Mock Clat - 20

CP/20/C20
MOCK CLAT – 20
Answer and Explanation
Section–I: English
Q.1) Option (D).
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Q.2) Option (A).
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Q.3) Option (B).
Q.4) Option (D).
Q.5) Option (C).
Q.6) Option (C).
Q.7) Option (D).

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Q.8) Option (C).
Q.9) Option (A).

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Q.10) Option (B).

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Q.11) Option (D).
Q.12) Option (C).
Q.13) Option (C).
Q.14) Option (B).
Q.15) Option (C).
Q.16) Option (C).
Q.17) Option (D).
Q.18) Option (A).
Q.19) Option (D).
Q.20) Option (C).
Q.21) Option (A).
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CP/20/C20
Q.22) Option (C).
Q.23) Option (C).
Q.24) Option (C).
Q.25) Option (B).
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Q.26) Option (D).
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Q.27) Option (D).
Q.28) Option (A).
Q.29) Option (B).
Q.30) Option (A).
Section – II: Current Awareness

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Q.31) Option (B).
Q.32) Option (C).

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Q.33) Option (B).

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Q.34) Option (C).
Q.35) Option (A).
Q.36) Option (B).
Q.37) Option (B).
Q.38) Option (B).
Q.39) Option (B).
Q.40) Option (A).
Q.41) Option (A).
Q.42) Option (C).
Q.43) Option (B).
Q.44) Option (C).
CP/20/C20
Q.45) Option (C).
Q.46) Option (C).
Q.47) Option (B).
Q.48) Option (D).
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Q.49) Option (A).
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Q.50) Option (B).
Q.51) Option (C).
Q.52) Option (C).
Q.53) Option (B).
Q.54) Option (C).

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Q.55) Option (A).
Q.56) Option (A).

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Q.57) Option (D).
Q.58) Option (B).

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Q.59) Option (D).
Q.60) Option (D).
Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

Q.61) Option (D).
The principle given pertains to absolute liability, where no exceptions are provided in the event of
catastrophic damage being caused due to the inherently dangerous activity being carried out by an
industry or enterprise. In this factual situation, a fireworks storage depot can be considered to be a
hazardous place of work and this would make the management of the depot absolutely liable, in the
event of catastrophic damage. In absolute liability, the management will not be permitted to take
any defences to avoid liability and Aditya’s reckless acts will not absolve the management of liability.
Q.62) Option (C).

For the owner of an industry or enterprise to be held absolutely liable, the industry or enterprise
must have been engaged in an inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial
gain and such an activity must be capable of causing catastrophic damage. The factory in the given
scenario manufactures garments and prima facie, the activity does not appear to be a dangerous
activity. Even though the building was ill-constructed, the tragedy was due to the Act of God. Option
CP/20/C20
(b) could also be considered to be correct, but Option (c) appears to be the closest to the principle
given.
Q.63) Option (B).

The plant set up by Saaketh was producing a toxic substance that he would have derived commercial
gain from and it also had a potential to cause catastrophic damage. As per the principle given, he
would be absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties i.e. the people who had
inhaled the toxic fumes and had developed severe ailments. When the owner or management is
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held absolutely liable, they are denied of using the defences that are permitted under “strict
liability”.
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Q.64) Option (A).
As per the rule of absolute liability, the defence of Act of God is not allowed to be taken by the
defendant, if he was engaged in an inherently dangerous activity. Saaketh was engaged in the
production of a toxic substance named trichlorophenol, the leakage of which was bound to cause
Q.65) Option (B). 00

catastrophic damage. Therefore, Saaketh would be held to be absolutely liable.
Anirudh had asked for the warden to arrange for a lawyer who would defend him in court and
thereby, secure his release from jail. The principle given states that a person would be entitled to
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reimbursement for supply of necessities for life to a minor and in the given case, legal expenses can
be seen as necessities for life. Therefore, the agreement between Anirudh and the warden will not
be void.
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Q.66) Option (C).

As per the principle, if a person supplies necessities for life to a minor, then he shall be entitled to
reimbursement. As has been established by the previous question, the warden is entitled to the
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reimbursement. However, such reimbursement can take place out of Anirudh’s estate and Anirudh
will not be held personally liable for the same.
Q.67) Option (D).

