ADAMA SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY UNIVERSITY

SCHOOL OF MECHANICAL, CHEMICAL, AND MATERIALS ENGINEERING

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

THEOERY OF MACHINES AND MECHANISMS

Practice Questions for Exit Exam

1. Which one of the following statements best defines mechanism?
a) It is a joint of two elements that permit relative motion.
b) It is a combination of rigid or restraining bodies, so shaped and connected that they
move upon each other with definite relative motion.
c) It is a resistant body or an assembly of resistant bodies which go to make a part or
parts of a machine connecting other parts which have motion relative to it.
d) All of the above
2. Which of the following is a false statement concerning differences between machine and
structure?
a) Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas structures transmit forces
b) In machines, relative motion exists between its members, whereas it does not exist in
the case of structures
c) Machines modify movement and work, whereas structures modify forces
d) The efficiency of machines, as well as structures, is below 100%
e) Machines are run by electric motors, but structures are not.
3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between a machine
and a structure?
a) The parts of a machine move relative to one another, whereas the members of a
structure do not move relative to one another
b) The links of a machine may transmit both power and motion, whereas the members of
a structure transmit forces only
c) A machine transforms the available energy into some useful work, whereas in a
structure no energy is transformed into useful work
d) All of the above
4. If the relative motions of the rigid bodies are in one plane or parallel planes, then the
mechanism is called
 a) Spherical mechanism
b) Planar mechanism
c) Spatial mechanism
d) Flexure mechanism
5. The degree of freedom of a body is equal to the number of independent coordinates
required to specify the movement.
a) True b) False
6. The purpose of a link is to
a) transmit motion
b) guide other links
c) act as a support
d) all of the above
e) None of the above.
7. Lower pairs are those which have
a) point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
b) surface contact between the two elements when in motion
c) elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
d) two elements that permit relative motion
8. Higher pairs are those which have
a) Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
b) Surface contact between the two elements when in motion
c) Elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
d) Two elements that permit relative motion
9. If there are L number of links in a mechanism, then possible number of inversions is
equal to
a) L +1 b) L -1 c) L d) L+2 e) None
10. Which of following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism?
a) Whitworth quick return mechanism
b) hand pump
c) oscillating cylinder engine
d) All of the above
11. In a 4 – bar linkage, if the lengths of shortest, longest and the other two links are denoted
by s, l, p and q, then which one of the condition result a Grashof’s linkage?
a) l + p < s + q b) l + s < p + q c) l + p = s + q d) none of these
12. The Grubler’s criterion for determining the degrees of freedom (n) of a mechanism
having plane motion is:
a) n = (l – 1) – j
b) n = 2 (l – 1) – 2j
c) n = 3 (l – 1) – 2j
d) n = 4 (l – 1) – 3j
Where l = number of links, and j = number of binary joints.
13. The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where,
l= number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)
a) n = 3(l - 1) - 2j – h
b) n = 2(l - 1) - 2j – h
c) n = 2(l - 1) - 3j – h
d) n = 3(l - 1) - 3j – h
14. What is the mobility of the given linkage?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
15. What is the mobility of the given linkage?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
16. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degrees of freedom (n) is equal to
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) – 1
17. __________ Mechanism is a crossed four bar chain mechanism in early steam engines to
guide the piston rod in a cylinder to have an approximate straight-line motion.
a) Chebychev’s
b) Watt’s
c) Peaucellier’s
d) Grasshopper
18. An exact straight line motion mechanism is a
a) Scott-Russell's Mechanism
b) b)Hart's Mechanism
c) Peaucellier's mechanism
d) All of these
19. For a Whitworth quick return motion mechanism β = 110°. Find the ratio of time of
cutting stroke to time of return stroke.
 a) 0.42
b) 0.44
c) 2.27
d) 2.37
20. In a Whitworth quick return mechanism, distance between the fixed centres is 30mm and
the length of the driving crank is 60 mm. The length of the slotted lever is 100 mm and
the length of the connecting rod is 85 mm. Find the ratio of time of cutting stroke to time
of return stroke.

