PHARMACOLOGY
1. Drug development always involve,
a. Modification of the structure of existing drugs.
b. Understanding the molecular basis of immune responses.
c. Physiology or target discovery based on disease mechanisms.
d. Completion of clinical trials up to phase IV.
e. The participation of healthy individuals.
A just one old method of drug discovery
B just one new method of drug discovery
C this is the first step in drug discovery : finding a target and then a
potential drug
D most times trials are stopped due to being unsuccessful
E sometimes only patients are used
Best response – C
2. Which of the following are true regarding preclinical studies?
A) Details of manufacture, composition, impurities and solubility must
be submitted to the monitoring authorities.
B) Quality, safety, efficacy and dose range are determined.
C) Toxicity studies are redone when a new excipient is introduced.
D) Only the intended route of administration in humans is tested.
a. A,B b. B,D c. A,B,C d. A,C,D e. A.C
A under regulation, various tests are done to build up
pharmacological profile and to see whether compound satisfies
predetermined requirements
B safety and efficacy are determined in clinical trials
C as if it is a new substance
D all possible routes of administration are tested to build up the
pharmacological profile
Best response – E (A,C)
3. Which of the following is most accurate regarding preclinical
toxicology studies?
a. LD50 is determined by carrying out repeated dose studies.
b. ED50 is determined.
c. Mutagenecity (Ames test) and teratogenecity are the only compulsory
special studies for every drug.
d. Studies are not carried out on pregnant animals.
Aa measure of acute toxicity, hence single dose studies are used.
Increasing dose are administered to animals, one per each
B true, but it is not directly related to toxicology
C true, since full carcinogenicity studies are done only in special
conditions – if mutagenic tests are unsatisfactory/ if it resembles a
known carcinogen/ if drug is for long term use (more than 6
months)
D carried out on pregnant animals to test teratogenecity
Best response – C
4. Which of the following most ensures ethical drug development?
a. Phase I studies are carried out on healthy humans.
b. Licensing of a drug with safety information obtained up to phase III
trials.
c. Using a control group with equal number of patients.
d. Gaining written parental consent when testing drugs on children.
e. Ensuring that the number of patients enrolled is not increased during
trials.
All are ethical
A but if not they won’t get proper evidence about
pharmacodyanamics& kinetics
B this is what usually happens
C if not, their trial would not be scientific
D Informed consent and confidentiality are the things that have to be
ensured
E if not, trial results will not be reliable and scientific
Best response – D
5. Regarding phase trials,
a. All phase trials check the safety and efficacy of a drug. a. Bias is eliminated by ensuring the 2 groups don’t differ significantly
in age, sex, severity of disease etc.
b. Prescription event monitoring is the most widely used form of phase
IV surveillance. b. Blinding makes the trial more ethically correct.

c. Phase II trials do not include placebos. c. Randomization decreases allocation bias.

d. Phase trials are never carried out on pregnant women. d. Only chance plays a role in randomization.

e. Patients who leave before a trial is completed are not included in e. Sometimes double-blinding is not possible.
statistical analysis.
A true
A true B it is not ethics, it makes it more scientific and reliable
B voluntary reporting is the most widely used system in Sri Lanka C true, bias involved when people are allocated into treatment and
C includes placebos control groups
D carried out sometimes D true
E they have to be included (intention to treat analysis has to be E in some cases
done) Best response – B
Best response – A
8. Noradrenalin acts on both α and β receptors but isoprenaline acts
6. The use of placebos is essential for the success of a clinical trial as, only on β receptors. This is due to,
a. Placebos are known to give relief to physical illness. a. Down regulation of receptors causing tachyphylaxis.

b. Placebos have no known adverse effects. b. Selectivity to one receptor subtype.

c. A placebo is a pharmacologically inert substance for the condition. c. Isoprenaline having a higher affinity to β than α receptors.

d. They can be used where there is no known treatment for comparison. d. Isoprenaline being used in bradycardia.
e. They help to distinguish between the pharmacological and e. Blockage of α receptors by isoprenaline.
psychological effects of the drug.
A false
A true, but not that useful in clinical trials B not selective, has a very slight alpha action which is very low which
B most of the time they don’t does not manifest physiologically
C true C way higher affinity
D true D used since it is a nonselective beta agonist
E But the main purpose of clinical trial is to determine E false, no such action
pharmacological action of drug on humans, this can only be Best response – C
accomplished if its psychological action can be separately identified
Best response – E 9. Regarding the efficacy of a drug,
a. Receptor efficacy is the drug’s capacity to produce the maximal
7. Which of the following regarding bias is least accurate?
therapeutic effect.
b. The upper limit of the dose-response curve directly represents b. Partial agonists block access of natural agonist while causing a low
receptor efficacy. degree of receptor activation.