For an invention to qualify for a patent, it has to meet the requirements as mentioned in the
principle. When Anastasia discovered the Pink Himalayan Salt, it was already in existence and was, in
fact, being used by the people of the Punjab region since time immemorial. There was no kind of
improvement in the manner in which the salt was produced and the salt was not non-obvious.
Therefore, Anastasia will be denied the patent.
Q.68) Option (B).

As per the principle, anyone who performs an act that is imminently dangerous i.e. has a high
potential of causing harm, will be guilty of murder. Sahir might not have ever intended to cause any
harm to the school children but due to his reckless and rash driving, he ended up causing their
deaths and therefore, must be held liable for murder.
Q.69) Option (A).

The principle given mentions that the age of a minor, whether male or female, is 18 years and
Avinash was 17 years old. It is established that he is a minor. Sameera proposed marriage to Avinash
without taking the consent of his lawful guardians i.e. his parents. In the principle, it is also
mentioned that it is not necessary for the minor, who is being enticed or lured, to be in the presence
of such a lawful guardian when the act of enticing or luring occurs. Therefore, Sameera has
CP/20/C20
committed the act of kidnapping. It is not relevant that Avinash has given his consent to the
marriage.
Q.70) Option (C).

The definition of “guardian” as given in the principle is restricted to parents and any person
appointed by the court of law. Though Arjun’s aunt was taking care of him and providing him shelter
after his parents’ death, she never became a guardian appointed by the court. Even when Arjun
stressed on how he needed his aunt’s permission, such permission would not be required from the
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point of view of what is mentioned in the principle. Therefore, the stranger is not guilty of
kidnapping because he was not required to take the consent of Arjun’s aunt since she was not a
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lawful guardian.
Q.71) Option (D).

As per the principle, the master would be liable for any acts performed by his servant in the course
of employment. Mr. Mukheja was being driven to the airport by Murad and this was in the course of
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employment. The accident occurred during the act of Murad taking Mr. Mukheja to the airport i.e.
during the course of Murad’s employment. Additionally, it is mentioned in the principle that the
employer need not have given permission for an act to be performed to be held liable for any
damage arising out of the performance of such an act. Mr. Mukheja’s consent or permission for
Murad to perform the act of overspeeding is not required since Murad performed such an act during
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his course of employment. Had Murad been off duty and had performed the same act, then Mr.
Mukheja would not be held liable for his act. Therefore, in the present situation, MC Sher can hold
Mr. Mukheja liable for the acts of his servant and Mr. Mukheja will have to pay the damages.
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Q.72) Option (B).

As per the principle, if a person had a valid reason to initiate prosecution against another and did not
do so out of malice but the court hold the other person not guilty of the charges, then the other
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person will be allowed to initiate a suit against malicious prosecution. Given the facts of the case, we
know that Bani had been assaulted by Kabir at the party but the court, in the case filed by Bani,
holds Kabir not guilty of the charges. Therefore, this acquittal permits Kabir to file a case of
“malicious prosecution” against Bani.
Q.73) Option (B).

For a case of “malicious prosecution” to be made, a “prosecution” must have occurred and an
acquittal must be granted to the person being prosecuted. In the given case, Santosh was merely
arrested by the police and during the investigation, the police found out that Santosh was not guilty
of misappropriation and gave him a clean chit. There was no prosecution proceedings initiated
against Santosh on the charges of misappropriation. Therefore, Santosh cannot file a case of
“malicious prosecution” against Manoj.
Q.74) Option (A).

In this question, the facts have been slightly tweaked and based on the new information, we know
that Santosh has been prosecuted based on the complaint made by Manoj to the head of the
company and that he has been held to be not guilty of misappropriation. Therefore, Santosh would
be able to file a case of malicious prosecution against Manoj. The fact that Santosh was held guilty in
other incidents of misappropriation is not relevant as we must only be concerned with the
misappropriation incident that Manoj accused him of, for Santosh to initiate malicious prosecution
proceedings against him.
CP/20/C20
Q.75) Option (C).
Statement 1 is an assumption of the premise as the second paragraph clearly says that realising the
scope of the problem, ‘labour’ has been included in the Concurrent List. Hence, the more important
the issue, the more likely it is to be found in the Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is not an assumption. Although the first paragraph says that the 93 % of the labour is
alienated from schemes and benefits, the second paragraph says that even when those schemes are
launched, they are inaccessible to the workers. Hence, the exploitation will not end merely by a
legislative framework and schemes. But such measures will also have to be accessible to the
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workforce.
Statement 3 is a valid assumption. The premise is concluding by stipulating that there must be a
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body on the lines of the National Social Security Board for Unorganised Workers. This suggestion
would have only been made if such body is fruitful.
Statement 4 is a valid assumption as the first paragraph states that the alienation has wreaked havoc
on the social lives of the alienated workforce. Further, the second paragraph recommends that a
Q.76) Option (A). 00

