Mock Clat - 35: (Question Paper) Section - I: English Language

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MOCK CLAT – 35
(Question Paper)
Section – I: English Language

S.1–30) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding
passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
S.1–5) Directions for Questions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
Passage 1
No similar period of secular history can he compared with our own century in deep and far–reaching
influence on the destinies, not of England only, but of the human race. [a] It is already impossible to
look back at the opening years of this period without a feeling of astonishment as well as gratitude,
that so short a time should have altered all the conditions of civilized life as the long course of
previous centuries had failed to do.[b] For it is mainly within this time that the great forces of nature
have been discovered, chained, and set to do man’s work on a scale undreamt of in other ages. By
their powerful aid time and space have been all but annihilated. [c] The electric spark convey
intelligence with the speed of thought from the utmost ends of the earth, while the powers of steam
has brought the most distant climes and peoples within easy reach of our own shores [d].
Coincidently with this subjugation to man’s uses of the forces of nature, millions of the human race,
held in bondage for unnumbered ages, have received their liberty—a liberty which every year
spreads wider and wider throughout the world, and we may well feel proud that our own race has
been ever in the van of this extension of human freedom, whether in the gradual destruction of
slave trading and slavery, or in the spread of those Representative Political Institutions which have
been found the best guarantees alike of order and freedom. These have just received one of the
most remarkable extensions on record in the Franchise and Redistribution measures of 1884–85,
and our country has thus entered on a new era—not less prosperous, let us hope, than those that
have preceded it.
The development of national life under the stimulus of free institutions has been strikingly illustrated
in the growth of our great Colonies in Africa, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand, which have
recently given us the most striking proofs that the liberty they enjoy has in no degree abated their
attachment to the mother country and the Empire.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “Age We Live In: A History of the Nineteenth Century.
From the peace of 1815 to the present time. “ by James Taylor, A.M., Vol – 001.]
Q.1) Which of the following follows from the passage?
a) At no previous time has history been made at a more rapid rate.

b) Freedoms will lead to the doom of nations.
c) Last few years paints the painful years of history.
d) All of the above.
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Q.2) What are the freedoms that the author has highlighted in the passage?
a) Destruction of slave trading and slavery

b) Spread of Representative Political Institutions
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.3) Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage above?
a) Nations cannot grow if their people are given freedoms.

b) Oppression is the way forward for developing nations.
c) Slavery is justified and uplifting for humankind.
Q.4) Of the underlined statements, which one is grammatically incorrect?
a) Sentence marked [a].

b) Sentence marked [b].
c) Sentence marked [c].
d) Sentence marked [d].
Q.5) Choose the synonym of the word “climes” mentioned in para 1 of the passage.
a) Climate
b) Environment
c) Atmosphere
Passage 2
Of the large minority of English people who have not visited India, it is safe to say that there are few
who do not feel as if they had, so strong is their familiarity with the mighty peninsula by reason of
the pictures and descriptions so freely scattered among us. Yet the absurdity of this vague and
nebulous “knowledge” is most clearly demonstrated directly there arises any discussion concerning
the great races of India.
Perhaps the classification most easily understood is that of religion, which, to some extent, though
very roughly, follows the lines of race cleavage.
I. The Hindus, who form by far the largest proportion of the total population, are naturally the best
known ; as already indicated, Hinduism in some form was brought in by the Aryan invasion. To this
religion most of the native Princes ruling independent States belong. The Hindus are to the
Mohammedans as about three to one.
II. The Buddhists are the next most important in number, and though the Buddhists are only as one
in twenty to the Mohammedans, they are not in the same position, because they are segregated to a
great extent; the mass of the Buddhists being the Shans and Burmans of Burma, or Further India,
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and some, of a slightly different type, being found in the independent States of Sikkim and Bhutan ;
they are not scattered throughout India.
III. The Mohammedans, the next in order numerically, can claim the Nizam of Hyderabad, who rules
the largest independent State, as belonging to their religion. The Mohammedans swept in upon the
Aryans in waves, and though stubbornly resisted succeeded in establishing a dynasty which lasted
for many hundreds of years. To the Mohammedan Moguls belong the proudest names in Indian
history—those of Baber, Akbar and Aurungzebe, father, grandson, and great–grandson. At the
present time the Mohammedans dread the power of the Hindus, who so far outnumber them, and it
is certain that were ever British rule to be withdrawn from India, the Hindus would make a
desperate attempt to drive their Mohammedan fellow–countrymen into the sea, and thus to sweep
the country clear of them.
IV. The Sikhs are a mere handful in number, about half as many as the Buddhists; the Jains and
Parsees also count but little in a population numbered in millions.
After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.
“There is a greater diversity of races, languages, social customs, physical conditions, etc., between
the different provinces of India than is often to be found between the different countries of Europe.”
It is difficult, indeed, to regard the mighty peninsula as if it were a congeries of European countries,
with Russian, German, English, French, and Italian straitly defining the boundaries of the nations; yet
the Latin languages, French, Italian, and Spanish, are all closely akin, and German, English, and the
Danish tongues have a common origin. Certainly not farther apart are these from one another than
the tongues of the races of India. Here are a few : Marathi, Gujarati, Sindhi, Kanarese, Tamil, Telugu,
Bengali, Bihari, Assamese, Punjabi, to say nothing of Burmese. Some of these languages are allied, as
Tamil and Telugu, but they are more than mere variations of dialect, having split off so far back that
they may fairly be classed as languages by themselves.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “People of India” by Menpes, M.(Painter), 1910.]
Q.6) What is the author aiming at describing through the above passage?
a) Environment of India
b) Politics in India
c) People of India
d) All of the above
Q.7) Arrange the statements in para 2 above to make it coherent.
a) I, II, III, IV
b) I, III, II, IV
c) II, IV, III, I
d) II, I, III, IV
Q.8) Which of the following support the passage above?
a) India is one of the most diverse lands found anywhere else in the world.
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b) Being a large country with large population, India presents endless varieties of physical features
and cultural patterns.
c) India is a very religion diverse country
d) All of the above
Q.9) Which of the following is incorrect based on the passage above?
a) Europe is as diverse as India.

b) There is greater diversity within Indian provinces than entire Europe.
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Q.10) Choose the correct meaning of the word congeries.
a) A disorderly collection
b) To carry
c) Distributive
d) All of the above
Passage 3
The sun goes down, for those alone, who stand on a revolving sphere: and so, in Nature’s universal
life, Death is but a dissolving view, a word without a meaning : real only to the accidental unit, to
whose local and momentary combination it sets a term. Death is a thing of nought, phenomenal,
kaleidoscopic: a juggle of the Mother of Illusion, Prakriti or Maya, whose magic scene not only never
dies, but like her own wild animals, sleeps even with an open eye. You never catch her napping. And
often, when you think that you have done it, she winks at you, just as it were to show you your
mistake. As sometimes, on a hot midsummer day, when the delicate blue smoke from cottage
chimneys rises straight into the air, and Nature holds her breath : you think, she is asleep: and all at
once, there comes a little whisper, and a ripple passes over all the golden ears of corn, and in
another moment, all is still. Or on a cliff that overhangs a glassy sea, you lie and dream, and think,
the very water sleeps : and then, a sudden change of colour flushes the ocean opal for only a single
instant, and is gone. Or in a wood at noon, you listen to the silence, and a rustle suddenly quivers in
the trees, and dies away. Murmurs and echoes : moments and emotions of the pulses of the world:
hints and indications, still, small voices more significant than storms, of the never–sleeping thrill and
throb of universal action.
So far sober modern science, never dreaming that it is exactly reproducing (translate the thing only
from physics into ethics) the old Hindoo idea, that moral conservation of energy, whose
fundamental axiom it is, that no action, good or bad, however small, is or ever can be lost, but like a
stone thrown into the water, generates innumerable consequences, running in all directions to
infinity, producing permanent impressions and effects, that follow and fatally determine, eternal and
indelible, the fortunes of their doer, through the series of interminable births and deaths : births
that are no beginning, and deaths that are not an end. Thus do we go on making for ourselves our
weal or woe: and as we go, the hounds of deeds long buried in oblivion are on our track.
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[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Draught of the blue”, Bain, F.W., 1913]
Q.11) Which of the following supports the above passage?
a) Nature is not bound by any boundaries.

b) Death is but a dissolving view.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.12) What is the meaning of the phrase “weal and woe”?
a) Things that cause sorrow

b) Good and bad
c) Prosperity
d) None of the above
Q.13) Choose the sentence which means that death is a dissolving view:
a) Death is a word without a meaning

b) Death is a thing of nought
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.14) Choose the synonym of axiom from the following options:
a) Contradiction
b) Paradox
c) Maxim
d) All of the above
Q.15) What is the author discussing in the passage above?
a) Nature
b) Humans
c) Celestial Bodies
Passage 4
As the title shows, it is a solar myth. Literally translated, its name is : The glory of the Going Down of
the Sun. But this is only the exoteric, physical envelope of the inner, mystical meaning, which is: The
Divine Lustre of the Descent (Incarnation) of Him Who took Three Steps: i.e. Wishnu, or the Sun, the
later Krishna, or Hindoo Apollo. And this epithet of the Sun is explained by the well–known passage
in the Rig–Weda (I. 22. 17), ‘Three steps did Wishnu stride: thrice did he set down his foot. A
mythological expression for the rise, the zenith, and the set of the Sun.
… according to which it is the duty of Purusha, the archetype of the spirit of man, the Primaeval
Male, to hunt for and pursue Prakriti, the feminine personification of material Nature, the Eternal
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Feminine, till he finds her: when instantly she disappears ‘ like an actress.’ In this respect, the story
somewhat recalls the Gita–Gowind of Jaya– dewa, which according to one school of interpreters,
deals with the Soul, personified as the lovely Radha, in its search after the Divine. For among the
Hindoos, the earthly and the heavenly love are always confounded.
And let not anyone suppose, that the lesson embodied in these pages is obsolete or dead in the
India of to–day. I wrote the last lines of this translation late one evening, and I walked out in the
dusk to the bridge across the river, about half a mile away. There was not a breath of air. It was a
night as still as that which long ago Medea chose on which to work her spells : nothing moved save
the twinkling stars ; all below was plunged in sleep, every tree a picture, every leaf seemed carved in
stone: only, every now and then, a flying fox burst screeching from a branch. And as I stood upon the
bridge, I could hear a faint din of tom–toms coming from the distant city of the Peshwas. I looked
westwards, up the river. The sun had set, leaving behind it a ruddy glare which faded higher up the
sky into the darkness : and exactly on the confines of the colours, in that bath of nilalohita, that
purple–red, which is a favourite epithet of the god Shiwa, hung, like a thing in a dream, the lovely
streak of the new moon, one day old. All was reflected in the still mirror of the broad sheet of water
formed by the river Bund., or dam.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Descent of the sun– A cycle of birth” Bian. F.W. , 1903.]
Q.16) From the passage what would be the most suitable title?
a) The rising sun

b) Descent of the Sun
c) Sun and the Hindoo mythology
d) All of the above
Q.17) The word ‘ruddy’ mentioned in the last para is a:
a) Noun
b) Verb
c) Adjective
d) Adverb
Q.18) Choose the meaning of the word ‘ruddy’
a) Muddy
b) Of red colour
c) Dense
Q.19) Which of the following would the author agree?
a) The narrative of the author is prevalent in India.