c. Receptor efficacy depends on the number of drug-receptor c. Propanalol causes a lower resting heart rate.
complexes formed.
d. Inverse agonists produce effects opposite to agonists (negative
d. It conveys the same idea as potency. efficacy).

e. A drug with a high affinity for a receptor always have a high efficacy. e. Non-competitive antagonists bind to the receptor at different sites
compared to the agonists.
A definition is that of therapeutic efficacy. In most cases, both are the
same. Propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker while pindolol is a partial
B does not directly represent, indicates agonist.
C also on how effectively it activates the receptor A true
D efficacy – capacity to produce maximal response by a drug B true and explains
potency – dose required to produce maximum effect of drug C true
E false, best example is an antagonist with affinity but no efficacy D true but not relevant here
Best response – C E true but irrelevant here
Best response – B
10. Receptor reserve explains why,
a. Competitive antagonism can be reversed by increasing agonist 12.Which of the following is/are examples of drugs acting on the cell
concentration. membrane and within the cell respectively?
A) Captopril and local anesthetics
b. An agonist can produce a maximum response without 100%
occupancy. B) Probenecid and digoxin

c. Partial agonists give a submaximal effect. C) Tricyclic antidepressants and Mao inhibitors

d. There is no change in the slope or maximum of a drug receptor D) Aspirin and Penicillin
complex with a competitive antagonist.
a. C
e. Irreversible antagonism ends only when drug-receptor complexes are
b. B,C,D
metabolized.
c. A,D
Best response – B (1000 receptors, drug need to bind only 600 to
produce maximum effect, so even if you irreversibly block 400 d. B
receptors, by increasing the drug you can get same maximum effect)
e. B,C
11 Propanalol gives a maximum effect while pindalol gives a submaximal
effect as, A Captopril inhibits membrane bound ACE, local anaesthetics act on
a. Partial agonists have high, low or equal affinity to a receptor as the components of cell membrane
agonist.
Bprobenecid blocks anion transport within renal tubular cells. digoxin
blocks membrane bound Na+K+ATPase
C Tricyclic antidepressants blocks membrane bound uptaker of
noradrenaline , MAO inhibitors block monoamine oxidase enzyme
within cell
D Aspirin inhibits COX enzymes within cell, Penicillin interferes with
bacterial cell wall synthesis by acting within cell
Best response – A (C)
13. A disadvantage of using phenoxybenzamine to control blood pressure
in phaeochromocytoma is that
a. The drug receptor bond is covalent
b. Phenoxybenzamine has a very high affinity to α receptors
a.A,D b. D,B c. A,C d. C,D e. A,C,D
Histamine causes bronchospasm by acting on H1 receptors
B acts on different receptors (adrenaline on its own receptors)
C true
D true, since large amounts of histamine are liberated
Best response – E (A,C,D)
15. Which one of the following is not a use of parasympathomimetic drug?
a. To diagnose myasthenia gravis
b. To stimulate the bowel and bladder after surgery
c. To improve cognitive function in Alzheimer’s disease
d. To treat patients with organophosphate poisoning
e. To lower the intra ocular pressure

