Mock Clat-30: (Question Paper) Section - I: English Language

CP/20/C30
MOCK CLAT–30
(Question Paper)
Section – I: English Language

S.1–10) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
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Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage 1
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It is a hands–on, tongue–out experience. At the museum of Disgusting Food in Malmo, in Sweden, all
the world’s great cuisines are represented. Each exhibit is considered a delicacy somewhere, but
strikes many unaccustomed palates as revolting. Visitors are invited to handle raw organs of animals
and sip liquor with dead mice in it.
Nordic cuisine is well represented. The meat of the Greenland shark has toxically high level of urea.
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It will make you woozy unless first left to rot and then hung to dry. Icelanders eat small cubes of
hakari, as they call it, from toothpicks. The late Anthony Bourdain, a globe trotting chef, called it “the
single worst, most disgusting and terrible tasting thing” he had ever eaten. Others have likened it to
“chewing on a urine–soaked mattress”.
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At the entrance, everyone is issued with a sick bag in lieu of a ticket. “5 days since the last vomit”
reads a blackboard nearby. At the bottom is a running total of how many chundering incidents have
occurred since the museum opened in 2018. The most sensitive visitor was a Belgian journalist who
threw up ten times. Onlookers were impressed. “I would have given up after maybe vomiting three
times,” says Andreas Ahrens, the museum’s director.
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A serious message lurks behind the grossness. Disgust is a necessary emotion. Without it, our
ancestors would have eaten rotten food and died. But more than any other feeling, it is culturally
conditioned. Everyone experiences disgust; but what disgusts you depends in large measure on what
you are used to and what the people around you deem repellent.
Many East Asians, for example, find any strong cheese horrid, let alone Stinking Bishop, a British
delicacy they are invited to sniff at the museum’s “altar of cheese”. A Chinese tourist tasted a Danish
cheese called Gamle Oles Farfar (Old Ole’s Grandfather) “and couldn’t speak for several minutes”,
recalls Mr Ahrens.
Sometimes the idea of a dish is more repellent than the reality. Many foreigners recoil from balut, a
snack from the Philippines that consists of a duck egg with a partly grown embryo inside. It is not
that they dislike the taste of egg or unhatched duck—they just hate the thought of it. The same is
true of san–nakji: a Korean delicacy of live octopus, chopped up and eaten while still moving, with
sesame oil and chilli sauce. Westerners are not used to food that squirms. (It is also perilous: the
writhing tentacles choke to death several people each year.)
Alcohol can make anything easier to swallow. A Chinese rice spirit with seal, deer and dog organs
tastes simply of booze. So does Bavergall, a schnapps flavoured with beavers’ anal glands.
Connoisseurs, however, insist that it matters which beaver you use. “It has to be the northern
European beaver. The American beaver’s anal gland is no good,” deadpans Mr Ahrens.
Visitors usually see at least one exhibit they regard as a comfort food. Americans wonder why Pop–
Tarts and Twinkies are included. A Maasai tourist, seeing a film of his fellow Maasai puncturing a
cow’s neck, tapping the warm blood and drinking bowls of it mixed with raw milk, harrumphed that
this was not disgusting at all, but what he had grown up with.
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That, says Mr Ahrens, is the point. When people recognise that disgust depends in part on
upbringing, they can learn to overcome it, at least some of the time. They can open themselves to
new experiences. And maybe, just maybe, they might learn to be more tolerant of people from
unfamiliar cultures. “Our aim is to open people’s minds,” he says.
Disgust is influenced by genes. Women are more prone to it than men, especially when pregnant
and therefore endangering two lives if they eat something poisonous. Partly for genetic reasons,
East Asians and Europeans are more likely than Middle Easterners to think coriander (cilantro) tastes
soapy rather than heavenly. Some people detest cucumbers, a trait which seems to run in families. A
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Korean–language Facebook page for cucumber–haters has 100,000 followers.
Q.1) Why were onlookers impressed by the Belgian journalist throwing up 10 times?
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a) The visitors were convinced about the unpleasantness of food on display.
b) The journalist did not give up even after throwing up so many times.
c) This was the highest number of times any visitor had thrown up.
d) Since Europeans are not accustomed to a very large variety of foods.
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Q.2) Which of the following does not influence disgust?
a) A person’s natural instinct.

b) A person’s upbringing.
c) What is seen as acceptable.
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d) Colour of food.
Q.3) What is the most likely reason for American visitors to wonder at pop tarts and twinkies being
included among the exhibits at the Museum?
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a) They are terrible American foods.

b) They are tasty foods for Americans.
c) They are smelly foods.
d) These foods had the lowest sale among all American foods.
Q.4) Which of the following would the message a “5 days since the last vomit” imply to the
museum’s owners?
a) The museum has been unsuccessful in fulfilling its objectives.

b) The visitors to the museum have not seriously looked at its exhibits.
c) The museum has been successful in fulfilling its objective.
d) They may soon have people who would vomit seeing the exhibits at the Museum.
Q.5) Which of the following would imply from “Sometimes the idea of a dish is more repellent than
the reality.”
a) A person is likely to enjoy a tasty dish if she did not know how it was prepared.
b) Cooking is usually messier than the food itself.
c) Cooking methods can sometimes be very complex but the food simple.
d) Cooking even of the simplest of the foods require a long preparation time.
Q.6) Which of the following will be true based on the information presented in the passage?
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a) Disgusting things can cause unpleasantness across the world.

b) Feeling of disgust can be passed from one generation to another.
c) A person can get accustomed to something unpleasant if its benefits are illustrated.
d) Ability to like something inherently unpleasant is a sign of modernity.
Q.7) Why is the late Anthony Bourdain, describing Greenland shark meat as disgusting, is quoted in
the passage?
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a) To show that Greenland shark meat is actually disgusting.
b) To quote an expert’s view.
c) To show that something disliked even by a globe–trotting chef can be a delicacy to some.
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d) To show that there are foods in the world that are so unpleasant that most people in the world
would dislike them.
Q.8) Which of the following is indicated in the passage?

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a) Unpleasantness or disgust is not inherent in the food.
b) Food museums have trained many people to overcome dislike for some foods.
c) Exposure to world food can broaden a person’s perspective.
d) Food is not always nutritious.
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Q.9) Is disgust a necessary emotion? Why?
a) It is a necessary emotion because it saves us from harmful foods.

b) It is not a necessary emotion because some nutritious foods are disgusting.
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c) It is a necessary emotion because it brings about cultural distinctions among us.

d) It is not a necessary emotion because it may prevent us from enjoying some of the best foods in
the world.
Q.10) Why does the passage mention the Korean–language Facebook page for cucumber–haters
which has 100,000 followers?
a) To illustrate common occurrence of food haters.

b) To illustrate that even a seemingly harmless food like cucumber can have so many haters.
c) To illustrate how people who do not hate cucumbers may join a Facebook page and be influenced
by it.
d) To illustrate how disgust for food may also be influenced by genetic reasons.
Passage 2
The true purpose of a business, Peter Drucker said, is to create and keep customers. Most mangers
understand this, but few behave as if they do. Under relentless earnings pressure, they often feel
cornered, obliged to produce quick profits by compromising product quality, trimming services,
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imposing onerous fees, and otherwise shortchanging their customers. This short–termism erodes
loyalty, reducing the value customers create for the firm.
It should not be this way. Earning customer loyalty is firmly in the interest of both shareholders and
management. My research shows that loyalty leaders– companies at the top of their industries in
Net Promoter Scores or satisfaction rankings for three or more years– grow revenues roughly 2.5
times as fast as their industry peers and deliver two to five times the shareholders return over the
next ten years. Yet companies and investors continue to prioritise quarterly earnings over customer
relationships, for three main reasons: Public–company financial disclosures, rules and corporate
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accounting practices require little to no reporting on customer value; most firms lack the capabilities
for managing its and organization’s traditional structure, puts functional priorities ahead of customer
needs. The roots of the problem can be traced to the 1890s and the birth of modern financial
accounting, but the situation worsened in 1970, when Milton Friedman introduced the age of
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shareholder primacy, which held that companies exist to maximize shareholder value. Since then,
companies have perfected sophisticated systems and practices for delivering on that promise. A
decade ago, Roger Martin, then dean of the University of Toronto’s Rotman School of Management,
inverted this notion. He espoused a new “age of customer capitalism” in which companies that put
customers first would create even greater value for shareholders.
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Q.11) Which of the following is the most likely description of the author of the passage given above?
a) A business magnate.
b) A management guru.
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c) A scholar.
d) A customer.
Q.12) Why does the author term as a problem Milton Friedman’s introduction of the age of
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shareholder primacy?
a) It focused on maximizing value to the shareholders.

b) It worsened the business situation.
c) Companies thought it contradicted Drucker’s model.
d) Companies side–stepped delivering value to customers.
Q.13) Is the author of the passage given above likely to agree with Roger Martin’s views? Why?
a) No, because Roger Martin’s views are an inversion of earlier views.