b) The narrative of the author is no long prevalent in India.
c) The narrative of the author is outdated.
d) All of the above
Q.20) Based on the passage which of the following is true?
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a) Medea is always up for some witchery

b) Medea does not perform spells
c) Both a and b
d) All of the above
Passage 5
Amged el-Hawrani thought he just had the flu. He thought maybe he was just a bit run down or
hadn’t been sleeping enough. By the time he was admitted to hospital with breathing difficulties and
put on a ventilator, it was already too late. Three weeks later, he died of Covid-19. He was 55 years
old.
The NHS ear, nose and throat (ENT) consultant never knew he had the virus. He was sedated long
before the test came back positive, after twice coming back negative. The diagnosis until the final
test result was a stubborn bilateral pneumonia. A physician to the end, his last words before being
sedated were “why are they taking so long, they need to intubate me”.
As an ENT surgery consultant he was especially vulnerable to catching Covid-19, and was likely
exposed to patients whose complaints were coronavirus-related: loss of taste and smell, breathing
issues and persistent coughs. “He wasn’t even aware he needed protective gear,” his brother Amal
told me, “he was just doing his job.”
El-Hawrani was one of six boys whose Sudanese parents settled in the UK in 1975. Their late father,
a consultant radiologist, moved to the UK to gain access to the latest equipment and research in his
speciality, and passed on his passion for medicine to his eldest sons. “He had no hobbies, he was
always studying, always reading, he loved it,” Amal recalls.
The love for the vocation extended outside of the family, as the El-Hawrani home became a hub for
other Sudanese doctors in training. Those who needed advice and guidance on their professional
journey, or just needed a place to stay as they did so, found refuge in the El-Hawrani home, rent
free. The commitment to family and medicine was passed down. “Most of my dad’s time was
dedicated towards his family,” said El-Hawrani’s son, Ashraf, “the rest was dedicated towards his
profession.”
El-Hawrani was the second frontline doctor to die of the virus. The first was also of Sudanese origin;
Dr Adil El Tayar, an organ transplant specialist who volunteered in an A&E department in the
Midlands to help fight the virus. Two of the four children he left behind are also NHS doctors.
Following their deaths, the contributions of El-Hawrani and El Tayar and their families to our
healthcare system have been held up as exemplars. Yes, they were gifted and selfless, but they were
not exceptions. They were part of a community of NHS doctors all over the UK, who are foreign
born, or born to immigrants.
Alongside El-Hawrani and El Tayar in the honour roll now sit Dr Alfa Saadu, who was also
volunteering, this time in Hertfordshire, one of the counties worst hit by the virus; general
practitioner Dr Habib Zaidi; and Areema Nasreen, an acute medical unit nurse. The numbers do, and
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have always told the truth: 44% of medical staff are BAME. For nurses and midwives, it is one in
every five, and in some areas such as London, it is four in 10.
Not that the government has made it easy for non-EU migrant doctors to work in the UK. They have
to navigate a complex maze of Home Office requirements to renew expensive work visas which are
often tied to jobs which are themselves dependent on budgetary constraints. A single fallen domino
in this chain ejects a sorely needed doctor from the country.
In its newfound affection for the NHS and such doctors, the government has now shown hitherto
unattainable bureaucratic agility, and decided that all nurses, doctors, paramedics and healthcare
professionals will have their visas automatically renewed for a year free of charge.
(https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2020/apr/06/coronavirus-crisis-nhs-not-drained-
migrants-sustained-died-frontline)
Q.21) Why did Amged el-Hawrani thought he just had the flu?
a) Because he was sedated before his results came out.

b) because all his diagnosis showed a stubborn bilateral pneumonia.
c) because he caught the virus unaware just doing his job.
d) because he thought he could never catch the virus.
Q.22) What is the central idea of the passage?
a) the passage informs us of the risks involved for the doctors in treating the deadly COVID - 19 virus.
b) the passage celebrates the contribution of the BAME medical staff in the NHS, with their sheer
numbers and professional ethics inspite of various visa issues.
c) the passage is an obituary to the late El – Hawrani for his dedication to his profession.
d) The passage is a tribute to the doctors who died in their fight against COVID- 19.
Q.23) What is not true of El – Hawrani’s family and childhood?
a) El-Hawrani was one of six boys whose Sudanese parents settled in the UK in 1975.
b) Late father, a consultant radiologist, moved to the UK to gain access to the latest equipment and
research in his speciality,
c) The El-Hawrani home became a hub for other Sudanese doctors in training, those who needed
advice and guidance on their professional journey, or just needed a place to stay as they did so,
found refuge in the El-Hawrani home, on miniscule rent.
d) The commitment to family and medicine was passed down by his father.
Q.24) Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a) El-Hawrani was the second frontline doctor to die of the virus.

b) The first doctor who died of the virus was also of Sudanese origin; Dr Adil El Tayar, an organ
transplant specialist who volunteered in an A&E department in the Midlands to help fight the virus.
c) The government has made it easy for non-EU migrant doctors to work in the UK.
d) All of the above are true.
Q.25) What is the meaning of the word ‘agility’ as mentioned in the last line of the passage?
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a) Spirit
b) Flexibility
c) Strength
d) Service
Passage 6
What is a Quibi? A vague unit of ten minutes or less, we’re told in the many ads now ubiquitous (and
much maligned) on YouTube, Instagram and TV. A billionaire-backed attempt to mint a new one-
word signature in entertainment, to unite Hollywood prestige and resources with the interstitial,
“snackable” bumps of content popularized by lo-fi creators on video platforms and social media
networks. More cynically, a deep-pocketed swing to monetize our last shreds of attention with an
ironic wink (we’re all on our phones anyway), a way to amuse ourselves until we die. Either way,
with a staggering $1.75bn in funding before its launch this week, Quibi is swinging big on one central
question: can it change the nature of streaming?
The company, conceived by Hollywood legend Jeffrey Katzenberg and executed by former Hewlett-
Packard CEO Meg Whitman, seems confident it can. Despite a saturated but still growing market of
streaming services – titans Netflix, Hulu, Amazon Prime and HBO and relative newcomers Disney +,
Apple TV+, CBS All Access, the list could go on – Quibi sees a potentially rich corner in mobile-specific
content diced into seven to 10 “quick bites” (qui-bi, get it?). Which means it’s competing less with
the full-length streamers than with Facebook, YouTube and TikTok – frenetic, lucrative factories of
distraction and amusement for the snippets of time formerly reserved for your ambient mind.
It’s perhaps a bit weird that this new service, aimed to be the disruptive insurgent of entertainment
platforms and specifically conceived for younger audiences born with phones in their hands,
emerges from the depths of Hollywood and the Silicon Valley establishment. Katzenberg, 69, was
once chairman of Walt Disney Studios (1984 to 1994) and co-founded DreamWorks Animation,
where he was the long-time CEO; Whitman, 63, was CEO of eBay as it mushroomed into a billion-
dollar online marketplace, and was later CEO of Hewlett-Packard from 2011-2017 (she also
unsuccessfully ran for governor of California as a Republican in 2010). Both are billionaires, with the
connections and wealth to pay for an army of prestige and/or popular talent, and the cache to sell
their attention experiment as revolutionary and informed. Its advertising partners out of the gate
include such business heavyweights as Google, Anheuser-Busch, Walmart, PepsiCo and Procter &
Gamble.
Thus Quibi’s $1.75bn in funding to date has recruited a truly who’s who list of contributors which, in
press materials and ads, blurs together in peak 2020 maximalist, chaotic fashion. Shows feature a
call-sheet of such generationally varied stars as Joe Jonas, Idris Elba, Sophie Turner, Chrissy Teigen,
Chance the Rapper, LeBron James, Jennifer Lopez, Reese Witherspoon, Liam Hemsworth, Christoph
Waltz, Lena Waithe, Nicole Richie, Demi Lovato, Will Smith, Laura Dern, Kevin Hart, Tyra Banks, Zac
Efron, Bill Murray and Laurence Fishburne. A-list creators including Steven Speilberg, Guillermo del
Toro, Ridley Scott, Antoine Fuqua, Catherine Hardwicke and Sam Raimi have produced or directed
shows exclusively for the service. Quibi has patented a new filmmaking technology, Turnstyle, which
I’m sure is very complicated to engineer but essentially means you can shift your viewing from
portrait mode to landscape and back seamlessly.
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And whereas other streaming giants have amassed or purchased their libraries of original or licensed
content over time, Quibi will launch with a tsunami of homegrown shows. The service begins with
three episodes each of its first 50 titles, and will roll out 25 episodes (or, as it calls it in a press
release, “three hours of fresh, original, premium content”) every weekday afterward. All told, it’s
planning to release 175 original shows in its first year, which translates into 8,500 “quibis” of
content.
It’s an ostentatious and dizzying drop, in line with Katzenberg’s pitch of Quibi – or, rather, the Quibi
short-form concept – as era-defining: “Five years from now, we want to come back on this stage and
if we were successful, there will have been the era of movies, the era of television and the era of
Quibi,” he told a crowd at South by Southwest in 2019. “What Google is to search, Quibi will be to
short-form video.”
But Quibi is dropping into saturated, choppy and disorienting waters – it’s not going up against those
modestly successful streaming experiments so much as the free intoxication of TikTok loops and
YouTube videos, at a time when the interstitial bits of life Quibi is targeting – arriving 10 minutes
ahead of your friends to the bar, waiting for coffee, commuting to school and/or work – have
suddenly evaporated. It’s not a good sign for Quibi that podcast downloads in the US, the staple
sidekick for many work commutes or background entertainment, have dipped at least 7% since mass
shutdowns and work from home orders began in mid-March.
(https://www.theguardian.com/culture/2020/apr/06/quibi-app-new-netflix-or-mistake)
Q.26) What is the initial idea of Quibi we get from the views of the author in the first paragraph?
a) it is a snackable addition to Youtube and Netflix.

b) it is a billionaire’s attempt to hijack whatever little time we may have left in between work.
c) a vague unit of 10. Mins or less
d) cannot be determined
Q.27) What is the significance of the third and fourth paragraph of the passage?
a) the third and fourth paragraph inform us of the investments and talent on Quibi.
b) the third and fourth paragraph applaud the investments and talent on Quibi.
c) the third and fourth paragraph depict the astonishment of the founders and the talent group for
this non serious new platform.
d) the third and fourth paragraph describe the new platform Quibi.
Q.28) What is the tone of the author as can be gauged from the last paragraph?
a) adulatory
b) objective
c) critical
d) apprehensive
Q.29) As per the passage what audience time is Quibi targeting?
a) the interstitial time – in between waiting or hopping on and off things

b) the you tube and tik – tok time
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c) the time the audience spends in movie viewing

d) the complete online time spent on Netflix.
Q.30) What is the meaning of ‘ubiquitous and much maligned’ as used in the passage?
a) abused in bits and pieces

b) criticised somewhere
c) appreciated at some place
d) smeared everywhere
Section – II: Current Awareness

