اسئله مقابلات ميكانيكا الجزء الاول

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1. What is Engineering Mechanics?
a) Study of bodies under motion without considering forces

b) Application of mechanics to issues involving common engineering aspects
c) Study of bodies only under rest
d) Study of bodies only under motion
Answer:b
Explanation: The application of mechanics to issues involving common engineering
aspects is known as engineering mechanics. The purpose of the Engineering Mechanics
course is to expose students to mechanics problems as they are applied to realistic
circumstances.
2. What is Mechanics?
a) Branch of science which deals with failure analysis

b) Branch of science which deals with conditions of rest or motion of bodies
c) Branch of science which deals with the study of bodies only under rest
d) Branch of science which deals with the study of bodies only under motion
Answer: b
Explanation: The branch of physics that deals with how the action of force affects material bodies or the
functional aspects of activity are known as mechanics. The distance takes an automobile traveling at 30
mph to come to a complete stop is an illustration of mechanics.
3. Which of the following is a branch of mechanics?
a) Statics and kinetics

b) Statics and dynamics
c) Kinematics and dynamics
d) Kinetics and kinematics
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two branches of mechanics they are statics and dynamics. Statics deals with the
study of bodies at rest. Dynamics deals with the study of bodies under motion.
Page 1 of 80
1) Which of the following is a power transmitting element?

a. Nuts and bolts
b. Sprockets and chains
c. Axles
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Sprockets and chains
2) Machine elements such as bearings are _________

a. holding type elements
b. supporting type elements
c. power transmitting elements
d. all of the above
ANSWER: supporting type elements
3) The shaft directly connected to the power source is called as ______

a. line shaft
b. counter shaft
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: line shaft
4) Which of the following is a machine shaft?

a. Line shaft
b. Counter shaft
c. Crankshaft
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Crankshaft
5) Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Axles are used to transmit power
b. Shafts and axles are rotating elements
c. Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power
6) Which flat belt drive system has two pulleys mounted on driven shaft and one pulley
on driving shaft?
a. Multiple belt drive
b. Cone pulley drive
c. Fast and loose pulley drive
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Fast and loose pulley drive
Page 2 of 80
7) Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?

1. Belt drive is used in applications having constant speed drive
2. Belt drives can be used at extremely high speeds
3. Belt drives have low power transmitting capacity
4. Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4
8) Determine
power rating of an electric motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line
shaft transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume Reduction ratio = 1.6
a. 10.36 kW
b. 11.3 kW
c. 7.068 kW
d. 9.12 kW
ANSWER: 7.068 kW
9) In simple
gear trains the direction of rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear only if______
a. even number of idler gears are present
b. odd number of idler gears are present
ANSWER: even number of idler gears are present
10) Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?

a. To obtain minimum centre distance between driving and driven shaft
b. To have required direction of rotation
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: To have required direction of rotation
11) The process

of creating mechanisms and shapes of mechanical elements for a machine
to get the desired output for a given input is called as ___
a. analysis
b. innovation
c. synthesis
d. designing
ANSWER: synthesis
Page 3 of 80
12) Which of the following is not a reason to design and redesign a product?
a. Optimum design
b. Innovation
c. Appearance
ANSWER: None of the above
13) In design process, which process is followed after selecting the material?
a. Selecting factor of safety
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis of forces
d. Determining mode of failure
ANSWER: Determining mode of failure
14) Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?

a. Ergonomics
b. Aesthetics
c. System design
d. Creative design
ANSWER: Aesthetics
15) The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____

1. decrease physical stresses
2. make user adapt to the machine
3. make machine fit for the user
4. improve appearance of the product
a. only 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4
ANSWER: 1 and 3
16) Hardness of a material enables it to resist _______

a. abrasion
b. penetration
c. plastic deformation
d. all of the above
ANSWER: all of the above
Page 4 of 80
17) The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is

called as
a. Resilience
b. Creep
c. Fatigue
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Creep
18) Which of the following ferrous alloys can be casted into intricate shapes?
a. Plain carbon steels
b. Alloy steels
c. Cast irons
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Cast irons
19) Which of the following is not a property of copper alloy?

a. High electrical conductivity
b. High thermal conductivity
c. High strength
ANSWER: High strength
20) What is the percentage of carbon in plain carbon steel?

a. 60 to 80%
b. Less than 1.7%
c. Less than 7%
ANSWER: Less than 1.7%
21) What are the minimum number of kinematic pairs required in a kinematic
chain?
a. 2 kinematic pairs
b. 3 kinematic pairs
c. 4 kinematic pairs
ANSWER: 4 kinematic pairs
Page 5 of 80
22) According to Grashof’s law in a four bar chain, one link can complete a
rotation only if ________
a. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≥ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
b. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
c. (sum of longest and shortest link length) = (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
ANSWER: (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
23) Beam engine mechanism is an example of

a. double crank mechanism
b. double lever mechanism
c. crank and lever mechanism
ANSWER: crank and lever mechanism
24) Which of the

following inversions of four bar chain, convert oscillatory motion from
one lever to another lever?
a. Ackermann steering gear mechanism
b. Beam engine mechanism
c. Coupled wheels of locomotive
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ackermann steering gear mechanism
25) In the slider crank mechanism shown below, link 2 is fixed. This second
inversion of slider crank mechanism is observed in ______
a. Reciprocating air compressor

b. I. C. engine
c. Whitworth quick return mechanism
d. Crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism
ANSWER: Whitworth quick return mechanism
Page 6 of 80
26) Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

a. Honing
b. Buffing
c. Lapping
d. Turning
ANSWER: Turning
27) Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the
correct option.
1. Metal forming ————————————– A. Grinding
2. Surface finish ————————————— B. Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working ——————————- C. Extrusion
4. Metal joining —————————————-D. Blanking
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
ANSWER: 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
28) Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?