legislative framework on three types of informal labour is needed.
For a person to be held negligent, they need to perform an act where they fail to take reasonable
care. In the given situation, Preethi had failed to take reasonable care that was expected from all
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patrons using the water slide i.e. they were expected to ensure that the children accompanying
them were wearing water tubes. When Preethi realised that Shanaya was not wearing a water tube,
she should not have proceeded towards the water slide without the water tube. Her assurance to
herself that she would be more careful than necessary is irrelevant because Shanaya was harmed in
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the process and might not have been, if Preethi had taken reasonable care.
Q.77) Option (C).

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As per the principle, consideration is the benefit that each party gets or expects to get from a
contract. In the contractual agreement entered between Jethalal and his wife Daya, Jethalal was
getting his wife to leave his house in the residential colony in Goregaon enabling him to salvage his
reputation and Daya was supposed to be getting a payment of Rs. 5,000/- in addition to living in
another apartment in Dadar. Both of them were supposed to reap benefits from the agreement.
When Jethalal does not hold his end of the agreement to pay Daya the sum of Rs. 5,000/-, he can be
held liable because the contract is valid.
Q.78) Option (D).

The students were maintaining their decorum and were peacefully protesting. The Commissioner
behaved in an unreasonable manner by assuming that the chants of “Azaadi” meant that there could
be a possible uprising against the government. By ordering the lathi charge against the gathered
students, there was unreasonable, indiscriminate and excessive use of force and the police officers
cannot claim that they performed these acts in order to maintain order or that the law permitted
them to do so.
Q.79) Option (B).

There was no way that Karan could have known that one of his friends was pulling a prank (he had
received a call from an unknown number). It was his duty to inform the police of the possibility of
greater harm occurring to the people gathered. He might have caused monetary loss to the very
same people who were gathered at the concert but their lives were of greater importance at that
very moment when Karan made the decision to inform the police of the venue being possibly rigged
CP/20/C20
with bombs. Therefore, Karan will not be held liable for causing harm. Option (d) is incorrect
because we are only trying to deduce whether Karan is to be held liable and do not concern
ourselves with his friend’s liability.
Q.80) Option (C).

As per the principle, the occupier of a premise owed a duty of care to all those who he/she invited or
who were visiting. It is not enough that Amulya had asked Sakshi to ask her customers to use the
other gate and not the main gate. Amulya continued to owe a duty of care to all those who visited
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her premises. She should have taken care that her dog was not capable of causing any harm to any
person who was either visiting her or Sakshi.
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Q.81) Option (B).
Option a is incorrect as applying the only if conditional, X  Y does not necessarily follow. Y  X is a
mandatory conclusion and hence option b is the right choice. Options c and d do not follow.
Q.82) Option (A).
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Option a is the right choice as it directly follows from the given premise of speedy justice. Delay only
hampers the rendering of justice and hence a is the right choice.
Q.83) Option (B).

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Option (a) is Y  X, which is not a necessary consequence hence not the right option. Option b is X
therefore Y which is the correct implication of if conditional. Hence, b is the right choice. Options c
and d are immaterial and cannot be said to follow from the statement.
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Q.84) Option (A).

Following from the premise, the reputation of the accused is at stake and hence where the accused
has made a case for bail there must not be any delay due to the damage that it may cause to the
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reputation of the accused hence a is correct. Option b is contrary to what the premise suggests
hence is incorrect. C and d therefore cannot be correct.
Q.85) Option (C).

Options a and b are the right choices as they provide of balance to be maintained between the rights
of the accused and the duty of the state machinery. Hence c is the right choice.
Q.86) Option (C).

