Mock Clat-32: Question Paper Section - I: English Language

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MOCK CLAT–32
Question Paper
Section – I: English Language

S.1–8) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding
passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage 1
In 1972 the U.S. government tried to stop The New York Times and The Washington Post from
publishing the Pentagon Papers, a top–secret Department of Defense study on the Vietnam War. In
its well–known decision, the Supreme Court held that preventing the publication violated the First
Amendment. But a majority of the justices also thought that the newspapers could be possibly
punished for the publication, even if stopping the publication was unconstitutional. The Pentagon
Papers decision was about the ability of government to stop the publication of information – in
other words, its ability to impose a “prior restraint.” It left open the possibility of prosecuting the
publishers after the publication.
A number of subsequent Supreme Court decisions did protect publishers who had published truthful
information in violation of the law. For example, the court prohibited the punishment of a television
station that broadcast the name of a rape victim in violation of a state law; it prohibited the
punishment of a newspaper that published the content of confidential judicial proceedings, and also
prohibited the punishment of a radio station that broke a federal statute by broadcasting an
unlawfully recorded phone conversation.
But while these publications were all constitutionally protected by the freedoms of speech and the
press, none of them involved national security information. The outcome may be very different
when it comes to the disclosure of secret national security materials. The constitutionality of
prosecutions for the unauthorized possession and publication of national security information is
likely to depend on the specific dangers caused by the disclosure.
The pivotal questions are likely to be whether lives were endangered by the disclosure, or whether
the government was simply trying to suppress information embarrassing to itself.
At the same time, some judges are likely to defer to the government’s own assessment of the
materials and refuse to conduct an independent evaluation of the risks they posed.
“In my judgment the judiciary may not … re determine for itself the probable impact of disclosure on
the national security,” wrote Justice John Marshall Harlan for himself and two other justices in the
Pentagon Papers decision. Some of today’s Supreme Court justices – Justice Clarence Thomas, for
example – are likely to agree with the sentiment.
The Assange indictment includes specific allegations of publication of life–threatening information.

The indictment accuses Assange of publishing the names of American intelligence sources, knowing
fully well that the publication would endanger their lives.
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These charges might be found constitutional. Judges may understandably be reluctant to prohibit
the government from punishing the publication of such sensitive life–threatening information.
Assange’s indictment also involves a number of charges that are less likely to withstand
constitutional scrutiny. Assange is charged with “obtaining” information, including detainees’
assessment briefs from Guantanamo and Iraq rules–of–engagement files.
Q.1) What was the Government trying to prove by its decision in the Pentagon Papers Case?
a) it could challenge the order of the supreme Court

b) it could prevent certain actions beforehand
c) it could withhold information from the public
d) it could punish publishers
Q.2) Which word in the passage means ‘breaking of a moral or legal code’?
a) endangered
b) constitutional
c) violation
d) threatening
Q.3) ……did protect publishers who had published truthful information in violation of thelaw.
Who is being referred to here as protector?
a) Supreme Court
b) Government
c) Judges
d) Press
Q.4) Who wrote for himself and two other justices?
a) Justice Thomas
b) Assange
c) Justice Allenmore
d) Justice Harlan
Q.5) Assange was not accused of which of the following?
a) publishing information about Intelligence officers

b) publishing life threatening information
c) threatening American intelligence sources
d) obtaining information from classified Government files.
Q.6) Which word in the passage is an antonym of ‘publicized’?
a) widely known
b) confidential
c) advertised
d) broadcast
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Q.7) In which of the following situations would the court not protect publishers?
a) when publications involved violation of state laws

b) when publications contained confidential judicial proceedings
c) publication of top secret documents
d) when publications involved national security information that could endanger lives
Q.8) What reason did the Supreme Court give when it restrained the U.S. government from trying to
stop The New York Times and The Washington Post from publishing the Pentagon Papers?
a) it violated the First Amendment

b) publication of truthful information could not be restrained
c) freedom of press could not be curtailed
d) Lives were not endangered by this publication
S.9–15) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding
passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage 2
Educators are seriously concerned about the high rate of dropouts among the doctor of philosophy
candidates and the consequent loss of talent to a nation in need of Ph.D.s. Some have placed the
dropout loss as high as 50 per cent. The extent of the loss was, however, largely a matter of expert
guessing.
Last week a well–rounded study was published. It was based on 22,000 questionnaires sent to
former graduate students who were enrolled in 24 universities and seemed to show many past fears
to be groundless.
The dropout rate was found to be 31 per cent, and in most cases the dropouts, while not completing
the Ph.D. requirements, went on to do productive work.
They are not only doing well financially, but, according to the report, are not far below the income
levels of those who went on to complete their doctorates.
The study, called "Attrition of Graduate Students at the Ph.D. Level in the Traditional Arts and
Sciences," was made at Michigan State University under a $60,000 grants from the States Office of
Education. It was conducted by Dr. Allan Tucker, former assistant dean of the university and now
chief academic officer of the Board of Regents of the State University System of Florida.
Discussing the study last week, Dr. Tucker said the project was initiated “because of the concerns
frequently expressed by graduate faculties and administrators that some of the individuals who
dropped out of Ph.D. programs were capable of completing the requirements for the degree.
"Attrition at the Ph. D. level is also thought to be a waste of precious faculty time and a drain on
university resources already being used to capacity. Some people expressed the opinion that the
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shortage of highly trained specialist and college teachers could be reduced by persuading the
dropouts to return to graduate school to complete the Ph. D. program. "
"The results of our research," Dr. Tucker concluded, "did not support these opinions.”
The study found that:
Lack of motivation was the principle reason for dropping out
Most dropouts went as far in their doctoral programs as was consistent with their levels of ability or
their specialties.
Most dropouts are now engaged in work consistent with their education and motivation.
The dropout rate was highest in the humanities (50%) and lowest in the natural sciences (29%) and is
higher in lower–quality graduate schools.
Nearly 75 per cent of the dropouts said there was no academic reason for their decision, but those
who mentioned academic reasons cited failure to pass qualifying examinations, uncompleted
research and failure to pass language exams.
"Among the single most important personal reasons identified by dropouts for noncompletion of
their Ph. D. program," the study found, "lack of finances was marked by 19 per cent."
As an indication of how well the dropouts were doing, a chart showed that 2 per cent whose studies
were in the humanities were receiving $20,000 and more annually while none of the Ph. D.s with
that background reached this figure.
The Ph. D.s shone in the $7,500 to $15,000 bracket with 78 per cent at that level against 50 per cent
for the dropouts. This may also be an indication of the fact that top salaries in the academic fields,
where Ph. D.s tend to rise to the highest salaries, are still lagging behind other fields.
In the social sciences 5 per cent of the Ph. D.s reached the $20,000 plus figure as against 3 per cent
of the dropouts but in the physical sciences they were neck–and – neck with 5 per cent each.
Academic institutions employed 90 per cent of the humanities Ph. D.s as against 57 per cent of the
humanities dropouts. Business and industry employed 47 per cent of the physical science Ph. D.s and
38 per cent of the physical science dropouts. Government agencies took 16 per cent of the social
science Ph. D.s and 32 per cent of the social science dropouts.
As to the possibility of getting dropouts back on campus, the outlook was glum.
"The main conditions which would have to prevail for at least 25 per cent of the dropouts who might
consider returning to graduate school would be to guarantee that they would retain their present
level of income and in some cases their present job.”
Q.9) The author would agree that
a) steps should be taken to get the dropouts back to school particularly in certain disciplines
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b) since the dropout does just about as well financially as the Ph. D. degree getter, there is no
justifiable reason for the former to return to his studies.
c) the high dropout rate is largely attributable to the lack of stimulation on the part of faculty
members
d) the dropout should return to a lower quality school to continue his studies
Q.10) The article states that
a) not having sufficient funds to continue accounts for more Ph. D. dropouts than all the other
reasons combined
b) in fields such as English, philosophy, and the arts, the dropouts are doing better in the higher
salary brackets than the Ph. D.'s
c) at the $10,000 earning level, there is a higher percentage of dropouts than the percentage of Ph.
D.'s
d) in physics, geology, and chemistry the Ph. D. 's are twice as numerous in the higher salary brackets
than the dropouts.
Q.11) Research has shown that
a) dropouts are substantially below Ph. D.'s in financial attainment

b) the incentive factor is a minor one in regard to pursuing Ph. D. studies
c) the Ph. D. candidate is likely to change his field of specialization if he drops out
d) about one–third of those who start Ph. D. work do not complete the work to earn the degree
Q.12) Meeting foreign language requirements for the Ph. D.
a) is the most frequent reason for dropping out

b) is more difficult for the science candidate than for the humanities candidates
c) is considered part of the so–called "qualification" examination
d) is an essential for acquiring a Ph. D. degree
Q.13) Dr. Tucker felt that
a) a primary purpose of his research project was to arrive at a more efficient method for dropping
incapable Ph. D. applicants
b) a serious aspect of the dropout situation was the deplorable waste of productive talent
c) Ph. D. dropouts were responsible for considerable loss of time and money on the part of the
university
d) his project should be free of outside interference and so he rejected outside financial assistance
for the project
Q.14) After reading the article, one would refrain from concluding that
a) colleges and universities employ a substantial number of Ph. D. dropouts