b) Yes, because Roger Martin’s views incorporate modern concepts.
c) Yes, because Roger Martin’s views incorporate giving value to customers.
d) No, because Roger Martin’s views are in direct contradiction of Drucker’s concepts.
Q.14) Which of the following is not one of the reasons for companies giving priority to quarterly
earnings over customer relationship?
a) Mandatory disclosures do not require measuring customer value.

b) Many companies do not have the capability to manage customer value.
c) Customer value takes a back seat in times of recession.
d) In a traditional setup, more resources are devoted to functional needs.
Q.15) With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
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a) Focus on customer satisfaction yields long term benefits.

b) Focus on customer satisfaction yields quick returns.
c) Focus on profitability has enhanced companies’ efficiency.
d) Peter Drucker failed to influence business thinking.
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Passage 3
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Hennessy proposed the idea of the residency to her bosses, and they were very encouraging. So last
October, she and three other designers participated in the first residency. Going forward, a rotating
group of four or five North Face designers will attend the program every six months. Some of the
learnings are small and practical. Hennessy says that interacting with worn–out clothes helped her
see parts of garments that tend to break or tear first, so designers will now reinforce these parts.
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She also learned that some zippers tend to give out more than others, so this will inform what kinds
of zippers the company uses going forward. “There are some immediate steps we’re taking, but
we’re also interested in spurring conversations among the design team, so this is an ongoing part of
what we do,” says Hennessy.
One potential area of inquiry is how to extend the life of garments that are too worn out to be
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repaired. In a pilot workshop of the Renewed Design Residency, which took place in October 2019,
four North Face designer had access to a pile of garments that were beyond repair, and each of
them created a one–of–a–kind piece from these scraps. These “renewed” pieces include hooded
sweatshirts and jackets that have a familiar North Face silhouette, but they also look like they were
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inspired by bricolage. My favorite piece from the line is a kimono sweater made from an old puffer
coat: it’s chic, with clean lines, giving new life to a garment that would have ended up in the trash.
Starting today, four pieces that came out of the inaugural Design Residency will be auctioned on the
North Face’s Renewed website, and 100% of the proceeds will be donated to the North Face Explore
Fund, which gives money to environmental nonprofits.
This limited–edition collection is more of a showcase than a representation of where the North
Face’s designers will take the brand’s garments. A more practical approach to circularity involves
making sure no fabric goes to waste in the manufacturing process. It means creating collections of
clothes that are so classic, so they don’t go out of style in next season or the next decade. It means
creating garments that don’t wear out after years of continued use. And it means investing in
technologies that will allow you to recycle garments into entirely new garments once they have
reached the very end of their life cycle, much the same way we turn used aluminum cans into new
ones.
It’s clearly a long, challenging process for apparel brands to reinvent their products with circularity in
mind. Perhaps a bigger challenge is enlisting consumers in the fight for a more sustainable fashion
industry. After decades in which disposable fast fashion reigned supreme, brands will need to work
hard to help consumers make the paradigm shift to thinking that clothes aren’t short–term
purchases but long–term investments.
The North Face seems to understand that design plays a crucial role not only in the sustainable
creation of new products, but also in helping consumers adjust their relationships to their clothes.
Take a long–sleeved shirt that is up for auction today. It looks chic, with a blue puffer material in the
front, and soft grey sleeves and trims. But each fragment of it used to be part of other garments,
worn by other people. “This process illustrates that clothes have an afterlife,” Hennessy says.
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Q.16) Which of the following represents the kind of change will fashion brands be required to bring
about?
a) From high priced exclusive brands to low priced everyday brands.

b) From fast fashion changes to long term garment use.
c) From synthetic fibre fabrics to natural fibre inputs.
d) From using toxic dyes to using natural colours.
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Q.17) Which of the following represents an objective to be achieved at the residency program of
North Face designers?
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a) To design and produce garments that go with the premium image of North Face.
b) To design and produce garments that, over a period of time, cost less to own.
c) To use design in creating sustainable products.
d) To use design in producing garments that have futuristic appeal.
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Q.18) Hennessy is most likely which of the following?
a) Founder of North Face.

b) CEO of North Face.
c) A designer.
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d) An ecologist.
Q.19) Which of the following is true about the “Renewed” website of North Face?
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a) It is a showcase of future of garments.

b) It is a showcase of direction in which North Face designs will move.
c) It is a showcase of North Face’s future.
d) It is a showcase of North Face’s efforts at recycling of garments.
Q.20) How are designers likely to help consumers adjust their relationships to their clothes?
a) By creating designs that will never go out of fashion.

b) By making garments have a renewed life after they are worn out.
c) By making customers realise that old clothes will end up in landfills.
d) By using design elements that are less damaging to the environment.
Q.21) How do designers extend the life of garments that are too worn out to be repaired?
a) By creating new garments from scrap of old garments.

b) By making worn out garments fit for the poor.
c) By making worn out garments more fashionable as distressed garments.
d) By saving reusable parts of old garments such as zippers.
Q.22) Which was one of the take–aways from the residency that Hennessy attended?
a) Knowledge about long lasting fashions.

b) Knowledge about weak parts in a garment.
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c) Awareness about customers’ perception of environmental friendliness.

d) All of the above.
Q.23) Which of the following has not been mentioned as a way of achieving circularity of garments?
a) Making affordable clothing.

b) Making more durable clothing.
c) Making fashion that lasts long.
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d) Recycling worn–out garments.
Q.24) Which of the following will we have to get used to if we do not want old clothes to end up in
landfills?
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a) Having garments made from parts of previously used garments.
b) Having garments that are fashion neutral.
c) Having garments that are biodegradable.
d) Having garments that do not bleed colour.
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Q.25) Out of the following, which best represents the tone of the passage given above?
a) Neutral
b) Pessimistic
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c) Optimistic
d) Introspecting
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Passage 4
Our bodies are amazing disease–fighting machines. One adaptation goes a long way: our warm body
temperature can by itself shut down all sorts of unwanted invasions. When a pathogen enters our
body, we often get a fever, warming us up even more to fight off disease. Fevers stimulate the
immune system and, ideally, the heat creates an environment where it’s difficult for pathogens to
survive.
But, as pathogens are exposed to gradually warmer temperatures in the natural world, they become
better equipped to survive the high temperature inside the human body. “Every time we have a very
hot day, we have a selection event,” says Arturo Casadevall, a professor of microbiology and
immunology at Johns Hopkins University’s Bloomberg School of Public Health. The pathogens that
survive—and reproduce—are better adapted to higher temperatures, including those in our bodies.
And, with that, one of our body’s primary defense mechanisms diminishes in effectiveness.
This is not a theoretical, far–off concern. Last year, Casadevall and colleagues documented in the
journal mBio how Candida auris (a fungus that gets into the bloodstream, leading to a range of
ailments) emerged simultaneously in patients in three different isolated places—southern Asia,
Venezuela and South Africa—between 2012 and 2015. In our globalized world, diseases are often
transported by human carriers who hop on planes, but in this case the scientists concluded that
similar changing climatic conditions in each of these places likely drove the simultaneous
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development. It’s hard to say how widespread this effect could be, Casadevall says, but there’s no
reason to think that it would be limited to fungi like Candida auris.
The strain of coronavirus that’s spreading now is different than Candida for many reasons, but its
likely animal vector—bats—provides an interesting example of how temperatures relate to the
spread of infectious disease. Like humans, bats are mammals that maintain a warm body
temperature that protect them from disease. But while our body temperature rests around 98.6°F
and spikes a few degrees when we’re sick, bats’ body temperatures can regularly jump to as high as
105°F. That means they can carry a whole slew of pathogens without suffering from them. In the
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near future, as global temperatures inch up, bats will continue to be protected by their body heat,
while the pathogens they carry are better able to harm us.
Q.26) Which of the following is a not a possible way for pathogens to appear in different places in
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the world?
a) Humans travelling from one place to another.

b) Similar climatic conditions at different places.
c) Prehistoric dormant pathogens regenerating.
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d) Bats migrating from one place to another.
Q.27) Bats are likely to be unaffected by pathogens in the future because of which of the following?
a) Bats have a versatile immunity system.