a. Blow holes
b. Gas cavities
c. Non-metallic incursions
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
29) In which of
the following processes, material is neither added nor removed but is
deformed into desired shape?
a. Surface finishing process
b. Metal forming process
c. Casting
d. Machining
ANSWER: Metal forming process
Page 7 of 80
30) Which of the following component(s) is/are manufactured by powder

metallurgy processes?
a. Gears
b. Cutting tools
c. Bearing bushes
d. All of the above
1) Which of the following statements is/are true for alloy steels?

a. They contain carbon more than 1.7%
b. They are ductile
c. They have low resilience and toughness
d. All of the above
ANSWER: They are ductile
2) Which of the following is a ferrous alloy?
a. Brass
b. Aluminum alloys
c. Cast steel
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Cast steel
3) Copper when alloyed with zinc is known as
a. Brass
b. Bronze
c. Babbits
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Brass
Page 8 of 80
4) The plastic materials which do not undergo chemical change when

heated are ____
a. Thermoplasts
b. Thermosets
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Thermoplasts
5) Which of the following is a characteristic of Polytetra-flouro-

ethylene?
a. High coefficient of friction

b. Tough at high temperature
c. Resistance to chemical attack
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Resistance to chemical attack
6) Which of the following statements is/are true for mechanisms?
a. A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed
b. Three kinematic links joined together forms a mechanism
c. Kinematic chain is a part of kinematic pair
d. All of the above
ANSWER: A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed
Page 9 of 80
7) Which body transmits force with negligible deformation?
a. Elastic body
b. Resistant body
c. Deforming body
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Resistant body
8) What is the primary function of mechanism?
a. Power transmission
b. Power absorption
c. Force transmission
d. Motion transmission
ANSWER: Motion transmission
9) Which of the following is an inversion of four bar chain?
a. Coupled wheels of locomotive

b. Whitworth quick return mechanism
c. Reciprocating air compressor
d. Hand pump
ANSWER: Coupled wheels of locomotive
Page 10 of 80
10) What are the number of sliding and turning pairs in a slider crank
mechanism?
a. 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

b. 2 sliding pairs and 2 turning pairs
c. 3 sliding pairs and 1 turning pair
ANSWER: 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs
11) What is meant by drag in casting process?
a. Upper part of casting flask

b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
d. Upper and lower part of casting flask
ANSWER: Lower part of casting flask
12) Casting replica used to make the cavity is called as
a. Mould
b. Pattern
c. Cope
ANSWER: Pattern
Page 11 of 80
13) The process of joining similar or dissimilar materials by heating

them below 450o C using non-ferrous filler material is called as ______
a. Brazing
b. Soldering
c. Welding
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Soldering
14) At forging temperature when a compressive force is applied on the

material, it deforms
a. elastically in the direction of least resistance

b. elastically in the direction of maximum resistance
c. plastically in the direction of least resistance
d. plastically in the direction of maximum resistance
ANSWER: plastically in the direction of least resistance
15) What is the average temperature required for hot forging of

aluminium alloys?
a. 1100 oC to 1200 oC
b. 350 oC to 525 oC
c. 2000 oC to 2500 oC
ANSWER: 350 oC to 525 oC
Page 12 of 80
16) Which process squeezes metals into peaks and troughs with plastic
deformation?
a. Grooving
b. Knurling
c. Reaming
ANSWER: Knurling
17) Which of the following operations is/are performed on a lathe

machine?
a. Spot-facing
b. Parting
c. Reaming
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Parting
18) The process of chamfering the entrance of a drilled hole is known

as_____
a. counter-boring
b. counter-sinking
c. counter-fillet
d. trepanning
ANSWER: counter-sinking
Page 13 of 80
19) On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming?
a. Enlargement of existing hole

b. Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
20) Which of the following statements is/are false for machine tools?
1. Pillar drilling machine drills holes up to 75 mm

2. Regulating wheel is a component of surface grinding machine
3. Sensitive drilling machine is also known as bench drilling machine
4. The chuck of an internal grinding machine placed in tailstock is driven
by an electric motor
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. All of the above
ANSWER: 2 and 4
21) The radiation pyrometers work on the principle of ______
a. Newton’s law
b. Stefan Boltzmann’s law
c. Zeroth law
ANSWER: Stefan Boltzmann’s law
Page 14 of 80
22) Which of the following relations depict relation between Celsius

and Fahrenheit scale?
a. (oC / 5) = (oF – 32) / 9

b. (oC / 9) = (oF – 32) / 5
c. (oC / 32) = (oF – 9) / 5
ANSWER: (oC / 5) = (oF – 32) / 9
23) According to Joule’s law, the internal energy of a perfect gas is the
function of absolute ______
a. density
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. volume
ANSWER: temperature
24) According to
Kelvin-Planck statement, it is impossible to construct a device
operating on a cycle which transfers heat from ____
a. low pressure heat reservoir to high pressure reservoir

b. low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir
c. high pressure heat reservoir to low pressure reservoir
d. high temperature heat reservoir to low temperature reservoir
ANSWER: low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir
Page 15 of 80
25) Which of the following relations is true, for coefficient of

performance (C.O.P)?
a. (C.O.P) heat pump – (C.O.P) refrigerator = 1

b. (C.O.P) heat pump – (C.O.P) refrigerator > 1
c. (C.O.P) heat pump – (C.O.P) refrigerator < 1
d. (C.O.P) heat pump – (C.O.P) refrigerator = 0
ANSWER: (C.O.P) heat pump – (C.O.P) refrigerator = 1
26) Thermal efficiency of S.I. engines is low, due to ____
a. low compression ratio

b. high compression ratio
c. medium compression ratio
d. none
ANSWER: low compression ratio
27) Pump transfers input mechanical energy of an engine, into ______
a. pressure energy of a fluid

b. kinetic energy of a fluid
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: both a. and b.
Page 16 of 80
28) Which of the following protects penstock due to sudden variation of

flow or velocity of water?
a. Anchors
b. Forebays
c. Trash rack
d. Surge tank
ANSWER: Surge tank
29) One ton of refrigeration is equal to ______
a. 120 B Th U/hr.
b. 200 B Th U/hr.
c. 1200 B Th U/hr.
d. 12000 B Th U/hr.
ANSWER: 12000 B Th U/hr.
30) What is the function of a moderator?
a. Increases the speed of neutrons

b. Increases the speed of electrons
c. Reduces the speed of neutrons
d. Reduces the speed of electrons
ANSWER: Reduces the speed of neutrons
Page 17 of 80
1) Which of the following is a power transmitting element?