b) Ph. D. are not earning what they deserve in nonacademic positions
c) optimism reigns in regard to getting Ph. D. dropouts to return to their pursuit of the degree
d) a Ph. D. dropout, by and large, does not have what it takes to earn the degree
Q.15) The meaning of Attrition as used in the passage is best expressed by
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a) attack
b) friction
c) abrasion
d) reduction
S.16–23) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
Passage 3
The Many That I Am is a short collection of writings from Nagaland that lives up to its name. It is
fresh, multifarious and contains endless possibilities. Edited by writer and filmmaker Anungla Zoe
Longkumer, one of the strengths of this book is its ability to recognise the limitation of the written
word and not to put it at par with everything that’s unwritten. By now, there are a few popular Naga
names that have made it to the literary landscape in English like TemsulaAo, EasterineKire, Jasmine
Patton and others. Longkumer says, “Instead of ‘others’ depicting a somewhat superficial image of
the Nagas, it is Naga writers who are now espousing the need for honest probity into our inner
selves in order to correct our past mistakes by creating a livable present.”
The honesty reflects most in the artwork and poetry—paintings like ‘Letting go’ (AnihoChishi) and
MarrianeMurry’s ‘Untitled’ present this constant tussle between holding on and drifting away.
TheyieKeditsu’s succinct poem Odyssey that says, ‘In leaving, you will learn your place’ has similar
thoughts to offer. There’s also ThejkhrienuoYhome’s clever graphic strip A Fairytale Like any Other
which reverses the power we associate with the ‘untouched’ and the ‘impenetrable’. A brave female
warrior climbs a jagged mountain and shows a tiny cub the way home. The focus here is on the act
of climbing—of reaching out and exploration. It is a great metaphor for the entrapment of
knowledge and mythology under the hands of few. Experimenting with multiple genres and budding
writers could be testing, but this book is a good start.
Crafting the Word, on the other hand is voluminous in its content comprising of 26 writers and a
visual artist from neighbouring state, Manipur. Among them, four are Sahitya Akademi winners—
Maharaj Kumari Binodini, Sunita Ningombam, Arambam Ongbi Memchoubi and Moirangthem
Borkanya—write primarily in Meiteilon (Manipuri), Tangkhul and English. They try to locate the
experiences of the Manipuri women across a wide multitude—home and the world, protest, body,
desire, silence, widowhood and more. As noted by Nahakpam Aruna, the literary evidence of
Meitei–Mayek script goes back to 8th century, while the hill tribes continued to record their stories
in the oral tradition. It might be erroneous to think that both these books are sister–anthologies but
they do mirror a few commonalities.
The newer writings for example, express abuse from the victim’s perspectives—while Naga writer
Neikehienuo Mepfhuo’s story My Mother’s Daughter speaks of the indoctrination of domestic
violence through silence, Yuimi Vashum’s poems in Crafting a Word are telling memories of child
sexual abuse. Most of these personal narratives are confessional in style and in sync with the oral
traditions. The cyclical nature of some issues like daughter–mother generational unease is another
thread of intersection between both the anthologies. The women from the older generations try to
share the evolution of their ‘wisdom’, the timeline makes this interesting. They try different
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strategies to convince them of the perks of continuing the order of patriarchy. Sometimes, it is also
the way the story is told that the locus of power gets validated in societies that find orthodoxy the
only way to ‘preserve’ their heritage.
Women in these contexts are often found to live a complex reality of contradictions—sometimes
vocal and at other times silent about the needless loop of the victim becoming the perpetrator of
oppression. The worlds we see in these books are very much like our own, to that effect, the prose
and poetry have been carefully chosen, and they don’t come across as either nostalgic or euphoric
about conservatism. Haripriya Soibam’s terrific translation of Manipuri poems like When the Apsaras
Awakened by Chongtham Subadani deserves praise. The rebellion of dancing girls in the original
feels retained in English. The flavour and the rhythm of the lines (just like anklets) are bound to
strike a chord.
Finally, one ought to read these books not as new ‘literature’ but as new creative forces to keep the
conversation going. This is more important than writers from the Northeast being canonised and
placed in the academic/market hierarchy of things. The struggle is not simply for visibility but also
internal freedoms of many kinds. To quote author Toni Morrison, “Freeing yourself was one thing,
claiming ownership of that freed self was another.”
Q.16) Which of the following words as used in the passage conveys the same meaning as ‘to become
involved with or support an activity or opinion’?
a) canonised
b) espousing
c) nostalgic
d) euphoric
Q.17) What image are ‘others’ depicting about Nagas?
a) A real image
b) A bad image
c) An artificial image
d) A good image
Q.18) How should one read these books?
a) as creative forces
b) as new literature
c) as school text books
d) as pieces of fiction
Q.19) Which of the following phrases would refer to the word ‘perpetrator’ as used in the passage?
a) a law–abiding citizen
b) a person who does charitable work
c) a scholarly person
d) a person who carries out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act
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Q.20) ‘In leaving, you will learn your place’. In the passage, who of the following is associated with
this idea?
a) Toni Morrison
b) ChongthamSubadani
c) TheyieKeditsu
d) None of the above
Q.21) What do the SahityaAkademi winners showcase in their writings?
a) domestic violence
b) experiences of the Manipuri women in many forms
c) mother daughter relationships
d) stories of hill tribes
Q.22) ‘A brave female warrior climbs a jagged mountain and shows a tiny cub the way home’. On
what does this line focus?
a) act of climbing
b) act of reaching out
c) act of exploration
d) all the above
Q.23) In ‘When the Apsaras Awakened’ the rhythm of the lines is compared to
a) anklets
b) bells
c) rings
d) Sound of music
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
Passage 4
The spring wind is raw and the mud is still frosted with ice, yet the husky young engineer takes pride
in this barren, rocky landscape and points out a mineral that glitters throughout the black earth.
All that glitters is not gold. But in this case, it is something better––iron ore, in billion–ton quantities.
"When you wash the kiddies in the bath tub," the engineer brags, "the water leaves an iron scum
around the side. The lake shores here are black.”
These riches have led in the last 15 years to the investment of more than a billion dollars to produce
iron ore for the steel mills of the United States, Canada and Europe.
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In western Labrador and in Quebec's North Shore region –– a rounded wasteland of frozen lakes and
scrub spruce populated mostly by bear and moose – two railroads, four town sites and four big iron
mining projects have been developed.
The newest are the town of Wabush, population 1,700 and the $300 million Wabush Mines venture,
now being tuned up for full–scale operations this summer. The location is in Labrador, a part of
Newfoundland.
The Wabush project is in two parts. Several miles from the town, a large hill of low–grade ore is
being blasted apart, and the ore is being hauled by a fleet of noisy 55–ton trucks and dumped into
giant crushers.
The ore is crushed, classified and ground and then the iron particles extracted and concentrated.
What began as hematite with 37 per cent iron content becomes high–grade concentrate with 66 per
cent iron.
The concentrates are then hauled by rail 225 miles south of Pointe Noire, Quebec, which has been
built by Wabush interests on the St. Lawrence River near the busy little port of Sett – llse. Some of
the ore is shipped to Europe as concentrates, but most is further upgraded to pebble – sized pellets
a tidewater plant.
Annual production of the Wabush projects is to exceed 5 million tons of concentrates and pellets
rising to more than 10 million before 1970.
Picklands, Mather & Co. of Cleveland is the managing agent of the project, and 10 iron and steel
companies share the ownership and the output. The largest owners are two Hamilton, Ont.,
producers, the Steel Company of Canada with 23 per cent, and Dominion Foundries and Steel, Ltd.,
15 per cent.
Other owners are Youngstown Sheet and Tube, Inland Steel, Pittsburgh Steel, Interlake Iron and
Picklands, Mather, all of the United States; Finsider of Italy, and Hoesch& Mannesmann of West
Germany.
The property is leased from the Canadian Javelin Corporation, which collects production royalties.
Reserves are said to be more than a billion tons on raw ore.
About 600 persons are now working in the mine and mill here, and another 150 are employed by the
company at the town site.
Q.24) The original investment of the Labrador project was approximately
a) $ 15 million
b) $ 1/3 billion
c) $ 5 million
d) $ 1 million
Q.25) The annual Wabush production is 5 million tons of
a) iron ore
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b) upgraded iron
c) hematite
d) crushed iron
Q.26) It is likely that the following three companies control at least 40% of the Wabush stock:
a) Dominion Foundries and Steel, Ltd. Picklands, Mather & Co. – Finsider of Italy
b) Canadian Javelin Corp. – Interlake Iron – Picklands, Mather & Co. .
c) Hoesch & Mannesmann – Dominion Foundries and Steel, Ltd. – Steel Co. of Canada
d) Steel Co. of Canada – Youngstown Sheet and Tube – Inland Steel
Q.27) The writer who "covered" this story probably had the background of a
a) physicist
b) mathematician
c) chemist
d) geologist
Q.28) Countries that would likely import Wabush iron are
a) Alaska and Mexico

b) West Germany and England
c) Japan and India
d) United Arab Republic and Algeria
Q.29) Some of the steps in producing the upgraded product are

I. crushing
II. concentrating
III. extracting
IV. grinding
In chronological order, these steps are:
a) IV, III, I, II
b) II, IV, III, I
c) I, IV, III, II
d) III, I, II, IV
Q.30) Improving the iron ore is done at a location which is
a) near water
b) in a valley
c) on a flat plain
d) in a thickly populated area
Q.31) The meaning of Scum as used in the passage is best expressed in
a) Drug dealers are the scum of society

b) The lake near the factory was covered with grey, foul– smelling scum
c) My neighbour’s son never studied and turned out to be a scum
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d) Only scums talk on their phone while attending a music performance or watching a play
Section – II: Current Awareness

S.32–36) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on topics that arise
out of the excerpted passage. Answers may be implied by facts mentioned in the passage but need
not be so. Please answer each question on its own merit on the basis of your knowledge of current
affairs and general knowledge.
Passage 1
With the aim to showcase India's potential as a global defence manufacturing hub, the 11th edition
of DefExpo, a flagship biennial event of the Ministry of Defence was organised for the first time in
Lucknow. It is one of the largest of its kind which promises to bring new technologies and solutions
on a single platform for defence manufacturing firms from India and abroad. Live demonstrations of
naval systems, aero systems and land systems were held. The delegates from 70 countries and 172
foreign military manufacturers attended the 5 day long mega exhibition. As many as 856 Indian
defence firms also showcased their products. This Expo is also termed as "Mahakumbh of defence
manufacturing companies."
Aligning with GOI's Make In India, DefExpo 2020 offered an opportunity for Indian firms and defence
industry to promote its export potential. It also played the role of catalyst in attracting not only
investments but also cutting– edge technologies to the region. The increases capabilities with
enhance India's position with neighbours, will make India self–reliant and also ensure helping hand
to other friendly countries in the region. The fifth India– Russia Military Conference was also held on
the sidelines of DefExpo with over 100 Russian and over 200 Indian industry leaders. During the
conference, 14 MoUs were signed between two countries. It included land, air, naval and other hi–
tech civilian products. With the agreements signed the Defence trade between the countries has
crossed 16 billion USD. IT includes S400 missiles, Kamov helicopters, and Kalashnikov rifles. Despite
the pressure from USA through CAATSA, India has established strong defence ties with Russia. In
fact, Russia was the largest foreign contributor at DefExpo 2020.
On its sidelines, first ever India– Africa Defence Ministers' Conclave 2020 was held. Over 154
delegates from Africa including Defence Ministers from 14 African countries participated in this
Conclave.
Q.32) To recognise common security challenges, Lucknow Declaration was signed at 11th DefExpo.
With which country was this signed?
a) Russia
b) USA
c) Africa
d) France
Q.33) What was the theme of 11th DefExpo?
a) Rise of Partners, joining hands

b) India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub
c) Rise of Futurism
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d) Digital transformation of Security.
Q.34) Ministry of Defence had announced to establish two defence industrial corridors in India.
Which are the two states where these corridors are being set up?
a) Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra

b) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
c) Maharashtra and West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh and Telangana
Q.35) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Rafale – Russia
2. S 400 – USA
3. Apache – France
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) None
Q.36) During the DefExpo 2020, the Initial Operational Clearance (IOC) Certificate was issued to HAL
for which of the following categories?
a) Light utility helicopters

b) Heavy combat helicopters
c) Surface to air missiles
d) Torpedoes
Passage 2
The 2019 general election was held in seven phases from 11th April to 19 May 2019 to constitute the
17th LokSabha. The result came on 23rd May. Nearly 910 million people were eligible to vote and
voter turnout was over 67 percent. The BJP–led NDA government won 45 % of votes and 353 seats.
NarendraModi became the first non– Congress Prime Minister to return to power after a full five
year term. In 2014, NarendraModi's BJP became the first party since Rajiv Gandhi's Congress in 1984
to win a full majority on its own. The two big takeaways from the voteshare: an improvement in
Uttar Pradesh from the 41 percent it got in 2014, and a doubling in West Bengal to 39 percent from
the 18 percent it got in 2014.Legislative Assembly elections in the states of Andhra Pradesh,
Arunanchal Pradesh, Odisha and Sikkim were held simultaneously with the general elections, as well
as by– elections to 22 seats of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly. In view of the trend seen in several
past elections of no single party winning a majority of seats on its own, several parties contested the
2019 elections in alliance with others. One unique feature of the elections this time is that the Voter
Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) has been used along with EVMs.
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All 543 elected MPs are elected from single member constituencies using first–past–the–post–
system. The President of India appoints an additional two members from the Anglo Indian
community if he thinks that the community is under represented. Election Commission of India
administers the elections to the offices of the President and Vice President and to the LokSabha,
RajyaSabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
Q.37) With reference to LokSabha Elections 2019, which constituency accounted for highest NOTA
vote share?
a) Bidar, Karnataka
b) Gopalganj, Bihar
c) Patna, Bihar
d) Banda, U.P.
Q.38) Who is the youngest member of 17th LokSabha?
a) Raghav Chadha (Delhi)