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b) Because bats are not parasites.

c) Because bats have a high body temperature.
d) Because bats can survive at low temperatures.
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Q.28) Why is it likely that viruses will be harming us more in the future?
a) Environmental conditions make our immune system less effective.

b) More strains of viruses are likely to develop in the near future.
c) Globalisation and frequent movement of humans will make spread of disease faster.
d) pathogens will be better able to survive in a higher global temperature.
Q.29) Which of the following is not a result of high body temperature or fever in humans?
a) It enhances the immune system.

b) It acts against survival of pathogens.
c) It shuts down unwanted invasions by bacteria etc.
d) It acts as a warning system from our immunity mechanism.
Q.30) The content of the passage given above indicates which of the following emotions?
a) Joyous.
b) Feeling of comfort.
c) Worrisome.
d) Neutral
Section – II: Current Awareness
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S.31–35) Directions for questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on topics that arise
out of the excerpted passage. Answers may be implied by facts mentioned in the passage but need
not be so. Please answer each question on its own merit on the basis of your knowledge of current
affairs and general knowledge.
Passage 1
The central government has made a fresh bid to replace the controversial Indian Medical Council
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(IMC) with a [1] to regulate medical education and practices in India. While the Medical Council of
India (MCI) was an autonomous body with two–third of its members (160 plus) being directly elected
by the medical fraternity, the new one would have 25 members with no directly elected member.
Earlier in the month, the government had passed the Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Bill of
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2019 to supersede the IMC on the ground that it had failed to discharge its duties and indulged in
corrupt practices. The [1] is an overarching body that'll frame policies and co–ordinate the activities
of four autonomous boards. The appointment of independent board members, whose roles are
crucial, will be keenly watched. Each board will separately look at undergraduate and postgraduate
education, medical assessment and rating, and ethics & medical registration.
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Health Minister [2], in his reply, on the debate on the bill said [3] is already an institutionalised body
which is conducting examinations in 13 languages. “Once the [1] Bill is approved, exit examination
will be implemented in the next three years,” the Minister said.
Q.31) In the above passage, the name of the organisation that is replacing the Medical Council of
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India has been replaced with [1]. What is the name of the organisation?
a) Medical Council of India

b) Committee of Medical Professionals in India
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c) National Medical Commission

d) National Medical Association
Q.32) In the above passage, the name of the current Health Minister has been replaced with [2].
Who is the current Health Minister?
a) Amit Shah
b) Praveen Khandelwal
c) Suresh Prabhu
d) Harsh Vardhan
Q.33) When was the Medical Council of India established?
a) 1956
b) 1933
c) 1960
d) 2000
Q.34) In the above passage, the name of the new medical entrance exam has been replaced with [4].
What is the name of the new exam?
a) National Medical Entrance Test

b) Common Medical Admission Test
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c) National Eligibility cum Entrance Test

d) None of the above
Q.35) The National Medical Commission is affiliated to the Ministry of?
a) Human Resource Development

b) Social Welfare and Empowerment
c) AYUSH
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d) Health and Family Welfare
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Passage 2
The G7 was formed initially to discuss economic and political concerns prompted by the oil crisis –
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when members of OPEC, the Organization of Petroleum Export Countries, increased the price of oil
and cut global supplies to countries seen as having backed Israel in the [5].
Since then, the group has expanded its brief to cover a large number of international issues,
including energy security, trade, climate change, global health issues, gender equality, poverty – and
any other topic the country holding the G7 presidency chooses to put on the agenda.
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Today, the G7 are reckoned as the seven wealthiest and most advanced nations in the world
because China, which holds the second largest net worth in the world, nonetheless has a low net
worth per individual and an economy that has not yet fully modernized.
Q.36) Where was the 45th G7 Summit, 2019 held?

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a) Dorada
b) Lyon
c) Biarritz
d) La Malbaie
Q.37) Which of the following countries is not a member of the G7?
a) United Kingdom
b) France
c) Russia
d) Germany
Q.38) Which of the following countries was not invited?
a) South Korea
b) India
c) Australia
d) Spain
Q.39) When was the first meeting of G7 (then called the ‘G6’) held?
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a) 1986
b) 1950
c) 1967
d) 1975
Q.40) In the above passage, the name of the war due to which the G7 was formed has been replaced
with [5]. What is the name of the war?
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a) Persian Gulf War
b) Kuwaiti Gulf War
c) Six–Day War
d) Yom Kippur War
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Passage 3
Boris Johnson says he won’t talk to the EU unless it agrees to scrap the [1] backstop. The EU says
that any deal with Britain must be based on the current withdrawal agreement, including the
backstop. With neither side willing to blink, Britain seems set to leave the EU without a deal on 31 st
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October. Yet despite appearances, that outcome remains far from certain.
On 29 March 2017, the UK government formally began the withdrawal process by invoking [2] of the
Treaty on European Union with permission from Parliament. May called a snap general election in
June 2017, which resulted in a Conservative minority government supported by the Democratic
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Unionist Party. UK–EU withdrawal negotiations began later that month. The UK negotiated to leave
the EU customs union and single market. This resulted in the November 2018 withdrawal
agreement, but the UK parliament voted against ratifying it three times. The Labour Party wanted
any agreement to maintain a customs union, while many Conservatives opposed the agreement's
financial settlement, as well as the "[1] backstop”. The Liberal Democrats, Scottish National Party,
and others sought to reverse Brexit through a proposed second referendum.
Q.41) In the above passage, the name of the backstop that was a sticking point in the Brexit
negotiations is?
a) Scottish Backstop
b) Irish Backstop
c) English Backstop
d) Welsh Backstop
Q.42) In the above passage, the name of the Article that was invoked by the UK government has
been replaced with [2]. Which article of the Treaty of Lisbon is this?
a) Article 45
b) Article 49
c) Article 55
d) Article 50
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Q.43) What is the name of the treaty which led to the creation of the European Economic
Community?
a) Treaty of Lisbon
b) Treaty of Rome
c) Treaty of Maastricht
d) Treaty of Amsterdam
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Q.44) Which is the newest member of the European Union?
a) Croatia
b) Czechia
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c) Malta
d) Estonia
Q.45) Where is the headquarters of EU?
a) Frankfurt
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b) Belgium
c) Lyon
d) Paris
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Passage 4
In the wake of the death of Cafe Coffee Day founder [1], Sitharaman made the statement while
responding to the debate on the amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in the
Lok Sabha last Thursday.
Mallya had previously taken to Twitter to draw parallels between his situation and that of
Siddhartha, who had purportedly written a suicide note that pointed to harassment by the Income
Tax Department before his body was found near a river on the outskirts of Mangalore.
“The Govt Agencies and Banks can drive anyone to despair. See what they are doing to me despite
offer of full repayment. Vicious and unrelenting,” Mallya said last week.
Mallya remains on bail pending his UK High Court appeal, now scheduled for February 2020, in the
[2] proceedings brought by India in relation to charges of fraud and money laundering amounting to
an alleged Rs 9,000 crores.
Q.46) In the above passage, the name of the founder of Café Coffee Day has been replaced with [1]. What
is their name?
a) RP Singh
b) VG Siddhartha
c) JS Kanwal
d) MN Reddy
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Q.47) In the above passage, the proceedings that have been initiated against Vijay Mallya have been
replaced with [2]. Which among the following best describes these proceedings?
a) Extradition
b) Deportation
c) Prosecution
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Q.48) The government recently came up with a law to deal with those who have been accused of
charges such as those as Nirav Modi and Vijay Mallya. What is the name of the law?
a) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
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b) Fugitive Economic Offenders Act
c) Foreign Account Compliance Act
d) Depositories Act
Q.49) In this specific context, what is the phenomenon of loans that are overdue beyond a specific
period of time known as?
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a) Overdue Loans
b) Negative Performing Assets
c) Outstanding Liabilities
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d) Non–Performing Assets
Q.50) Who is the Minister for Commerce and Industry?

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a) Piyush Goyal
b) Satwant Sinha
c) Suresh Prabhu
d) Nirmala Sitharam
Passage 5
A high–level committee chaired on Monday by Home Minister Amit Shah has approved Rs 3,338.22
crore as assistance to [1] in the aftermath of Cyclone Fani, the Centre said in a statement on
Tuesday.
The committee approved overall additional central assistance of Rs 4,432.10 crore from the National
Disaster Response Fund to three states — Rs 3,338.22 crore to [1], Rs 1,029.39 crore to Karnataka as
drought relief and Rs 64.49 crore to Himachal Pradesh after avalanches and hailstorms.
The committee has also made changes to the Centre’s response mechanism in the aftermath of a
natural calamity. As decided by the Home Minister, an Inter–Ministerial Central Team will be
constituted immediately in the aftermath of any natural calamity of severe nature, and this team will
visit the affected areas for first hand assessment of damages caused and relief work carried out by
the state administration.
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Q.51) What is the name of the organisation that tracks weather patterns in India?
a) National Weather Service

b) Indian Weather Service
c) Indian Meteorological Department
d) National Meteorological Department
Q.52) What is the classification used to determine the intensity of cyclones?
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a) Saffir–Simpson Scale
b) Dunning–Kruger Scale
c) Frank–Scherey Scale
00
d) Schwartz–Link Scale
Q.53) What is the meaning of Fani?
a) A type of sweet
b) Hood of a snake
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c) Fans in summer
Q.54) According to the scale mentioned in 5.2, which category would Cyclone Fani fall under?
11
a) Category 5 Tropical Cyclone