a. Nuts and bolts
b. Sprockets and chains
c. Axles
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Sprockets and chains
2) Machine elements such as bearings are _________

a. holding type elements
b. supporting type elements
c. power transmitting elements
d. all of the above
ANSWER: supporting type elements
3) The shaft directly connected to the power source is called as ______

a. line shaft
b. counter shaft
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: line shaft
4) Which of the following is a machine shaft?

a. Line shaft
b. Counter shaft
c. Crankshaft
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Crankshaft
5) Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Axles are used to transmit power
b. Shafts and axles are rotating elements
c. Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power
Page 18 of 80
6) Which flat belt drive system has two pulleys mounted on driven shaft and one
pulley on driving shaft?
a. Multiple belt drive
b. Cone pulley drive
c. Fast and loose pulley drive
ANSWER: Fast and loose pulley drive
7) Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?

1. Belt drive is used in applications having constant speed drive
2. Belt drives can be used at extremely high speeds
3. Belt drives have low power transmitting capacity
4. Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4
8) Determine
power rating of an electric motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line
shaft transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume Reduction ratio = 1.6
a. 10.36 kW
b. 11.3 kW
c. 7.068 kW
d. 9.12 kW
ANSWER: 7.068 kW
9) In simple
gear trains the direction of rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear only if______
a. even number of idler gears are present
b. odd number of idler gears are present
ANSWER: even number of idler gears are present
Page 19 of 80
10) Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?

a. To obtain minimum centre distance between driving and driven shaft
b. To have required direction of rotation
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: To have required direction of rotation
11) The process of creating mechanisms and shapes of mechanical elements for
a machine to get the desired output for a given input is called as ___
a. analysis
b. innovation
c. synthesis
d. designing
ANSWER: synthesis
12) Which of the following is not a reason to design and redesign a product?
a. Optimum design
b. Innovation
c. Appearance
13) In design process, which process is followed after selecting the material?
a. Selecting factor of safety
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis of forces
d. Determining mode of failure
ANSWER: Determining mode of failure
14) Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?

a. Ergonomics
b. Aesthetics
c. System design
d. Creative design
ANSWER: Aesthetics
Page 20 of 80
15) The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____

1. decrease physical stresses
2. make user adapt to the machine
3. make machine fit for the user
4. improve appearance of the product
a. only 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4
ANSWER: 1 and 3
16) Hardness of a material enables it to resist _______

a. abrasion
b. penetration
c. plastic deformation
d. all of the above
17) The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is

called as
a. Resilience
b. Creep
c. Fatigue
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Creep
18) Which of the following ferrous alloys can be casted into intricate shapes?
a. Plain carbon steels
b. Alloy steels
c. Cast irons
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Cast irons
19) Which of the following is not a property of copper alloy?

a. High electrical conductivity
b. High thermal conductivity
c. High strength
ANSWER: High strength
Page 21 of 80
20) What is the percentage of carbon in plain carbon steel?

a. 60 to 80%
b. Less than 1.7%
c. Less than 7%
ANSWER: Less than 1.7%
21) What are the minimum number of kinematic pairs required in a kinematic
chain?
a. 2 kinematic pairs
b. 3 kinematic pairs
c. 4 kinematic pairs
ANSWER: 4 kinematic pairs
22) According to Grashof’s law in a four bar chain, one link can complete a
rotation only if ________
a. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≥ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
b. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
c. (sum of longest and shortest link length) = (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
ANSWER: (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining
two link lengths)
23) Beam engine mechanism is an example of

a. double crank mechanism
b. double lever mechanism
c. crank and lever mechanism
ANSWER: crank and lever mechanism
24) Which of the

following inversions of four bar chain, convert oscillatory motion from
one lever to another lever?
a. Ackermann steering gear mechanism
b. Beam engine mechanism
c. Coupled wheels of locomotive
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ackermann steering gear mechanism
Page 22 of 80
25) In the
slider crank mechanism shown below, link 2 is fixed. This second
inversion of slider crank mechanism is observed in ______
a. Reciprocating air compressor

b. I. C. engine
c. Whitworth quick return mechanism
d. Crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism
ANSWER: Whitworth quick return mechanism
26) Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

a. Honing
b. Buffing
c. Lapping
d. Turning
ANSWER: Turning
27) Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the
correct option.
1. Metal forming ————————————– A. Grinding
2. Surface finish ————————————— B. Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working ——————————- C. Extrusion
4. Metal joining —————————————-D. Blanking
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
ANSWER: 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
28) Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?

a. Blow holes
b. Gas cavities
c. Non-metallic incursions
d. All of the above
Page 23 of 80
29) In which of
the following processes, material is neither added nor removed but is
deformed into desired shape?
a. Surface finishing process
b. Metal forming process
c. Casting
d. Machining
ANSWER: Metal forming process
30) Which of the following component(s) is/are manufactured by powder

metallurgy processes?
a. Gears
b. Cutting tools
c. Bearing bushes
d. All of the above
1) Shear stress in a turbulent flow is given by the formula