b) Tejasvi Surya (Karnataka)
c) Chandrani Murmu (Odisha)
d) Mimi Chakraborty (West Bengal)
Q.39) Who was the pro–tem speaker of 17th LokSabha?
a) Virendra Kumar
b) Om Birla
c) Sumitra Mahajan
d) Venkaiah Naidu
Q.40) The 17th LokSabha has the highest number of women MPs. The total percentage of women
MPs is
a) 10 percent
b) 17 percent
c) 12 percent
d) 14 percent
Q.41) In LokSabha elections 2019, which constituency set record of highest number of 185
candidates?
a) Adilabad
b) Karimnagar
c) Gautam Buddha Nagar
d) Nizamabad
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Passage 3
Under the impending threat of climate change, renewable energy have assumed utmost importance
in the global agenda. ISA is a reflection of India's commitment for universalizing the use of solar
energy. It is an Indian initiative that was launched by Prime Minister of India and the President of
France in 2015 on the sidelines of Conference of Parties (COP–21), with 121 solar rich countries lying
fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. The overarching objective
of ISA is to collectively address key common challenges to the scaling up of solar energy in ISA
member countries. This will help in reducing the dependence on fossil fuels. The GOI has allotted 5
acres of land to ISA in National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) campus and has released a sum of Rs.
160 crores for creating a corpus fund, building infrastructure and meeting day to day recurring
expenditure of the ISA upto the year 2021–22.
The second assembly of the ISA was held in India during 30–31 October 2019. The Assembly gives
directions on various administrative, financial and programme related issues. Mr. R.K.Singh, Minister
for New and Renewable Energy and Power is President of the ISA Assembly and MsBrunePoirson,
Minister of State for the Ecological and Inclusive Transition, Government of France, is the Co–
President of the Assembly. Over 400 delegates participated in the Assembly.
Countries that do not fall within the Tropics can join the alliance and enjoy all the benefits as other
members, except the voting rights. The alliance has launched Global Solar Atlas in partnership with
World Bank. The Atlas is a free online tool that displays annual average solar power potential at any
location in the world.
Q.42) Consider the following statements:

1. The Assembly of ISA is the highest decision making body.
2. ISA is the second largest international organisation after United Nations.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 both
d) None
Q.43) The National Institute of Solar Energy is located in which state?
a) New Delhi
b) Chandigarh
c) Haryana
d) Jammu and Kashmir
Q.44) What is the target of ISA for solar energy production by 2030?
a) 1000 GW
b) 100 GW
c) 500 GW
d) 10000 GW
Q.45) What is the amount which India has pledged to achieve for her renewable energy capacity by
2022?
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a) 100 GW
b) 75 GW
c) 175 GW
d) 200 GW
Q.46) In which Indian state the second assembly of ISA was organised?
a) Haryana
b) New Delhi
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Karnataka
Passage 4
As the Corona Virus continues to spread with more than 3,000 deaths and 90,000 cases worldwide,
sporting events without fans are edging toward becoming a kind of new normal. World Health
Organization has recently discussed with dozens of medical officers about the risks and benefits of a
fan free Olympics.
The 2020 Summer Olympics, commonly known as Tokyo 2020, is an upcoming international multi–
sport event that is scheduled to take place from 24 July to 9 August 2020 in Tokyo, Japan with
preliminary events in some sports beginning on July 22. Tokyo was selected host city during the
125th IOC Session in Argentina in 2013. A ballot system was used for voting to choose the host city
of 2020 games. No city won over 50 percent of the votes in the first round. In the final vote, a head
to head contest between Tokyo and Istanbul held where Tokyo won.
This will be the second time that Japan and specifically Tokyo has hosted the Summer Olympic
Games, the first being in 1964, making it the first city in Asia to host the summer Games twice.
Overall, these will be the fourth Olympic Games to be held in Japan, which also hosted the Winter
Olympics in 1972 and 1998. The 2020 Games will be the second of three consecutive Olympics to be
held in East Asia, the first being the 2018 Winter Olympics in PyeongChang County, South Korea, and
the next being the 2022 Winter Olympics in Beijing, China.
These games will see the introduction of new and additional competitions at the Summer Olympics.
Under new IOC policies that allow the host organizing committee to add sports to the Olympic
programme to augment the permanent core Olympic events, these games will see Karate, Sport
Climbing, Surfing and Skateboarding make their Olympic debuts, as well as the return of baseball
and softball for the first time since 2008.
Q.47) Consider the following statements:

1. Tokyo Olympics will be the first of its kind to use facial recognition technology.
2. The system will increase the waiting time for athletes.
Which of the following statements are correct?
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a) 1 only
b) 2only
c) both 1 and 2
d) None
Q.48) The official mascot of the Tokyo 2020 Olympics is a superhero and a robot. What is the name
of this futuristic creature?
a) Tokomoro
b) Miraitowa
c) Naruto
d) Someity
Q.49) Which sport is added for the first time to the Tokyo 2020 Olympics Games?
a) Curling
b) Karate
c) Fencing
d) Powerlifting
Q.50) Where were the first Olympic games held?
a) Atlanta
b) Mexico
c) Sydney
d) Athens
Q.51) Who is the present President of International Olympic Committee?
a) Thomas Bach
b) Jacques Rogge
c) Demetrius Vikelas
d) Avery Brundage
Passage 5
On the sidelines of the Helsinki summit, the SCO secretariat set up an exhibition named the 'Eight
Wonders of the SCO' to promote the sites one from each of the member countries. Tourism
cooperation is an important aspect of the economic cooperation among the SCO members and thus
it would be conducive to consolidating and developing good u among them. The eight wonders of
SCO aim at creating a common tourism space in all the member countries. The General Secretary of
the organisation stated that the project was developed by SCO and was supported by all the
member countries. The SCO is a permanent inter–governmental organization of eight members
which includes India, China, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgystan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It
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focusses on strengthening mutual trust and promoting their effective cooperation in politics, trade,
economy, research, technology, culture, education, energy, tourism etc.
India's 'Statue of Unity' is chosen as one of the wonders under this ongoing tourism campaign. The
597 feet tall statue of former deputy Prime Minister SardarVallabhbhai Patel was nominated as
India's choice. It was chosen ahead of three options the Union Tourism Ministry initially suggested
for nomination as India's wonder – the UNESCO World Heritage Sites of Hampi (Karnataka), the
Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra and the iconic TajMahal. The statue is 182 metre–tall and is located
near the SardarSarovar Dam on River Narmada. It was designed by Indian sculptor Ram V Sutar.
Apart from Statue, the other wonders included are Daming Palace, Navruz Palace, Mughals Heritage,
Tamgaly Gorge, Po–i–Kalan Complex, The Golden Ring Cities and the historical spiritual centre.
Q.52) The Statue of Unity chosen as India's wonder for SCO's eight wonders is located in which
Indian State?
a) Maharashtra
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) Uttar Pradesh
Q.53) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. The Daming Palace – Russia
2. Navroz Palace – Pakistan
3. The Golden Ring Cities – China
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only
Q.54) Which country will host the 2020 SCO meeting of Council of Heads for the 1st time?
a) Russia
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) Tajikistan
Q.55) The present General Secretary of SCO is Vladimir Norov. He is elected from which country?
a) Russia
b) Ujbekistan
c) China
d) Tajikistan
Q.56) Which of the following is another name for Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?
a) Alliance of the East

b) Alliance of Asia
c) Asia–Pacific Grouping
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d) Group of 8 (G–8)
Passage 6
ISRO launched CARTOSAT–3 satellite from Sriharikota on 27Nov 2019. The PSLV–C47 carried the
CARTOSAT–3 satellite along with the other commercial nano–satellites for US. CARTOSAT–3 is a
third–generation agile satellite with high–resolution imaging capabilities.
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) launched advanced earth imaging and mapping
satellite CARTOSAT–3 along with 13 other commercial nano–satellites for the US.
CARTOSAT–3, which is the ninth in the series, was launched from the second launch pad at
SatishDhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota at the scheduled time of 9.28 am. This was the
74th launch vehicle mission from Sriharikota.
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV–C47 carried the CARTOSAT–3 satellite along with the other
commercial nano–satellites for the US.
Commenting on the successful launch, ISRO chief K Sivan said, "I am happy that PSLV–C47 injected
precisely in the orbit with 13 other satellites. CARTOSAT–3 is the highest resolution civilian satellite;
We have 13 missions up to March– 6 large vehicle missions and 7 satellite missions."
CARTOSAT–3, India's most complex and advanced earth imaging satellite built so far, was placed into
orbit 17 minutes and 46 seconds after lift–off, the immediate mission after Chandrayaan 2, where
the lander crashed while making a soft descent on the lunar surface on September 7.
CARTOSAT–3 is a third–generation agile satellite with high–resolution imaging capabilities. The

satellite will replace the IRS series, according to IRO. The CARTOSAT–3 has a panchromatic resolution
of 0.25 metres, which helps it conduct satellite imaging with the highest resolution. The space
research organisation said this mission is a huge leap from the previous payloads in the CARTOSAT
series. The CARTOSAT–3, with an overall mass of over 1,600 kilograms, will address the increased
user demand for large–scale urban planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal
land use and land cover. The mission life of CARTOSAT–3 would be for five years, said the space
research organisation.
The launch of CARTOSAT–3 and 13 other commercial nano–satellites follows Isro's moon mission
Chandrayaan–2 on July 22, which failed to manage a soft landing on the moon, and would have been
the country's first had it been successful.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will aim to touch new heights in 2020 as it is planning to
launch around a dozen key satellite missions, highprofile interplanetary mission Aditya L1 (sun) and
first unmanned test–flight of the Gaganyaan mission carrying a humanoid next year. Aditya L1
mission will be the country’s first solar mission that will help scientists study the solar corona.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: indiatoday]
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Q.57) CARTOSAT was launched by which of the following space launch vehicle?
a) PSLV–C47
b) PSLV–C37
c) PSLV–C45
d) GSLV–MKIII
Q.58) Headquarters of ISRO is located at?
a) Bangalore
b) Hyderabad
c) Chennai
d) Cochin
Q.59) Cryogenic engine uses which of the following fuel?
a) Solid Oxygen and Solid Hydrogen.

b) Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen.
c) Liquid Nitrogen.
d) Acetylene.
Q.60) Parker space mission was launched by?
a) ESA
b) ISRO
c) NASA
d) JAXA
Q.61) Gaganyaan
a) Unmanned orbital mission to venus.