When the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution was introduced, it brought in a new condition for
disqualification for membership to the Parliament and State Legislatures. A legislator could now be
disqualified from membership in the event that he or she parts from his political party. This new
disqualification criterion was introduced in light of the increasing number of legislators defecting and
in turn, causing political instability with their defection.
Q.87) Option (B).

In the passage, the author mentions that the Court had failed to ask the question of whether the
legislature can enact such a law. The author opines that this was a far more crucial question to be
asked in the Naga People’s case than the Court bothering itself with the question of which
legislature can enact a legislation.
Q.88) Option (D).
CP/20/C20
There is no mention of the fundamental duties that the Indian Constitution obligates a citizen to
perform. The other options (a, b and c) have been mentioned and can be deduced from the passage.
You might be aware of the responsibility of citizens to perform their fundamental duties but since it
is not mentioned in the passage, it would be wrong to make such an assumption. Restrict your
answer to what is being mentioned in the passage and whatever the question is asking of you.
Q.89) Option (D).

From the principle given, it is clear that a plaintiff cannot claim damages for losses that he could
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have avoided by taking a reasonable steps. Furthermore, a defendant would only be liable for the
loss caused to the plaintiff as long as it is caused by his breaching his duty of care. In the first
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situation, the cow had died under natural circumstances and Pranav could not have been held to be
liable for the loss despite the cow being in his custody but the detention was for lawful reasons i.e.
Bhavish’s cow had damaged Pranav’s crop. In the second situation, Roshni had left a loaded gun in
an easily accessible place and she should have taken reasonable duty of care to ensure that nobody
had access to the same. In the third situation, Mihir might have taken care of the termite infestation
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but he had a duty to inform Imran of the same, so that Imran himself could take necessary
precautions to ensure something untoward does not happen. Therefore, situations II and III would
be the instances where the defendant would be held guilty due to breaching duty of care.
Q.90) Option (B).

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The passage given majorly deals with how for a statement to be held defamatory, it has to be
worded in a manner that it would appear on the face of it, or prime facie, trying to lower the plaintiff
in the eyes of the society. In the options given, Option (b) gives us an instance where a statement
could have a hidden meaning that could possibly defame the plaintiff, or in other words, be an
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innuendo. The onus is on the plaintiff to prove that such a statement referred to him and once he is
able to, then the defendant can be held guilty of defamation. Therefore, option (b) weakens the
requirement of the statement to be outrightly defamatory. Option (d) might seem to be correct
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because it also deals with a requirement for defamatory statement but we are not concerned with
how the defamatory statement affects the society. If a defamatory statement has the potential or is
capable of lowering the plaintiff in the eyes (as mentioned in the passage), it is irrelevant if it actually
caused a hit to the reputation of the plaintiff.
Section – IV: Data Interpretation

S.91–95) Solution for Questions:
Q.91) Option (B).

The number of boys in section B is 45.
Percentage of boys = (45/75)  100 = 60%
Q.92) Option (A).

Number of girls in section A = 48
Number of boys in section C = 30
Required value = [(48–30)/30]  100 = 60%
Q.93) Option (A).

Total number of students in section A be x.
Therefore, x  120/100 = 120
CP/20/C20
x = 100 students
Total number of students in section B be y.
Y  120/100 = 90
Y  6/5 = 90
Y = 75
Required ratio = 100:75 = 4:3
Q.94) Option (D).
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Total number of students = 120 + 75 + 90 = 285
Percentage of students in section C = (90/285)  100 = 31.57%
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This can be approximated to 32%.
Q.95) Option (C).

Total number of boys = 72 + 45 = 117

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It is known that the average marks obtained by the 5 students was 58 which means the total marks
obtained was 58  5 = 290 marks.
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The marks obtained by A, E and D = 45 + 60 + 65 = 170 marks
So, the marks obtained by B and C = 290 – 170 = 120 marks
The marks obtained by C was 40% more than the marks obtained by B.
Let the marks obtained by B be x and so the marks obtained by C will be 1.4x
According to the question, x + 1.4x = 120
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2.4x = 120
x = 50
So, the marks obtained by B was 50 while the marks obtained by C was 70.
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Q.96) Option (D).
Q.97) Option (C).