τ = η (du / dy)
Where η (eta) is,
a. eddy viscosity
b. apparent viscosity
c. virtual viscosity
d. all of the above
2) Magnitude of eddy viscosity for laminar flow is

a. less than zero
b. zero
c. greater than zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
3) Kinematic eddy viscosity (ε) is the ratio of

a. eddy viscosity (η) to dynamic viscosity (μ)
b. eddy viscosity (η) to kinematic viscosity (ν)
c. kinematic viscosity to eddy viscosity (η)
d. eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)
ANSWER: eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)
Page 24 of 80
4) Friction factor for laminar flow is given by

a. (Re /64)
b. (64 / Re)
c. (Re / 16)
d. (16 / Re)
ANSWER: (64 / Re)
5) What is temporal mean velocity?

a. The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time
b. The average of velocities of a single particle over different locations in a fluid flow
c. None of the abov
ANSWER: The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time
6) The friction factor in fluid flowing through pipe depends upon

a. Reynold’s number
b. relative roughness of pipe surface
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: both a. and b.
7) What is the effect of change in Reynold’s number on friction factor in

turbulent flow?
a. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor increases in turbulent flow
b. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in turbulent flow
c. change in Reynold’s number does not affect the friction factor in turbulent flow
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in
turbulent flow
8) What is the formula for determining the size of equivalent pipe for two pipes
of lengths L1, L2 and diameters d1, d2 respectively?
Where, L = L1 + L2
a. (L / d) = (L1 / d1) + (L2 / d2)
b. (L / d2 ) = (L1 / d12) + (L2 / d22)
c. (L / d3) = (L1 / d13 ) + (L2 / d23)
d. (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)
ANSWER: (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)
Page 25 of 80
9) What is a syphon?
a. A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a higher level to another
reservoir at a lower level when two reservoirs are separated by a hill
b. A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a lower level to another
reservoir at a higher level with some work input when two reservoirs are separated by a
hill
c. A long bend pipe used to carry water from one reservoir to another reservoir when
two reservoirs are at same elevation
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a higher level to another
reservoir at a lower level when two reservoirs are separated by a hill
10) The highest point of syphon is called as
a. syphon top
b. summit
c. reservoir
ANSWER: summit
11) Match the following physical quantities in Group 1 with their dimensions in
Group 2.
1. Work done (Energy) (W) —————————– A. [M L 2 T – 3 ]
2. Power (P) ———————————————— B. [M L – 1 T – 1 ]
3. Momentum (M) —————————————- C. [M L 2 T – 2 ]
4. Modulus of elasticity (E) —————————– D. [M L T – 1 ]
5. Dynamic viscosity (μ) ——————————— E. [M L – 1 T – 2 ]
a. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
b. 1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
c. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(E), 4-(B), 5-(D)
d. 1-(D), 2-(E), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(C)
ANSWER: 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
12) Which of the following equations is not dimensionally homogeneous?

Consider standard symbols for quantities.
a. (Force) F = m x a
b. (Head Loss due to friction) hf = (f L V2) / (2 g d)
c. (Torque) T = F x Distance
Page 26 of 80
13) Which of the following is a dimensionless equation?

a. Reynold’s equation
b. Euler’s equation
c. Weber’s equation
d. All of the above
14) Which of the

following number is applicable in open hydraulic structure such as
spillways, where gravitational force is predominant?
a. Reynold’s Number
b. Euler’s Number
c. Weber’s Number
d. Froude’s Number
ANSWER: Froude’s Number
15) Square root of the ratio of inertia force to elastic force is called as
a. Mach’s Number
b. Cauchy’s Number
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Both a. and b.
16) Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the boundary to the point
where velocity of the fluid is
a. equal to 10% of free stream velocity
b. equal to 50% of free stream velocity
c. equal to 90% of free stream velocity
d. equal to 99% of free stream velocity
ANSWER: equal to 99% of free stream velocity
17) The component of the total force exerted by fluid on a body in the direction
parallel to the direction of motion is called as
a. lift
b. drag
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: drag
Page 27 of 80
18) The sum of components of shear forces in the direction of flow of fluid is
called as
a. shear drag
b. friction drag
c. skin drag
d. all of the above
19) The body whose surface does not coincide with the streamline when places
in a flow is called as
a. streamline body
b. wave body
c. bluff body
d. induced body
ANSWER: bluff body
20) Which type of body is an airfoil?

a. streamline body
b. wave body
c. bluff body
d. induced body
ANSWER: streamline body
21) Bulk modulus is the ratio of

a. shear stress to volumetric strain
b. volumetric strain to shear stress
c. compressive stress to volumetric strain
d. volumetric strain to compressive stress
ANSWER: compressive stress to volumetric strain
22) When is a liquid said to be not in a boiling or vaporized state?

a. If the pressure on liquid is equal to its vapor pressure
b. If the pressure on liquid is less than its vapor pressure
c. If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapor pressure
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapor pressure
Page 28 of 80
23) One litre of a certain fluid weighs 8N. What is its specific volume?
a. 2.03 x 10– 3 m3/kg
b. 20.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
c. 12.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
d. 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg
ANSWER: 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg
24) What is the correct formula for absolute pressure?

a. Pabs = Patm – Pgauge
b. Pabs = Pvacuum – Patm
c. Pabs = Pvacuum + Patm
d. Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge
ANSWER: Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge
25) According to Archimede’s principle, if a body is immersed partially or fully in

a fluid then the buoyancy force is _______ the weight of fluid displaced by the
body.
a. equal to
b. less than
c. more than
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: equal to
1. Work study is concerned with

(a) improving present method and finding standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d
Page 29 of 80
3. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study

(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
4. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study

(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
Ans: c
5. What does symbol ‘V’ employ in work study

(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
Ans: d
6. Material handling in automobile industry

is done by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
Page 30 of 80
7. String diagram is used when

