PHARMACOLOGY (MIDTERMS)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Select the best answer.
1. A patient reports that she has a drug allergy.
In exploring the allergic
reaction with the patient, which of the following
might indicate an
allergic response?
a. Increased urination
b. Dry mouth
c. Rash
d. Drowsiness
2. The nurse obtains a medical history from a
patient before beginning drug therapy based on
an understanding of which of the following?
a. Medical conditions can alter a drug’s
pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
b. A medical history is a key component of any
nursing protocol.
c. A baseline of information is necessary to
evaluate a drug’s effects.
d. The medical history is the first step in the
nursing process.
3. The nurse writes a nursing diagnosis for which
reason?
a. Direct medical care
b. Help to increase patient compliance
c. Identify actual or potential alteration in patient
function
d. Determine insurance reimbursement in most
cases
4. A patient receiving an antihistamine complains
of dry mouth and nose. An appropriate comfort
measure for this patient would be to
a. suggest that the patient use a humidifier.
b. encourage voiding before taking the drug.
c. have the patient avoid sun exposure.
d. give the patient a back rub.
5. When establishing the nursing interventions
appropriate for a given patient
a. the patient should not be actively involved.
b. the patient support systems should be
included only at discharge.
c. teaching should be done when the patient
states he or she is ready to learn.
d. an evaluation of all of the data accumulated
should be
incorporated to achieve an effective care plan.
6. The evaluation step of the nursing process
a. is often used as a last resort.
b. is important primarily in the acute setting.
c. is a continuous process.
d. includes making nursing diagnoses.
7. After teaching a patient about digoxin
(Lanoxin)—a drug used to increase the
effectiveness of the heart’s contractions—which
statement indicates that the teaching was
effective?
a. “I need to take my pulse every morning before
I take my pill.”
b. “If I forget my pills, I usually make up the
missed dose once I
remember.”
c. “This pill might help my hay fever when it
becomes a problem.”
d. “I don’t remember the name of it, but it is the
white one.”
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Select all that apply.
1. A client is being started on a laxative regimen.
Before administering the medication, the nurse
should perform which of the following
processes?
a. Assessing for allergies
b. Evaluating the medication effectiveness
c. Evaluating the route of administration
d. Diagnosing the patient with ischemic colitis
e. Asking the patient for name and birth date
record when the medication was dispensed from
the pharmacy
2. The nursing care of a patient receiving drug
therapy should include measures to decrease
the anticipated adverse effects of the drug.
Which of the following measures would a nurse
consider?
a. A positive approach
b. Environmental temperature control
c. Safety measures
d. Skin care
e. Refrigeration of the drug
f. Involvement of the family
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug to a
client for the first time. What questions should
the nurse consider before actually administering
the drug?
a. Is this the right patient?
b. Is this the right drug?
c. Is there a generic drug available?
d. Is this the right route for this patient?
e. Is this the right dose, as ordered?
f. Did I record this properly?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Select the best answer.
1. Drugs can be advertised in the mass media
only if
a. the FDA indication is clearly stated.
b. the actual use is never stated.
c. adverse effects and precautions are stated if
the use is stated.
d. all adverse effects are clearly stated.
2. Herbal treatments and alternative therapies
a. are considered drugs and regulated by the
FDA.
b. are considered dietary supplements and are
not regulated by the FDA.
c. have no restrictions on claims and
advertising.
d. contain no drugs, only natural substances.
3. OTC drugs are drugs that are
a. deemed to be safe when used as directed.
b. harmless to the public.
c. too old to be tested.
d. cheaper to use than prescription drugs.
4. The home healthcare industry is booming
because
a. there is a shortage of hospital beds.
b. patients feel safer at home and prefer to be
cared for at home.
c. patients are going home sooner and
becoming responsible for their own care sooner
than in the past.
d. the nursing shortage makes it difficult to
care for patients in hospitals.
d. has expired but is still found to be useful
when used as directed.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Select all that apply.
1. When taking a health history, the nurse should
include specific questions about the use of OTC
drugs and alternative therapies. This is an
important aspect of the health history because
a. many insurance policies cover these drugs.
b. patients should be reprimanded about the
use of these products.
c. patients often do not consider them to be
drugs and do not report their use.
d. patients should never use these products
when taking prescription drugs.
e. these products can mask or alter presenting
signs and symptoms.
f. many of these products interact with
traditional prescription drugs.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been
diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The patient has
reported that he or she frequently uses herbal
remedies. Before administering any antidiabetic
medications, the nurse should caution the patient
about the use of which of the following herbal
therapies?
a. Glucosamine
b. Ginseng
c. St. John’s wort
d. Juniper berries
e. Garlic
f. Kava