b) Category 2 Tropical Cyclone
c) Category 3 Tropical Cyclone
18
d) Category 4 Tropical Cyclone
Q.55) Which State had been most adversely impacted by Cyclone Fani?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Odisha
c) West Bengal
d) Tamil Nadu
Passage 6
Boris Johnson will strike a comprehensive free trade agreement with the EU this year and the deal
will be better than any other politically feasible option. It is easy to disagree with London's
fundamental position in the second stage of the Brexit negotiations, but, for once the stance is clear.
The government does not want to take back control from the EU, it wants the right to do so. It has
accepted Britain will pay an economic price for this privilege but knows the costs will be difficult to
identify even decades into the future. London has decided to erect trade barriers with the EU, take
the pain and hope voters will overlook the results. Since Mr Johnson has so often rejected any closer
relationship, this is the best deal available.
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So, when Sajid Javid, chancellor, tells companies they will need to "adjust" because "we will not be a
rule–taker", this is perfectly consistent with saying a few days later the UK will not change
regulations "for the sake of divergence". It might seem odd for the government to add cost and
inefficiencies for no policy purpose, but we need to recognize this is the real meaning of Brexit. Take
a look at the prime minister's speech. Mr Johnson's big request is for an agreement "similar to X's".
Note that he is not asking for the same deal, which would be unacceptable to the EU. Similar is a
flexible word.
Mr Johnson regularly appears to be threatening the EU, when in fact he is just reading out agreements
81
already struck in martial tones. The battles Mr Johnson chose to fight this week sounded blood–
curdling, but are either fight against an army of straw men or battles in areas where a path towards
compromise seems likely to be found.
However, the report from The UK in a Changing Europe – a think–tank based at King's College
00
London – says an extensive trade deal could take years to negotiate. X–EU trade deal negotiations
began in 2009, and the deal has yet to be ratified by all EU states. In the meantime, UK businesses
that rely on trade with Europe will struggle, say the report's authors.UK–EU trade is also on a
different scale than X's trade with the EU. The UK's volume of trade with the EU is also almost six
times as high as that of X.Around half of the UK's total international trade is with the EU. It's
60
especially important to the services industry, and, in particular, to financial services. The report
points out that if UK firms are no longer able to conduct their business in Europe from their UK
bases, they will have to set up subsidiaries in the EU, losing the UK the 11.5 percent of its
employment tax revenue that comes from financial services.
11
Q.56) X can be replaced by:–
a) Canada
b) Norway
18
c) Finland
d) Republic of Ireland
Q.57) Who coined the term BREXIT?
a) Peter Wilding
b) Devid Cameron
c) Angela Markel
d) Sajid Javed
Q.58) Which part of UK has voted in the majority for remaining in EU?
a) England and Northern Ireland

b) England and Wales
c) Northern Ireland and Scotland
d) Wales and Scotland
Q.59) What is Backstop?
a) It would involve Northern Ireland alone remaining in the EU's single market and customs union,
leaving Great Britain (England, Scotland and Wales) free to strike trade deals.
b) It would involve a hard border between Northern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland
c) It is a backup option in case of No–deal Brexit
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d) It is a plan used by Boris Johnson for no–deal Brexit
Q.60) On which date the referendum for Brexit happened?
a) 23rd June 2016

b) 23rd June 2017
c) 23rd May 2016
d) 24th June 2017
81
Q.61) In which year the Republic of Ireland left the United Kingdom?
a) 1922
00
b) 1897
c) 1917
d) 1935
Q.62) The article 50 of the treaty of European Union is associated with

60
1. The procedure of any member national leaving EU
2. Treaty of Lisbon
3. Related to procedures of Referendum in member nations
4. Related to the trade relations between members of EU
11
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 4 and 2
d) 1 only
18
Passage 7
The pro–democracy uprising that has rocked Hong Kong for the past several months began as a
protest against proposed amendments to Hongkong's X. The amendments were prompted by a
crime committed by a Hongkong man who was accused of strangling his pregnant girlfriend and
stuffing her body in a suitcase while they were in Y in 2018. The suspect fled back to Hong Kong. And
because Hong Kong doesn't have a formal extradition treaty with Taiwan, he couldn't be sent back to
face trial.
After getting the Bill withdrawn, the protesters began seeking an inquiry into police violence and
broader democratic reforms. The demonstrators angry at what they perceive as increased meddling
by Beijing in the freedoms promised to the former British colony when it returned to Chinese rule in
Z. Several pro–democracy rally participants expressed disappointment in what they viewed as
abusive and negligent behavior from police in recent weeks. After thugs dressed in a white beat up
people inside a commuter rail station, leaving 44 injured, Hong Kong residents accused the police of
deliberately being slow to respond. Police, meanwhile, said their resources were stretched because
of the ongoing protests.
Even though freedom of assembly is enshrined Hongkong's constitution, an ordinance inherited
from the colonial era mandates a letter of no objection from the police for any march of more than
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30 people. In recent months, the police have repeatedly rejected protester requests for such letters
citing clashes at previous gatherings. The march remained mostly peaceful as it wound down by
nightfall, but both the High Court and the Court of Final Appeal along the route were charred by
petrol bombs.
Q.63) In the passage, X is –
a) Extradition Law
81
b) Anti protest law
c) Defense of rights law
d) Immigration–related law
00
Q.64) Y, in the passage, can be replaced with:
a) Macau
b) Shanghai
c) Taiwan
d) China
60
Q.65) Which of the following is correct about the political system of Hongkong?
a) Both the executive and legislature have universal adult suffrage

11
b) Only executive have universal adult suffrage

c) Only legislature have universal suffrage
18
Q.66) Which of the following is not an autonomous region of china
a) Tibet
b) Guangxi
c) Xinjiang
d) Shanghai
Q.67) Which of the following year can replace Z in the above passage
a) 1997
b) 1998
c) 1984
d) 2047
Q.68) What do you understand by 8888 uprising?
a) A pro–democracy revolt held in china

b) A pro–democracy and anti–junta uprising held in Mayanmar
c) A civil protest going on in Chilli
d) An anti extradition bill protest going on in Hongkong
Section – III: Legal Reasoning
CP/20/C30
S.69–78) Directions for questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the preceding passage. Some of these principles
may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for
the purposes of this Section. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to
you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the questions.
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Passage 1
A defendant commits false imprisonment where he directly and intentionally imprisons the claimant.
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Both “false” and “imprisonment” are somewhat misleading terms. “False” here does not necessarily
signify “mendacious” or “fallacious”. It is used in the less common sense of “erroneous” or “wrong”
and it is quite possible to commit the tort without “imprisonment” of a person in the common
acceptance of that term. In fact, neither physical contact nor anything resembling a prison is
necessary. If a lecturer locks his class in the lecture room after the usual time for dismissal has
60
arrived, that is false imprisonment; so, too, if a person be restrained from leaving his own house or
any part of it, or be forcibly detained in the public streets.
The law regarding the required state of mind on the part of the defendant is not especially clear.
Historically, there was something to be said for the view that negligence would suffice, but false
imprisonment is a species of trespass to the person and intention is probably now required for all
11
forms of this wrong.

In Grainger v Hill, it was held that imprisonment is possible even if the claimant is so ill that he could
not have moved anyway. In Meering v Grahame–White Aviation Co Ltd, the court went much further
by holding that the tort is committed even if the claimant did not know that he was being detained.
18
If a person has reasonable means of escape, but does not know it, it is submitted that his detention
is, nevertheless, false imprisonment unless any reasonable person would have realised that he had
an available outlet. It is not false imprisonment to prevent a person from leaving your premises
because he will not fulfil a reasonable condition subject to which he entered them. However, certain
authority such as the parental or quasi–parental authority allows persons wielding such authority to
resort to imprisonment of their ward without being liable for the tort of false imprisonment.
Q.69) Jack and Jill were parents to Johnny who was an extremely naughty kid. Once, he ate excessive
sugar even though he had diabetes. Upon learning of this, Jack got extremely angry and, as
punishment, locked him in his room. Johnny filed for false imprisonment.
a) Jack is liable for false imprisonment as he has imprisoned Johnny in the room.
b) Jack is not liable for false imprisonment as it was a punishment and hence not wrong.
c) Jack is liable for false imprisonment as he has restrained the liberty of Johnny.
d) Both a and c.
Q.70) A politician decided to have his rally in the centre of Hazratganj and blocked the roads, and
only people showing their Aadhar cards were allowed to pass. Raj did not have his Aadhar card on
him and, thus, jumped the blockade to go to his house, since this was the only way to his house.
However, he was stopped on the way and asked to show the card or go back and go around. Raj
refused and was stopped from going ahead.
a) The politician has committed false imprisonment since he has completely restrained Raj.
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b) The politician has not committed false imprisonment as Raj can show his Aadhar and pass.
c) The politician has not committed false imprisonment as he did not intend to imprison Raj.
Q.71) Bianca, with the intention of preventing students from exiting the campus to go protest for
their rights, placed police officers at every gate. This was not informed to the students, but a few
students who overheard conversations amonsgt the policemen, came to know that people leaving
campus would be detained.
81
a) Bianca has falsely imprisoned students as they cannot exit the campus.
b) Bianca has not falsely imprisoned students as there was no notice issued for them to stay on
premises.
00
c) Bianca has falsely imprisoned only the students who overheard the conversations.
d) Bianca has not falsely imprisoned students as they have all the freedom to go anywhere in the
campus.
Q.72) Purel was aware that Germs would go out to spread her religion. To prevent this, Purel locked
60
the door of her room when no one was looking. After a few hours, Dettol, sees that Germs is locked,
and unlocks the door. However, Germs was down with fever and was asleep the entire time and did
not realise that she had been locked.
a) Purel has committed false imprisonment as she wrongfully restricted the freedom of movement
11
of Germs to a particular room.