(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
Ans: a
8. Work study is most useful

(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Ans: a
9. Micro motion study is

(a) enlarged view of motion study
(b) analysis of one stage of motion study
(c) minute and detailed motion study
(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
(e) motion study of small components upto mirco-seconds.
Ans: d
10. In micro motion study, therblig is described by

(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and color.
Ans: e
Page 31 of 80
11. The allowed time for a job equals

standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
12. Micro motion study involves following number of fundamental hand otions
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 24
Ans: c
13. The standard time for a job is

(a) total work content
(b) base time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay contingency allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d
14. Work study is done with the help of

(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
Ans: c
15. Scheduling gives information about

(a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a
certain period
Page 32 of 80
(b) when work should complete

(c) that how idle time can be minimized
(d) proper utilization of machines
Ans: a
16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on

(a) operator’s activity
(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
(c) minimizing the delays
(d) making efficient dispatching
Ans: b
17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a
18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the

(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker
(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a
19. Micro motion study is

(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a
timing device in the field of view
(b) motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
Page 33 of 80
(e) scientific, analytically procedure for determining optimum work method.

Ans: a
20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by

(a) work sampling
(b) time study
(c) method study
(d) work study
(e) ABC analysis.
Ans: a
21. TMU in method time measurement stands for

(a) time motion unit
(b) time measurement unit
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit
(e) time method unit.
Ans: b
22. Time study is

(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
(b) machine setting time
(c) time taken by workers to do a job
(d) method of fixing time for workers
(e) method of determining the personnel Requirement.
Ans: a
23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

(a) detailed calculations
(b) convenience
(c) table of random numbers
(d) past experience
(e) fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c
Page 34 of 80
24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system
equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths
of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
Ans: b
26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for

(a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
(c) designing a work method
(d) providing a schematic framework
(e) reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e
27. Gnatt chart provides information about the

(a) material handling
(b) proper utilization of manpower
(c) production schedule
(d) efficient working of machine
Ans: c
Page 35 of 80
28. ABC analysis deals with

(a) analysis of process chart
(b) flow of material
(c) ordering schedule of job
(d) controlling inventory costs money
Ans: d
29. Process layout is employed for

(a) batch production
(b) continuous type of product
(c) effective utilization of machines
Ans: a
30. For a product layout the material

handling equipment must
(a) have full flexibility
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c) be a general purpose type
(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application
(e) arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
Ans: d
31. Travel charts provide

(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various
work sections
(c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling
equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a
particular station
(g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.

Ans: b
Page 36 of 80
32. Product layout is employed for

(b) continuous production
(c) effective utilization of machine
Ans: b
33. The most important objective behind plant layout is

(a) overall simplification, safety of integration
(b) economy in space
(c) maximum travel time in plant
(d) to provide conveniently located shops
(e) to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a
34. The process layout is best suited where

(a) specialization exists
(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
(c) few number of non-standardized units are to be produced
(d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
Ans: c
35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following

(a) product layout
(b) functional layout
(c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialization of operation
(e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Ans: a
Page 37 of 80
36. Military organization is known as

(a) line organization
(b) line and staff organization
(c) functional organization
Ans: a
37. The main disadvantage of line organization is

(a) top level executives have to do excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
Ans: d
38. The main advantage of line organization is its

(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all levels
(c) rigid discipline in the organization
(d) ability of quick decision at all levels
Ans: e
39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system

of working known as
(d) effective organization
Ans: c
40. The salient feature of functional organisation is

(a) strict adherence to specification
(b) separation of planning and design part
Page 38 of 80
(c) each individual maintains functional efficiency

(d) work is properly planned and distributed
Ans: e
41. The most popular type of organization used for Civil Engineering
Constructions is
(d) effective organization
Ans: a
42. Templates are used for

(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programmed in automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
Ans: a
43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
Ans: d
44. Routing prescribes the

(a) flow of material in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
Page 39 of 80

Ans: a
45. Queuing theory deals with problems of

(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man services
(d) effective use of machines
Ans: b
46. Standard time is defined as

(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time + allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an operation
Ans: a
47. Father of industrial engineering is

(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
Ans: b
48. The grouping of activities into organizational units is called

(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmental
(e) company policy.
Ans: d
Page 40 of 80
49. Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry

(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line and staff organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d
50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants
(a) functional organization
(b) line organization
(c) staff organization
(d) line, staff and functional organizations
(e) scalar organization.
Ans: d
51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following
method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
52. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast

(a) productivity
(b) inventory control
(c) production planning
(d) production control
(e) capital budgeting.
Ans: a
Page 41 of 80
53. Gnatt charts are used for

(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
Ans: b
54. Inventory management consists of

(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods of storing
and maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
Ans: d
55. Gantt charts provide information about

(a) breakeven point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b
56. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at

(a) achieving optimization
(b) ensuring against market fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at low
capital investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c
Page 42 of 80
57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the

(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
Ans: a
58. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of

(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
Ans: c
59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

(a) management
(b) labor court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c
60. Under the Apprenticeship Act

(a) all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
(c) all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
(d) only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit
apprentices
(e) all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Ans: d
61. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to

(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and thermal power plants
Page 43 of 80
(c) only major industries

(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e
62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in

(b) job production
(c) mass production
Ans: c
63. The technique of value analysis can be applied to

(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash programmer items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e
64. The term ‘value’ in value engineering refers to

(a) total cost of the product
(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the product
(e) depreciation value.
Ans: c
65. Value engineering aims at finding out the

(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost
without change in quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires hange
Page 44 of 80
(e) selling price of an item.