b) Lunar mission.
c) Crewed orbital mission.
d) Space mission to Jupiter.
Q.62) Chandrayan 1 was launched in the year
a) 2019
b) 2007
c) 2009
d) 2008
Passage 7
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The government on Wednesday said over 70 lakh FASTags have been issued so far and Tuesday saw
the highest per–day sales at 1,35,583 tags. The National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC)
programme, the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, has been
implemented on a pan–India basis in order to remove bottlenecks and ensure seamless movement
of traffic and collection of user fee as per the notified rates, using [1] technology.
Over 70 lakh FASTags have been issued till date, with the highest per–day issuance of 1,35,583 tags
on November 26, 2019, (Tuesday), whereas 1.03 lakh tags were issued on the day before. The
average daily issuance has grown by 330 percent from 8,000 in July to 35,000 tags sold in November
2019," the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways said in a statement.
After announcement of waiver of tag cost from November 21, there has been a growth in FASTag
issuance, it said adding that FASTag is accepted on more than 560 toll plazas and more number of
plazas are getting added on a daily basis.
To give a major fillip to enhance digital payments and bring in enhanced transparency, the ministry
said it has directed to declare all lanes of fee plazas on national highways as 'FASTag lanes' by
December 1. However, one lane in each direction would be kept as 'hybrid lane' that will accept
FASTag and other modes of payment, it added.
"With the above mandate, average daily transactions processed through FASTag have grown from
8.8 lakh in July this year to 11.2 lakh transactions in November 2019, while the average daily
collection has grown from Rs 11.2 crore to Rs 19.5 crore for the given period," the ministry said. To
avoid difficulties at toll plazas, commuters are advised to maintain sufficient balance in the account
or wallet linked to FASTag.
All the available mode of recharges such as debit card, credit card, net banking, and Unified
Payments Interface have been enabled for loading money to the FASTag account.
A customer may call on the helpline number, '1033', for any assistance related to FASTags, the
ministry said and added that they can also reach out to the banks to obtain FASTags.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: economictimes]
Q.63) FASTag to be mandatory for all vehicles from?
a) 1st January 2020

b) 15th July 2020
c) 15th January 2020
d) 1st July 2020
Q.64) FASTag is based on technology which is replaced by [1] is?
a) Wi–Fi
b) RFID
c) Infrared
d) NFC
Q.65) FASTag is implemented by which of the following Authority?
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a) NHAI
b) Ministry of Electronics & IT
c) Ministry of Heavy Industry & Public Enterprises.
d) Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Q.66) Benefits of FASTag?
a) Ease of payment.
b) Near non stop movement at toll counter.
c) Online recharge.
d) All of the above.
Q.67) Minimum recharge amount?
a) Rs. 100
b) Rs. 500
c) Rs. 200
d) Rs. 1000
Q.68) FASTag was launched on?
a) 1st October 2019

b) 1st October 2017
c) 1st July 2017
d) 1st July 2019
Section – III: Legal Reasoning

S.69–73) Directions for Questions: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the preceding passage. Some of these principles
may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for
the purposes of this Section. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to
you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the questions.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage 1
One of the most common forms of vicarious liability that we come across is that between a master
and a servant. However, rather than looking at the both the parties as individuals, sometimes the
liability can also arise when one of the parties is an institution or a body. The kind of liability being
talked about here is the vicarious liability of the State.
Under the English Common Law, the relevant maxim for the purpose of ascertaining vicarious
liability of the State was "The King can do no wrong" and therefore, the King was not liable for the
wrongs of its servants. But, in England, the position of old Common law maxim was changed by the
Crown Proceedings Act, 1947. Earlier, the King could not be sued in tort either for wrong actually
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authorised by it or committed by its servants, in the course of their employment. With the increasing
functions of State, the Crown Proceedings Act had been passed, and then the Crown was liable for a
tort committed by its servants just like a private individual.
State liability in India is defined by Article 300(1) of the Constitution that originated from Section 176
of the Government of India Act, 1935. This could be traced back from the Section 32 of the
Government of India Act, 1915, the genesis of which can be found in Section 65 of the Government
of India Act, 1858.
Sovereign functions are those actions of the state for which it is not answerable in any court of law.
For instance, acts such as defence of the country, raising and maintaining armed forces, making
peace or war, foreign affairs, acquiring and retaining territory, are functions which are indicative of
external sovereignty and are political in nature. Therefore, they are not amenable to jurisdiction of
ordinary civil court. The State is immune from being sued, as the jurisdiction of the courts in such
matters is impliedly barred. Further, reasonable exercise of State power in the internal matters will
also be immune from being challenged in the courts. However, excessive or negligent use of
authority when not warranted by the circumstances will lead to State liability.
In the modern sense, the distinction between sovereign or non–sovereign power thus does not exist.
It all depends on the nature of the power and manner of its exercise. Legislative supremacy under
the Constitution arises out of constitutional provisions. The legislature is free to legislate on topics
and subjects carved out for it. Similarly, the executive is free to implement and administer the law. A
law made by a legislature may be bad or may be ultra vires, but, since it is an exercise of legislative
power, a person affected by it may challenge its validity, but he cannot approach a court of law for
negligence in making the law.
The evolution of law in this respect can be traced through a few court decisions. In the case of State
of Haryana v. Santra, it was clearly established that a doctor employed in a government hospital
while performing an operation was acting as a government servant and acting in the course of
employment of the government. Hence when there was negligence, it amounted to acting in bad
faith, and so the defence of sovereign immunity could not be used by the state.
In the case of ChallaRamkonda Reddy v. State of A.P., it was held that the plea of sovereign
immunity was not available when there was a violation of the fundamental rights of the citizens.
Q.69) Vishal, an employee of the State of Uttar Pradesh, was driving a government vehicle from a
repair workshop to the District Magistrate’s house, where he worked, for the DM’s use. On his way,
he hit Vyajanti who was on her way home from the market, who suffered multiple fractures. Can the
State of Uttar Pradesh be held liable for the injury caused to Vyajanti?
a) No, as only Vishal is liable for the injury caused to Vyjanti as he was driving the car.
b) No, as his action was not authorized by the State of Uttar Pradesh.
c) Yes, as for every wrong committed by Vishal in his course of employment, the State is to be held
liable.
d) Yes, as at the time of the commission of the offence, Vishal was acting in the course of
employment of the government.
Q.70) A student led procession was being carried out in front of a university demanding the
restoration of the older fee structure. After a few hours, the number of students swelled to quite a
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degree and the university administration called upon the police to take control. The police ended up
doing a lathi–charge once the student crowd became a bit unruly. Amrit’s loudspeaker, which was
being used in the procession, was completely destroyed in the lathi¬–charge. Amrit seeks to sue the
State for claiming compensation for the destruction of his loudspeaker. Is the State liable?
a) Yes, as the police had no business destroying Amrit’s loudspeaker.

b) Yes, as lathi–charge does not fall under sovereign functions of the State, as it can be done by
anyone.
c) No, as maintaining law and order including quelling an unrest is a sovereign function.
d) No, as the police always performs the role of maintaining law and order which is a sovereign
function.
Q.71) Consider that in the factual scenario presented in the above question, in addition to the lathi–
charge, the police also fired tear gas shells, and fired bullets indiscriminately to disperse the crowd.
The bullets injured two women who were standing on the roof of their house. Is the State liable for
the injury caused to the women?
a) No, as the actions of the police were in exercise of their sovereign function, i.e. of controlling an
unrest and maintaining law and order.
b) No, as all actions by the police are protected under sovereign immunity.
c) Yes, as the police has used their authority in excess of what was required in the situation.
d) Yes, as the police can never use bullets to disperse a protest.
Q.72) Some ornaments belonging to Rishi were stolen from his house which were later recovered by
the police and kept in a locker at the police station. When Rishi went to claim those ornaments from
the police he found that half of them were missing. Can the State be held liable for the loss of
ornaments?
a) No, as the police had recovered them in the first place.

b) Yes, as the police has a duty to protect all the objects it recovers.
c) No, as the police was performing its sovereign function when it recovered the ornaments.
d) Yes, as the theft of ornaments happened while in custody of the police, it was in the course of
their employment.
Q.73) Consider that in the above question, Rishi was successfully able to recover his ornaments from
the police custody. While he was on his way home, he gave a lift to one of the police constables from
the police station who was also heading home. Mid way, the police constable snatched the jewellery
bag and ran away. Can the State be held liable?
a) Yes, as the police constable did this in his course of employment.

b) Yes, as the police constable wrongly conducted himself in his course of employment.
c) No, as at the time of the incident, the constable was not in his course of employment.
d) No, as the police constable snatched the bag of jewellery for his personal benefit.
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Passage 2
The District and Sessions Court in Bidar on March 5, 2020 ruled that the play staged by some
children of Shaheen Urdu Medium School against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) does not
amount to sedition.
The Principal District and Sessions Court made the observation while granting anticipatory bail to
five members of the school, citing lack of material for a prima facie case of sedition. Granting bail,
District Judge ManagoliPremavathi observed, “What the children have expressed is that they will
have to leave the country if they do not produce the documents and except that, there is nothing to
show that the school has committed the offence of sedition.”
The dialogue ‘does not lead to hate or contempt towards the government’, the judge said, according
to reports. “The drama has not caused any disharmony in the society,” the judge stated in her order.
Section 124A of the IPC, which deals with sedition, says:

124A. Sedition.– Whoever by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible
representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or
attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be
punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may
extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.
Explanation 1.–The expression "disaffection" includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity.
Explanation 2.–Comments expressing disapprobation of the measures of the Government with a
view to obtain their alteration by lawful means, without exciting or attempting to excite hatred,
contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence under this section.
Explanation 3.–Comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or other action of the
Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, do not
constitute an offence under this section.
“So far as the offence under Section 153A of IPC (promoting enmity between different groups on
grounds of religion, race, place of birth, language) is concerned, there is no reference of any other
community in the play. All that the artists have said is that Muslims will have to leave the country if
they do not produce the documents as required under the proposed CAA, NRC Acts. When there is
no other religion mentioned in the entire play, there is no question of causing disharmony between
two religions,” the order says.
[Extracted, with revisions, from Bidar Court Says Play on CAA by School Students Was Not Seditious,
available at https://thewire.in/law/bidar–court–caa–play–sedition]
Q.74) Krishna, a university student, organised a peaceful demonstration against a new law passed by
the Government in power. The demonstration was attended by hundreds of university students who
chanted slogans along with the speakers on stage. The speeches delivered on stage were by
prominent civil rights activists who spoke about the various fundamental rights that the new law
violates, and there was an uproar of support for the words spoken by the speakers. The university
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management called in the State police to take control of the situation. The police sought to book
Krishna for the offence of sedition. Is the police justified in doing so?
a) Yes, as Krishna sought to criticize the efforts of the government.

b) Yes, as Krishna’s objective was to incite the gathering into hating the government.
c) No, as Krishna’s attempt was to merely express discontentment with the measures of the
government without inciting any violence.
d) No, as Krishna had no intention of speaking anything against the government.
Q.75) Consider that in the factual scenario presented in the above question, one of the persons in
the crowd threw a stone at the university building causing one of the windows to shatter, all the
other facts remaining the same. The person was quickly picked out from the crowd by the other
attendees and asked to leave, which he eventually did. Can the police book Krishna for sedition
now?
a) Yes, as the crowd turned violent.

