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b. knowledge of pathophysiology
E 1. Which of the ff is not an outcome included in the definition of pharmaceutical care? c. communication skills
a. cure of disease d. physical assessment skills
b. elimination or reduction of symptoms e. all of the above
c. arresting or slowing down of the disease process
d. prevention of disease symptoms C 13. Which of the following is the first step in the monitoring process?
e. reducing health care costs a. Monitor the response therapy
b. Assess the response theraphy
D 2. Active listening consists of which of the following tasks? c. Set therapeutic goals
a. Focusing on what the other person says d. Integrate the monitoring plan
b. Assessing the way the other person communicates
c. Conveying an open, relaxed, and unhurried attitude D 14. Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating an original research article?
d. None of the above a. Appropriateness of the study design
b. Clinical significance o sstatistically significant data
B 3. Current prescription information included all of the ff. except: c. Study participant characteristics
a. the name and description of the drug d. All of the above
b. the date or time the medication was stopped e. None of the above
c. the dosage of the drug
d. the prescribed and actual dosing schedule D 15. Which of the following are important components involved in the provision of drug information?
e. the date and time the medication was started a. determining the primary question
b. developing an appropriate search strategy
C 4. Which of the ff. is a disadvantage of reviewing all available information about a patient before interviewing the c. assessing available information
patient? d. all of the above
a. the pharmacists feels more comfortable e. none of the above
b. the pharmacist is prepared to address specific issues
c. the pharmacist may be too focused and overlook important issues A 16. A consumer asks whether her new prescription drug is the cause of her insomia. What type of the drug
d. the pharmacist is completely unbiased about all aspects of the history information question is this?
e. this can be a very intimidating process a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic use
b. Dosing e. poisoning and toxicology
D 5. During the interview, the pharmacist observes that the patient's clothing has a predominance of Velcro-type c. Drug administration
fastenings. This may indicate which of the following?
a. Photosensitivity d. loss of manual dexterity D 17. A colleague asks if ipratropium bromide (A) is FDA approved for the treatment of asthma. What type of drug
b. recent weight loss e. gout information question is this?
c. recent weight gain a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic
b. Dosing e. poisoning & toxicology
D 6. Skills required for patient-centered pharmacy practice include which of the c. Drug administration
Following:
a. therapeutic planning and monitoring skills C 18. Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual
b. physical assessment skills dosage regimens?
c. communication skills a. the pharmaceutical company
d. all of the above b. a colleague
e. none of the above c. a standard pharmacy textbook
d. an on-line search of the published literature
E 7. Demographic patient information includes all of the ff. except: e. all of the above
a. age d. ethnic origin
b. height e. dietary restrictions D 19. Which of the following types questions should be avoided while interviewing the patient?
c. weight a. Leading questions d. all of the above
b. multiple questions e. none of the above
D 8. What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy? c. excessive yes/no questions
a. the date or time the reaction occurred
b. the interventions performed to manage the reaction D 20. Which of the following is an noninvasive test or procedure?
c. whether the patient has received similar medications a. venipuncture d. ultrasonography
d. all of the above b. angiography c. radionuclide studies
c. paracentesis
B 9. A patient had an appendectomy 40 years ago. This information belongs in which section of the patient case?
a. HPI d. FH C 21. Which one of the following is a laboratory test or fungal skin infections?
b. PMH e. ROS a. rapid plasma regain test
c. SH b. venereal disease research laboratory test
c. potassium hydroxide preparation
B 10. Vital signs include all of the following except: d. white blood cell count with differential
a. blood pressure d. respiratory rate e. cold agglutinin titer
b. cardiac output c. heart rate
c. temperature E 22. The macroscopic evaluation of sputum includes all of the ff. except:
a. color d. odor
A 11. Cerebellar function is assessed using this test: b. viscosity e. gram's
a. Romberg's test d. Weber's test c. volume
b. Doll's test e. Srellen's chart
c. Rinnes test C 23. Which of the following is not a subjective parameter?

E 12. Which of the following are needed to monitor patient response to drug therapy? a. Anxiety d. Insomnia
a. knowledge of pharmacotherapeutics b. Indigestion e. Pain

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c. Respiratory rate C 35. The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure
a. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators
A 24. Which one of the following is not an objective parameter? b. bed rest e. diuretics
a. vertigo d. hemoglobin c. inotropic agents
b. urine output e. ejection fraction
c. bilirubin D 36. The responses of which of the following drug should be monitored when it is use simultaneously with
propranolol?
E. 25. Which of the following is not a step in the selection of specific therapeutic regimens? a. digoxin c. chlorothiazide
a. Creation is a list of therapeutic options for each problem b. quinidine d. insulin
b. Selection of an appropriate therapeutic regimen for each problem
c. Identification of alternative regimens D 37. Warfarin anticoagulation is used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Each the following medications increases the
d. Creation of a monitoring plan and monitoring of the patient anticoagulant effect of warfarin, except:
e. Identification of objective and subjective patient parameters a. cimetedine d. vitamin K
b. quinidine e. none of the above
B 26. Which of the following is an objective parameter? c. phenylbutazone
a. blurred vision d. tinnitus
b. temperature e. fatigue A 38. Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital
c. headache a. nosocomial d. superinfection
b. superficial infection e. hirsutism
A 27. Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical behavior based? c. secondary infection
a. do good and avoid evil
b. Do what is best for society as a whole E 39. The action of which of the following drugs will most likely to be impaired by concurrent administration of
c. Obey all national laws tetracycline?
d. Maintain patient confidentiality a. chloramphenicol d. erythromycin
e. Obey all local laws b. sulfanomide e. penicillin
c. lincomycin
C 28. All of the following techniques are useful in communicating with the
Hearing-impaired elderly patient, except: C 40. A child shows evidence of poor growth, night blindness, dryness of the conjunctive kerationization of the cornea
a. sitting at eye level in front of the patient and a dry scaly skin. Which preparation is indicated for therapy?
b. removing audible and visual distraction a. calciferol d. thiamine
c. raising the voice as high as necessary to be heard b. dried yeast e. pantothenic acid
d. repeating phrases to test comprehension c. vitamin A
e. writing down the question
D 41. Acetaminophen has limited value in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis because
C 29. For which kind of patient is the availability of monitoring date limited? a. it frequently produces gastric irritation and bleeding
a. a hospitalized, critically ill patient b. it is not potent enough as an analgesic
b. a patient just started on insulin therapy c. chronic usage may lead to renal damage
c. a patient with stable, well-controlled mild hypertension d. it lacks anti-inflammatory properties
d. a patient undergoing renal dialysis e. it may cause methemoglobinemia
e. a postsurgical trauma patient
B 42. Drugs to be avoided by a Parkinson patient include all of the following except:
D 30. Aspirin is the drug of choice used in: a. reserpine d. chlorpromazine
a. Transient ischemic attack b. trihexyphenidyl e. pyridoxine
b. Prevention of embolic events following coronary artery bypass surgery c. physostigmine
c. Dialysis access grafts
d. all of the above A 43. Cretinism is the result of a metabolic disturbance related to
e. none of the above a. hypothyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism e. hyperfuncation of anterior pituitary
A 31. A patient with a dry hacking cough asks the pharmacist to recommend a cough medication. The pharmacist, who c. hypoparathyroidism
does not know the patient, recommends a popular nonprescription cough suppressant without checking the
patient's medication profile. What error did the pharmacist commit? B 44. Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children:
a. The pharmacist should have considered other patient problems a. one month in utero and three years
b. The pharmacist should have recommended an expectorant b. six month in utero and eight years
c. The pharmacist should have advised the patient to see a physician c. birth and ten years
d. The pharmacist should have recommended a decongestant d. one and half years
e. The pharmacist should have obtained a prescription for a cough suppressant from the patient's doctor
B 45. Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?
C 32. Which of the following metallic ions is especially required in blood clotting process? a. crowded teeth d. micrognathia
a. Ba c. Ca e. K b. large tongue e. echma
b. Na d. Mg c. hypoglycemia

