Department of Obstetrics & Gynaecology

U M (Obstetrics - MCQ’s-Paper -2)

Q1. A G2P1+0 presents in antenatal clinic at 28 weeks of gestation with a HB concentration

of 9.2gm/dl. What physiological change could have led to her anaemia.
a) Decrease in red cell count and increase in plasma volume
b) Decrease in serum ferritin levels
c) Decrease in red cell production by the bone marrow
d) Decreased erythropoiesis production.
e) Decrease in transferrin levels

Q2. Which of the following vessels contains the highest proportion of deoxygenated blood
in fetal circulation
a) Umblical artery
b) Umblical vein
c) Ductus venosus
d) Ascending aorta
e) Decending aorta

Q3. A primigravida presents at 10 weeks of gestation. Which of the following changes occur
in her cardiovascular system
a) Cardiac output decreases
b) Diastolic blood pressure increases
c) Heart rate decreases
d) Peripheral resistance increase
e) Stroke volume increase

Q4. A primigravida presents in antenatal clinic at 13 weeks of gestation. You advise her
early obstetric ultrasound for fetal wellbeing. Which of the following ultrasound
parameters will be used to determine fetal gestational age
a) Crown rump length
b) Head circumference
c) Biparietal diameter
d) Abdominal circumference
e) Femur length

Q5. You have received 28 years old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation with lower
abdominal pain. On examination she is having regular uterine contractions. On vaginal
examination cervix is 2cm dilated and 50% effaced. Along with tocolysis you advised
betamethasone. Your PG asked you the reason of administration of betamethasone. Which
of the following statement is true regarding its use
a) Enhances the effect of tocolytic agent
b) Decreases the chance of intraamniotic infection
c) Promotes fetal lung maturity
c) Decreases the risk of fetal GBS infection
e) Promotes fetal brain development

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Q6. A 35year old G4P3A0 present in emergency at 36 weeks of gestation with history of
copious, painless vaginal bleeding 2 hours back. Her blood pressure is 110/8o, pulse
88/minute, temperature 98f, on examination uterus appears soft and non-tender, fetal
hearts are 140/minute and regular, head is 5/5 palpable and there is no evident bleeding or
signs of ruptured membranes. What is the most likely diagnosis
a) Carcinoma of cervix
b) Placenta praevia
c) Abruption placenta
d). Vasa previa
e) Hematuria
Q7. A patient comes with 38 weeks with PV bleeding. USG shows placenta praevia,
covering the cervical os. What is the next step in management
a) Wait for spontaneous labour
b) LSCS
c) IOL with prostaglandin
d) IOL with Syntocinon
e) None of the above
Q8. Mrs saira A g3p2+0 previous SVD at home with gestational of 34 weeks reported in ER
with complains of lower abdominal pain and PV bleeding for last four hours. On
examination she is clinically pale B.P 150/100MmHg puls 102, P/A fundal height 38 weeks,
wood hard uterus p/c bleeding with CTG shows reduced variability with fetal heart rate of
100/min which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her
a) Continue feto maternal surveillance
b) Prepare and proceed for emergency LSCS
c) Optimised her B.P
d) Induction of labur
e) Biophysical profile
Q9. A primigravida patient is at 36 weeks gestation with painful vaginal bleeding. she is
diagnosed as a case of abruption placenta. the fetus is dead and no labour pains. the best
management plan for the patient will be
a) Immediate caesarean section
b) Caesarean section at 38 weeks
c) Induction of labour after stabilization
d) Wait for spontaneous onset of labour
e) Immediate induction of labour
Q10. A 30 years old primigravida came to ER at 33 weeks of gestation with lower
abdominal pain for the last 12 hours. Fetal movements are normal. On palpation she is
having mild uterine contractions. She has a negative fetal fibronectin test. What should be
the management in her case
a) Send her home and reassure.
b) Admit and start tocolysis
c) Antibiotics
d) Admit and start corticosteroids
e) Admit and start tocolysis with corticosteroids.