b) Yes, as Krishna’s words caused someone to be hateful towards the government and turn violent.
c) No, as Krishna had no intention of bringing hate towards the government, only expressing his
discontentment with the new law.
d) No, as Krishna himself did not throw the stone.
Q.76) Consider that in the speech delivered by Krishna in the demonstration, there was a remark
which said that this new law disadvantages a particular community, and that this community should
raise its voice against the law. The police book him under sedition on grounds that he attempted to
incite a particular community in expressing their hatred towards the government. Is the action of the
police justified?
a) No, as Krishna did not intend to criticize the actions of the government.
b) Yes, as Krishna attempted to incite hatred towards the government in a particular community.
c) No, as Krishna’s words were an attempt to express his opinion on the new law, and not incite the
community to express hatred towards the government.
d) Yes, as Krishna attempted to excite the crowd into taking up violent measures towards the
government.
Q.77) Three Kashmiri students, studying in Bangalore, were watching a India–Afghanistan cricket
match with some other batchmates in their hostel common room. When Afghanistan was playing its
innings, the students cheered the team, chanting, “Afghanistan zindabad”. A minor scuffle broke in
the common room, and a video of the three students was uploaded on YouTube. In the scuffle, the
three students were injured badly, with one of them suffering a fractured leg. The video went viral
and the police booked the three students for sedition. Is the action of the police justified?
a) Yes, as the chanting of the slogan sought to undermine the national integrity of the country.
b) No, as the chanting of the slogans had no connection with inciting hatred towards the
Government of the country.
c) Yes, as the students intended to harm the reputation of the government by praising a rival–nation.
d) No, as the students were themselves injured in the scuffle that followed the match.
Q.78) Michael and Rubin, students at a public school in Kerala refused to sing the national anthem at
their school assembly, as they said their faith did not allow them to display allegiance to any nation
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but the congregation of people who followed the same faith. They were expelled from their school,
and later booked for sedition by the District police. Can they be said to have committed sedition?
a) Yes, as by not singing the national anthem of the country, they sought to express hatred towards
the government which ruled it.
b) Yes, as by not singing the national anthem of the country, they sought to incite other people in
the crowd to express their hatred towards the government of the country.
c) No, as their actions did not purport to bring the government into disrepute or hatred.
d) No, as they have already suffered at the hands of the school by means of expulsion.
Passage 3
In a bizarre order, the Supreme Court of India has decided to begin hearing the petitions seeking
review of its previous judgement on the Sabarimala issue from January 13, 2020. A nine–judge
constitution bench has been formed to hear the sensitive case. The court will also take up other
contentious issues for hearing such as alleged discrimination against Muslim and Parsi women.
However, the ambit of review power conferred under Article 137 of the Constitution is extremely
limited: The review court must examine the correctness of the judgment under review to ascertain if
it suffers from glaring omissions, a patent mistake or grave errors apparent on the face of record.
Petitions seeking review of judgments are allowed in rare instances. In Chandra Kantavs Sheikh
Habib, the Court held that Article 137 would not permit ordering of a fresh hearing by a larger bench
without scrutiny of judgment under review and without pointing out a grave error apparent on the
face of record. None of this has been done by the majority in the Sabarimala review judgment.
Simply put, the majority opinion is erroneous.
Justices R.F. Nariman and D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and opined against reviewing the original
judgment. They held that what a future Constitution Bench (if ever formed) may do was not relevant
to the adjudication of the review petitions, which had to be decided in accordance with well–
established parameters. Since none of the grounds for review had been made out, they held that the
petitions were liable to be dismissed.
Incorrect as it appears to be, the majority view in the Sabarimala review petitions has served one
purpose: it has revived the debate around judicial interference in matters of faith. The constitution
doesn’t define religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate religion. However, the right is made subject to public order, morality
and health.
Article 26 allows every religious denomination or any of its sections to a) establish and maintain
institutions for religious and charitable purposes; b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
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(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in
accordance with law. This too is made subject to public order, morality, and health.
The refusal to test personal laws on the touchstone of fundamental rights means that the validity of
religious law will continue to be decided on a judge’s interpretation of religious texts. At the risk of
repetition, the majority judgment in the Sabarimala review petitions is flawed. It, however, presents
us with an opportunity to move towards a religious jurisprudence, which is entrenched in the
Constitution rather than in religious text.
Answer the following questions:
Q.79) A case involving Article 25 of the constitution was decided by the Supreme Court of India. A
group of scholars disagree with the Supreme Court’s interpretation of what conscience and morality
meant. They demand a Constitution Bench to be formed to decide the issue and seek the judgment
to be reviewed since, according to them, the constitution bench is certain to rule in their favour.
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud is hearing the review petition. Decide.
a) Justice Chandrachud will reject the review petition.

b) Justice Chandrachud will accept the review petition.
c) Justice Chandrachud will stay the review petition till the constitution bench decides the issue.
d) Justice Chandrachud will reverse the earlier decision on the matter.
Q.80) According to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Chandra Kantavs Sheikh Habib,
which of the following statements is true?
a) The Supreme Court can review any judgment it wishes to review.

b) Article 137 confers a wide discretion upon the Supreme Court.
c) The Supreme Court should review judgments with glaring errors and omissions.
d) The Supreme Court can constitute a larger bench for fresh hearing in any case it deems fit.
Q.81) Anil was convicted in a criminal case after a fair and comprehensive trial. The investigation and
the judgment was detailed and had no visible inaccuracies. Anil then filed a review petition which
was readily accepted by the court. Decide.
a) The court was correct in accepting the review petition filed by Anil.
b) The court shouldn’t have accepted the review petition as there was no glaring error, omission, or
patent mistake.
c) The court was correct as the right to review is a fundamental right.
d) None of the above.
Q.82) During a certain religious occasion, members belonging to a particular religion in state X have
a tenet to defecate in the open. They usually do it at the banks of a river Y thereby polluting the
river. About 5000 people in the neighbouring region depend on the river for drinking water. The
government bans the practice. Members of the community challenge the government order on the
grounds that it violate their fundamental right under Article 25. Decide.
a) The ban was unconstitutional as it violated Article 25.

b) The ban was constitutional as the government must ban animal sacrifice.
c) The ban was constitutional as the practice adversely affected public order, morality and health.
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Q.83) Rajesh was convicted of murder. His lawyer pleaded that he was insane at the time of the
incident. The court rejected the plea and no further arguments regarding it were allowed. The fact
found no mention in the final judgment. Rajesh has filed a petition seeking the court to review the
earlier judgment. Decide.
a) The review petition shouldn’t be allowed as article 137 only allows review in rare cases.
b) The review petition shouldn’t be allowed as there is no grave error in the judgment.
c) The review petition shouldn’t be allowed as the earlier judgment is correct.
d) The review petition should be allowed as the earlier judgment suffers from glaring omissions.
Passage 4
On 12 February 2016, two policemen in plain clothes arrested the president of the student union of
the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), Kanhaiya Kumar. On 9 February, students from JNU had
allegedly shouted slogans at an event marking the death anniversary of Mohammad Afzal, who was
convicted in the 2001 terror attack on the parliament. On Tuesday, 23 February, Umar Khalid and
Anirban Bhattacharya, two of the alleged organisers of the event, surrendered themselves to police
custody following an eleven–day–long manhunt. Kumar, Khalid and Bhattacharya have been charged
under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) Section 120B, which deals with criminal conspiracy against the
state, and 124A, which contentiously attends to sedition.
Though few have ever been convicted by the Supreme Court for sedition, many have been booked
under Section 124A. Sedition in India is a cognizable (not requiring a warrant for an arrest), non–
compoundable (not allowing a compromise between the accused and the victim), and non–bailable
offence. The penalty can range from a fine to three years or life imprisonment. But these penalties
would be awarded after the judgement, which can take a long while to come. Meanwhile, a person
charged with sedition must live without their passport, barred from government jobs, and must
produce themselves in the court on a loop. All this, while bearing the legal fee.
In post–independence India, however, the judgement with the most impact came in January 1962. In
the case of Kedarnath v. State of Bihar, the constitutional bench of the Supreme Court defined the
scope of sedition for the first time and this definition has been taken as precedent for all matters
pertaining to Section 124A since. Until Independence, there were broadly two views on Section
124A: that of the judgements given by the Federal Court, and that of the judgements passed by the
Privy Council (the highest court of appeal for commonwealth countries, they were abolished in India
following the passing of Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, in 1949).
The federal court asserted that public disorder or the reasonable anticipation or likelihood of public
disorder is the gist of the offence; the privy council said that the speech itself, irrespective of
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whether or not it leads to an incident, could be an offence. Taking in account Article 19 (1) (a) (the
freedom of speech and expression) of the constitution, the SC bench observed in the judgement’s
headnote, “If the view taken by the Federal Court was accepted, Section 124A would be
constitutional but if the view of the Privy Council was accepted it would be unconstitutional for
being violative of article 19 (1) (a)..” The Supreme Court upheld the view taken by the Federal Court
and thus upheld the constitutionality of the sedition law, but curtailed its scope in its application.
In an election rally, AmitPandey accused the present government of corruption, black–marketing

and tyranny and talked about a revolution that would overthrow capitalists. He spoke of an utopian
idea where all resources shall be owned by the public. The rally ended without any untoward
incident being reported. Three days later, Amit was charged with sedition under Section 124A of the
IPC.
Q.84) Assuming you are a judge bound by the decision of the Privy Council in the pre–independence
era, decide whether Amit is guilty of sedition.
a) Amit is guilty of sedition as the speech was itself seditious.

b) Amit is not guilty of sedition as the speech didn’t lead to any incident.
c) Amit is not guilty of sedition as there was no reasonable likelihood of public disorder.
d) Amit is guilty of sedition as he wanted a revolution.
Q.85) The case is listed before the Supreme Court of India in 2020. Decide.
a) Amit is guilty of sedition as the speech was itself seditious.

b) Amit is not guilty of sedition as the speech didn’t lead to any incident.
c) Amit is not guilty of sedition as there was no reasonable likelihood of public disorder.
d) Amit is guilty of sedition as he wanted a revolution.
Q.86) Paan Singh Tomar, an athlete, is charged with sedition and is undergoing trial for the same.
The case has been going on since a year. In the meantime, he seeks to participate in the Olympic
games happening in Tokyo. Decide if he can participate in the Olympics.
a) Paan Singh can participate in the Olympics as sedition is no bar to participation.

b) Paan Singh can participate in the Olympics if Japan grants him Visa.
c) Paan Singh cannot participate in the Olympics as he is living without his passport because he is
charged with sedition.
d) Paan Singh cannot participate in the Olympics because he is a criminal.
S.87–88) Directions for Questions: Use the following hypothetical to answer questions.
The government of India is contemplating passing a new law making any speech against erstwhile
cricketers seditious irrespective of its impact. The new law mandates imprisonment for a period of
3–6 years for anyone convicted of the offence. A police officer can arrest a person charged with this
offence without warrant and no compromise can be entered into between the accused and the
cricketer.
Q.87) Decide the constitutionality of the proposed law.
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a) It is constitutional as it is similar to Section 124A of the IPC which has been declared
constitutional.
b) It is unconstitutional as it violates article 19 (1) (a).
c) It is constitutional as per the decision of the Supreme Court in the Kedarnath case.
Q.88) Which of the following is true about an offence under the proposed Act?
a) It is non–compoundable
b) It is cognizable
c) Both a & b
d) It is neither cognizable nor compoundable
Passage 5
Ever since Chief Justice RanjanGogoi started listing death penalty cases on a priority basis in October
2018, Khushwinder Singh, is the only one to have his death sentence confirmed while 31 others have
had their death sentences vacated. The death penalty in this context becomes extremely bizarre and
arbitrary with no real principled reason for its imposition.
While the Supreme Court has sent a strong message about its concerns with the death penalty by
vacating 31 death sentences in six months, the trial courts seem to be headed in the opposite
direction. Trial courts pronounced 162 death sentences in 2018, making it the highest in a calendar
year since 2000 and presenting rather confounding views on the death penalty within the judicial
system. Data for 16 years between 2000–15 shows that 30% of death sentences by trial courts end
up in acquittals and a further 65% are commuted making it evident that there is an exaggerated use
of the death penalty in the trial courts.
The popularity of the death penalty in the last year has also been spurred by certain incidents of
child rape that shocked the collective conscience of the nation. However, legislative amendments to
the IPC and POCSO introducing the death penalty for child rape are a perfect example of the death
penalty being used as a political tool. These amendments ignore comprehensive research that
demonstrates that child victims of sexual violence require better implementation of the POCSO
rather than introducing harsher punishments into a system already crumbling under its own weight.
In the State of M.P. v. RajkumarKol (Special Session Trial no. 55/2018, Additional Sessions Judge,
District Katni), the accused was sentenced to death in 22 days from the date of the incident for the
rape of a minor girl. It is also important to note that all the six rape trials resulted in death sentences
being pronounced on the same day as the conviction. The short duration of trials and same day
sentencing bring into serious question the quality of legal representation received by the accused
and consequently their right to fair trial.
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Among all those developments, the real shocker is the case of the Shindes. The Supreme Court on
March 5, 2019 admitted that six persons were framed by the police, wrongfully convicted and had
lost 13 years of their life on death row. A big part of the injustice perpetrated on these men included
a judgment by the Supreme Court in April 2009 upholding their guilt and the death sentence. The
three–judge bench of the Supreme Court comprising Justices A.K. Sikri (now retired), Abdul Nazeer
and M.R. Shah was so aghast that they ordered an official inquiry against the investigating officer
and gave each of the six men Rs 5 lakh as compensation. This case holds out a huge lesson in terms
of the death penalty in our criminal justice system. It demonstrates very strongly the error–prone
nature of our criminal justice system and the dangers of retaining the death penalty in a system like
ours.
Q.89) Which of the following is a measure that the author of the passage might support to counter
child sexual violence.
a) Harsher punishments
b) Proper implementation of the existing laws
c) Death penalty
d) Speedy trials
Q.90) According to the passage, local courts in India
a) Do not pass enough death sentences