5. The cost of drug therapy is a major

consideration in most areas because
a. generic drugs are always cheaper.
b. the high cost of drugs combined with more
fixed incomeconsumers puts constraints on drug
use.
c. pharmacies usually carry only one drug from
each class.
d. patients like to shop around and get the best
drug for their
money.

6. An off-label use of a drug means that the drug

a. was found without a label and its actual
contents are not known.
b. has been found to be safe when used as
directed and no restrictions are needed.
c. is being used for an indication not listed in
the approved indications noted by the FDA.
 a. The acidity of the environment
b. The genetic makeup of the cell
MULTIPLE CHOICE c. The location of the cell in the body
Select the best answer. d. The number of ribosomes in the cell
e. The cell response to contact inhibition
1. The basic unit of human structure is f. The availability of nutrients and oxygen
a. the mitochondria.
b. the nucleus. 2. Some substances will pass into the human cell
c. the nucleolus. by simple diffusion. Which of the following
d. the cell. substances diffuse into the cell?
a. Calcium
2. The cell membrane is composed of b. Nitrogen
a. a phospholipid structure. c. Sodium
b. channels of protein. d. Carbon dioxide
c. a cholesterol-based membrane. e. Oxygen
d. Golgi apparatus. f. Potassium

3. The saying, “One rotten apple can spoil the 3. Some substances require a channel or pore to
whole barrel,” can be used to refer to the cell- enter a cell membrane. Which of the following
degrading properties of substances use a channel to enter the cell?
a. calcium channels. a. Calcium
b. lysosomes. b. Urea
c. histocompatibility receptors. c. Fat-soluble vitamins
d. nuclear spindles. d. Sodium
e. Oxygen
4. The ribosomes are important sites for f. Potassium
a. digestion of nutrients.
b. excretion of waste products.
c. production of proteins.
d. hormone receptors.

5. A human cell placed in salty seawater will

a. burst from water entering the cell.
b. shrivel and die from water leaving the cell.
c. not be affected in any way.
d. break apart from the salt effect.

6. The sodium–potassium pump maintains a

negative charge on the cell membrane by
a. osmosis.
b. diffusion.
c. active transport.
d. facilitated diffusion.

7. All cells progress through basically the same

cell cycle, including
a. two phases.
b. four active phases and a resting phase.
c. three periods of rest and a splitting phase.
d. four active phases.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Select all that apply.