Ans: c
66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches
its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new
one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(CAM = Challenger’s Adverse minimum DAM = Defender’s Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of

(a) a job
(b) an individual employee
(c) a particular division in workshop
(d) machine
(e) overall quality.
Ans: b
69. Material handling and plant location is analysed by

(a) Gnatt chart
(b) bin chart
(c) Emerson chart
(d) travel chart
Page 45 of 80
(e) activity chart.

Ans: d
70. Works cost implies

(a) primary cost
(b) factory cost
(c) factory expenses
(d) primary cost + factory expenses
Ans: d
71. Motion study involves analysis of

(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
Ans: a
72. Standard time as compared to normal time is

(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) there is no such correlation
Ans: a
73. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling

(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are generally needed
(e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining
misleading results are less.
Ans: a
Page 46 of 80
74. In which of the following layouts, the

lines need to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production

(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(d) plant layout
Ans: b
76. Which of the following layouts is suited

to job production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(d) plant layout
Ans: a
77. The employees provident fund act is applicable to

(a) all industries
(b) all industries other than small and medium industries
(c) volunteers
(d) the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.
Ans: d
Page 47 of 80
78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees
provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalized bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
79. The deductions for, employees provident fund start

(a) immediately on joining the service
(b) after 60 days of joining the service
(c) after 100 days of joining the service
(d) after 240 days of joining the service
(e) after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d
80. Father of time study was

(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a
81. Tick the odd man out

(a) Taylor
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d
Page 48 of 80
82. Current assets include

(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
Ans: a
83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a
job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
84. Job enrichment technique is applied to

(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and demotivating work
(c) make people happy
Ans: d
85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(d) plant layout
Ans: c
Page 49 of 80
86. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards

are established
(a) by time study
(b) from previous production records
(c) from one’s judgement
Ans: b
87. Routing is essential in the following type of industry

(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
88. An optimum project schedule implies

(a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Ans: b
89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are

concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queuing theory
(e) tnaterial handling.
Ans: c
Page 50 of 80
90. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan?

(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Beaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
Ans: b
92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is

(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
93. ‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as

(a) purchase value
(b) salable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e
Page 51 of 80
94. Break-even analysis can be used for

(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
(d) there is no such criterion
Ans: a
95. CPM has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate
(b) two-time estimate
(c) three-time estimate
(d) four-time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a
96. PERT has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate
(b) two-time estimate
(c) three-time estimate
(d) four-time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: c
97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group

incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in
addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
Ans: b
Page 52 of 80
98. Which of the following incentive plans re ensures a part of the swing to the
worker and rest to the employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan

(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d
100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium

on time saved by workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson’s plan
(e) Taylor’s plan.
Ans: c
101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid
to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This
type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
Page 53 of 80
102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that

(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker

receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S =

standard time, then wages will be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan,
his maximum daily earnings can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
Page 54 of 80
106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to

(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) those x items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mess.
Ans: d
107. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Beaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources
in an optimum manner is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
109. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results

(a) relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
Ans: c
Page 55 of 80
110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to

industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
Ans: e
111. The simplex method is the basic method for

(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
Ans: c
112. The two-bin system is concerned with

(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) dispatching and expediting
Ans: a
113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to
the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is
known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
Page 56 of 80
114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:

(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e
115. String diagram is used

(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to
another
Ans: d
116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be
charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the
rate of depreciation every year remains constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
117. Bin card is used in

(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c) foundry shop
(d) stores
(e) assembly shop.
Ans: d
Page 57 of 80
118. Slack represents the difference between the

(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(c) proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b
119. PERT and CPM are

(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e
120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e
121. CPM is the

(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: c
Page 58 of 80
122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include

(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
123. Work study comprises following main techniques

(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a
124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others

(a) organization performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e) performance x resources
Ans: a
125. PERT is the

(a) time-oriented technique
(b) event-oriented technique
(c) activity-oriented technique
(d) target-oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: b
Page 59 of 80
126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that

(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d
127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
(b) project examination and review technique
(c) project evaluation and reporting technique
(d) process execution and reporting technology
(e) project execution and results technique.
Ans: a
128. Queuing theory is used for

(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
Ans: d
129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and
analysed mathematically if
(a) complete details of items in, waiting line are known

(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting
line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the
arriving units are taken into source are known
Ans: d
Page 60 of 80
130. Queuing theory is associated with

(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c
131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue
should be that
(a) the average service rate Hess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
Ans: d
132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing
problems
(a) that can’t be analysed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
Ans: a
133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a
Page 61 of 80
134. A milestone chart

(a) shows the inter dependences of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
Ans: e
135. Bar charts are suitable for

(a) minor works
(b) major works
(c) large projects
Ans: a
136. The first method invented for planning projects was

(a) bar chart method
(b) milestone chart
(c) critical path method (CPM)
(d) programmed evaluation and review technique (PERT)
Ans: a
137. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
(b) programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
(c) critical path method is event oriented
(d) critical. Path method is not activity oriented
Ans: e
Page 62 of 80

(a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
(b) critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
(c) critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
(d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and
James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957
Ans: e
139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various activities
(b) required time for each activity is established
(c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
Ans: e
140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following

time of the critical activity meeting at the finalities
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
(d) late finish
Ans: a
141. The disadvantage of product layout is

(a) high initial investment for the specialized facilities
(b) skilled labor to operate machines
(c) production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
(d) high cost of inspection
(e) costly and complex production control.
Ans: a
Page 63 of 80
142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in

(a) job production
(b) automatic production
(c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production
Ans: d
143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance

(a) the flow of material in the plant
(b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower
(c) the methods of proper utilization of machines
(d) the layout of factory facilities
(e) normal route of workers through the plant.
Ans: c
144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as

(a) dummy
(b) event
(c) activity
(d) contract
Ans: c
145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

(a) an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
(b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
(c) the head of the arrow indicates the end of, the activity!
(d) the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
(e) each activity consumes a given time
Ans: d
Page 64 of 80
146. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be
started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known as
(a) event
(b) free float
(c) artificial
(d) constraint
(e) dummy.
Ans: e
147. A dummy activity