B 33. An endoscopy may provide a helpful clue for the diagnosis of which of the following? E 46. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increase pulse rate, fine skin and hair,
a. endocarditis d. diabetes mellitus and loss body weight. He is probably suffering from
b. peptil ulcer disease e. constipation a. diabetes d. hypothyroidism
c. aplastic enema b. hyperpituitarism e. hyperthyroidism
c. hyperparathyroidism
D 34. Most life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the:
a. central nervous system d. cardiovascular and respiratory system A 47. Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase are useful for patients with:
b. liver & kidney system e. gastrointestinal tract a. myocardial infarction d. angina pectoris
c. bronchial smooth muscle b. hypertension e. arrhythmia
c. congestive heart fail

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D 61. What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy?

B 48. The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication a. the date or time the reaction occurred
a. phenylephrine d. methyldopa b. the intervention performed to manage the reactions
b. phenytoin e. clonidine c. name and description of causative agent
c. diuretics d. all of the above

C 49. Deficiency of Vitamin B12 in the body leads to: A 62. Conversation regarding specific patient information and general health care issues, discussions, and debates
a. hemolytic anemia, anoxeria, loss weight must not take place in the following areas, except:
b. mlicromatic anemia, los appetite a. counseling area c. hallways
c. megaloblastic anemia,subacute combined degeneration and epithelial tissue abnormality b. public areas d. elevators
d. hyperthropy of skin, burning sensation of palm and sole
B 63. The following provide health care services and perform tasks under the direction of the physician, except:
A 50. The most commonly used diuretic incombination with antyhypertensives a. cytotechnologist c. medical technologist
a. hydrochlorothiazide c. ethacrynic acid b. clinical pharmacist d. occupational therapist
b. furosemide d. am iloride
C 64. Patient-focused practice area
A 51. A 48 year old man with a history of major depressive disorder has had a recurrence. His doctor treated him with a a. outpatient clinic c. geriatrics and long term care
standard dose of nortriptyline for 4 weeks without response. His blood level of nortriptyline is reported to be 30 b. community pharmacies d. patient's home
mg/mL. His doctor may do which of the following?
a. continue the same treatment, as the clinical response is often delayed A 65. As a health care team, the pharmacist provide drug information to physicians and other health professionals
b. switch to lithium aimed at
c. decrease the dose of nortriptyline a. selecting the most appropriate therapeutic agents for drug therapy
d. increase the dose of nortriptyline b. providing needed drugs and supplies
c. providing drug information to the physician
C 52. Second line anti-tuberculosis drugs are the following, except: d. provide in-service education informally on rounds
a. ethionamide, cycloserine, pas c. pza,streptomycin,ethambutol
b. kanamycin, viomycin,capreomycin d. none of the above B 66. Hospital pharmacists maintain medication profiles for in-patients and out-patients and use these to
a. Define the therapeutic goals and endpoints of drug therapy
C 53. Ranitide (Zantac) is effective in treating duodenal ulcer because it; b. Check for drug sensitiveness and interactions
a. strengthens the productive coating in the intestinal wall c. Reflect the methods for drug administration
b. is an agonist at H2 receptor and therefore reduce pepsin d. all of the above
c. blocks histamine stimulation of gastric acid secretion by H2 blocker
d. none of the above D 67. Chronic diseases diagnosed and stabilized by physician and maintenance care is provided by the pharmacist:
a. Hypertension and Congestive Heart Failure
A 54. Inflammation in the inner-membraneous lining of the heart usually caused by bacteria and fungi b. Diabetes and Angina
a. infective endocarditis c. congestive heart failure c. Mental health disorders and psoriasis
b. angina pectoris d. none of the above d. All of the above

B 55. Methotrexate is used as an antineoplastic agent and also used for the treatment of B 68. Non-compliance to therapeutic regimens may result in the ff. except:
a. hyperuremia c. goiter a. additional diagnostic evaluation c. hospitalization
b. arthritis d. none of the above b. prevention of disease/symptoms d. unnecessary multiple regimens

C 56. The following are alkanizing potassium salts, Except: A 69. Are unwanted pharmacological effects associated with medication
a. potassium citrate c. potassium chloride a. adverse drug reaction c. toxidrome
b. potassium acetate d. potassium gluconate b. side effects d. all of the above

D 57. Which analgesic is useful for patients with myocardial infarction? A 70. Pale red blood cells resulting from decreased hemoglobin content occurs in following conditions, except:
a. mefenamic acid d. aspirin a. vitamin B12 deficiency c. Microcytic anemia
b. acetaminophen e. meperidine b. Thalassemia d. iron deficiency anemia
c. morphine
C 71. Tetracycline is contraindicated for children because:
B 58. Mode of transmission of gastrointestinal infection a. it causes discoloration of teeth c. both of the above
a. dust b. severe gastric disturbance d. none of the above
b. consumption of contaminated food and water
c. aerosolize droplets A 72. The purpose of patient-focused services is to improve patient's quality of life. The outcome include the following,
d. mosquito bite except:
a. provide drug information c. prevention of disease
D 59. Throbbing headache is characteristically produced by which of the following drugs? b. cure of the disease d. elimination or reduction of symptoms
a. procainamide d. glyceryl trinitrate
b. propranolol e. nifedipine A 73. Requirements in order to properly implement the philosophy of pharmaceutical care, except:
c. verapamil a. basic knowledge of laboratory test and results
b. a good understanding of disease process
D 60. Active listening includes the following tasks: c. provision of drug information
d. therapeutic planning skills

B 74. Interpret the drug orders from the chart:

a. focusing on what the other person says a. nurse c. phycisian
b. assessing the way the other communicates b. pharmacist d. all of the above
c. conveying an open, relaxed and unhurried attitude
d. all of the above C 75. Associated with intense marrow erythropoitic acticity
a. Basophilic stippling c. Nucleated RBCs