S.31–69) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
Passage 1
Kargil–War hero Lt Gen YK Joshi appointed the commander of the strategically crucial Northern
Command which looks after the borders with both adversaries –– China and Pakistan. He has vast
experience of anti–terror operations in Kashmir, and will succeed Lt Gen [1] who retires from service
on January 31. He is currently serving as the Chief of Staff of the Northern Command. He will take
charge of the Northern Command as General Officer–Commanding–in–Chief (GOC–in–C) on
February 1, official sources told PTI.Lt Gen [2] has been appointed the commander of the Southern
Command. He succeeded Lt Gen [3] who will take charge as the new vice chief of the Army on
Saturday.
The post of vice chief fell vacant after [4] was appointed Chief of Army Staff. [2] has operational
experience along the borders with Pakistan and China and in active counter–insurgency operations
in Assam.
https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/kargil–fame–lt–gen–yk–joshi–appointed–northern–army–
commander
Q.31) Which of the following can be filled in [1]?
a) Ranbir Singh
b) Surinder Singh
c) Bipin Rawat
d) Devraj Anbu
Q.32) [2] has been appointed as the commander of Southern Command. Who is he?
a) Abhay Krishna
b) C P Mohanty
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c) K J S Dhillon
d) Bikram Singh
Q.33) Who among the following will fill [3]?
a) Praveen Bakshi
b) D S Hooda
c) Anil Chauhan
d) S K Saini
Q.34) Who among the following has been appointed as the Chief of Army Staff?
a) Bipin Rawat
b) Manoj Mukund Naravane
c) Birender Singh Dhanoa
d) V.K. Singh
Q.35) “Operation Cactus” of the Indian Navy was a mission to oust out Tamil Nationalists
Mercenaries of PLOTE, who instigated a coup in male in Maldives.It was carried out in __________.
a) 1979
b) 1995
c) 1988
d) 1984
Passage 2
The Year of the Rat has begun on an inauspicious note for China. A new virus belonging to the
Coronavirus family (now named novel coronavirus 2019–nCoV) has claimed over 200 lives in China
and the numbers infected have touched 10,000 confirmed cases, as on Friday. The World Health
Organization (WHO) has declared it a global emergency, as the outbreak continues to spread outside
China.
Ironically, the epicentre of the outbreak is the bustling town of [1], China, which also hosts a number
of biotech enterprises. Most of the viruses are common among animals and only a small number
infect humans.
Comparisons are being drawn the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) outbreak in 2002–03 which
infected around 8,000 patients and claimed nearly 800 lives. SARS is also a zoonotic case, part of the
coronavirus family with clues pointing to horseshoe bats in China as the likely source. The first
incidents were reported in Guangdong province in November 2002 but WHO was officially informed
only after three months though mysterious flu outbreaks were being widely reported.
All this provides an interesting contrast with how the Kerala government dealt with the Nipah virus
outbreak in May 2018. Nipah is also zoonotic and made the jump from fruit bats to humans. Though
there were 17 deaths in India, effective quarantine measures by local authorities prevented the
spread. It helped that health is a state subject.
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https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/a–sneeze–a–global–cold–and–testing–times–for–
china/article30706280.ece
Q.36) Fill [1] with a suitable option.
a) Xinjiang
b) Wuhan
c) Chengdu
d) Xi’an
Q.37) Fomites, the transmission mode of Coronavirus transmission consists of which of the following
objects?
a) Furniture
b) Clothes
c) Utensils
d) All of the above
Q.38) In 2002–03, another zoonotic disease, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome outbreak infected
around 8,000 patients. Which of the following causes Zoonotic disease?
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Protozoa
Select the correct code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.39) What is the rank of India in Global Health Index 2019?
a) 100th
b) 110th
c) 115th
d) 120th
Q.40) The headquarter of WHO is located in which of the following country?
a) Austria
b) Switzerland
c) USA
d) Spain
Passage 3
CP/20/C35
A Delhi court on January 31 postponed the execution of death warrants of the four convicts in the
December 16, 2012 gang rape and murder case till further orders. Additional Sessions Judge
Dharmender Rana passed the order on plea by the convicts seeking a stay on their execution on
February 1. During the hearing, Tihar Jail authorities challenged the application to stay the hanging
of three convicts — Pawan Kumar Gupta, Vinay Kumar Sharma and Akshay Kumar — saying that only
one convict’s plea is pending and the others can be hanged. Advocate A.P. Singh, representing the
convicts, argued that rules dictate that when one convict’s plea is pending the others cannot be
hanged. The fourth person sentenced to death in the case is Mukesh Kumar, whose mercy plea was
dismissed by [1] on January 17.The Supreme Court had on Wednesday dismissed Mukesh’s plea
against the [1] decision. The court had on January 20 issued death warrants for February 1 against
the four convicts — Vinay Sharma (26), Akshay Kumar Singh (31), Mukesh Kumar Singh (32) and
Pawan (26) — in the case. The order now stands stayed till further orders.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nirbhaya–case–delhi–court–postpones–execution–till–
further–orders/article30703226.ece
Q.41) [1] dismissed the mercy plea on January 17 Fill [1] with a suitable option.
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Chief Justice of any High Court
Q.42) Which article of the constitution allows [1] to have the power to grant pardon of punishment?
a) Article 70
b) Article 72
c) Article 74
d) Article 76
Q.43) What does ‘remission’ mean which is inclusive of the 5 types of pardoning?
a) Absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications

b) It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
c) It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
d) It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact
Q.44) In which of the following year Nirbhaya Fund was created?
a) 2011
b) 2012
c) 2013
d) 2014
Passage 4
The annual meeting of the (1) in Davos showed climate change has become a top issue for many
businesses and governments, but also demonstrated a yawning gap between how they view the
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scale of the challenge and what can be achieved without significant new policies. It was a year in
which the issue,
Which many people here believe has contributed to extreme weather–related events such as the
Australian bush fires, appeared to shift from a fashionable talking point to a matter that is beginning
to have real–world consequences for many banks and businesses. A large majority of climate
scientists attribute the rise in global temperatures to the increase of greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere, and blame human activity for much of it. They recommend temperature rises should be
limited to (2) from preindustrial times to minimize the probability of major economic damage and to
do that carbon emissions must be cut.
https://www.wsj.com/articles/climate–changeandideas–for–tackling–itdominateddavos–
11579896026
Q.45) Which of the following can be filled in (1)?
a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

b) World Health Organization (WHO)
c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Q.46) Which of the following can be filled in (2)?
a) 2.2 °C
b) 2.5 °C
c) 1.0 °C
d) 1.5 °C
Q.47) A greenhouse gas (GHG) is a gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal
infrared range. Greenhouse gases cause the greenhouse effect on planets. Which of the following is
NOT a primary greenhouse gas?
a) Water vapor (H2O)

b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c) Methane (CH4)
d) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
Q.48) The __________ was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and later endorsed by the United Nations
General Assembly.
a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

b) Intercontinental Panel on Climate Change
c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
d) Citizens’ Climate Lobby
Q.49) What is the theme of Davos 2019?
a) Creating a shared future in a fractured world
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b) We’re in a new economic era: Globalization 4.0

c) Stakeholders for a cohesive and sustainable world
d) Responsive and responsible leadership
Passage 5
The AP Decentralisation and Equal Development of All Regions Act, 2020 was passed recently. The
Act paves the way to set up three state capitals. The state Cabinet decided to relegate [1] as the
legislative capital and make [2] the executive capital, where the secretariat and Raj Bhavan would be
located. [3] will be developed as judicial capital, where the AP High Court would be located. The AP
Decentralisation and Equal Development of All Regions Bill was introduced by Municipal
Administration and Urban Development Minister B Satyanarayanain and passed amid protests from
Opposition Telugu Desam Party MLAs.
The AP government says it wants to ensure equal and balanced development, instead of
concentrating on just once place, and thereby develop three state capitals. Finance Minister B
Rajendranath told the Assembly the government wants to introduce zonal development by dividing
the state into four zones, each with three or four districts to ensure balanced development. Zonal
development boards will be set up to recommend and accelerate growth and development, the
government maintains.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/andhra–assembly–passes–bill–forthree–state–capitals–
6226978/
Q.50) Which of the following will fill [1]?
a) Amravati
b) Visakhapatnam
c) Kurnool
d) Guntur
a) Amravati
b) Visakhapatnam
c) Kurnool
d) Guntur
a) Amravati
b) Visakhapatnam
c) Kurnool
d) Guntur
Q.53) Which of the following countries has three capitals?
a) South Africa
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b) Brazil
c) Italy
d) Spain
Q.54) When Telengana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh in 2014, which city was selected to serve
as the capital of Andhra Pradesh?
a) Amravati
b) Visakhapatnam
c) Kurnool
d) Guntur
Passage 6
Zomato announced the acquisition of Uber’s food delivery business Uber Eats, in India, in an all–
stock deal that will give the U.S.–headquartered ride–hailing services 9.99% stake in Zomato.
Uber Eats’ operations in the country have been discontinued and users, along with restaurants and
delivery partners are being directed to Zomato. Uber, which is aiming to turn profitable by 2021, has
about 26,000 restaurants listed on the platform across 41 cities. According to sources, while the
Uber Eats India business comprised 3% of the global gross bookings for the company, it accounted
for more than 25% of the company’s adjusted EBITDA losses for the first three quarters of 2019 amid
stiff competition from Zomato and Swiggy.
The National Restaurant Association of India (NRAI) said the acquisition will have little or no impact
on the broader food delivery space, given that Uber Eat’s share in the overall delivery pie was
minuscule. “Over the last one year, Uber Eats has been a very marginal player in the whole game,
with Swiggy and Zomato dominating 90% of the market,” said Anurag Katriar, president, NRAI
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/small–iz/startups/newsbuzz/zomato–uber–eats–deal–to–
upappet i te – o f–gl o b a l – i n vest o r s /articleshow/73508662.cms
Q.55) US based company, Uber eats has its headquarters at _____.
a) Washington
b) Chicago
c) New York
d) San Francisco
Q.56) The US headquartered company UberEats, started its operations in India in _____.
a) 2017
b) 2015
c) 2014
d) 2013
Q.57) EBITDA is a measure of a company’s operating performance. This term was introduced by
_____?
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a) Mike Pence
b) John C Malone
c) Mark Esper
d) William Barr
Q.58) Zomato has acquired Uber’s Food Delivery Business in India in an all–stockdeal. Uber will have
_____ stake in the parent Organisation Zomato.
a) 7.77%
b) 9.88%
c) 9.99%
d) 6.66%
Q.59) Zomato is an Indian restaurant aggregator and food delivery start up,founded by _____ in
2008.
a) Rahul Soni
b) Sachin Bansal
c) Ravindra Singh
d) Deepinder Goyal
Passage 7
National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports. [1] is
given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson
over a period of four year, Arjuna Award is given for consistently outstanding performance for four
years, Dronacharya Award for coaches is given for producing medal winners at prestigious
International sports events. Dhyan Chand Award for life time contribution to sports development
and Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar are given to the corporate entities (both in private and public
sector) and individuals who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and
development. Overall top performing university in inter–university tournaments is given Maulana
Abul Kalam Azad Trophy.
A large number of nominations were received for these awards this year (2019), which were
considered by the Selection Committees consisting of former Arjuna Awardees, Dronacharya
Awardees, Sport Journalists/Experts/Commentators and Sports Administrators. Selection Committee
for the Sports Awards 2019 was headed by [2], Retired Judge, Supreme Court.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1546804
Q.60) Name the highest sports award that has been replaced with [1]?
a) Arjuna Award
b) Dronacharya Award
c) Dhyan Chand Award
d) Rajiv Gandhi khel ratna
Q.61) Who is the first woman para–athlete to be awarded [1]?
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a) Deepa karmakar
b) Sakshi Malik
c) Deepa malik
d) Mansi Joshi
Q.62) Who has been replaced by [2]?
a) Justice A.K. Sikri

b) Justice B.N. Srikrishna
c) Justice Jasti Chelameswar
d) Justice Mukundakam Sharma
Q.63) Which is the highest award given in the field of medicine in India?
a) Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy award

b) Dr. Chameli Devi award
c) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan award
d) Dr. Shanti Swarup bhatnagar award
Q.64) Which is the highest gallantry award at peacetime in India?
a) Paramveer chakra
b) Kirti Chakra
c) Ashoka Chakra
d) Veer Chakra
Passage 8
The ministry of [1] recently set up a seven–member panel of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
to locate the grave of the Mughal prince [2] (1615–59). He is believed to be buried somewhere in
the Humayun’s Tomb complex in Delhi, one of around 140 graves of the Mughal clan.
Headed by [3], Director–Monument at ASI, the panel has senior archaeologists R S Bisht, Sayeed
Jamal Hassan, K N Dikshit, B R Mani, K K Muhammed, Satish Chandra, and B M Pandey as members.
It has been given three months. “For the findings to be conclusive, the three–month time can be
extended. The panel will use architectural evidence from that time, and also written history and any
other information that can be used as evidence,” [1] Minister Prahlad Patel said.
The eldest son of Shah Jahan, Dara Shikoh was killed after losing the war of succession against his
brother Aurangzeb. Dara Shikoh is described as a “liberal Muslim” who tried to find commonalities
between Hindu and Islamic traditions. He translated into Persian the Bhagavad Gita as well as 52
Upanishads.
https://aspirantworld.in/dara–shikoh/
Q.65) Which ministry has been replaced by [1]?
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a) Environment
b) Culture
c) Science and Technology
d) Home affairs
Q.66) Name the Mughal prince whose name has been replaced by [2].
a) Akbar
b) Dara Shikoh
c) Aurangjeb
d) Jehangir
Q.67) The seven member panel is headed by [3]. Name [3].
a) T J Alone
b) Prahlad Joshi
c) Injeti Srinivas
d) Justice ranjan Gogoi
Q.68) Name the Italian traveller who gave a graphical description of the period of [2].
a) Fa hien
b) Niccolao Manucci
c) Megasthenes
d) Al Baruni
Q.69) Who built the Humayun tomb and in which year?
a) 1578, Hamida Begum

b) 1580, Rukkaiya Begum
c) 1570, Hamida Begum
d) 1572, Akbar
Section – III: Legal Reasoning