c. The dose-response curve to adrenaline becomes flattened

A acetylcholine receptors destroyed due to autoantibodies, hence
d. In an overdose the blockage of Alfa receptors can’t be reversed drugs which increase concentration of acetylcholine –
anticholineesterases can be used for diagnosis & treatment.
e. Competitive antagonism can’t cope with varying concentrations of Edraphonium- short acting, diagnosis Neostigmine- intermediate
adrenaline being secreted acting, treatment
B this is a parasympathetic activity – Carbachol, bethanechol
Phaechromocytoma is a catecholamine secreting adrenal tumour CRivastigmine and donepezil used
A true, hence useful since it is not displaced by increased D irreversible anticholineesterases. hence parasympathetic activity is
concentrations of adrenaline and noradrenaline increased. this is decreased by giving atropine (competitive muscarinic
B true, useful & hence it has to be given with a β1 blocker receptor blocker)
C true, useful since receptors are blocked E Only clinical use of parasympathomimetic –Pilocarpine in glaucoma
D this is possible since it is an irreversible inhibition Best response – D
E false, since irreversible anatagonism is shown
Best response – D 16. Which of the following is the least site of action of acetyl choline?
a. Arterioles
b. Central nervous system
14.In anaphylactic shock adrenaline is used to oppose the effects of
c. Biceps femoris
histamine released;
d. Radial muscle of the iris
A) By producing bronchodilation via β2 receptors
e. Sweat gland
B) By acting on a different site on the same receptors as Histamine
A can have action, but receptors are sparse
C) By acting via a different mechanism to the agonist(physiological B present as a neurotransmitter
C neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is present
antagonist) D involved in pupillary dilatation (sympathetic). sphincter muscles
have acetylcholine action
D) As histamine antagonists are of limited use as histamine is already
E sympathetic cholinergic innervation
activating H1 receptors Best response – D
 d. Recent myocardial infarction
17. which respond gives the effects of acute organophosphate e. Pregnancy
poisoning?
a. Salivation, dyspnoea, tachycardia, respiratory failure A parasympathetic activity would cause further bronchoconstriction &
b. Muscle twitching, diarrhoea, wheezing, mydriasis worsen it
c. Vomiting, urine retention, bradycardia, convulsion B parasympathetic activity would further reduce heart rate
d. Diarrhoea, bronchoconstriction, sweating, miosis C useful since parasympathetics reduce blood pressure, hence not a
e. Dyspnoea, salivation, tachypnea, involuntary micturition caution
D not good since viable myocardium is trying to compensate with
Irreversible anticholine esterase.excess acetylcholine increased contractility
A respiratory failure causing death due to nicotinic E due to number of reasons
activity,othersparasympathetic effects except tachycardia Best response – C
B muscle twitching due to nicotinic activity, others parasympathetic
effects except mydriasis (but mydriasis can occur in 15%) in others, 20. Atropine is not contra indicated for patients with
miosis occurs a. Angle closure glaucoma
C involuntary urination occurs , convulsions due to central effects b. Organophosphate poisoning
D all correct c. Myasthenia gravis
E tachypnea does not occur d. Prostate enlargement
Best response – D e. Pyloric stenosis