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Q11. A 30 years old G3P2+0 at 28 weeks of gestation presents with severe pain in the right
flank radiating to her groin. She also complains of rigors and chills. Urine analysis reveals
numerous puss cells, most likely diagnosis is
a) Appendicitis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Round ligament torsion
d) Meckel’s diverticulum
e) Torsion of the cyst
Q12. A 28 years old G2p1 at 32 weeks presented in gynae OPD with lower abdominal pain.
USG shows single intrauterine pregnancy at 32 weeks and large 8*8cm intramural uterine
fibroid. The most unlikely cause of pain in this patient is
a) Placental abruption
b) Red degeneration of fibroid
c) Pre term labour
d) Urinary tract infection
e) Torsion of uterine fibroid
Q13. A G2 P1 has been diagnosed as IUGR at 36 weeks of gestation. you perform an USG,
liquor is reduced the next investigation you will request is
a) Uterine artery doppler
b) Umbilical artery doppler
c) Umbilical Vein doppler
d) Venous artery doppler
e) Uterine vein doppler
Q14. A 28 years old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presented in OPD with complaint
of abdominal pain. On examination her SFH is 38cm with difficulty to determine fetal
poles. What is the most probable diagnosis
a) Twin pregnancy
b) Placental abruption
c). Polyhydromnias
d). Pregnancy with fibroid
e). Ascites
Q15. A 30 years old G2P1@20 weeks gestation presented in gynae opd to show her
anomaly scan. Her usg showed bilateral renal agenesis. what other finding do you expect in
her ultrasound
a). Polyhydromnias
b) Oligohydramnios
c). Absent bladder
d). Enlarged bladder
e) Cardiac defect

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Q16. A primigravida has arrived in the antenatal clinic at 16 weeks of uneventful pregnancy. Her
blood group & Rh factor is B negative. Her husband is A positive. What is the next investigation
you will order
a) Keilhauer’s Test
b) Direct Coomb’s Test
c) Indirect Coomb’s Test
d) Rh Ab Titre levels
e) CBC
Q17. A 30 years old primigravida presents to the antenatal clinic with USG report showing
polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios is defined as, if amniotic fluid index is
a) > 10 cm
b) > 7 cm
c) > 6 cm
d) > 25 cm
e) > 15 cm
Q18. A 25 years old primigravida at 40 + 7 weeks comes in labour room for induction of
labour. cervix is closed and 3 cm long, which of the following medicine will be given for
cervical ripening.
a) Methergine
b) Salbutamol
c) Prostaglandin E2
d) Paracetamol
e) Methyldopa
Q19. A 37years old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestation has a fetus with nuchal
translucency of 2.9mm on USG
Next step in her management is
a) Consider termination of pregnancy if morally acceptable
b) Repeat USG in two weeks,
c) Offer her chorionic villous sampling
d) Consider amniocentesis
e) Wait until 15 week and send a quadruple test
Q20. A PG presented in OPD with gestational age of 42 weeks and normal fetal
movements. on P/A FSH term L/C FCA positive, bishop 2 which of the following is the
most appropriate management of this patient
a) ARM
b) Sweeping
c) Medical IOL
d) Elective LSCS
e) Syntocinon infusion

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Q21. A young lady PG with gestational age of 12 + weeks report in E R with severe lower
abdominal pain for last one day, associated with increased frequency and dysuria. On
examination patient is dehydrated. PA soft tender in left iliac fossa. Ultrasound shows
intrauterine viable pregnancy of 12 + weeks and clear adnexa which of the following is
most appropriate treatment for her
a) USG abdomen
b) Send urine R E
c) KUB
d) I/V antibiotics
e) Urine CS
Q22. A primigravida came to ER with labour pains for the last 8 hours. On examination
cervix was 6cm dilated,50% effaced, station -2 and CTG was reactive. After 4 hours she is
at full dilatation and effacement, station 0. What is your diagnosis
a) Primary arrest
b) Poor progress in second stage of labour
c) Cervical dystocia
d) Normal progress of labour
e) Secondary arrest
Q23. A primigravida has come to ER at 38 weeks with labour pains for the last 5 hours. On
vaginal examination she is 7 cm dilated, station -1, cervix is 50% effaced with brow
presentation. What is the presenting diameter in her case
a) Submentobregmatic
b) Occipitofrontal
c) Submentobregmatic
d) Occipito mental
e) Occipitobrgmatic
Q24. A 38 years old G6P5 presents in gynae outpatient department at 8 weeks of gestation
for antenatal checkup. She is moderately obese. Her BMI 32 kg/m2. She gives history of
venous thrombo embolism in her first-degree relatives. She is high risk of DVT. You will
consider prophylaxis for DVT with low molecular weight heparin in this case from
a) 1st trimester
b) 2nd trimester
c) 3rd trimester
d) 1sr week postpartum
e) 3rd week postpartum
Q25. Risk of thromboembolic disease is pregnancy is highest with
a) Obesity >80kg
b) Pre-Eclampsia
c) Sepsis
d) Smoking
e) Thrombophilia