b) Purel has not committed false imprisonment since Germs did not move from her position.
c) Germs did not even realise that she had been falsely imprisoned and hence Purel is not liable.
d) Both b and c.
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Q.73) Gangaram fed up of hearing his neighbour’s complaints about loud music told him that if the
neighbour shows his face in the streets in the next two hours, the former will shoot him. Gangaram
did not mean to implement this threat and did not even own a gun.
a) Gangaram is liable as the neighbor was under the impression that he cannot leave his house.
b) Gangaram is not liable since he did not intend to carry out the threat.
c) Gangaram is not liable as he did not have the capacity to carry out the threat.
d) Both b and c.
Q.74) Garfield tells his girlfriend that he shall unlock the door only if she kisses him. The girlfriend
had come in of her own volition and had had physical relations with Garfield in the past.
a) Garfield has committed false imprisonment.

b) Garfield has not committed false imprisonment as the same was a reasonable condition between
lovers.
c) Garfield has not committed false imprisonment as this was a playful condition.
d) Both b and c.
Q.75) Bruce is an amazing genius often compared to Herlock Somes, the greatest detective to walk
the earth. Once Eve locked Bruce in a trap room and locked the door from the outside. There was a
window in the room which was hidden behind curtains such that a reasonable person would not
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have even noticed it. The room was also on the ground floor. However, Bruce was unable to escape
from the room.
a) Eve has committed false imprisonment.

b) Eve has not committed false imprisonment as there was window in the room.
c) Eve has not committed false imprisonment as any reasonable person could have escaped.
d) Both b and c.
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Q.76) Anil entered the museum after paying a nominal fee, but realized it was not worth it. Upon
trying to exit from the entry–gate itself, he was asked to pay another nominal amount which was
condition imposed upon all visitors to the museum, or he could walk across the museum and exit
through the exit–gate. Anil refused to pay the sum and planned to remain inside the museum unless
00
let out for free through that very gate. The curator of the museum put Anil in a room and locked him
inside.
a) The curator has committed false imprisonment since he is not allowing Anil to exit.
b) The curator has not committed false imprisonment since exit was conditional on a reasonable
condition subject to which Anil entered.
60
c) The curator has not committed false imprisonment since the restraining was not done for wrong
reasons.
d) The curator has not committed false imprisonment since Anil could have exited the museum
through the exit–gate.
11
Q.77) 5 workers were lowered into a mine shaft upon the condition that they shall work for 8 hours
in the mine and would only be brought out once that was over. The only access and exit to the mine
was controlled from the ground level. After 5 hours of work, one of the workers started feeling
18
extremely sick and claustrophobic and requested that he be let out but request was denied. The
worker swooned and then was later taken to the hospital. Which of the following are true?
a) Employer committed false imprisonment.

b) Employer did not commit false imprisonment as the 8 hour condition was reasonable and known
to workers.
c) Employer did not commit false imprisonment as the worker was taken out as soon as he swooned.
d) Both b and c.
Q.78) Volka locked a dark room upon coming out of the same, completely unaware that Dirfy was
still inside. Which of the following are true?
a) Volka has committed false imprisonment.

b) Volka has not committed false imprisonment since he was unaware of the Dirfy being inside.
c) Volka has committed false imprisonment since it is irrelevant if he knew or not.
d) Both a and c.
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Passage 2
For a battery to be committed there must be an act by the defendant that involves contact with the
claimant. The act needs to be intentional only as to the contact, and an intention to cause harm is
not required. Any contact with the body of the claimant (or his clothing) is sufficient to amount to a
battery. The contact does not have to involve literally the defendant’s body coming into contact with
81
the claimant’s body. There is a battery when the defendant shoots the claimant from a distance just
as much as when he strikes him with his fist, and the same is probably true when the defendant
deliberately collides with the car in which the claimant is sitting, shaking him up. The closest we can
get to the central idea is to say that the interference must be “offensive” in the sense that it
00
infringes the claimant’s right to be physically inviolate, to be “let alone”.
Assault requires no contact because its essence is conduct which leads the claimant to apprehend
the application of force. In the majority of cases, an assault precedes a battery, perhaps by only a
very brief interval. It is irrelevant that the claimant is courageous and is not frightened by the threat
or that he could easily defeat the defendant’s attack. Hence, “apprehend” is used in the sense of
60
“expect”. The claimant must, however, have reason to apprehend that the defendant has the
capacity to carry out the threat immediately.
Q.79) X was the friend of Y. X was standing on the terrace when he saw Y entering the same building.
He got hold of a bucket of water and spilled it over Y. He got wet. He was going for a job interview,
11
but couldn’t attend it. Y filed a case for battery. Y said he was playing a prank because Holi was
around the corner. Which of the following are true?
a) X is liable for battery.

18
b) X is not liable for battery.

c) X will not be liable if he can prove that it was a prank.
d) Cannot be determined.
Q.80) X was standing on his terrace with a bucket close to him. Y, while passing by, saw the situation
and apprehended the X was going to drop water on him. As X spilled the water, Y jumped out of the
way and the water did not drench him. Which of the following are true?
a) X is liable for assault.

b) X is not liable for assault.
c) X will not be liable if he can prove that bucket had no water.
d) Cannot be determined.
Q.81) X was standing on his terrace with a bucket in his hands. He was about to spill the water, but Y,
passing by, saw the situation and apprehended that X was going to drop water on him. X,
understanding that Y has realised the threat, kept the bucket on the roof and left. However, while Y
was walking by, a strong wind blew over the bucket and the water dropped on Y. Which of the
following are true?
a) X is liable for assault.

b) X is not liable for either.
c) X is liable battery.
d) Both a and c.
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Q.82) Romeo was eve teasing Juliet, who got frustrated. Juliet then chased Romeo down and
slapped him. Which of the following are true?
a) Juliet is liable for assault.

b) Juliet is not liable for either.
c) Juliet is liable battery.
d) Both a and c.
81
Q.83) Dravok was constantly irritating Helesca by blowing air on her face. Which of the following can
be concluded in light of the passage?
00
a) Dravok is liable for assault.
b) Dravok is not liable for either.
c) Dravok is liable battery.
d) Both a and c.
60
Q.84) Standing with hand on his sword, Babu Bhaiyya shouted at Raju, standing a few feet away
from him, “had you not been the uncle of my children, I would have sliced your head off.” Which of
the following has Babu Bhaiyya committed?
a) Assault.
11
b) Assault and battery.

c) Neither assault nor battery.
d) Insufficient Data.
18
Q.85) Holding a sword an inch away from Raju’s neck, Babu Bhaiyya shouted, “had you not been the
uncle of my children, I would have sliced your head off”. Which of the following has Babu Bhaiyya
committed?
a) Assault.
b) Assault and Battery.
Q.86) Babu Bhaiyya drew his sword in a flash while shouting at Raju, “had you not been the uncle of
my children, I would have sliced your head off.” Babu Bhaiyya has committed which of the
following?
a) Assault.
Q.87) Babu Bhaiyya drew his sword and ran towards Raju who was standing with his back towards
Babu Bhaiyya shouting – “Raju, I will kill you with this sword.”
a) Assault.
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Q.88) Babu Bhaiyya ran towards Raju who was standing with his back towards Babu Bhaiyya
shouting, “Raju I will kill you with this sword” even though he had no sword.
a) Assault.
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Q.89) Babu Bhaiyya and Raju were great friends. One day, Babu Bhaiyya found a sword and ran
00
towards Raju who was standing with his back towards Babu Bhaiyya shouting and smiling, “Raju I will
kill you with this sword.”
a) Assault.
60
11
18
Passage 3
Notice in writing of every Board Meeting shall be given to every Director by hand or by speed post or
by registered post or by courier or by facsimile or by e–mail or by any other electronic means. The
Notice shall be sent to the postal address or e–mail address, registered by the Director with the
company, or in the absence of such details or any change thereto, any of such addresses appearing
in the Director Identification Number (DIN) registration of the Director. Where a Director specifies a
particular means of delivery of Notice, the Notice shall be given to him by such means. Proof of
sending Notice and its delivery shall be maintained by the company. Notice convening a Meeting
shall be given at least seven days before the date of the Meeting, unless the Articles prescribe a
longer period. In case the company sends the Notice by speed post or by registered post or by
courier, an additional two days shall be added for the service of Notice.
To transact urgent business, the Notice, Agenda and Notes on Agenda may be given at shorter
period of time than stated above, if at least one Independent Director, if any, shall be present at
such Meeting. If no Independent Director is present, decisions taken at such a Meeting shall be
circulated to all the Directors and shall be final only on ratification thereof by at least one
Independent Director, if any. In case the company does not have an Independent Director, the
decisions shall be final only on ratification thereof by a majority of the Directors of the company,
unless such decisions were approved at the Meeting itself by a majority of Directors of the company.
In case of an equality of votes, the Chairman shall have a second or casting vote.
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Q.90) Zoye was aware that Reeko would be at a monastery for two weeks (1 Jan – 14 Jan) which
disallowed any communication from the outside world except news of a death in the family. For this
very reason, Zoye sent out the notice to all directors including Reeko via email on 1 January for a
board meeting to be held on 11 January. Is such a board meeting valid?
a) Yes, as the notice was sent following due procedure.