Passage 1
While the right to health has not been textually guaranteed as a fundamental right in the Indian
constitution, it has by now been firmly entrenched as such. Through a series of progressive
pronouncements delivered in the last two decades, starting from the 1995 case of Consumer
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Education and Research Centre v. Union of India, the Supreme Court has recognised the right as
flowing from Right to Life under Article 21 of the constitution.
At a time when cases of COVID-19 are on the rise in India, as lawyer Gautam Bhatia notes, the right
to health demands that a set of steps be taken by the Indian government to ensure the vindication
of this right for India’s 1.3 billion people. The Supreme Court has not thus far articulated the full
contours of the right in a manner that is analytically well-structured and theoretically coherent.
However, some principles emerging from the jurisprudence in India on the right to health are of
great significance in determining the manner in which the Union and state governments should
respond to the current crisis.
In Navtej Johar, when a 5-judge bench of the Supreme Court decriminalised homosexual intercourse,
in his concurring opinion, Justice Chandrachud pertinently held:
“Article 21 does not impose upon the State only negative obligations not to act in such a way as to
interfere with the right to health. This Court also has the power to impose positive obligations upon
the State to take measures to provide adequate resources or access to treatment facilities to secure
effective enjoyment of the right to health.”
Further, the court has held that financial difficulties cannot come in the way of making medical
facilities available to the people. Since this is the state’s constitutional obligation, whatever is
necessary in this regard needs to be done.
[Rahul Bajaj, “Can the Judiciary Invoke Right to Health to Demand a More Vigorous Response to
COVID-19?”, The Wire.]
Q.70) Which of the following, if true, would defeat the argument that Right to Health is a
fundamental right under the ambit of Right to Life guaranteed by Article 21?
a) That the Supreme Court is violating Separation of Powers by overstepping its mandate by liberally
interpreting a fundamental right and placing positive obligations on the State.
b) That the State may be held responsible for the well-being of its citizens irrespective of lack of
financial means to provide for the same.
c) That the fundamental rights, as expressly stated, are only the basic minimum required to be
followed by the State, but is not the ceiling limit.
d) That the complete ambit of Right to Health has not been laid down by the Supreme Court,
thereby not allowing the State to respect the same.
Q.71) Which of the following would be a legally desirable course of action to be taken by a person
who is in dire need of intensive medical care?
a) Approach the Supreme Court pleading the Court to direct the State to provide for such medical
care.
b) Approach the appropriate Government authority requesting for the medical care, and if such
authority pays no heed, approach the Supreme Court.
c) Approach a private hospital and get a reimbursement of the expenses bill from the appropriate
Government authority.
d) Request the State Assembly to pass a law which guarantees Right to Health and then enforce the
same.
CP/20/C35
Passage 2
Insanity (unsoundness of mind in the Indian Penal Code) is one of the general exceptions to criminal
liability. The maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea renders that a criminal act is not
punishable if not accompanied by a guilty mind. The justification for providing unsoundness of mind
as a complete defence is that an insane person is incapable of forming criminal intent. Further, a
mad man has no will (furiosis nulla voluntas est) and he is like one who is absent (furiosus absentis
low est).
A person can be said incapable of knowing 'nature' of the act if he, at the time of doing it, was
ignorant of the physical characters of the act. A good illustration is to be found in the case of the
idiot (sic) who cut off the head of a man whom he found sleeping because, as he explained, it would
be such fun to watch him looking about for his head when he awoke. It is quite certain that he had
no idea that his fun would be lost, because the man would never awake. If at the time of committing
the offence the accused knew the nature of the act, he is obviously punishable.
Medical insanity is not the same as legal insanity. The accused have to prove that not only were they
unsound generally, but also during the commission of the offence. Temporary loss of control,
excessive nature of violence, a trifling matter as motive, etc. are not indicators of insanity by
themselves.
Q.72) A wife was accused of killing her husband with a cleaver with one slash because he refused to
cook food for her when she returned home from work. They had been married for a year and had a
history of quarrelling, as testified by the neighbours and relatives. She pleaded the defence of
insanity
a) Her defence would be allowed as the motive was so trivial, i.e., non-preparation of a meal, that no
person of a sound mind would commit such a crime.
b) Her defence would be allowed as she definitely has an undiagnosed condition that led her to do
this
c) Her defence would not be allowed as it was committed in the heat of the moment and that does
not necessarily mean unsoundness of mind.
d) Both a & b
Q.73) In addition to the same facts as the above question, for the purposes of this question only,
imagine if the wife also had a history of schizophrenia diagnosed by medical experts. She did not
demonstrate any symptoms in the past year and a half. After she committed the murder, she
immediately hid the body and the cleaver. She then tried to flee to her sister’s house in USA before
which she was apprehended by the police. How would this affect her plea of insanity?
a) Her defence of insanity would be allowed as she had clearly been diagnosed with a serious mental
illness that affected soundness of her mind.
b) Her immediate behaviour after the crime demonstrates she had sufficient knowledge about the
consequences of her crime, and she had not demonstrated symptoms in the past year and a half.
Her defence of insanity would not be allowed.
CP/20/C35
c) Her defence would be allowed as the presence of a serious mental illness, coupled with a trifling
motive and a disproportionately violent response point toward the existence of unsoundness of
mind.
d) This does not affect her defence in any meaningful way.
Q.74) A wife murders her husband with a cleaver. The neighbours hear the husband scream. They
call the cops on her. What would strengthen a potential plea of insanity on part of the defence of
the accused the most out of the following options?
a) Her not fleeing or hiding the weapon or the body despite having considerable time to flee, but
rather sitting next to it smiling.
b) Her having slashed her husband with the weapon a hundred times.
c) Her having a motive of killing the husband so she could have his shares in their company, despite
knowing they are not worth more than ten thousand rupees.
d) Her being intoxicated.
Q.75) A wife murders her husband with a cleaver in order to protect him from committing a sin of
bank fraud which could affect thousands, so that he would still have a place in heaven. The defence
pleads insanity.
a) The plea would pass as she had delusional ideas about life
b) The plea would fail as she was still aware that she is committing murder.
c) The plea would fail as there is clear meticulous calculation on her part.
d) The plea would be successful as that motive is irrational and disproportionate to kill to your
spouse.
Q.76) A wife is in the kitchen preparing herself a meal, while the husband is sitting in the living room
listening to music on noise cancellation headphones. In order to get his attention, the wife decides
to shoot a gun, thinking of it as the fastest way to do so. After shooting one shot, she gets annoyed
that he has now closed his eyes too instead of paying attention. So she shoots two more rounds.
Frustrated that she is not being paid attention to, she examines the gun to see if its working and
tries it on her foot. A cop who was a neighbour, hears the gunshots, breaks the door and arrests the
woman. Her lawyer pleads insanity.
a) She committed murder

b) She committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c) Her plea would be allowed as she did not seem to under the consequences of shooting a person.
She had no intention to murder.
d) None of the above.
Passage 3
In January 2017, the Indian media reported on an exceptional legal battle playing out before the
Delhi High Court regarding a young lady suffering from multi-drug resistant tuberculosis, suing the
Indian government for access to a new TB drug called Bedaquiline that was supposed to be effective
on TB patients resistant to all forms of drugs. One of the six government hospitals authorised to
administer the drug at the time had reportedly denied access to it on the grounds that the patient
did not meet certain domicile requirements. At the time, most media outlets did not explain why the
CP/20/C35
government was curbing access to this new drug through the domicile rule. The few that did venture
forth to give an explanation gave conflicting versions.
Scroll quoted the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) chief to explain that the drug was being
rolled out slowly because it was yet to be tested on patients and that it had demonstrated some
problems related to cardio-toxicity. The Hindu, however, carried a long interview with Dr. Jennifer
Furin sitting in America, claiming that the Indian government was not giving access to the drug
because of fears of building drug resistance – patients who started treatment on the drug but did
not finish treatment would become resistant to the drug and in the process pose the danger of
transmitting a new version of the TB bacteria that was resistant to even the latest drugs.
We filed RTI applications with the Ministry of health and the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)
requesting an explanation and legal basis as to why the drug was not being made widely available.
The responses from both authorities were very surprising. The ministry claimed that the safety
profile of the drug was not yet established since Phase III trials had not been completed and hence
the drug was being made available only through a conditional access programme. Both responses
were conflicting because for a drug to be approved under regulatory law, it needs to go through
three phases of clinical testing. Phase I and Phase II are relatively small trials and Phase III trials are
the riskiest phase involving thousands of patients and are meant to conclusively establish both the
safety and efficacy of the drug.
Under Indian law, there is no provision to waive off Phase III trials (the law only allows the
government to waive off the requirement to carry out local trials on Indian patients provided there is
Phase III data from global trials). If the government had followed the procedure under the law, it
should have insisted that Janssen, the company that owns the patent for Bedaquiline, conduct
clinical trials in India before any kind of approval could be granted.
If the government had adopted this approach, the patients who have been administered the drug
would have been entitled to certain rights under the law, such as compensation if the drug caused
them harm and more importantly, it would have ensured that the trials were covered by a legal
regime designed to reduce conflict of interest and possible harm to patients.
When we dug a little deeper and found the consent forms that patients had to sign before they got
access to the drug, we discovered that the government was forcing the patients to give up their right
to any compensation in case anything went wrong, and more worryingly failed to warn patients that
Bedaquiline was not yet fully tested and that earlier clinical trials had reported higher patient deaths
in the cohort that was being administered Bedaquiline.
[Edited and revised from: https://www.newslaundry.com/2018/05/10/tb-health-reporting-india-

bedaquiline-the-hindu]
Q.77) What was the supposed illegality or infirmity that the reporter had discovered?
a) That domicile requirements for granting access to medicines was illegal under relevant laws.
b) That approval was granted without the required Phase III trials.
c) That patients were being made to sign consent forms waiving away their legal rights that they
were entitled to otherwise.
d) Both b & c.
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Q.78) What should be the desirable step to be taken with regard to access to the drug Bedaquiline?
a) Waiving away the domicile requirement.

b) Abolishing the unethical consent forms.
c) Punish Scroll and the Hindu for wrong reportage.
d) To not give approval until Stage III trials are completed.
Q.79) Janssen wanted to release a new and improved version of the Bedaquiline in India. The first
two trials showed promising results according to the company, but the Food and Drug
Administration of USA did not concur. They struck a deal with the Indian Government agreeing to
supply drugs free of cost without approvals, so that they could gain access to precious data that FDA
would probably not allow them to have. Is this valid under Indian Law?
a) It is only a conditional access programme, so this is entirely legal.