18. What is the wrong sentence? Competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist, hence would reduce
a. Neostigmine and piridostigmine are used to treat myasthenia gravis parasympathetic activity
b. Pilocarpine is an indirectly acting parasympathomimetic drug A parasympathetic activity causes pupillary constriction opening angle
c. Atropine is used to treat organophspate poisoning and increased drainage of aqueous humor
d. Carbacol is not destroyed by cholinesterase B increased parasympathetic activity is decreased by atropine, useful
e. Rivastgmine is used to improve cognitive functions in Alzheimer’s C no receptors for acetylcholine, would further aggravate condition
disease. D causes urinary retention, hence parasympathetic activity has to be
stimulated
A reversible intermediate acting anticholineesterases which can E parasympathetic has to be stimulated to induce gastric emptying
increase acetylcholine to compensate for destroyed receptors in Best response – B
myasthenia gravis
B direct acting alkaloid. Indirect acting ones are anticholineesterases 21. What wouldn’t happen when atropine is administrated?
as in A a. Constipation
C excess acetylcholine, hence muscarinic receptor blocker atropine b. Loss of accommodation
used c. Tachycardia
D true d. Retention of urine
E also donepezil e. Bronchospasm
Best response – B
Decreased parasympathetic activity due to competitive nicotinic
19. Which situation is not a caution for using cholinergic drug? receptor blockage
a. Bronchial asthma A parasympathetics stimulate gut motility
b. Heart block B parasympathetics involved in accommodation
c. Hypertension
C parasympathetics cause bradycardia
D parasympathetics activates micturition
E parasympathetics cause bronchospasm
Best response – E
22. Which of the following is not an anti-muscarinic drug?
a. Ipratropium
b. Pralidoxime
c. Hyoscine
d. Promethzine
e. Oxybutynin
A true, used for bronchial dilatation
B reactivates acetylcholine esterase in organophosphate poisoning
C true, used in motion sickness & CNS depressant
D true, as an anti-emetic mainly in motion sickness
E true, for urinary incontinence
Best response – B
23. Select the best response regarding the adrenergic receptors,
a. Adenylcyclase is the major effectors protein for all adrenergic
receptors
b. Cardiac β2 receptor mediate the effect of circulating adrenaline
c. Coronary arteries have α adrenergic receptors only
d. GI tract has both α and β receptors, that act to decrease the GIT
motility
e. α1 Receptors of the uterus causes relaxation of the uterus
A it is a second messenger
B true, but only when it is secreted at a sufficient rate
C beta also present.alpha constricts beta dilates
D true
E contracts pregnant uterus. beta 2 causes relaxation – used in
delaying labour
Best response – D
24. which one of the following is not suitable with sympathomimetic
drugs?
a. Some drugs act directly by binding on adrenoceptors
b. Some drugs act indirectly by discharging noradrenaline stored an
nerve terminals
c. Some drugs act by preventing reuptake of released noradrinaline
d. Some drugs act by preventing the destruction of noradrinaline in
nerve endings
e. Some drugs act by activation of presynaptic α2 receptors
A true
B true
C true
D true
E these autoreceptors inhibit release of noradrenaline, hence does not
exert sympathomimetic action
Best response – E
25. Select the odd response regarding the selectivity of adrenergic
drugs for their receptors
a. Adrenaline is a non selectiveadrenoceptor agonist
b. Clonidine has α2 effects is the central nervous system
c. Terbutaline can be used to relax uterus pregnant mothers to delay
the labour
d. Isoprenaline is better than salbutamol to treat asthmatic patients
e. Dobutamine can’t be used in cardiogenic shok as it is a β2 receptor
agonist
A true
B true
C true since it is a beta 2 agonist
Disoprenaline has non selective beta effects, salbumatol is better
since it has beta2 effects mainly
E can be used since B2 activation too leads to sympathetic activity on
heart
Best response –
26. What is wrong regarding adrenoceptor agonist?
a. Adrenaline is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma
b. Tachycardia is a significant feature after a noradrenalin
administration
c. Tachycardia would be a disadvantage if an asthmatic patient is
treated with isoprenaline
d. Hypocaleamia is a complication when a severe asthmatic patient is
treated with salbutamol
e. Noradrenalin can be used to treat cardiogenic shock
A parasympathetics are needed to reduce ocular pressure, true
B true since it leads to sympathetic activation
C isoprenaline is a non selective beta agonist, true B true since it causes vasodilatation
D hypokalemia since it facilitates movement of K+ into cells C alpha 1 selective antagonist
E since it is leads to sympathetic activation D true, phenoxybenzamine combined with a beta blocker
Best response – D E Tamsulosin used. facilitates micturition by relaxing smooth muscle of
bladder neck & prostate capsule
27. Which drug is not a non-catecholamine? Best response – E
a. Salbutamol
b. Terbutaline 30. What cannot be a side effect of α-adenoceptor blocker?
c. Salmeterol a. Urinary incontinence
d. Dopamine b. Postural hypotension
e. Ephedrine c. Nasal stiffness
d. Hypokalemia
e. Faliur in ejaculation in males
Not a non-catecholamine - catecholamine ☺
All others are sympathomimetics as well.
Sympathetics inactivated.
Best response – D
Erection is parasympathetic, ejaculation is sympathetic
Best response – D (hypokalemia is caused by sympathomimetics like
28. Which situation of the following is not a caution for
salbutamol)
sympathomimetic use?
a. Heart disease
b. Thyrotoxicosis 31. Which of he following is not a cardiovascular effect of β
c. Angle closure glaucoma adrenoreceptor blocker?
d. Hypertension a. Reduced automacity of the heart
e. Hypotension b. Reduced myocardial contractility
c. Increased renin secretion from juxta glomerular apparatus
d. Reduced cardiac output
Hypotension is an indication for a sympathomimetic.
e. Reduced cardiac oxygen consumption
Best response – E

29. Which sentence of the following is wrong? Renin secretion is increased by sympathetics.
a. Non-selective α-adrenoceptor blocking drug can cause further Best response – C
activation of sympathetic nervous system
b. α1 adenoceptor blocker can be useful in hypertension 32. Which of the following is not a β adenocepor blocker?
c. Prazosin is a alpha adenceptor blocking drug a. Atenalol
d. Phaechromocytoma is treated with α adenoceptor blocker with β b. Propranalol
adenoceptor blocker c. Bisprolol
e. α1 adenoceptor blocker may not be useful in benign prostatic d. Sotalol
hypertrophy e. Salbutamol