[(70 – 60)/60]  100
= 100/6
= 16.66%
Q.98) Option (B).

E got the 3rd highest marks in the test
Q.99) Option (B).

15% of 58 = 0.15  58 = 8.7 marks
Therefore, 15% marks more than the average = 58 + 8.7 = 66.7 marks.
There is only one student C who got more marks than 66.7. Therefore, only one student will get the
scholarship.
Q.100) Option (A).

The marks obtained by B and C together is 50 + 70 = 120 marks
The marks obtained by D and E together is 60 + 65 marks = 125 marks
Therefore, [(120 – 125)/125]  100
CP/20/C20
= (–5/125)  100
= –4%.
ie 4% less.
It is given that brand C had a market share of 12.5% in the market in the year 2019. It is also known
that the total sale of brand C in the market in the year 2019 was Rs.40 lacs.
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Let the total market size in Rs.lacs be M. Therefore,
(12.5/100)  M = 40
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12.5/100 is same as 1/8 and therefore, (1/8)  M = 40
or, M = Rs. 320 lacs.
Q.101) Option (C).
Q.102) Option (A).

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Brand R is 32, 5% of the market ie 32.5% of Rs.320 lacs while brand T is 20% of Rs.320 lacs.
Important Note: Since the question is in terms of their percentage comparison (by what % is one
more or less than the other) we need not find the actual values of R and T.
Therefore, [(32.5 – 20)/20]  100
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= (12.5/20)  100
= 62.5%
Q.103) Option (B).

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Let the total market in the year 2018 be Y.

Therefore, Y  125/100 = 320
Y  5/4 = 320
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Y = 64  4 = Rs.256 lacs
Q.104) Option (A).

Sale of brand R = 32.5% of 320
= (32.5/100)  320
= 32.5  3.2 = Rs.104 lacs
Sale of brand Q = 10% of 320
= (10/100)  320
= 10  3.2 = Rs.32 lacs
Required difference
= Rs.104 – Rs.32 = Rs.72 lacs
Alternately, we could have first found the difference between 32.5% and 10% which is equal to
22.5% and then found the value of 22.5% of Rs.320 lacs.
Q.105) Option (D).

Sale of brand S = 25% of Rs.320 lacs = Rs.80 lacs
Section – V: Inferential Reasoning

CP/20/C20
Kanika Doctor Superb 2nd tallest

Gagan Verna Delhi
rd
Engineer City 3 tallest Pune
Prachi Chartered Superb Tallest Bangalore
Sarthak Doctor 5th tallest Mumbai
This is the data that can be compiled based on the information available. Gagan cannot be the
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chartered accountant because the chartered accountant owns a superb. Therefore, Prachi must be
the chartered accountant.
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We can now fill the remaining information.
Kanika Doctor Superb 2nd tallest Mumbai
Gagan Architect Verna 4th tallest Delhi
Rohan Engineer City 3rd tallest Pune
Prachi Chartered Superb Tallest
Sarthak Doctor
Q.106) Option (B).

th
Innova 5 tallest Mumbai
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Bangalore
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Q.107) Option (A).
Q.108) Option (A).

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Q.109) Option (C).
Q.110) Option (D).

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Q.111) Option (B).

Since A’s mother is the only daughter, then B must be the brother of A’s mother. Hence B is the
uncle of A.
Q.112) Option (B).
Q.113) Option (C).

TAJMAHAL is coded as CVOLJCNC.
Every pair is coded as pair with an increment of +2. So, T is coded as V and A is coded as C.
JYOTSANA will be coded as ALVQCUCP
Q.114) Option (D).
Q.115) Option (D).