b) Since the drugs are not supplied in a market but are supplied free of cost, such legal
considerations do not weigh in.
c) Before any kind of approval is granted, Phase III of clinical trials must be completed.
d) Due to the hesitation of FDA in granting approval to an otherwise life-saving drug, such access is
vital for the protection of patients’ lives.
Q.80) If Janssen had allowed the drugs to be disbursed without the domicile requirement, and
without the unethical consent forms, would the illegality be cured?
a) Yes, a patient cannot be forced to waive away his right to compensation.

b) Yes, the domicile requirement was arbitrary, and restricted patients unfairly on the place of
residence.
c) No, Phase III trials are still not complete.
d) Both a & b
Passage 4
A story of alleged sexual harassment of a former Court staff of the Supreme Court by Chief Justice of
India was published by certain online news websites. Before the gravity of the situation could sink in,
a notice came to be published by the Supreme Court that a special sitting of the court has been
convened at 10.30 AM to deal with a “matter of great public importance touching upon the
independence of the judiciary.”
The special bench hearing the matter would comprise CJI and two other Justices. Further, the notice
also stated that the matter was being taken up on a Special mention being made by Solicitor
General. Reporters rushed to the Supreme Court as the matter was about the sexual harassment
allegations against CJI. CJI spoke at length about the allegations being untrue and how the same was
intended to target the judiciary. He said that the judiciary was under a “serious threat”.
He also maintained that he was being targeted in this manner stating that he has an unblemished
career of more than twenty years during which he has been able to amass only Rs. 6.8 lakh in
savings. Since allegations regarding financial propriety could not be raised, such tactics of sexual
harassment allegations were being resorted to.
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During the course of the hearing, the Bench had said that it will not pass any order since CJI Gogoi is
on the Bench (as this would be a conflict of interest since the case relates to CJI Gogoi personally). In
such cases, what usually happens is that a judge recuses and the order passed will record the same
while sending the matter to CJI for listing before appropriate Bench. In such an order, the names of
all the judges on the Bench including the one who has recused is reflected. However, that
convention does not seem to have been followed in today’s order. The order reflects the name of
only Justices Arun Mishra and Sanjiv Khanna though CJI Ranjan Gogoi was very much a part of the
Bench.
Rules of Natural Justice are procedural rules that regulate exercise of State power. Two fundamental
rules of fair procedure: (i) Every person has the right to be heard in his defence, or ‘audi alteram
partem’; and (ii) No man shall be a judge in his own cause, or ‘nemo debit esse judex in propria
causa’. Audi Alteram Partem further contains several requirements such as serving of notice
containing details of the trial, right to be heard, right of cross examination of witnesses, right to legal
representation, reasoned order with detailed rationale, etc. The second principle provides that no
man should be a judge in his own cause so as to create not just actual impartiality but also the
semblance of it.
[Extracted and modified, source: https://www.barandbench.com/columns/bizarre-order-sexual-

harassment-allegations-cji-ranjan-gogoi]
Q.81) What could have led to the judges upholding the first principle of natural justice (audi alteram
partem) the most, out of these options?
a) The Judge-accused recusing himself from the matter.

b) The Judge signing his name on the order passed..
c) The Complainant along with her legal representative being present and allowed to present legal
submissions.
d) Both a & b.
Q.82) The CJI is the master of the roster, wherein it is he/she who decides what matter is heard by
what bench. This particular matter pertained straight to the core of the Judiciary’s legitimacy, which
is very important to uphold if it has to require the citizens to adhere to its orders. Therefore, it was
necessary for the CJI to sit on the matter himself. Do you agree?
a) Yes, despite the principle of ‘nemo debit esse…’, the CJI was still the master of the roster and
could not have recused himself as he held the highest judicial office.
b) No, these principles are important to be upheld no matter which State function you perform, and
it more essential that justice is also seen to be done here.
c) Yes, as the CJI did not sign off on the order.
d) No, upholding the legitimacy of the Court is not the job of the CJI.
Q.83) The CJI-led bench decided to set up an Internal Complaints Committee, which decided to hear
the victim’s testimony. It comprised of male judges other than the CJI. The committee decided that
the victim had baselessly levelled allegations against the CJI, motivated by political reasons and the
fact that he had no ill-gotten gains. The committee did not elucidate why. Is this a valid order?
a) No, because the CJI himself hand-picked the judges.
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b) No, because the order did not contain the reasoning and evidence considered behind the
conclusion reached by the committee.
c) No, because the CJI did not follow the proper order as per principles of natural justice. As per the
law, a woman must head the Internal Complaints Committee.
d) Both a & b.
Q.84) The complainant was not allowed to take part in the proceedings. However, the Committee
passed a properly reasoned order after hearing all other witnesses, including the CJI. After
considering all evidence, the Committee convicted the CJI of offence A, a lesser offence compared to
offence B, which the victim filed the charges for.
a) This is a valid order, as all witnesses were heard.

b) This is a valid order, and it is not necessary that the victim’s charges for the basis for conviction
always.
c) This is a valid order, as it was properly reasoned.
d) This is an invalid order, as one party was not heard at all.
Q.85) A Principal was accused of assaulting a student. The student’s parents filed a complaint with
the school board, of which the Principal was a part. The hearings were conducted over the span of
three days, where all witnesses were considered, both sides were heard and a reasoned order was
passed punishing the Principal with one weeks suspension without pay. The student’s parents
protested the order.
a) This order is valid as all principles of natural justice were followed.

b) The parents’ protests is invalid as despite the Principal being a part of the board, there was still
punishment against himself. It cannot be said that the order is biased.
c) It is not only important that justice is done, but it must also be seen to be done. Principal should
never have been a part of the board.
d) Both a and b.
Passage 5
Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure must be one of the most well-known provisions under
Indian law. The most popular conception of an order under Section 144 is that no more than three
persons are allowed to congregate together publicly. This, however, is just one form of the order.
Section 144 confers extremely wide-ranging powers that allow the district magistrate to order any
person to “abstain from a certain act” or to “take certain order with respect to certain property in
his possession or under his management”.
It is expected to be an emergency power to be used to prevent public disorder and to protect human
life. In a system and country, where the concept of restrictions on executive power is considered a
naive or arcane idea, orders under Section 144 are used to prohibit protests, block the internet and
even cable TV services. What this order does is to empower the police to break up demonstrations
or protests which they, in their subjective assessment, do not approve of.
The imposition of an order under Section 144 does not grant authority to the police to become
violent. The police can use violence to disperse an ‘unlawful assembly’ only if the situation warrants
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so. Otherwise, the procedure has to be the same as committing any offence under the IPC - file an
FIR and prosecute.
The Supreme Court was faced with the issue of police excesses for the purpose of enforcing an order
under Section 144, when, in 2011, a crowd led by Baba Ramdev was removed from the Ramlila
grounds during the night. While holding that Section 144 was rightly imposed, the court ordered
compensation for the injured and noted that individual police officials had violated constitutional
rights.
The court observed that: “The police authorities, who are required to maintain the social order and
public tranquillity, should have a say in the organizational matters relating to holding of dharnas,
processions, agitations and rallies of the present kind. However, such consent should be considered
in a very objective manner by the police authorities to ensure the exercise of the right to freedom of
speech and expression as understood in its wider connotation, rather than use the power to
frustrate or throttle the constitutional right. Hence, protests and sit-ins which are peaceful should
not be met with the imposition of Section 144 unless required by the circumstances.”
[Source: Sarim Naved, Section 144 Is Not a Cover for Unchecked Police Action,
https://thewire.in/law/section-144-police-protests]
Q.86) Mangal Murmu refuses to dance at a government function. When the indigent Murmu first
receives an invitation to perform, he is pleased. He soon learns that the occasion is the inauguration
of construction activity for a privately funded thermal plant by the President of India. The land on
which the plant is to be built is part of a village whose residents have been evicted through official
diktat. Murmu’s daughter and her family is part of the evictee group and has been forced to move to
her father’s house. ‘You are making us Santhals dance in Pakur’, Mangal Murmu wants to say to the
officials who are organising the ceremony, ’and you are displacing Santhals from their villages in
Godda.’ (Excerpt from ‘This Adivasi Will Not Dance’)
However, Murmu instead of voicing his opinion, refuses to perform at the slated time and stages a
peaceful dharna outside the premises, at which he is joined by his fellow dance troupe. You have to
advice the Police.
a) This event is a high-profile VIP event. It taps into widespread anger among the Santhals and it
might potentially get violent. Sec 144 should be imposed and the crowds should be dispersed.
b) The reaction of the President’s guard might turn violent at this indignation of the first citizen of
India (President). Sec 144 must be imposed to protect life and tranquillity of the protesting Santhals.
c) Sec 144 cannot be imposed as the Santhals have a democratic right of protest, and they are only
staging a peaceful dharna.
d) Sec 144 must be imposed as this is an illegal protest, land is already sold. Nothing can be
accomplished now.
Q.87) The Anti-CAA protestors sought permission from the police to hold a rally at Marine Drive,
which was denied. The police suggested that they hold the rally at Azad Maidan instead, as it would
cause hardship to residents and travellers of the congested city of Mumbai who do not care about
the cause. The protestors decide that Marine Drive is better for visibility and decide to protest there.
They do not leave despite repeated pleas from the police, but sit peacefully in the middle of the busy
stretch.
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a) The Police would be justified in imposing Sec 144 as it there would be widespread disorder caused
by traffic jams in a congested city like Mumbai.
b) The Police cannot impose Sec 144 as the protestors have a constitutional right of protest.
c) The Police can impose Sec 144 as the protestors have refused to co-ordinate, despite the police
giving permission at a different location for cogent reasons.
d) Both a & c.
Q.88) During a communally charged riot, the cops started lathi charging the rioters. Sec 144 was
imposed swiftly thereafter to bring the law and order situation under control. Once the situation was
under control, the cops started patrolling the neighbourhood to make sure everything remained
calm. During one such patrol, a cop recognised a rioter sitting inside a restaurant eating his meal
with two other persons present at the riots. He immediately starts lathi charging them.
a) This is illegal as they were a lawful group of three eating peacefully.

b) This is illegal as this force was excessive, due to the fact that there was no foreseeable threat from
them at the time.
c) This is illegal as the correct course of action would be registering an FIR as the riots were now
over, and the situation was brought under control.
Q.89) The stubble burning problem has caused excessive pollution in the State of Haryana, Punjab,
and the NCT of Delhi. A law has been passed requiring the farmers to extract and deposit the stubble
at the stubble-bank. However, the farmers oppose this law and conduct ‘mass stubble burning
events’ to voice their dissent. The District Magistrate wants to impose Sec 144 over a district in
Haryana over crop burning causing a sharp spike in pollution during winter. This is due to the
severity of the pollution problem, especially affecting the weaker sections of society. Considering
that the farmers resorting to such practice were adamant in continuing with the same despite
repeated please, advise the District Magistrate:
a) The DM should impose Sec 144, as it pertains to a situation where severe health risks lie.
b) This is hardly an emergency, pollution is a slow, gradual phenomenon.
c) This is not a valid ground or the intended use of Sec 144.
d) The DM should impose Sec 144 as crop burning could lead to possible fire hazards.
Q.90) There was a widespread looting of electronic stores on Lamington Road in Mumbai after a
electricity shutdown. The losses were to the tune of nearly a hundred crore. Several boom boxes and
stereo sets were stolen. What could be the most appropriate action that the police can take when
Sec 144 is imposed?
a) Police can lathi charge any one spotted suspiciously listening to music on large speakers in the
area.
b) Police can enter each and every house to search for stolen hardware around the area.
c) The Police can arrest anyone in the demographics 15-35 who might be spotted in the area and
appear to have a proclivity to listen to loud music.
d) The Police can prevent the looting at the moment, and eventually investigate the thefts to find
the culprits.
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Passage 6
A agreement entered into by a minor cannot be enforceable by law. The principle of estoppel
prevents a party from gaining from its own wrong doing, whether intentional or otherwise. Further,
such an agreement cannot be validated after the minor person reaches the age of majority.
However, this principle is not applicable to agreement entered into with minors as they do not have
any legal effects. This means that the other party cannot recover any property given to the minor.
This rule has an exception, where if the property or money is traceable, the other party can recover
it. A guardian can enter into contracts on behalf of a minor. If there is such a case of a guardian being
present, then the age of majority for the minor is not eighteen, but twenty-one.
A minor, whose guardian had left town for three weeks, had mortgaged his house to a money lender
for two crore rupees for sustenance money, without permission. The money lender advanced one
and a half crore. Mr. S. Nitch pointed out to the money lender that his client is a minor and
prevented the property papers from reaching the money lender.
Q.91) The money lender can recover the money only if:
a) He can show that his intention was honest.