a) 1.5
b) 2.5
c) 2
d) 1
21. The method of obtaining different mechanisms by fixing in turn different links in a
kinematic chain, is known as
a) Structure
b) Machine
c) Inversion
d) Compound mechanism
22. Consider the following mechanisms:
1. Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism
2. Toggle mechanism
3. Radial cylinder engine mechanism
4. Quick return mechanism
Which of the above are inversions of slider crank mechanism?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
23. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate
a) Sine Function
b) Square roots
c) Logarithms
d) Inversions
24. A negative degree of freedom for a mechanism means
a) Constrained motion mechanism
b) Unconstrained motion mechanism
c) Any motion
d) Statically indeterminate structure
25. When the two elements of a pair have a surface contact when relative motion takes place
and the surface of one element slides over the surface of the other, the pair formed is
known as a:
a) Lower pair
b) Higher pair
c) Self-closed pair
d) Force-closed pair
26. The Mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding pair, is called a
a) Single slider crank chain
b) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
c) Crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism
d) All of the above
27. What is the purpose of double Hooke’s joint?
a) Have constant linear velocity ratio of driver and driven shafts
b) Have constant acceleration ratio of driver and driven shafts
c) Have constant angular velocity ratio of driver and driven shafts
d) Have constant angular acceleration ratio of driver and driven shafts
28. Two shafts connected by a Hooke’s joint have an angle of 18 degrees between the axes.
Find the angle through which it should be turned to get the velocity ratio maximum.
a) 180
b) 30
c) 45
d) 90
29. When the load on the engine increases, it becomes necessary to increase the supply of
working fluid and when the load decreases, less working fluid is required. The supply of
the working fluid to the engine is controlled by a
a) D-slide valve
b) Governor
c) Meyer's expansion valve
d) Flywheel
30. What is the function of Governor used in automobile?
a) Decrease the variation of speed
b) Maximize the fuel economy
c) Limit the vehicle speed
d) Maintain constant engine speed
31. Effort of a governor is the
a) Work-done at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
b) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for a given percentage change of speed
 c) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
d) None of the above
32. Sensitiveness of the governor is defined as the ratio of the
a) Mean speed to the maximum equilibrium speed
b) Mean speed to the minimum equilibrium speed
c) Difference of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
d) Sum of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
33. If the ball masses of a governor have same equilibrium speed for all the radii of rotation,
it is said to be
a) Stable
b) Hunting
c) Isochronous
d) Sensitive
34. In horizontal governor, if the stiffness of spring in increased, the governor will
a) Become more sensitive
b) Become less sensitive
c) Remain affected
d) Start hunting
35. A flywheel is a device which controls
a) The mean speed of rotation of the engine shaft over a long period of time
b) The speed variation caused by cyclic fluctuation of energy
c) The fluctuation of energy over a long period
d) The fuel supply to control the mean speed of the engine shaft
36. Maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to [where I = Mass moment of
inertia of the flywheel, E = Maximum fluctuation of energy, CS = Coefficient of
fluctuation of speed, and ω = Mean angular speed = (ω₁ + ω₂)/2]
a) I.ω.(ω₁ - ω₂)
b) I.ω².CS
c) 2.E.CS
d) All of these
37. The co-efficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of the maximum fluctuation of
energy to the work done per cycle.
a) True
b) False
38. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) The difference between the maximum and minimum energies is called maximum
fluctuation of energy.
b) The co-efficient of fluctuation of speed is the ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed
to the mean speed.
c) The variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line is known as
fluctuation of energy.
d) None of the mentioned
39. A flywheel is fitted to the crankshaft of an engine having W as the amount of indicated
work per revolution and permissible limits of coefficient of fluctuation of energy and
speed as CE and CS respectively. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is given by
a) 2WCE/CS
b) WCE/2CS
c) WCE/CS
d) WCS/2CE
40. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel
whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the latter
at the same speed will be
a) four times the first one
b) same as the first one
c) one fourth of the first one
d) one and a half times the first one
41. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unaffected
d) None of the mentioned
42. A Hartnell governor is a
a) pendulum type governor
b) spring loaded governor
c) dead weight governor
d) inertia governor
43. The sensitiveness of a governor is given by
a) ωmean/(ω2 – ω1)
b) (ω2 – ω1)/ ωmean
c) (ω2 – ω1)/ 2ωmean
d) none of the mentioned
44. When the relation between the controlling force (FC) and radius of rotation (r) for a
spring controlled governor is FC = a.r + b, then the governor will be
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Isochronous
d) none of the mentioned
45. For a governor, if FC is the controlling force, r is the radius of rotation of the balls, the
stability of the governor will be ensured when
a) dFC /dr > FC/r
b) dFC /dr < FC /r
c) dFC /dr = 0
d) none of the mentioned
46. For a static balancing of a shaft,
a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero
 b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
47. For dynamic balancing of a shaft,
a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero
b) the net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
48. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes
a) the resultant force must be zero
b) the resultant couple must be zero
c) both the resultant force and couple must be zero
d) none of the above
49. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) In any engine, 100% of the reciprocating masses can be balanced dynamically
b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is
higher than the value of the primary force
c) In the case of balancing of multimass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be
directly started without static balancing done to the system
d) None of the above.
50. The primary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating parts in a reciprocating
engine is given by (where m = Mass of reciprocating parts, ω = Angular speed of
crank, r = Radius of crank, θ = Angle of inclination of crank with the line of stroke,
and n = Ratio of the length of connecting rod to radius of crank)
a) m.ω².r sinθ
b) m.ω².r cosθ
c) m.ω².r (sin 2θ/n)
d) m.ω².r (cos 2θ/n)
51. A system in dynamic balance implies that
a) The system is critically damped
b) There is no critical speed in the system
c) The system is also statically balanced
d) There will absolutely no wear of bearings
52. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The primary unbalanced force is less than the secondary unbalanced force
b) The primary unbalanced force is maximum twice in one revolution of the crank
c) The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses varies in magnitude and direction
both
d) The magnitude of swaying couple in locomotives is inversely proportional to the
distance between the two cylinder center lines
53. A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the
a) Resultant force is equal to zero
b) Resultant couple is equal to zero
c) Resultant force and resultant couple are both equal to zero
 d) Resultant force is numerically equal to the resultant couple, but neither of them need
necessarily be zero
54. In order to give the primary balance of the reciprocating parts of a multi-cylinder inline
engines
a) The algebraic sum of the primary forces must be equal to zero
b) The algebraic sum of the couples about any point in the plane of the primary forces
must be equal to zero
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
55. The static balancing is satisfactory for low speed rotors but with increasing speeds,
dynamic balancing becomes necessary. This is because, the
a) Unbalanced couples are caused only at higher speeds
b) Unbalanced forces are not dangerous at higher speeds
c) Effects of unbalances are proportional to the square of the speed
d) Effects of unbalances are directly proportional to the speed
56. A rotor supported at A and B carries two masses as shown in the below figure. The rotor
is