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b. Heinz bodies d. Schistocytes

D 92. Refers to the likehood that the study results can be useful for clinical decision making:
C 76. Its increase is strongly correlated with coronary artery disease a. reasoning c. evaluative
a. Tryglicerides c. Low density lipoprotein b. validity d. applicability
b. High density lipoprotein d. Lipids
B 93. This occurs whenever the combined effect of two drugs with different sites of activity is greater than the algebraic
A 77. Proteinuria occurs with many conditions such as: sum of their independent effects:
a. renal disease and bladder infection c. diabetes mellitus a. summation c. potentiation
b. multiple myeloma d. diabetes insipidus b. synergism d. heterergic

A 78. Glucosuria usually indicates the presence of: B 94. Primary sources of drug information, except:
a. Diabetes mellitus c. Multiple myeloma a. Medical Journals c. Pharmacy and Pharmacology Journals
b. Diabetes myeloma d. Acute hepatitis b. The Medical Letter d. none of the above

C 79. Alkaline phosphatase below normal value indicates D 95. MAO enzymes inactivates:
a. bone fracture a. adrenaline c. serotonin
b. liver inflammation b. noradrenaline d. all of the above
c. hypothyroidism and growth retardation
d. bile duct obstruction B 96. Kernicterus is a drug induced disorder that may occur in the neonate following therapy with which of the following
drugs?
C 80. Situation wherein there is an increase in total bilirubin; direct bilirubin is usually normal or slightly elevated and a. isoniazid c. phenytoin
urine color is normal and no bilirubin is found in the urine; b. sulfisoxazole d. gentamicin
a. Biliary stone c. Hemolysis
b. Cirrhosis d. Iron deficiency anemias A 97. Drugs capable of inducing hemolysis, except:
a. arsenicals c. chlorampenicol
C 81. When albumin level is above normal, it indicates: b. aspirin d. peobenecid
a. Neoplastic disease c. Dehydration and shock
b. Hepatic insufficiency d. Malnutrition A 98. Which of the following is the last step in the monitoring prcess:
a. assess the response to therapy c. set therapeutic goals
C 82. It provides basic information regarding renal function, urinary tract disease and the presence of certain systemic b. monitor the response to therapy d. integrate the monitoring plan
diseases:
a. Creatinine clearance c. Urinalysis D 99. Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual
b. Blood urea nitrogen d. Renal function tests dosage regimens?
a. a colleague
A 83. Specific gravity of urine is elevated in the following conditions, except: b. drug manufacturer
a. diabetes insipidus c. nephrosis c. an on-line search of the published literature
b. diabetes mellitus d. all of the above d. a standard pharmacy textbook

D 84. Kenoturia usually indicates uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, but it may also occur with: D 100. Secondary and tertiary literature consist of the following, except:
a. Systemic bleeding disorder a. compiled databases
b. Gout b. review articles published in journals
c. Trauma and tumor c. textbooks
d. Starvation and zero low carbohydrate diets d. none of the above

D 85. Above normal level of uric acid indicates C 101. This is a metabolic disease caused by insufficiency on the levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase:
a. Urinary tract infection c. Acute hepatitis a. ketoacidocis c. phenylketonuria
b. Urethral contamination d. Gout b. idiosyncrasy d. none of the above

D 86. Below normal level of uric acid indicates B 102. It is an altered response that is caused in a cell by the drug:
a. Urethral contamination c. Gout a. drug action c. drug safety
b. Urinary tract infection d. Cystitis b. drug effect d. drug interaction

D 87. It plays a dominant role in immunologic activity and appear to produce antibodies C 103. It refers to the in-vivo phenomenon that occurs whenever an interactant chemical modifies the expected
a. Neutrophils c. Monocytes therapeutics results of a drug.
b. Basophils d. Lymphocytes a. Adverse drug reactions c. Drug interaction
b. Anaphylaxis d. Idiosyncrasy
D 88. Derived from the bone marrow, it provides humoral immunity and produce antibodies
a. Leucocytes c. T lymphocytes B 104. It is a genetically determined abnormal response to ordinary doses of a drug
b. Monocytes d. B lymphocytes a. Anaphylaxis c. Drug allergy
b. Idiosyncrasy d. none of the above
C 89. Consists of the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, WBC count, mean cell volume, mean cell
hemoglobin and mean cell hemoglobin count D 105. Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating a literature review?
a. Red blood cell inclusions c. Complete blood count
b. Blood smear d. Burr cells a. publication date
A 90. When Blood Urea Nitrogen is above the normal values, it indicates the following conditions, except: b. author expertise
a. Liver disease c. Gastrointestinal bleeding c. way the author selected the primary research article
b. Renal disease d. Dehydration d. all of the choices

B 91. This refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of the dose required to produce the effect C 106. Defined as an organized, directed post –graduate training program in a define area of pharmacy practice:
a. drug potency c. drug threshold a. training c. residency
b. drug efficacy d. drug response b. practicum d. none of these

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A 107. Tour of a specific area with visits to the patient’s bedside together with the various members of the health care B 122. The ability to shift attention in demand, adapting to the total flow of communication
team: a. clarification c. sequencing
a. rounds c. KARDEX b. flexibility d. none of the above
b. training d. patient
B 123. The following are true for health care team, except:
B 108. A term used to denote hypersensitivity to specific substance: a. health teams include nurses, physicians, pharmacists, etc.
a. antigen c. antibody b. health care teams are health personnel from a single or common
b. allergy d. ADR discipline or specialization
c. members of a health care teams deal with various aspects of the
E 109. A pathogen is: care and management of a patient
a. a bacillus d. a septic substance
b. a virus e. any disease producing organism C 124. Area within the pharmacy curriculum which deals with patient care with emphasis on drug therapy:
c. a carcinogen a. dispensing pharmacy d. both a and c
b. radiopharmacy e. all of the above
C 110. Outpatient health care settings include the following except: c. clinical pharmacy
a. clinics c. rehabilitation centers
b. day surgery units d. emergency rooms C 125. Reaction which arise from the known pharmacological action of the drug and may be due to excessive dose of a
drug
A 111. The best way to deal with physically challenged patients is to do the ff: a. precaution d. type B ADR
a. treat them like any other patients c. stare at them b. contraindication e. drug interactions
b. avoid making eye contact d. ignore them c. type A ADR