A reflex activity due to postural hypotension causes more Best response – E (Beta2 agonist)
noradrenaline release (this is normally inhibited by alpha2) which can
act on beta receptors. 33. β-adenoceptor blocking drug is not useful in
hence such drugs not used alone in hypertension a. Thyrotoxicosis
Selective alpha1 blocker sparing alpha2 blocker is used b. Hypotension
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Glaucoma
37. which of the following is true regarding drug regulation and
e. Anxiety
registration,
Sympathetics inactivated. good for hypertension a) Drug regulation in Sri Lanka applies to herbal and ayurvedic drugs as
Best response – B well as western drugs.
b) Drugs under schedule 2A can’t be issued without prescription.
34. Side effects of the β blocking does not include c) Some drugs need not to be registered in Drug Regulatory Authority
a. Bradycardia before being sold in the country.
b. Incapacity for vigorous exercise d) Schedule 1 drugs can be issued without prescription.
c. Bronchodilation e) drug advertising is not regulated.
d. Hypoglycaemia
A excludes herbal and ayurvedic drugs
e. Fatigue
Bdon’t need prescription, need supervision. 1-over the counter 2A-
pharmacy only 2B – prescription only 3 – dangerous 4 - banned
Sympathetic inactivation.causes bronchoconstriction
C all drugs should be
Best response – C
D can
E regulated
35. What is meant by essential drug list [EDL]?
Best response – D
a) The EDL of a country has drugs to treat all the diseases found in the
country .
b) EDL was published in 1985 in Sri Lanka. 38. Regarding Type B adverse drug reactions ?
c) EDL is the list containing drugs that can be bought at the lowest a) Type B Adverse Drug Reactions are predictable and dose related.
costs. b) Anaphylaxis is a Type B Adverse Drug Reactions.
d) A list that containing medicines that satisfy the health care needs of c) Type B Adverse Drug Reactions are more commoner than Type A
the majority of the population. Adverse Drug Reactions.
e) A list containing drugs which have the highest efficacy. d) Type B Adverse Drug Reactions are commonly tested in clinical trials
in phase 3.
First EML in 1988 in Sri Lanka, 1977 WHO e) Can be managed by reducing or stopping the dose.
Best response – D A type A. Type B unpredictable & not dose related
B true
36.. Which of the following false regarding drug registration in Sri C rarer
Lanka? D false, type A
a) Drug registration is done by Drug Regulatory Authority. E type A
b) Registration is done for 5 years. Best response – B
c) The quality , safety and efficacy data of the drug are considered.
d) The product need necessarily not to be registered in the country of 39. True regarding Adverse Drug Reactions?
manufacture. a) Occurs when drugs are given in higher doses than normal.
e) Product information leaflets need to be submitted. b) Type A reactions are more predictable than Type B Adverse Drug
Reactions.
D is a must. c) Type B reactions are extension of the normal pharmacological effect
Best response –D of a drug.
d) Adverse Drug Reactions are usually not harmful to the patients .
e) Occurs less in children. a) Drug advertisements should not contain information about Adverse
Drug Reactions as it will reduce the selling of a drug.
A occurs at normal doses
B true b) Official drug information is available in the product information
C type A. type B are not part of normal pharmacodynamics leaflet.
D noxious and unintended c) BNF is not always a reliable ,official source of drug information.
E common in children & elderly d) drug advertisements provide independent information about a drug.
Best response – B e) Information we get from colleague can always be considered reliable.