a) Dynamically balanced
b) Statically balanced
c) Statically and dynamically balanced
d) Not balanced
57. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous center?
a) at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative
to another for the configuration of mechanism considered
b) the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous
center
c) the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each other at this center
have the same linear velocity to the third rigid link
d) the double center can be denoted either by O21 or O12, but proper selection should be
made
58. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on
a) right side pivot of this link
b) left side pivot of this link
c) a point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining links
d) none of the mentioned
59. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism of n links is
 a) n(n – 1)/2
b) n
c) n – 1
d) n(n – 1)
60. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
a) 4,4
b) 4,5
c) 5,4
d) 4,6
61. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
centers lie on
a) a triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line
62. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. O will be
a) parallel to OA
b) perpendicular to OA
c) at 450 to OA
d) along AO
63. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when
a) the mass of two are same
b) c.g. of two coincides
c) M.I. of two about an axis through c.g. is equal
d) all of the mentioned
64. A link is rotating about O. Velocity of point P on link w.r.t. point Q on link will be
perpendicular to
a) OP
b) OQ
c) PQ
d) line in between OP and OQ
65. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point on the mechanism on
velocity polygon is represented by the line
a) joining the corresponding points
b) perpendicular to line
c) at 450 to line
d) none of the mentioned
66. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link about center of rotation O is
a) along PO
b) perpendicular to PO
c) at 450 to PO
d) none of the mentioned
67. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
 a) centripetal component of acceleration with length of link
b) tangential component of acceleration with length of link
c) resultant acceleration with length of link
d) all of the mentioned
68. The magnitude of linear velocity of a point B on a link AB relative to point A is
a) ω x AB
b) ω(AB)2
c) ω2AB
d) (ω x AB)2
69. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with
angular velocity ω1 rad/s in the clockwise direction and the link OB turns with angular
velocity ω2 rad/s in the anti-clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint
O is
a) ω1.ω2.r
b) (ω1-ω2)r
c) (ω1+ω2)r
d) (ω1-ω2)2r
70. In the above question, if both the links OA and OB turns in clockwise direction, then the
rubbing velocity at the pin joint O is
a) ω1.ω2.r
b) (ω1-ω2)r
c) (ω1+ω2)r
d) (ω1-ω2)2r
71. A thin circular disc is rolling with a uniform linear speed, along a straight path on a plane
surface. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard?
a) All points of the disc have the same velocity.
b) The center of the disc has zero acceleration.
c) The center of the disc has centrifugal acceleration.
d) The point on the disc making contact with the plane surface has zero acceleration.
72. The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the particle, at the given
instant is called
a) radial component
b) tangential component
c) Coriolis component
d) none of the mentioned
73. The component of the acceleration, perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, at the
given instant is called
a) radial component
b) tangential component
c) Coriolis component
d) none of the mentioned
74. The Coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that
has
 a) Linear displacement
b) Rotational motion
c) Gravitational acceleration
d) Tangential acceleration
75. In a shaper mechanism, the Coriolis component of acceleration will
a) not exist
b) exist
c) depend on position of crank
d) unpredictable
e) none of the above
76. In a scotch yoke mechanism, Coriolis component is
a) involved
b) not involved
c) possible in some position
d) a rare possibility
e) unpredictable
77. According to loop closure equation, in a closed loop mechanism the sum of relative
position vectors for the links is
a) less than 1
b) zero
c) greater than 1
d) none of the above
78. A mechanism has 8 links, out of which 5 are binary, 2 are ternary and 1 is quaternary.
The number of instantaneous centers of rotation will be
a) 28
b) 56
c) 62
d) 66
79. The instantaneous center is a point which is always fixed.
a) True
b) False
80. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate
a) Sine functions
b) Square roots
c) Logarithms
d) inversions
81. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the last gear are co-axial.
a) Simple gear train
b) Compound gear train
c) Reverted gear train
d) None of the above
82. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the last gear are co-axial.
a) Simple gear train
 b) Compound gear train
c) Reverted gear train
d) None of the above
83. In a crank and slotted lever type quick, return mechanism, the link moves with an angular
velocity of 20 rad/s, while the slider moves with the linear velocity of 1.5 m/s. The
magnitude and direction of Coriolis component of acceleration with respect to angular
velocity are
a) 30 m/s2 and direction is such as to rotate slider velocity in the same sense as the
angular velocity
b) 30 m/s2 and direction is such as to rotate slider velocity in the opposite sense as the
angular velocity
c) 60 m/s2 and direction is such as to rotate slider velocity in the same sense as the
angular velocity
d) 60 m/s2 and direction is such as to rotate slider velocity in the opposite sense as the
angular velocity.
84. In a four-bar chain, it is required to give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a
continuous rotation of the crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the
follower, determine theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed
pivots of crank and followers is
a) 95 mm
b) Slightly less than 95 mm
c) slightly more than 95 mm 45 mm
d) None of the above
85. ABCD is a four bar mechanism in which AB = 310 mm and CD = 450 mm. AB and CD
are both perpendicular to the fixed link AD, as shown in the below figure. If the velocity
of B at this condition is v. Then the velocity of C is

