday and the buy
price
on Monday is highest for stock A. Hence, stock A will give
him the
maximum profit.
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
given in Rupees.
Q.147 [11617692]
Among the given options the buy and sell price of which stock is consistently increasing from
Monday to
Friday?
a A
b B
c C
d D

Solution:
Correct Answer : d
It is clear from the table that the buy and sell price for stock D
and
E are consistently increasing from Monday to Friday.
Hence, the
answer is option (d).
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
given in Rupees.
Q.148 [11617692]
The difference between the buy and sell price is called the spread of a stock. On which of the
following days
of the week is the average spread of stock the highest?
a Monday
b Tuesday
c Wednesday
d Thursday

Solution:
Correct Answer : b
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
given in Rupees.
Q.149 [11617692]
An online trading platform charges 0.1% brokerage charges for buying and selling stock. An
investor
purchases 1000 units of stock E on Monday and sells them on Wednesday, what is
the total brokerage fee
that he pays?
a Rs.6,054
b Rs.6,048
c Rs.6,060

d Rs.6,024
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
FeedBack Bookmark
given.
given in Rupees.
Q.150 [11617692]
If an investor purchases Rs.2 lakh worth of units of stock B on Monday, then on which day
should he sell to
get the maximum return?
a Tuesday
b Wednesday
c Thursday
d Friday

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
We check the difference between the sell price on each of
these
days and the buy price on Monday. It is clear that the
maximum
difference is for Thursday. Hence, he will get the maximum return
if he sells on
Thursday.
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6/30/2021 Mock Analysis

LST Mock 65 2021 (CLAT)

Scorecard (ScoreCard.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30 20:58:09 IST

Accuracy (AccSelectGraph.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30 20:58:09 IST

Qs Analysis (QsAnalysis.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30 20:58:09 IST

Video Attempt / Solution (VideoAnalysis.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30

Solutions (Solution.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30 20:58:09 IST

Bookmarks (Bookmarks.jsp?sid=aaa31bPBT8ch7cvQmCAPxWed Jun 30 20:58:09 IST

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

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others) to decide which threats were really serious and which

b Several terrorist organizations now employ IT professionals to counter the increasing

d Both (a) and (b)

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c Invasion of personal privacy is not an acceptable policy, irrespective of the context.

d Counter terrorism measures may not necessarily involve breach of privacy.

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c Delegitimizing the message of terrorists.

d Prioritizing the nature of threats and deploying armies accordingly.

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a Failure to discredit such movements and challenge their narrative.

b Inability to build effective partnerships with the local population.

c Lack of support for the legitimate local governments.

d Inability to change political regimes that support such activities.

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about such decisions might be a good

b Use of more sophisticated technology by the terrorists.

c Unwittingly providing legitimacy to the terrorists' message.

d Inclination towards convenience rather than long-term strategic vision.

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b In conservative countries, homosexual couples may not be ready to declare their

d It is hypocritical and discriminatory to expect homosexuals to maintain puritanical

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open access. There are 5,000 colleges and universities in the

a Colleges targeting middle school students.

b Parents getting their children enrolled in tutorials for admission tests.

c A marked drop in extra-curricular activities due to a fear of decline in grades.

d All of the above.

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a Increasing stress amongst the students.

c Poor delivery of education in colleges.

d Increasing competition in admissions and more dropouts.

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c Subdued and pessimistic

d Analytical and Pedantic

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