B 112. The best way to deal with antagonistic patient is to do which of the following: B 126. This identifying information includes: color, birthplace, nationality, religion, and social status:
a. avoid them a. informant d. occupation
b. limit the length of each interaction b. racial stock e. none of the above
c. talk with the legal guardians c. admission
d. speak slowly and distinctively
C 127. Best type or mode or questioning during the middle phase of interview:
D 113. A patient’s states that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years. What is the patient’s pack year a. questions answerable with yes or no
smoking history? b. open question
a. 2 packs c. 30 packs years c. open – ended question
b. 15 packs years d. 60 packs years d. direct question
e. any type
A 114. Which of the following questioning techniques is least likely to result in accurate assessment of patient
compliance? B 128. A basic component of clinical pharmacy practice where in the pharmacist gives advice on therapeutic matters to
a. direct questioning c. sympathetic confrontation the patient or other members of the health field.
b. gentle probing d. nonjudgemental questioning a. communication c. consulting
b. counseling d. all
B 115. Which of the following is a disadvantage of documenting a medication history using the freestyle format?
a. the format is inflexible E 129. Before entering the patient’s room, the pharmacist should NOT:
b. scanning the document for specific details is difficult a. note the patient’s social and occupational history
c. space may not be available for all patient information b. know the physical condition of the patient
d. all of the above c. make a mental preparation
d. learn the ID of the patient
B 116. Is the act of transmitting facts, feelings and meanings by words, gestures or other actions: e. none
a. counseling c. consulting
b. communication d. all of these A 130. The following statements are correct about the pharmacist conducting and interview, except:
a. he/she should be the only one asking questions
B 117. Can result in cancer or “birth defects” in cells of an offspring. b. he/she should avoid repetition during interviews
a. germ cell mutation c. replication c. he/she must also listen to the patient’s statements
b. somatic cell mutation d. mitosis d. none of the above

B 118. A type of drug reaction which requires immediate treatment and is often fatal: A 131. Tetracycline – Iron preparation produces complexation reaction when give concurrently, what is the best
a. drug allergy c. tachyphylaxis management for this combination?
b. anaphylaxis d. none of the above a. do not give them concurrently
b. replace iron with other vitamin supplement
C 119. It is a legal document that includes section for hospital specific admission, initial history, physical exam, daily c. drink plenty of water
progress notes, etc. d. replace tetracycline with other antibiotic
a. medical record c. both a and b
b. patient chart d. none of the choices B 132. Care centers with diagnostic and treatment facilities that may or may not be attached to or associated with an
acute care hospital:
B 120. Responsible for the physical and psychosocial needs of patients and carry out physician directed orders a. day care centers c. health centers
regarding patient care: b. ambulatory care centers d. medical centers
a. resident physicians c. clinical pharmacists
b. nurses d. dieticians C 133. Physical and emotional stress can trigger the production of:
a. asthma
A 121. Diabetes mellitus should be considered in which of the following conditions, except: b. angina pectoris, congestive heart failure
a. shortness of breath d. frequent urination c. both of the above
b. blurred vision e. unexplained weight loss d. none of the above
c. monilial vaginitis

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A 134. A type of radiologic procedure wherein a substance is instilled into the rectum for the purpose of examining the
large intestines and the rectum: A 147. Type of endocarditis which involves a more virulent organism and resists the body’s natural defense mechanism
a. Barium enema d. all of the above a. acute endocarditis c. right sided endocarditis
b. barium meal e. none of the choices b. subacute endocarditis d. none of the above
c. barium chloride test
B 148. Introduction of a virus or disease producing microorganism into the body to give protection against certain
E 135. The triad of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia is associated with which one of the following? disease/s:
a. rheumatoid arthritis c. angina pectoris a. injection c. inspissation
b. mania e. parkinsonism b. inoculation d. none of the above
c. hyperthyroidism
A 149. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom occurring in CHF?
B 136. Primary means to achieve the goal of clinical interview a. Bradycardia d. decrease exercise capacity
a. literary skills c. culinary skills b. Shortness of breath e. edema
b. effective communication d. counseling c. Hepatomegaly

C 137. Generally, the presence of the impaired renal function or overt renal failure in a patient reduce his requirements D 150. Major dimensions of clinical interview:
for: a. interpersonal experience c. communication
a. all drugs b. scientific inquiry d. both a and b
b. drugs that are reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
c. drugs that are directly excreted or which are actively metabolized A 151. Foundation of clinical pharmacy, except:
by the liver and are excreted by the kidney a. compounding d. patient counseling
d. b and c b. drug information e. patient education
c. drug monitoring
D 138. A test for kidney function is:
a. CBC d. BUN E 152. The following are fundamental functions of the hospital, except:
b. CHF e. EKG a. taking care of the sick and the injured
c. KFT b. education of medical and allied health profession and the patients
c. research for the advancement of medical knowledge against disease
C 139. Type of drug distribution system wherein the prescription is compounded and dispensed in the usual manner as d. all of the choices
in the purchase of medicines from a local drug store e. none of the choices
a. free floor stock
b. charge floor stock B 153. Most highly trained expert on drugs and has the best opportunity to keep up to date on developments in this field:
c. individual prescription medication a. physician c. nurse
d. unit dose dispensing b. pharmacist d. medical technologist
e. coordinated
D 154. Objectives of clinical pharmacy include the ff. except:
A 140. The following are purposes of the admission history except: a. to study the patient’s disease and be able to identify problems
a. to record the address of the patient unsettled account b. to describe the desired drug therapy including therapeutic alternatives
b. to patient’s chief complaint c. to be able to select the most appropriate treatment
c. to record the description of his/her present illness d. none of the above
d. all of the above
A 155. A patient who has recently suffered a myocardial infarction will most likely have elevated serum levels of:
D 141. The ff. are the qualities of the introduction in the interview process, except: a. createnine phosphokinase d. alkaline phosphatase
a. make positive identification of the patient b. amylase e. cholinesterase
b. some respect to the patient c. acid phosphatase
c. demonstrate confidence and strength of the interview
d. none of the above A 156. Inflammation of the tongue
a. glossitis c. tongusitis
D 142. The recognition of the disease by its signs and symptoms b. tonsilitis d. both a & c
a. prognosis c. diagnosis
b. diaphoresis d. assessment C 157. The admission sheet should contain the following except:
a. the unit record number c. laboratory test result
B 143. Patients about to undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) are usually given succinycholine b. the patient’s name d. admission diagnosis
a. reduce the severity of the central nervous system (CNS) are usually given succinylcholine
b. modify muscular constractions to prevent injury to the patient C 158. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which one of the following thyroid hormone
c. lengthen the duration of the convulsion preparations?
d. prevent hype a. dextrothyroxine d. methimazole
b. propylthiouracil e. chlorpropamide
C 144. In this serve form of erythema multiforme, there is involvement of the oronasal anogenic mucosa. c. thyroxine
a. exfoliative dermatitis c. Steven Jhonson’s syndrome
b. photosensitive eruptions d. all of these D 159. The conclusion of an interview should contain the ff. except:
a. request for additional information from patient
D 145. Having a professional obligation to disseminate drug information appropriately b. request for patients opinion
a. teacher c. sales clerk c. opportunity for the patient to make corrections if necessary regarding the interview
b. medical practitioner d. pharmacist d. none of the above