1. The amount of time that a cell takes to

progress through the cell cycle is determined by
which of the following?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Select the best answer.
1. The spectrum of activity of an antiinfective
indicates
a. the acidity of the environment in which it is
most effective.
b. the cell membrane type that the antiinfective
affects.
c. the antiinfective’s effectiveness against
different invading organisms.
d. the resistance factor that bacteria have
developed to this antiinfective.
2. The emergence of resistant strains of
microbes is a serious public health problem.
Healthcare providers can work to prevent the
emergence of resistant strains by
a. encouraging the patient to stop the antibiotic
as soon as the symptoms are resolved to
prevent overexposure to the drug.
b. encouraging the use of antibiotics when
patients feel they will help.
c. limiting the use of antimicrobial agents to the
treatment of specific pathogens known to be
sensitive to the drug being used.
d. using the most recent powerful drug
available to treat an infection to ensure
eradication of the microbe.
3. Sensitivity testing of a culture shows
a. drugs that are capable of controlling that
particular
microorganism.
b. the patient’s potential for allergic reactions
to a drug.
c. the offending microorganism.
d. an immune reaction to the infecting
organism.
4. Combination therapy is often used in treating
infections. An important consideration for using
combination therapy would be that
a. it is cheaper to use two drugs in one tablet
than one drug alone.
b. most infections are caused by multiple
organisms.
c. the combination of drugs can delay the
emergence of resistant strains.
d. combining antiinfectives will prevent
adverse effects from occurring.
5. Superinfections can occur when antiinfective
agents destroy the normal flora of the body.
Candida infections are commonly associated
with antibiotic use. A patient with this type of
superinfection would exhibit
a. difficulty breathing.
b. vaginal discharge or white patches in the
mouth.
c. elevated blood urea nitrogen.
d. dark lesions on the skin.
6. An example of an antiinfective used as a
means of prophylaxis would be
a. amoxicillin used for tonsillitis.
b. penicillin used to treat an abscess.
c. an antibiotic used before dental surgery.
d. co-trimoxazole used for a bladder infection.
7. A broad-spectrum antibiotic would be the drug
of choice when
a. the patient has many known allergies.
b. one is waiting for culture and sensitivity
results.
c. the infection is caused by one specific
bacterium.
d. treatment is being given for an upper
respiratory infection of unknown cause.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Select all that apply.
1. Bacterial resistance to an antiinfective could
be the result of which
of the following?
a. Natural or intrinsic properties of the bacteria
b. Changes in cellular permeability or cellular
transport systems
c. The production of chemicals that antagonize
the drug
d. Initial exposure to the antiinfective
e. Combination of too many antibiotics for one
infection
f. Narrow spectrum of activity
2. Antiinfective drugs destroy cells that have
invaded the body. They do not specifically
destroy only the cell of the invader, and because
of this, many adverse effects can be anticipated
when an antiinfective is used. Which of the
following adverse effects are often associated
with antiinfective use?
a. Superinfections
b. Hypotensionc.
c. Renal toxicity
d. Diarrhea
e. Loss of hearing
f. Constipation