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Q26. A 32 years old G3P2 with 2 previous vaginal deliveries. She came to ER with labour
pains. She has a twin pregnancy and both babies in cephalic presentation. The CTG has
been normal throughout labour. The first twin is delivered uneventfully. The second twin is
found to be transverse. What should be the best immediate action
a) Breech extraction
b) Caesarean section
c) External cephalic version
d) Rupture of membranes and commence syntocinon
e) Wait for 30 minutes.
Q27. A 28 years old, G2p1 present in labour ward with twin pregnancy, first twin is
cephalic, after 3hours, Twin 1st delivered, 2nd transverse lie with FHS normal, what will
you do
a) External cephalon version
b) Internal podalic version
b) Lower segment Caesarian section
d) Breech extraction
e) Wait for spontaneous correction of lie
Q28. Chronicity of twin pregnancy is best determined at
a) 6 to 9 weeks
b) 9 to 10 weeks
c) 14 to 16 weeks
d) 17 to 18 weeks
e) 19 to 20 weeks
Q29. A patient at full term pregnancy has just delivered twins of different genders. The
most likely typing of these twins is
a) Monochorionic monoamniotic
b) Dichorionic monoamniotic
c) Dichorionic diamniotic
d) Monochorionic diamniotic
e) Monozygotic
Q30. A 30year old, G3P1A1 present in labour ward with irregular uterine contractions at
33week of gestation, she had history of preterm delivery in her previous pregnancy, what is
the management
a) Steroids plus tocolytics
b) Tocolytics
c) Antibiotics
d) Steroids
e) Delivery

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Q31. A 24 years old G3 P2+0 presents to you at 32 weeks of gestation with preterm – pre
labour rupture of membranes for last ten days. She is complaining of pain in lower
abdomen, fever with rigors and chills and purulent vaginal discharge, what is her diagnosis
a) Pyrexia of unknown origin
b) Puerperal pyrexia
c) Pre-term Labour
d) Chorioamnionitis
e) Antepartum haemorrhage
Q32. Which of the following is most appropriate in managing patient with history of
spontaneous pre term birth
a) Serial cervical length assessment from 16 weeks
b) Progesterone support
c) Dexa Cover
d) Cervical cerclage
e) Pre- serial urine RE + TVS
Q33. A 28 years old primigravida non booked case, present first time in antenatal clinic at
34 weeks of gestation for antenatal checkup. She brings her ultrasound report showing
parameters of less than 5th centile for this gestation. Which of the following maternal
infections can cause this type of severe symmetrical growth restriction
a) Herpes simplex
b) Rubella
c) Varicella zoster
d) Measles
e) Parvo virus
Q34. A P1+0 presented on 4th postnatal day with H/O fever, rigors & chills, pain and
engorgement of right breast. You make the diagnosis of mastitis. The most common
infection organism in this condition is
a) Staph aureus
b) Strep pneumonia
c) Klebsiella
d) Proteus
e) Pseudomonas
Q35. Which of the following infections cannot be transmitted by placental route
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Human papilloma virus
c) Rubella
d) Toxoplasmosis
e) Primary herpes simplex