b) He was deceived by the minor.
c) He can trace the money with the minor.
d) Both a & b.
Q.92) The supposed minor can argue that the sale is valid if:
a) He proves that he is of sound mind, capable of understanding the consequences of his actions.
b) The sale transaction was rational and in his own interest.
c) If he proves he really requires the money for self-sustenance.
d) He proves he was not a minor at the time of the contract.
Q.93) The minor has already spent all his money. Should the money lender be allowed to recover?
a) Yes, because he was unjustly duped.

b) Yes, because the minor will soon attain majority and the transaction will be valid again.
c) No, because an agreement with a minor is not enforceable by law.
d) Both a and b.
Q.94) Assuming the supposed minor is eighteen, the challenge by Mr. Nitch may fall if:
a) The supposed minor has barely attained majority and cannot be capable of handling such huge
sums of money.
b) Though the supposed minor is now eighteen, he will be treated as a minor due to the presence of
the guardian.
c) The supposed minor, despite turning eighteen, had no necessity of entering in this contract.
d) Both b & c.
Q.95) Which of the following statements is correct, in the light of the passage and the facts given in
the first question of this passage?
a) The money lender will recover all the money because he did not have the required mens rea.
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b) The money lender can acquire the permission of the guardian and make the contract valid
retroactively.
c) The money lender entered into a contract with a minor and cannot be allowed to benefit from the
transaction.
d) Though the transaction was with a minor without permission of his guardian, it was for the
survival of the minor and the money lender should be allowed to uphold the transaction.
Passage 7
One of the cutting edge topics in trademark law today is the issue of non-conventional trademarks.
As per the Indian Trade Marks Act, a ‘mark’ includes a device, brand, heading, label, ticket, name,
signature, word, letter, numeral, shape of goods, packaging or combination of colours or any
combination thereof that describes a trading concern. The non-exhaustive nature of this list makes
the definition abstract and focuses more on the rationale for affording protection to marks i.e. their
capability to distinguish goods and services for consumers on the basis of trade source.
Non-conventional trademarks, however, include smell and sound marks. In 2001, the European
trademark registry held in the landmark case of Ralf Sieckmann v. Deutsches Patent und Markenamt
that an olfactory mark could not be granted to a “methyl cinnamate” scent, described as
“balsamically fruity with a slight hint of cinnamon” for its failure to fulfil the graphical representation
requirement. The strict standards for graphical representation laid down in Sieckmann were adopted
in the Indian Draft Manual of Trade Marks (2015), which although lacking the force of law, noted
that scent marks cannot be graphically represented under Indian trademark law. The graphical
representation requirement was waived in the EU as per the Trademark Reform Package (2017),
though non-traditional trademarks would still need to comply with the clarity and precision
standards as per the CJEU’s judgment in Sieckmann, which require the mark to be: clear, precise,
self-contained, easily accessible, intelligible, durable and objective.
An illustrative example of a prohibition on ‘smell marks’ is the case of Norwich Pharmacal Co. v.
Sterling Drug, Inc., where the U.S. Court of Appeals observed that the colour pink for a liquid
preparation used to treat stomach disorders was functional and thereby could not be monopolised
by a single producer as it provided a “pleasing appearance to the customer and sufferer.” This broad
ruling is critical as smell marks are typically and will predictably be used to improve the overall
experience of using the product that they’re attached to. When the product is inherently ugly,
unpalatable or foul smelling, the scent or pleasant appearance may add substantial value to the
product. Therefore, if a medicine smells like strawberry and via some scratch and sniff branding, the
consumer can identify it uniquely at the point of sale, one pharmaceutical company should not be
allowed to monopolise it and exclude other traders from using strawberry smelling medicines. Thus,
smells can be trademarked only if it can be demonstrated that the smell does not add substantial
value to the product and that the consumers’ decisions to buy the product is not based on its smell.
Further, the smell must distinguish the product in the market, allowing the consumer to
unequivocally trace its source at the point of sale.
[Excerpts from https://spicyip.com/2020/03/policy-questions-regarding-protection-of-scent-

marks.html]
Q.96) What is a trademark?
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a) It is the key characteristic of a product, in terms of its composition, use, etc. which helps
distinguish products.
b) It is the differences in symbols or packaging, for example, which helps in distinguishing the brand
or the ‘trade source’
c) It is the mark you see on products when you hold them against the light.
d) It is the stamp on the seal of the containers carrying a product through shipping.
Q.97) What is the issue with using an olfactory mark ‘methyl cinnamate’?
a) It cannot sometimes be defined clearly and precisely.

b) It is not a symbol.
c) It cannot be defined graphically.
d) Both a & c.
Q.98) What is the least likely olfactory mark to get trademark protection?
a) A bag smelling of strawberry.

b) A leather diary rubbed with lavender oil.
c) A breast milk alternative that makes the smell appealing to toddlers who cannot consume it
otherwise.
d) A USB Cord smelling of hibiscus.
Q.99) What is most likely to be a trademark among these?
a) The Intel sound.

b) Daft Punk’s music sheet.
c) The secret recipe of KFC.
d) Building plans for Taipei 101.
Q.100) A mark may become a Trademark under common law if it is used over time and is associated
by the people to belong to a particular brand or company. Cadbury claims the its traditional
purple/blue colour has become a trademark due to its usage over time. When shown to a test group
without any prompts, markings or indications, only 13% of the participants could guess where the
colour came from accurately. Other participants confused it (also accurately) with other brands even
though only Cadbury uses that colour, and no one has applied for that trademark either. Would this
be granted a trademark?
a) No, as the purpose of trademarks is to enable consumers to differentiate the trade source, the
test group results show that it does not help consumers recognise the product-source at its point of
sale without confusion.
b) Yes, as it is the first company to apply for that particular shade.
c) No, you cannot trademark colours.
d) Yes, this test is not an indication of anything.
S.101–103) Directions for Questions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that
follow:
Passage 8
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The constitution, of course, provides that the Senate has the sole role and power to try all
impeachments. In exercising that power the Senate must consider three issues in this case. The first
is whether the evidence presented by the House managers establishes by the appropriate standard
of proof, proof beyond a reasonable doubt, that the factual allegations occurred. The second is
whether if these factual allegations occurred, did they rise to the level of abuse of power and/or
obstruction of Congress? Finally, the Senate must determine whether abuse of power and
obstruction of Congress are constitutionally authorized criteria for impeachment.
The first issue is largely factual, and I leave that to others. The second is a combination of traditional
and constitutional law, and I will touch on those. The third is a matter of pure constitutional law. Do
charges of abuse and obstruction rise to the level of impeachable offenses under the constitution? I
will begin as all constitutional analysis begins with the text of the constitution governing
impeachment. I will then examine why the framers selected the words they did as the sole criteria
authorizing impeachment. I ask your indulgence as I quote from the wisdom of our founders.
This return to the days of yesteryear is necessary because the issue today is not what the criteria of
impeachment should be, not what a legislative body or a constitutional body might today decide are
the proper criteria for impeachment of a president, but what the framers of our constitution actually
chose and what they expressively and implicitly rejected. I will ask whether the framers would have
accepted such vague and open-ended terms as abuse of power and obstruction of Congress as
governing criteria.
I will show by a close review of the history that they did not and would not accept such criteria for
fear that these criteria would turn our new republic into a British style parliamentary democracy in
which the chief’s executives tenure would be in the words of James Madison, the father of our
constitution, “At the pleasure of the legislature.”
The conclusion I will offer for your consideration is similar, though not identical, to that advocated
by highly respected Justice Benjamin Curtis, who as you know, dissented from the Supreme Court’s
notorious decision in Dred Scott and who, after resigning in protest from the High Court, served as
counsel to president Andrew Johnson in the Senate impeachment trial. He argued and I quote,
“There can be no crime, there can be no misdemeanor without a law written or unwritten, express
or implied.”
The main thrust of my argument, however, and the one most relevant to these proceedings is that
even if that position is not accepted, even if criminal conduct were not required, the framers of our
constitution implicitly rejected, and if it had been presented to them, would have explicitly rejected
such vague terms as abuse of power and obstruction of Congress as among the enumerated and
defined criteria for impeaching a president. You will recall that among the articles of impeachment
against President Johnson were accusations of non-criminal but outrageous misbehavior, including
ones akin to the abuse of power and obstruction of Congress.
Q.101) Which of the following is a source(s) of constitutional analysis of impeachment articles,

according to the passage?
a) The text of the constitution.

b) The intention of the framers.
c) The criteria set out by a present-day legislative body, based on its interpretation of the text?
d) Both a & b.
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Q.102) What, of the following, is not the criteria that the Senate is to fulfil before impeaching the
president?
a) Proving allegations beyond reasonable doubt.

b) Is abuse of power a valid constitutional ground for impeachment.
c) Whether the (proven) allegations for abuse of power.
Q.103) In which of the following circumstances, according to the Dred Scott and Alan Dershowitz
(speaker in the passage), there be a legal category of a wrong termed as ‘crime’?
a) In the absence of an explicit law.

b) In the presence of an unwritten law.
c) In the absence of a written law.
d) In the presence of a vague and open-ended word describing a crime, such as ‘idiocy’.
follow:
Passage 9
Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution grants the fundamental right to citizens of not being
discriminated against on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Article 32 of the
Indian Constitution grants the remedy to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental
Rights. One of the most fundamental principles of justice that judges use to evaluate cases invoking
equality provisions (such as Article 15) states that ‘equals must be treated equally and unequals
unequally’, a concept theorised as ‘substantive equality’.
A law was passed in Punjab banning employment of male Russian performers under the age of 25
and female Russian nationals in establishments that serve liquor. The intention behind the act was
to stop the ‘destruction of the moral fabric of the country’. A minister was also quoted by the Press
saying that this Act was brought in to protect these workers who are at ‘higher risk of being targets
of crime, especially of a sexual nature’. Aleksandr and Nikita were Russian nationals living in India
who were affected by this Act. They challenged this Act at the Supreme Court, arguing this law was
discriminatory on the basis of sex and place of birth.
Q.104) Can the Supreme Court strike down this law on the basis of the fundamental right enshrined
in Article 15?
a) Yes, this Act squarely violates Article 15 as it creates distinctions on the basis of sex and place of
birth.
b) No, the fundamental right under Article 15 is applicable only to Indian citizens.
c) No, this Act treats unequals unequally as evidenced by the Minister’s press statement. This Act is
necessary for their protection. Supreme Court has no authority here.
d) No, this law deals with employment of individuals in private establishments, the State is not
discriminating against anyone.
Q.105) Notwithstanding the reference to Russian nationality, is the impugned Act discriminatory on
the grounds of sex?
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a) No, it is not discriminatory on the grounds of sex, it creates a distinction on grounds of

susceptibility to crime.
b) Yes, women are treated as different from men where there exists no credible reason to
discriminate. Women are as capable as every other human to make their own choices.
c) No, even certain men are prohibited. It has nothing to do with gender, just crime rates and moral
concerns.
d) Both, b & c.
Q.106) Article 15(3) provides that nothing in Article 15 shall prevent the State from making special
provisions for women and children. It was brought in to allow positive discrimination to enable
women to achieve genuine equality with men. Would 15(3) enable the Court to uphold the validity
of the Act?
a) Yes, as this provision aims to prevent women from facing higher crime, bringing equality of the
sexes.
b) Yes, as this provision allows the State to make special provisions regarding women and the nature
of such establishments require special regulation. It cannot be treated like other forms of
employment.
c) No, this provision puts the onus of crime upon its victims. This law cannot get protection of Article
15(3) as it prevents achievement of genuine equality.
d) Yes, this Article provides for special provisions for women and children. It cannot apply here as
only women are being dealt with as the subject of this Act.
Q.107) This law also introduced provisions for paternity and maternity leave for all employees under
the jurisdiction of excise department. The former was merely two months, while the latter was a
whole year. Gaurav challenged this Act on the grounds of violation of Article 15 and Article 15 (3).
a) His challenge will be successful as men and women are treated as separate, the basis is
discriminatory.
b) His challenge will be unsuccessful as women and men are not equals when it comes to child
rearing due to their biological differences, even if they have to shoulder the same responsibility
towards the child.
c) His challenge will be unsuccessful as Article 15(3) allows for special provisions for women and
children.
d) Both b & c.
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