South would become South–East as each direction gets shifted by 45 degrees in the anti clockwise
direction.
Q.116) Option (D).
Q.117) Option (A).
CP/20/C20
Q.118) Option (B).
Answer choice (D) looks perfect at first glance, but the author never indicated that the children could
identify only the supplies that they used. Palettes, yes; other supplies, no.
Answer choice (A): From the text, it seems possible that the children did understand the function of
a palette; certainly, they were able to identify the palette they used.
Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer choice. The answer must be true because we know that
despite being asked to identify all the palettes, each child selected only the palette he had used. No
two children picked the same palette and therefore no two children understood the name “palette”
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to apply to the same object.
Answer choice (C): Apparently not, otherwise logic would say the children would pick other palettes
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aside from the one they used.
Answer choice (D): Do not be concerned if you fell into this trap, but consider it a lesson for the
future. The test makers smoothly slip “painting supplies” into the answer choice, and most students
make the mistake of equating painting supplies with palettes. Yes, a palette is a painting supply, but
there are other painting supplies as well, and the stimulus does not give us information about
its place. 00
whether the children could identify those painting supplies. This is the essence of the Shell Game:
you expect one thing and the test makers slip something quite similar but essentially different into
Answer choice (E): This is an Opposite Answer. As indicated by the final sentence of the stimulus, the
children were able to distinguish the palette they used from the other palettes. This circumstance is
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exactly opposite of that stated in answer choice (E), which declares, “The children were not able to
distinguish...” In this case, if you miss the “not,” this answer choice is very attractive.
Q.119) Option (C).

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Q.120) Option (D).

The argument begins with a statement that contains two necessary conditions:
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MF = involved in match–fixing scandal

sub–C = Cricketer
P = played
R = avoid rebuke
MFC  P and R
This conditional relationship is introduced by the “if” in the middle of the sentence, but the
statement also features a “neither/nor” construction. In this case, the neither/nor indicates that the
two named events both cannot occur if a politician is involved in a serious scandal, hence the “and”
in the necessary condition.
The argument continues by stating that several prominent politicians have been involved in a serious
scandal. This assertion begins a Repeat form argument by indicating that the sufficient condition has
occurred:
MFC
Given this occurrence, the author now concludes that one of the two necessary conditions—“not
played”—will happen. Because this is true based on the premises, this is a valid conclusion. Some
readers object that because the author does not mention rebuke, the conclusion is incomplete and
therefore incorrect. This point has no merit. The author can choose what he or she wishes to
address, and in this case the author has made a conclusion that follows from the premises. No false
or incorrect statement has been made. The author is not compelled to address every single
consequence of a given set of premises. However, as soon as the Must Be True questions stem
appears, you should immediately search for an answer that addresses the ‘rebuke’ issue. Based on
CP/20/C20
the premises, we know that the prominent politicians will also be rebuked and answer choice (E)
indicates that fact.
Answer choice (A): While this answer is possibly true because the stimulus limits the discussion to
“cricketers known to be involved in match–fixing scandal,” there is no evidence to prove that some
cricketers avoid detection and rebuke. Thus, this answer is incorrect.
Answer choice (B): This answer is a Mistaken Reversal of part of the conditional statement in the first
sentence.
Answer choice (C): This issue is not addressed in the stimulus.
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Answer choice (D): This correct answer is a result of the Repeat argument form enacted in the
stimulus.
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Q.121) Option (D).
SC = serious criminal cases E = efficient
Sentence 1: SC  E
Sentence 2: E  SC (solving SC = SC)
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The sufficient condition in the first sentence is introduced by the phrase “people with.” The
necessary condition in the second sentence is introduced by the phrase, “only if.” Note that the
second sentence provides the contrapositive of the first sentence.
When you encounter a stimulus that contains conditional reasoning and a Must Be True question
stem, immediately look for a contrapositive or a repeat form in the answer choices. In problems with
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this same combination, avoid Mistaken Reversals and Mistaken Negations as they are attractive but
wrong answer traps.
Answer choice (A): One reason answer choice (A) is incorrect is because it only refers to serious
cases, not serious criminal cases as in the stimulus. Even if the answer correctly referred to serious
1
criminal cases, it would still be incorrect because it would be a Mistaken Reversal of the first
sentence and a Mistaken Negation of the second sentence.
Answer choice (B): The answer choice can be diagrammed SC  E.
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This answer is incorrect because it is the Mistaken Negation of the first sentence. However, it is also
the Mistaken Reversal of the second sentence, which you should recognize as the contrapositive of
the first statement. This leads to the interesting point that the Mistaken Negation of a statement
and the Mistaken Reversal of the same statement are contrapositives of each other.
This fact reveals how important it is to diagram conditional statements correctly; otherwise, the
makers of the test can lure you with answer choices which contain contrapositives of Mistaken
Negations or Reversals.
Answer choice (C): The answer choice can be diagrammed as E  SC.
As such, it is the Mistaken Reversal of the first sentence and also the Mistaken Negation of the
second sentence.
Answer choice (D): This is the correct answer. Answer choice (E) is the contrapositive of the first
sentence and a repeat of the second sentence.
Q.122) Option (B).