b) Pronounce death sentences arbitrarily
c) Are headed in a direction opposite to the Supreme Court with regard to death penalty
d) Both b & c
Q.91) According to the passage, the Indian legal system
a) Is error prone
b) Is capable enough to deal with the death penalty
c) Overburdened
d) Both a & c
Passage 6
Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019 (the “Bill”),
which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The Bill was passed in the LokSabha
on August 5, 2019, a month after its introduction in the House, and the RajyaSabha cleared it on
November 26, 2019 becoming the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 (the “Act”),
with a last minute move to refer it to a Select Committee being defeated in a voice vote. The
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community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the
form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender
and sexual identity.
The Bill was meant to be a consequence of the directions of the Supreme Court of India in the
National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India case judgment, mandating the Central and State
governments to ensure legal recognition of all transgender persons and proactive measures
instituted for their welfare. It was held that the fundamental rights of the transgender persons
should be upheld with utmost importance. Activists harked back to this judgment of April 2014,
chastising the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental
rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity.
Rejecting ‘Transgender’ as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a
comprehensive “Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights)
Bill” and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex
persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and
were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.
Transgenders have a different gender identity than what was assigned to them at birth, while
intersex indicates diversity of gender based on biological characteristics — ambiguity in anatomical
genitalia — at birth. There are also multiple variations in intersex itself.
While the Act is progressive in that it allows self–perception of identity, it mandates a certificate
from a District Magistrate declaring the holder to be transgender. This goes against the principle of
self–determination itself, activists argue, also pointing out that there is no room for redress in case
an appeal for such a certificate is rejected. One long–pending demand has been to declare forced,
unnecessary and non–consensual sex reassignment surgery illegal, and to enforce punitive action for
violations.
The community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant
changes to its original composition, and it worries about how implementation will address the
pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons
will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for
genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Why Are There Objections To The Transgender Persons Bill
by RamyaKannan, The Hindu, December 1, 2019.]
Q.92) Suppose the Act (as it exists now) is notified and enforced. In the future, a person seeking to
be identified as transgender applies for a certificate of recognition with the District Magistrate of the
area they reside in. However, the district magistrate does not grant the requisite certificate and the
appeal (to the relevant authority under the Act) to set aside such an order of the magistrate is also
rejected. What legal remedy can the aggrieved person resort to?
a) File a writ petition against the rejection of the appeal in the Supreme Court.
b) File a writ petition against the rejection of the appeal in the relevant High Court.
c) Challenge the constitutionality of the Act in the Supreme Court.
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Q.93) The constitutionality of the Act is challenged before the Supreme Court. Which of the
following would be a valid ground of challenge?
a) That the Act was not called “Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics
(Protection of Rights) Bill”.
b) That the Act does not let self–determination of sexual identity be the primary determination.
c) That the Act requires a transgender person to gain certification from a district magistrate for their
identity affirmation.
d) That the Act failed to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed
to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity.
Q.94) Based on the information in the passage, which of the following statements best describes the
difference between transgender and intersex?
a) Transgender persons have characteristics of both biological sexes whereas intersex persons
identify with one particular biological gender.
b) Transgender persons have a different gender identity than what was assigned to them at birth
while intersex persons identify with the gender they were assigned at birth.
c) Transgender persons are those who have undergone sexual transmission surgery whereas intersex
are those who are yet to undergo the same.
d) Transgender persons have a different gender identity than what was assigned to them at birth
while intersex persons have either a diversity of gender or there is a certain ambiguity with respect
to their genitals.
Q.95) From a reading of the above passage, which of the following statements is true?
I. A defect in the Act will go away in case the requirement of a certification from the District
Magistrate is done away with.
II. The Act has no possibility of a constitutional challenge in the future.
III. The judgment of the Supreme Court in National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India has
had no bearing upon the contents of this Act.
IV. Once a person is not granted a certification from the District Magistrate, there is no room for
redress.
a) Only III
b) Both I and IV
c) Only II
d) Both I and III
Q.96) Lakshmi identifies as a transgender woman who now wishes to be identified as a man. What
recourse can she take under the Act?
a) She can approach the District Magistrate for a certification.

b) She can self–identify as a man, which is the sole criterion as per the Act.
c) She can approach the court for an application to the same effect.
d) Going by the given information, there is no recourse under the Act for such a situation.
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Passage 7
The Supreme Court has recently delivered a judgment in Chief Information Commissioner vs High
Court Of Gujarat on March 4, 2020. It is likely to have a very negative implication on the citizen’s
fundamental Right to Information. The court has ruled that if a citizen wants copies of judicial
proceedings, she cannot get it through an RTI request.
All High Courts and the Supreme Court have certain rules for conducting their proceedings. Most of
them have had a rule stating that parties in a suit may get copies relating to their case. However, the
court held that those who are not parties to the suit may obtain them if they give an affidavit stating
their reasons for seeking this information. If the court is satisfied with the reasons, it would provide
it. This violates the basic premise that all information in government belongs to the citizens and they
have a right to access it.
The RTI has been accepted as an important part of fundamental right of citizens under Article 19 (1)
(a). This covers the right to free speech, right to publish and right to information. A citizen does not
have to give reasons for exercising any of these, though some reasonable restrictions can be
imposed on them, as laid down in Article 19 (2). In line with this, the RTI Act has specific exemptions
under section 8 in the Act and only those exemptions can be used to deny information to a citizen.
To ensure that other laws and constraints could not be used to deny information to the rulers of
democracy – the citizens – parliament provided a non–obstante clause in Section 22:
“The provisions of this Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith
contained in the Official Secrets Act, 1923, and any other law for the time being in force or in any
instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.”
This clearly means that the RTI Act will prevail over all laws and rules, including the Official Secrets
Act, as far as providing information in RTI is concerned. It does not mean that the Official Secrets Act
or other Acts are repealed. When a request for information is filed under the RTI Act, it can be
denied only under the provisions of the RTI Act.
[Extracted from SC and RTI: Why the Top Court Should Lead the Way in Ensuring Transparency by
Shailesh Gandhi, available at https://thewire.in/law/supreme–court–rti–judgment]
Q.97) Ramona, who was present in court for the divorce proceedings for her friend Garima, also
wants to file for divorce. She files an RTI for obtaining the papers that were filed in court during
Garima’s divorce proceedings. Will she be able to obtain the papers?
a) Yes, as an RTI application allows anyone to obtain access to records kept by government offices.
b) Yes, as it is within her right to obtain those papers as she is also going through a divorce.
c) No, as she was not a party to the original dispute.
d) No, as she will need Garima’s authorization for obtaining those papers.
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Q.98) What does Ramona need to do in order to gain the papers filed in the divorce proceedings for
Garima?
a) Get Garima’s consent in writing before filing an RTI application.

b) Get Garima and her ex–husband’s consent before filing an RTI application.
c) File an affidavit in the concerned court stating the reasons why she needs it.
Q.99) Is filing of an affidavit, stating reasons for the need, enough for a person who is not a party to
a dispute to obtain copies?
a) Yes, as an RTI alone will not be sufficient.

b) No, as they would also require the parties’ consent to obtain such papers.
c) Yes, as that is the sole requirement as stated by the Supreme Court.
d) No, as the Court needs to be satisfied with the reasons, upon which the party would be granted
access.
Q.100) As per the above passage, which of the following statements is true about Article 19 of the
Constitution?
I. It covers the right to free speech, publish, information and religion.
II. The freedom under this Article is not subject to any restrictions.
III. Right to free speech is a sub–set of freedom of information.
IV. The freedom under this Article can be subject to a few reasonable restrictions.
a) Only I
b) Both I and II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
Q.101) As per the above passage, which of the following statements on the RTI is true?
I. In light of the enactment of the RTI, the Official Secrets Act has been repealed.
II. RTI is an integral part of the fundamental rights.
III. The right to access information is not subject to any restrictions.
IV. RTI prevails over other Acts such as the Official Secrets Act.
a) Only II
b) Both I and III
c) Only IV
d) Both II and IV
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Passage 8
Hitoshi was a very successful surgeon, well known for his steady hand. He had performed countless
difficult surgeries and was highly regarded in his community. One day, while he was sitting in his
clinic, he got a distress call from Mr. Yamamoto. Yamamoto appeared very stressed, but maintained
a clam tone, and asked Hitoshi to clear his schedule for the coming days. Hitoshi was very confused,
but Yamamoto did not say much and hung up. Hitoshi was worried, after all Yamamoto was the
second–in–command of the Yakuza gang, and brother of the gang’s boss. It was a well–known gang,
famous for running several smuggling rings in the city. The members of that gang were powerful and
dangerous. Hitoshi cleared his schedule for the coming week.
The next day, Yamamoto requested Hitoshi’s presence at a small bar. Once Hitoshi reached there, he
was informed that he was supposed to perform the surgery of the Yakuza boss, Sasuke. Sasuke had
some blood clotting in his brain and without urgent medical help, he would not be able to survive.
Hitoshi asked the mob to take Sasuke to the hospital, as such a complicated surgery could not be
performed anywhere else. They violently disagreed and stressed that secrecy had to be maintained.
If the information of Sasuke’s sickness leaked, there would definitely be gang wars. Hitoshi told them
this might reduce the chances of Sasuke’s survival. Yamamoto remained determined to have it
secretly.
Hitoshi was led to a small room with some basic hospital equipment and ordered to perform the
surgery. Once he examined Sasuke, who was completely unconscious because of the clots, he
realized that this case was very complicated. The gang conveyed that he hadn’t gained
consciousness in the past two days, and was still not responsive. Hitoshi then begged the gang to
take Sasuke to the hospital. Enraged, Yamamoto threatened and demanded that he perform the
surgery then and there. Hitoshi informed him that there was only a 50% chance of Sasuke’s survival.
Yamamoto acknowledged this information and continued insisting that Hitoshi performs the surgery.
After 15 diligent hours at the table, Hitoshi declared that Sasuke could not be saved. By this time,
Hitoshi’s wife got extremely worried as Hitoshi had been untraceable for a long time. Worried that
she might alert the police and cause trouble, the mob let Hitoshi go. The Yakuza gang had been on
the radar for a while now. Through their civilian proxies, they decided to file a case against Hitoshi
for medical negligence. They stated that he had acted negligently as a doctor, which led to the death
of Sasuke. Hitoshi argued that he had taken utmost care and it was the mob’s fault that Sasuke was
no more.
The Court had, in a previous case, examined the principles of medical negligence as follows:
“To hold a healthcare professional responsible for medical negligence, a few key requirements have
to be established. It is assumed that the doctor owed a duty of care to the patient, this is not where
the unease lies. This duty implies that preliminarily, the doctor gives all the necessary information of
the risks involved and suggest measures to be taken to reduce the risk. The unease lies in determining
if this duty was breached. It has been seen that a regular person’s conduct must conform to the
standard of a person of normal intelligence. The standard is different for medical professionals…but a
doctor failing to perform an operation cannot excuse himself by showing that he acted to the best of
his skill if a reasonable doctor would have successfully performed it in similar circumstances…he
cannot escape liability by claiming that he did not intend to harm the patient”
The Court continued:

“It is also important to realise that, where a skilled person conforms to practices accepted as proper
by some responsible members of his profession, he will not be held liable in negligence merely
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because other members of his trade or profession would take a different view. Nor, in other
circumstances where two non–negligent courses of action were possible, will the courts hold a
defendant liable for failing to take that course which has been revealed, with the benefit of hindsight,
to have been the preferable course.”
Q.102) Had Hitoshi fulfilled his duty of care as a doctor?
a) No, as his duty was to save the life of the patient at any cost, which he could not achieve.
b) Yes, as at all times, he kept Yamamoto informed of the risky nature of the operation.
c) No, as with Hitoshi’s expertise and record, he should have been able to save the life of Sasuke.
d) Yes, as at all times, he kept recommending that Sasuke be taken to the hospital to reduce the risk
of his death, and also kept Yamamoto informed of the risks of the operation.
Q.103) Based on the ruling of the court, what is the strongest argument that Hitoshi can make to
escape a charge of medical negligence?
a) That he exercised all his skills and made his best attempt while operating on Sasuke.
b) That the mob was responsible, as he was unable to exercise his best skills due to lack of
equipment which is available at the hospital.
c) That he behaved like a person with normal intelligence in the way he operated.
d) That any reasonable doctor in those circumstances would have performed the operation in the
same manner as he did.
Q.104) The Yakuza mob brought forward a medical expert, who testified that the method used by
Hitoshi in the circumstances was not the most effective one, and a different method might have
changed the outcome. Hitoshi brought medical experts as well, who agreed with Hitoshi. Will the
Court, based on the testimony of the Yakuza’s expert, hold Hitoshi responsible?
a) Yes, as Hitoshi had acted negligently by not performing the surgery in the way that could have
increased the chances of Sasuke’s survival.
b) No, just because the medical expert took a different view from Hitoshi doesn’t mean that Hitoshi
had acted negligently. Some doctors had agreed with Hitoshi’s views as well.
c) Yes, as there existed a course of action that was beneficial but ignored by Hitoshi.
d) No, as the view of a multiple number of doctors was more reliable than the view of one medical
expert.
Q.105) Hitoshi decided to argue that he had not committed any tort as the Yakuza gang had given
the consent for the very risky surgery. He further added that he had informed them of all the risks
and thus could not be held liable for any tort as they consented to the surgery on his behalf. The
Yakuza argued that their consent was immaterial and it was the consent of Sasuke that was
required.
A Court, while discussing consent in medical care had noted:

“The position in relation to patients who lack capacity not in relation to their mental capacity to
consent (for example, competent but unconscious patients) is tricky. If it is visible to the care–giver
that the person lacks capacity, he may be treated if the person providing treatment receives the
consent of the persons taking care of the patient – like family or close associates.”
Hitoshi’s argument will:
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a) Fail because the Yakuza gave the consent and not Sasuke. There is nothing on record to show that
he lacked the mental capacity to consent.
b) Fail because even if Sasuke was unconscious, Hitoshi should have somehow woken him up and
took his consent. Yamamoto’s consent is not valid.
c) Succeed as given the circumstances, especially Sasuke’s unconsciousness and non–responsiveness
across a long period of time, Yamamoto’s consent sufficed.
d) Succeed as Hitoshi gave all relevant information to Yamamoto and had to operate because of his
threats, which signified his consent.
Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

passage, graph or other representation. Please answer each question by deriving information from
such passage, graph, or other representation, or applying mathematical operations on such
information as required by the question.
Following Bar chart gives the information about the number of Monthly active users of top eleven
Social networks and messaging service worldwide. Pie chart gives the country wise users of
Facebook.
Monthly active users of selected social network and messaging service

worldwide (July 2019)
[All values are in Million]
Facebook 2357
WhatsApp 1600
Messenger 1300
WeChat 1112
Instagram 1000
QQ 823
Qzone 572
Tiktok 500
Weibo 465
Reddit 330
Twitter 330
0 500 1000 1500 2000 2500
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Facebook Active users in top 15 countries (in millions)

33 32
34 India
37 260 US
37 Indionesia
38 Brazil
Mexico
47
Philippines
Vietnam
61 Thailand
180
Egypt
70 Turkey
UK
84 Bangladesh
Pakistan
130
120 Columbia
Q.106) What percent of Facebook active users are from top five countries together?
a) 34.5%
b) 32.8%
c) 27.9%
d) 41.3%
Q.107) If 55% of Tiktok active users are from India and among them 65% are male. Among Male
Tiktok users from India, 80% are in age group of 16–25 years. How many million active users of
Tiktok are from India, who are male and do not belong to age group of 16–25 years?
a) 143 M
b) 178.75 M
c) 35.75 M
d) 70 M
Q.108) QQ and Qzone are top social networking apps from China and 90% of their active users are in
China alone. Find the percentage of active users from China, of these two social networking apps
with respect to total number of Facebook and WhatsApp users worldwide?
a) 32%
b) 28%
c) 25%
d) 38%
Q.109) If only 20% of world population use these top eleven social networking sites, then what is the
approx. population of the world?
a) 52 Billion
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b) 10.4 Billion
c) 2 Billion
d) Cannot be determined
information as required by the question.
Following Pie chart provides the information about Pakistan’s Import of top 10 commodities. The
total Import value is US$ 60,163 million.
Mineral fuels,
mineral oils and
products
Others 20%
31%
Edible
Machinery,
vegetables
mechanical
2%
appliances
12%
Oil seeds and
oleaginous fruits Electrical
Animal or 2% machinery
vegetable fats 10%
and oils Iron and steel and
Plastics and Organic Vehicles other
4% equipment
articles thereof chemicals than railway 6%
4% 4% 5%
[Also, Total export value of Pakistan is US$ 23,631 million With Textiles contributing nearly 61% to
exports and the Food Group another 18%, 79% of Pakistan’s exports are dangerously dependent on
the weather.]
Q.110) What is the value of Import of Vehicle other than railway in terms of Pakistan Rupee?
[1 US$ = 154 Pakistan Rupee]
a) 463.25 Billion
b) 3008.15 Million
c) 463.25 Million
d) 3008.15 Million
Q.111) If clothing and accessories forms 10.9% of total export and comes under textile export, then
it forms what percent of total textile export?
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a) 21%
b) 10.9%
c) 15%
d) 17.8%
Q.112) What the approx. ratio of Total export value to Total import value of Pakistan?
a) 3:5
b) 6:11
c) 2:5
d) 1:3
Q.113) Plastics and articles import is how much percent more or less than Machinery, mechanical
appliance import?
a) 33.33%
b) 66.66%
c) 25%
d) 75%
information as required by the question
Each student in a class of 40 plays at least one game “I spy”, “Simon says” and “Scavenger’s Hunt”.
18 play I spy; 20 play Scavenger’s Hunt and 27 play Simon says. 7 play I spy and Scavenger’s Hunt, 12
play Scavenger’s Hunt and Simon says and 4 play I spy, Simon says and Scavenger’s Hunt.
Q.114) Find the number of students who play I spy and Simon says?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10
Q.115) Find the number of students who play exactly one game out of the three mentioned games?
a) 12
b) 19
c) 21
d) 18
S.116–120) Directions for Questions: Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
The following table shows the Cost price, Selling price, Profit % and Loss % of different items in a
certain dealer. Some data is missing.
CP/20/C32
Items Cost Price(in RS) Selling Price(in Rs) Profit % Loss %

Mokia Mobile 12000 – 15%
P.G Washing
– – 8%
machine
Bideocon TV – 31500 5%
Amazing laptop 8000 – 4%
Doven Oven – – 10%
Q.116) If the ratio between the cost price of P.G Washing machine and Bideocon TV is 7: 6, then find
the difference between the selling prices of P.G Washing machine to that of Amazing laptop?
a) 22350
b) 18680
c) 27890
d) 24520
Q.117) If the cost price of Doven Oven is 3 times the cost price of Amazing laptop and discount % is
12 %, then find the marked price for Doven Oven?
a) Rs. 28000
b) Rs. 30000
c) Rs. 32000
d) Rs. 35000
Q.118) Find the ratio of the cost price of Mokia Mobile to that of Bideocon TV?
a) 7:9
b) 11:17
c) 2:5
d) 23:25
Q.119) Find the total cost price of Mokia Mobile, Bideocon TV and Amazing laptop?
a) 50000
b) 55000
c) 45000
d) 40000
Q.120) The selling price of P.G Washing machine is approximately what percentage of the selling
price of Doven Oven, if the cost price of P.G Washing machine is Rs. 35000 and the cost price of
Doven Oven is Rs, 24000?
a) 143%
b) 154%
c) 166%
d) 122%
Section – V: Logical Reasoning
CP/20/C32
S.121-150) Directions for Question: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other
than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
S.121–122) Directions for Questions: For each of the following passages, read the questions that
follow them and answer accordingly.
A study for an anti – cancerous drug for prostate cancer found that while the subjects for the drug
showed abated signs of cancer, some of the signs re – appeared. The researchers concluded that the
drug was largely ineffective and its usage did nothing to stop prostate cancer.
Q.121) Which of the following would mitigate the validity of the given conclusion of the researchers?
a) The signs of cancer that withdrew after the drug was administered were only superficial
symptoms.
b) The drug was able to palliate the pain of the suffering patient and was able to stop the metastasis
of the prostrate tumour
c) The choice to use or not use the drug should be the patient’s entirely, if he feels it benefited him
d) Some researchers from the Soviet feel that the drug could be beneficial in the long run.
Q.122) What has the author based his conclusion on?
a) The conclusion is based on a survey of cancer patients.

b) The conclusion is based on a thesis of a researcher studying cancer patients
c) The conclusion is based on experimental evaluation of cancer patients, of the effects of a drug
d) The conclusion is a remote study on cancer patients
A recent survey found that those people who drank a lot of water had kidney stones, than those he
drank moderate water and almost no kidney stones were found in sparse water drinkers. So it is
mythical to believe that water detoxifies the body, clears digestion and keeps the kidney healthy.
Q.123) The author’s conclusion of the survey would be invalidated if which of the following were
found to be true?
a) Water is helping in detox and digestion so what if it is causing stones in the kidney. Two out of
three ain’t that bad, is it?
b) Those who already had stones in the kidney were made to drink lots of water by their medicine
practitioner.
c) Those who drank water developed stones but those were later flushed out by the same water
d) Water causes kidney stones needs further study for validation.
Q.124) The author of the argument above commits which fallacy in coming to his/her conclusion?
CP/20/C32
a) The author generalizes based on a specific example

b) the author invalidates without proof the role of water in kidney stones.
c) the author confuses the effect cause as cause and effect in reaching the conclusion
d) the author confuses mere correlation as causation in reaching the conclusion.
Football shoes often go blunt, and the spikes are unable to prevent a speeding footballer from
skidding. This happens if they are used for more than six months without changing the spikes.
However, a shoe specialist alleges that the spikes remain intact, it’s the mud in it that is the culprit.
Regular cleaning of mud from the shoes will make the spikes last longer.
Q.125) Which of the following if true, will further strengthen the hypothesis of the shoe expert?
a) Determining if changing the material of the spikes will make them last longer
b) Determining if the duration of all shoes is six months
c) Determining if new shoes with mud also skid
d) Determining if shoes without spikes would work
Q.126) Which of the following, if true will dis – credit the shoe specialist’s argument?
a) The inferior quality of the shoes make them blunt and cause accidents.
b) The old and frayed spikes cause the mud to collect in them and result in accident.
c) The mud from the spikes needs to be removes from them time to time.
d) The muddy terrain destroys shoes from time to time
Most research had earlier stated that drinking caffeine rich drinks such as tea and coffee was not
very healthy as it caused addiction and the caffeine worked against the renal system. A new study,
after studying data collected over the last 15 years,has come to the conclusion that coffee can infact
enhance the immune system of the body. Coffee consumption should see a global increase after the
findings of this study becomes known to people.
Q.127) Which of these is an assumption made in the argument given above?
a) Not all people consuming tea and coffee will suffer any serious renal ailment.
b) Most coffee lovers limited their coffee intake fearing harmful side–effects.
c) Over the years coffee has overtaken tea as the most preferred caffeinated drink.
d) Many coffee lovers did not care about any research findings about harmful effects of tea and
coffee since everything actually had some or the other harmful side–effect.
Q.128) Which of the following, if true, will provide the biggest challenge to the author’s conclusion?
a) The beneficial effect of immunity boost in no way discounts the harmful effects of caffeine on the
renal system.
CP/20/C32
b) The renal damage was disproved in another study as well.