A it should
40. True regarding factors contributing to Adverse Drug Reactions?
B true
a) Genetical abnormalities in a person. C reliable, scientific method
b) Harmful effects of excepients used in drug forms . D not independant
c) Improper administration of drugs. E false, not reliable… Colleagues latapissu.. :D
d) Acquired abnormalities of a patient. Best response – B
e) All of the above.
44. Regarding drug information,
Best response – E
a) We can always depend on medical representatives for unbiased drug
41. Which of the following is not an example for Type A Adverse Drug
information.
Reaction?
b) Drug information bulletin is a reliable source of commercial
a) Hypoglycemia when given insulin.
information.
b) Sedation with barbiturates.
c) Scientific information provide more information about drugs based on
c) Hepatitis occur when rifampicin is given.
researched findings.
d) Bleeding with anticoagulants.
d) drug advertisement produce a most reliable way of drug information.
e) Hair loss with cytotoxic drugs.
e) Scientific information on a drug is limited by official drug
information.
Best response – C (type B)
Ahahahaniyamaprashne..
B official information.commercial information is mainly
42. Which group of people has a higher tendency to develop an Adverse advertisements
Drug Reaction? C true
D NOOOOOOOOOOO
a) Patients with liver failure .
E provide additional information by research, commercial information
b) Pregnant women.
is limited by official information
c) patients with renal failure.
Best response – C
d) Infants.
e) All of the above.
45. False regarding histamine,
Best response – E
a) Found in mast cells near blood vessels.
b) Found in epithelia of the respiratory tract.
43. Which of the following true regarding drug information sources?
c) Cause reduction of gastric acid secretion via H2 receptors.
d) Cause increased permeability of blood vessels .
e) Anaphylactic shock is largely due to increase release of histamine.

Causes gastric acid secretion 48. Which of the following is the correct response regarding
Best response – C autocoids?
A. Glucocorticoids irreversibly inhibits lipooxygenase
46. Which of the following is false regarding prostaglandins?
a. Formed in almost every tissue of the body B. Leukotrienes results in bronchoconstriction

b. PGE2 protects the gastrointestinal tract C. Histamine results in broncoconstriction

c. Is a 20 carbon unsaturated fatty acid delivered from arachidonic acid D. COX-2 inhibitors will not interfere with the production of
prostaglandin in gastric mucosa.
d. Cause relaxation of the uterus during the pregnancy
a. A
e. Production is inhibited by glucocorticoids
b. A,B
A true
B increased mucus & decreased acid secretion, inhibits gastric damage c. C,D
& promotes ulcer healing
C true d. B,C,D
D cause increase in uterine tone, intensity & frequency of contraction
E by blocking phospholipase A2 breaking down membrane e. All of the above
phospholipids to form arachidonic acid
Best response – D A Phospholipase A2
B true (LTC4 LTD4 LTE4 )
47. False regarding the biosynthesis pathway of prostaglandin C true
production? D true since it is mediated by COX1
a. NSAID inhibit cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 enzyme Best response – D (B,C,D)

b. Occurs in platlets as wel as in the endothelium 49. Which of the following is false regarding NSAIDs?
a. They inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins
c. Glucocorticooids inhibit cyclooxygenase 1 enzyme
b. Aspirin is a non-selective COX inhibitor
d. There are selective COX-2 inhibitors
c. Can be given to relieve gastric irritation
e. Increase when there is an inflammatory stimulus
d. Have an antimicrobial effect
A true
Bprostacyclins in endothelium, Thromboxane A2in platelets e. Can be used as analgesics
C inhibit phospholipase A2
D true A by inhibiting COX 1 & 2
E important inflammatory mediator to bring about cardinal signs B true
Best response – C
C false, causes gastric irritation due to decreased prostaglandins
D true
E since prostaglandins are mediators of pain
Best response – C
50. First order processes,
a. Apply only to enzyme mediated processes
b. Proceed at high rates when concentration of substances are high and
vice versa
c. Cannot be described in terms of t 1/2
d. Apply to all the drugs in clinical use
e. Phenytoin is eliminated by first order process throughout the clinical
dose range
A false, they are most likely to show zero order due to saturation of
active sites
B true
C can be described, since it is a constant
D not to all drugs
E first order at low doses, zero order at high doses
Best response – B
51. Which of the following is true
a. Loading dose is directly proportional to the vol. of distribution
b. Drugs that have a high partition coefficient have a low volume of
distribution
c. T1/2 is a constant for alcohol metabolism in the body at higher doses
of administration
d. Maintenance dose can be ½ of the loading dose when it is
administered at intervals equal to plasma t ½
e. Monitoring of plasma concentration of drugs is a useful guide to
therapy with diuretics
A true but dependant on other factors, hence not 1:1 , high Vd means
high loading dose and vice versa
B refers to its ability to dissolve in lipids, hence high partition
coefficient means higher distribution other than plasma, hence higher
volume of distribution
C enzyme mediated, hence undergoes saturation, zero order, T1/2
becomes variable
D true Eg. concentration needed is 100 , loading dose is 100, at t1/2
concentration is 50, you give 50 as maintenance, concentration again
is 100 ☺
E dose can be titrated against a quickly and easily measured effect
such as body weight
Best response – D
52. Regarding metabolism,
a. P450 enzymes are involved in phase 2 metabolism of drugs.
b. Paracetamol is not metabolized by P450 enzymes
c. Drugs attain a shorter half life after phase 1 metabolism
d. In phase 1 metabolism drugs are conjugated with polar molecules
e. Phase 2 metabolism does not necessarily terminate the biological
activity
A phase 1
B metabolized
C made more water souble, hence excretion is easier, leads to shorter
half life
D phase 2
E mostly terminates, but not so in phase 1
Best response – C
53. Which statement is false considering the apparent volume of
distribution
a. it is the volume of fluid in which it appears to distribute with a
concentration equal to that in plasma
b. it is small if it remains in plasma
c. it normally corresponds precisely with a physiologic space such as
extra cellular water
d. it can exceed total body volume
e. it depends on the protein binding of a drug
If protein binding is more, Vdis less. Does not correspond precisely
with a physiological space.
Best response – C
54. Which of the following is false regarding t1/2
a. it is important to avoid drug interactions
b. can be used to predict the time of occurrence of desired effect of a
drug
c. to determine the gap between the maintenance doses
d. for poisoning management
e. for drugs which have a lower t1/2 it is better to give the drug in C can be , penicillin excretion delayed by probenecid
bolus injections D true, induces hepatic enzymes, so does alcoholism
E since kidney function deteriorates with age
A true Best response – C
B true
C true 58. The best route of administration for TNG is
D true a. Oral
E false, continuous infusions are better (bolus is a single dose given b. Rectal
in seconds) c. Sublingual
Best response – E d. Intravenous
e. Inhalation