B 146. Type of patient who requires the service of the hospital during the critical time of his illness or injury, a time he C 160. The hematocrit measures the :
may not be able to make his needs known: a. total number of blood cells per volume of blood
a. home care patient d. self-care patient b. number of red blood cell per volume of blood
b. intensive care unit e. none of the choices c. percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood
c. chronic care patient d. weight of hemoglobin per volume of blood

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e. weight of red blood cells per volume of blood c. surgery

C 161. Patient who is able to walk: C 175. Factors that influence the development of clinical pharmacy:
a. in-patient d. hospitalized patient a. unresponsiveness of health care delivery systems to drug therapy problems
b. ICU patient e. none of the above b. overeducated and under utilized pharmacist
c. ambulatory patient c. both
d. neither
D 162. A common result of “slow metabolic acetylation” of isoniazid is
a. enhanced sensitivity to theraphy and toxicity A 176. Pharmacists provide pharmaceutical care by
b. peripheral neuropathy that is resistance to pyridoxine therapy a. communicating with patients and other health care providers
c. slow metabolism and enhance therapeutic response b. treating patients
d. slow acetylation but normal therapeutic response c. both
d. neither
B 163. Diabetes mellitus affects:
a. protein metabolism d. lipid metabolism B 177. The drug of choice for congestive heart failure is:
b. carbohydrate metabolism e. all of the above a. tetracycline c. quinidine
c. purine metabolism b. digitalis glycosides d. done

B 164. The inability to control elimination of urine and the feces: A 178. Should not be added to intravenous solutions of amphotericin B to prevent salting out of the drug:
a. defecation d. pyresis a. electrolytes c. antibiotics
b. incontinence e. diuresis b. vitamins
c. emesis
A 179. A decrease in the hemoglobin content of the RBC’s
A 165. In monitoring drug theraphy, it must be ensured that the patient receives drugs that are: a. hypochromia c. macronomia
a. effective, safe c. all of the above b. normochromia d. target cells
b. least effective d. none of the above
A 180. A 32-year-old man presents with repetitive generalized motor convulsions that continue for 35 minutes until 10
C 166. A common disease affecting teenagers primarily, which is precipitated by occlusion of the dust-draining mg of diazepam are administered intravenously. The next course of action should be to administer:
sebaceous glands a. phenytoin intravenously d. thiopental intravelously
a. psoriasis c. acne vulgaris b. carbamazepine orally e. propranolol intravenously
b. urticaria d. photoallergic reaction c. ethosuximide orally

C 167. The ff. are clinical functions of pharmacist except: B 181. Non-selective beta-blockers are the following, except:
a. participate in in-service and patient education program a. Pindolol c. Nadolol
b. assessing for drug interaction and adverse reactions b. Metoprolol d. none of the above
c. taking quarterly physical inventory
d. preparation of medication D 182. Indicative of rapid gastrointestinal transit and malabsorption syndromes
a. black stools c. hard stools
E 168. Which is not a sign and symptom of DM? b. gray stools d. water stools
a. delayed wound healing d. excessive hunger and thrist
b. blurred vision e. tachypnea B 183. These are drugs in chronic bronchitis, except:
c. dryness of skin a. sympathomimetic agents c. anticholinergic
b. beta-adrenergic blocking agent d. none
C 169. Htperalimentation is indicated for
a. Renal and Hepatic failure c. both of the above A 184. Focuses on preventing complications of disease conditions
b. Crohns disease d. none of the above a. secondary care c. tertiary care
b. primary care d. quaternary care
B 170. The protrusion of a loop or knuckle of an organ or tissue through an
Abnormal opening: A 185. Which of the following hormones of the anterior pituitary act on other endocrine glands
a. fracture c. puncture 1. growth hormone
b. hernia d. none of the above 2. antidiuretic hormone
3. adrenocorticotropic hormone
B 171. Is the totality of services offered by all health disciplines: 4. thyroid-stimulating hormone
a. social security system c. medicare a. 3 and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4
b. health care system d. all of these b. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A 172. Abnormal reactivity of the skin to sunlight, C 186. The following statements are correct, except:
a. photosensitivity c. multiforme eruptions a. the interviewer should become familiar with what questions to ask
b. photosynthesis d. none of the these b. the interviewer should know the patient’s background
c. the interviewer should be persistent and should insist in getting the answer from the patient
B 173. The ff. are the clinical functions of the pharmacist except: d. the physical state of the patient should be considered before the start of interview
a. participation in the education of health care practitioners
b. diagnosis B 187. A patient wearing shoes with toes and other areas cut out may suggest a history of what disease:
c. preparation of medical history for patients medical record a. photosensitivity c. recent weight loss
d. participation in drug use review and other quality assurance program b. gout d. none of the above
e. patient education and counseling
C 188. Which drug is said to possess a high first pass liver metabolism?
B 174. Gross and microscopic examination of tissues or cells removed from a living patient, for the purpose of a. Aspirin d. Digoxin
determining the diagnosis or prognosis of disease, or the confirmation of normal conditions: b. Amikacin e. Penicillin
a. phlebotomy d. x-ray c. Nitroglycerin
b. biopsy e. none of the above

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A 189. The clinical pharmacist function focuses on C 205. A condition that may happen if beta blockers are suddenly stopped:
a. the patient c. educational and training a. bronchodilation c. reflex tachycardia
b. cost effective therapy d. drug product b. vasodilation d. none

A 190. Counsels clients and support persons about social problems such as finances, marital difficulties and adoption of C 206. Which of the following has no therapeutic use for the prophylaxis of classis migraine headache?
children a. Methysergide c. Lithium
a. social worker c. physician b. tolerance d. all of the above
b. chaplains d. physchologist
A 207. “A pattern of effects associated with drug allergy” best describes the term:
B 191. This is a disorder marked by permanent alveolar enlargement distal to the terminal bronchioles and there is a. hypersensitivity c. hyporeactivity
inflammation and excessive mucuous secretion which cause air trapping in the alveoli: b. tolerance
a. chronic bronchitis c. pulmonary
b. emphysema d. none C 208. This drug class is used for mild symptoms, predominantly tremors in parkinson’s disease:
a. dopamine agonist c. anticholinergics
A 192. The alternative drug for meclizine HCL; b. dopamine precursor d. none
a. scopolamine c. eserine
b. hyoscyamine d. ergotamine C 209. All of the following are adverse reactions to sulfonamides except:
a. skin eruption c. “gray baby” syndrome
D 193. Which psychotropic drug has a long duration of action in the geriatric patient because of lipid storage b. kernicterus
a. Digoxin d. Chlorpromazine
b. Cipsplatin e. Aspirin B 210. Which of the following statement is true?
c. Amikacin a. the probability of a drug interaction decrease with the number of drugs received by a patient
b. the probability of a drug interaction increase with the number of drugs received by a patient
B 194. A young male patient who is receiving medication for hypertension complains of mental depression, tremors and c. both
rigidity of limbs, and impairment of sexual function. This patient is most likely being treated with: d. none of these
a. guanethidine c. propranolol
b. reserpine C 211. In what order should the physical examination proceed?
a. head, vital signs, ears, eyes, skin
B 195. Complete blood count consist of the following except: b. eyes, head, ears, skin, vital signs
a. hematocrit c. WBC count c. vital signs, skin, head, eyes, ears
b. platelet count d. hemoglobin d. ears, eyes, head, skin, vital signs