(a) is artificially introduced
(b) is represented by a dotted line
(c) does not require any time
Ans: d
148. If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS
and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following relation holds good
(a) EF=ES+D
(b) LS=LF-D
(c) LF = LS + D
(d) D = EF-ES
Ans: e
149. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time
required to do the job, is known as
(a) event
(b) float
(c) duration
(d) constraint
Ans: b
Page 65 of 80
150. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following

distribution
(a) normal
(b) binomial
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: c
151. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows

following distribution
(a) normal
(b) binomial
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: e
152. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s)
is equal to
(a) latest start time – earliest start time
(b) latest finish time – earliest finish time (EFT)
(c) TL-EFT
Ans: d
153. The critical activity has

(a) maximum float
(p) minimum float
(c) zero float,
(d) average float
(e) none of these.
Ans: c
Page 66 of 80
154. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without
affecting the start of succeeding activities, is Known as
(a) duration
(b) total float
(c) free float
(d) interfering float
Ans: c
155. The critical path of a network represents

(a) the minimum time required for completion of project
(b) the maximum time required for completion of project
(c) maximum cost required for completion of project
(d) minimum cost required for completion of project
Ans: a

(a) the float may be positive, zero or negative
(b) if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its
total float, the completion of project in not delayed
(c) if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to
delay the completion of project
(d) if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its
performance will delay the whole project
Ans: e
157. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
(a) positive value
(b) negative value
(c) zero value
(d) same value
Ans: c
Page 67 of 80
158. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer

(a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities
(b) to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical
activities
(c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay
of the whole project
Ans: d
159. Pick up the correct statement about relationship between various floats
(a) free float = total float
(b) independent float = total float
(c) independent float > free float
(d) free float > total float
(e) independent float < free float.
Ans: e
160. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is
known as
(a) normal time
(b) slow time
(c) crash time
(d) standard time
Ans: b
161. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the
various jobs of any project is known as
(a) event flow scheduling technique
(b) critical ratio scheduling
(c) slotting technique for scheduling
(d) short interval scheduling
Ans: b
Page 68 of 80
162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio
scheduling
(a) establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common
basis
(b) determines the status of each activity
(c) adjusts automatically changes in activityprogress
(d) is a dynamic system
Ans: e
163. PERT is
(a) an analytic tool in concept
(b) limit up of event oriented diagrams
(c) used for research and development projects
(d) based on three time estimates for
activities linking up two events
Ans: e
164. CPMis
(a) synthesising in concepts
(b) is built of activities oriented program-mes
(c) is, based on one time eytimate
(d) is used for repetitive works
Ans: e
165. A CPM family includes

(a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(c) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
Ans: e
Page 69 of 80
166. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications

(a) once through project
(b) maintenance jobs
(c) research and development
(d) all non-technical jobs
Ans: e
167. PERT analysis is based on

(a) optimistic time
(b) pessimistic time
(c) most likely time
Ans: d
168. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are

(a) consequential effects of lack in one activity on Omer
(b) consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
(c) free time available for an activity can’t be predicted
(d) effective monitoring/controlling can’t be done
Ans: e
169. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents

(a) an ordinary event
(b) a significant event representing some mile-stone
(c) an event to be transferred to other network chart
(d) dangling event
(e) dummy event.
Ans: a
Page 70 of 80
170. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart

means, it
(a) consumes time, but no resources
(b) consumes resources but no time
(c) consumes neither time nor resources
(d) is a dangling event
(e) consumes both resources and time.
Ans: c
171. Critical path on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
(a) maximum slack
(b) minimum slack
(c) average slack
(d) no slack
(e) judgement and experience.
Ans: b
172. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart

(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on various factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
173. The assumption in PERT is

(a) a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
(b) cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely
corrections are taken
(c) a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
(d) activities are fixed and can’t be changed ,
(e) commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.
Ans: c
Page 71 of 80
174. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented

by
(a) latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event
activity time
(b) latest start time of the event – earliest start time of the event
(c) latest finish time of event – earliest finish time of the event
(d) anyone of the above
Ans: d
175. The important file in making a PERT is

(a) an event can’t be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
(b) no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is
completed
(c) length of arrow has nothing to do with time
(d) every activity must be completed before end point is reached
Ans: e
176. An event is indicated on the network by

(a) a straight line
(b) a number enclosed in a circle or a square
(c) a straight line with circles at the ends
(d) a dotted line
(e) an arrow.
Ans: b
177. In a PERT chart

(a) all activities should be numbered
(b) only important activities should be numbered
(c) only critical activities are numbered
(d) only selected activities are numbered
(e) no activity is numbered.
Ans: a
Page 72 of 80
178. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is

(a) ahead of schedule
(b) beyond schedule
(c) as per schedule
(d) on critical path
Ans: a
179. Pessimistic time is

(a) the maximum time which an activity might require
(b) the average time required for a job
(c) the most probable time considering all conditions
(d) the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
(e) the earliest finish.
Ans: a
180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having

(a) +ve slack
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero sldck
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c
1. The ultimate strength of

steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of
(a) 1 : l
(b) 2:1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 2
Ans: c
2. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally
taken as
(a) 2000-3000 kg/pm2
Page 73 of 80
(b) 3000-4000 kg/cm2

(c) 4000-4500 kg/cm2
(d) 7500-10,000 kg/cm2
(e) 10,000-15,000 kg/cm2.
Ans: c
3. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high

impact loads is known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
(c) strength
(d) toughness
(e) resilience.
Ans: d
4. A hot short metal is