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Q36. A30 years g2p1 @24 weeks gestation presented in gynae OPD. She is anxious about
Covid vaccination. which of the following statement s true regarding tis vaccine
a). Covid vaccine is safe and she should get immediately vaccinated
b) She should wait till third trimester for vaccination
c) She should get vaccinated after delivery
d) Safety of Covid vaccine has not been determined yet
e) None
Q37. All Individuals can get Covid-19 vaccine except
a) Pregnant between 14-33weeks
b) Lactating Mothers
c) Individual above 40 years
d) People with obvious fever
e) Medical & Paramedical staff
Q38. A G3P2+0 presents in antenatal clinic at 12 weeks of gestation. You advised early
pregnancy scan to the patient the aim of this scan is
a) Accurate estimation of gestational age
b) Two identify the fetus with cardiac defects
c) To identify the location of the placenta
d) To Assess the liquor volume
e) To measure the fetal umbilical artery doppler
Q39. A G 2 P1 with previous 1 scar presents at 34 weeks in antenatal clinic. You examined
her and advised obstetrical ultrasound. The report shows the placental tissue invading
myometrium this condition is called
a) Placenta Praevia
b) Placental Abruption
c) Placenta Acreta
d) Placenta increta
e) Placentapercreta
Q40. In Antenatal clinic you see complete blood count report of antenatal patient and make
diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. The diagnosis is made by noting the fall in MCV below
a) 75fl
b) 85fl
c) 65fl
d) 95fl
e) 100fl
Q41. A 26 years old multigravida with no known risk factors is admitted in early labour.
The best method for fetal monitoring in this patient is
a) Continuous electronic fetal heart rate monitoring
b) Biophysical profile
c) Fetal scalp blood sampling
d) Intermittent auscultation with fetoscope
e) Fetal movements counting

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Q42. A 30 minutes biophysical profile of a fetus reveals, no fetal breathing movements,
three fetal movements, no episode of limb flexion, largest amniotic fluid is 2cm and reactive
non stress test. what would be the score of this fetus
a) .2
b) .4.
c) .5
d) 6
e) .8
Q43. A 24 years old PG presented in Gynae OPD for booking at 16 weeks. Her USG shows
2 intrauterine fetuses separated by thin membrane. The division of zygote most likely
occurred between day the
a) 6-7
b) 8-10
c) > 14
d) 12-14
e) None
Q44. A 25 years old G2P1+0 presents with BMI 23kg came for pre-pregnancy counseling.
The recommended weight gain for her is
a) 8-10 Kg
b) 11-16 Kg
c) 16-20 Kg
d) 12-15 Kg
e) 20-25 Kg
Q45. A multi gravida G5P4 at gestational age of 38+6 weeks with lower abdominal pain in
labour room, SFH 32 cm, Lie is transverse on ultrasound, patient complain of gush of clear
fluid per vagina, fetal heart rate drops from 145bpm /100 bpm cause of fetal bradycardia is
a) Placenta Praevia
b) Vasa praevia
c) Cord Prolapse
d) Placental Abruption
e) Uterine rupture
Q46. Shoulder dystocia is anticipated in all of the following conditions except for
a) Diabetic Mother
b) Obesity BMI > 35
c) Prolong Pregnancy
d) Pre-term breech presentation
e) Instrumental vaginal delivery

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Q47. A G2P1 has come to antenatal clinic at 32 weeks of gestation with breech
presentation. You counselled her about different options available. She asked you that if
you go for external cephalic version, when should you perform it
a) 34 weeks
b) 35 weeks
c) 36 weeks
d) 37 weeks
e) In latent phase of labour
Q48. A 24 years old woman P5 has delivered normally 20 minutes ago. She had active
management of third stage. Your house officer noticed heavy vaginal bleeding. On
examination uterus is lax. Her ABC is secured and you requested for cross matched blood.
What should be your next step
a) Prostaglandin F2 alpha
b) Transfuse uncross matched O negative blood
c) B-lynch suture
d) Bimanual uterine massage
e) Laparotomy and stepwise devascularization
Q49. A P2+0 with uncontrolled diabetes and polyhydramnios delivered a baby and started
to bleed profusely after delivery of placenta. The most likely cause of bleeding in this case is
a) Retained placenta
b) Vaginal laceration
c) Uterine atony
d) Uterine inversion
e) Ruptured uterus
Q50. A P3 had a normal vaginal delivery 10 days ago at a local hospital. She was fine until
day 10 when she started having vaginal bleeding with mild lower abdominal pain. Your
diagnosis in this case is
a) Primary postpartum haemorrhage.
b) Secondary postpartum haemorrhage
c) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
d) Von Willebrand disease
e) Menorrhagia
Q51. A primigravida presents in OPD at 34 weeks of gestation with haemoglobin level of 8
grams/dl. What next investigation you will order for this lady to find the cause of anaemia
a) Serum ferritin
b) Hb electrophoresis
c) Urine routine examination
d) Hepatitis profile
e) Xray chest