A 196. A nondrug theraphy for angine pectoris is: B 212. This drug is to be used with caution for diabetics with hypertension because of its side effect which inhibit the
a. avoiding strenuous exercise c. both liver to convert glycogen to glucose:
b. taking nitrates d. none a. alpha-adrenergic blockers c. both
b. noncardioselective beta blockers d. none
B 197. This anti-ulcer drug competitively inhibit the action of histamine, reducing the volume and hydrogen ion
concentration of gastric acid secretions C 213. The following are symptoms of diabetes mellitus except:
a. antacid c. anticholinergic a. polyphagia c. polyneuritis
b. H2-receptor antagonist d. none b. polyuria d. none

A 198. Tradionally called nursing homes C 214. What happen to the erythrocytes when the spleen of a person is removed?
a. long term care facilities c. hospices service a. the number of circulating old erythrocytes increase
b. rehabilitation centers d. day care centers b. the number of circulating abnormal erythrocytes increase
c. the number of circulating old and abnormal erythrocytes increase
C 199. A chart based on the identified problem list, present or potential, with patient: d. the number of circulating old and abnormal erythrocytes decrease
a. patient-oriented chart c. problem-oriented medical chart
b. source-oriented system chart d. computer assisted chart B 215. This drug is contraindicated in patient with gastric ulcers because they prolong gastric emptying:
a. antacid c. sulcralfate
D 200. Effective way of taking the patients medical history b. anticholinergic d. none
a. direct questioning c. either
b. indirect questioning d. both B 216. Ives is a first year medical student. One day, she was opening the neck of the cadver. She picked up a bottle
which she taught was her water canteen and accidentally drank the liquid. The liquid is usually used to prevent
B 201. Which hormone aids in the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver: the polymerization of formalin. She kept the incident to herself (she was worried that her classmates who were
elitists might make fun her). Two years later, she lost her eyesight. What was the poison?
a. insulin c. estrogen a. ethylene glycol d. thinner
b. glucagons d. parathormone b. methanol e. acetone
c. chloroform
D 202. The pharmacist’s role in pharmaceutical care involves identifying, resolving and preventing drug related
problems that come from E 217. These are possible laboratory evaluation for hypertension, except:
a. under treatment c. inappropriate treatment a. electrocardiogram d. chest x-ray
b. over treatment d. all of the above b. BUN level e. microscopic enamination
c. cholesterol level
B 203. The drug of choice for gout, since this drug decreases the formation of uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase:
a. colchicines c. quinine D 218. Which agent is flammable when electrical switches are used in its presence?
b. allopurinol d. all of the above a. Aspirin d. Ether
b. Digoxin e. Penicillin
C 204. It means a slowness in performing common voluntary movements like standing or walking: c. Amikacin
a. akinesia c. bradykinesia
b. gait d. none A 219. The mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers is:
a. decrease cardiac contractility c. increase the need of oxygen

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b. excretion of acetaldehyde d. none B 233. A disease associated with excessive mucus production by the tracheobronchial tree which results in airway
obstruction:
A 220. Drinking beer after taking disulfiram causes flushing, nausea, and tachycardia. This occurs because disulfiram a. asthma c. emphysema
inhibits the: b. chronic bronchitis
a. metabolism of acetaldehyde c. accumulation of acetaldehyde
b. excretion of acetaldehyde B 234. Which of the following group of drugs does aggravate congestive heart failure?
a. estrogen c. Beta-blocking agents
D 221. All of the following statements concerning upper respiratory infections are true, except: b. Cardiac glycosides d. Corticosteroids
a. Most of these are caused by viruses
b. Symptoms may involved the sinuses, throat, larynx and airways C 235. The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure:
c. Treatment is primarily symptomatic a. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators
d. Prevention usually is achieved by timely immunization b. bed rest e. diuretics
c. inotropic agents
B 222. A previously healthy 68-year old woman develops auditory hallucinations. She cannot provide many details but
believes her mother is speaking to her. She has difficulty cooperating during the interview and physical E 236. Patients on corticosteroids therapy should be given the ff. precautions, except:
examination which is unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is: a. appetite stimulation d. barbiturates
a. complex partial seizures d. hyperthyroidism b. antianginals e. antineoplastic agents
b. Alzheimer’s disease e. Peduncular hallucinations c. local anesthetics
c. Adverse medication effect
B 237. Levodopa should not be taken with the following drugs, except:
A 223. Iron, a necessary dietary constituent, functions primarily: a. pyridoxine c. MAOI
a. in oxidation-reduction system c. growth and repair of tissues b. carbidopa d. antipsychotics
b. to maintain water and electrolysis d. to stimulate bone formation balance
E 238. Which is not a clinical manifestation of gastroenteritis?
C 224. An endocrine disease characterized by increased susceptibility to a. fever d. diarrhea
Infection, increased fatigability, recessive inheritance and polyuria is: b. vomiting e. night sweats
a. Acromegaly d. Cushing’s disease c. abdominal pain
b. Grave’s disease e. Hashimoto’s disease C 239. In Schizoprenic syndrome, there is primarily:
c. Diabetes Mellitus a. increased cholinergic activity c. increased dopaminergic activity
b. decreased cholinergic activity d. decreased dopaminergic activity
E 225. Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following except:
a. toxic effects of antibiotics E 240. In terms of its major pharmacologic effect, metropolol is most similar to
b. allergic reactions included in patients a. isoproterenol d. hydrochlorothiazide
c. development of drug resistance by an infectious agent b. metaproterenol e. propranolol
d. secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora c. guanethedine
e. the cost of medication
C 241. The ganglionic blocking agents are not extensively used as antihypertensive agents because
D 226. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis Type B infection? a. a. they cannot be administered PO
a. the virus will be excreted in the feces b. of their long duration of action
b. the patient is a good candidate for blood donation c. they do not selectively block sympathetic ganglia
c. the patient will have protective immunity to all viral hepatitis d. they hypotensive effect is unpredictable and slow in onset
d. detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state e. both A and D are correct