a) v
b) (2/3). v
c) (3/2). v
d) (9/4). v
86. The component of the acceleration directed towards the center of rotation of a revolving
body is known as ____________ component.
a) Tangential
b) Centripetal
 c) Coriolis
d) none of the mentioned
87. At an instant the link AB of length r has an angular velocity ω and an angular
acceleration α. What is the total acceleration of AB?
a) [(ω2r)2 + (αr)2]1/2
b) [(ωr)2 + αr)2]1/2
c) [(ω2r)2 + αr)]1/2
d) [(ω2r)2 + αr)2]1/2
88. Inertia force acts
a) Perpendicular to the acceleration
b) Along the direction of acceleration
c) Opposite to the direction of acceleration
d) None of the above
89. The center of gravity of a coupler link in a four bar mechanism will experience
a) No acceleration
b) Only linear acceleration
c) Only angular acceleration
d) Both linear and angular acceleration
90. Pitch point on a cam is
a) any point on pitch curve
b) the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
c) any point on pitch circle
d) the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
e) none of the above
91. Cam size depends upon
a) Base circle
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Outer circle
92. Which motion of follower is best for high speed cams?
a) SHM follower motion
b) Uniform acceleration and retardation of follower motion
c) Cycloidal motion follower
d) All of the above
93. Which of the following statements is false for SHM follower motion?
a) SHM can be used only for moderate speed purpose
b) The acceleration is zero at the beginning and the end of each stroke
c) The jerk is maximum at the mid of each stroke
d) Velocity of follower is maximum at the mid of each stroke
94. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents
a) Displacement diagram
b) Velocity diagram
c) Acceleration diagram
 d) All of the above
95. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
b) of rotation of the cam for definite displacement of the follower
c) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the
highest position
d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its
highest position
e) moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the termination of descent
96. Which of the following statements is/are true for a simple gear train?
a) If number of idle gears is even, driving and driven wheels rotate in opposite direction
b) If number of idle gears is odd, driving and driven wheels rotate in opposite direction
c) If number of idle gears is even, driving and driven wheels rotate in same direction
d) None of the above
97. A differential gear in an automobile is a _____.
a) simple gear train
b) epicyclic gear train
c) compound gear train
d) reverted gear train
98. In which type of gear trains, shaft axes which are mounted by gear wheels have relative
motion between them?
a) Compounded gear train
b) Simple gear train
c) Epicyclic gear train
d) Reverted gear train
99. A differential gear in automobiles is used to ______.
a) reduce speed
b) assist in changing speed
c) provide jerk-free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning
100. Calculate the speed of driven shaft in compound gear train, if the drivers have 40,
70, 100, and 150 teeth and followers have 15, 44, 60, 100 teeth. Speed of driving shaft is
150 rpm.
a) 256 rpm
b) 1650 rpm
c) 1591 rpm
d) 1414 rpm
101. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The
two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one
revolution of arm about the center of bigger gear is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
 d) None of the above
102. In the epicyclic gear train shown in the figure A is fixed. A has 100 teeth and B
has 20 teeth. If the arm C makes three revolutions, the number of revolutions made by B
will be