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Q52. A 24 years old primigravida presented in OPD at 31 weeks of gestation with history of
raised BP for last 2 days. On examination her BP was 150/100mmhg and after 4 hours her
BP was 140/95mmhg. on dipstick proteinuria is negative. This is a case of
a) Pre-eclampsia
b) Chronic hypertension
c) Essential hypertension
d) Pregnancy induced hypertension
e) Chronic hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
Q53. A 25 years old, primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation is brought in emergency with
complain of blurring of vision and headache. On examination, B.P is 160/110 mm Hg, pulse
is 88/min, edema is ++ and reflexes are brisk. SFH is corresponding to dates with
longitudinal lie and FHR is 145 /min. The most likely complication in this patient you
anticipated can be
a) Eclampsia
b) HelIp syndrome
c) Intrauterine fetal demise
d) Placental abruption
e) Preterm labour
Q54. A G6P5 presents in antenatal clinic at 35 weeks of gestation conformed by USG done
in 10 weeks of pregnancy. Now fetal growth parametres are of 31 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following maternal medical condition can lead to this
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Thyroid Disorder
c) Chronic kidney disease
d) Anaemia
e) Obstetric Cholestasis
Q55. Uterine artery Doppler evaluation is done at
a) 10-12 weeks
b) 20-24 weeks
c) 28-30 weeks
d) 35 weeks
e) 38 weeks
Q56. A primigravida presents in OPD at 10 weeks of gestation. both partners have
thalasaemia trait. Which of the following is recommended for the couple
a) Amniocentesis
b). chorionic villus sampling
c) Cordocentesis
d) Tripple test
e) Quadruple test

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Q57. A primigravida presents in OPD with history of generalized itching. A diagnosis of
obstetric cholestasis is made. which of the following drug is recommended for her
a) calamine
b) topical steroids
c) Emoliants
d) Ursodeoxycholic acid
e) .Folic acid
Q58. A 26 years old primigravida presents at 28 weeks of gestation. She complains of
reduced fetal movement for one day. Which of the following is the method of choice for
assessment of fetal well being
a) Auscultation with pinnard
b) Auscultation with stethoscope
c) Obstetric USG
d) CTG
e). Doppler USG
Q59. Indications for continous Electronic fetal heart rate monitoring include
a) Anaemia
b) Meconium stained amniotic fluid
c) Gestational diabetes
d) Primiparity
e) Spontaneous labour

Q60. Regarding Epidural analgesia which of the following is true

a) Increase caesarean section rate
b) Shortens the second stage of labour
c) Reduce instrumental delivery rate
d) ideal in early labour
e) Continuous CTG
Q61. The most common reason for induction of labour is
a) Post term pregnancy
b) PROM
c) Hypertension
d) Twin pregnancy
e) Maternal request
Q62. During spontaneous vertex delivery after the head delivers through the vulva it
immediately aligns with the shoulders. This movement of the head is called
a) Extension
b) External rotation
c) Descent
d) Restitution
e) Flexion

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Q63. A multi gravida has just delivered a male baby vaginaly. She is hepatitis B positive.
What will you advise her regarding vertical transmission of baby
a) Administer hepatitis B vaccine
b) Administer hepatitis B Ig
c) Check hepatitis status of baby
d) Administer both vaccine and Ig
e) Administer vaccine if baby is hepatitis positive
Q64 A primigravida is in2nd stage of labour for one hour. CTG starts showing variable
decelerations. You decide for instrumental delivery. Which of the following is the
prerequisite for instrumental delivery
a) Membranes should be intact
b) Head should be at or below ischial spines
c) Spinal anaesthesia is mandatory
d) Head is 4/5th palpable per abdomen
e) Urinary bladder should be filled
Q65 A primigravida just had outlet forceps delivery. she has profuse bleeding on
examination there is linear tear in the lateral vaginal wall involving skin and vaginal and
perineal muscles What is your diagnosis
a) 1st degree perineal tear
b) 2nd degree perineal tear
c) 3rd degree perineal tear
d) 4th degree perineal tear
e) Deficient perineal body
Q66. A G2P1 brings her ultrasound report which shows fetus has anencephaly. which of
the following maternal medical disease can result in this anomaly
a). Hypertension
b) cardiac disease
c) diabetes
d) Asthma
e) Renal disease
Q67 A primigravida presents in antenatal clinic at 11 weeks of gestation. She has family
history of congenital anomalies in her sibling’s children. Which of the following anomaly
can be diagnosed USG at this gestation
a) Cardiac
b) Skeletal
c) Neural tube defects
d) Cerebral palsy
e) Gastroschisis