A 227. Side effects occurring during the use of oral contraceptives include: C 242. Completed hospital records or charts are the legal property of the:
a. nausea c. increased glucose tolerance a. patient d. patient’s representative lawyer
b. weight loss d. none of the above b. doctor in-charge e. insurance carrier
c. hospital
B 228. The most serious side effect of ergonovine use would be:
a. stimulation of the uterus c. nausea and vomiting C 243. When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to:
b. dry gangrene of fingers and toes a. arresting hemorrhage
b. recognition and treatment of shock
B 229. Which drug is notorious for causing hypersensitivity reactions? c. recognition of associated head injuries
a. Penicillin d. Amikacin d. establishing and maintaining a patient airway
b. Aspirin e. Ether
c. Digoxin D 244. Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicted in patients with allergic bronchial asthma:
a. atropine d. propanolol
C 230. Control of congestive heart failure can be achieved by: b. metacholine e. phentolamine
a. reduction of cardiac workload c. d-tubocurarine
b. control of excessive salt and water retention
c. both of the above B 245. When valporic acid is prescribed for petit mal epilepsy in a patient who is already receiving Phenobarbital
d. none of the above a. the Phenobarbital should be discontinued because Phenobarbital will inactivate valporic acid
b. the dose of Phenobarbital may have to be decreased because valporic acid will increase Phenobarbital
E 231. Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans? blood levels
a. salicylates d. barbiturates c. ethosuximide should also be prescribed
b. antianginals e. antineoplastic agents d. valporic acid should be given in the morning and the Phenobarbital should be given at bedtime
e. the dose of both drugs may have to be higher than usual because each drugs may have to be higher
B 232. Which drug is used to treat gastrointestinal spasms and colic? than usual because each drug enhances the metabolism of the other
a. Warfarin d. Diazepam
b. Propantheline e. Mylanta D 246. An important potentialcomplication of corticosteroid therapy is
c. Phenytoin a. dissemination of local infection c. increased susceptibility to infection
b. masking symptoms of an infection d. all of the above

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d. swab a small amount of epinephrine 1:100 onto the gun tissue to produce local vasoconstriction
C 247. Which of the following best describes the condition known as hypoprothrombinemia? e. wait for the anticoagulant effect to subside
a. a diminished blood supply to the brain
b. blood clot formation in a peripheral blood vessel B 258. Large overdose of acetaminophen is likely to cause:
c. a reduced capability for blood to clot a. tinnitus d. renal tubular acidosis
d. a low level of iron in the blood b, hepatic necrosis e. seizures
e. a decrease in the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow c. agranulocytosis

C 248. The clinical investigation of a new drug consists of four phases. Phase I of the clinical testing involves D 259. An adult patient who has ingested 30 acetaminophen tablets (325 mg/tab) six hours ago should be treated
administering the drug with/by:
a. to animals to determine side effects of the drug a. careful observation for signs of central nervous system toxicity
b. to animals for toxicity studies b. ipecac syrup
c. by select clinicians to healthy volunteers c. activated charcoal
d. by select clinicians to patients suffering from the disease d. N-acetylcysteine
e. by general practitioners to patients suffering from the disease e. glutathione

A 249. Myxedema is what kind of state? A 260. Which of the following would be most dangerous to use in a patient already receiving high doses of gentamicin?
a. hypothyroid d. hyperparathyroid a. ethacrynic acid d. hydroDIURIL
b. hypoparathyroid e. hypopituitarism b. tetracycline e. pentobarbital sodium
c. hyperthyroid c. propantheline bromide

D 250. A reversible cholestetic hepatitis with fever and jaundice that may be specific hypersensitivity to the drug has B 261. Ticarcillin may be preferred to carbenicillin for patients with congestive heart failure and hypertension because it:
been observe as an adverse drug reaction in patients taking erythromycin a. contains less sodium than does carbenicillin
a. stearate d. estolate b. is usually given in smaller doses than is carbenicillin
b. ethylsuccinate e. gluceptate c. does not include hypokalemia
c. free base d. stimulates renal blood flow
e. has broad spectrum than does carbenicillin
C 251. Nizatidine inhibits gastric acid secretion as a result of what kind of activity?
a. anticholinergic d. antianxiety D 262. A disadvantage of using cromolyn sodium powder for asthma is:
b. antiadrenergic e. anorectic a. its brief duration of action
c. antihistaminic b. the development of rebound bronchoconstriction
c. the rapid development of tachyphylaxis
B 252. A physician has decided upon a course of tetracycline therapy for a patient with renal impairment. Which of the d. ineffective in treating acute attacks
following drugs is least likely to accumulate in the patient’s blood? e. poor GI absorption after administration of the capsule dosage form
a. demeclocycline d. oxytetracycline
b. doxycycline e. tetracycline C 263. Patients on lithium carbonate therapy should be advised:
c. minocycline a. to limit water intake
b. to stop taking the drug if they experience mild side effects
B 253. Benztropine is often given to patients taking the anti-psychotic phenothiazines because benztropine c. not to restrict their normal dietary salt intake
a. reduces the dose of phenothiazine required d. not to take the drug during manic phase of their cycle
b. is an anticholinergic drug that reduces the extrapyramidal side effects of the phenothiazine e. not to take the drug with food
c. eliminates the unpleasant GI irritation caused by the phenothiazine
d. is an antidepressant E 264. The best emergency advice that a pharmacist could give an individual who has just suffered burn is to:
e. reduces gut motility to ensure that the phenothiazine is completely absorbed a. apply butter to the burn
b. apply Vaseline to the burn
B 254. A clinically noticeable drug interaction resulting from the displacement of drug A by drug B from common plasma c. contact a physician immediately
protein binding sites is often seen when: d. immerse the burn area in warm water followed by cold water
a. drug A has a high association constant for binding the protein e. immerse the burn area in cold water
b. drug B has a high association constant forbinding the protein and is given in large doses
c. drug B has a low association constant for binding the protein and is given in large doses D 265. Which of the following should not be administered to a patient being treated for narrow-angle glaucoma?
d. drug B is more toxic than drug A a. physostigmine d. homatropine
e. drug B is rapidly absorbed b. pilocarpine e. carbachol
c. phospholine iodide
A 255. Hemolytic anemia due to erythrocyte deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase would most likely be
precipitated by: E 266. Advantage(s) of timolol maleate over pilocarpine for the reduction of elevated intraocular pressure include (s):
a. primaqune d. phenytoin a. longer duration of activity
b. ascorbic acid e. gentamicin b. little or no effect on visual acuity or accommodation
c. isoniazid c. little or no effect on pupil size
d. no systemic side effects
B 256. The anticoagulant action of heparin is monitored by the e. A, B, & C
a. whole blood count
b. activated partial thromboplastin A 267. Epinephrine is a useful drug for lowering intraocular pressure in open angle glaucoma because it:
c. prothrombin time a. increase outflow of aqueous humor and inhibits the formation aqueous humor
d. bleeding time b. causes miosis
e. antiplatelet clotting time c. causes mydriasis
d. inhibits carbonic anhydrase
E 257. Two hours after receiving his last dose of heparin a patients begins bleeding from his gums after brushing his e. dilates blood vessels in the eye
teeth. What is the most appropriate therapeutic action?
a. inject 10 mg of phytonadione intravenously C 268. A patient with a documented allergy to morphine should not receive which of the following analgesics?
b. inject 60 mg of protamine sulfate intravenously a. meperidine d. methadone
c. inject 30 mg of protamine sulfate intravenously b. pentazocine e. butorphenol