S.108–110) Directions for Questions: Hyundai, A car manufacturing company, has five
manufacturing plants – Zahirabad, Manesar, Pantnagar, Vellore and Thane. In 2019, Hyundai
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manufactured only two models of SUVs i.e. CRETA and TUSCON. The following table gives
information about the production capacity of the five manufacturing units of India for the year 2019.
CRETA TUCSON
Production Production
Manufacturing Capacity Capacity
Capacity (in Capacity (in
Plant Utilization (in %) Utilization (in %)
thousand) thousand)
Zahirabad 36 40% 34 80%
Manesar 32 50% 28 60%
Pantnagar 20 80% 28 70%
Vellore 60 30% 75 95%
Thane 42 90% 62 70%
Q.108) In 2019, which manufacturing plant has the absolute maximum difference between the total
production of CRETA and TUSCON?
a) Zahirabad
b) Manesar
c) Pantnagar
d) Vellore
Q.109) By what percentage (approximately) the capacity utilization for CRETA manufacturing at
Zahirabad and Thane together is more or less than the capacity utilization for TUSCON
manufacturing for Manesar and Vellore in 2019?
a) 45%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 48%
Q.110) The production capacity of Hyundai in India for CRETA in the year 2019 is approximately what
percent of the production capacity of HYUNDAI in India for TUSCON in that year?
a) 55%
b) 60%
c) 74%
d) 83%
S.111–115) Directions for Questions: As of 17th March 2020, total 7500 confirmed COVID–19
(Popularly known as Coronavirus) cases reported in USA. Out of which 40% are females and rest are
males. Only six states – Arizona, Colorado, Delaware, Montana, Nebraska and Texas witnessed this
pandemic outbreak. No other US state registered any COVID–19 case.
Following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total confirmed cases in the given six states.
Line chart shows the percentage distribution of total female cases from these six states. Read the
data carefully and answer the questions given below.
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Total confirmed cases = 7500
16%
24%
Arizona
Colorado
18%
Delaware
Montana
Nebraska
15%
Texas
10%
17%
Statewise female cases out of total female cases (i.e. 3000)

registered in USA
25%
20% 22%
20%
16% 18%
15%
14%
10%
10%
5%
0%
Arizona Colorado Delaware Montana Nebraska Texas
Q.111) In which of the following states is the ratio of the number of confirmed male cases to
confirmed female cases is 1 : 1?
a) Arizona
b) Colorado
c) Delaware
d) Montana
Q.112) In which of the following states is the number of confirmed female cases more than the
number of confirmed male cases?
a) Colorado
b) Delaware
c) Montana
d) Nebraska
Q.113) In which of the following states the difference between the number of confirmed male
COVID – 19 cases and number of confirmed female COVID – 19 cases is the maximum?
a) Delaware
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b) Montana
c) Nebraska
d) Texas
Q.114) Number of male cases from Nebraska is approximately what percent of the number
confirmed female cases from Delaware?
a) 185%
b) 205%
c) 235%
d) 275%
Q.115) The number of male cases of COVID–19 from Colorado is approximately what percent more
or less than the number of female COVID–19 cases from the same state?
a) 72%
b) 81%
c) 87%
d) 67%
S.116–118) Directions for Questions: A bag contains 5 green balls, 6 red balls and 4 blue balls, all
balls are different in size. 3 balls are picked from the bag one by one without replacement.
Q.116) Find the probability that all three balls are red in color.
a) 4/91
b) 8/91
c) 4/143
d) 8/165
Q.117) Find the probability that all three balls are of different in colors
a) 4/91
b) 8/91
c) 24/91
d) None of these
Q.118) Find the probability that two out of three balls are green in color
a) 4/91
b) 8/91
c) 24/91
d) None of these
S.119–122) Directions for Questions: Beeru has decided to start a cyber café named “City Cyber
Point”. He wants to buy some furniture – table, chair and ACs. He will have to buy desktops, which
include monitor, CPU, keyboard and mouse. While planning his investment budget, he made some
observations: He can buy 27 mouse for the money he can spend on two tables. And the cost of a
chair is 40% less than the cost of a table. For the cost of an AC he can buy 5 chairs. Ratio of the cost
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of a monitor and a chair is 6 : 5. A CPU costs Rs 1500 more than a table and a keyboard costs 4 times
a mouse. The cost of a mouse is Rs 1000.
Q.119) What will be the total cost of 1 table and 2 chairs?
a) Rs 23200
b) Rs 28800
c) Rs 29700
d) Rs 24700
Q.120) What is the ratio of the cost of a CPU to the total cost of a mouse and a keyboard together?
a) 3:2
b) 4:1
c) 3:1
d) 5:3
Q.121) If the cost of a keyboard and a mouse increases by 20% and 15% respectively, what will be
the total cost of a desktop (given that the cost of a CPU and a monitor is the same)?
a) Rs 36930
b) Rs 32640
c) Rs 34753
d) Rs 30670
Q.122) If Beeru wants to install 3 ACs and 1 fan in the cyber café. How much will he has to pay for
this (Given that he can buy 10 fan for an AC)?
a) Rs 129400
b) Rs 124500
c) Rs 125550
d) Rs 124350
Section – V: Logical Reasoning

follow:
Passage 1
Motorists in their teens and twenties have a low opinion of elderly drivers, whom they think
shouldn’t be allowed on the roads.
CP/20/C35
Some old drivers are indeed incompetent, and data from the US has shown that the accident rate for
drivers rises substantially after the age of 70.
The research team recruited volunteers in their early seventies who, according to their doctors, had
signs of early dementia due to Alzheimer’s disease, or to narrowing of the arteries. Other drivers of
the same age had diabetes as their only medical condition, and a group of younger drivers was used
for comparison.
All the drivers – the demented, the diabetics and the young controls – were taken on a drive around
a three–mile road network with intersections, speed bumps, traffic signals and parking lots. The
drivers also worked their way through a series of standard tests of mental ability, concentration and
short–term memory. The results showed that the 70–year–olds with diabetes did just as well on the
test drives and mental tests as the younger drivers. The drivers with early dementia did worse. They
drove slowly, and the mistakes they made were serious.
The conclusion is that drivers in their 70s in normal health (with normal vision) can perform at a level
comparable with young, healthy adults – at least in a suburban, non–stressing environment.
Q.123) Which of the following can be conclusively inferred from the passage above?
a) The drivers in their 70s in normal health (with normal vision) may not be able to drive at a level
comparable with young, healthy adults in busy traffic conditions.
b) The younger drivers are usually better at driving than their older counterparts.
c) The drivers in their teens and twenties are better at driving than the drivers in their seventies.
Q.124) If the author’s arguments in the passage above are correct, which of the following is most
likely to be true?
a) People in their twenties will perform better at standard tests of mental ability, concentration and
short–term memory than people in their sixties.
b) The drivers in their earlier seventies who have diabetes as the only medical condition would be
able to drive at a level comparable with drivers in their earlier seventies with normal health.
c) Neither of the above.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q.125) What role does the claim that the results showed that the 70–year–olds with diabetes did
just as well on the test drives and mental tests as the younger drivers play in relation to his
conclusion?
a) It supports the author’s conclusion.