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Q68. A primigravida presents in antenatal clinic. She is heavy smoker. Which of the
following complication is associated with maternal smoking
a) Reduced fetal blood flow to the brain
b) Increased risk of pre-eclampsia
c) Increased risk of placental abruption
d) Sudden intrauterine fetal death
e) Increased risk of fetal hypoglycemia
Q69. A primigravida is in first stage of labour for 6 hours. During pelvic examination
anterior fontanelle is felt under the symphysis pubis. Which of the following is true
a) Occipitoposterior position
b) Occipitoanterior
c) Occipitotransverse
d) Brow
e) Face presentation
Q70. What risk factor has the highest association with uterine rupture in a woman with
previous c section.
a) Spontaneous onset of labour
b) Use of oxytocin in labour
c) Prostaglandin E2 induction of labour
d) Women with prolong latent phase.
e) Severe backache
Q71. Uterine inversion is the complication of which of the following
a) Prolong latent phase
b) Induction of labour
c) Instrumental vaginal delivery
d) Third stage of labour
e) Macrosomia
Q72. A G2P1 has come to antenatal clinic at 32 weeks of gestation with breech
presentation. You counselled her about different options available. She asked you that if
you go for external cephalic version, when should you perform it
a) 34 weeks
b) 35 weeks
c) 37 weeks
d) 38 weeks
e) In latent phase of labour
Q73. A 35 years old G3P2 at 32 weeks of gestation brings her urine routine examination
report showing bacteriuria although she has no urinary symptoms. This asymptomatic
bacteriuria can lead to
a) Preterm labour
b) Anaemia
c) DVT

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d) Postpartum haemorrhage
e) Pre-eclampsia
Q74. A primigravida presents in antenatal clinic at 28 weeks of gestation she is diagnosed
as a case of gestational diabetes
While counselling you inform her
a) Increased risk of developing diabetes mellitus later in life
b) Decreased risk of operative delivery
c) Decreased risk of pre-eclampsia
d) Decreased risk of fetal respiratory distress syndrome
e) Increased risk of preterm labour
Q75. Regarding fetal surveillance in second stage of labour
a) Continuous CTG is recommended
b) There is no role for fetal blood sampling
c) Accelerations on CTG are commonly present
d) Late decelerations on CTG are normal
e) Early decelerations are common
Q76. A primigravida is in second stage of labour. while pushing baby head is delivered but
shoulders are stuck. which of the following manoeuvres is recommended
a) Extension of episiotomy
b) Wood screw
c) McRobert`s
d) Reverse wood screw
e) Zavenelle
Q77. A G2P1 is brought in emergency with history of labour pains for 6 hours. She had
lower segment caesarean section in her last pregnancy. On examination she has persistent
pain. Pulse is 108/min BP is 90/60 mmHg. There is vaginal bleeding. What is your diagnosis
a) Placental abruption
b) Placenta praevia
c) Uterine inversion
d) Uterine rupture
e) Vasa praevia
Q78. A G2p1 is in active stage of labour for the last eight hours. On vaginal examination, it
is found that fetus is in occipito posterior position. This position is associated with
a) Prolonged labour
b) Late rupture of membranes
c) Precipitate labour
d) Decreased chances of caesarean section
e) Paltypelloid pelvis

Q79. A 22 years old woman delivered a male baby six weeks ago. She is breastfeeding her
baby. Which one of the following contraceptive method is best for her
a) Combined oral contraceptive pills
b) Injectable progesterone
c) Barrier method (condom)

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d) Intrauterine contraceptive hormonal device
e) Tubal ligation

Q80. A 38 years old G5P4 suddenly experiences chest pain, breathlessness and light
headedness after artificial rupture of membranes. What is your diagnosis
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Hypotension
c) Amniotic fluid embolism
d) Uterine rupture
e) Uterine inversion

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