(a) brittle when cold
(b) brittle when hot
(c) brittle under all conditions
(d) ductile at high temperature
(e) hard when hot.
Ans: b
5. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: b
6. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
Page 74 of 80
(e) tough.
Ans: a
7. If an unsupported uniform cross sectional elastic bar is subjected to a

longitudinal impact from a rigid bob moving with velocity v, then a ompressive
wave of intensity sc is propagated through the bar as follows
(a) vpE
(b) vVvF
(c) WpE/2
(d) IvHpE
(e) none of the above, where E = modulus of elasticity and p = mass density.
Ans: a
8. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from

following hardness test
(a) Brinell
(b) Rockwell
(c) Vicker
(d) Shore’s sceleroscope
Ans: a
9. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

(a) combined loading
(b) fatigue
(c) thermal stresses
(d) wear and tear
(e) shock loading.
Ans: e
10. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end and loaded by a falling
weight at lower end, the shock load produced can be decreased by
(a) decreasing the cross-section area of’ bar
(b) increasing the cross-section area of bar
(c) remain unaffected with cross-section area
(d) would depend upon other factors
Page 75 of 80

Ans: a
11. Other method of reducing shock load in the above case can be
(a) to decrease length
(b) to increase length
(c) unaffected by length
(d) other factors would decide same
Ans: b
12. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; then the stress induced in

bar will
(a) be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
(b) increase with increase in y
(c) decrease with decrease in y
(d) depend on other considerations
Ans: a
13. Brittle coating technique is used for

(a) determining brittleness
(b) protecting metal against corrosion
(c) protecting metal against wear and tear
(d) experimental stress analysis
(e) non-destructive testing of metals.
Ans: d
14. Stress concentration is caused due to

(a) variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
(b) pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
(c) abrupt change of section
Ans: d
Page 76 of 80
15. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to

rough surface is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on quantum of load
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
16. Plastic flow in ductile materials

(a) increases the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(b) lessens the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(c) has no effect on it
(d) depends on other considerations
Ans: b
17. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular
transverse hole, as compared to its static stress without hole will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) 2 times more
(c) 3 times more
(d) 4 times more
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
18. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by

(a) electroplating
(b) polishing
(c) coating
(d) shot peening
(e) heat treating.
Ans: d
Page 77 of 80
19. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
20. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
21. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can
withstand for an infinite number of load applications without failure when
subjected to
(a) dynamic loading
(b) static loading
(c) combined static and dynamic loading
(d) completely reversed loading
Ans: d
22. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by

(a) cold working
(b) shot peeing
(c) grinding and lapping surface
(d) hot working
(e) using gradual changes of section.
Ans: d
Page 78 of 80
23. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the fatigue limit
(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) surface decarburization
(d) under-stressing
Ans: c
24. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

(a) metal strength by cycling
(b) metal hardness by surface treatment
(c) metal resistance to corrosion by coating
(d) fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by successively increasing loadings
Ans: d
25. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in static loading is

(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
Ans: a
26. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is

(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d
27. In Vicker’s hardness testing, the pyramid

indentor apex is
(a) 40°
(b) 122°
Page 79 of 80
(c) 136°
(d) 152°
(e) 161°.
Ans: c
28. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in cyclic loading is

(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
Ans: c
29. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to

(a) static load
(b) dynamic load
(c) impact load
(d) static as well as dynamic load
(e) completely reversed load.
Ans: e
30. If a material fails below its yield

point, failure would be due to
(a) straining
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) sudden loading
(e) impact loading.
Ans: b
Page 80 of 80

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#‫اﺳﺋﻠﮫ_ﻣﻘﺎﺑﻼت_ﻣﮭﻧدﺳﯾن_ﻣﯾﻛﺎﻧﯾﻛﺎ‬

1. What is Engineering Mechanics?

a) Study of bodies under motion without considering forces

a) Branch of science which deals with failure analysis

3. Which of the following is a branch of mechanics?

a) Statics and kinetics

1) Which of the following is a power transmitting element?

2) Machine elements such as bearings are _________

3) The shaft directly connected to the power source is called as ______

4) Which of the following is a machine shaft?

5) Which of the following statements is/are true?

7) Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?

ANSWER: even number of idler gears are present

10) Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?

ANSWER: To have required direction of rotation

11) The process

ANSWER: None of the above

ANSWER: Determining mode of failure

14) Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?

15) The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____

16) Hardness of a material enables it to resist _______

ANSWER: all of the above

17) The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is

ANSWER: Cast irons

19) Which of the following is not a property of copper alloy?

ANSWER: High strength

20) What is the percentage of carbon in plain carbon steel?

ANSWER: Less than 1.7%

ANSWER: 4 kinematic pairs

23) Beam engine mechanism is an example of

ANSWER: crank and lever mechanism

24) Which of the

ANSWER: Ackermann steering gear mechanism

a. Reciprocating air compressor

ANSWER: Whitworth quick return mechanism

26) Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

28) Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?

30) Which of the following component(s) is/are manufactured by powder

ANSWER: All of the above

1) Which of the following statements is/are true for alloy steels?

ANSWER: They are ductile

2) Which of the following is a ferrous alloy?

ANSWER: Cast steel

3) Copper when alloyed with zinc is known as

4) The plastic materials which do not undergo chemical change when

5) Which of the following is a characteristic of Polytetra-flouro-

a. High coefficient of friction

ANSWER: Resistance to chemical attack

6) Which of the following statements is/are true for mechanisms?

7) Which body transmits force with negligible deformation?

ANSWER: Resistant body

8) What is the primary function of mechanism?

ANSWER: Motion transmission

9) Which of the following is an inversion of four bar chain?

a. Coupled wheels of locomotive

ANSWER: Coupled wheels of locomotive

a. 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

ANSWER: 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

11) What is meant by drag in casting process?

a. Upper part of casting flask

ANSWER: Lower part of casting flask

12) Casting replica used to make the cavity is called as