b) No, as the notice never reached Reeko.
c) Yes, as Reeko should not have be inaccessible.
81
d) Insufficient data.
Q.91) Zoye was aware that Reeko would be at a monastery for two weeks (1 Jan – 14 Jan) which
disallowed any communication from the outside world except news of a death in the family. For this
00
reason, Zoye sent out the notice to all directors including Reeko via post on 1 January for a board
meeting to be held on 11 January. Is such a board meeting valid?
a) yes, as the notice was sent following due procedure

b) no, as the notice never reached Reeko
60
c) yes, as Reeko should not have be inaccessible
d) Insufficient data
Q.92) A board meeting, to discuss an agenda which had no urgency, was held without any
Independent Director. Which of the following would validate the decisions taken on the meeting?
11
a) The majority of the directors present in the meeting voting in favour of the resolutions passed.
b) Upon ratification of the decisions by an Independent Director.
c) Both a and b.
18
Q.93) A company had seven directors and no Independent Director. A meeting was held with them
to transact urgent business. Only four directors could attend the meeting of which three voted in
favour of the resolutions and one voted against them. Which of the following is true?
a) The decisions have become final.

b) The decisions have not become final.
c) The chairman shall have to use his casting vote.
Q.94) After watching Harry Porter, one of the directors became a die–hard fan. He instructed his
office to send notice of meetings via Owls. A notice of the board meeting was sent to him via email,
but he failed to attend. He later claimed that since the notice was not sent to him in the specified
manner, the meeting was invalid.
a) The meeting is invalid.

b) The meeting is not invalid.
c) The notice is valid but his failure to attend made the meeting invalid.
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Passage 4
81
According to the IPC, Section 420 states that whoever cheats and thereby dishonestly induces the
person deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to make, alter or destroy the whole or any
part of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed, and which is capable of being
converted into a valuable security, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
00
term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Making of a false representation is one of the essential ingredients to institute the offence of
cheating under Section 420 IPC. In order to bring a case for the offence of cheating, it is not merely
satisfactory to prove that a false representation had been made, but it is further necessary to prove
that the representation was false to the knowledge of the accused and was made in order to deceive
the complainant.
60
Section 415 of IPC states: whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the
person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain
any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he
would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to
11
cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to "cheat".
Q.95) Raghav had the bones of an extremely huge mammal in his possession. An archeologist friend
visiting him mentioned in passing that the bones could belong to an extinct dinosaur and, thus, could
18
be extremely valuable, knowing that they were absolutely devoid of any value. Is the friend liable for
cheating?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, if the bones were actually devoid of value.
Q.96) Raghav had the bones of an extremely huge mammal. An archeologist friend visiting him
mentioned in passing that the bones could belong to an extinct dinosaur and, thus, could be
extremely valuable. Following this advice, Raghav ensured that the bones are not thrown out.
However, the friend realized only after a few days that statement made by him was false. Is the
friend liable for cheating?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, if the bones were actually devoid of value.
Q.97) Nideovon is a shopkeeper selling electronics like TV and washing machines. One day, he was
visited by Rudolph who claims to be an Income Tax officer. Rudolph does so with the intention of
benefiting from any favour that Nideovon may make due to his position. Nideovon is extra cautious
while selling him stuff so that he keeps Rudolph happy and, upon bargaining, readily gives him a
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special discount which was nothing different from what he had given quite a few of his customers.
Turns out, Rudolph was not an IT officer.
a) Rudolph has cheated Nideovon as he misrepresented himself to be an officer.

b) Rudolph has cheated Nideovon as he was given special discount due to his pretended position.
c) Rudolph has not cheated Nideovon as the latter did not give any extra discount.
d) Both a and b.
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Q.98) Nideovon is a shopkeeper selling electronics like TV and washing machines. One day, he visited
by Rudolph who Nideovon assumes to be an Income Tax officer. Nideovon is extra cautious while
selling him stuff and, upon bargaining, gives him a special discount due to his post. Rudolph is actually
a manager.
00
a) Rudolph has cheated Nideovon as he misrepresented himself to be an officer.
b) Rudolph has cheated Nideovon as he was given special discount.
c) Rudolph has not cheated Nideovon.
d) Both a and b.
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Q.99) Brijesh sold a piece of land to Krati claiming that he had title to it, even though he had no title
to it, but believing that he shall get the title by the time the deal goes through.
a) Brijesh has not cheated as he believed he would get the title.

11
b) Brijesh has cheated since he represented that he had the title.

c) Brijesh would have cheated only if he does not get the title.
d) Both a and c.
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Passage 5
According to the basic English law definition, criminal conspiracy is when multiple persons have an
agreement for an unlawful act by unlawful means or even using unlawful means to carry out an
otherwise lawful object. A conspiracy is basically an agreement between multiple individuals to
either do an illegal act; or do an otherwise legal act by an illegal means. There is a need for a joint
intention, but no specific need for a physical act. Before the amendment of 1913, an act was needed
to punish someone for a conspiracy, but now is not the case.
According to the Indian Penal Code, the term, ‘illegal’ includes everything that is an offence, or which
furnishes a ground for civil action or which is prohibited by law. Hence, two or more persons would be
held guilty under this provision if they agree to do an act prohibited by law or which is illegal or gives a
ground for a civil action. However, it is also essential that such act has ‘mens rea’ – an element of
intention to commit not just an act, but a crime.
In all robbery, there is either theft or extortion. Theft is “robbery” if, in order to the committing of
the theft, or in committing the theft, or in carrying away or attempting to carry away property
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obtained by the theft, the offender, for that end, voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any
person death or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death or of instant hurt, or of instant
wrongful restraint.
Extortion is “robbery” if the offend¬er, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of
the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, of
instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person or to some other person, and, by so
putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted..
When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, or where the whole
81
number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery, and persons present
and aiding such commission or attempt, amount to five or more, every person so committing,
attempting or aiding, is said to commit “dacoity”.
00
Q.100) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn were friends who often hung out together. Once, upon being
graded badly in the exams by Light, they were extremely frustrated and started venting their feelings
for Light and coming up with innovative ways to kill him. Next day, Gorn kills Light by one of the
methods discussed by the 5. Have the 5 committed criminal conspiracy?
a) Yes.
60
b) No.
c) No, only the person who recommended that method and Gorn are liable.
d) Yes, as there was clear joint intent to harm Light.
11
Q.101) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn were friends who often hung out together. Once, upon being
graded badly in the exams by Light, they were extremely frustrated and started venting their feelings
for Light and coming up with innovative ways to kill him. They agreed to kill Light by blowing up his
car. Next day, Mira and Kira supplied the explosive and Gorn with Xing went to plant it which killed
18
Light. Have the 5 committed criminal conspiracy?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) No, only the person who recommended that method and Gorn are liable.
d) Yes, as there was clear joint intent to harm Light.
Q.102) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn were friends who often hung out together. They had another
common friend name Light whose birthday was close. The five got together and planned the
birthday and ensured that they get to give the traditional birthday bumps. On the day of the
birthday, they secretly entered Light’s house and surprised him and gave him birthday bumps. Has a
criminal conspiracy been committed by the 5?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, as they gave him birthday bumps.
d) No, as birthday bumps are traditional and not illegal.
Q.103) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn were escaping after committing theft in a house. While coming
out of a particular room, Gorn locks it behind him, unaware that there were children hiding under
the bed, thus locking them inside. Have the 5 committed robbery?
a) Yes, as Gorn intentionally locked the room.
CP/20/C30
b) No, only Gorn did it and no one else.

c) Yes, as they were all involved in the theft.
d) No, as he was unaware.
Q.104) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn armed with knives and guns entered a house and started
escaping after committing the theft. All of them were out of the house, but suddenly Gorn’s face was
seen by the owner of the house and Gorn shot him down. Which of the following have the 5
committed?
81
I. Criminal Conspiracy
II. Robbery
III. Dacoity
00
a) I
b) I & II
c) I, II & III
d) II & III
60
Q.105) Mira, Kira, Yao, Xing and Gorn armed with guns, knives and swords entered a house and
started escaping after committing the theft. All of them were out of the house, but suddenly Gorn’s
face was seen by the owner of the house and so Gorn shot him down. Upon reaching the main road,
they were debating how to disperse. Light was passing by and, recognizing his five friends, asked
them if they needed a lift, and eventually dropped them home. Which of the following have the 6
11
committed?
I. Criminal Conspiracy
II. Robbery
III. Dacoity
18
a) I & II
b) I, II & III
c) II & III
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

S.106–120) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage, graph or other representation. Please answer each question by deriving information from
such passage, graph, or other representation, or applying mathematical operations on such
information as required by the question.
S.106–110) Directions for questions: The tables below give the data for the vehicles sold in India in
the month of December 2019. While the first table is the total vehicles sold including exports the
second table gives the number of vehicles sold by the players excluding exports. For questions 1–5
assume that these were the only players who sold vehicles in the market in December 2018 and
December 2019 respectively.
India – New Vehicle Sales

By type
(Including Exports)
CP/20/C30
Type Dec. 2019 Dec. 2018

Passenger Vehicles 235,786 238,692
Commercial Vehicles 66,622 75,984
Grand Total 302,408 314,676
81
India – New Vehicle Sales by Makers (excluding export sales)
Make Dec. 2019 Dec. 2018
Maruti Suzuki 124,375 121,479
Tata 44,254 50,440
00
Mahindra & Mahindra 30,870 30,628
Hyundai 37,953 42,093
Toyota 6,544 11,836
60
Answer the questions based on the following information:
Q.106) What is the total number of vehicles exported in December 2019?