a) 12
b) 24
c) 15
d) 18
103. Which among the following is/are classified under synthesis problem?
a) Path generation
b) Function generation
c) Body guidance
d) All of the above
104. What is meant by pitching of ship?
a) up and down motion of bow and stern along transverse axis
b) up and down motion of bow and stern along longitudinal axis
c) up and down motion of port and starboard along transverse axis
d) none of the above
105. Calculate reactive gyroscopic couple acting on rotating disc which is inclined at
an angle of 1.5o. Mass moment of inertia about polar and diametral axis is 2.45 kg-m2 and
0.5 kg-m2 respectively. The disc rotates at an angular velocity of 130 rad/sec
a) 800.36 N-m
b) 862.36 N-m
c) 850.11 N-m
d) None of the above
106. Gyroscopic effect is not observed in which of the following actions performed by
the ships?
a) Rolling
b) Pitching
c) Steering
d) All of the above
107. What is the effect of reactive gyroscopic couple when airplane takes right turn
and propeller rotates in clockwise direction?
 a) The tail of the airplane is dipped and nose is raised
b) The tail of the airplane is raised and nose is dipped
c) Reactive gyroscopic couple has no effect when propeller rotates in clockwise
direction
d) None of the above
108. Calculate the thrust in connecting rod, if piston effort is 200 kN and crank makes
an angle of 45o from TDC. Assume obliquity ratio = 3.5.
a) 900.80 kN
b) 204.20 kN
c) 195.87 kN
d) 970.02 kN
109. Calculate torque acting on the crank, if tangential force acting on the engine is
150 kN and 300 mm is the crank radius.
a) 45 kN.m
b) 500 kN/m
c) 2 kN/m
d) none of the above