55. Which of the following is not an inducer of P450 enzymes, due to its extensive first pass metabolism and need for quick action
a. Rifampicin Best response – C
b. Ethanol
c. Cimetidine 59. A patient on anticoagulant therapy while traveling abroad forgot to
d. Phenytoin take his medicine with him. But he remembered the trade name and
e. Carbamazepine dose of the drug. So he got a doctor to write a prescription. But after
several days he developed thrombosis. What is the most likely cause for
Cimetidine is an inhibitor along with ketoconazole, erythromycin and these medication error?
quinidine. a. The pharmacist did not check the expiry date of the drug
Best response – C b. Dispensing a drug of different colour
c. Dispensing a drug of different pharmacopeal standard
56. Which of the following doesn’t affect the Vd of a drug, d. The pharmacist gave a drug with look alike name
a. Partition coefficient of the drug e. Patient not knowing the generic name of the drug
b. Transporters of the drug on membranes Best response - D
c. Diffusion coefficient
d. Protein binding ability 60. A physician conducts phase »»» trials without attaining informed
e. Rate of administration written consent. WOTF clinical principal is violated?
a) Beneficence
Measure of ability of a drug to remain in the circulation b) Autonomy
Best response – E c) Justice
d) Collaborative partnership
57. Choose the false statement, e) Fair patient selection
a. Genetic factors affect the metabolism of drugs
b. Therapeutic index of a drug determines its toxicity Beneficence is doing what is best for patient. Autonomy is ability of
c. Renal excretion of a drug cannot be affected by another drug independent thought, decision and action by patient, Justice is
d. Cigarette smoking has an effect on metabolism being fair and just (in allocating limited resources)
e. Renal excretion of a drug is dependent on the age of patient Best response – B

A true 61. Which of a following characteristic of a drug is most responsible for

B true, chances of toxicity high if it is narrow and vice versa… It is the the position of its dose-response curve on the X axis?
ratio between doses producing toxic & therapeutic effects respectively a) Efficacy of a drug
b) Potency of drug d) Patient usage of the drug is not monitored
e) Patients on other medications are studied
c) Affinity to its receptor
Best response – D
d) Degree of receptor agonism
65. A 45 year old man had dinner at a restaurant. Had only red rice,
Position on y axis determined by efficacy potato curry and fish. At night he developed severe itching, wheezing,
Best response – B cough, vomiting and diarrhea. WOTF chemical mediator is likely to be
responsible for his symptoms?
62. 80 mg of a drug is administrated every 8 hours. Peak plasma a) Bradykinin
concentration 18 µg/ml. Plasma half life of the drug is; b) Histamine
a) 1 hour c) Seratonin
b) 2 hours d) Leukotriens
c) 4 hours e) Prostacyclin
d) 6 hours
e) 8 hours Histamine fish poisoning
Best response – B
usually doses are given at dose intervals equal to half life, when half
life is between 6-12 h. I DON’T KNOW HOW TO SOLVE THIS ☺ 66. Absorption of a drug from the bowel occurring through different
Best response - E mechanisms.Main mechanism,
a) Passive diffusion
63. Which of the following is specific for metabotropic receptors,
b) Facilitated diffusion
a) Binds to specific ligand
c) Active transport
b) Acting within milliseconds
d) Bulk flow
c) Acting through formation of a second messenger