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Select the best answer.
1. A bacteriostatic substance is one that
a. directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact
with.
b. directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to
the substance.
c. prevents the growth of any bacteria.
d. prevents the growth of specific bacteria that
are sensitive to the substance.
2. Gram-negative bacteria
a. are mostly found in the respiratory tract.
b. are mostly associated with soft tissue
infections.
c. are mostly found in the GI and GU tracts.
d. accept a positive stain when tested.
3. Antibiotics that are used together to increase
their effectiveness and limit the associated adverse
effects are said to be
a. broad spectrum.
b. synergistic.
c. bactericidal.
d. anaerobic.
4. An aminoglycoside antibiotic might be the drug
of choice in treating
a. serious infections caused by susceptible
strains of Gram-negative bacteria.
b. otitis media in an infant.
c. cystitis in a woman who is 4 months pregnant.
d. suspected pneumonia before the culture
results are available.
5. Which of the following is not a caution for the
use of cephalosporins?
a. Allergy to penicillin
b. Renal failure
c. Allergy to aspirin
d. Concurrent treatment with aminoglycosides
6. The fluoroquinolones
a. are found freely in nature.
b. are associated with severe adverse reactions.
c. are widely used to treat Gram-positive
infections.
d. are broad-spectrum antibiotics with few
associated adverse effects.
7. Cipro, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of
a. a penicillin.
b. a fluoroquinolone.
c. an aminoglycoside.
d. a macrolide antibiotic.
8. A patient receiving a fluoroquinolone should be
cautioned to anticipate
a. increased salivation.
b. constipation.
c. photosensitivity.
d. cough.
9. The goal of antibiotic therapy is
a. to eradicate all bacteria from the system.
b. to suppress resistant strains of bacteria.
c. to reduce the number of invading bacteria so
that the immune system can deal with the infection.
d. to stop the drug as soon as the patient feels
better.
10. The penicillins
a. are bacteriostatic.
b. are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell
walls.
c. are effective only if given intravenously.
d. do not produce cross-sensitivity within their
class.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Select all that apply.
1. A young woman is found to have a soft-tissue
infection that is most responsive to tetracycline.
Your teaching plan for this woman should
include which of the following points?
a. Tetracycline can cause gray baby syndrome.
b. Do not use this drug if you are pregnant
because it can cause tooth and bone defects in the
fetus.
c. Tetracycline can cause severe acne.
d. You should use a second form of
contraception if you are using
oral contraceptives because tetracycline can make
them ineffective.
e. This drug should be taken in the middle of a
meal to decrease GI upset.
f. You may experience a vaginal yeast infection
as a result of this drug therapy.
2. In general, all patients receiving antibiotics
should receive teaching
that includes which of the following points?
a. The need to complete the full course of drug
therapy
b. The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c. When to take the drug related to food and
other drugs
d. The need for assessment of blood tests
e. Advisability of saving any leftover medication
for future use
f. How to detect superinfections and what to do if
they occur
 b. administering the drugs just once a day to
increase drug effectiveness.
c. encouraging the patient to avoid eating if GI
MULTIPLE CHOICE upset is severe.
Select the best answer. d. stopping the drugs and notifying the prescriber
if severe rash occurs.
1. In assessing a patient, a viral cause might be
suspected if the patient was diagnosed with 8. Locally active antiviral agents can be used to
a. tuberculosis. treat
b. leprosy. a. HIV infection.
c. the common cold. b. warts.
d. gonorrhea. c. RSV.
d. CMV systemic infections.
2. Virus infections have proved difficult to treat
because they MULTIPLE RESPONSE
a. have a protein coat. Select all that apply.
b. inject themselves into human cells to survive
and to reproduce. 1. When explaining to a client the reasoning behind
c. are bits of RNA or DNA. using combination therapy in the treatment of HIV,
d. easily resist drug therapy. the nurse would include which of the following
points?
3. Naturally occurring substances that are released a. The virus can remain dormant within the T cell
in the body in response to viral invasion are called for a very long time; it can mutate while in the T
a. antibodies. cell.
b. immunoglobulins. b. Adverse effects of many of the drugs used to
c. interferons. treat this virus include immunosuppression, so the
d. interleukins. disease could become worse.
c. The drugs are cheaper if used in combination.
4. Herpes viruses cause a broad range of d. The virus slowly mutates with each
conditions but have not been identified as the generation.
causative agent in e. Attacking the virus at many points in its life
a. cold sores. cycle has been shown to be most effective.
b. shingles. f. Research has shown that using only one type
c. genital infections. of drug that targeted only one point in the virus life
d. leprosy. cycle led to more mutations and more difficulty in
controlling the disease.
5. Which of the following would be an important
teaching point for the patient receiving an agent to 2. Appropriate nursing diagnoses related to drug
treat herpes virus or CMV? therapy for a patient receiving combination antiviral
a. Stop taking the drug as soon as the lesions therapy for the treatment of HIV infection would
have disappeared. include the following:
b. Sexual intercourse is fine—as long as you are a. Disturbed sensory perception (kinesthetic)
taking the drug, you are not contagious. related to the CNS effects of the drugs
c. Drink plenty of fluids to decrease the drug’s b. Imbalanced nutrition: More than body
toxic effects on the kidneys. requirements related to appetite stimulation
d. There are few if any associated GI adverse c. Heart failure related to cardiac effects of the
effects. drugs
d. Adrenal insufficiency related to endocrine
6. HIV selectively enters which of the following effects of the drugs
cells? e. Acute pain related to GI, CNS, or
a. B clones dermatological effects of the drugs
b. Helper T cells f. Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy
c. Suppressor T cells
d. Cytotoxic T cells

7. Nursing interventions for the patient receiving

antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV probably
would include
a. monitoring renal and hepatic function
periodically during therapy.