11
a) 45,275
b) 58,412
c) 62,344
d) cannot be determined
18
Q.107) What percentage of the total vehicles sold in December 2019 were commercial vehicles
(approximately)?
a) 25%
b) 27%
c) 19%
d) 22%
Q.108) If it is known that Hyundai exported 10% of the total vehicles manufactured in December
2018, find the total number of vehicles sold by Hyundai in the month of December 2018?
a) 46770
b) 45600
c) 44820
d) none of these
Q.109) By what percentage approximately is the total vehicles sold in December 2019 more or less
than the number of vehicles sold in December 2018 (including exports)?
a) 6%
b) 8%
CP/20/C30
c) 3%
d) 4%
Q.110) Which company approximately sold about 20 percent of the total vehicles sold excluding
exports in December 2018?
a) Toyota
b) Tata
81
c) Hyundai
d) none of these
S.111–115) Directions for questions: 2 trains start from A and B and move towards B and A
00
respectively. Train from A starts at 8 am and reaches B at 4 pm while train from B starts at 10 am
and reaches A at 10 pm. Also, Train from A crosses a platform 200 m long in 10 seconds and a man
moving in the same direction at 5 m/sec in 5 seconds.
Q.111) What is the length of train starting from A?

60
a) 200 m
b) 150 m
c) 100 m
d) 75 m
11
Q.112) If train A maintains a constant and consistent speed during the journey, what is the distance
between stations A and B?
18
a) 2000 km
b) 1300 km
c) 1280 km
d) 1008 km
Q.113) At what time will the two trains meet?
a) 1.20 pm
b) 2.00 pm
c) 1.45 pm
d) 1.36 pm
S.114–115) Additional information for questions: Train from station B met with an accident after
travelling for 1 hour and it’s speed reduced to half of its normal speed.
Q.114) What will be the speed of train B after the accident?
a) 11.66 m/sec
b) 15 m/sec
c) 21.66 m/sec
d) none of these
Q.115) When will the 2 trains now meet?
CP/20/C30
a) 1 pm
b) 1.30 pm
c) 2.15 pm
S.116–120) Directions for questions: 3 people A, B and C were playing a game in which the person
who loses in a particular round will double the money available with the other players at the
81
beginning of the round. They played 3 rounds and each person lost a round in the order A, B and C
i.e. A lost the first round, B the second and C lost the third round. At the end of the game A, B and C
had Rs.1000, 2000 and 3000 respectively. Apart from the money in the system, no other amount was
either taken out or added to the game.
00
Q.116) What was the amount with C at the beginning of the game?
a) Rs.1,000
b) Rs.1125
c) Rs.2500
60
d) none of these
Q.117) Find the profit percentage of B after the three games?

11
a) 18.18%
b) 14.28%
c) 11.11%
18
Q.118) What was lowest amount with any one of them at the beginning of the game or the end of
any one of the three rounds?
a) Rs.1125
b) Rs.500
c) Rs.1000
d) Rs. 250
Q.119) Who among the 3 players gained the maximum amount?
a) A
b) B
c) C
Q.120) By what percentage was the amount with B at the end of round 2 more or less than the
amount with A at the end of round 1?
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 200%
d) 300%
CP/20/C30
Section – V: Logical Reasoning

and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other
than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
81
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
S.121–125) Directions for questions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions,
00
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.
Q.121) Statement: "Looking to hire someone with 2+ PQE on urgent basis." – An advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. People without 2+ PQE are also welcome.
60
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
a) Both I and II are implicit

b) Neither I nor II is implicit
11
c) Only I is implicit
d) Only II is implicit
Q.122) Statement: The best plaint is one which is crisp, concise, and drafted in simple English.
Assumptions:
18
I. Verbosity is the key to drafting.

II. Drafting can be mastered over time.

Q.123) Statement: Fashion on Wheels is now in Delhi! Pink bus travelling from Shapur Jat to Central
Delhi with clothes on sale and rent. Touch, try, and then buy.
Assumptions:
I. People would like to get a feel of the clothes before buying them.
II. Clothes on wheels is a new thing in Delhi.

Q.124) Statement: Plants are an ideal gift for all occasions.

Assumptions:
I. People like to gift on all occasions.
CP/20/C30
II. Plants provide oxygen.

Q.125) Statement: There is a switch in the automobile market. Ubering is the new thing.
81
Assumptions:
I. People are working long hours to make money to buy a car.
II. Uber is unreliable and can never replace private cars.
00
60
S.126–131) Directions for questions: Read the paragraph carefully and apply the same in order to
answer the questions below.
Paragraph: Chance are, when the government submits its final ‘intermediary guidelines’ to the
Supreme Court later this month—meant for social media firms like Facebook and messaging services
11
like WhatsApp—it will further tighten and reiterate some of the existing ones, like the tracing/origin
of messages such as those on WhatsApp. The government needing such information in certain cases
is understandable. Theoretically, for instance, WhatsApp forwards talking of a group of Muslims
planning to slaughter cows can result in communal violence; so the government needs to know from
18
where the messages originated. And, it would help the Delhi Police immensely if the originators of
several WhatsApp messages in the recent JNU attacks can be traced. Logically speaking, if the
government can trace/tap phone calls today, there is no reason why this should not extend to newer
forms of messaging/communications. Indeed, in October last year, the US Attorney General, the UK
secretary of state, and the Australian home minister, among others, wrote to Facebook, asking it to
ensure that the police get lawful access to its content for precisely the same reason of maintaining
law and order; firms like Apple and Facebook have also been petitioned by the US not to encrypt
certain type of data—Apple has just dropped a plan to allow iPhone users to fully encrypt their data
backup on the iCloud—as this could hurt their investigations. The problem, however, is what this
does to the privacy of individuals, which, the Supreme Court has ruled, is a fundamental right.
Q.126) Premise: If the government can trace/tap phone calls today, then there is no reason why this
should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications. It is true that Government can tap
calls. Which of the following is also true?
a) New forms of messaging are free from Government surveillance.

b) Government should tap new forms of messaging.
c) Both a and b.
d) None of the above.
Q.127) Which of the following would weaken the argument in favour of privacy and against
surveillance?
CP/20/C30
a) While the government has, in its intermediary guidelines as well as the personal data protection
Bill, laid out very broad conditions under which it can ask for data, the safeguards for privacy haven’t
really been spelled out.
b) There has to be an independent mechanism to monitor breach of privacy—maybe a SC–
monitored process—and to see what the government is doing with the data it is collecting.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
81
Q.128) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument in favour of privacy and
against surveillance?
a) While the government has, in its intermediary guidelines as well as the personal data protection
00
Bill, laid out very broad conditions under which it can ask for data, the safeguards for privacy haven’t
really been spelled out.
b) There has to be an independent mechanism to monitor breach of privacy—maybe a SC–
monitored process—and to see what the government is doing with the data it is collecting.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
60
Q.129) Which of the following would strengthen the argument in favour of surveillance by state?
a) WhatsApp has consistently claimed it cannot trace messages.

11
b) The existing intermediary guidelines suggest that the Government may ask WhatsApp to decrypt
WhatsApp messages and proactively identify and remove unlawful information and content.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
18
Q.130) Which of the following would weaken the argument that because phones are permitted to be
tapped message should also be?
a) Even in the case of phone taps, the Justice Srikrishna panel has said India “lacks sufficient legal
and procedural safeguards to protect individual civil liberties”.
b) There is nothing weak in the argument.
c) Neither a nor b.
Q.131) Choose the best fit title for the above passage?
a) WhatsApp messages are data encrypted.

b) WhatsApp data to govt? Mechanism needed to ensure citizen’s rights and privacy.
c) Either a or b
d) Neither a nor b
Paragraph: Believe it or not, while India is spread over 1.26 million sq miles, just the Amazon is 2.12
million sq. miles! Brazil is the third largest hub for Unicorns in the world—a symbol of new age
economy. But all we know of Brazil is Pele and football. The India–Brazil bilateral summit will be an
CP/20/C30
important occasion to consolidate relationship between the two countries. While there is
considerable distance between India and Brazil, the former is 15,000 miles away, yet striking
similarities can make the heart grow fonder.
Q.132) Which of the following, if true, would further the author’s argument?
a) Both countries are multi–cultural.