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c. codeine e. the hypotonic solution caused local hemolysis

B 269. Hypertrophy refers to: C 281. Cyclosporine is a/an

a. an abnormal increase in the number of cells in the tissue a. aminoglycoside antibiotic d. fungicide
b. an enlargement or overgrowth of an organ b. third-generation cephalosporine e. prostaglandin analog
c. excessive perspiration c. immunosuppressant
d. increased motor activity
e. excessive sensitivity of the skin B 282. Potential problem of using nalbuphine in a patient who is dependent on Codeine in the :
a. additive respiratory depression
D 270. Stenosis refers to: b. precipitation of narcotic withdrawal symptoms
a. hardening of tissue with a loss of elasticity c. increase tolerance to codeine
b. inflammation of the sternum d. impaired renal excretion of codeine
c. inflammation of the vertebrae e. excessive central nervous system stimulation
d. narrowing of stricture of a duct or canal
e. stoppage of blood flow in a part of the body C 283. Which of the following insulins would be expected to exert the longest duration of action
a. semilente d. lente
C 271. Phlevitis is most closely associated with which type of injections? b. NPH e. regular lente
a. intradermal d. subcutaneous c. Protamin zinc
b. intramuscular e. both IM and IV
c. intravenous B 284. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis and coma in the diagnosed and treated diabetic is:
a. insulin overdosage
E 272. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should be administered by slow intravenous infusion? b. failure of the patient to use insulin properly
a. minoxidil d. prazosin c. electrolyte depletion
b. clonidin e. nitroprusside d. use of the wrong type of insulin
c. hydalazine e. excessive physical activity

D 273. Which of the following phenothiazines is least likely to produce extra pyramidal side effects? E 285. An elderly insulin-ependent diabetic is about to be placed on a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the
a. chlorpromazine d. thioridazine following would be most appropriate for this type of patient?
b. perphenazine e. trifluoperazinc a. propanolol d. nadolol
c. prochlorperazinc b. pindolol e. atenolol
c. timolol
D 274. The anti-emetic effect of which of the ff. drugs is the result of increasing the rate of gastric emptying?
a. amitriptyline d. metoclopramide C 286. Which drug is used for the treatment of diarrhea and its resultant body fluid loss?
b. benztropine e. aluminum hydroxide gel a. Meclizine d. Cyclizine
c. codeine b. Diphenhydramine e. Terfenadine
c. Paragoric
B 275. A patient is admitted to the ER with marked hypotension and appears to be in shock. The drug of choice to treat
the condition is probably: D 287. The rate of exchange of drugs from one fluid compartment to another is influenced by the:
a. dobutamine HCL d. nitroglycerine a. pka of the drug c. rate of blood flow
b. dopamine HCL e. nitroprusside b. pH of the fluid compartment d. all of the above
c. epinephrine HCL
D 288. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by:
D 276. Which of the following is considered to be the drug of choice for treatingtrigeminal neuralgia: a. dialysis c. molecular filtration
a. niacin d. carbamazepine b. electrophoresis d. all of the above
b. pentazocine e. hydroxyzine
c. INH. C 289. The affinity of low molecular weight substances to macromolecular
Structure in blood and tissue influences the:
C 277. An advantage of loperamide over diphenoxylate as an anti-diarrheal is the fact that loperamide: a. physical properties of the drug c. distribution equilibrium of drugs
a. has a relatively short biologic T1/2 and is, therefore, not likely to be abused b. chemical properties of the drug d. liberation of drugs
b. has a direct effect on the CNS
c. does not appear to have opiate-ike effects B 290. Compound used for the determination of secretory functions of the liver
d. is not a control substance a. phenolphthalein c. insulin
e. can be given parenterally b. bromosuphthalein d. all of the above

D 278. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout does not affect urate metabolism or excretion? D 291. Biliary recycling is influenced by:
a. allopurinol d. colchicine a. rate of excretion of drug into the c. rate of loss of drug with feces bile
b. probenecid e. none of the above b. gall bladder function d. all of the above
c. sulfinpyrazone
B 292. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different galenic forms
C 279. An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiogenic shock is that dopamine a. always lead to the same therapeutic effect
a. will not cross blood-brain barrier and cause CNS effects b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect
b. has not effects on alpha and beta receptors c. always lead to different therapeutic effect
c. produces dose-dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion d. none of the above
d. will not increase blood pressure
e. can give orally A 293. The larger the volume of distribution:
a. the more extensive the distribution
B 280. Peripheral veins are seldom used for the administration of TPN fluids because b. the faster the distribution
a. TPN fluids tend to infiltrate surrounding tissue c. emptying of bile from the liver
b. the blood flow in peripheral vessels is not great enough to protect the peripheral vessels from irritation d. the slower the distribution the higher the physiological significance emptying of bile from the gall
c. large-bore needles must be used bladder
d. the vessels are easily occluded

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D 295. Drugs which are excreted into the sweat include the following except:
a. antipyrine c. benzoic acid
b. alcohol d. gentamicin

C 296. When used to treat angina, nifedipine is much more likely than verapamil and diltiazem to cause:
a. hypokalemia d. mental depression
b. tachycardia e. bronchopasm
c. cardiac arrythmias

A 297. A 55-year old patient with a 5-year history of angina and a recent myocardial infarction is admitted to the hospital
because of malignant hypertension. Diazoxide should not be used in this patient because
a. of its cardiostimulating effects
b. of its slow onset of activity
c. it tends to increase uric acid levels
d. it is likely to cause orthostatc hypotension
e. of its hepatotoxicity

A 298. A 20-year old asthmatic patient has been treated with Theodur 500 mg.twice daily. Despite a good therapeutic
steady state serum concentration of 60 ug/ml, the patient has brief episodes of bronchospasm several times a
week. The physician would like to give the patient additional bronchodilator therapy with an oral beta-adrenergic
agent. Which of the ff. drugs would be least desirable?
a. ephedrine d. albuterol
b. metaproterenol e. isoetherine
c. terbutaline

B 299. An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heart failure develops angina pectoris, her medications are
adjusted to include furosemide, Digoxin, nitroglycerin, propranalol and potassium supplements. Shortly
thereafter, she develops intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. What should the physicians do first?
a. perform a temporal artery biopsy
b. discontinue nitroglycerin
c. begin sublingual ergotamine
d. obtain a brain computed tomography (CT) scan
e. discontinue digoxin

A 300. Which of the fllowing events demand a change in dose size and dose requirement?
a. change in the normal excretion pattern
b. urinary recycling
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

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