c) The addiction of coffee becomes a blessing in disguise.
d) Non coffee drinkers still are not convinced about the benefits of caffeine.
Q.129) Which of the following will further strengthen the author’s conclusion?
a) Most coffee drinkers welcome this research

b) In the study it was found that renal failure associated with caffeine is only a myth.
c) The study was conducted across many countries
The amount of year–end incentives paid to the employees of BanaateRaho Industries in Goodgaon is
based on the rate of return on the share capital of the company. No incentive is paid if the annual
return on the share capital is 10% or lower. 2% of the profits over 10% is earmarked for distribution
as incentives to employees. This has kept the profits of the company high since the employees
always target a return much higher than the 10%. This year and perhaps the next few years however
will not be good for the employees as the economy is passing through a recessionary phase.
Q.130) If the information given above is true, which of the following must also be true:
a) During a recessionary trend, a few companies make higher profits than that of most others.
b) The effects of an economic condition is uniform across all industries and companies.
c) It has been established that monetary incentives alone are not effective in motivating employees
to be more productive.
d) The new corporate taxation system introduced by the government last year is impacting the profit
margins of most companies.
Q.131) What is the role played by the last line of the passage?
a) it is the author’s sub conclusion for the recession taking place.

b) It is the author’s inferred conclusion based on the facts he has presented.
c) It is the author’s opinion about the employees’ incentive based on recession
d) It is the main premise of the passage.
The government advises home owners to install a rain water harvesting system that would store the
run–away rain water to be used later. The water thus saved is used for gardening, cleaning and other
non–human consumption purposes. The government also gives a 10% subsidy for the purpose of
getting the rain water harvesting system constructed. However, in spite of the obvious benefits, the
household owners are unwilling to spend money on the systems. In the long term, these households
will be the losers.
Q.132) Which of the following, if true, most seriously strengthens the argument given above?
CP/20/C32
a) Shortage of water makes the municipalities make more expensive arrangements for water supply
thus increasing the water charges every year.
b) Subsidies are usually short–term measures to encourage desired outcomes.
c) Only 5% of water consumed by a household is used for cooking or drinking purpose.
d) All government subsidies have been observed to be misused by a few.
Q.133) Which of the following could explain the unwillingness of home owners to install the rain
harvesting system?
a) the home–owners unwillingness is nothing but languor on their part.

b) One home–owner came up with a problem of not understanding why rain water needed
harvesting.
c) In spite of the subsidy the rain water harvesting system is an expensive proposition.
d) Many home owners feel that rain water is not clean for the purposes of drinking.
Q.134) What is the role played by the second line in the passage?
a) it is the author’s main premise for the conclusion

b) it is the back ground information of the passage.
c) It is counter evidence to the main premise of the passage.
d) It is the main conclusion of the passage.
Q.135) After a long slump in the exports of guar gum from India, this year should see a good
increase. This is because the food industry across the world is witnessing a steady growth and the
rupee has slid in value continuosly, making imports from India cheaper for EU countries and the USA.
Which of the following is an assumption made in the argument given above?
a) Before the devaluation of the rupee, exports of guar gum from India was witnessing a steady
growth.
b) Indian guar gum meets the food standards of EU and the USA.
c) Guar gum is produced by an organised sector in India.
d) The government in India has a general policy of promoting exports.
Q.136) UdanKhatola Bus Services runs interstate, long–distance bus services between major cities.
The bus service company has seen steady progress in terms of passengers and revenues since the
last seven years. This year however, although the number of passengers increased, the bus service
company witnessed a lower revenue compared to that of the previous year.
Which of the following best explains the discrepancy seen in situation given above?
a) The premium fares were increased by 10% last year while other fares remained unchanged.
b) Introduction of online rating services was introduced by an app last year.
c) Average distance travelled by a passenger decreased this year compared to last year.
d) The government run bus service also launched long–distance bus services last year.
CP/20/C32
In India change takes a lot more time. The birth will be slow and perhaps painful. I believe it could be
the birth of a new order which is not held up by the crumbling colonial pillars left behind by the Raj
but is GENUINELY Indian ; a GC modern order, but ”not a slavish imitation of other modern orders”.
He goes on to say that – “For all its great achievements, the Nehru dynasty has stood like a Banyan
tree, overshadowing the people and the institutions of India, and all Indians know that nothing
grows under the Banyan tree”.
As Mark said, Change will be slow and painful, therefore for someone who doesn’t read and makes
judgement based on perception will for quite some time not be able to see the change taking place
or will pretend as if nothing is changing.
Q.137) What is the method used by the author to present his argument?
a) the author uses inductive reasoning – starting from a specific example to general conclusion.
b) the author uses deductive reasoning – starting from a general idea to a specific conclusion.
c) the author uses causal reasoning
d) the author uses analogy
Q.138) What is the assumption made by the author?
a) most Indians do not like change

b) Indians are happy maintaining the status quo.
c) Some who are seeing change will be in denial.
d) all changes are good.
Q.139) What is not true for the Nehru Dynasty as per the passage?
a) The Nehru dynasty achieved a lot.

b) The dynasty truncated growth of the country.
c) Most progress was copied from other modern orders
d) The Nehru dynasty allowed many ideals and institutions to flourish
S.140-141) Directions for Questions: Read the statements and answer the questions below:
Q.140) I studied like a madwoman

I. I’m a mad woman
II. I’m not a mad woman
a) Assumption one follows

b) Assumption two follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
Q.141) If it is true that I’m not always right then what follows
a) I’m always wrong

b) I'm never wrong
c) I’m sometimes right
CP/20/C32
d) I’m sometimes wrong
S.142–146) Directions for Questions: Read the information below:
5 people A, B, C, D and E started from Dehradun, Jaipur, Kolkatta, Lucknow and Bhilai not in any
order and travelled to different places in the country. No two persons started from the same place
or reached the same place. They took different flights from Go-Air, Indigo, Air India, Jet Airways and
Spicejet not in any order. During the flight, they read the in-house magazine available from Sansar,
Duniya, Brahman, Yatra and Udaan not in any order
Further instructions are as follows:

1. The person who travelled by Jet Airways started from Kolkatta.
2. Sansar is the magazine of neither Air India nor Spicejet.
3. C travelled by Go-Air and read Brahman during the flight.
4. The person who started from Bhilai did not travel by Indigo.
5. Yatra is the inhouse magazine of Air India.
6. A read Duniya during the flight from Lucknow to Dehradun.
7. E took the spicejet flight from Jaipur.
Q.142) Taking all the conditions into consideration, how many different solutions are possible?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Q.143) Who is the person who read Brahman during the flight?
a) C
b) B
c) D
Q.144) The person who took the Air India flight started from which city?
a) Dehradun
b) Bhilai
c) Lucknow
Q.145) If it is known that D took the Air India flight, then who was the person who read Sansar
during the flight?
a) C
b) B
c) A
Q.146) What is the name of the in-house magazine of Spicejet?
CP/20/C32
a) Udaan
b) Brahman
c) Duniya
S.147–150) Directions for Questions: Read the information below:
The class teacher of class 5D was absent and so 5 students of the class Aakash, Bindu, Chetana,
Dhiman and Ekta were asked to be the monitors of the class. Each student was a monitor for exactly
one hour starting from 9 am. The classes would end at 2 pm. Their surnames were Iyer, Ahuja,
Mishra, Jain and Chauhan in no particular order.
Further information is as follows:

1. Ekta was the monitor for the second last hour of the day. Her surname was not Mishra.
2. Dhiman was a monitor after Iyer but before Ahuja.
3. BinduChauhan was the monitor in the slot starting at 11 am.
Q.147) If Dhiman’s surname is jain, what is the surname of the student in the last slot?
a) Mishra
b) Chauhan
c) Ahuja
Q.148) If Aakash is after Mishra, what is the first name of Iyer?
a) Chetana
b) Dhiman
c) Ekta
Q.149) How many different solutions are possible?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Q.150) What will be the slot at which Iyer will be the monitor?
a) 10 am
b) 11 am
c) 12 noon
d) 9 am

Mock Clat-32: Question Paper Section - I: English Language

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CP/20/C32

Section – I: English Language

The Assange indictment includes specific allegations of publication of life–threatening information.

a) it could challenge the order of the supreme Court

Q.4) Who wrote for himself and two other justices?

Q.5) Assange was not accused of which of the following?

a) publishing information about Intelligence officers

Q.6) Which word in the passage is an antonym of ‘publicized’?

a) when publications involved violation of state laws

a) it violated the First Amendment

The study found that:

Lack of motivation was the principle reason for dropping out

Q.9) The author would agree that

Q.10) The article states that

Q.11) Research has shown that

a) dropouts are substantially below Ph. D.'s in financial attainment

Q.12) Meeting foreign language requirements for the Ph. D.

a) is the most frequent reason for dropping out

Q.13) Dr. Tucker felt that

a) colleges and universities employ a substantial number of Ph. D. dropouts

Q.15) The meaning of Attrition as used in the passage is best expressed by

Q.17) What image are ‘others’ depicting about Nagas?

Q.18) How should one read these books?

Q.21) What do the SahityaAkademi winners showcase in their writings?

Q.24) The original investment of the Labrador project was approximately

Q.25) The annual Wabush production is 5 million tons of

Q.28) Countries that would likely import Wabush iron are

a) Alaska and Mexico

Q.29) Some of the steps in producing the upgraded product are

Q.30) Improving the iron ore is done at a location which is

Q.31) The meaning of Scum as used in the passage is best expressed in

a) Drug dealers are the scum of society

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.33) What was the theme of 11th DefExpo?

a) Rise of Partners, joining hands

d) Digital transformation of Security.

a) Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra

Q.35) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) Light utility helicopters

Q.38) Who is the youngest member of 17th LokSabha?

a) Raghav Chadha (Delhi)

Q.39) Who was the pro–tem speaker of 17th LokSabha?

Q.42) Consider the following statements:

Q.43) The National Institute of Solar Energy is located in which state?

Q.47) Consider the following statements:

Q.50) Where were the first Olympic games held?

Q.51) Who is the present President of International Olympic Committee?

Q.53) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) Alliance of the East

CARTOSAT–3 is a third–generation agile satellite with high–resolution imaging capabilities. The

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: indiatoday]

Q.58) Headquarters of ISRO is located at?

Q.59) Cryogenic engine uses which of the following fuel?

a) Solid Oxygen and Solid Hydrogen.

Q.60) Parker space mission was launched by?

a) Unmanned orbital mission to venus.

Q.62) Chandrayan 1 was launched in the year

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: economictimes]

Q.63) FASTag to be mandatory for all vehicles from?

a) 1st January 2020

Q.64) FASTag is based on technology which is replaced by [1] is?

Q.65) FASTag is implemented by which of the following Authority?

Q.66) Benefits of FASTag?