b) Both countries are united by democratic principles.
81
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.133) Which of the following would be an incentive for the relationship?
00
a) By the bilateral relationship the door is wide open to forge a social, cultural, people–to–people
and economic relationship to boost trade from an insignificant $7 billion at present.
b) Brazil’s number one export to India is crude oil, and it is experiencing an oil production boom and
will be amongst the top–5 oil producing countries in the world over the next decade.
60
c) Brazil started a bioethanol programme which is highly effective and is a means of bio–energy
which can fire up thermal cogeneration plants.
Q.134) Which of the following is a suitable course of action for furthering the relationship?
11
a) Bollywood should take cue, and shoot a film in Brazil triggering people to visit the country,
connecting the two nations in an enduring relationship.
b) The Brazilian ministry of mines and energy has said that “India and Brazil are key players in the
18
international energy landscape.”

c) The time is right for deepening this relationship.
Q.135) Choose a suitable title for the above premise?
a) India–Brazil Ties.
b) Getting ready for the carnival.
c) Neither a nor b.
d) Both a and b.
Paragraph: The Supreme Court’s recent verdict on an appeal seeking the disqualification of a
Manipur Assembly MLA for defection was notable for being the second SC judgment in about as
many months questioning the Speaker’s role vis–a–vis the disqualification of House members.
Justice RF Nariman, in the three–member bench’s judgment, exhorts Parliament to rethink whether
a Speaker can be trusted to impartially respond to disqualification petitions when they “continue to
belong to a particular political party.” He suggested, citing that the removal of even Supreme Court
judges is decided by a procedure independent of the judiciary, that the Constitution be amended to
substitute the Speaker with a permanent, external, independent tribunal to render swift and
impartial decisions on disputes arising under the anti–defection law.
CP/20/C30
Q.136) Which of the following would strengthen the above argument?
a) In November, last year, Justice NV Ramana, noted the “growing trend of Speakers acting against
the constitutional duty of being neutral.
b) If a “Speaker is not able to disassociate from his political party and behaves contrary to the spirit
of the neutrality and independence, such person does not deserve to be reposed with public trust
and confidence.”
81
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.137) Which of the following can be rightly concluded from the above premise?
00
a) The speaker has the constitutional commitment to be impartial.
b) The CEC should oversea decisions of speaker.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
60
Q.138) Which of the following is an example of result of impartiality?
a) The speaker cannot delay the process as it is prescribed agenda by the members of the house.
b) In the case of disqualifications lack of impartiality would damage the numerical strength of the
11
party to which they are affiliated by simply refusing to adjudicate on such pleas.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
18
Q.139) If we appoint an independent authority to check decisions taken by constitutional office, we

would start viewing every government nominated office with suspicion. The Supreme Court directed
appointment of independent body to check decisions taken by the constitutionally empowered
office of Speaker. It is therefore also true that:
a) We would be suspicious of every government appointment.

b) CEC would take charge.
c) Both a and b
d) All of the above
Paragraph: US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at
Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she
should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not,
so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and
its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay
heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts
report, released recently.
Q.140) Which of the following is the right inference that the author is trying to draw?
CP/20/C30
a) Climate Change is a real thing and it cannot be ignored.

b) Studies have been conducted urging need to address the issue of climate change.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.141) Which of the following would strengthen the author’s argument in support of paying
attention to the issue of climate change?
81
a) By 2050, the number of people living in areas that have non–zero chance of lethal heat waves
would rise from zero today to between 700 million and 1.2 billion—that’s a galactic jump in
vulnerability.
b) The average share of annual outdoor working hours lost due to extreme heat and humidity in
00
vulnerable regions—all developing or least developed economies—would rise to 20% by 2050, from
10% today.
c) By 2030, the average number of lost daylight working hours could put nearly 2.5–4.5% of the GDP
at risk.
60
Q.142) Given nearly 75% of India’s labour force is employed in heat–exposed work. If India does not
undertake urgent reforms and skilling initiatives, it will face a future of rampant
unemployment/under–employment. Which of the following is correct if it is true that India has yet
to undertake any reformative measures and skill initiatives for its labour?
11
a) A future of rampant unemployment is going to follow.

b) Skill initiatives are not related to employment rated.
c) Both a and b
18
d) Neither a nor b
Q.143) Which of the following could perhaps help Mnuchin take Thunberg more seriously?
a) As per the McKinsey projections, the US is expected to witness more than 10% fall in grain yields
by 2050 compared to the 1998–2017 period due to heat waves.
b) An analysis by the Cambridge Risk Studies Centre, cited in the McKinsey study, projects more than
$1 trillion in damage due to a tail risk hurricane in eastern US.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.144) Which of the following would incentivise corporates to look into the issue of climate change?
a) The UN estimates might be very close to the point of no return for a catastrophic warming future.
b) Funding for R&D on climate solutions has risen by over $3 Billion a year, writes Bill Gates,
Microsoft founder.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q.145) Choose the best suited title for the premise?
a) Climate action is missing urgency.
CP/20/C30
b) Mnuchin and others scoffing at her should look at what McKinsey estimates is in store for the
planet from inaction.
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
S.146–150) Directions for questions: All the children in class 5 were supposed to definitely opt for at
least one of the 5 sports available in the school. The sports were Cricket, Football, Badminton,
Carrom and Chess. A student could opt for more than one of the sports out of five. Five children of
81
class 5D Pratyush, Reyyansh, Dhairya, Mahesh and Raaghav submitted their choice to the class
teacher. Incidentally, all of them had selected a different number of sports out of the 5 mentioned.
While one of them had selected one sport, the second had selected two, the third three and so on. It
was also found that one sport was selected by all of them, one by four of them, the third by three of
00
them and so on.
Additional information is as follows:

1. Badminton was chosen by only Mahesh.
2. There were at least three sports common between Reyyansh and Dhairya but Reyyansh did not
select Football.
60
3. Chess was the only sport selected by Raaghav.
Q.146) Which child selected 2 sports?

11
a) Raaghav
b) Pratyush
c) Mahesh
18
Q.147) How many different solutions are possible?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Q.148) Which sport was chosen by exactly three of the five children?
a) Cricket
b) Carrom
c) Badminton
Q.149) Which child selected all the five sports mentioned?
a) Mahesh
b) Reyyansh
c) Dhairya
CP/20/C30
Q.150) If it is known that exactly three of the mentioned five children selected Cricket, then, a
complete list of the sports chosen by Pratyush is?
a) Cricket, Chess
b) Carrom, Cricket
c) Chess, Carrom
d) none of these
81
00
60
11
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CP/20/C30

Section – I: English Language

a) A person’s natural instinct.

a) They are terrible American foods.

a) The museum has been unsuccessful in fulfilling its objectives.

a) Disgusting things can cause unpleasantness across the world.

Q.8) Which of the following is indicated in the passage?

Q.9) Is disgust a necessary emotion? Why?

a) It is a necessary emotion because it saves us from harmful foods.

c) It is a necessary emotion because it brings about cultural distinctions among us.

a) To illustrate common occurrence of food haters.

a) It focused on maximizing value to the shareholders.

a) No, because Roger Martin’s views are an inversion of earlier views.

a) Mandatory disclosures do not require measuring customer value.

a) Focus on customer satisfaction yields long term benefits.

a) From high priced exclusive brands to low priced everyday brands.

a) Founder of North Face.

a) It is a showcase of future of garments.

a) By creating designs that will never go out of fashion.

a) By creating new garments from scrap of old garments.

a) Knowledge about long lasting fashions.

c) Awareness about customers’ perception of environmental friendliness.

a) Making affordable clothing.

a) Humans travelling from one place to another.

a) Bats have a versatile immunity system.

b) Because bats are not parasites.

a) Environmental conditions make our immune system less effective.

a) It enhances the immune system.

Section – II: Current Awareness

a) Medical Council of India

c) National Medical Commission

Q.33) When was the Medical Council of India established?

a) National Medical Entrance Test

c) National Eligibility cum Entrance Test

Q.35) The National Medical Commission is affiliated to the Ministry of?

a) Human Resource Development

Q.36) Where was the 45th G7 Summit, 2019 held?

Q.37) Which of the following countries is not a member of the G7?

Q.38) Which of the following countries was not invited?

Q.45) Where is the headquarters of EU?

a) Prevention of Money Laundering Act

Q.50) Who is the Minister for Commerce and Industry?

a) National Weather Service

Q.52) What is the classification used to determine the intensity of cyclones?

Q.53) What is the meaning of Fani?

a) Category 5 Tropical Cyclone

d) Category 4 Tropical Cyclone

Q.56) X can be replaced by:–

Q.57) Who coined the term BREXIT?

a) England and Northern Ireland

Q.59) What is Backstop?

d) It is a plan used by Boris Johnson for no–deal Brexit

Q.60) On which date the referendum for Brexit happened?

a) 23rd June 2016

Q.62) The article 50 of the treaty of European Union is associated with

Q.63) In the passage, X is –

a) Both the executive and legislature have universal adult suffrage

b) Only executive have universal adult suffrage

Q.66) Which of the following is not an autonomous region of china

Q.68) What do you understand by 8888 uprising?

a) A pro–democracy revolt held in china

Section – III: Legal Reasoning

forms of this wrong.