The cause is argument which resulted in decline in marks. To make this valid it is necessary to
establish that argument was the cause not vice – versa. Option A weakens the argument. C and D are
Courses of action. Only option B ascertains that the argument cause led to the decrease in marks
effect.
Q.123) Option (C).
CP/20/C20
For viewers to switch and the author to say that changes were effective it is important that viewers
found those changes better.
Q.124) Option (B).

For it to be “less cost effective” today there should be a basis for saying it. That means it was cost
effective earlier, and necessary that people used it and not that the age group 18–35 never used
newspapers. Option A is only repeating the assertion, Option C is saying the opposite and option D is
defeating the whole argument by saying that there is no basis only to calculate the above problem.
1
Q.125) Option (B).
08
Q.126) Option (D).
The move will be self defeating as it will lead to more defaults. Option A gives an alternative move
but does not undermine the current move. Option B gives a reason for default but does not
undermine the move. Option C strengthens it.
Q.127) Option (B).

00
A,C & D are defeating the argument. B is irrelevant hence the answer.
Q.128) Option (D).

16
It gives a reason that defeats the argument, the rest strengthen it.
Q.129) Option (C).

Option C renders the partnership useless.
1
Q.130) Option (B).

It’s a typical Cause – correlation fallacy where two phenomena happening together are mistaken to
18
cause or affect each other.
Q.131) Option (C).

A is invalid as the author provides justification of studies.
B maybe true for the case that every educated person has a good career choice. However, we need
to talk about a case between educated and uneducated.
C addresses the fallacy, as a cause-correlation fallacy. The study shows good career choice and
wealth annoy the educated but we cannot assume one caused the other. They may be effects of a
common cause.
D weakens the study and falsifies it. We have to assume the study to be true.
Q.132) Option (B).

That some spiritual gurus do it does not mean the whole community does it. Standard question on
fallacy of generalization. B is better than A and B says ‘Most’. C strengthens the argument as author,
says truth is only incidental which C also says. Author does not infer any reason for this. Hence D also
invalid.
Q.133) Option (D).
Q.134) Option (D).
Q.135) Option (D).
CP/20/C20
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08
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CP/20/C20

Q.4) Option (D).

Q.5) Option (C).

Q.6) Option (C).

Q.7) Option (D).

Q.9) Option (A).

Q.10) Option (B).

Q.11) Option (D).

Q.12) Option (C).

Q.13) Option (C).

Q.14) Option (B).

Q.15) Option (C).

Q.16) Option (C).

Q.17) Option (D).

Q.18) Option (A).

Q.19) Option (D).

Q.20) Option (C).

Q.21) Option (A).

Q.23) Option (C).

Q.24) Option (C).

Q.25) Option (B).

Q.28) Option (A).

Q.29) Option (B).

Q.30) Option (A).

Section – II: Current Awareness

Q.32) Option (C).

Q.33) Option (B).

Q.34) Option (C).

Q.35) Option (A).

Q.36) Option (B).

Q.37) Option (B).

Q.38) Option (B).

Q.39) Option (B).

Q.40) Option (A).

Q.41) Option (A).

Q.42) Option (C).

Q.43) Option (B).

Q.44) Option (C).

Q.46) Option (C).

Q.47) Option (B).

Q.48) Option (D).

Q.51) Option (C).

Q.52) Option (C).

Q.53) Option (B).

Q.54) Option (C).

Q.56) Option (A).

Q.57) Option (D).

Q.58) Option (B).

Q.59) Option (D).

Q.60) Option (D).

Section – III: Deductive Reasoning

Q.62) Option (C).

Q.63) Option (B).

Q.65) Option (B). 00

Q.66) Option (C).

Q.67) Option (D).

Q.68) Option (B).

Q.69) Option (A).

Q.70) Option (C).

Q.71) Option (D).

Q.72) Option (B).

Q.73) Option (B).

Q.74) Option (A).