d) Having 5 subunits in transmembrane component e) Pinocytosis

e) Connecting with intracellular component Best response - A

A in all receptors 67. A drug with a high efficacy is;

B acts within seconds, ionotropic receptors act within milliseconds a) Partial agonist
C specific b) Full agonist
D 7 subunits c) Antagonist
E present in other receptors d) Reverse agonist
Best response – C e) Reversible antagonist

64. WOF is a disadvantage of post marketing survelliance Ability to exert maximum effect
a) A large number of patients are studied Best response – B
b) Different aged patients are studied
c) Patients with other illnesses are studied 68. A drug which is highly bound to plasma proteins
a) Readily filtered by glomerulus 1000 * 50% / 20 mg/L = 25 L
b) Displaced readily by drugs that bind to the plasma proteins Best response – C
c) Volume of distribution exceeds the total body water
d) Is the form that bind with the receptors 72.A patient who is having asthma started inhalation of
e) Distributes quickly to the intracellular compartment salbutamol.Initially the treatment was effective.But now he is not having
the initial effectiveness.The reason for the reduced effectiveness of
A not filtered easily salbutamol would be,
B true a)Tachyphylaxis
C barely exceeds plasma volume b)Development of tolerance
D free form binds with receptors c)Development of resistance.
E takes time to distribute to intracellular component d)Development of depenance.
Best response – B e)Receptor down regulation.

69. New methods of medicinal drug development are, except ; Receptor upregulation when using receptor blockers
a) Using 3D computer graphics Best response – E
b) Recombinant DNA technology
c) Combinational chemistry 73.A 48 yrs old man developed sever urticaria, bronchospasm and
d) Extraction of active compounds from herbal medicines faintishness after few minutes applying a hair dye. theautocoid which is
e) Immunopharmacology most likely to be caused this would be
a) bradykinin
Best response – D (old method) b) interferon
c) PGF2 alpha
70. A 22 year old medical student is diagnosed to have a condition called d) histamine
benign essential tremor. The doctor decided to treat his tremor as it
infers with his writing.using your knowledge of drugs acting on ANS, e) leukotine b4
select the group of drugs that can be used to treat his condition,
a) non selective β blocker Anaphylactic shock
b) β1 selective adrenocepter blocker Best response – D
c) cholinomimetic
d) antimuscarinics 74.what is the least considering factor in making EMC?
e) α receptor blocker a) disease prevalence
b) efficacy
Propranolol used c) safety
Best response – A d) cost of the medicine
e) quality
71. 1000 mg of drug is intravenously given to a patient. plasma
concentration 20mg/L.t1/2 is 12 h.if the drug given orally
bioavailability is 50% calculate the Vd, Best response - E
a) 24L
b) 48L 75. A drug clinical trial to a new antidiabetes drug is done by an American
c) 25L company in an African country. The company got permission to check
d) 50L blood sample to check blood glucose levels. After some time they used
blood samples to check DNA. Africans went to court against this
What is the clinical issue.
a) social validity
b) scientific validity
c) informed consent
d) collaborative partnership
e) beneficence

Best response – C

76.A doctor prescribed a new antidepressant to a patient. patient has got

sever thrombocytopenia. Doctor refer to the latest edition of bnf and its
not mention there
from which of the following source he could find out it?
a) latest edition of the pharmacology text book- goodman and gillmean
b) product information leaflet
c) at the drug case reports of recent medical journals
d) latest edition of USA pharmacopoeias
e) medical representatives opinions

A & B unlikely to contain new information. C is the best, D also

unlikely, E is unreliable.
Best response – C

76. Which of the following makes phase 1 trials different from other
phase trials?
(a) Patients are recruited.
(b) Healthy volunteers are recruited
(c) Randomization
(d) Placebo medicines
(e) Written concept taken from the patients

Best response - B