b) It weakens the conclusion through a contradictory example.
c) It is an exception that proves the rule set out in his main conclusion.
d) It is completely unrelated to his conclusion.
Q.126) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments in the passage
above?
CP/20/C35
a) Majority of the drivers in their seventies tend to lose their concentration on the road after they
have driven more than five miles.
b) The drivers in their teens are involved in more devastating accidents than the drivers in their
seventies.
c) The drivers in their late thirties and forties were found to be the safest according to a study.
d) There were some drivers in their seventies who wore spectacles and performed at a level
comparable with young, healthy adults in the test.
Q.127) Based on his statements in the passage above, which of the following is the author most
likely to agree with?
a) The drivers aged over 70 are incompetent, and therefore more likely to have accidents.
b) There is a high incidence of undiagnosed dementia among younger drivers.
c) The drivers aged over 70 who do not have dementia are no less competent than young drivers.
d) Dementia is the leading cause of accidents involving drivers who are aged over 70 years.
follow:
Passage 2
The numbers of overweight and obese people in Britain are soaring. Two thirds of men and women
are now classed as overweight or obese. One in 10 children under four is obese, rising to one in six in
the five–15 age group. Obesity has doubled among children, trebled among women, and nearly
quadrupled among men over the last 20 years.
It is not just about fat, greedy people eating more than they need to and being too lazy to do
something about it. But a lot of other causes. The rise of huge, out–of–town shopping centres has
only added to the culture of the car. When they do get there, there are lifts from the car parks to the
shops.
An interesting factor in the whole debate about obesity is that the average person actually eats
fewer calories and less fat per day than 30 years ago – but does far less exercise. Parents drive their
children 500 yards down the road to school. People drive to the park to walk their dog, or to buy a
newspaper.
Children in particular suffer from this. They no longer cycle to the shops or run down the road – they
are driven there. The loss of playing fields, combined with a (perhaps irrational) public perception
that paedophiles and murderers lurk at every corner, means that many youngsters don’t even know
how to ride a bike, let alone have the freedom to get on one and burn some energy.
But back to the malls. A glance around the food court highlights another problem– portion sizes.
Order a McDonald’s burger, and the first thing you will be asked is whether you want to ‘go large’.
Bags of crisps come in maxi–sizes, chicken meals in ‘bargain buckets’.
Q.128) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments regarding the
obesity in children?
a) Children are consuming more junk food per day, on average, today than 30 years ago.
CP/20/C35
b) All schools in Britain have introduced compulsory–for–all physical fitness programmes, which was
not the case 20 years ago.
c) Most children have stopped walking or cycling to schools as the number of crimes against children
have increased in the last decade.
d) According to experts atleast some of the cases of obesity in children can be attributed to genes.
Q.129) Which of the following is a premise for the author’s arguments in the passage above?
a) That people are far less involved in physical activities than they were 30 years ago.
b) That the people in Britain have now become more conscious of what they eat.
c) That children are less interested in playing outdoors than they were 30 years ago.
d) That children do not like cycling to schools.
Q.130) Which of the following is most similar to the author’s arguments in the passage above?
a) Due to the advent of computers in all fields of human research, the researchers are able to
embark upon new journeys, which was not possible without computers.
b) Due to advancement in healthcare, the average life expectancy has increased.
c) Business managers and executives have started to rely more and more on the smartphones for
office related work, which has resulted in increase in productivity.
d) Due to decrease in social bonding with peers and parents, no of cases of anxiety and depression
have increased in children and young adults in the past decade or so.
Q.131) Which of the following is not given as a reason of obesity in the passage?
a) People have reduced the amount of exercise that they used to do about 30 years ago.
b) The children have stopped cycling on streets.
c) People consume more calories, on average, per day than they did 30 years ago.
d) People consume larger portion sizes of food than they did 30 years ago.
Q.132) Which of the following would the author agree with as one possible solution to bring down
obesity in the population?
a) Instead of going to out–of–town shopping centres, people should use e–commerce platforms to
get delivery of required things at home.
b) The government should ensure that the citizens are confident about letting children walk on the
streets.
c) Neither (a) nor (b).
follow:
Passage 3
Carmakers will be more than a decade late in meeting their target to produce less polluting vehicles
because people are buying bigger, more powerful models, figures suggest.
CP/20/C35
Sales of small cars fell to their lowest level for seven years last year while large vehicles secured their
highest share of the market yet. One in eight cars sold last year was a 4X4 or people carrier,
compared with one in eighteen a decade ago.
Average emissions of carbon dioxide for new cars fell by 1.2 per cent last year, well short of the
industry target of a 5 per cent decline. The fall was almost entirely due to the rise in popularity of
diesel vehicles. The European target of reducing average CO2 emissions for new cars was 140g/km
by 2008. The British average last year was 169.4g/km and, on current trends, 140g/km will be
reached only in 2021.
The association of car manufacturers said that drivers were partly to blame for demanding bigger
cars with faster acceleration and more gadgets. It said that falling prices of new cars and rising
incomes had encouraged millions of drivers to buy larger vehicles.
Features such as air–conditioning and electric windows, which add weight and consume energy,
have become almost ubiquitous. Safety systems such as air bags and side–impact bars had added
weight while rules on pedestrian–friendly bonnet design had made cars less aerodynamic, it said.
The association’s report on the emissions of new cars accused drivers of failing to reflect their
concerns about global warming in their choice of car.
‘Consumers must also take an increased responsibility for the vehicles they purchase and the
journeys they make,’ it said. But environmentalists say that carmakers are to blame for the poor
progress on emissions.
Q.133) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken car manufacturers’ claim in the passage
above?
a) The car manufacturers spent more than half of the advertising budget promoting their SUVs–
most polluting cars in their portfolios but only 3 per cent on their smallest, lowest–emission cars.
b) The car manufacturers are investing a lot of money in R&D to manufacture hybrid and electric
cars that can compete with their petrol and diesel counterparts.
c) The sale of petrol–electric hybrids has not increased significantly since its inception.
d) The car manufacturers have incorporated the decline in technology–costs in their pricing and
made the cars cheaper than what they were a few years ago.
Q.134) Which of the following most accurately represents the author’s main point in the passage
above?
a) The sale of big cars such as 4X4 or people carrier is more than the sale of small cars.
b) People demand safety features in a car more now than they did a decade ago.
c) Vehicular pollution is the biggest challenge in our fight to bring down pollution levels.
d) Car manufacturers have missed deadlines and may continue to do so in producing less polluting
cars.
Q.135) Based on the passage above, which of the following is the author most likely to disagree
with?
a) The car manufacturers have failed so far in meeting their targets of lowering CO2 emissions.
CP/20/C35
b) The consumer buying behaviour has contributed towards the car manufacturers’ failure in
producing less polluting cars.
c) The car manufacturers have taken complete responsibility of the failure to produce less polluting
cars.
Q.136) The car manufacturers’ association’s claim in the passage above logically follows if which of
the following is assumed?
a) The consumers get information on which cars would be more polluting than others prior to buying
a car.
b) The consumers do not get information on which cars would be more polluting than others prior to
buying a car.
c) Car makers promote only those cars that would give them the maximum profits irrespective of
their CO2 emissions.
d) The car buyers are more careful of the environment than the car manufacturers.
Q.137) Which of the following can be inferred from the author’s arguments in the passage above?
a) Average emissions of carbon dioxide for new cars have not fallen below the previous levels.
b) The car manufacturers are committed to cut the carbon dioxide emissions to an industry target of
a 5 per cent decline.
c) As the car becomes less aerodynamic it consumes more energy.
d) Safety systems such as air bags and side–impact bars have enabled the cars to be more fuel
efficient.
follow:
Passage 4
Some people maintain that there is no case for subsidising the arts because they are a minority
interest. In its most sympathetic guise, this view presents itself as defending the poor. What subsidy
for the arts amounts to is taking money from all the taxpayers (including those who never set foot in
a museum or theatre) to help pay for the leisure activities of the privileged classes.
And why, they say, should we subsidise snobbish entertainments such as opera when we don’t
subsidise proletarian ones such as football?
Quite apart from the patronising assumption that most ordinary people are permanently immune to
culture, however inexpensive it might be made by subsidy, there is an odd anomaly in this argument.
Taken to its logical conclusion, it would undermine any kind of taxation in a democratic society.
The way we collect and spend taxes is not based on the same principle as paying for private services.
If the country decides that it believes certain things, whether universal schooling or the preservation
of its cultural heritage, to be for the good of the nation as a whole, it does not require that every
single taxpayer partake of those good things.
CP/20/C35
So why is art a good thing? Why is it so important that it be given millions of pounds of our money,
even though so few of us go to the opera or museums, when thousands of people who play golf
have to pay for it themselves?
As I have written before when defending art against philistines from within, what the arts offer us is
a way both of making sense of our condition and of transcending it. They are, in the end, what
makes us human rather than bestial.
(Taken from an article which appeared in The Times on 12 October 1995 (© Janet Daley) reproduced
by permission of A. M. Heath & Co. Ltd.)
Q.138) Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the author’s argument?
a) Art yields benefits beyond those who attend directly as it helps make cultured and more
productive individuals, which benefits the nation as a whole.
b) There is a long standing history of patronage for the arts, not only by wealthy individuals but also
by governments and kings.
Q.139) Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s argument?
a) The subsidies in art circumvents the free market for the art/media that people actually want to
consume as the government is essentially picking which artists get grants.
b) Government subsidies in art has the potential to create favouritism or conflicts of interest.
Q.140) What is the main conclusion of the author’s argument?
a) Subsiding the arts is a good thing, on the grounds that, things which are good for the nation as a
whole should be subsidised from public money.
b) It is wrong to subsidise art when we don’t subsidise other forms of entertainment such as
football.
c) Subsidy for the arts amounts to is taking money from all the taxpayers to help pay for the leisure
activities of the privileged classes.
d) The way we collect and spend taxes is not based on the same principle as paying for private
services.
Q.141) What role does the author’s claim that the arts make us human rather than bestial play in the
argument?
a) It is the premise of the argument.

b) It is the conclusion of the argument.
c) It is the counter premise that the author dismisses as not being true in his argument.
Q.142) Which of the following is most similar to the author’s arguments regarding subsidising arts in
the passage above?
CP/20/C35
a) The citizens should be taxed for road–building even if some of them have no cars as road–building
contributes towards nation building.
b) Those citizens should not be taxed for free school–education who have no children in school.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b).
S.143–145) Directions for Questions: In the questions below, statements are given followed by a
set of conclusions. Choose the conclusion that logically follows the statement the most.
Q.143) Statements:
Most Computers are PCs.
No PC is a Tablet.
All Tablets are Computers.
Conclusions:
I. Some PCs are Computers
II. All Computers are Tablets
III. No Tablet is a PC
IV. Some Tablet are PCs
a) Only I follows
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I and III follow
d) Only II follows
Q.144) Statements:
Tables are Chair.
All Chairs are Ladder.
All Ladders are Cots
Conclusions:
I. All Chairs are Cots
II. All Ladders are Tables
III. All Tables are Cots
IV. All Cots are Chair
a) Only I and II follow

b) Only I and III follow
c) Only II and III follow
d) All follow
Q.145) Statements:
Some eyes are ears.
Some ears are lungs.
All lungs are hands
Conclusions:
I. Some hands are eyes.
II. Some hands are ears
III. Some lungs are eyes
IV. No hand is eye
CP/20/C35
a) None follow
b) Only IV follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
S.146–148) Directions for Questions: Each of three persons Andy, Bert and Chuck is from a different
country among India, Pakistan and China.
It is also known that one of them always speaks the truth, one always tells lies and one alternate
between truth and lie in any order. They made the following statements.
Andy : I am a truth teller. Bert is from India. Chuck is not from China.
Bert: I am from Pakistan. Chuck is a liar. Andy is from India.
Chuck: Bert is a liar. I am not a liar. Andy is from Pakistan.
Q.146) Who is from India?
a) Andy
b) Bert
c) Chuck
d) Cannot be determined
Q.147) Who cannot be a liar?
a) Andy
b) Bert
c) Chuck
Q.148) Who made at least two false statement?
a) Andy
b) Bert
c) Chuck
Q.149) Find the next term in the following series: 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, ___
a) 216
b) 222
c) 250
d) 210
Q.150) Find the next term in the following series: GKF, IPC, LTY, PWT, UYN, ____
a) ABZ
b) XBX
c) XAH
CP/20/C35
d) AZG

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CP/20/C35

Section – I: English Language

Q.1) Which of the following follows from the passage?

a) At no previous time has history been made at a more rapid rate.

a) Destruction of slave trading and slavery

a) Nations cannot grow if their people are given freedoms.

Q.4) Of the underlined statements, which one is grammatically incorrect?

a) Sentence marked [a].

After religion there is the evidence of language to be considered.

Q.7) Arrange the statements in para 2 above to make it coherent.

Q.8) Which of the following support the passage above?

Q.9) Which of the following is incorrect based on the passage above?

a) Europe is as diverse as India.

Q.10) Choose the correct meaning of the word congeries.

Q.11) Which of the following supports the above passage?

a) Nature is not bound by any boundaries.

Q.12) What is the meaning of the phrase “weal and woe”?

a) Things that cause sorrow

a) Death is a word without a meaning

Q.14) Choose the synonym of axiom from the following options:

Q.15) What is the author discussing in the passage above?

a) The rising sun

Q.17) The word ‘ruddy’ mentioned in the last para is a:

Q.18) Choose the meaning of the word ‘ruddy’

Q.19) Which of the following would the author agree?

a) The narrative of the author is prevalent in India.

Q.20) Based on the passage which of the following is true?

a) Medea is always up for some witchery

a) Because he was sedated before his results came out.

Q.22) What is the central idea of the passage?

Q.23) What is not true of El – Hawrani’s family and childhood?

Q.24) Which of the following is true as per the passage?

a) El-Hawrani was the second frontline doctor to die of the virus.

a) it is a snackable addition to Youtube and Netflix.

Q.29) As per the passage what audience time is Quibi targeting?

a) the interstitial time – in between waiting or hopping on and off things

c) the time the audience spends in movie viewing

a) abused in bits and pieces

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.31) Which of the following can be filled in [1]?

Q.33) Who among the following will fill [3]?

Q.36) Fill [1] with a suitable option.

Q.39) What is the rank of India in Global Health Index 2019?

Q.40) The headquarter of WHO is located in which of the following country?

a) Absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications

Q.44) In which of the following year Nirbhaya Fund was created?

Q.45) Which of the following can be filled in (1)?

a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Q.46) Which of the following can be filled in (2)?

a) Water vapor (H2O)

a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

Q.49) What is the theme of Davos 2019?

a) Creating a shared future in a fractured world

b) We’re in a new economic era: Globalization 4.0

Q.50) Which of the following will fill [1]?

Q.51) Which of the following will fill [2]?

Q.52) Which of the following will fill [3]?

Q.53) Which of the following countries has three capitals?

Q.55) US based company, Uber eats has its headquarters at _____.

Q.61) Who is the first woman para–athlete to be awarded [1]?

Q.62) Who has been replaced by [2]?

a) Justice A.K. Sikri

a) Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy award