OMEGA PRIMARY, SECONDARY AND PREPARATORY SCHOOL BIOLOGY REVIEW

OMEGA PRIMARY,
SECONDARY AND
PREPARATORY SCHOOL
1 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

Prepared By Azmach A.M 2
OMEGA, PRIMARY,SECONDARY AND PREPARATORY SCHOOL1
Questions From unit 1 The science of Biology ( grade 11)

I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE GIVEN ALTERNATIVES
1996 EHEECE
1. From which of the following do scientists usually formulate a hypothesis
A, observation B, Theory C, prediction D, experiment
2. If the letter “ d “ is observed under a microscope, what would its image look-like?
A, Letter d itself B, letter q C, letter b D, letter p
1997 EHEECE
3. Choose the scientific discipline that is a borderline field between biology and pharmacy
A, Biochemistry B, Anthropology C, Ethno biology D, Pharmacognosy
4. Using the following information, choose the alternative that shows the correct sequence of the
scientific method
1, state a theory 2, collect data 3, formulate hypothesis 4, perform experiment
A, 1 , 2, 3 , 4 B, 1 , 4 , 2 , 3 C, 3 , 4 , 2 , 1 D, 2 , 1 , 3 , 4
5. If a cell with a size of 0.05 microns is viewed under a compound microscope where the eye piece and
objective lenses have magnification power of 10x and 40x respectively. What would be the
approximate size of the image?
A, 20 microns B, 40 microns C, 200 microns D, 400 microns
6. Which one of the following piece of equipment do biologists use to sterilize objects
A, water bath B, In cubator C, centrifuge D, Autoclave
7. If an observer moves a microscope slide away from him while looking through a microscope, in which
direction would the image of the object on the slide move?
A, Away from the observer B, towards the observer
C, towards the left of the observer D, towards the right of the observer
8. Which of the following is not recommended in an experiment?
A, omitting the control group B, using large sample size
C, Testing one variable at a time D, proper recording of the result
1998 EHEECE
9. In an experiment, what do we call the group that does not receive the variable being tested?
A, control group B, experimental group
C, replication D, observation group
10. What is the term used to describe the tentative explanation given to a scientific problem
1
1
A, Data B, Hypothesis C, Theory D, Principle
1999 EHEECE
11. If you reporting results of your experiment, is which part of the report do you present your
interpretations?
A, Introduction B, material and method C, result D, discussion
12. If you wrote and observe the letter “ b “ under the microscope which image would you see?
A, The letter “ p “ B, The letter “ b “ C, The letter “ d “ D, The letter “ q “
13. If an object is magnified 500x when viewed under a microscope fitted with 40x objective, what is the
magnification power of the ocular used?
A, 10x B, 12.5x C, 50x D, 95x
14. Using the following main parts of a complete report of a scientific work, choose the alternative which
shows the correct sequence in which they must appear in the report
1) The findings 2) The statements of the problem investigated
3Interpretation of the results 4) Description of how the research was under taken
A, 1 , 2, 3, 4 B, 2 , 4 , 1 ,3 C, 3 , 4 , 1 , 2 D, 4 , 2 ,1, 3
2000EHEECE
15. Suppose a student noticed that many plants in a garden died following an excess application of a
certain fertilizer, to which step of the scientific method would this correspond?
A, formulation of a hypothesis B, Experimentation
C, observation D, collecting information to support hypothesis
16. What is a theory in biology?
A, A statement without proof B, An opinion or educated gues
C, Hypothesis that has been supported by many experiments and / or observation
D, proof that a hypothesis is true and that it is ready to conduct experiments to prove or disprove the
hypothesis
2001 EHEECE
17. Based on the five steps listed below, choose the alternative that shows the correct sequence of their
application in actual research in biology
1) Performing an experiment
2) Conducting preliminary observation about a particular problem in biology
3) Statement of biological theory
4) Collecting of experimental data
5) Hypothesis formulation
A, 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 B, 5 , 4 , 3 , 2 , 1 C, 2 , 5 , 1 , 4 , 3 D, None of the above
2002 EHEECE
18. Choose the alternative that illustrates the medical application of biotechnology
A, Bio – fuel production B, Biosensors for testing blood glucose level
C, DNA finger printing technology D, protein production from single cells
19. What is implied by biological magnification?
A, Increase in the size of organisms with increasing trophic levels.
B, Increase in the number of organisms at higher trophic levels.
C, more concentration of chemicals in organisms of higher trophic levels
D, capture of small organisms by larger organisms
20. When trying to view an object under the microscope and after switching to the high power objective,
which adjustment knob do you use in order to see a clear picture?
A, The course adjustment B, The middle adjustment
C, The fine adjustment D, The arm of the microscope
21. If you observe a piece of paper on which several small squares are drawn. Under which of the
following magnifications of the microscope do you count more number of the squares?
A, 40x B, 100x C, 400x D, 1000x
22. Which one of the following corresponds to the first step of the scientific method?
A, Analyze the data collected B, Identify a topic to be studied
C, undertake the research D, state the result
2003 EHEECE
23. IF after dividing plant materials into two groups, an experimenter has applied a fertilizer to group A
plants and not to group B plants, what are group B plants called?
A, control group B, experimental group
C, test group D, variable group
24. In the scientific method, which one of the following issued to test a hypothesis?
A, observation B, theory C, experiment D, prediction
25. What does an ornithologist study?
A, The biology of mammals B, the biology of fishes
C, The biology of frogs and reptiles D, the biology of birds
26. Which one of the following best defines modern biology?
A, The study of animals B, The study of all living things
C, The study of plants and animals D, The study of transfer of energy
27. A field biologist who studies the behavior of primates in the forest is most likely expected to
frequently use which method of data collections?
A, experiment B, animal dissection C, observation D, comparative biochemistry
28. Which one of the following objective and ocular combinations of the light microscope, respectively,
gives the largest field of vision?
A, 10x and 10x B, 4x and 10x C, 40x and 12x D, 100x and 10x
29. What is the term used to express the ability of a microscope to show details clearly?
A, enlargement B, magnification C, reduction D, resolution
30. Which of the following is based on sufficient supporting data
A, experimentation B, prediction C, Theory D, hypothesis
2004 EHEECH
31. Which of the following corresponds to the beginning step of a scientific work?
A, testing hypothesis B, making observations
C, conducting experiments D, drawing conclusions
32. Which tool of the biologist is more suitable for culturing bacteria in the laboratory?
A, Test tubes B, microscopes C, petridishes D, beakers
33. Which one of the following types of microscope is the best to show the details of the microscopes is
the best to
A, optical microscope B, compound microscope
C, scanning electron microscope D, transmission electron microscope
34. Which of the following laboratory equipment is used to separate the organelles of the cell according
to their density?
A, Incubator B, centrifuge C, Measuring cylinder D, filter paper with fine pores
35. In an experiment that is testing the effect of temperature on the germination rate of certain seeds, in
which one of the following should the experimental and the control groups differ?
A, The amount of water they receive B, the age of the seeds assigned to them
C, The number of seeds assigned to them D, The temperature at which they are kept
36. Which of the following is not in agreement with the scientific method?
A, putting forward testable hypothesis B, carrying out experiments in duplicates
C, putting forward personal value judgments D, analyzing results and drawing conclusions
37. In an experiment designed to test the effect of different concentrations of a fertilizer on the growth
rate of a plant, which one of the following is the dependent variable
A, the growth rate of the plant B, plants assigned to the control group
C, concentrations of the fertilizers applied D, plants assigned to the experimental group
38. A biologist applied the scientific method repeatedly, gathered a large amount of supporting
experimental data and finally described a pattern or relationship between different factors. What is
the best term that refers to facts established in this way?

A, Theory B, Hypothesis C, Prediction D, Law
39. What is the reason that Louis Pasteur used a swan – necked flask instead of straight necked one in his
experiment designed to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?
A, to allow free passage of air to the broth inside the flask
B, to prevent the escape of any microorganisms from the flask
C, to keep the broth in the flask hot to kill microorganisms
D, to trap particles from the air that might enter the flask before reaching the broth
Revision Questions
40. The independent variable in an experiment is the variable that
A, is measured by the experimenter B, is controlled by the experimenter
C, is changed ( manipulated ) by the experimenter D, upsets the reliability of the results
41. The dependent variable in an experiment is the variable that
A, is measured by the experimenter B, is controlled by the experimenter
C, is changed ( manipulated ) by the experimenter D, upsets the reliability of the results
42. Which ordering of the steps in the scientific method is correct
A, observation, hypothesis , prediction, test, conclusion, theory
B, observation, prediction, hypothesis, test, conclusion, theory
C, Hypothesis, observation, prediction, test, conclusion, theory
D, Hypothesis, prediction, observation, test, conclusion, theory
43. Which of the following microscope uses visible light radiations
A, Electron microscope B, compound microscope
C, x – ray microscope D, fluorescent microscope
44. If the letter d and b are typed on a paper and observed under the compound light microscope the
image formed would be --------- & -------- respectively
A, d and b B, p and q C, q and p D, b and d
45. Which of the following is not included in the function of electron microscope
A, a vaccum system B, electron gun C, magnetic lenses D, convex lenses
46. Cellular observation under the microscope usually involves the use of colored chemicals to make
contrast between different structures. This technique is known as
A. Mounting B, scanning C, micrometry D, staining
47. The structure of the compound microscope that control the amount of light for observation is
A, diaphragm B, condenser C, occulaer lens D, Nose piece
48. Which of the following relationship of biology with other disciplines are incorrectly matched
A, pharmacognosy – B/n biology and pharmacy B, Biometry – b/n biology & geology
C, Biolphysics – b/n biology and physics D, Biochemistry – b/n biology & chemistry

UNIT – 2 BIOCHEMICAL MOLECULES
1996 EHEECE
1. If you want to make a general test for the presence of carbohydrates in a solution, which testing
protocol would you follow?
A, Bendict’s test B, starch test C, molisch test D, Biuret test
2. To which of the following properties of life does the term irritability refer?
A, Excretion B, Homeostasis C, Response to stimulus D, metabolism
3. Which property of water keeps lake – inhabiting organisms from freezing in winter in cold regions like
the arctic region?
A, High latent heat of vaporization B, High heat of fusion
C, High surface tension D, low density of the solid state
1997 EHEECE
4. How many carbon atoms are found in the sugar component of a nucleotide
A, Three B, Four C, five D, six
5. Why is that neutral fats do not dissolved in water?
A, they form hydrogen bonds with water
B, water is polar and neutral fats are also polar
C, water is non polar and neutral fats are also non polar
D, water is polar and neutral fats are non polar
6. What are the building units of proteins?
A, fatty acids B, amino acids C, nucleotides D, monosaccharide’s
7. Which level of a protein structural organization is represented by its amino acid sequence?
A, primary structure B, secondary structure C, tertiary structure D, quaternary structure
1998 EHEECE
8. Which one of the following is the substance that is used to check for the presence of starch in a
solution?
A, sodium chloride B, Iodin C, magnesium D, fluorine
9. Among the elements lists below select the one that is not found in carbohydrates
A, Hydrogen B, Carbon C, Nitrogen D, Oxygen
10. Which one of the following nitrogenous bases is found only in RNA?
A, cytosine` B, Guanine C, Uracile D, Thymine
11. Which one of the following compounds is quickly absorbed throught the walls of the stomach
A, alcohol B, lipid C, sucrose D, protein

12. To which characteristics of life do we attribute the similarties between membranes of a species?
A, mutation B, Heritability C, Irritability D, Reporduction
13. How many different kinds of building block molecules are used to form nucleicacid polymers
A, 20 B, 5 C, 15 D, 10
1999 EHEECE
14. Which of the following polysaccharides has no structural function?

A, Glycogen B, Chitin C, Cellulose D, Murein
15. Which of the following molecules of life gives more number of different kinds of monomers if
completely hydrolysed? A, Nucleic acid B, Proteins C, Lipids D, polysaccharides
16. Which of the following organic molecules is the most abundant in animal tissues?
A, carbohydrates B, lipids C, nucleic acids D, proteins
17. What is the name of the chemical process in which polymers are converted to monomers in the cells
A, Anabolism B, Hydrolysis C, condensation D, Dehydration synthesis
2000 EHEECE
18. Which of the following elements occurs more abundantly in living organisms than others?
A, Aluminum B, lead C, phosphorus D, zinc
19. Both plants and humans keep in their bodies the stored forms of carbohydrates. What are these
stored forms called, respectively
A, Glycogen, starch B, starch, cellulose C, starch, Glycogen D, cellulose, Glycogen
2001 EHEECE
20. How many carbon atoms are contained in two molecules of glucose?
A, 6 B, 12 C, 16 D, 24
21. In which of the following is the macromolecule correctly matched with its monomer building blocks?
A, carbohydrate – Glycerol B, protein – fatty acids
C, Lipids – Aminoacid D, Nucleic acid - Nucleotides
22. Of the constituents of protoplasm, which one is inorganic in nature?
A, starch B, protein C, water D, None
23. Which of the following is the most abundant form of carbohydrate on earth
A, starch B, cellulose C, Glycogen D, Chitin
24. Which of the following physiological properties of life is primarly concerned with the perpetuation of
species?
A, Reproduction B, Response to stimuli C, Respiration D, Excretion
25. In which of their constituents do the nucleotides of DNA and RNA differ from each other
A, In the purine bases B, In the pyrimidine bases

C, In the phosphate group D, In all of the above
2002 EHEECE
26. Which of the following elements is found in proteins and nucleic acids but does not occur in
carbohydrates?
A, carbon B, Nitrogen C, oxygen D, Hydrogen
27. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
A, Sucrose B, Glucose C, Cellulose D, Fructose
28. Which of the following classes of crops is a good source of proteins?
A, leafy vegetables B, cereals C, pulses D, roots and tubers
29. What makes phospholipid molecules arrange themselves into a bilayer in water medium?
A, The double bonds of the fatty acids B, The length of the fatty acid chains
C, The presence of hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups
D, Their high solubility in water
30. What are the three components of a DNA molecule?
A, Glucose, Nitrogen, and phosphorus B, Sugar, Phosphate group , nitrogenous base
C, Protein, carbohydrate and fat with base D, Monosaccharide, disaccharide, and polysaccharide
31. Choose the alternative that shows the monomer and polymer of carbohydrates
A, Nucleotide, aminoacid B, polypeptide , polynucleotide
C, monosaccharide, polysaccharide D, Nucleic acid, aminoacid
32. Which of the following is the most aboundant polysaccharide found in plants?
A, Glycogen B, Sucrose C, Cellulose D, Starch
33. Assuming that each of the following is separately analyzed, which one is expected to give more variety
of organic molecules?
A, A virus B, A molecule of DNA C, A mitochondrion D, A polysaccharide
2003 EHEECE
34. Which alterntive correctly matches the polymer with its monomer?
A, carbohydrate – aminoacid B, protein – monosaccharide
C, Nucleicacid – nucleotide D, Lipid - fat
35. Which of the following molecules requires a template molecule for its synthesis?
A, cellulose B, starch C, protein D, Glycogen
36. All the following carbohydrates are polysaccharides except which?
A, Glucose B, cellulose C, starch D, Glycogen
37. Which one of the following sugars do babies get from the milk of their mothers?
A, Maltose B, Sucrose C, Lactose D, Fructose

38. Which of the following contains phosophate group in its molecule?
A, Nucleotide B, protein C, cellulose D, simple sugar
39. Which of the following are NOT included in lipids?
A, Nitrogenous bases B, Waxes C, steroids D, Phospholipids
40. Which of the following helps to keep the biological membranes in a fluid state?
A, cholesterol B, waxes C, phospholipids D, water
41. Which of the following compounds is an important component of the exoskeleton of arthropods such
as insects?
A, oil B, sugar C, protein D, chitin
42. Which property of water keeps the bottoms of lakes and the life there in from being frozen during cold
winters in the temperate regions?
A, Its highest density at 40c B, Its high heat of vaporization
C, Its high boiling point D, Its high latent heat of fusion
43. The hormone insulin balances the level of blood glucose in the body. This is an example of which of
the following properties of life?
A, metabolism B, respiration C, homeostasis D, response
2004 EHEECE
44. How many carbon atoms are contained in as single molecule of sucrose?
A, 6 B, 12 C, 24 D, 48
45. Which of the following pairs of elements are found in all carbohydrates in addition to the element
carbon A, Nitrogen and oxygen B, Hydrogen and oxygen
C, Hydrogen and nitrogen D, phosphorus and nitrogen
46. Select the function that living things are not capable of performing
A, maintain their internal body environment
B, pass genetic information to their offspring
C, respond to other organisms found in their surroundings
D, determine the amount of radiation reaching the environment
47. In the process of amino acid condensation, which one of the following happens?
A, oxygen is used up B, carbon dioxide is released
C, water is released as a byproduct D, protein is broken down into amino acids
48. Which of the following properties of water makes sweat an effective body cooler?
A, Its high specific heat B, Its high surface tension
C, Its low density when frozen D, Its high heat of vaporization

49. Among the molecule found in cells, which of the following contains less energy?
A, A glucose molecule B, An amino acid
C, A triglyceride D, A water molecule
50. What is the term for the process by which organisms keep their internal conditions at a fairly constant
state? A, calabolism B, evolution C, homeostasis D, photosynthesis
51. In which one of their structural parts do different molecules of aminoacids differ from one another?
A, In their R group B, In their amino group
C, In their carboxyl group D, In their alpha – carbon group
52. If one mixes a sample of a fruit juice and some drops of Benedict’s solution and obtains a brick-red
precipitate up on warming the mixture, what does the juice contain?
A, starch B, reducing sugar C, sucrose D, protein
Revision Questions
53. The three people who disprove the theory of spontaneous generation are
A, Redi , spallanzini, Pasteur B, Needham, Aristotle, van Helemont
C, Redi, Aristotle , Pasteur D, Redi , Van Helmont , Pasteur
54. Biochemical processes taking place in water operate over a small temperature range. This is due to the
property of water namely A, High heat capacity B, High heat vaporization
C, high heat fusion D, Density and freezing property
55. Which of the following is the component of DNA and RNA

A, pentoses B, Trioses C, Hexoses D, Heptose
56. Large molecules of carbohydrates split in to monomers ( smaller ) by
A, Hydrolytic splitting B, Dehydration synthesis
C, condensation r x n D, photosynthesis
57. In phospholipids, the phosphate head is ------------
A, non polar B, hydrophilic C, hydrophobic D, insoluble in water
58. Which of the following test of foods and the result obtained are incorrectly matched
A, protein  xanthopretic test  yellow odor
B, protein  Biuret test  purple color
C, reducing sugar  Bendict’s solution  brick red ( orange ) color
D, Lipid  sudan III test  red color E, None
59. Which of the following factors determines the degree of cohesiveness of water molecules
A, Ionic bonds B, Hydrogen bonds C, covalent bonds D, metallic bonds
60. Which of the following is not true about liquid water
A, It reaches its greatest density at 4 0c B, It submerges into the liquid when it is in ice form
C, It has high heat capacity , fusion & vaporization D, it has high surface tension & cohesion
61. Four interlocking carbon rings with along hydro carbon side chain generally characterize
A, phospholipids B, steroids C, carotenoids D, galactose
62. What is the name given to the chemical reaction in which two or more hexose sugars combine to form
large unit A, oxidation B, hydrolysis C, condensation D, reduction
63. Which type of bond is responsible for formation of the primary structure of protein?
A, peptide bond B, hydrogen bond C, ionic bond D, glycosidic bond
64. Which variable in scientific experiment is not in the control of the experimenter
A, placebo B, dependent variable
C, independent variable D, experimental variable E, None of the above
65. The tertiary structure of a protein refers to
A, Its aminoacid sequence B, Its three dimensional folding
C, alpha helix and beta pleated sheets D, protein nuleicacid interaction
66. Water has high heat capacity. This is an important properties of water of life in that
A, It keeps heat changes in the cell minimum
B, with a small lose of water high heat is lost from the body
C, contents of the cells are less likely to freeze
D, None of the above
67. Triglycerides are formed from ------- fatty acid and ---------- glycerol.
A, 3 , 1 B, 2 , 1 C, 1 , 3 D, 3 , many
68. Proteins have many important functions. Which is not an important function of protein
A, information storage B, gene regulation C, catalyzing biological reaction
D, structural support E, None
69. Which of the following is correctly matched
A, Ester linkage – joins fattyacid to glycerol B, peptid bond – links aminoacids
C, Glycosidic bond – bond between two monosaccharides D, All of the above
70. The chemical process which removes water to join monomers with one another to form polymer is
A, condensation B, hydrolysis C, hydration D, hydrogenation
71. Which of the following is not a common property of monosaccharides and disaccharides
A, they have sweet taste B, they are readily soluble in water
C, they are insoluble or slightly soluble in water D, They are white crystalline
72. In our biosphere, nothing lives forever, but life continues and perpetuates the species because of
A, growth B, respiration C, homeostatic D, reproduction

73. Which of the following is false
A, Fructose + glucose → sucrose B, Glucose + glucose → maltose
C, Galactose + galactose → mannose D, Glucose + galactose → lactose
74. Which of the following are not included in lipids
A, Nitrogenous bases B, waxes C, steroids D, phospholipids
UNIT 3 ENZYMES
1996 EHEECE
1. To which one of the following groups of organic molecules do enzymes belong?

A, carbohydrates B, proteins C, lipids D, nucleic acids
2. Which of the following enzymes has its optimum PH with in low PH range?
A, pepsin B, pancreatic lipase C, salivary amylase D, catalase
3. Which enzyme is used in textile industry to remove starch used in fabrics as adhesive or support
during weaving
A, amyloglucosidase B, Amylase C, Lipase D, Trypsin
1997 EHEECE
4. To which one of the following is the origin of the term “ enzyme “ more related?
A, yeast B, bacteria C, virus D, protozoa
1998 EHEECE
5. Enzymes of plant cells are made of which organic molecule?
A, Lipid B, starch C, cellulose D, protein
6. Which of the following is effective to reverse enzyme inhibition that is caused by a reversible
competitive inhibitor? It is to increase
A, The PH of the reaction B, The substrate concentration
C, the temperature of the reaction D, The concentration of the inhibitor
1999 EHEECE
7. Which of the following enzymes has its optimal PH in acidic range?
A, catalase B, pepsin C, pancreatic lipase D, salivary amylase
8. The enzyme that has wide industrial applications in starch industries, textile industries and in the
making of biological detergents is
A, Trypsin B, Lipase C, Amylase D, Isomerase
2001 EHEECE
9. To which group of compounds do enzymes belong?
A, Lipoprotein B, Fibrous proteins C, Globular proteins D, Deoxribose sugars

10. If an enzyme has its optimum activity at neutral PH, to which of the following PH values does this
corresponds?
A, PH = 14 B, PH = 12 C, PH = 7 D, PH = 4
11. What is true about the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction if the enzyme concentration is kept
constant and the substrate is supplied in excess? The rate would
A, rise spontaneously B, stay constant C, decline sharply D, None of the above
2002 EHEECE
12. Among the following, identify the molecule that is an enzyme
A, cellulose B, starch C, cellulose D, Glycogen
13. An enzyme known as catalase converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. In this reaction,
which one is the substrate?
A, catalase B, hydrogen peroxide C, water & oxygen D, water only
14. To which category of enzymes do the digestive enzymes that break down food substances in the
human alimentary canal belong?
A, Intercellular enzymes B , Globular enzymes
C, Extracellular enzymes D, Fibrous enzymes
15. Identify the statement that more correctly explains why each cell contains so many different types of
enzymes? Enzymes are
A, consumed in the process of catalysis B, used over and over again
C, specific to their substrates D, easily synthesized in the cell
16. What term is used to describe the chemical process of living organisms that involves both the joining
up of monomers to produce polymers and the splitting of polymers to monomers?
A, Anabolism B, Catabolism C, Metabolism D, Polymorphism
2003 EHEECE
17. If an enzyme is provided with its normal substrate plus another molecule having the same shape and
size as the substrate, which one of the following would happen?
A, Allosteric inhibition B, Competitive inhibition
C, Irreversible inhibition D, end product inhibition
18. If one keeps on adding a substrate to a fixed amount of an enzyme, when does the reaction rate reach
a plateau?
A, When all the substrate is converted to products
B, When all the active sites of the enzyme are occupied
C, When most of the enzyme molecules are consumed
D, when much of the products are accumulated
2004 EHEECE

19. What do we call the substance up on which an enzyme acts?
A, product B, substrate C, activation energy D, enzyme – substrate complex
20. Which factor has a more negative effect on the functions of enzymes than the others?
A, Neutral prl B, very high temptature
C, optimal amount of salt concentration D, optimal amount of substrate concentration
21. When an enzyme is denatured by heat or extreme PH, which one of the following does it lose?
A, The peptide bond B, primary structure
C. secondary structure D, Tertiary structure
22. Which of the following mechanisms do cells use to regulate enzyme catalyzed reactions in metabolic
path ways?
A, Enzyme denaturation B, Irreversible inhibition
C, End product inhibition D, competitive inhibition
23. In which one of the following points does the induced fit model of enzyme action differ from the lock –
and – key model?
A, Enzymes lower the energy of activation
B, substrates bind at the active site of the enzyme
C, During the reaction, an enzyme – substrate complex is formed
D, The shapes of the substrate and active site are complementary
24. Suppose 25% of the molecules of an enzyme are inhibited by a non – competitive inhibitor, which one
of the following would happen if the amount of the substrate is increased by 50%?
A, The reaction rate would double B, More enzyme molecules would get inhibited
C, The rate of the reaction would decrease by 50%
D, The rate of the reaction would remain unchanged
25. In competitive inhibition, which one of the following factors determines the rate of the inhibition?
A, The reaction temperature B, The enzyme concentration
C, The substrate concentration D, The ratio of inhibitor to enzyme concentration
26. What are the environmental advantages of using enzymes in industry?
A, It makes high production possible with less input of heat.
B, It makes high production possible with high input of heat
C, It makes high production possible with emission of more CO 2.
D, It helps high production with supply of more heat and emission of more CO 2.
Revision Questions
27. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A, Ligases – Decarboxylase and aldolase B, Isomerase – Phosphohexoisomerase & fumarase
C, hydrolase – Esterases and digestive enzyme D, Transferase – Kinase & Transminase
E, Oxidoreductases – oxidases & dehydrogenases
28. Enzymes are specific because
A, their tertiary structure gives them a uniquely shaped active site
B, they are globular proteins C, they are affected by PH & temperature
D, they may have cofactors
29. The induced fit model of enzyme action suggests that when enzyme and substrate bind, there is a
conformational change in
A, the substrate B, The active site
C, both substrate & active site D, neither substrate nor active site
30. Which of the following factors affecting enzyme activity?
A, Temperature & PH B, Substrate concentration
C, Enzyme concentration D, Inhibitors E, All of the above
31. A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction with no effect on?
A, the products formed B, the energy change
C, the nature of the catalyst itself D, all of the above
32. Which statement about competitive inhibitors is not correct
A, The degree of inhibition changes with change in substrate concentration
B, They interact with the enzyme at the active site
C, some result in permanent inhibition of the enzyme
D, their structure usually resembles the structure of the substrate E, B and C
33. The type of inhabitation of enzymatic action where the substrate & inhibitor compete for the same
active site is known as ----------
A, feed back inhibition B, Irreversible inhibition
C, Non competitive inhibition D, competitive reversible inhibition
34. The modern system of enzyme classification was based on
A, type of r x n the enzyme catalyze B, type of the product formed
C, place of synthesis D, founder of the enzyme
35. If a piece of boiled potato is placed in a test tube containing hydrogen peroxide solution , then
A, the gas that would evolve is oxygen B, the potato contains the enzyme catalase
C, water is the byproduct D, all of the above
36. Which level of protein structural organization is represented by its aminoacid sequence
A, primary structure B, secondary structure
C, tertiary structure D, quaternary structure
37. Enzymes that are made in the cell but are secreted and perform their function outside the cell are
A, extracellular enzymes B, digestive enzymes
C, ptyline & pepsin D, All of the above
38. Which human digestive enzyme that are correctly matched?
A, Trypsin – functions best in an alkaline medium
B, pepsin – functions best in an acidic medium
C, intercellular enzyme – functions best at or a round neutral
D, salivary amylase ( ptylin ) – functions best in neutral medium E, All of the above
39. The active site of an enzyme is the site where
A, coenzyme binds B, the substrate binds
C, the cofactor binds D, a modulator binds E, All of the above
40. An inhibitor molecule binds to enzyme at a point other than the active site. This causes a change in the
globular structure of the enzyme, preventing binding of the substrate. What type of inhibition is this
A, Non competitive inhibition B, uncompetitive inhibition
C, competitive inhibition D, Irreversible inhibition
41. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A, Diary industry – Pepsin, lipase & lactase B, Leather industry – Trypsin
C, Textile industry – trypsin D, Biological detergents – proteinase amlayse
D, All of the above
42. To which one of the following is the origin of the term enzyme more related
A, yeast B, Bacteria C, virus D, protozoa
43. Which of the following is effective to reverse enzyme inhibition that is caused by a reversible
competitive inhibitors? It is to increase
A, the PH of the r x n B, the substrate concentration
C, the temperature of the r x n D, the concentration of the inhibitors
44. Which of the following enzymes has its optimal PH is correct
A, most intercellular enzymes – neutral medium B, Pepsin – acidic medium
C, Trypsin - alkaline medium D, All of the above
A, Extracellular enzyme – digestive enzyme B, Activation energy – required to start r x n
C, catabolic / exothermic r x n – digestion & cellular respiration
D, Intracellular enzyme – Respiratory enzyme in mitochondria & cytoplasm
E, All of the above
A, conjugated enzyme – protein & non protein part
B, cofactor – inorganic ion, prosthetic groups & coenzymes
C, prosthetic group – Haem , FAD
D, Coenzyme – ATP NADH, NADPH, coenzyme A, formy, & methyl
E, All of the above
47. The element copper, zinc, iron, magnesium & manganese are the integral part of enzymes and are
necessary for different activities . In these situation the elements are
A, cofactors B, coenzymes C, prosthetic group D, Inhibitor
48. Which of the following classes of enzyme and the type of a reaction they catalyze are wrongly matches
A, oxidoreductases – catalyze oxidation/ reduction reaction
B, Transferase – catalyze isomerizaiton changes with in a single molecule
C, Ligase – join two molecules with covalent bond
D, Isomerase – change of the molecular form of the substrate

49. The energy required to get a reaction started and overcome the energy barrier between substrate and
product is called
A, potential energy B, activation energy C, kinetic energy D, free energy
50. Which of the following is false about allosteric effectors?
A, Bind non covalently at a site other that the active site
B, binds to the active site of the enezyme
C, allostric negative effectors increase enzyme activity
D, allostric posistive effectors increase enzyme activity
51. The reaction that cover reaches a plateau and does not increase any further at high substrate
concentration is that
A, All the enzyme has been used up
B, The enzyme has become denaturated
C, The active site is saturated with substrate
D, All the substrate has been converted to product
52. The term “ enzyme “ which comes from Greek “ in yeast “ was coined for the first time by the
biochemist
A, Louis Pasteur B, Edward Bucher C, Wilhelm Kunne D, James B. Summer
53. Antiboides such as sulphonamides and Malonicacid are examples of
A, mixed inhibition B, non competitive inhibition
C, competitive inhibition D, uncompetitive inhibition
54. Cofactors that are tightly bound to the aponezyme on permanent basis are
A, prosthetic group B, coenzyme C, conjugated enzyme D, holoenzyme
55. E,S,P and I stands for enzyme, substrate, product , and inhibitor respectively. If an enzyme catalyzed
reaction the correct mechanism is
A, E + S ES E+P B, E + S ES S+P
C, E + S + I EI + S No rxn D, E + S I EI E+I
56. The induced fit model of enzymatic action characteristics are
A, Enzymes and their active site are flexible
B, Active site would, modified as substrate interaction
C, Active site can be shaped for the substrate
D, All of the above
57. There are three type of enzyme cofactors, required by many enzyme for sufficient activity, which of
the following is not an enzyme cofactor
A, activator ( inorganic ion ) B, allosteric enzyme
C, coenzymes D, prosthetic group
A, Biological detergents – proteases, lipases and amylases

B, Dairy industry – lactase
C, pulp and paper industry – amylases , xylanase and esterase
D, textile industry – streptokinase , pectinase and pulmozyme
59. Which of the following statement is false about enzymes
A, Enzymes work at specific PH and temperature
B, Enzymes are specific in their action
C, Enzymes start chemical reactions in cells
D, Enzymes are globular protein
60. Extreme PHs can inactivate enzymes because they
A, Alter the charge on the aminoacids in the allosteric site
B, alter the charge on the eminoacids in the active site
C, alter the charge on aminoacids away from the active site and allosteric site
D, All of the above
UNIT – 4 CELL BIOLOGY

1996 EHEECE
1. Select the field of biology that is concerned with the study of cells
A, Histology B, morphology C, cytology D, ecology
2. Which cellular structures are responsible for autolysis or self- digestion?
A, chromosomes B, Lysosomoes C, Ribosomes D, Golyiapparatus
3. If tissues from sliced potato tuber are kept in sea water which of the following is more likely to
happen?
A, The cells will take up water and burst B, The cells lose water and become flaccid
C, The cells become dry and impermeable D, The cells actively pump out salts
4. If the protoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall when a plant cell is bathed in a sugar solution, what
is the concentrations of the solution relative to the protoplasm of the plant cell?
A, Hypertonic B, Hypotonic C, Isotonic D, Isoosmotic
1997 EHEECE
5. Which of the following structures is missing in a prokaryotic cell?
A, cytoplasm B, plasma membrane C, Nuclear membrane D, nuclear material
6. What are the molecules found in the cell membrane that make it more fluid?
A, proteins and aminoacids B, saturated fattyacids and carbohydrates
C, phosphates and hydrocarbons D, unsaturated fattyacids and cholesterol

7. If a 0.9% solution is isotonic to a certain animal cell, that animal cell will lose more water when kept in
which of the following solutions?
A, 0.2% salt solution B, 1.0% salt solution C, 0.9% salt solution D, 1.5% salt solution
8. In which of the following types of cellular transportation across the cell membrane, do substances
move against their concentration gradients?
A, Osmosis B, Simple diffusion C, Facilitated diffusion D, Active transport
1998 EHEECE
9. Which of the following organelles of eukaryotic cells is believed to be once an independent
prokaryotic cell?
A, Nucleus B, Chloroplast C, phagosome D, Golgi apparatus
10. Choose the structure whose typical function is synthesis of protein
A, Nucleus B, Ribosome C, Vacuole D, Centriole
11. Which function is carried out by the Golgi apparatus?
A, protein synthesis B, protein denaturation
C, digestion of proteins D, modification of proteins
12. Which of the following terms best describes a plant cell that is full of water?
A, Flaccid B, Halmolyzed C, Turgid D, Plasmolyzed
13. Among the following which organell is not bounded by a biological membrance
A, Nucleus B, Chloroplast C, Ribosomes D, mitochondria
1999 EHEECE
14. Which of the following compounds is the basic unit of the cell wall?
A, Aminoacids B, Sugars C, Lipids D, Nucleic acid
15. Which of the following is not found in animal cells?
A, Nucleus B, chloroplast C, Ribosome D, Mitochondria
2000 EHEECE
16. Which one of the following is the part of an eukaryotic plant cell that is devoid of DNA
A, Nucleus B, cytoplasmic fluid C, chloroplast D, mitochondrion
17. Which one of the following terms refers to the diffusion of water across a selective permeable
membrane?
A, Dialysis B, Osmosis C, Cohesion D, cytoplasmic streaming
18. Which of the following organelles of the cell is involved in the energy release of eukaryotic cells?
A, Chloroplast B, Endoplasmic reticulum C, Nucleus D, Mitochondrion
19. In which of the following organelles of the prokaryotic cell are enzymes synthesized
A, Nuclei B, Mitochondria C, Chloroplasts D, Ribosomes
2001 EHEECE

20. When does a hypotonic condition exist in the environment of the cell?
A, When there is equal concentration of solutes outside and inside the cell.
B, When the solute concentration outside the cell is higher than inside the cell.
C, When the solute concentration inside the cell is greater than outside the cell.
D, When the net movement of water is from the cell the outside environment.
2002 EHEECE
21. Which of the following is important to regulate the entry and exit of materials into and out of plant
cells?
A, cell wall B, cell membrane C, Nucleus D, Central vacuole
22. All the living components of the cell are collectively known as what?
A, cytoplasm B, Nucleus C, Cell membrane D, Protoplasm
23. Which of the following is found in both plant and animal cells?
A, cell wall B, chromoplasts C, chromosomes D, Leucoplasts
24. Which organelle of the cell has a function of modifying proteins for secretion?
A, Golgibody B, Ribosome C, Food Vacuole D, Lysosome
25. What is the process by which cells like amoeba and white blood cells engulf and internalize particles
such as bacteria?
A, Osmosis B, Pinocytosis C, Active transport D, phagocytosis
26. In the cell cycle, which of the following phases is divided into G1, S and G2 stages?
A, Inter phase B, prophase
C, metaphase D, Telaphase
27. What happens to a human RBC when it is placed in a hypertonic solution?
A, It becomes turgid B, It might swell and burst
C, It might lose water and shrink D, It will remain unchanged
28. If pieces of fresh potato are kept for some time in sugar solutions of 20%, 10% , 5% and distilled
water, which piece will gain the highest percentage of weight?
A, The one in 20% solution B, The one in 10% solution
C, The one in 5% solution D, The one indistilled water
2003 EHEECE
29. Which one of the following is largely made up of phospholipids?
A, cell wall B, cell membrane C, Nucleus D, Chromosomes
30. Choose the name of the researcher/ scientist who introduced the term cell for the first time ?
A, Aristotle B, Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C, Robert Hooke D, Robert Brown

31. Which of the following is a process by which cells take in fluid by means of vesicles
A, pinocytosis B, endocytosis C, osmosis D, phago cytosis
32. Which of the following pairs are both organelles concerned with energy transformation
A, Nucleus and nucleolus B, Mitochondria and nucleus
C, chloroplasts and vacuole D, chloroplasts and mitochondria
33. Which of the following organelles are likely to be more aboundant in active cells such as the muscle
cells of human heart?
A, Lysosomes B, Chromosomes C, Mitochondria D, Golgibodies
34. Choose the structure that is usually present only in the cells of animals?
A, Vacuole B, cell wall C, Nucleus D, centriole
35. Sodium ions pass from a region where they are at lower concentrations to a region where they are
found at higher concentrations in human cells. This is an example of which of the following processes?
A, osmosis B, simple diffusion C, passive transport D, Active transport
2004 EHEECE
36. Which of the following statements is in agreement with the modern cell theory?
A, cells come from nothing B, cells come from non – living material
C, cells come from existing cells D, cells a rise by means of spontaneous generation
37. Which of the following ideas in the cell theory was contributed by Rudolf Virchow?
A, All plants are made up of cells B, All animals are made up of cells
C, cells are the structural unit of life D, cells come from pre – existing cells
38. Which of the following modes of material transport across the cell membrane is NOT governed by the
concentration gradient of the transported materials?
A, simple diffusion B, Facilitated diffusion C, osmosis D, Active transport
39. Which means of particle transport requires input of energy by the cell?
A, simple diffusion B, facilitated diffusion C, osmosis D, active transport
40. Which of the following requires expenditure of ATP?
A, Osmosis B, Facilitated diffusion C, simple diffusion D, endocytosis
41. What type of molecules CAN NOT pass across the cell membrane by simple diffusion?
A, charged molecules B, non – polar molecules
C, Lipid soluble molecules D, molecules of very small size
42. Suppose we consider four hypothetical cell ( designated A , B , C and D ) having cubic shape with their
side measuring 2 , 4 , 6 and 8 arbitrary units, respectively which of these cells has the largest surface
area to volume ratio? A, cell A B, cell B C, cell C D, cell D

43. Suppose three potato cylinders are kept for some time in 15%, 8% and 4% sucrose solutions,
respectively, and the fourth cylinder is kept in distilled water, which of the cylinders will be move
flaccid?
A, The cylinder in 4% solution B, The cylinder in 8% solution
C, The cylinder in 15% solution D, The cylinder in distilled water
Revision Questions
44. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Cell theory – schleiden, schwan & Virchow B, Germplasm theory – Augest Weisman
C, Protoplasmic theory – Oscar Hetwig D, Organismal theory – Robert Koch
45. Which of the following is the function of lysosome?

A, autolysis B, autophage C, involve in exocytosis
D, helps the sperm cell to penetrate egg cell D, All of the above
46. Which of the following matches are not correct?
A, Ribosome – Protein synthesis B, Nucleolus – to make ribosomes
C, Golgi body – formation of lysosomes D, Rough endoplasmic reticulem – lipid synthesis
47. Which organism is mismatched with the cell wall composition ?
A, plant cell wall – cellulose B, Bacterial cell wall – peptidoglycon
C, Fungi cell wall – chitin D, None of the above
48. According to the fluid mosaic membrane model
A, the proteins are dispersed in the fluid bilayer of phospholipids
B, the proteins are sandwiched between phospholipids bilayer
C, the hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions face the aqueous media
D, The phospholipids bilayer is sandwiched between proteins
49. Which of the following is true about the function of membrane components of a cell?
A, Enzymatic function B, cell – cell recognition C, cell identity marker
D, Energy transfer E, All of the above
50. If a cell is hypotonic to the solution, a cell
A, will flaccid B, will turgid C, will gain weight D, water move to the cell E,
All
A, mesosome – site of ETS in prokaryotic B, matrix – site of kreb’s cycle & acetylcoA formation
C, cytosol – site of an aerobic respiration D, cristae – site of ETS in eukaryotic organism
E, None of the above
52. It can be argued that many of the organelles of eukaryotes may have a symbiotic origin. Which
organelle is least likely to have a symbiotic origin
A, ribosomes B, chloroplast C, mitochondria D, flagella
53. Suppose 15% sucrose solution is isotonic to the protoplasm of a potato cylinder, the cylinder would
lost water most if it kept in the vessel containing
A, 15% sucrose solution B, distilled water
C, 60% sucrose solution D, 16% sucrose solution
54. Sucrose can not pass through the membrane of a RBC but water & glucose can which solution would
cause the RBC to shrink the most?
A, a hypo osmotic sucrose solution B, a hypo osmotic glucose solution
C, a hyper osmotic sucrose solution D, a hyper osmotic glucose solution
55. Which one of the following is not principal property of enzymes?
A, are sensitive to PH & temperature B, are globular protein molecules
C, are reused several times D, do not alter the nature of the product
E, start chemical r x ns
56. If you immerse pieces of potato of known weight into a salt soulution and found lose in weight of the
potato strips after sometime, then
A, The salt solution is probably hypably hypotonic to the cell
B, The salt solution is probably hypertonic to the cell
C, The salt solution is probably isotonic to the cell
D, The cell sap is hypertonic to the salt solution
57. If three fresh potato cylinder and labeled W,X and Y are kept in distilled water, 10% sucrose solution
and 60% sucrose solution respectively
A, cylinder ‘’ W ‘’ will be more rigid B, cylinder ‘’ Y ‘’ will gain weight
C, Cylinder “ X “ will become more mlaccid than cylinder “ Y “
D, Cylinder “ W “ will lose water because its cell sap is stronger than water
58. The two sets of chromosoms of certain plant species add up the 20. How many chromatids are present
in each of the two cells( nuclei ) after the first meiotic ( reduction ) division
A, 40 B, 20 C, 10 D, 5
59. If a cell containing 48 chromosomes divides by mitosis and the resulting cell divided by meiosis. The
number of chromosomes of the resulting cell would be
A, 12 B, 48 C, 96 D, 24
60. Which of the following structure is missing in prokaryotic cell?
A, cell wall B, plasma membrane C, nuclear material D, nuclear membrane
61. Which of the following is mismatched
A, cytokinesis in animal – by cleavage furrowing
B, cytokinesis in plant – by cell plate formation
C, Algae & Fungi – by in ward growth of cell wall & cell membrane
62. Which of the following type of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane
A, phospholipids and proteins B, phospholipiods and cellulose
C, Nuleic acid D, Protein and cellulose
63. The cellular structures that involves in developmental processes like the reabsorption of tadpole tail in
frog metamorphosis are
A, Lysosme B, Centrioles C, golgibody D, endoplasmic reticuluma
64. Which organelle of the cell has a function of modifying proteins for secretion
A, Golgibody B, Ribosome C, Food vacuole D, Lysosome
65. In phospholipids, the phosphate head is
A, polar, hydrogphillic B, polar, hydrophobic
C, Non polar, hydrophilic D, non polar, hydrophobic
66. The movement of molecule down a concentration gradient using carrier and channel protein is
A, facilitated diffusion B, osmosis C, active transport D, phagosytosis
67. The reproductive cells are stable hereditary materials transmitted unchanged from generation to
generation. This is the
A, Germ plasm theory B, organismal theory
C, protoplasmic theory D, theory of spontaneous generation
68. The stage in mitosis in which the centromeres of each double stranded chromosomes are attached the
spindle at the equator of the spindle is
A, metaphase B, anaphase C, prophase D, telophase
69. During active transport, what is the ratio of Sodium to Potassiumm ion exchanges by the sodium
potassium pump?
A, 1 : 1 B, 3 : 2 C, 2 : 3 D, 1 : 2
70. Phospholipids form bilayers in water molecule
A, The hydrophilic head is repelled by the water and the hydrophilic tail is attracted by it.
B, The hydrophilic head is attracted by the water and the hydrophobic tail is repelled by it.
C, Both the hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail are attracted by the water
D, Both the hydrophilic head and the hydrophobic tail are repelled by the water.
71. Cube A has a side measuring 1mm. Cube B has a side measuring 3mm. The surface area to volume ratio
of cube A when compared to cube B is
A, two times bigger B, three times bigger
C, six times bigger D, two times smaller
72. A large surface area to volume ratio of a cell is important because the cell has highly efficient to
A, releases energy in respiration B, conserve energy
C, obtain the oxygen it needs for respiration D, use the energy it release in respiration
73. Which is not a normal function of the endoplasmic reticulum?
A, Detoxification B, lipid synthesis
C, protein synthesis and transport D, Energy storage
74. Which best describes the structure of a plasma membrane
A, proteins embedded within two layers of phospholipids
B, phospholipids sandwiched between layer of protein
C, protein sandwiched between layers of phospholipids
D, A layer of protein on top of a layer of phospholipids
75. What do nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria have in common
A, all are present in prokaryotic cell B, all have their own genetic material
C, all are present is all eukaryotic cell D, neither of them is present in plant cell
76. Which of the following eukaryotic organelles are believed to have through endosymbiosis?
A, Nucleus and mitochondrion B, Chloroplast and Nucleus
C, Mitochondrion and Chloroplast D, Nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum

77. Which of the following organelles contains a large number of hydrolytic enzymes?
A, lysosome B, Golgibody C, Ribosome D, Mitochondrian
78. If the protoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall when a plant cell is bathed in a sugar solution, what is
the concentration the protoplasm relative to the solution is
A, Hypertonic B, Hypotonic C, Isotonic D, Unknown
UNIT – 5 ENERGY TRANSFORMATIONS
1996 EHEECE
1. What is the energy currency of the cell?

A, DNA B, Glucose C, Starch D, ATP
2. Choose the one that represents anabolic reaction
A, deamination B, Digestion C, photosynthesis D, Aerobic respiration
3. Which of the following happens during the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A, ATP is produced B, oxygen is split from water
C, NADPH is produced D, carbondioxide is fixed
1997 EHEECE
4. In cellular respiration, which of the following molecules enters the krebs cycle?
A, Glucose B, Acetyl CoA C, Pyrovic acid D, Lactic acid
5. Which of the following compounds contains more energy per molecule than all the others?
A, ATP B, FADH2 C, NADH2 D, Acetyl CoA
1998 EHEECE
6. What is the primary action of light energy in photosynthesis?
A, produces ATP B, Fixes carbondioxide
C, Splits water molecule D, excites electron from chlorphyll
7. If a culture of green algae is exposed to light of different colours one at a time , which colours
generate more oxygen?
A, Blue and red lights B, Green and yellow lights
C, orange and yellow light D, Ulteraviolet and infrared light
8. Under aerobic condition, what is the net energy gain from the glycolysis of one molecule of glucose?
A, 2ATP + 2NADH B, 2ATP + 4NADH C, 4ATP + 2NADH D, 3ATP + NADH
1999 EHEECE
9. Which of the following is not true about the light phase of photosynthesis?
A, The reactive molecule of photosystem I is P680
B, Electrons flow from photosystem II to I

C, Electrons lost from the photosystems are replaced by electrons from water
D, ADP is converted to ATP
2000 EHEECE
10. Which molecule in plant cells first captures the energy from sun light during photo synthesis?
A, Adenosine triphosphate B, Chlorphyll C, Carbondioxide D, Glucose
11. Which one of the following alternative gives the products of fermentation of glucose by yeast?
A, Lactic acid, CO2, 2ATP B, CO2, H2O , 36ATP C, Alcohol , CO2, 2ATP D, Alcohol , CO2, 36ATP
12. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the main processes of cellular respiration?
A, krebs cycle, electron transport system, glycolysis
B, Glycolysis, krebs cycle, electron transport system
C, Electron transport system, glycolysis, krebs cycle
D, Glycolysis, electron transport system, krebs cycle
13. If a cell contains 10NADH + 10FADH 2 molecules, a total of how many ATP molecules would it produce
from them?
A, 20ATP B, 30ATP C, 50ATP D, 60ATP
14. Which one of the following compounds contains more energy than all the rest per molecule?
A, FADH2 B, Pyruvic acid C, NADH D, ATP
2001 EHEECE
15. Which of the following is the most important pigment for photosynthesis
A, chlorophyll a B, chlorophyll b C, carotenoids D, xanthophylls
16. The process in photosynthesis that can occur both in the light as well as in the dark is
A, photolysis of water B, Glucose production
C, ATP production D, Excitation of electrons from the pigments
2002 EHEECE
17. Which of the following steps in cellular respiration can take place in the absence of oxygen?
A, Electron transport B, Glycolysis C, Krebs cycle D, Acetyl-CoA formation
18. Which of the following molecules is known as the energy currency of the cell?
A, Glucose B, Starch C, Fat D, ATP
19. Which of the following processes releases oxygen to the atmosphere ?
A, Respiration B, Photosynthesis C, Transpiration D, Burning of fossil fuels
20. What are the source of the oxygen that green plants release during photosynthesis?
A, sugar B, carbondioxide C, water D, chlorophyll
21. Choose the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic respiration of
eukaryotic cells? A, H2O B, O2 C, CO2 D, NADP+
22. Where in the plant cell does the Krebs cycle( citric acid cycle) take place?

A, Nucleus B, Cytoplasm C, Mitochondrion D, Chloroplast
23. To which of following molecules is most of the energy released during the Krebs cycle transferred?
A, ATP B, FADH2 C, NADH D, ADP
24. Where the mitochondrion is does the krebs cycle takes place?
A, on the cristae B, In the matrix
C, between the outer and inner membranes D, on the inner surface of the outer membrane
25. Which of the following defines ATP
A, Adenine + Adenosine + a phosphate B, Adenosine + ribose sugar + double phosphate
C, Adenine + ribose sugar + triple phosphate D, Nitrogen + sugar + monophosphate
26. If an animal inhales a radioactive form of oxygen, in which of the following products of the cellular
respiration would the radio activity be detected?
A, water B, carbondioxide C, ATP D, NADH
27. Which of the following is true about the first stage of photosynthesis?
A, Light – dependent B, Temperature – dependent C, ATP – driven D, Glucose - driven
28. Which process of respiration helps to release most of the energy stored in glucose
A, oxidative phosphorylation B, Glycolysis
C, fermentation reaction D, Anaerobic reaction
2004 EHEECE
29. What amount of net gain in ATP does glycolysis provide to a cell?
A, 2ATP molecules B, 4ATP molecules
C, 18 ATP molecules D, 36 ATP molecules
30. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
A, 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy = 6O2 + C6H12O6
B, 6O2 + C6H12O6 = 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
C, 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy = 6CO2 + 6H2O

D, 6CO2 + 6H2O = 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
31. Which of the following is not one of the stages in cellular respiration?
A, Calvin cycle B, Glycolysis C, Electron transport D, Krebs cycle
32. Which of the following processes of photosynthesis does not require the presence of light to take
place?
A, The splitting of water B, ATP formation C, Reduction of NADP D, Carbon fixation
33. When the muscle cells are in short supply of oxygen, which of the following compounds would be
accumulated in them?
A, Ethanol B, Acetic acid C, Lactic acid D, Carbon dioxide

34. How many moles of ATP will be generated as a result of the oxidation of one mole of FADH2 in an
actively respirating mitochondrion?
A, 0 B, 3 C, 2 D, 6
35. Which of the following is true for cellular respiration
A, Restricted to plant cells B, Restricted to animal cells
C, Occurs in all eukaryotic cells D, Occurs in prokaryotic cells only
Revision Questions
36. In cyclic photophosphorilation, what is the source of the recycled electron

A, Reduced NADP B, Chlorophyll molecule
C, Adenosine triphosphate D, Photolysis of water molecule
37. If there were no free oxygen to breath, which one of the following steps of the respiration process can
operate in our body
A, Glycolysis B, Krebs cycle
C, Electron transport chain D, Reaction that links glycolysis and Krebs cycle
38. What is the source of the oxygen that is produced during the process of photosynthesis by higher
plants? A, CO2 B, H2O C, ATP D, Chlorophyll
39. Photophos phorylation is a process in which
A, NADPH is formed B. CO2 is reduced to a carbohydrate
C, light energy is converted in to ATP D. Chemical energy is used to produce ATP E. All
40. The electrons used by oxygen evolving photosynthesis to reduce NADP + come originally from
A, P700 B. water C. P680 D. PSII E. PSI
41. Protons are not at all involved in one of the following processes
A, All active transport process B, oxidative phosphorylation
C, Substrate level phosphorylation D, photophosphorylation E, B and C
42. Which of the following organic molecule is neither used up or produced by glycotic ( EMP) path way
A, NADH B, FADH2 C, NAD+ D, ATP E, Pyruvate
43. If eight molecules of pyruvate are used up in aerobic respiration. The number of NAD + molecules
reduced to NADH in transition r x n and kreb’s cycle are
A, 64 B, 32 C, 16 D, 48 E, None
44. Which one of the following is a byproduct of glycolysis
A, 2 pyruvate, 2CO2 & 2NADH B, 2 Pyruvate, 2NADH , 2ATP & 2 NADH
C, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2ATP & 2 acetylcoA D, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH & 2 ATP E, None
45. The Calvin cycle is analogous to the kreb’s cycle in that
A, Both cycles show similar energy building up process
B, The starting compound in both cycle is regenerated
C, Both cycle show similar steps of cellular respiration
D, The catalytic enzymes involved in both cycles are the same
46. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched
A, Matrix – for acetylCoA formation & kreb’s cycle
B, Stroma – for dark r x n
C, Cristae – for electron transport system
D, Grana - site of glucose synthesis
E, matrix & stroma – contain DNA & RNA
47. One of the following is not a product of alcoholic fermentation
A, 2ATP B. 2 ethylalcohol C, 2NADH D. 2CO2 E. A & D
48. Which of the following is not happens during the light r x n of photosynthesis
A, ATP & NADPH are formed B, Carbon fixation & glucose synthesis
C, Photolysis of water molecules D, Chlorophyll releases energized electrons
E, Production & evolution of oxygen as a by product
49. The an aerobic stage of cellular respiration, glycolysis gets its name from the cleavage of one of the
sugar molecule into two different sugars known as
A, Fructose – 6 – phosphate B, Dihydroxy a cetone phosphate
C, Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate D, Fructose – 1 , 6 – biphosphate E. Pyruvate
50. Which one of the following is not correct about the four carbon photosynthetic pathway
A, The CO2 acceptor is PEP B, The C4 enezymes are present in mosophyll
C, PEP carboxylase has more CO2 affinity than RUBP carboxylase
D, Oxaloacetate is the first stable product E. B and C
51. Which of the following is not a biochemical product of kreb’s cycle
A, CO2 B. ATP C, H+ + NADH D. FADH2 E. None
52. How many molecules of CO 2 are produced from five molecules of glucose that passes through aerobic
respiration A, 10 B, 15 C, 30 D, 40 E, 35
53. Fermentation path ways produce no more ATP beyond the small yield from glycolysis. The remaining
reactions ----------
A, Regenerate FAD+ B. Regenerate NAD+ C. Regenerate NADH
D, Regenerate FADH2 E, B and C
54. How many NADH molecules will produce from 10 mole pyruvate molecule in citric acid cycle
A, 80 B, 40 C, 30 D, 60 E, None
55. Which steps in glycolysis require the input energy
A, The phosphorylation of glucose B, The phosphorylation of fructose

C, The glucose priming steps D, All of the above E, None
56. How many net ATP’s are produced from a 24 carbon fatty acid by a certain aerobic bacteria up on the
fatty acid oxidation by using four mole of ATP to initiate the reaction
A, 199 B, 197 C, 195 D, 196 E, None
57. During the conversation of pyruvate to acetyl co enzyme A
A, ATP is produced B, GTP is produced C, NADH & CO2 are produce
D, FADH2 is produced E, A and C
58. When glucose is used to make ATP all of the carbons in glucose are converted to CO 2. Which metabolic
pathway produces most of this CO2.
A, ETS B, Kreb’s cycle C, Glycolysis D. Transition r x n E. All
59. Glycolysis starts and ends in the -----------------
A, Cytoplasm and mitochondria respectively B, Mitochondria
C, Cytoplasm D, Cholorplast E, B and D
60. The intermediate compound from the metabolic breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins and fats
A, AcetylCoA B, Pyruvate C, PGAL D, Aminoacid E, Lactic acid
61. Select the correct sequence of non cyclic electron path way
A, PSI , PSII , NADP+ , H2O B, PSI , H2O , NADP+ , PSII
C, H2O , PSII , PSI , NADP+ D, H2O , ATP , PSII , PSI E, H2O , PSI , ATP , PSII , NADP+
62. What accumulate inside the thylakoid compartment during the light dependents r x n
A, glucose B, RUBP C, Hydrogen ion D, CO2 E. Oxygen
63. Which of the following is the advantage of C4 metabolism
A, It avoids photorespiratory loss of Carbon
B, It improves the water use efficiency of the plants
C, It results in higher rates of photosynthesis at high temperature
D, All of the above E, A and B
64. Which of the following is correct about photo respiration
A, It requires light & not accompanied by ATP synthesis
B, It wastes energy ( ATP & NADPH)
C, Not associated with mitochondrial respiration D, All of the above E, A & B
65. Which of the following reactions takes place when the cell needs energy?
A, ADP  ATP B. ATP ADP + P C, CO2 + H2O  glcose + O2
D, AMP + Pi  ADP E, ADP + Pi  ATP
66. The end product of anaerobic respiration in animal cell is
A, Carbondioxide B, Pyruvic acid C, Ethyl alcohol D. Lactic acid E, All

67. The formation of ATP from the energy released by proton motive force or hydrogens in the ETS is
known as
A, Photo respiration B, substrate level phosphorylation
C, Oxidative phosphorylation D, Photophosphorylation E, All
68. Chlorophyll pigment that can transform light energy directly to chemical energy is
A, Chlorophyl a B, Chlorophyl C, Carotene D, xanthophyll E, Cholorophyll
69. How many net ATP molecules will be produced from 2 mole of glucose if the enezyme that converts
dihydroxy acetone phosphate to PGAL ( phosphotrios isomerase ) is in habited in glycolysis
A, 2ATP B, 4 ATP C, 1 ATP D, 3 ATP E, None
70. How many ATP molecules will produced from 16 moles of glucose by substrate level phosphorylation
in kreb’s cycle
A, 48 B, 32 C, 576 D, 512 E, 608
71. Choose the correct sequence that occurs in the complete oxidation of glucose
A, glycolysis, Transition r x n , kreb’s cycle ETs
B, glycolysis , kreb’s cycle, Transition r x n , ETs
C, glycolysis , ETs, krebs cycle, Transition r x n
D, Transition r x n , glycolysis , kreb’s cycle , ETs E. None of the above
72. The Calvin Benson cycle starts when
A, Light is available B, CO2 is attached to RUBP
C, Electron leave PSII D, A and C E. All of the above
73. Which of the following organisms have great problems with photorespiration
A, C4 plants B, CAM plants C, Bacteria
D, C3 plants E, All
74. What process of cellular respiration generates the most ATP
A, Chemiosmosis B, Glycolysis C, Kreb’s cycle
D, Oxidation of pyrovate E, oxidation of acetyl Co A
75. How much energy would be generated in the cell of a person who consume a diet of 14 mole acetyl
CoA A, 210 B, 504 C, 448 D, 168 E, 336
76. Substrate level phosphorylation takes place in
A, The kreb’s cycle & transition r x n B, The kreb’s cycle & glycolysis
C, the kreb’s cycle & ETS D, glycolysis & ETS
77. How many mole of ATP and NADPH are needed to produce 15 mole of glucose in Calvin Benson cycle
A, 180 & 190 B, 270 & 180 C, 270 & 150 D. 180 & 120 E. None
78. Which statement about C4 plant is incorrect

A, It avoid the photo respiratory loss of carbon
B, It results in higher rates of photosynthesis at high temperature
C, In C4 leaf both the mesophyll & bundles heath cells contain chloroplast
D, Carbon Fixation takes place in the bundle sheath cells E, All are correct
79. Which statement about oxidation – reduction r x n is not correct
A, NAD+ is reduced in the kreb's cycle
B, NADH is oxidized in the ETS
C, NADP+ is reduced in the dark r x ns of photosynthesis
D, water serves as the source of electron in photosynthesis E. A and C
80. The electron transport chain ( ETC) pumps protons

A, Out of the inter membrane space & in to the matrix
B, Out of the cytoplasm & into the mitochondria
C, Out of the mitochondrial matrix D, A and D
81. How many total molecules of NADH are produced from 8 molecules of glucose that passes through
transition state & the kreb’s cycle.
A, 64 B, 72 C, 96 D. 80 E. 90
82. Which of the following is true about Calvin Benson cycle
A, RUBP is the CO2 acceptor B, PGA is the first stable product
C, Photorespiration is present D, PSI & PSII are present E, all of the above
83. Which of the following occurs in both cellular respiration and photo synthesis
A, Glycolysis B, Calvin Bneson cycle C, krebs cycle
D, Transition state E, Chemiosmosis
84. The first reaction in the kreb’s cycle is binding
A, Carbondioxide to a four carbon molecule
B, CO2 to a five carbon molecule
C, Acetyl COA to a four carbon molecule
D, Acetyl COA to a three Carbon molecule
85. Why the light independent r x n is also called dark r x n ? Because
A, It takes place only during night time
B, It doesn’t require light but can take place during day or night time
C, End products are glucose & oxygen
D, Chemical reactions takes place in the stroma
86. Which of the following is true about C 3 cycle in the process of photosynthesis

A, Takes place in the bundle sheath cells of leaves
B, PEPcase speeds up the chemical combination of reactants
C, The first stable product is RUBP
D, To fix one mole of CO2 it needs 2NADPH & 3 ATP E. B and D
87. When glucose is used to make ATP all of the carbons in glucose are converted to CO 2 which metabolic
path way produces most of this CO2 and NADH molecules?
A, glycolysic B, Trasition r x n C, Kreb’s cycle D, ETS
88. Which of the following process helps to synthesize ATP molecule?
A, substrate level phosphorylation B, oxidative phosphorylation
C, photo phosphorylation D, All could be the answer
89. Which of the following is final product of lactate fermentation?
A, lactic acid + 2ATP B, lactic acid + 2CO2 + 2ATP
C, Lactic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH D, Alcohol + lactic acid + 2ATP + 2CO 2
90. Which of the following occur in both aerobic respiration and fermentation in mammal?
A, substrate level phosphorylation B, chemiosmosic
C, link reaction D, decarboxylation
91. Which of the following final ( terminal ) electron acceptor and their path ways are incorrectly
matched?
A, oxygen molecule – for electron transport system
B, Photosystem I – for cyclic electron path way
C, NADP+ - for non cyclic electron pathway
D, Acetalderyde – for lactate fermentation
Short Answer
92. How many mole of CO 2 , NADPH , ATP , RUBP are needed to produce 23 mole of glucose in calvin
Benson cycle
93. Write the final electron acceptor of the following pathway
a. ETS ---------------------------------------
b. Alcohol fermentation -------------------------------------------
c. Lactate fermentation --------------------------------------------
d. Cyclic electron path way ----------------------------------------
e. Non cyclic electron pathway -----------------------------------

94. How many NADH, FADH2 , ATP and CO2 molecules will be produced from 15 mole of glucose molecule
in
A. Glycolysis
B. Transition state
C. Kreb’s cycle
Critical thinking
95. Living cells of your body absolutely do not use their nucleic acid as alternative energy source.
Suggest why ?
96. “ Axumite & Gudar “ are the two famous products of Awash Wine Factory with alcoholic content
12%. This is true for all brands of wine product. Explain Why this percentage is Universal?
97. While gazing into an aquarium, you observe bubbling from an aquatic plants like the leaves of
elodea. What is going on?

OMEGA PRIMARY,SECONDARY AND PREPARATORY SCHOOL
Characteristics Fate and Transport of GMO’s in the Environment
Fate and Transport in the Environment Plants
Exposure Pathway Recombinant DNA technology has been the key to developing
improved varieties of plants. The genome modifications made
Methods for Measuring Exposure possible by this process has made the modifications of plants
virtually limitless. Instead of confining breeding to varieties
Strategies for Preventing Exposure within on species, plant reproduction can now be expanded to
combining plant DNA with that of other species of plants,
Methods for Monitoring in the animals, or bacteria.
Environment
Genetic modifications of plants are done via one of two major
processes:
Harmful Effects 1. The Ti Plasmid and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

2. The Gene Gun
Dose Response
The first method of plant genome modification involves the use
Absorption, Distribution and Metabolism of the
bacteria
Sites of Toxicity
Biomarkers of Disease
Risk Assessment
References
5103/5104 Home Agrobacterium tumefaciens as

the vector. This bacteria
causes crown gall disease in
plants which is characterized
by uncontrolled growths
(tumors or galls), normally at
the base of the plant. The
bacterial DNA molecule
responsible for this tumor
production is a circular plasmid called the Ti plasmid . A portion
of this Ti plasmid (called the T-DNA) is inserted into a portion of
the plant host’s DNA. By using this bacterial Ti plasmid as a
vector, scientists can splice the DNA of interest (from other
species) into the T-DNA of the bacteria and introduce it into the
plant chromosome. The plant can then take on the qualities
introduced to it through the spliced DNA, such as a crop with

increased nutrients, stress tolerance, resistance to pests, etc
(Griffiths, 1996).
The second method of genetic modification is through the use of

the gene gun.
Bacteria Basics - They are Alive!

Bacteria are the simplest of creatures that are considered alive. Bacteria are everywhere. They are in
the bread you eat, the soil that plants grow in, and even inside of you. They are very simple cells that
fall under the heading prokaryotic. That word means they do not have an organized nucleus. Bacteria
are small single cells whose whole purpose in life is to replicate. They do have DNA, cell membrane,
simple cytoplasm, cell wall and ribosomes(70’s).
Super-Powered Protists
Protozoa are also known as protists. These are the bad boys of the microbe world (bad meaning
"advanced"). Protists are eukaryotes with special structures that may be the base organisms of
multicellular organisms. Meaning: they have structures that can be seen in advanced creatures and
those structures are not seen anywhere else in the microbe world. You will also find the funkiest
microbes in this category, such as the plasmodial slime molds. Actually, we just like saying
"plasmodial".
Amoebas
They are small-single celled organisms that ooze from place to place. They reach out with one part of
the cell, a structure called a pseudo pod. They don't really have a shape because they are constantly on
the move, hunting down food and eating by a process called phagocytosis. They wrap themselves
around the food and absorb it into their body for digestion.
And Still More Protozoa

We couldn't fit all of the types of protozoa on one page, so here is part two. Protozoa might also be
called protists. These are the bad boys of the microbe world (bad meaning "advanced"). Protists are
eukaryotes with special structures that may be the base organisms of multicellular organisms.
Meaning: they have structures that can be seen in advanced creatures and those structures are not seen
anywhere else in the microbe world. The list continues.
Protists with Tails

The next protists are called flagellates because they move with a specialized tail called a flagellum.
They live in water and the water inside of dirt. The flagella whip around like a not-so-coordinated fish
tail. When it whips, the protist scoots along though the water. They do not do well in dry areas. They
need that liquid environment to move. Remember when we said that protists have specialized
structures you can see in animals? Sponges are a great example of where you will see flagella in
action.
Protists with Hairs

While a flagellum is a long tail structure, cilia are short little hairs. The classic example of a ciliate
protist is a Paramecium. They are the very complex protists that have little hairs all over their body.
The hairs flap and push the organism through the water. They can even hunt down food and attack
them with a structure called a trichocyst. Instead of surrounding their prey like an amoeba, they take in
the food through an oral groove (a protist version of a mouth). They even have a way of getting rid of
the food through an anal pore. They might not seem like much to you, but the structures are very
advanced for a single-celled creature. They were the first creatures to have them.
Parasitic Protists
Last, we'll talk about the parasites of the protist world. Not all protists go about their life eating little
bits of food in a pond. Some, called sporozoans, are nasty little parasites. These protists, like all
parasites, cannot live on their own, and they harm the host organism over time. A disease called
malaria is caused by one example of a sporozoan protist.
Fungus Among Us
Look into our eyes. Look deep into our eyes. There are no such things as molds. All molds are actually
fungi. That's a bunch of fungus. This surprised us when we first learned about it. We always heard
about mold in the shower or mold on the bread. Mold is actually a type of fungus. It has a shape called
a zygote to be exact. While yeasts are single celled fungi, molds are multicellular fungi. Bread takes
one kind of fungus (yeast) to make it rise. If you leave the bread out, another type of fungus comes in
(bread mold) to break it down. It's not
amazing, but it's true!
Mushrooms
Let's look at Club Fungi first. Mushrooms! Everyone knows about these fungi. So what is a
mushroom or a puffball? Bunches of strands living underground are called hyphae (pronounced hi-
fah). Those strands are the basic fungus in action, decomposing leaves, or rotting bark on the ground.
When it's time to reproduce, they develop a stalk and cap. The mushroom that you see popping out of
the ground. It's only one part of the fungus. On the bottom of that cap are a set of gills that have little
clubs with fungus spores.
Zygotes
We already talked a little about mold. That is only one example of the Zygote Fungi. These have
hyphae-like mushrooms but they reproduce in a different way. When it's time to make more fungi,
they create a stalk and release something called zygospores (thus the name zygote). When your bread
gets old and green or black, you are seeing a type of zygote fungus in action.
If you wait long enough, you will see the stalks develop and the zygotes released.
Single Cells
Let's finish up by looking at Sac Fungi, simple, single celled fungi. Yeast is used to make several
types of food for humans. We need yeast to make breads. We also use them to make alcohol. It's a
whole process called fermentation. Sugars are broken down in an environment without oxygen. It's
called anaerobic fermentation. And voila, alcohol. Even though they are single celled, you may find
them in colonies. They reproduce very quickly and hang out together. It takes a lot of them (because
they are so small) to get a lot of work done.

Bacteria
Bacteria are single celled microbes. The cell structure is simpler than that of other organisms as there
is no nucleus or membrane bound organelles. Instead their control centre containing the genetic
information is contained in a single loop of DNA. Some bacteria have an extra circle of genetic
material called a plasmid. The plasmid often contains genes that give the bacterium some advantage
over other bacteria. For example it may contain a gene that makes the bacterium resistant to a certain
antibiotic.
Bacteria are classified into 5 groups according to their basic shapes: spherical (cocci), rod (bacilli),
spiral (spirilla), comma (vibrios) or corkscrew (spirochaetes). They can exist as single cells, in pairs,
chains or clusters.

Other bacteria
The different bacterial shapes
A typical bacterial cell
Antibiotic resistance
Bacillus anthracis spores
Binary Fission

-
Bacteria are found in every habitat on Earth: soil, rock, oceans and even arctic snow. Some live in or
on other organisms including plants and animals including humans. There are approximately 10 times
as many bacterial cells as human cells in the human body. A lot of these bacterial cells are found
lining the digestive system. Some bacteria live in the soil or on dead plant matter where they play an
important role in the cycling of nutrients. Some types cause food spoilage and crop damage but others
are incredibly useful in the production of fermented foods such as yoghurt and soy sauce. Relatively
few bacteria are parasites or pathogens that cause disease in animals and plants.
How do bacteria reproduce?

Bacteria reproduce by binary fission. In this process the bacterium, which is a single cell, divides into
two identical daughter cells. Binary fission begins when the DNA of the bacterium divides into two
(replicates). The bacterial cell then elongates and splits into two daughter cells each with identical
DNA to the parent cell. Each daughter cell is a clone of the parent cell.
When conditions are favourable such as the right temperature and nutrients are available, some
bacteria like Escherichia coli can divide every 20 minutes. This means that in just 7 hours one
bacterium can generate 2,097,152 bacteria. After one more hour the number of bacteria will have risen
to a colossal 16,777,216. That’s why we can quickly become ill when pathogenic microbes invade our
bodies.

2/3The bacterium, which is a single cell, divides into two identical daughter cells. Each
daughter cell is a clone of the parent cell. Under ideal conditions such as the right temperature
and nutrients are available, some bacteria such as Escherichia coli can divide every 20
minutes.
Survival mechanism
Some bacteria can form endospores. These are dormant structures, which are extremely resistant to
hostile physical and chemical conditions such as heat, UV radiation and disinfectants. This makes
destroying them very difficult. Many endospore-producing bacteria are nasty pathogens, for example
Bacillus anthracis is the cause of anthrax.
Algae
Algae can exist as single cells, an example of which is Chlamydomonas, or joined together in chains
like Spirogyra or made up of many cells, for instance Rhodymenia (red
Other algae
Filaments of the alga Spirogyra
Chlamydomonas
Algal blooms lining the shores


A selection of diatoms
Dulse (red) seaweed

-Most algae live in fresh or sea water where they can either be free-floating (planktonic) or attached to
the bottom. Some algae can grow on rocks, soil or vegetation as long as there is enough moisture. A
few algae form very close partnerships with fungi to form lichens. Unusual algal habitats are the hairs
of the South American Sloth and Polar bears.
All algae contain a pigment called chlorophyll a (other types of chlorophyll such as b, c and / or d may
also be present) and they make their own food by photosynthesis. The chlorophyll is contained in the
chloroplasts and gives many algae their green appearance. However some algae appear brown, yellow
or red because in addition to chlorophylls they have other accessory pigments that camouflage the
green colour.
Diatoms a type of algae, are found floating in the phytoplankton of the seas. Their cell walls contain a
hard substance called silica. When the diatoms die they sink to the floor. Their soft parts decay and the
silica cell wall remains. Over time the pressure of the seawater pushes the silica together to form one
large layer. This silica is mined from the seabed, crushed and used in abrasives and polishes such as
toothpaste.
What is a Microbe?
What makes a microbe? We suppose you need a microscope to see them. That's about it. There is a
huge variety of creatures in this section. They can work alone or in colonies. They can help you or hurt
you. Most important fact is that they make up the largest number of living organisms on the planet. It
helps to be that small. It's not millions, billions, or trillions. There are trillions of trillions of trillions of
microbes around the Earth. Maybe more.

Calling all Microscopes
As with all of science, discovery in biology is a huge thing. While microbes like bacteria, fungi, some
algae, and protozoa have always existed, scientists did not always know they were there. They may
have seen a mushroom here or there, but there were hundreds of thousands of species to be
discovered.
It took one invention to change the way we see the world of

microbes - the microscope. In 1673, Anton von Leeuwenhoek
put a couple of lenses together and was able to see a completely
new world. He made the first microscope. It wasn't that
impressive, but it started a whole history of exploration. More
important to us, scientists were eventually able to discover the
cause and cure of many diseases.
Too Many to Count, Too Small to Find

We'll give the big overview on the variety of microorganisms here. There is no simple explanation of a
microbe besides the fact that they are small. The list goes on. Just remember that there is a lot of
variety going on here.
They can be heterotrophic or autotrophic. These two terms mean they either eat other things (hetero)
or make food for themselves (auto). Think about it this way: plants are autotrophic and animals are
heterotrophic.
They can be solitary or colonial. A protozoan like an amoeba might spend its whole life alone,
cruising through the water. Others, like fungi, work together in colonies to help each other survive.
They can reproduce sexually or asexually. Sometimes the DNA of two microbes mixes and a new one
is created (sexual reproduction). Sometimes a microbe splits into two identical pieces by itself (asexual
reproduction).
Other viruses

Computer artwork of a typical virus particle
Tobacco mosaic virus which is helical in shape
T2 viruses attacking an E-coli bacterium
AIDS virus budding from a white blood cell
Herpes simplex virus infection
- Fungi
Fungi can be single celled or very complex multicellular organisms. They are found in just about any
habitat but most live on the land, mainly in soil or on plant material rather than in sea or fresh water. A
group called the decomposers grow in the soil or on dead plant matter where they play an important
role in the cycling of carbon and other elements. Some are parasites of plants causing diseases such as
mildews, rusts, scabs or canker. In crops fungal diseases can lead to significant monetary loss for the
farmer. A very small number of fungi cause diseases in animals. In humans these include skin diseases
such as athletes’ foot, ringworm and thrush.

Other fungi
How a mycelium is formed
The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Amanita
Multicellular filamentous mould

 Honey mushroom fungus

Types of fungi
Fungi are subdivided on the basis of their life cycles, the presence or structure of their fruiting body
and the arrangement of and type of spores (reproductive or distributional cells) they produce.
The three major groups of fungi are:
 multicellular filamentous moulds

 macroscopic filamentous fungi that form large fruiting bodies. Sometimes the group is
referred to as ‘mushrooms’, but the mushroom is just the part of the fungus we see above
ground which is also known as the fruiting body.
 single celled microscopic yeasts
ticelluMullar filamentous moulds

Moulds are made up of very fine threads (hyphae). Hyphae grow at the tip and divide repeatedly along
their length creating long and branching chains. The hyphae keep growing and intertwining until they
form a network of threads called a mycelium. Digestive enzymes are secreted from the hyphal tip.
These enzymes break down the organic matter found in the soil into smaller molecules which are used
by the fungus as food.
Some of the hyphal branches grow into the air and spores form on these aerial branches. Spores are
specialized structures with a protective coat that shields them from harsh environmental conditions
such as drying out and high temperatures. They are so small that between 500 – 1000 could fit on a pin
head.
Spores are similar to seeds as they enable the fungus to reproduce. Wind, rain or insects spread spores.
They eventually land in new habitats and if conditions are right, they start to grow and produce new
hyphae. As fungi can’t move they use spores to find a new environment where there are fewer
competing organisms.
Macroscopic filamentous fungi

Macroscopic filamentous fungi also grow by producing a mycelium below ground. They differ from
moulds because they produce visible fruiting bodies (commonly known as mushrooms or toadstools)
that hold the spores. The fruiting body is made up of tightly packed hyphae which divide to produce

the different parts of the fungal structure, for example the cap and the stem. Gills underneath the cap
are covered with spores and a 10 cm diameter cap can produce up to 100 million spores per hour.\
Yeasts
Yeasts are small, lemon-shaped single cells that are about the same size as red blood cells. They
multiply by budding a daughter cell off from the original parent cell. Scars can be seen on the surface
of the yeast cell where buds have broken off. Yeasts such as Saccharomyces, play an important role in
the production of bread and in brewing. Yeasts are also one of the most widely used model organisms
for genetic studies, for example in cancer research. Other species of yeast such as Candida are
opportunistic pathogens and cause infections in individuals who do not have a healthy immune system.
Protozoa
Protozoa are single celled organisms. They come in many different shapes and sizes ranging from an
Amoeba which can change its shape to Paramecium with its fixed shape and complex structure. They
live in a wide variety of moist habitats including fresh water, marine environments and the soil.
Other protozoa
Amoeba proteus protozoa
The test of the British formaminiferan


An illustration of the protozoan Trypanosoma brucei
Vorticella ciliate in compost heap
Paramecium a protozoan
Some are parasitic, which means they live in other plants and animals including humans, where they
cause disease. Plasmodium, for example, causes malaria. They are motile and can move by:
 Cilia - tiny hair like structures that cover the outside of the microbe. They beat in a regular
continuous pattern like flexible oars.
 Flagella - long thread-like structures that extend from the cell surface. The flagella move in a
whip-like motion that produces waves that propel the microbe around.
 Amoeboid movement - the organism moves by sending out pseudopodia, temporary
protrusions that fill with cytoplasm that flows from the body of the cell.
The Prokaryotic Cell
 Bacteria are unicellular and most multiply by binary fission.

 Bacterial species are differentiated by morphology, chemical composition, nutritional
requirements, biochemical activities, and source of energy.

 The Size, Shape, And Arrangement Of Bacterial Cells
 Most bacteria are 0.2 um in diameter and 2-8 um in length.

 When viewed under light microscope, most bacteria appear in variations of three major shapes:
the rod (bacillus), the sphere (coccus) and the spiral type (vibrio). In fact, structure of bacteria
has two aspects, arrangement and shape. So far as the arrangement is concerned, it may Paired
(diplo), Grape-like clusters (staphylo) or Chains (strepto). In shape they may principally be
Rods (bacilli), Spheres (cocci), and Spirals (spirillum).
Arrangement of cocci
Cocci may be oval, elongated, or flattened on one side.
Cocci may remain attached after cell division. These group characteristics are often used to
help identify certain cocci.

Cocci that remain in pairs after
dividing are called diplococci.
Cocci that remain in chains after

dividing are called streptococci.
Cocci that divide in two planes and

remain in groups of four are called
tetrads.
Cocci that divide in three planes and

remain in groups cube like groups of
eight are called sarcinae.Cocci that
divide in multiple plan
and form grape like clusters or

sheets are called staphylococci.
Bacilli
Bacillus is a shape (rod shaped) but there is also a genus of bacteria with the name Bacillus. You
wouldn't confuse the two, since you know the rules for writing the genus and species names of
organisms, right?

Most bacilli appear as single rods.

Diplobacilli appear in pairs after
division.
Streptobacilli appear in chains after

division.
Some bacilli are so short and fat that

they look like cocci and are referred to
as coccobacilli.
Spiral bacteria
Spiral bacteria have one or more twists.

Vibrios look like curved rods.
Spirilla have a helical shape and fairly

rigid bodies.
Spirochetes have a helical shape and

flexible bodies. Spirochetes move by
means of axial filaments, which look
like flagella contained beneath a
flexible external sheath.
Other shapes

Haloarcula, a genus of halophilic
Stella are star-shaped.
Achaea, are rectangular.

Different Size, Shape and Arrangement of Bacterial Cells

Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular microorganisms, which lack chlorophyll pigments. The cell
structure is simpler than that of other organisms as there is no nucleus or membrane bound organelles.
Due to the presence of a rigid cell wall, bacteria maintain a definite shape, though they vary as shape,
size and structure.
Size of Bacterial Cell

The average diameter of spherical bacteria is 0.5-2.0 µm. For rod-shaped or filamentous bacteria,
length is 1-10 µm and diameter is 0.25-1 .0 µm.
: 1. Beneficial effects of Bacteria

Bacteria play important roles in different fields such as agriculture, industry etc. Some of them are
mentioned below:
A) Role in agriculture
a) Scavenging Role: Saprophytic bacteria obtain food from organic remains such as animal excreta,
fallen leaves, meat etc. E.g. Pseudomonas
b) Nitrification:Rhizobium bacteria, living in root nodules of leguminous plant symbiotically, helps
in fixing atmospheric nitrogen. Similarly, Nitrosomanas and Nitrococcus convert ammonium salt to
nitrites. Nitrites are further changed to nitrates by Nitrobacter and Nitrocystis. It enables plants to
uptake nitrogen.
c) Production of Organic Manure
d) Preparation of Ensilage:Ensilage is preserved cattle fodder prepared by packing fresh chopped
fodder sprinkled with molasses. Fermentation activity of bacteria produces lactic acid that acts as
preservative in ensilage.
e) Production of fuel: Bacteria, while converting animal dung and other organic wastes to manure,
help in production of fuel that is a must in gobar gas plant.
f) Disposal of sewage: Bacteria help in disposal of sewage by decomposing it and thus, help in
environmental sanitation.

B) Role in Industry
a) Dairy Industry: Bacteria such as Streptococcus lactis convert milk sugar lactose into lactic acid
that coagulates casein (milk protein). Then, milk is converted into curd, yoghurt, cheese etc needed for
the industry.
b) Production of Organic Compounds: Fermentation (breakdown of carbohydrate in absence of
oxygen) action of various bacteria produces organic compounds like lactic acid (by Lactobacillus),
acetic acid (by Acetobacter aceti), acetone (by Clostridium acetabutylicum) etc.
c) Fibre Retting: The action of some bacteria like Clostridium,
Pseudomonas etc. help in fibre retting i.e. separation of stem and leaf fibre of plants from other softer
tissue.
Economic Importance of Bacteria

Bacteria play very important role in the continuous sustenance of life. They are man’s best friends as
well as enemy. There are many useful as well as harmful bacteria around us. Economic importances of
bacteria are studied under two headings they are Beneficial activities and Harmful activities.
Beneficial Activities are studied under three headings
A) Agricultural Importance
i) Dead and decay of organic matter-saprophytic bacteria eg. Clostridium, Staphylo, Coccus,
salmonella etc acts upon the organic matter and disintegrates them converting valuable fertilizer.
ii) Nitrification:- It is a process of conversion of organic substance into nitrate form which are
utilized by green plants easily. Eg Nitrifying bacteria like ammonia salts (nitrosomes and nitrococcus)
to nitrites (nitrobacter) – Nitrates
iii) Nitrogen fixation- in the air present 78% of nitrogen, but atmospheric nitrogen cannot be utilized
by plants directly. The process of conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into molecular nitrogen by
bacteria. Eg Rhizobium, Azobactor, Clostridium is called Nitrogen fixation.
iv) Soil fertility- soil bacteria plays important role for the soil fertility. When soil will be fertile,
automatically agricultural production will be increased. Eg- Fusarium and other soil bacteria.
v) Manure- saprophytic bacteria acts on animal dung, farm refuse and organic wastage of industrial
house resulting manure which is the best for agricultural production.
vi) Ensilage
vii) Gobar Gas Plant
B) Industrial Importance

i) Milk is converted into curd by the action lactic acid bacteria.
ii) Cheese- Milk first coagulated by chemical reagent and converted into spongy, soft, tasty cheese.
iii) Vinegar Production- Mycoderm bacteria converts sugar and sugary substance into acetic acid or
vinegar.
iv) Alcohol and acetone production.
Molases (Sugary substance)--------(fermentation/Clostriduim)---- Acetone + Alcohol
v) Curing and ripening of tea and tobacco leaves- when harvested leaves and hung in shed, they will
be acted by bacteria micrococcus resulting flavor and tasty.
vi) Leather tanning-bacteria are used to convert skin of animal (hide) into leather. Recently replaced
by chemical for tanning.
C) Medicinal importance

i) Vitamin B- Riboflavin obtained from clostridium
ii) Antibiotics-Different antibiotics are obtained from bacteria’s like Thyromicin antibiotic by bacillus
brevis bacteria. Subtilin antibiotics obtained by bacillus substises.
Harmful Activities of Bacteria

About 90% of human and disease are caused by bacteria
1, Some bacteria are harmful and act either as disease-causing agents (pathogens) both in plants and
animals.
2) Spoilage of food stuff- Sporophytic bacteria acts upon different food stuff resulting unfit for
eating.
3) Food poisoning- Some bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus secrets toxic substance due to which
food becomes poisonous resulting even death too.
4) Deterioration of Domestic articles- Wooden articles, fibres, leather deteriorate by action of
bacteria eg (Spirochaete cytophaga)
5) Denitrification and desulphurification of soil-plants can absorb NO3 and SO¬4 form of nitrogen
and sulphur by the process of nitrification and sulphurificarion. But there are some harmful bacteria
which convert NO3 and SO4 form of nitrogen and sulphur into NO2 and H2S which are not utilized.
Hence, bacteria are our friend as well as enemy.
Useful-Bacteria
Biotechnology and bacteria
Biotechnology or Industrial microbiology is defined as the use of micro organism such as bacteria,
fungi and algae for the manufacturing and services industries. These include-:
 Fermentation processes, such as brewing, baking, cheese and butter manufacturing, Bacteria,
often Lactobacillus in combination with yeasts and fungi, have been used for thousands of
years in the preparation of fermented foods such as cheese, pickles, soy sauce, sauerkraut,
vinegar, wine, and yogurt.
 Chemical manufacturing such as ethanol, acetone, organic acid, enzymes, perfumes etc. In the
chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure
chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrochemicals.[1]
Genetic engineering and bacteria

Genetic engineering is the manipulation of genes. It is also called recombinant DNA technology. In
genetic engineering, pieces of DNA (genes) are introduced into a host by means of a carrier (vector)
system. The foreign DNA becomes a permanent feature of the host, being replicated and passed on to
daughter cells along with the rest of its DNA. Bacterial cells are transformed and used in production of
commercially important products. The examples are production of human insulin (used against
diabetes), human growth hormone (somatotrophin used to treat pituitary dwarfism), and infections
which can be used to help fight viral diseases.
Using biotechnology techniques,or bio medical technology bacteria can also be bioengineered for the
production of therapeutic proteins.
Fibre retting
Bacterial populations, especially that of are used to separate fibres of jute, hemp, flax, etc., the plants
are immersed in water and when they swell, inoculated with bacteria which hydrolyze pectic substance
of the cell walls and separate the fibres.These separated fibres are used to make ropes and sacks.
Digestion
Some bacteria living in the gut of cattle, horses and other herbivores secrete cellulase, an enzyme that
helps in the digestion of the cellulose contents of plant cell walls. Cellulose is the major source of
energy for these animals. Generally plant cells contain cellulose. The bacteria present in the stomach
of cattle will help in the digestion of cellulose.
Vitamin synthesis
Escherichia coli that lives in the human large intestine synthesize vitamin B and releases it for human
use. Similarly, Clostridium butyclicum is used for commercial preparation of riboflavin, and vitamin
B.
Pest control
Bacteria can also be used in the place of pesticides in the biological pest control. This commonly uses
Bacillus thuringiensis (also called BT), a Gram-positive, soil dwelling bacterium. This bacteria is used
as a Lepidopteran-specific insecticide under trade names such as Dipel and Thuricide. Because of their
specificity, these pesticides are regarded as Environmentally friendly, with little or no effect on
humans, wildlife, pollinators, and most other beneficial insects.
Harmful bacteria
Some bacteria are harmful and act either as disease-causing agents (pathogens) both in plants and
animals, or may play a role in food spoilage.
Koch's Postulates
to Identify the Causative Agent of an Infectious Disease Koch's
Postulates
Koch's postulates are four criteria designed to establish a causal relationship between a causative
microbe and a disease. The postulates were formulated by Robert Koch and Friedrich Loeffler in 1884
and refined and published by Koch in 1890. Koch applied the postulates to establish the etiology of
anthrax and tuberculosis, but they have been generalized to other diseases.
Koch's postulates are the following:
o The postulates were formulated by Robert Koch and Friedrich Loeffler in 1884 and refined and
published by Koch in 1890.
o Postulate 1: The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from
the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms.
o Postulate 2: The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure
culture.
o Postulate 3: The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy
organism.
o Postulate 4: The microorganism must be reisolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental
host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.
o reservoir of infection
o living or nonliving material in or on which an infectious agent multiplies and/or
develops and is dependent for its survival in nature.

Examples of infections from animate and inanimate reservoirs:
Reservoir Transmitted by Infection
Blood, needle stick, other
Blood Hepatitis B and C, HIV/AIDS
contaminated equipment
Airborne droplets (sneezing,
Respiratory tract Influenza viruses
coughing)
Human
Gastrointestinal
Vomit, faeces, bile, saliva Hepatitis A, salmonella
tract
Gonorrhea, Herpes virus,
Reproductive tract Urine and semen
Hepatitis B
Rodents Fleas Typhus, Q fever
Deer Ticks Lyme disease
Animal
Cats Faeces Toxoplasmosis
Sheep, cattle, goats Spores, contaminated meat Anthrax
Bedpans
Wound infections
Instruments
Urinary tract infections
Inanimate Equipment Horizontal surfaces
Gastroenteritis
Water
Tetanus
Soil
The nitrogen cycle

Nitrogen is one of the primary nutrients critical for the survival of all living organisms. It is a
necessary component of many biomolecules, including proteins, DNA,RNA,ATP and chlorophyll.
Although nitrogen is very abundant in the atmosphere as dinitrogen gas (N2.In addition to N2 and NH3,
nitrogen exists in many different forms, including both inorganic (e.g., ammonia, nitrate) and organic
(e.g., amino and nucleic acids) forms. Thus, nitrogen undergoes many different transformations in the
ecosystem, changing from one form to another as organisms use it for growth and, in some cases,
energy. The major transformations of nitrogen are nitrogen fixation, nitrification, denitrification,
anammox, and ammonification (Figure 1).

Figure 1: Major transformations in the nitrogen cycle
Nitrogen Fixation
Nitrogen gas (N2) makes up nearly 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, yet nitrogen is often the nutrient
that limits primary production in many ecosystems. Why is this so? Because plants and animals are not
able to use nitrogen gas in that formess. Although most nitrogen fixation is carried out by prokaryotes,
some nitrogen can be fixed abiotically by lightning or certain industrial processes, including the
combustion of fossil fuels.
Figure
2: Chemical reaction of nitrogen fixation
The most familiar examples of nitrogen-fixing symbioses are the root nodules of legumes
(peas, beans, clover, etc.).
Figure 3: Nitrogen-fixing nodules on a clover plant root
Ammonification

When an organism excretes waste or dies, the nitrogen in its tissues is in the form of organic -nitrogen
(e.g. amino acids, DNA). Various fungi and prokaryotes then decompose the tissue and release
inorganic nitrogen back into the ecosystem as ammonia in the process known as ammonification. The
ammonia then becomes available for uptake by plants and other microorganisms for growth.
Nitrification
Nitrification is the process that converts ammonia to nitrite and then to nitrate and is another important
step in the global nitrogen cycle. Most nitrification occurs aerobically and is carried out exclusively by
prokaryotes. There are two distinct steps of nitrification that are carried out by distinct types of
microorganisms. The first step is the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, which is carried out by microbes
known as ammonia-oxidizers.
Figure 4: Chemical reactions of ammonia oxidation carried out by bacteria

Until recently, it was thought that all ammonia oxidation was carried out by only a few types of
bacteria in the genera Nitrosomonas, Nitrosospira, and Nitrosococcus. The second step in nitrification
is the oxidation of nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-) . This step is carried out by a completely separate
group of prokaryotes, known as nitrite-oxidizing Bacteria. Some of the genera involved in nitrite
oxidation include Nitrospira, Nitrobacter, Nitrococcus, and Nitrospina.
Figure 5: Chemical reaction of nitrite oxidation
Anammox
Traditionally, all nitrification was thought to be carried out under aerobic conditions, but recently a
new type of ammonia oxidation occurring under anoxic conditions was discovered.. Whether
anammox or denitrification is responsible for most nitrogen loss in the ocean, it is clear that anammox
represents an important process in the global nitrogen cycle.
Figure 6: Chemical reaction of anaerobic ammonia oxidation (anammox)
Denitrification
Denitrification is the process that converts nitrate to nitrogen gas, thus removing bioavailable nitrogen
and returning it to the atmosphere. Dinitrogen gas (N2) is the ultimate end product of denitrification,
but other intermediate gaseous forms of nitrogen exist (Figure 7). Some denitrifying bacteria include
species in the genera Bacillus, Paracoccus, and Pseudomonas. . Denitrifiers are chemoorganotrophs
and thus must also be supplied with some form of organic carbon

Figure 7: Reactions involved in denitrification
The Sulfur Cycle
The sulfur cycle describes the movement of sulfur through the geosphere and biosphere. It is particularly
important to living things because it is a component of many proteins, vitamins and essential
metabolites. . Plants and microbes assimilate sulfate( SO4) and convert it into organic forms. When
SO42− is assimilated by organisms, it is reduced and converted to organic sulfur, which is an essential
component of proteins. However, the biosphere does not act as a major sink for sulfur, instead the
majority of sulfur is found in seawater or sedimentary rocks.
o Many bacteria can reduce sulfur in small amounts, but some specialized bacteria can perform
respiration entirely using sulfur. They use sulfur or sulfate as an electron receptor in their
respiration, and release sulfide as waste. This is a common form of anaerobic respiration in
microbes.
o Sulfur reducing pathways are found in many pathogenic bacteria species. Tuberculosis and
leprosy are both caused by bacterial species that reduce sulfur, so the sulfur reduction
pathway is an important target of drug development.
o Two unrelated groups of procaryotes oxidize H2S to S and S to SO4. The first is the anoxygenic photosynthetic
purple and green sulfur bacteria that oxidize H2S as a source of electrons for cyclic photophosphorylation. The
second is the "colorless sulfur bacteria" (now a misnomer because the group contains many Archaea) which
oxidize H2S and S as sources of energy. In either case, the organisms can usually mediate the complete
oxidation of H2S to SO4.
H2S----------------> S ----------------> SO4 litho or phototrophic sulfur oxidation
Sulfur-oxidizing procaryotes are frequently thermophiles found in hot (volcanic) springs and near deep sea thermal vents that are
rich in H2S. They may be acidophiles, as well, since they acidify their own environment by the production of sulfuric acid.
Since SO4 and S may be used as electron acceptors for respiration, sulfate reducing bacteria produce H 2S during a process of
anaerobic respiration analogous to denitrification. The use of SO4 as an electron acceptor is an obligatory process that takes place
only in anaerobic environments. The process results in the distinctive odor of H 2S in anaerobic bogs, soils and sediments where it
occurs.
Sulfur is assimilated by bacteria and plants as SO4 for use and reduction to sulfide. Animals and bacteria can remove the sulfide
group from proteins as a source of S during decomposition. These processes complete the sulfur cycle.
 Mineralization of organic sulfur into inorganic forms, such as hydrogen sulfide (H2S),
elemental sulfur, as well as sulfide minerals.
 Oxidation of hydrogen sulfide, sulfide, and elemental sulfur (S) to sulfate (SO42−).
 Reduction of sulfate to sulfide.
 Incorporation of sulfide into organic compounds (including metal-containing derivatives).
Structure and Classification of Viruses

Some scientists argue that viruses are not even living things. We suppose it's easier to give you a list of
what they can't do as opposed to what they can. What viruses can't do:
(1) They can't reproduce on their own. They need to infect or invade a host cell. That host cell will do

all the work to duplicate the virus.
(2) They don't respond to anything.
(3) They don't really have any working parts. They have no nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, or
ribosomes. Viruses are small obligate intracellular parasites.
Every virus has a few basic parts. The most important part is a small piece of DNA or RNA (never
both). That strand of nucleic acid is considered the core of the virus. The second big part is a protein
coat to protect the nucleic acid. That coat is called the capsid. The capsid protects the core but also
helps the virus infect new cells. A complete virus particle is called a virion. Some viruses have another
coat or shell called the envelope. The envelope is made of lipids and proteins in the way a regular cell
membrane is structured. The envelope can help a virus get into systems unnoticed and help them
invade new ‘host cells.
Classification of Viruses
Morphology: Viruses are grouped on the basis of size and shape, chemical composition and structure
of the genome, and mode of replication.
Based on their shapes, viruses have three basic shapes.

1) First there are helical virions. They are set up like a tube. The protein coat winds up like a garden
hose around the core.
2) Next comes the polyhedral shape. This shape group includes the classic virus shape that looks like
a dodecahedron( twelve sides).
3) Last is the complex virus shape. You may have seen this one in books with the geometric head and
long legs.
Chemical Composition and Mode of Replication: The genome of a virus may consist of DNA or
RNA, which may be single stranded (ss) or double stranded (ds), linear or circular. The entire genome
may occupy either one nucleic acid molecule (monopartite genome) or several nucleic acid segments
(multipartite genome). The different types of genome necessitate different replication strategies.
Smaller than Viruses?

There are things out there even smaller than viruses. The two that scientists have discovered are called
prions and viroids. A prion is (as far as we know) just a protein. Prions are proteins that can invade
cells and somehow direct their own duplication, making more of the isolated proteins. Viroids are a
little different in that they are just RNA. Scientists have even discovered that they are responsible for
some diseases.
HIV Structure and Life Cycle

HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. Like all viruses, HIV cannot grow or reproduce on its own. In
order to make new copies of itself it must infect the cells of a living organism.
HIV belongs to a special class of viruses called retroviruses. Within this class, HIV is placed in the subgroup
of lentiviruses. Other lentiviruses include SIV, FIV, Visna and CAEV, which cause diseases in monkeys, cats,
sheep and goats. HIV infects the CD4 cells (T-helper cells) that form the body's immune system. As HIV
infects more cells, the immune system becomes weaker - which can lead to a person developing
AIDS(Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome). HIV treatment protects the cells and so keeps the immune
system strong - preventing AIDS.
Entry of HIV into the host cell requires the binding of one or more gp120
molecules on the virus to CD4 molecules on the host cell's surface..
Three enzymes important to the virus's life cycle - reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease - are
also within the nucleocapsid.
Although helper T cells seem to be the main target for HIV, other cells can become infected as well.
These include monocytes and macrophages, which can hold large numbers of viruses within
themselves without being killed. Some T cells harbor similar reservoirs of the virus.
it became clear that two different coreceptors are involved in the binding. One, CCR5, a chemokine
receptor, serves as a coreceptor early in an infection. Another chemokine receptor (CXCR4) later
serves as a coreceptor.
Key Points
 HIV gradually destroys the immune system by attacking and killing CD4 cells. CD4 cells are a type of
white blood cell that play a major role in protecting the body from infection.
 The standard treatment for HIV (also called antiretroviral therapy or ART) involves taking a
combination of HIV medicines from at least two different HIV drug classes every day. Because HIV
medicines in different drug classes block HIV at different stages of the HIV life cycle, ART is highly
effective at preventing HIV from multiplying. ART also reduces the risk of HIV drug resistance.
 ART can’t cure HIV, but it does protect the immune system, which helps people with HIV live longer,
healthier lives. ART also reduces the risk of sexual transmission of HIV.

Once a person is infected with HIV, the virus begins to attack and destroy the CD4 cells of the immune system.
CD4 cells are a type of white blood cell that play a major role in protecting the body from infection. HIV uses
the machinery of the CD4 cells to multiply (make copies of itself) and spread throughout the body. This process
is called the HIV life cycle.
HIV Transmission
HIV is transmitted principally in three ways: by sexual contact, (homosexual or heterosexual contact),
by blood (through transfusion, blood products, or contaminated needles), or by passage from mother to
child. HIV is not spread by the fecal-oral route; aerosols; insects; or casual contact, such as sharing
household items or hugging. The risk to health care workers is primarily from direct inoculation by
needle sticks. Although saliva can contain small quantities of the virus, the virus cannot be spread by
kissing.
The management of HIV/AIDS normally includes the use of multiple antiretroviral drugs in an attempt to
control HIV infection. There are several classes of antiretroviral agents that act on different stages of the HIV
life-cycle. The use of multiple drugs that act on different viral targets is known as highly active antiretroviral
therapy (HAART). HAART decreases the patient's total burden of HIV, maintains function of the immune
system, and prevents opportunistic infections that often lead to death.
Types of HIV/AIDS Antiretroviral Drugs

There are six major types of drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS. Called antiretrovirals The drugs are often
referred to as: antiretrovirals, ARVs, anti-HIV or anti-AIDS drugs. because they act against the
retrovirus HIV, these drugs are grouped by how they interfere with steps in HIV replication
Entry Inhibitors interfere with the virus' ability to bind to receptors on the outer surface of the cell it
tries to enter. When receptor binding fails, HIV cannot infect the cell.
Fusion Inhibitors interfere with the virus’s ability to fuse with a cellular membrane, preventing HIV
from entering a cell.
Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors prevent the HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT) from
converting single-stranded HIV RNA into double-stranded HIV DNA―a process called reverse
transcription. There are two types of RT inhibitors:
1. Nucleoside/nucleotide RT inhibitors (NRTIs) are faulty DNA building blocks. When one of these faulty
building blocks is added to a growing HIV DNA chain, no further correct DNA building blocks can be
added on, halting HIV DNA synthesis.
2. Non-nucleoside RT inhibitors (NNRTIs) bind to RT, interfering with its ability to convert HIV RNA into
HIV DNA
Integrase Inhibitors block the HIV enzyme integrase, which the virus uses to integrate its genetic
material into the DNA of the cell it has infected.
Protease Inhibitors interfere with the HIV enzyme called protease, which normally cuts long chains
of HIV proteins into smaller individual proteins. When protease does not work properly, new virus
particles cannot be assembled.
Multi-class Combination Products combine HIV drugs from two or more classes, or types, into a
single product.

To prevent strains of HIV from becoming resistant to a type of antiretroviral drug, healthcare
providers recommend that people infected with HIV take a combination of antiretroviral drugs in
an approach called highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART combines drugs from at
least two different classes.
What is the connection between HIV medicines and the HIV life cycle?
Without treatment, HIV infection gradually destroys the immune system and advances to AIDS. HIV
medicines protect the immune system by blocking HIV at different stages of the HIV life cycle.
HIV medicines are grouped into different drug classes according to how they fight HIV. Each class of
drugs attacks HIV at a different stage of the HIV life cycle.
Standard HIV treatment (also called antiretroviral therapy or ART) involves taking a combination of
HIV medicines from at least two different HIV drug classes every day. Because HIV medicines in
different drug classes block HIV at different stages of the HIV life cycle, ART is highly effective at
preventing HIV from multiplying. Having less HIV in the body protects the immune system and
prevents HIV from advancing to AIDS. ART also reduces the risk of HIV drug resistance.
Can ART cure HIV?
ART can’t cure HIV, but by blocking HIV at different stages of the HIV life cycle, ART protects the
immune system. A healthier immune system helps people with HIV live longer, healthier lives. HIV
medicines also reduce the risk of sexual transmission of HIV.

HIV Transmission
HIV is transmitted principally in three ways: by sexual contact, (homosexual or heterosexual
contact), by blood (through transfusion, blood products, or contaminated needles), or by passage
from mother to child. HIV is not spread by the fecal-oral route; aerosols; insects; or casual
contact, such as sharing household items or hugging. The risk to health care workers is primarily
from direct inoculation by needle sticks. Although saliva can contain small quantities of the
virus, the virus cannot be spread by kissing.
The management of HIV/AIDS normally includes the use of multiple antiretroviral drugs in an
attempt to control HIV infection. There are several classes of antiretroviral agents that act on
different stages of the HIV life-cycle. The use of multiple drugs that act on different viral targets
is known as highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART decreases the patient's total
burden of HIV, maintains function of the immune system, and prevents opportunistic infections
that often lead to death.
What is combination therapy?
Taking two or more antiretroviral drugs at a time is called combination therapy. Taking a combination
of three or more anti-HIV drugs is sometimes referred to as Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
(HAART).
If only one drug was taken, HIV would quickly become resistant to it and the drug would stop
working. Taking two or more antiretrovirals at the same time vastly reduces the rate at which
resistance would develop, making treatment more effective in the long term
UNIT 1 - MICROORGANISM
1996 EHEECE
1. Which one of the following unicellular organisms is prokaryote?

A, Amoeba B, Bacteria C, Euglena D, Paramecium
2. What is a plasmid?
A, material that is found in blood B, material found in the cell membrane
C, The same as a virus D, A strand of DNA in bacteria cell
3. Select the alternative that contain only vector borne infections
A, Malaria, Tranchoma, syphilis, Tapeworm
B, Malaria, Leshmaniasis, Trypoanosomiasis, Typhus
C, Diphtheria, Tuberculosis, Cholera, meningitis
D, Leprosy, Ring worm, pneumonia, Hook worm
4. Which of the following diseases of animal would be controlled if one is able to control tsetse files?
A, Heart water B, Trypanosomiasis C, Rinder pest D, Black leg
5. In Ethiopia, which of the following genera of microorganisms has the potential to be used for single
cell protein production?
A, Spirulina B, Rhizobium C, Bacillus D, Agrobacterium
1997 EHEECE
6. Choose the one in which the disease and its categoric name are mismatched
A, senile dementia – deficiency disease B, pellagra – deficiency disease
C, Parkinson’s disease – degenerative disease D, Typhus – vector borne disease
1998 EHEECE
7. To which one of the following kingdom would you classify Lichens?

A, plantae B, protista C, monera D, fungi
8. In which Ethiopian traditional food preparation is the action of microorganisms least evident?
A, Injera making B, Kocho making C, Kinche making D, Irgo( Yoghurt) making
9. Which of the following characteristics of life is NOT possessed by virus
A, mutation B, Nucleic acid C, Respiration D, Reproduction
10. The bird flu is currently threatening the global poultry industry what is the causative agent of this
disease A, Bacteria B, Virus C, Fungi D, worm
1999 EHEECE
11. Which of the following is the causative agent of AIDS
A, Fungus B, Bacterium C, Virus D, Protozoan
12. Which of the following can be one reason for the difficulty to produce a Vaccine against HIV?
A, The small size of the virus B, The high variability of the virus
C, Its possession of RNA instead of DNA
D, Presence of a protective envelope derived from the host cell
13. If all the dogs in your community are vaccinated, which of the following disease will be put under
control in your community
A, meningitis B, Rabies C, Leishmaniasis D, Syphilis
2000 EHEECE
14. Anti – HIV/AIDS club are today common in schools and colleges. What is their main contribution in the
fight against the pandemic
A, provide medication for AIDS patients. B, Encourage the girls to have boyfriends.
C, Encourage the boys to have girl friends
D, Raise awareness about the problem among students
15. If an HIV patient takes a drug that inhibits the function of the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme,
which of the following processes would be primarily affected?
A, Entry of the virus into the patient’s cells B, Copying of DNA in to RNA

C, Copying of RNA in to DNA D, Protein synthesis
16. Which one of the following statements is correct about HIV?

A, It is a bacteriophage B, It is a retrovirus
C, It is a DNA virus D, It infects plants and animals alike
17. Which of the following techniques is more appropriate to produce genetically modified organisms
( GMO’s)? A, sexual hybridization B, Genetic engineering
C, Artificial insemination D, vegetative propagation
18. Some countries demand foreign travels to produce HIV – free certificate before letting them enter the
country. What do we call this type of disease control mechanism?
A, Legislative B, Physical C, Cultural D, Biological
19. Scientists successfully transferred and inserted a bacterial gene to rice plants and produced the “
Golden rice “ . a transgenic rice with very high content of vitamin A in the grain. Which research
technique did they apply in this process?
A, Normal breeding B, Grafting bacteria to rice
C, Genetic enegineering D, protoplast fusion
2001 EHEECE
20. Select the kingdom of life in which the cellular organelles are without membrane around them
A, plantae B, protista C, Monera D, Fungi
21. Which of the following is true about the meanings contained in the name HIV and AIDS?
A, HIV refers to the symptoms that characterize the condition
B, AIDS refers to the causative agent
C, AIDS refers to the symptoms
D, HIV refers to its probable origin from chimpanzees
2002 EHEECE
22. Of the following which cell type is attacked by HIV?
A, RBC B, Sperm cell C, Egg cell D, T-helper cell
23. Which of the following diseases of the livestock is associated with tsetse flies?
A, Rinder pest B, Tryp panosomiasis C, Anthrax D, Black leg disease
24. Which one of the following belongs to the category of hetrotrophic organisms?
A, Algae B, Fungi C, Higher plants D, Mosses
25. Among the following human diseases, identify the one that is transmited through a vector?
A, Leprosy B, Chancroid C, Gonorrhea D, Leishmaniasis
26. A number of viruses, including HIV, have more than one strain. This shows that viruses are
A, capable of living outside their hosts B, capable of mutation

C, capable of reproduction D, obligate parasites
2003 EHEECE
27. The cells of which group of microorganisms can be described as prokaryotic?
A, Viruses B, Protozoa C, Algae D, Bacteria
28. Which of the following are rod – shaped bacteria?
A, Cocci B, Spirochetes C, Spirilla D, Bacilli
29. What are bacteriophages? A, Bacteria B, Viruses C, Protozoa D, Fungi
30. Which one of the following is the major killer of AIDS patients?
A, pneumonia B, opportunistic infection C, Anaemia D, Malnutrition
31. Among the following infectious human diseases, identify the one that is caused by the virus
A, yellow fever B, pneumonia C, cholera D, Thyphoid fever
32. Which of the following is the right vector to transfer alien genes to bacteria through genetic
engineering A, plasmids B, snails C, mosquitoes D, Bacteria
33. Why are T-lymphocytes more vulnerable to HIV infection? Because they possess
A, thin cell membrane B, gp120 on their surface
C, HIV receptor protein D, large pores in their cell membrane
34. Which one of the following is the mode of reproduction in bacteria?
A, Mitosis B, Binary fission C, conjugation D, Lysogenization
35. Choose the disease that is caused by what is known as the “ droplet infection.”
A, Flue B, AIDS C, Cholera D, Malaria
36. Which of the following statements is true about bacteria?
A, Bacteria found in the human body are all parasitic
B, All bacteria are harmful because they spoil foods
C, All bacteria cause diseases to plants, animals and humans in some ways
D, Some bacteria living in the human body make vitamins needed by the body.
37. If AIDS patients are given anti retroviral drugs that are targeted against the protease enzyme, which
one of the following stages of the HIV life cycle would be inhibited
A, entry into the host cell B, Reverse transcription
C, Integration of viral DNA into host DNA D, Assembly of viral part into a whole virus
2004 EHEECE
38. Which of the following compounds is an important component of the bacterial cell wall?
A, Chitin B, Peptidoglycan C, cellulose D, pectin
39. Which of the following is the best collective name for all bacteria with spherical shapes?
A, Cocci B, Bacilli C, Spirochetes D, Streptococci

40. In which kingdom of life are the unicellular eukaryotes grouped?
A, Monera B, Protista C, Plantae D, Animalia
41. In which part of the cell do Gram – positive and Gram – negative bacteria differ regarding their
staining property with Gram’s stain?
A, cytoplasm B, cell membrane C, cell wall D, Nucleus
42. What are the individual strands of a fungal mycelium called
A, Fungus B, spores C, Hyphae D, Hydra
43. To which of the following groups does HIV belong?
A, plasmids B, Retroviruses C, DNA viruses D, Bacteriophages
44. In DNA cloning technology, which of the following molecules serves as a vector of gene of interest to
be transferred to bacterial host?
A, Bacterial DNA B, Plasmid DNA C, Nuclear DNA D, Mitochondrial DNA
45. What is the main mode of transmission of diseases such as cholera and thyphoid fever?
A, sexual intercourse B, Bite of animal vectors
C, Blood to blood contact D, Drinking contaminated water
46. Which of the following is true about the antiretroviral druges currently used to treat AIDS patients?
A, They cure AIDS B, They stop HIV transmission
C, They serve as anti –HIV vaccines D, They slow down HIV replication
47. Viruses are better characterized as
A, decomposes B, producers C, carnivores D, parasites
2005EHEEC
48.Which of the following kingdoms of life consisting of prokaryotic organisms?
A fungi C protista
B Monera D Plantae
50.which component of soil fertility is improved when farmers grow legumes in crop rotation?
A) phosphorus C)sulfur
B)Nitrogen D)Carbon
51.what are the most frequent causative agents of food poisoning ?
A)Bacteria C)viruses
B)Protozoa D)worms
52)which of the following practices of doesn’t normally transmit HIV?
A)Sexual intercourse through C)blood transfusion
B) Sharing injection needles D)shaking hands
53)what is the important role played by micro organisms such as bacteria and fungi in ecosystem?
A)Antibiotic production C)Forming organic substances

B)Recycling of nutrients D)Supplying energy to the ecosystem
54) which of the following human disease can be prevented by taking proper diets?
A) Degenerative diseases C) social diseases
B)Genetic diseases D)deficiency disease
55)To which of the following groups do those bacteriophages that integrate their DNA into the
chromosome of their bacterial host belong?
A)Virulent disease C)Lysogenic Viruses
B)Lytic Viruses D)non parasitic viruses
56)In which of the following features are eukaryotic cells distinguished from prokaryotic cells?
A,They have mitochondria C,They have no DNA
B,Their nuclei lack membranes D,They have smaller ribosome
57) which group of microorganisms causes the disease known as athlete foot?
A)Bacteria C)Protozoa
B)Fungi D)Viruses
58)Choose the one that is different from all others?
A)Genetically modified organism C)Pathogenic organisms
B)Genetic engineered organism D)Transgenic organism
59)Under which of the following groups can the fungi be more conveniently placed?
A)Autotrophy C)Prokaryotes
B)Heterotrophy D)Plants
60).which is the advantage of using HAART(highly active anti retroviral therapy) for the treatment of
HIV?
A)It give a lasting immunity to HIV c)It prevents re-infection by HIV
B)It prevents mutation of HIV D)It helps to break the life cycle of HIV
61)On which one of the following principles are most of the anti-HIV drugs currently in use working?
A)Inhibition of enzyme action C)Digesting of viral particles
B)Degradition of viral particles D)Phagocytosis of the virus
62)If a new anti-HIV drug is to be developed to prevent the virus from entering the host cell,which one
of the following processes should the drug target?
A)Reverse transcription C)Integration of viral DNA in the host DNA
B)Binding of Gp120 and CD4 D)Assembly of viral parts in to a whole virus
Revision Questions
63)Which one of the following steps in the life cycle of HIV is blooked if an antiretroviral drug that inhibits
the reverse transcription enzyme is given to an AIDS patient?

A, formation of DNA from RNA B, The entry of HIV into CD4 cells
C, The integration of HIV DNA into host chromosome D, The assembly of parts into HIV partice
64)Which statement comparing eukaryotes and prokaryotes is not correct?
A, only eukaryotes have ribosomes B, only eukakyotes have chloroplase & mitochondrion
C, Both of them have membranes made of phospholipids
D, Both of them have genetic material & cell membrane
65)Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A, Degenerative diseases – Arthritis & atherosclerosis

B, Genetic diseases – Hemophilia & sickle cell anemia
C, Deficiency diseases – scurvy & kwashiorkor
D, Human induced disease – cancer, some form of heart disease & fibrosis E, None
Question 57 and 58 are based on the information given below
1. Decolorisation by alcohol 4, crystal violet
2. Counter stain safranin 5, Iodine treatment
3. Fixation by gentle heating
66)Which of the following is correct procedure of gram staining
A, 3  4 5  1  2 B, 3  5  1  4  2
C, 3  5  4  1  2 D, 3  4  5  2  1 E, 3  4  1  5 2
67)Which of the following is FALSE?
A, Gram positive bacteria are stained purple

B, Gram negative bacteria are stained pink
C, Gram positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan & teichoic acids
D, Gram negative bacteria have outer membrane & much less peptidoglycan
68)Membrane – bounded organelles which contain DNA includes
A, The nucleus B, Endoplasmicreticulem C, Chloroplast

D, Mitochondria E, All except B
69)The sexual transmitted diseases that caused by fungus is -------
A, candidiasis B, AIDS C, Syphilis D, Gonorrhea E, ring worm
70)Which of the following is wrong about the disease & its vector
A, Trypanosomiasis – Tsetse fly B, Malaria – Anopheles mosquito

C, Cholera – house fly D, Pneumonia - black fly E, C and D
71)The element nitrogen is found in all of the following except
A, Protein B, DNA C, ATP D, RNA E, None of the above

72)During the conversation of ammonium ion to nitrites by nitrifying bacteria like nitrosomonas what
happen
A, oxygen is gained B, hydrogen ions are lost C, the r x n is oxidation D, All of the above
73)In genetic engineering which are used as vectors to transfer genetic information between different
organisms
A, plasmids B, viruses C, agrobacterium tumefaciens D, A and B E, All
74)Disease causing bacteria can be transmitted by
A, sexual intercourse & droplet infection B, eating contaminated food

C, Drinking contaminated water D, all of the above
75)DNA can be transferred in to maize, tobacco, carrots, soybean , and apple using
A, plasmids B, the gene gun C, Agrobacterium D, viruses
76)Which of the following is not a term used to describe organisms that have had foreign genes added to
them
A, pathogenic organisms B, transgenic organisms

C, genetically modified organisms D, genetically engineered organism
77)In genetic engineering, a section of DNA is joined to the cut plasmid using
A, Helicase enzyme B, ligase enzyme C, restriction enzyme

D, transcriptase enzyme E, all of the above
48. Which of the following is correct about viruses
A, viruses are either prokaryotic or eukaryotic
B, all viruses do have protein coat & genetic material
C, All viruses do have a lipoprotein envelope D, All viruses are similar in shape
78)Which of the following viral structure is wrongly defined?
A, Capsid – a protein coat surrounding the core

B, Envelope – a lipoprotein layer around the capsid in some viruses
C, virion – the complete set of a virus particle
D, Nucleocapsid – core + capsid + envelope
Question 71 is based on the information given below
1. Binding 2. Reverse transcription 3. Integration
4. Transcription 5. Viral assembly
79)Which of the following is the correct sequence of retroviral replication
A, 1  2  3 4  5 B, 1  4  2  3  5 C, 5  4  3  2  1
D, 1  4  3  2  5 E, None of the above
80)Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps in the lysogenic cycle of viral replication?

A, Adsorption  penetration  integration  peplication  maturation release
B, Adsorption  penetration  peplication  integration integeration  maturation release
C, Adsorption  penetration  peplication maturation  release
81)Which of the following is true about HIV/AIDS?
A, It is a retrovirus B, gp 120 is a glycoprotein on the surface of T – helper cells

C, AIDS reduces the body’s immune response D, All of the above
82)Which of the following is a DNA virus
A, H1N1 virus B, HIV C, Herpes simplex D, Calci virus
83)Is a virus that uses a bacteria to replicate its genetic information
A, Bacteriophage B, plasmids C, macrophage D, Transposes
84)All of the following are characteristics of virus except
A, viruses do have cellular organelles B, viruses can not multiply outside the host
C, viruses do not have independent metabolism D, viruses are obligate interacellular parasite
85)The disease result from the ageing process during which the affected tissues deteriorate over time due
to simple wear and tear is
A, social disease B, degenerative diseases

C, genetic disease D, human induced diseases
86)Which of the following is the result of genetically modified bacteria
A, insulin and antibiotics B, Enzymes for washing powder

C, human growth hormone D, All of the above
49. Despite many clinical trials there is no effective AIDS vaccine. Why not? Because
A, the virus mutate regularly B, IT infects the immune system itself
C, live attenvated virus particle can’t be used D, all could be the answer
87)The period in the development of AIDS when the body replaces the CD4 lymphocytes ( T – helper cells)
as fast as they are destroyed is called
A, window period B, latency period C, the acute period D, the escape period
88)A type of virual life cycle in which, for a period, the infected cell keeps reproducing. Copying the viral
DNA without producing more viruses are

A, Lytic cycle B, Lysogenic cycle C, chronic release cycle D, all could be the answer
89)The temperate phase of phage DNA when it replicates along with the host DNA is
A, retrovirus B, prophage C, bacteriophage D, episome
90)If AIDS patients are given antiretroviral drugs, that are targeted against the protease enzyme, which of
the following stages of the HIV life cycle would be inhibited
A, Entry into the host cell B, Integration of viral DNA into host DNA
C, reverse transcription D, assembly of viral parts into a whole virus
91) Which of the following is spiral or corkscrew –shaped bacteria?
A, Treponema pallidum B, Neisseria gonorrhoea
C, Clastridium tetani D, staphlo coccus
A, Degenerative diseases B, Human induced diseases
C, Deficiency diseases D, Genetic diseases
UNIT - 2
ECOLOGY
1996 EHEECE
1. Which ecological interaction between two species results in negative effect on the on the organisms?
A, mutualism B, competition C, predation D, neutralism
2. Choose the animal group that is represented in Ethiopia by a higher proportion of endemic species in
relation to the total number of species of that animal group found in the country
A, Birds B, Amphibians C, Reptiles D, Fishes
3. Based on the mode of nutrition, to which of the following groups down humans belong?
A, Omnivores B, Herbivores C, carnivores D, Autotrophs
4. Which is the best term used to refer to the association of different species of organisms interacting
and living together?

A, Ecosystem B, pyramid C, community D, Niche
5. To which tropic level do green plants belong
A, zero B, first C, second D, third
6. What is the method of conservation in which animals are kept in captivity and plants are grown in
botanical gardens?
A, In – situ conservation B, zoo conservation
C, ex- situ conservation D, complementary in- situ and ex – situ conservation
7. Which factor is least responsible for the reduction or loss of biodiversity in Ethiopia?
A, over harvesting biological resources B, climate change
C, Human cultural diversity D, commercial farming
8. Which of the following best illustrates loss of bio diversity?
A, The death of an individual insect that belongs to a successful species
B, A complex forest ecosystem is converted to a field of a modern high yielding crop variety
C, A new plant species is introduced from neighboring country and becomes part of the flora
D, A species develops a number of distinct varieties
1997 EHEECE
9. To which category of biodiversity would taxonomic diversity be grouped at best
A, Genetic diversity B, species diversity C, ecosystem diversity D, cultural diversity
10. Which of the following depicts a more complete concept of biodiversity?
A, All the natural resources of the globe
B, everything in the biosphere
C, The variety of life, genes and their habitats
D, All domestic plants and animals taken together
11. In a primary succession, which of the following plant types are the pioneer colonizers?
A, Herbs B, Shrubs C, Lichens D, Mosses
12. If destroyed, which of the following would result in the biggest loss of the world biodiversity?
A, Temperate evergreen forests B, Savanna woodlands
C, Temperate deciduous forests D, Tropical rainforest
13. In a food chain consisting of grass → rodents → snakes → birds, which group contains the least
amount of food energy?
A, grass B, Rodents C, snakes D, Birds
14. Which of the following groups of microorganisms convert nitrogen compounds in the solid to
atmospheric nitrogen?
A, Nitrogen – fixing bacteria B, Nitrifying bacteria
C, Denitrifying bacteria D, cyanobacteria

15. Which of the following contains members of a single species only?
A, Ecosystem B, Biosphere C, population D, community
16. Which of the following ecological pyramids present the weight of living materials available at different
trophic levels?
A, pyramid of numbers B, pyramid of biomass
C, pyramid of energy D, Inverted pyramid of numbers
17. Suppose in a population of 1000 individuals 100 new individuals were born and 50 died. What is the
percentage growth of the population?
A, 2.5% B, 5% C, 15% D, 50%
1998 EHEECE
18. What is the term for a species that is found in one particular country only?
A, Endemic species B, Geographic species C, Exotic species D, Indigenous species
19. Which of the following groups form the base of an ecological pyramid?
A, Herbivores B, Decomposers C, Omnivores D, Producers
20. Which of the following could be a better example of mutualism?
A, Fleas on a dog B, A lion preying on a buffalo
C, A beetle living on elephant dung D, A butter fly on the nectar of a flower
21. One of the following measures will be more effective to reduce human population growth rate in
Ethiopian
A, open more schools B, produce more food
C, provide better health care D, expand family planning programme
22. Of the following choose the consumer that feeds on waste materials and other remains organisms
within the food chain
A, predators B, decomposers C, omnivores D, scavangers
23. Which measure would you not recommend as a means to protect Ethiopia ecosystem and their
biodiversity?
A, In- situ conservation B, Gazettement of the protected area
C, human encroachment into the natural ecosystem D, ecosystem restoration and rehabilitation
24. Which one of the following shows the main advantage of ploughing leguminous crops such as beans
into the soil?
A, controlling soil erosion B, conserving moisture in the soil
C, Improving the level of nitrates in the soil D, controlling weeds growing in the farmland
1999 EHEECE
25. Which of the following is the primary source of energy for all others?

A, Herbivorous B, producers C, Omnivores D, Decomposers
26. The adult frog in a pond feeds on insects. What type of consumer is the frog?
A, carnivore B, Herbivore C, Parasite D, saprophyte
27. Which of the following food chains can result in an inverted pyramid of numbers
A, Grass → rabbit → foxes B, Tree → birds →parasites of birds
C, Tree →monkeys → leopards D, Grass → Insect →birds
28. The Chameleon is known to evade capture by its enemies as it mimics the background environment in
which it is found. This can be taken as an example of which characteristic of life?
A, organization B, Growth and development
C, Adaptation D, maintenance of internal body condition
29. Which of the following trophic level contains the least amount of total energy in an ecosystem?
A, First trophic level B, second trophic level C, Third trophic level D, Fourth trophic level
30. In an ecosystem, between which of the following pairs in intraspecific competition expected to be
strongest?
A, producers versus herbivores B, Herbivores versus carnivores
C, Predators versus decomposers D, carnivores versus carnivores
31. In which biome are ephemerals most typically found?
A, Savanna B, Tropical rain C, Taiga D, Desert
2000 EHEECE
32. What is the appropriate term that collectively refers to the fungi and bacteria that change the dead
organic matter to the small elemental units?
A, producers B, carnivores C, Authotrophs D, decomposers
33. Which of the following is considered a green house effect?
A, The release of CO2 and other pollutants to the atmosphere
B, The depletion of the green cover of the earth
C, The fast growth of green plants in glass houses D, The warming of the global environment
34. Which biome of the world is characterized by high competition for light among the plant community
of the biome?
A, Tundra B, Deciduous forests C, coniferous forests D, Tropical rain forest
35. Which one of the following terms is used to refer to the maximum number of individuals that a given
environment can support over a long period of time without degradation of the environmental
resources?
A, Limiting factor B, Density C, Climax community D, carrying capacity
36. Which one of the following is true about a population whose size is maintained at the carrying
capacity of its environment?

A, It grows as its biotic potential B, Its growth rate eventually decline
C, It maintain a dynamic equilibrium with the environment
D, It over shoots the environmental resistance
37. Which one of the following is the starting point or primary succession?
A, Forests destroyed by fire B, Abandoned farmland
C, Forests cleared by humans D, Land never been colonized before by life
2001 EHEECE
38. The name given to the pioneer plants that begin primary succession on very dry substratum like bare
rock, sand done or cooled volcanic lava is
A, Hydrophytes B, Mesophyt C, Xerophytes D, Halophytes
39. Identify the ability of the camel that allows it to survive in desert environments where there is low
water supply
A, Fluctuation of its body temprautre to save water by reducing evaporation
B, Evaporate more water through the skin to keep itself cool
C, Sleep during the day and feed at night
D, Move in flocks to avoid evaporation of water from the body
40. In which biome of the world are ephemeral and succulent more common?
A, savanna B, Desert C, Deciduous forest D, Temperate grass land
41. One of the following is true about mutualistic in teraction between two species
A, Both species benefit B, Both species are harmed
C, One species benefits and the second harmed
D, one species benefits and the second remains un affected
42. In which biome of the world are epiphytes and linans commonly found?
A, Savanna B, Desert C, Tropical rain forest D, Tundra
43. Which group of two words mean the same thing?
A, Autotroph and producer B, Autotroph and consumer
C, Autotroph and consumer D, Hetroptroph and producer
44. In order for a population to grow at its biotic potential, which one of the following should be
available?
A, strong environmental resistance B, Maximum density dependent effect
C, maximum density independent effect D, unlimited supply of resources
45. Which of the following types of forests in Ethiopia is the poorest in the number of tree species?
A, podocarpus forests B, Eucalyptus forests
C, Juniperus forests D, Broad – leaved forests of the South west
2002 EHEECE

46. In which aspect of biodiversity are such measures like richness, abundance and taxonomic diversity in
populations commonly applied?
A, ecosystem diversity B, cultural diversity C, species diversity D, Genetic diversity
47. Which of the following terms is synonymous with a producer?
A, omnivore B, Herbivore C, Carnivore D, Autotroph
48. The concentration of which of the following gases is on the increase in the atmosphere in recent years
than before?
A, Carbondioxide B, Oxygen C, Nitrogen D, Ozone
49. With which type of agricultural crops are nitrogen fixing bacteria more associated?
A, Legumes B, Cereals C, Vegetables D, Fruits
50. Which of the following methods of avoiding predation by animals is mimicry?
A, Resembling another organism B, Producing warning coloration
C, Fighting away the enemy D, Running away from the enemy
51. In an ecyosystem, the presence of which of the following groups is essential in order for the others to
be present?
A, Autotrophs B, Herbivores C, Decomposers D, Omnivores
52. What is a biome?
A, A group of interacting individuals of the same species
B, The total life zone of the earth’s surface
C, A group of populations that interact with the physical environment
D, A region of the earth characterized by distinctive life forms
53. What does the feeding relationship in an ecosystem consist of?

A, Many stages of community succession
B, Always a network of interconnected food chains
C, One organism feeds on another but itself eaten by another one
D, recycling of solar energy between the source and the trophic levels.
54. Which of the following is a mismatch between a biome and what it contains?
A, Savanna – large herbivores B, Desert – cacti
C, deciduous forest – ever green trees D, Tropical rainforest – high biodiversity
55. In an ecosystem that consists of grasses, birds, grasshoppers and frogs, which of the following food
chain is possible?
A, Grass → frog → grass hopper → birds
B, Grass → grasshopper → frog → birds
C, Grass → birds → grass hopper→ frog
D, Bird → frog → grass hopper → grass

56. If a forest is protected inorder to conserve wild coffee in the forest, what sort of conservation do we
call this?
A, In situ conservation B, Ex situ conservation
C, on farm conservation D, cryopreservation
57. Which of the following makes a food web of a ecosystem different from a food chain
A, presence of many tropic levels
B, clear sign of the cycling of materials
C, presence of many interconnected food chains
D, presence of many organisms through which energy passes
58. Choose the environmental factor that decreases both with increasing altitude and latitude?
A, Temperature B, Sun light C, Moisture D, fertility of soil
59. The carbondioxide produced during the respiratory cycle and other processes is largely absorbed by
which of the following
A, The ozone layer B, Animals C, plants D, The sky
60. Which process of life is grouped into autotrophic in some organisms and heteroptrophic in others?
A, The transport system B, The aspect of Nutrition
C, Anaerobic respiration D, The coordination system
2003 EHEECE
61. Which one of the following has a unidireactional flowin an ecosystem?
A, Nitrogen B, Carbondioxide C, phosphorous D, Energy
62. Which term better captures the concept of variety of organisms present in a whole continent as well
as all the genes found in them?
A, Niche B, Biodiversity C, Ecosystem D, Biome
63. In what ways are the modes of nutrition of animals and saprophytes similar?
A, No enzymes are produced B, Digestion is external to their cells
C, They build up proteins from light D, They are autotrophic organisms
64. Which one is a biotic factor that can influence a plant?
A, The PH of the soil B, A pollinating animal
C, CO2 concentration D, The amount of radiant energy
65. Which of the following is a threat to the survival of small population
A, Habitat destruction B, Breeding in captivity
C, Disease resistance D, Absence of competition
66. What is biomass?
A, The number of species in a given biome B, The total weight of living matter in a given area

C, The density of a species in a given area
D, The total energy found in plants and animals in an ecosystem
67. Which of the following is expected to have a positive effect on the biodiversity of Ethiopia
A, Diverse ecology B, Extensive deforestation
C, over grazing by livestock D, Logging and fuel wood removal
68. Which one of the following terms is most appropriate to collectively refer to all the plants, animals
and microorganisms found in Munesa forest in Ethiopia?
A, Ecology B, Ecosystem C, Population D, Community
69. In a given ecosystem, members of which one of the following feeding groups release nutrients that are
locked up in organic molecules?
A, Herbivores B, Producers C, Carnivores D, Decomposers
70. What is the collective name for plants that are well adapted to live in very dry environment?
A, Epiphytes B, Xerophytes C, Mesophytes D, Hydrophytes
71. In which of the following biomes are epiphytes typically present as characteristic elements?
A, Tundra B, Boreal forest C, cold desert D, Tropical rain forest
72. Which of the following is more likely to ensure the conservation of all the rest?
A, Soil conservation B, plant conservation
C, wild life conservation D, water shed conservation
73. How do animals obtain nitrogen?
A, By absorbing nitrates and ammonia from the soil
B, From the proteins in the organisms they consume
C, By abosrobing nitrogen gas from the atmosphere
D, Through a mutualistic relationship with nitrogen – fixing bacteria
74. How is it possible for different species to coexist in an ecosystem?
A, Each species has a specific biome of its own
B, Each species occupies a different niche within the ecosystem
C, There is no competition for resources among species in an ecosystem
D, All resources are equally shared among species in an ecosystem
75. All other factors remaining the same, which of the following decreases the size of a population?
A, Birth rate that is greater than death rate
B, Emigration rate that is less than immigration rate
C, Immigration rate that is greater than death rate D, Emigration rate that is greater than death rate
76. In Ethiopia, which of the following groups of the vertebrate is the most diverse interms of species
number? A, Mammals B, Birds C, Reptiles D, Amphibians

77. What is the best term that refers to the maximum number of individuals that a given environment can
support over a long period of time without degradation?
A, Density B, Climax community C, carrying capacity D, Limiting factor
78. Which of the following land biomes occupies a large part of Brazil, part of equatorial West Africa and
South East Asia? A, Acacia forest B, Deciduous temperate forest
C, Coniferous forest D, Tropical rainforest
2004 EHEECE
79. Which one of the following is not recycled between organisms and the environment in an ecosystem?
A, Energy B, Carbon C, Nitrogen D, Phosphorus
80. What is the term that refers to all parts of the earth where living things are found?
A, Population B, Ecosystem C, Biosphere D, Environment
81. Which one of the following is the main source of the green house gases that are concentrating in the
atmosphere of the earth?
A, Burning of fossil fuels B, Plants growing in green houses
C, Photosynthesis by aquatic plants D, Respiration by animal and plants
82. Which one of the following is not one of the roles that microorganisms play in ecosystem
A, Nutrient recycling B, Carbon fixation C, Nitrogen fixation D, Energy recycling
83. Which one of the following demographic factors affects the number of human population globally?
A, Natality B, Migration C, Emigration D, Immigration
84. When do populations of living organisms show exponential growth?
A, When the resources are plentiful B, Whenever they enter a new environment
C, When they face strong competition from other species
D, When the carrying capacity of the environment is reached
85. Which of the following terrestrial biomes experiences hot days and cold nights?
A, Tundra B, Tropical rain forest C, Desert D, Grass lands
86. Which group of organisms found in Ethiopia is represented by the highest number of endemic taxa?
A, Mammals B, Amphibians C, Birds D, Plants
87. What could be the main reason behind the currently observed slow or stable rate of population
growth in the industrialized countries?
A, Good family planning B, Increasing death rate
C, poor health conditions D, High rate of child death
88. Which alternative contains only crops known to have been domesticated with in Ethiopia?
A, Guizotia abyssinica, Zeamays , pisumsativum
B, Viciafaba, carica papaya, musaparadisiaca
C, orizasativa, triticum aestvum, solanum tuberosum

D, coffee Arabica, eragrostistef, ensete ventricosulum
89. Which of the following statements is true about the nitrogen cycle?
A, Plants fix nitrates from atmospheric nitrogen
B, The nitrogen used by animals largely comes from plants
C, Nitrogen is consumed by bacteria and removed from the soil
D, Nitrogen – fixing bacteria reduce the total amount of available nitrogen
90. What is the average projected rate of loss of biodiversity every 50 years?
A, 5% B, 10% C, 20% D, 50%
91. Which stage in a primary ecological succession contains more biodiversity?
A, The third serial stage B, The second serial stage
C, The climax community D, The pioneer community
92. The tropical rainforest largely found in South America and Africa can be best characterized by a
combination of which environmental features?
A, Low rainfall and low temperature B, High rain fall and high temperature
C, Low rainfall and high temperature D, High rain fall and low temperature
93. Which of the following terms mean stages in an ecological succession?
A, Pioneers B, Climaxes C, Seres D, Niches
94. Which factors are involved in the determination of climax vegetation?
A, Temperature and precipitation B, Grazing and browzing animals
C, Radiation and reflection D, Predators and preys
95. Which of the following can be given as a good reason for finding large numbers of plant and mammal
species in Ethiopia today?
A, Lack of ecological disturbance B, Environment free from predators
C, Presence of many biomes and habitats D, Good ecological and biodiversity managment
96. How do human beings increase biodiversity?
A, By reducing species richness B, By increasing genetic variability
C, By promoting habitat uniformity D, By narrowing ecological variability
Revision Questions
97. Suppose in a population of 2000 individual 75 new individuals were born and 50 died. What is the
percentage growth of the population
A, 5% B, 1.25% C, 2.5% D, 25% E, None
98. Biodiversity refers to
A, The renewable resource B, The non renewable resource
C, A variety of life, habitats D, The plant life of an area

A, Freshwater biome – pond, lake, stream, river and wet lands
B, Marine biome – coral reff, estuarine, oceanic pelagic and abyssal
C, Fresh water biome – pond, lake, coral reef and estuarine
D, A and B
100. Which of the following freshwater biome is biologically rich in many plants and animals
A, streams and rivers B, wet lands C, pond and lakes D, oceanic pelagic
101. Which Marin habitat is the most logical productive area and unique due to the mixing of salt and
fresh water? A, Estuarine B, Oceanic pelagic C, coral reef D, oceanic
abyssal
102. If mortality exceeds natality and emigration exceeds immigration the population numbers will -------
A, decrease B, increase C, remain constant D, unknown
103. Which of the following factors are not regarded as a density dependent factors ( Biotic factors ) in
the growth of natural population
A, predation and disease B, inter and intra specific competition
C, predation and intra specific competition D, light and temperature
104. Competitive exclusion principle states “ If two species are present initially, they will compete for the
same available resources in the niche. One will be more successful and the other will be made
locally extinct” A, False B, True
105. Choose the biome that is cold, dry with lichens and mosses that are fed on by migrating animals
A, Tundra B, Desert C, Thorn forest D, Taiga ( Boreal forest )
106. Identify the correct definition from the following
A, primary succession – a hostle area is colonized by pioneer species like lichens
B, secondary succession – occur when an existing ecosystem is destroyed
C, Climax community – the final most complex state of succession
D, seres – different stage in succession E, All of the above
107. Which of the following trends occur in any succession?
A, The species diversity and the number of ecological niches increases.
B, The total biomass of the community increase
C, The community becomes more stable
D, Food webs become more complex E, All of the above

108. Each of events below is involved the phase in a population growth curve
I, lag phase II, log phase , III, stationary phase IV, death phase
Which ordering of the event is correct?
A, I  II  III  IV B, IV  III  II  I C, II  I  III IV D, IV II  I  III
109. A loss of biodiversity can lead to
A, Increase Vulnerability B, worsening health
C, increasing insecurity of food supply
D, less freedom for choice and action E. All of the above
110. Is a geographically and climatically defined region with organisms with have similar ecological adaptation
A, Biomass B, Biome C, Succession D, symbiosis
111. The amount of energy taken up by the producer in any ecosystem is
A, gross primary productivity B, net primary productivity
C, secondary productivity D, ecological pyramid
112. The land biomes with the lowest and highest biodiversity and net primary productivity are -------- &
--------- respectively. A, Desert and tropical rainforest B, Tropical rain forest and desert
C, taiga and tropical rainforest D, desert and savannah
A, Nitrifying bacteria – Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
B, Nitrogen – fixing soil bacteria , Azotobacter and Klebsiella
C, Decomposers – bacteria and fungi
D, Nitrogen fixing in nodules on the root of legumes – Rhizobium E, All of the above
114. Identify the wrong definition from the following
A, Epiphytes – plants growing on other large plants B, Lianas – is a climbing plants
C, xeroser – succession beginning on a bare rock D, Hydrosere – succession beginning with water
115. Identify the wrong definition from the following
A, Neutralism – two species are affected each other
B, Proto cooperation – two species cooperate to the benefit of but the association is not obligatory
C, Commensalism – one species benefits while the host is neither harmed nor benefit.

D, Amensalism – one species are affected and the other species remain unaffected
116. The main processes involved in cycling carbon through the ecosystems are
A, photosynthesis & respiration B, fossilization and combustion
C, feeding and assimilation D, All of the above
117. In the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen gas is returned to the atmosphere by
A, denitrifying bacteria like pseudomonas B, Ammonifying bacteria
C, Nitrifying bacteria D, Nitrogen - fixing bacteria
118. Which of the following is correct in the Sulphur cycle
A, photosynthetic sulphur bacteria – oxidize H2S in to Sulphur
B, Desulphovibrio – release the sulphur in the protein S in the form of H 2S
C, Non photosynthetic bacteria – oxidized sulphur in to sulphate ion D, All of the above
119. Identify the correct definition from the following
A, Natality – birth rate B, Mortality – death rate C, Immigration – movement in the area
D, Emigration – movement out of the area E, All of the above
120. The rapid population growth can be controlled by
A, contraception programmes B, education about sex
C, better provision of resource to agriculture D, All of the above
121. In which phase of population growth curve the carrying capacity is reached
A, lag phase B, stationary phase C, log phase D, decline phase
122. Age pyramids show the percentage of both males and females in each age group in a population
A, True B, False
123. In which phase the adapted population increase rapidly due to a abundant rapidly due to abundant
resources A, log phase B, lag phase C, stationary phase D, decline phase
124. Which biome that is warm, thin soil and has many plants, epiphytes and animals.
A, Tropical rain forest B, temperate deciduous forest C, Boreal forest D, Thorn forest
125. Animal “ x “ ate animal “ y “ which had eaten animal “ z “ that had inturn eaten vegetarian food. Based on
the above relationships which statement is true abut animals ‘’ y “ and “ z “
A, “ y “ and “ z “ are both herbivours B, “ y “ and “ z “ are both consumer organisms
C, “ y “ is consumer while “ z “ is a producer
D, “ y “ is tertiary consumer white “ z “ is a secondary consumer
126. Ina growth cycle of bacteria important ingredients are synthesized in the phase

A, lag phase B, log phase C, death phase D, stationary phase
127. In the nitrogen cycle, many more bacteria are involved in the process of
A, Nitrogen fixation B, Ammonification C, Nitrification D, Denitrification
128. Biodiversity refers to
A, the plants and animals life on an area B, the renewable resource
C, A variety of life, habitates and ecosystem D, the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
129. The symbiotic association between the roots of most plants and fungi is
A. Lichens B, my corrizae C, denitrification bacteria D, all could be the answer
130. In the Sulphur, nitrogen, and phosphorus cycle, the main source of Sulphur, nitrogen and phosphorous
for plants are ------------ , --------- and ------- respectively.
A, Sulphate, Nitrite and phosphate in the soil B, Sulphite, Nitrite and phosphate in the soil
C, Sulphate , Nitrate and phosphate in the soil D, Sulphate , Nitrate and phosphate in the air
131. A higher diversity index suggests all of the following except one
A, An area dominated by one or just a few species B, A number of successful species are available
C, more ecological niches are available D, The ecosystem is more stable
132. Why are T – lymphocytes more Vulnearable to HIV infection because they possess
A, thin cell membrane B, gp120 on their surface
C, HIV receptor protein D, large pores in their cell membrane
133. Identify the one that affect the density of a population
A, Natality and mortality B, immigration C, Emigration D, all could be the answer
134. Which of the collective name for plants that are well adapted to live is mismatched
A, xerophytes – in very dry environment B, mesophytes – in moderate environment
C, halophytes – in salty environment D, Hydrophytes – in alkalin environment
135. Which of the following is not endemic plant to Ethiopia?
A, coffee arabica B, Teff C, Enset D, Wheat
UNIT – 3
GENETICS
1996 EHEECE
1. At which stage of cell division do homologus chromosomes line up at the equatorial plane of the cell?
A, prophase B, metaphase C, anaphase D, telophase

2. Which of the following cells is diploid?
A, Egg B, sperm C, secondary polar body D, zygote
3. Which type of dominance operates when it is known that both alleles of a gene contribute to the
features of the phenotype?
A, complete dominance B, codominance
C, incomplete dominance D, Intermediate dominance
4. Which new research technique was used to produce the new plant now known as the “ pomato”?
A, Genetic engineering B, sexual hybridization
C, protoplast fusion D, inbreading
5. If an F1 round yellow pea of R rYy genotype is selfed, which class of pea is the most frequent in the F 1
generation
A, Wrinkled green B, Wrinkled yellow C, Round green D, Round yellow
6. During protein synthesis, which of the following molecules transports aminoacids to their correct
positions in the growing chain of polypeptide?
A, Messenger RNA B, Ribosomal RNA C, Deoxyribo nucleic acid D, Transfer RNA
7. If a strand of DNA carrying AAT bases is copied to RNA, what would the corresponding bases be in the
RNA? A, UUA B, TTA C, AAT D, UUT
8. Choose the alternative that best illustrate the recombinant DNA technique
A, Artificial insemination of animals B, crossing related plants to improve yield
C, Gene from one organism are introduced into the genome of another organism
D, crossing of carefully selected varieties of species
9. Suppose a couple produced a legitimate child of blood type B. What are the genotypes of the couple?
A, AA x BB B, AA x BO C, AA X AB D, AO x BO
10. Which of the following techniques is employed in the transfer of human insulin gene to bacteria
inorder to produce human insulin in the bacteria
A, Recombinant DNA technique B, DNA finger printing technique
C, cross pollination technique D, Proto plast fusion technique
11. Suppose a man has a dominant gene on his x – chromosome. Which of his children would show the
trait that is controlled by this gene?
A, All sons and daughter B, All sons only
C, All daughter only D, Half of the sons and half of the daughters
1997 EHEECE
12. If a plant cell having 16 chromosomes under goes meiotic cell division, how many chromomes would
the resulting daughter cells have

A, 4 B, 8 C, 16 D, 32
13. Which sequence would be complementary to a DNA strand having the sequence A-T-T-G-G-C?
A, A-T-T-G-G-C B, T-A-G-T-T-A C, T-A-A-G-G-C D, T-A-A-C-C-G
14. Which pattern of character inheritance is demonstrated by boldness in humans?
A, sex- influenced inheritance B, Sex- linked inheritance
C, Multiple inheritance D, Co-dominant inheritance
15. Select the human genetic disorder that is due to a dominant gene?
A, sickle cell anemia B, Albinism C, phenylketonuria D, polydactyly
16. If in a DNA strand of 2000 bases, 30% of the base molecules are known to be thymine. How many
guanine base molecules are present in the same DNA strand?
A, 200 B, 300 C, 400 D, 600
17. A man with blood group O married to a woman with blood group B had a child with blood group O.
What is the genotype of the mother?
A, IOIO B, IBIB C, IBIO D, IAIB
18. Which term refers to the process of protein synthesis?
A, Denaturation B, Replication C, Transcription D, Translation
19. If two species of plants with 2n=30 and 2n=40 chromosomes are hybridized, what is the chromosome
number of the F1 hybrid?
A, 30 B, 35 C, 40 D, 70
20. If a couple produces a legitimate child of blood type O. Which of the following are the possible
genotypes of the couple
A, AO and BO B, AO and AA C, OO and BB D, BO and BB
21. Colour blindness is due to a recessive gene linked on the x – chromosome. Which of the following is
expected among the children if the mother is colour blind and the father is normal visioned?
A, All children will be colour blind B, Only boys will be colour blind
C, Only girls will be colour blind D, All the girls and half of the boys will be colour blind
1998 EHEECE
22. Which of the following is the process by which RNA is made from DNA?
A, Translocation B, Transcription C, Translation D, Replication
23. If the bases of an anticodon are UCA, what are the bases on the corresponding codon triplet?
A, AGU B, UGU C, ACU D, UCA
24. According to data from the human Genome project, what is the approximate number of genes in a
human cell?
A, 10,000 B, 35,000 C, 100,000 D, 500,000
25. Which of the following is more of a characteristics of an individual than of a population

A, phenotype B, sex ratio C, Death rate D, Age distribution
26. Which of the following is an example of continuous variation in humans?
A, Height B, Blood group C, colour of the eye D, Ear lobe structure
27. Which one of the following sequences depicts what is known as the central Dogma of genetic
information flow?
A, RNA → DNA → Protein B, Protein → RNA →DNA
C, DNA → RNA → Protein D, RNA → protein → DNA
28. Which one of the following is not necessary for nuclear division?
A, Spindle formation B, cytoplasmic divisions
C, chromosomal replication D, sister chromatide separation
29. Which of the following does not happen during meiosis?
A, Recombination of genes B, Chromosoomal replication
C, Reduction of chromosome number D, Formation of identical daughter nuclei
30. In which of the following types of gene mutations would be the aminoacid of the protein remain
unaltered?
A, Silent mutation B, Mis sense mutation C, Non sense mutation D, Framshift mutation
31. What does a GMO refer to?
A, A transgenic organism B, A germ causing microorganism
C, The technical name for all moder biotechnology
D, A gram negative microorganism
1999 EHEECE
32. How many cells are produced from a single mitotic division
A, one B, two C, three D, four
33. Suppose a couple produced one normal visioned and one colour blind sons what can be concluded
about the parents?
A, The father is colour blind B, The mother is colour blind
C, the father is carried D, The mother is carrier
34. What percentage of tall plants results from a cross between hybrid tall and pure short pea plants?
A, 100% B, 75% C, 50% D, 25%
35. Which of the following techniques is used to produce many calves from different cows with sperm
collected from a selected bull?
A, Cloning technique B, Artificial insemination technique
C, Genetic engineering technique D, protoplast fusion technique

36. If the number of chromosomes in a barley egg cell is found to be 7, what is the number of
chromosomes in the cells of the same barely roots?
A, 7 B, 14 C, 21 D, 28
37. If it found that the DNA sequence has GAT bases, what are the bases of the anticodon corresponding
to the bases of mRNA transcribed from the DNA sequence?
A, GAT B, CAU C, GAU D, TCG
38. Which of the following principles of genetics is illustrated by the results of crosses between tall and
dwarf garden pea plants?
A, complete dominance B, Incomplete dominance C, partial dominance D, codominance
2000 EHEECE
39. Which of the following carcinogenic agents is a common cause of skin cancer in human?
A, Ultraviolet radiation B, RNA viruses C, DNA viruses D, chemical mutagens
40. During which stage of meiosis do members of homologues pairs of chromosomes separate?
A, prophase I B, Anaphase I C, Metaphase II D, Anaphase II
41. If a cell having 2n=40 chromosomes divides mitotic ally, how many chromosomes are expected in each
daughter cell? A, 10 B, 20 C, 40 D, 80
42. The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What percentage of its bases would be
accounted for by adenine?
A, 10% B, 20% C, 30% D, 60%
43. Inorder to produce progeny that are genetically identical to their parents as well as to each other,
which of the following methods is appropriate for breeders to use?
A, Hybridization B, Inbreeding C, cloning D, Artificial insemination
2001 EHEECE
44. How many codons are there in the genetic code?
A, 4 B, 16 C, 64 D, 256
45. In humans, what are the chances that the baby at birth would be a boy or a girl?
A, 1:1 B, 1:2 C, 1:3 D, 3:1
46. How many sperm cells are formed from 10 primary spermatocytes?
A, 10 B, 20 C, 40 D, 80
47. Which of the following hereditary phenomena was not discovered by Mendel
A, Linkage of genes B, Dominance of genes
C, Segregation of genes D, Independent assortment of genes
48. Which biotechnological process has practical application in criminal investigation?
A, Bio fuel production B, DNA finger printing
C, Single cell protein technology D, use of biosensors to test blood glucose level

2002 EHEECE
49. Choose the cells of the human body that are results of meiosis
A, Bone cells B, Brain cells C, Egg cells D, Muscle cells
50. Among the following traits of the garden pea studied by Geogor Mendel, identify the one that did NOT
express itself it the F1 generation?
A, Yellow pod colour B, Violet flower colour C, Round seed shape D, Axial flower position
51. Regarding seed characteristics suppose a hetrozogous round yellow pea plants of RrYy genotype is
selfed and produced 128 seeds, how many of the seeds are expected to be round yellow?
A, 72 B, 64 C, 32 D, 16
52. Identify the enezyme that is used to cut DNA molecules into small pieces
A, Urease B, Reverse transcriptase
C, DNA polymerase D, Restriction endonuclease
53. Suppose a lady has given birth to four boys in a row, what is the chance that her next child will be a
girl? A, 100% B, 75% C, 50% D, 25%
54. Which of the following mechanisms can separate two genes located on the chromosomes
A, Back crossing B, Crossing over C, segregation D, Independent assortment
55. If the DNA of the following animals is hybridized to human DNA with which one of them would human
DNA hybridize more?
A, Horse B, Chimpanzee C, Fish D, Mice
56. Of the following information, which one was most important to the development of the techniques of
modern genetic engineering?
A, The knowledge about recessive characters
B, The discovery of lethal genes
C, The formulation of punnett squares
D, The knowledge about the structure of the DNA molecule
57. Maize plant has 2n = 20 chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the endosperm tissue
of maize? A, 10 B, 20 C, 30 D, 40
58. Suppose a lost and found baby is claimed by the four families whose blood genotypes are shown
below. If the baby has blood type O, which of the families is the possible parents?
A, AO and BB B, AA and OO C, AO and BO D, AB and OO
59. For what objective do geneticists engineer the Bt gene of Bacillus thuringiensis in to crop plants? To
make the plant
A, resistant to insect pests B, resistant to pesticides
C, resistant to herbicides D, produce food of improved quality
60. Which of the following is expected to produce new combinations of genes?

A, Hybridization of a tall variety of “ teff” with a short variety
B, Keeping a male goat and a female sheep in the same room
C, Vegetative propagation of fruit trees D, Asexual reproduction of unicellular animals
61. Of the following information, which one was most important to the development of the techniques of
modern genetic engineering?
A, The knowledge about recessive characters
B, The discovery of lethal genes
C, The formulation of punnett squares
D, The knowledge about the structure of the DNA molecule
62. Which of the following molecules is capable of mutation?
A, Nucleic acids B, Proteins C, carbohydrates D, Lipids
63. Which of the following alternatives best defines gene flow?
A, The movement of genetic material from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
B, The transmission of genetic information from the cytoplasm to the nucleus
C, The transmission of genetic information from one population to another
D, The movement of genes from one chromosome to another
64. How do the two strands of DNA combine to form a molecule?
A, A base of one strand with a complementary base of the other strand
B, A phosphate of one strand combines with the phosphate of the other strand
C, The sugar of one strand combines with the complementary sugar of the other strand
D, A ribosoe sugar combines with a deoxyribose sugar on the same DNA strand
2003 EHEECE
65. Which one of the following refers to a change in a gene?
A, mutation B, Replication C, protein synthesis D, Transcription
66. Among the following discoveries in biology which is the latest of all?
A, The low of heredity B, The cell theory
C, The double helix nature of the DNA D, The binomial system of classification
67. Which of the following structures divides the cytoplasm of a plant cell in to two halves?
A, Nuclear membrane B, cell plate C, spindle D, cleavage furrow
68. In the life cycle of sexual reproducing organisms, which of the following processes restores the
chromosome number from haploid to diploid state?
A, Fertilization B, Meiosis C, Chromosome replication D, Mitosis
69. In plant hybridization experiment, which one of the following is the best way to prevent self-
pollination?
A, To remove the stamens B, To cover flowers with bags
C, To cross- pollinate flowers D, To make reciprocal crosses

70. Among the following choices, identify the ones that have identical DNA finger prints?
A, parents and children B, Non – twin sibs
C, Fraternal twins D, Monozygotic twins
71. Suppose in a monohybrid cross 80 F 2 plants were produced, what is the number of the plants that are
expected to have the dominant and the recessive phenotypes?
A, 70 dominant and 10 recessive B, 60 dominant + 20 recessive
C, 50 dominant + 30 recessive D, 40 dominant + 40 recessive
72. Choose the breeding method used by humans to produce new and improved varieties of plants and
animals?
A, crossing – over B, Natural selection
C, Artificial selection D, Independent assortment
73. Which one is the correct direction of transfer of genetic information in most living things?
A, Protein → DNA → mRNA B, DNA → Protein → tRNA
C, Protein → RNA → DNA D, DNA → RNA → Protein
74. The mature fruits of a flowering plant burst open when touched, forcefully ejecting the seeds
contained in the pods. Why is this advantageous to the plant?
A, It attracts insects that aid in pollination B, It aids in the dispersal of the species
C, It prevents seed germination D, It can cause genetic changes to occur
75. If it is known that the total amount of DNA in a cell contains 300 nucleotides and adenine contributes
to 80 of these, how many nucleotides go to guanine?
A, 35 B, 70 C, 80 D, 140
76. If it is known that the total number of the purine bases account for 50% of a DNA molecule and if each
of the remaining bases are known to have the same proportion, what proportion is accounted for by
Thymine alone in the same molecule.
A, 25% B, 50% C, 75% D, 100%
77. If, due to incomplete dominance, the F1 plants from across of red flowered X white flowered parents
are pink, which of the following ratios are expected in the F2 generation?
A, 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white B, 2 red : 1 pink : 1 white
C, 1red : 1 pink : 1 white D, 3 red : 1 pink: 1 white
78. Which of the following statements is consistent with the concept of the gene pool?
A, species with large gene pool have low potential of adaptation
B, endangered species usually have small gene pool.
C, large gene pool is a hindrance for livestock improvement
D, species with large gene pool are prone to diseases.
79. Why is it that the typical diploid chromosome number of many organisms including human beings is
an even number
A, It is only a coincidence
B, chromosomes duplicate before cell division
C, Both parents contribute equal number of chromosomes
D, meiosis reduces chromosome number
80. Which of the following phases of mitosis if blocked would produce a cell with twice as many
chromosomes as the mother cell
A, Interphase B, Prophase C, Anaphase D, Telophase
81. Which one of the following types of mutuations is responsible for sickle cell anaemia?
A, Addition of abase pair B, substitution of a base pair

C, Deletion of a base pair D, A shift in the reading frame of the genetic code
2004 EHEECE
82. How many different kinds of amino acids are there for protein synthesis?
A, Twenty B, Twenty four C, Twenty – six D, Thirty - two
83. As was shown by Gregore Mendel in garden pea, What percentage of the F2 generation of a
monohybrid cross has the recessive phenotype?
A, 75% B, 50% C, 25% D, 12.5%
84. Which one of the following is NOT a mutation?
A, DNA replication to form two daughter DNA
B, Gain of an extra chromosome by a cell
C, Deletion of a base pair from DNA
D, Loss of a chromosome by a cell
85. What do geneticists cell the genotype in which the two alleles of a pair are identical?
A, Dominant B, Recessive C, Homozygous D, Heterozygous
86. Which group of organisms has a system of protein synthesis in which transcription and translation
take place at separate times?
A, In all eukaryotic organisms B, In multicellular animals only
C, Only in prokaryotic organisms D, In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
87. Which one of the following is referred to as the first law of Mendel?
A, The occurrence of alleles in pairs B, The dominance of one allele over the other
C, The equal contribution of alleles by both parents
D, The separation of alleles during gamete formation
88. Which parts of the angiosperm flower are both essential for the success of hybridization experiments?
A, Sepal and petal B, stamen and petal
C, pollen and filament D, Gynoecium & androecium
89. Which of the following is the best way to check whether an individual having a dominant phenotype is
homozygous or heterozygous for the trait?
A, To self the individual
B, To cross it to a heterozygous individuals
C, To cross it to homozygous recessive individuals
D, To cross it to a homozygous dominant individuals
90. To which major area of relevance and applications of biology is the production of transgenic organisms
related?
A, Agriculture B, Environment C, Bio technology D, Medicine
91. A genetic cross between two F1 hybrid pea plants having yellow seeds ( dominant) will yield what
percent green- seeded ( recessive) plants in the F2 generation?
A, 0% B, 25% C, 50% D, 75%
92. Among the following couples whose ABO blood genotypes are shown, which one can produce children
of A, B, AB and O blood types
A, OO and AB B, BO and AA C, BO and AO D, BB and AO
93. What would most likely result if mitosis fails to be accompanied by cytoplasmic division?
A, Two cells with out nuclei B, One cell with out nucleus
C, Two cells each with one nucleus D, One cell with two identical nuclei

Revision Questions
94. Essential aminoacids
A, are found in large amount in quinoa , buck wheat , hempseed and amaranth
B, can not be synthesized by transamination
C, must be taken in as part of our diet D, All of the above
95. Which of the following genetic disease is believed to be determined by a defect involving chromosome
21 in humans?
A, cystic fibrosis B, Down’s syndrome C, Turner syndrome D, Hunting ton’s disease
96. Which of the following is not a frame shift mutation?
A, Inversion B, Addition C, Insertion D, Deletion
97. Which statement about genetic code is not correct?
A, The code is degenerate and universal B, The genetic code is a triplet
C, 61 codons code for aminoacid D, The genetic code is non – overlapping E, None
98. Meiosis produce four haploid cells that show genetic variation, the variation is a result of
A, crossing over in prophase I
B, Independent assortment of chromosomes at anaphase I
C, Independent assortment of chromosomes at anaphase II D, All of the above
99. Which characteristics in humans show discontinuous variation?
A, Blood group and sex of individual B, Body weight and eye color
C, skin color and body weight D, brain development and body height
100. Growth of beard and development of testes are example of
A, sex influenced traits B, sex – limited trait C, sex – linked trait D, human genetic disorders
101. Each of the events below is involved in the translation process
I, elongation II, chain termination III, initiation
Which ordering of the event is correct?
A, I  II  III  B, III  I  II C, II  I  III D, I  III  II
102. Which of the following hereditary phenomena was not discovered by G – Mendel?
A, linkage of genes B, dominance of genes
C, segregation of genes D, Independent assortment of genes

103. If a cell containing 64 chromosomes divided by meiosis and the resulting cell divided by mitosis. The
number of chromosomes of the resulting cell would be
A, 16 B, 32 C, 128 D, 64 E, 48
104. During which stage of cell division do members of homologous pair of chromosomes separate
A, Anaphase I B, Mitosis anaphase C, Anaphase II D, Prophase II
105. The pea plant phenotypic ratio of F1 resulting the cross between purple axial of PpAa genotype and
that of purple terminal Ppaa genotype under a condition of complete dominance. Assume the total
number of pea plant in the F1 generation are 48,000. Calculate the number of purple axial pea plants.
A, 27,000 B, 9,000 C, 18,000 D, 6,000 E, None
106. Which enzyme used to repair DNA damage?
A, DNA ligase B, UV specific endonuclease C, DNA polymerase D, All could be

answer
107. In humans, pointed eye brows ( E ) is dominant over smooth eye brows ( e ) . Mary’s father has
pointed eyebrows but she and her mother have smooth eye brows. What is the genotype of the
father A, EE B, ee C, Ee D, All of the above
108. In tomatoes, red fruit ( R ) is dominant of over yellow fruit ( r ) and tallness ( T ) is dominant over
shortness ( t ). A plant that is Rr Tt is grossed with a plant is rrTt. What are the chance of an offspring
being heterozygous for both trait
A, ¼ B, ½ C, 1/8 D, 3/8 E, None
109. A rooster with grey feathers is matched with a hen of the same phenotype. Among their offspring 15
chicks are grey, 6 are black and 8 are white what inheritance patterns explain these result
A, over dominance B, incomplete dominance
C, complete dominance D, All of the above
110. A somatic cell in the body of man has 46 chromosomes. The sperms produced by him will each
contain
A, 23 chromosomes B, 23 pair of chromosomes
C, 46 different chromosomes D, 46 identical chromosomes
111. Gametes contain one of each kind of chromosome because
A, The homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis
B, The chromatides never separate during meiosis
C, Two replication of DNA occur during meiosis

D, Crossing over occurs during prophase I
112. Replication of chromosomes occur during
A, prophase B, metaphase I C, interphase D, Anaphase E, metaphase
113. In drosophila the gene that control red ( dominant ) versus white – eye color is on the x –
chromosome ( x – lined ) . What are the expected phenotypic ratio results if heterozygous
female is crossed with a white – eyed male?
A, ¼ red – eyed male B, ¼ red – eyed female C, ¼ white – eyed female
D, ¼ white – eyed male E, All of the above
114. If a carrier woman marries a color blind man. What are the chances that her daughter will be color
blind?
A, 25% B, 50% C, 100% D, 12.5% E, 75%
115. How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are found in the cells of man
A,23 B, 46 C, 92 D, 69
116. In the case of the cattle the calf produced from brown and white parents was not light brown in color
but instead had patches of brown and white coat. What type of dominance do we see here?
A, complete B, incomplete C, co dominance D, over dominance
117. In which phase does crossing over and synapsis takes place
A, inmitosis prophase B, prophase I C, prophase II D, anaphase II
118. The codons on part of the mRNA are ACCUGACAUGAACACCAU how many anticodons ( tRNA) would
be needed for this part of mRNA.
A, 4 B, 6 C, 5 D, 18 E, 9
119. During protein synthesis, an anti codon on tRNA pairs with
A, DNA nucleotide bases B, mRNA nucleotide bases
C, rRNA nucleotide bases D, other tRNA bases E, All of the above
120. If the DNA codons are CAT CAT CAT and a Guanine base is added at the beginning, which would
result
A, G, CAT , CAT , CAT B, GCA , TCA , TCA , T C, Frame - shift mutation
D, Both B and C are answers E, All of the above
121. Why is it easier to genetically engineer plants as compared to animals
A, plants can be grown from a single cell in tissue culture
B, E – coli plasmids can serve as vector in plants

C, Agriculturally significant plants have been engineered D, All of the above
122. ATTACAGAT is a codon on DNA strand. What will be the anti codon on tRNA
A, UAAUGUCUA B, AUUACAGAU C, TAATGTCTA D, TUUTGTCTU
123. A homozygous axial, yellow seeded plant is crossed a homozygous recessive terminal, green seeded
plant. If 1200 pea plants are produced in the F 2 generation how many of them are terminal, yellow
pea plants
A, 75 B, 225 C, 625 D, 450 E, None
124. ------ is the process by which identical offsprings are formed from a single cell or tissue
A, Hybridization B, propagation C, cloning D, protoplast fusion
125. Which blood transfusion could be (incompatible) causing a potentially fatal disease called
erythroblastosis ( shotelay in Amharic )
A, Rh-  Rh- B, Rh+  Rh- C, Rh-  Rh+ D, Rh+  Rh+
126. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of dominance and trait relationship?
A, incomplete dominance - flower color in snapdragon
B, complete dominance – Round versus wrinkled in pea plant
C, co – dominance – ABO & MN blood group system
D, Incomplete dominance – sickle cell trait in humans
127. Suppose the aminoacid arginine is a polypeptide chain is replaced by the aminoacids glutamate due
to change a single codon. This type of mutation is
A, mis sense mutation B, same sense mutation
C, Non sense mutation D, Framshift mutation
128. Protein molecules is synthesized by
A, Translation B, Transcription C, replication D, reverse transcription
129. Suppose a trihybride organism has TtRr genotype. What are the gametes that are produced by the
organisms?
A, TR , Tr , tR , TR B, TR , Tr , tr , tR C, tr , tR , tr , TR D, Tt , TT , tt , RR , rr
130. Suppose the mother and her child blood type is ORh- and ORh+ respectively. Which one is the
possible father’s of the child
A, Blood type ORh- B, Blood type ABRh+
C, Blood type BRh + D, Blood type ARh- E, Blood type ABRh-

131. Select the human genetic disorder that is due to a dominant gene
A, polydactyl B, Hemophilia C, sickle cell anemia
D, phenyl ketonuria ( PKU ) E, cystic fibrosis
132. A double stranded molecule consisting 4000 nucleotides has a total of 20% cytosine. The total
number of adenines in the DNA molecule will be
A, 800 B, 1600 C, 1200 D, 2400 E, None
133. Mitosis and meiosis are similar in that both processes
A, involve pairing of homologous chromosome B, produce haploid gametes from

diploid cells
C, Involve replication of chromosomes D, produce diploid gametes from

haploid cells
134. During protein synthesis, which of the following molecule transport aminoacids to their correct
position in the growing chain of poly peptide?
A, tRNA B, mRNA C, rRNA D, DNA
135. Which of the following is the most like out come of a cross between a heterozygous round yellow pea
plant with a test cross?
A, 12 : 13 : 12 : 11 B, 25 : 50 : 50 : 25 C, 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 D, 64 : 8: 8 : 2
136. If a section of a DNA strand has the base sequence 5’ ATTGTA 3’ the complementary strand would
read
A, 5’ TAACAT 3’ B, 3’ TAACAT 5 ‘ C, 5’ UAACAU 3 ‘ D,

3’UAACAU5’
137. The non coding parts removed from pre –mRNA transcription, before translation is
A, exons B, introns C, cistrons D, caps
138. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in protein synthesis
A, mRNA  ribosome  tRNA  protein
B, DNA  mRNA  tRNA  ribosome  protein
C, Ribosome  DNA  mRNA  tRNA  protein
D, DNA  tRNA  mRNA  ribosome  protein
139. Homologous chromosomes are
A, Giant chromosomes found only in animal
B, The non – pairing identical chromosomes in animal

C, the partner or pairing chromosomal one coming from either parent D, All
140. Which statement is not true
A, mutations are the ultimate source of variation B, mutations are rare phenomena
C, mutation can be either gene or chromosome
D, chemicals are always necessary to affect mutation
141. Suppose the mother and her child’s blood type is ORh- and ORh+ respectively. Which one is the
possible father of the child?
A, Blood type ORh- B, Blood type AORh- C, Blood type ABRh- D, Blood type AORh+
142. Suppose the aminoacid glutamic acid in a polypeptide chain is replaced by the aminoacid valine due
to change in a single codon and cause sickle cell anemia. This type of mutation is
A, Frameshift mutation B, inversion
C, Mis-sense mutation D, substitution mutation
143. An example of human character showing discountinous variation are
A, tongue rolling and blood group B, body weight and the size of nose
C, skin color and body weight D, brain development and eye color
144. The pea plant phenotypic ratio of the F1 resulting the cross between a round yellow of RrYy
genotype and that of a round green of Rryy genotype under a condition of complete dominance.
Assume the total numbers of pea plant in the F1 generation are 32,000. Calculate the number of
wrinked yellow pea plants
A, 18,000 B, 8,000 C, 4,000 D, 3,000 E, None
145. The formation of unequal chromatin segments between the chromosome of a pair due to unequal
cross over during meiosis results from
A, Translocation B, insertion C, inversion D, deletion
146. Why adenine does not base pair with cytosine and why thymine does not base pair with guanine.
Because of
A, covalent bond B, hydrogen bond C, phosphodiester bond D, Vandaar Wal force
147. DNA contain many different genes that are transcribed into different
A, protein B, mRNA only C, tRNA and mRNA D, mRNA, tRNA & rRNA
A, sex linked inheritance – hemophila in human
B, sex limited character – breast and beard in human
C, sex limited character- red , green color blindness in human
D, sex influenced character – pattern of baldness
149. At the origin of replication, the DNA duplex is opened and untwisted by the enzyme called
A, Isomerase B, DNA helicase C, RNA primase D, DNA ligase
150. Which system of sex determinations are wrongly matched
A, Human – xymale & xx female B, locus – xo male and xx female
C, bird – zz male and zw female D, honey bee – triploid male and diploid female
151. Which of the following are associated with some marked feminine characters and the chromosome
complement of 47 or 48 ( xxy or xxxy )
A, Turner syndrome B, down syndrome C, klinefelter syndrome D, praderwilli syndrome

152. A nineteen years old female short stature, weblike neck, strile , wild spaced nipples, and primary a
men norrhea ( turner syndrome ) mostly likely has the karyotype of
A, 46 , xy B, 44 , xx C, 47 , xxy D, 45 , x E, 47 , xx , + 18
153. A red – green color blink boy born to normal parents discovered that one of his grand fathers was the
last member of the family to have the defect. Which family members have the defect
A, only his maternal grand father B, maternal or paternal grand father
C, only his paternal grandfather D, neither of the two grand father
154. Among the following traits of the garden pea studied by Gregor Mendel, Identify the one that did not
express itself in the F1 generation
A, yellow pod color B, round seed shape
C, violet flower color D, Axial flower position
155. If we cross AaBb x aabb. What will be genotype of the offspring
A, AABB , AABb , AaBB , AaBb B, AaBb , AaBB , aaBB , aaBb
C, AaBb, Aabb, aaBb , aabb D, AaBb, AaBB, aaBB, aabb , Aabb
156. How many different phenotypes are produced. When we cross RrBb x rrBb
A, 4 B, 16 C, 9 D, 8
157. During which phase of cell division do homologous chromosome separate and move toward
opposite poles
A, metaphase I B, Anaphase I C, Anaphase II D, mitosis anaphase
158. Gel electrophoresis
A, measures the charge and size of proteins and DNA fragments
B, Tells whether viruses are infectious
C, measures the size of plasmids D, identify the composition of plasmids
159. The expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny TtRr x TTRr cross is
A, 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 B, 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 C, 3 : 1 D, 4 : 2 : 1 : 1
160. If two species of animals with 2n =62 and 2n=64 chromosomes are hybridzed. What is the
chromosome number of the F1 hybrid?
A, 63 B, 62 C, 64 D, 126
161. A giraffe with long neck have the highest chance of survive than giraffe with short and intermediate
neck. What sort of nature selection is operating?
A, Disruptive selection B, Stabilizing selection
C, Directional selection D, Normalizing selection
162. If the number of chromosomes in a chimpanzee sperm cell is found to be 24, what is the number of
chromosomes in the somatic ( body) cell of chimpanzee
A, 24 B, 48 C, 12 D, 96
163. In across between Azmach ( a black – skinned individual ) and a white skinned individual the children
will be tan ( intermediate in colors), this is an example of
A, Incomplete dominance B, complete dominance
C, codominance D, over dominance
UNIT – 4
EVOLUTION
1996 EHEECE
1. Which of the following is a post zygotic reproductive isolating mechanism?
A, seasonal isolation B, Mechanical isolation
C, Hybrid sterility D, Geographic isolation
2. Which of the following groups probably ate more of a herbivores diet?
A, Homo erectus B, Cromagnon humans
C, Homohabilis D, Australopitheucs afarensis
3. Suppose an archeologist discovered remains of plant material which contains one – eight of its original
content of carbon – 14. If the half life of carbon – 14 is 5,600 years. How old is the plant material?
A, 50,000 yrs B, 16,800 yrs C, 28,000 yrs D, 11,200 yrs
4. Which two groups of organisms does the fossil animal known as Archeopteryx link?
A, Reptiles and birds B, Reptiles and amphibians
C, Mammals and reptiles D, Amphibians and Fishes
1997 EHEECE
5. Which came first according to the facts of organic evolution?
A, Equus B, Mesohippus C, Piiohippus D, Eohippus
6. Among the following modern day animals, whose DNA is least related to that of modern humans?
A, Rhesus monkey B, vervet monkey C, Galago D, Chimpanzea
7. Who developed the theory of evolution by means of natural selection independently of Charles
Darwin?
A, Erasmus Darwin B, Alfred Wallace C, Charles Lyell D, George Cuvier
8. Human babies with birth weight far above and below the average weight have less chance of survival
than babies with birth around the average. What sort of natural selection is operating?
A, Disruptive selection B, Stabilizing selection C, Directional selection D, Diversifying selection
9. Which of the following is not necessary for evolution to take place?
A, stable environment B, sexual reproduction
C, Heritable variation D, isolation between population
1998 EHEECE
10. If a large body of water is divided into a number of isolated lakes, which mode of speciation would this
favour?
A, Phyletic B, sympatric C, Allopatric D, Parapatric
11. One of the following happened during the industrial revolution and increased the number of black
moths and decreased the number of pale forms sharply. Which one is it?
A, The soot darkned the pale moths B, Black moths became distasteful to predators
C, The pale moths migrated out of industrial areas
D, The gene for the dark color increased due to natural selection
12. Despite large number of organisms that lived during past geological times, there are only few fossil
remains known to science. What is the most probable reason for this?
A, Fossilized materials are decomposed by some organisms
B, fossilized organisms are eaten up by some present day organisms
C, Fossils usually form on the outer surface of soil and get fragmented
D, the bodies of dead organisms decompose rapidly without chances of being fossilized
1999 EHEECE
13. The category of evolutionary evidence that was added after Darwin’s time is?

A, Fossil evidence B, Comparative biochemistry
C, Geographical distribution D, Comparative anatomy
14. Which theory of evolution contains the idea that new characters can be acquired by the use and
disuse of parts of the body?
A, Neo – Darwinian theory of evolution B, Darwin’s theory of evolution
C, Lamarck’s theory of evolution D, Wallace’s theory of evolution
15. Which region of Ethiopia is now considered a hot spot as far as fossil evidence for human evolution is
considered?
A, Afar B, Amahara C, Gambella D, Harari
2000 EHEECE
16. Washing hands with antibacterial soap kills some bacteria while other bacteria become resistant due
to mutation. Which branch of biology is best illustrated by this example?
A, Evolutionary change in bacteria B, Feeding of bacteria
C, Sexual reproduction of bacteria D, Morphology of bacteria
17. Compared to the others, which one of the following plants if found at a higher level of evolutionary
advancement?
A, podocarpus B, moss C, tree fern D, Grass
18. When a bell-shaped curve results from the analysis of a certain variable in a population, what type of
natural selection is probably taking place in the population with regard to that variable?
A, Disruptive selection B, Directional selection
C, Stabilizing selection D, divergent selection
19. Some species gradually evolve into a new species without splitting into two or more species. Which
mode of evolution is operating in this case?
A, Allopathic speciation B, Sympatric speciation
C, convergent speciation D, phyletic speciation
20. Suppose remains of a cultivated plant discovered at the site of an ancient agricultural settlement were
found to contain only 25% as much carbon 14 as it is found in the atmosphere, what is the
approximate age of the plant remains?
A, About 6000 years B, about 12000 yrs C, about 18000 yrs D, about 24000 yrs
21. Which of the following are structurally and evolutionary more related to prokaryotic cell?
A, chloroplast and mitochondria B, fungi and protozoa
C, Higher plants and animals D, unicellular green algae and fungi
2001 EHEECE
22. On which of the following evolutionary ideas doLamarck and Darwin fully agree?
A, Life is a result of natural process B, Acquired characteristics are inherited
C, Natural selection leads to evolution D, Evolution occurs by the use and disuse of body parts
23. Which group of hominids is called the handy human?
A, Homo sapiens B, Homo erectus C, Homo habilis D, Australopithecus
24. The half life of carbon – 14 is about 5000 years. What percent of the original amount of carbon – 14 is
expected to be present in a fossil that is 20000 years old?
A, 50 B, 25 C, 12.5 D, 6.25
2002 EHEECE

25. In the Miller and Urey’s simulation experiment to study organic molecules formation in primeval
atmosphere of the earth, all the following gases were used except which?
A, Ammonia B, Hydrogen C, Oxygen D, Methane
26. The bones in human hands, flippers of the whale and wings of the bird are known as what?
A, Linker fossils B, Homologous structure
C, Analogous structure D, Vestigial structure
27. According to Lamarck’s theory of evolution, what is the origin of new structures that are necessary for
evolution? A, Mutation B, Gene recombination
C, Natural selection D, Use and discuse of body parts
28. Suppose in a certain population, natural selection removes individuals with average height, leaving tall
and short individuals behind, which of the following modes of selection is in operation?
A, Stabilizing selection B, Normalizing selection
C, Directional selection D, Disruptive selection
29. Which alternative best explains speciation?
A, Members of a species diverge genetically and produce new species
B, It is characterized by minor extinction events
C, A process that only results from inter specific hybridization
D, Two different species are able to interbreed in captivity.
30. To which biological species do Neanderthal humans belong?
A, Homo erectus B, Homo habilis C, Homo sapiens D, Ardiramidus
31. Among the following fossil forms of the human evolutionary ancestors, which one was the first to
develop the ability to walk upright?
A, Homo erectus B, Homo habilis
C, Ardipithecus ramidus D, Australopithecus afarencis
32. Which evolutionary evidence was very unlikely to have been used by Darwin in the formulation of the
theory of evolution? A, Comparative anatomy B, comparative biochemistry
C, Fossils D, Geographical distribution
2003 EHEECE
33. From which of the following sources did Charles Darwin get the idea that selection can change living
organisms? From
A, the work of plant and animal breeders
B, his observation of the Galapagos birds
C, the evolution theory of Lamarck
D, the book by Malthus
34. Which one of the following is most important for speciation to occur?
A, Hybridization among population B, Isolation of the gene pool
C, Migration between populations D, Free flow of genes between populations
35. Animals without close evolutionary relations are sometimes seen to have similar structures adapted
for the same function. Which evolutionary principle is illustrated by this observation?
A, convergent evolution B, Divergent evolution
C, sympatric evolution D, Allopathic evolution
36. Which of the following descriptions is true about the action of selective pressures in populations?
Selective pressure that acts:
A, around the mean value is stabilizing B, around the mean value is disruptive
C, at both ends of the distribution is directional D, at one ends of the distribution is stabilizing

37. Which of the following is NOT an important unifying theme in biology
A, The evolution of life B, The diversity and unity of life
C, The interdependence of living organisms D, The variation in climatic factors
38. Which group of organisms is found at a lower level of evolution according to the modern principles of
biology? A, protists B, fungi C, Animals D, plants
39. What percentage of the amount of carbon 14 originally present in a fossil would be left after its
second half life?
A, 75% B, 50% C, 25% D, 12.5%
40. Which one of the following modes of natural selection was responsible for the fast increase in the
number of the black form of moths in Europe during Industrial Revolution?
A, Stabilizing selection B, Disruptive selection
C, Normalizing selection D, Directional selection
2004 EHEECE
41. Which of the following pairs of molecules can give information about how much two species are
evolutionary related to one another?
A, DNA and Proteins B, Starch and cellulose
C, Lipids and Carbohydrates D, Carbohydrates and proteins
42. To which genus of human like organisms does Lucy belong?
A, The genus Homo B, To genus Ardipithecus
C, The genus Sahelanthropus D, The genus Australopithecus
43. Which of the following fossils is the nearest to the common ancestor of the hominids and the apes?
A, Homo habilis B, Homo erectus
C, Ardipithecus ramidus D, Australopithecus afarensis
44. Which of the following ideas is not a part of Darwin’s Theory of evolution?
A, Over reproduction B, Use – and - discuses of body parts
C, Existence of heritable variation D, Competition for scarce resources
45. Which of the following is true about the evolutionary origin of groups of organisms?
A, The dinosaurs appeared before the origin of the land plants
B, The earliest Homo sapiens appeared before the flowering plants
C, The first photosynthetic organisms appeared before the oldest eukaryotes
D, The first animals appeared before the formation of free O2 in the atmosphere
46. Why are fossils of soft – bodied organisms usually relatively rare in the environment?
A, They are generally small in size B, Their bodies decompose readily
C, They all lived in environments where sedimentation did not occur
D, They were never common in environments in which they lived
47. Carbon 14 has a half life of about 5730 years. Suppose a fossil contains only 12% of the amount of
Carbon 14 normally percent in living organisms, how old is the fossil?
A, 5730 years B, 11,460 years C, 17,190 years D, 22,920 years
48. What does the structural similarity between the flippers of whales and arms of humans show?
A, Whales evolved from the human species
B, Whales are older than the human species
C, The human species began life in the oceans
D, Whales and humans had a common ancestry
Revision Questions
49. The reason for the huge gap in fossil records of living things
A. Rapid decomposition of dead organisms
B. Dead organisms being eaten by scavengers
C. The inability of soften – bodied organisms to fossilize easily D. All of the above
50. The most common types of fossils that are found in different part of the earth
A. bones , teeth & skin impressions B. foot print , burrows & coprolite
C, petrifaction, casts & moulds D, All of the above
51. What type of evolution has human population undergone?
A, phyletic evolution B, divergent evolution
C, adaptive radiation D, punctuated equilibrium E, All of the above
52. The fossil Ardipithecus ramidus was significant because it showed that
A, humans evolved from chimpanzees
B, the common ancestor of humans & chimpanzees can not have resembled a chimpanzee
C, humans evolved from Australopithecus D, All of the above
53. Which of the following gases were absent in the primitive atmosphere
A, CH4 , NH3 , CO2, H2 & H2S B, CO C, water Vapour D, oxygen gas
54. The peculiar feature of directional ( progressive ) selection which makes it distinct from the other type is
A, It favours one of the extreme phenotype from the population
B, It favours both extreme phenotype from the population
C, It favours the intermediate phenotype from the population
D, It eliminates the intermediate phenotype from the population
55. The half life of Carbon is about 5730 years. What percent of the original amount of carbon – 14 is expected
to be present in a fossil that is 28,650 years old.
A, 25% B, 12.5% C, 3.125% D, 6.25%
56. The half life of the radioactive element potassium – 40 is about 1.25 billion years. What is the approximate
age of the fossils when 12.5% of much potassium – 40 as it is found in the fossil
A, 2.50 billion years B, 3.75 billion years C, 5 billion years D, 6.25 billion years E, None
57. Speciation occurs through
A, Adaptive radiation & inter specific hybridization
B, Genetic divergence C, Mutation, genetic drift & natural selection

D, The evolution of reproductive isolating mechanism E, All of the above
58. Suppose two related plants can not interbreed because they become active ( bloom ) at different times of
the year. This is
A, Behavioural isolation B, Habitat isolation C, Mechanical isolation D, Seasonal isolation
59. Which of the following is not an example of directional selection
A, industrial mechanism B, pesticide resistance insect
C, Chloroquine resistance plasmodium D, Antibiotics resistance bacteria E, None of the above
60. Behavioural isolation may occur if two species have different
A, size and shape of copulatory organ B, chemical compatibilities of their gametes
C, time of the year that they are sexually active D, courtship display
A, cynognathus – a fossil link between reptiles and mammals
B, monotrems – a link between reptiles and mammals
C, Semouria – a link between amphibians and reptiles
D, Archaeopteryx – a missing link between amphibians and reptiles
62. Different insects have mouth parts with basic similarity in structure. How ever the mouth parts have
specialized functions according to the feeding habits of the insect groups. These structures are
A, Homologous B, Analogous
C, Homologous as well as analogous D, neither homologous nor analogous
63. Intraspecific speciation may happen in the following ways except
A, Through reproductive isolation of two species
B, Hybridization between two different species by physical barrier
C, Subsequent change over many generation of a particular species
D, All could be the answer
64. Which theory of evolution is mismatched
A, Wallace’s theory of evolution – Natural selection
B, Lamark’s theory of evolution - use & disuse principle and in heritance of acquired character
C, Darwin’s theory of evolution – Natural selection
D, Neo – Darwinism – combines Darwin’s theory , genetic theory and theories about animals behavior

E, G.Buffon theory – the earth is only a few thousand years old
65. Based on oparin’s hypothesis
A, Life first a rise in water B, The first life evolved from a set of chemicals
C, The primeval atmosphere were with nitrogen gas, CO 2 & water vapour
D, There was an appropriate supply of energy such as lightning or UV light
E, All could be the answer
66. Biological clocks’ are present in so many different type of organisms. These are an example of
A, Divergent evolution B, Adaptive radiation C, convergent evolution D, Co – evolution
A, Homo habilis – handy human, carnivorous and Bi pedal
B, Homo sapiens - omnivorous and bipedal
C, Homo erectus – used fire, rudimentary language and omnivores
D, A afaricanus – Bipedal and herbivorous
68. Which species were the most ancient?
A, Homo habilis B, Ardipithecus kadabba
C, Australopithecus anamnesis D, Ardipithecus ramidus E, Australopithecus afarensis ( LUCY)
69. Which of the following is true about the first organisms evolved on earth
A, They were prokaryotes B, They had no true nucleus
C, They had RNA rather than DNA as their genetic material
D, They were anaerobic organism E, All could be the answer
70. Which of the following is homologous structure?
A, Wing of bird and wing of bat B, wing of bird and wing of insect
C, pentadactly limb of vertebrate D, all
71. The diagram shown a phylogenic tree of seven organisms
Which of the following is FALSE?
A, species A is most closely related with B
B, Species F and G are equally related to species C and D

C, Species C is most closely related with D D, Species D is most closely related with F
E, Species B is most distantly related to species G
72. The different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands and the different forms of the pentadactyl limbs
are the result of
A, convergent evolution B, Parallel evolution C, divergent evolution
D, co evolution E, punctuated equilibrium
A, Hominine – any member of the genus Homo
B, primates – includes new and old world monkeys, apes and humans
C, Hominid – includes Ardepithecus, Australopithecus and the genus Homo
D, primate – includes lemurs, lorises and tarsiers
74. From the major hominine and hominid species which one is the most primitive from the other
A, Ardipithecus B, Sahelanthropus C, Australpithecus D, Homo
75. The main distinctive features of modern humans from other primates are
A, true bipedalism B, large brains C, pentadactly
D, omnivorous E, A and B could be the answer
76. Which of the following is true about convergent evolution?
A, takes place when different organisms occupy similar niches
B, unrelated organisms evolve similar structures and adapt the same function
C, takes place in giant armadillo, giant pangolin, giant anteater and spiny anteater
D, is responsible for the wing of bird, a bat and the extinct pterodactyl E, All could be the answer
77. Which of the following is FALSE about divergent evolution?
A, It is alternative name of adaptive radiation
B, It occurs because of different selection pressure in different environments
C, organisms have common ancestor
D, occurs when different organisms inhibits similar environment
E, It does not leads to the development of new species

78. The diagram shown the hybridization and polyploidy of modern wheat
Which one is infertile from the diagram?
A, Hybride A
B, Triticum Vulgare
C, Triticum durum
D, Hybrid B E, Triticum mono coccum
79. Which of the following is true about sympatric speciation?
A, speciation need not involve physical separation
B, the isolating mechanism could be temporal, seasonal or behavioral
C, the populations are inhabiting the same geographical barriers
D, It is found in palm trees growing on Lord Howe Island
E, All could be the answer
80. In disruptive (diversifying) selection, the selection pressure operates
A, In favour of those individual’s showing the mean value of a feature
B, In favour of those individual showing both extremes of the range of values for a feature
C, In favour of those individual at one extreme of the range of feature
D, It eliminate the intermediate phenotype from the population E, B and D
81. Allopathic speciation involves
A, a period when individuals of two populations are prevented from interbreeding
B, a period of increasing genetic diversity of two populations
C, geographical isolation D, All of the above
82. The presence gill slits and tails in the embryos of all vertebrate ( including human ) show that
A, They share common ancestor B, Have similar fossil age
C, Their adult live in water and Land D, because of biogenic law E, All of the above
83. Which of the following is not important in speciation?
A, adaptive radiation B, A sexual reproduction C, mutation D, inter specific hybridization

84. Which gas is constituent of both primitive and the present atmosphere of earth
A, methan gas B, oxygen gas C, ammonia gas D, H2O in gaseous form
85. Which of the following is false about the recent new discovered fossil in our country whose name is
‘’ Ardipthicus ramidus “ or “ Ardi “
A, she walked bipedally B, she was a common ancestor of human and chimpanzes
C, she is the earliest known complete fossil of hominid species
D, The age, height, and weight of Ardi is 4.4 million, 120cm and 50kg respectively
86. The two scientist who work independently and reached a conclusion that evolution takes place by means
of natural selection was
A, Lamark and Charles Darwin B, A.R. Wallace and Charles Darwin
C, Thomas Malthus and Charles Darwin D, Erasmus Darwin and Charles Darwin
87. The theory which takes into account our knowledge of genetics, biochemistry, and ethnology to modify
nature selection to include the effect of selection of allele frequency and frequency of behavior pattern is
A, Neo-Darwinsm theory B, Lamarkian theory
C, Charles Darwin’s theory D, Thomas Malthus theory
88. Which of the following is used to date the age of things which were once living
A, potassium – Argon dating B, Stratigraphy
C, Carbon dating D, Uranium 235 – lead 207 methods
89. One of the following is the key to modern definition of species
A, Reproductive isolation B, Behavioural isolation
C, seasonal isolation D, Geographical isolation
90. A large body of water divided into a number of isolated lakes. Which mode of speciation would this favour
A, phyletic B, Allopatric C, sympatric D, parapatric
91. Which group of hominids are carnivores
A, Homo habilis B, Homo sapiens C, Homo erectus D, Australopithecus afrensis
92. Which theory of origin of life on earth that states life has always existed in the universe and always will
A, eternity of life B, special creationism C, cosmozoan theory D, bio chemistry theory
93. The wings of bats and birds are
A, neither homologous nor analogous B, Homologous and therefore can not be analogous
C, Analogous D, Homologous or analogous
94. The phrase “ struggle for survival and survival of the fittest “ is an important point in
A, Lamark’s theory of evolution B, Darwin’s theory of evolution
C, Theory of eternity of life D, Theory of creationist
95. What kind of selection does a bell shaped curve in a variable indicate
A, Disruptive selection B, Divergent selection

C, unidirectional selection D, stabilizing selection
96. To which biological species do Cro-Magnon humans belong
A, Homoerectus B, Homohabilis C, Homosapiens D, Ardiphticus kamidus
97. The first organism to appear on earth were
A, Autotrophic, anaerobic, and prokaryotic B, Autotrophic, anaerobic and eukaryotic
C, Hetroptropic, anaerobic and prokaryotic D, Hetrotropic, anaerobic and eukaryotic
98. According to evolutionary theory which of the following is true
A, Human and chimpanzee are not related
B, Human evolved from chimpanzee
C, Chimpanzee evolved from human.
D, Human and Chimpanzee evolved from a common ancestor
99. Which group of organisms is found at a lower level of evolution according to the modern principles of
biology?
A, Reptiles B, Birds C, Amphibians D, Fish
100. The main distinctive features of modern human when compared to other primates are?
A, True bipedalism B, large brain
C, high development of cerebral hemisphere D, all of the above
UNIT – 5
BEHAVIOR
1996 EHEECE
1. Select the type of behavior which is innate
A, Reflex action B, Habituation C, Conditioning D, Imprinting
2. A chimpanzee concentrates to reach at a bunch of grapes hanging above its head. What kind of
behavior is this?
A, Insight learning B, Associative learning
C, Latent learning D, Sensitization learning
1997 EHEECE
3. Bugs that normally live in moist places under stones or logs become very active when exposed to very
dry conditions. For which of the following can this be an example?
A, Taxis B, Kinesis C, imprinting D, Habituation
4. Choose the animal that is haploid?
A, The worker bees B, The queen bees C, The drone bees D, All the female bees
5. Which of the following is not a learned behavior?
A, Instinctive B, In sight C, Conditioned D, Habituation
1998 EHEECE
6. What do we call the behavior if an animal learns not to respond to a stimulus that is repeated a
number of times without any effect
A, Habituation B, operant conditioning C, sensitization D, Associative learning
1999 EHEECE
7. Which one of the following animals can be taken as the best example for migratory animals that use a
true navigation system to re- locate its original position
A, Salmon B, Insect C, Swallow birds D, Cats
8. A student who had uncounted a snake on his way to school jumped suddenly when he later saw a
piece of cord lying across his way. What behavior does this exemplify
A, Habituation B, Association C, Sensitization D, Stimulation
9. Which of the following sequences correctly presents the peaking order in hens?
A, Omega → Alpha → Beta B, Beta → Alpha → Omega
C, Beta → Omega → Alpha D, Alpha → Beta → Omega
2000 EHEECE
10. Which one of the following types of learned behaviors requires a critical period to learn in the animal’s
life?
A, Imprinting B, Habituation C, Insight learning D, Operant conditioning
11. A chick that just emerged from an incubator tended to follow the person that is saw first. Which one
of the following is the correct term for this kind of animal behavior?
A, Innate B, Kinesis C, Imprinting D, Positive taxis
2001 EHEECE
12. A goose was observed rolling the egg back to its nest. What kind of behavior is this?
A, Tropism B, Learned behavior C, Innate behavior D, Social behaviour
13. Of the following alternatives, which one could be taken as a better explanation for an organism’s
innate behavior? The behaviour is
A, displayed when the organism is subjected to a stimulus that is neither harmful nor rewarding
B, seen during the early life of the organism’s genes
C, Pre-programmed by the organism’s genes
D, seen when an organism is made to associate an accident with a positively reinforcing reward
14. We do not usually notice that we are wearing clothes even though the clothes are continuously
touching our body. To which type of learned behavior does this belong?
A, Innate behavior B, Imprinted behavior
C, Habituation D, Operant conditioning
2002 EHEECE
15. In a honey bee colony, which of the following is the duty of the queen?
A, Foraging B, Rearing the young C, Guarding the hive D, Reproduction
16. In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiments with dogs, which one of the following is the conditioned
stimulus?
A, The sight of food B, The smell of food
C, The sound of the bell D, The salivation of the dog
17. Suppose a girl, after watching her mother making “ enjera “ on several occasions, successfully did
itself, what type of learning is this?
A, Sensitization B, Imprinting C, Habituation D, Latent learning
2003 EHEECE
18. Which one of the following disciplines is studied in ethology?
A, Heredity B, Physiology C, Reprdouction D, Behaviour
19. Which one of the following is true about an innate behavior?
A, It is non – adaptive behavior B, It is learned behavior
C, It is environmentally determined D, Members of a species behave similarly
20. What is the plant growth substance which causes them to bend towards the light?
A, Starch B, Photosynthesis C, Auxin D, Chlorophyll
21. The unicellular organism, Euglena, swims using its Flagellum towards areas of increased light intensity.
What is this kind of response to stimulus called?
A, Negative kinesis B, Positive kinesis C, Negative photo taxis D, positive photo taxis
22. It is said that a goat mother accepts and nurses as her own kid any young that she smells at a certain
critical period, and rejects all others. This is an example of
A, habituation B, imprinting C, insight learning D, sensitization
23. Among the following which one is a learned behavior?
A, Reflex action B, habituation C, imprinting D, Fixed action pattern
24. Wood lice increase their movement in different direction of response to increased light intensity. This
is an example of which of the following?
A, posivitve taxis B, negative taxis C, kinesis D, phototropism
25. With which of the following hibernation is most associated in animals?

A, migration B, Daily biological cycle
C, Annual biological cycle D, Availability of food in the stove
26. In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiment on dogs, which one of the following is the unconditioned
response?
A, The sound of the bell before presenting food
B, The sight of the food from far away
C, The salivation of the dog at the sight of food
D, The salivation of the dog at the sound of the bell
2004 EHEECE
27. In the classical conditioning experiment performed by Pavlov on dogs, which of the following
alternatives is the unconditioned stimulus?
A, The sound of the bell B, The small of the food
C, The salivation of the sound of the bell D, The salivation of the smell of the food
28. Which of the following types of movements in response to a stimulus has no specific direction?
A, Taxis B, kinesis C, Gravitropism D, Phototropism
29. What is the role of the worker honey been just after it emerges?
A, Forage for nectar, pollen and water B, clean out dirty honey comb
C, Guard the hive D, Build honey comb
30. During seasons of reproduction, the males of some species of birds produce colorful feathers to
attract females. What do ethnologist call this method of communication in animals?
A, visual B, chemical C, Auditory D, touch
31. Why is it that woodlice are typically found under loges, stones, bark and amongst leaf litter?
A, to be sheltered in a dry windy environment
B, to run away from the area where the air is humid
C, to make sure that they are in the hottest place all the time
D, to reduce the rate at which water is lost from their bodies.
Revision Questions

32. Which of the following forms of learning is shown when a hungry animals in a cage learns to move a level
to obtain food ?
A, Imprinting B, Habituation C, classical conditioning D, operant conditioning
33. All of the following are pattern of innate behavior except
A, Taxis B, kinesis C, instinctive D, insight learning E, biological clock
34. Which of the following involves trial and error learning
A, Habituation B, operant conditioning C, classical conditioning
D, Taxis E, insight learning
35. A goose retrieving a stray egg and rolling it back in to its nest is an example of
A, instinctive behavior B, insight learning C, latent learning
D, operant conditioning E, Reflex action
36. A method in which an animals move from one familiar land mark to another until it reaches its destination
is termed as A, compass B, piloting C, courtship behavior D, aggression
37. Which of the following is a good example of instinctive behavior?
A, spinning of a web by spiders B, imprinting C, social behavior in bee or termites
D, The feeding behavior of herring gulls E, All of the above
38. Which biological clock is correctly matched?
A, circadian rhythms – controls a daily cycle B, circannual rhythms – controls a yearly cycle
C, lunar rhythms – controls a monthly cycle D, All of the above
39. Which of the following show circannual rhythms?
A, migration for example swallows
B, Hibernation for example hedgehogs C, camouflage colouring for example arctic foxes
D, coat growth for example arctic foxes E, All of the above
40. Innate behavior is -------
A, inherited and preset behavioural response B, adaptive behavior
C, species characteristics D, common and more important in lower organism E, All of the above
41. A form of learning where animals can be taught new things inorder to receive a reward is
A, shaping B, habituation C, sensitization D, insight E, latent
42. Which of the following is not an example of shaping?
A, training guide dogs for the blind B, training of horses

C, training of dolphins and killers whales at marine parks D, training of zoo animals E. All
43. The form of learning where an animal performs a task without reinforcement ( reward ) is
A, latent B, imprinting C, insight
D, operant conditioning E, classical conditioning
44. A chimpanzee discovers the relations between symbol and an object or a person quickly solves a problem
never experienced be for on the first day is an example of
A, Imprinting B, classical conditioning C, insight learning
D, operant conditioning E, instinctive behavior
45. A chimpanzee gathers the boxes and pilling them on top of each other under the bunch of bananas and
reach the bananas. This kind of behavior is
A, Latent learning B, Insight learning C, Imprinting
D, Associative learning E, sensitization learning
46. A behavior in which there is an increase in the response to a harmless stimulus when that stimulus occurs
after a harmful stimulus is
A, Habituation B, Sensitisation C, Classical conditioning
D, operant conditioning E, Latent learning
A, classical conditioning – Ivan Pavlov dog experiment
B, Insight learning – Kohler’s work on Chimp
C, Operant conditioning – B.F. Skinner rat experiment
D, Imprinting – Konard Lorenze experiment on young geese E, None of the above
48. You walk in to a room where there is a loud noise and start to read a book, Initially the noise is disturbing,
but after a while you do not notice it. This an example of
A, Habituation B, Latent C, Insight D, Associative E, Imprinting
49. A boy watches his father changing a plug on a lamp. Sometime later, he is able to carry out the same task
himself without instruction. This kind of behavior is
A, latent B, Insight C, Habituation D, operant conditioning E, classical conditioning
50. A snail is moving along a bench, an experimenter taps the bench and the snail withdraws into its shell.
After several repeats of this, the snail just keeps on moving. This an example of
A, latent B, Insight C, Habituation D, operant conditioning E, classical conditioning
51. After a pain full blow, even relatively light pressure feels painful. This kind of behavior is

A, Habituation B, sensitization C, latent D, operant conditioning E, insight
52. Choose the animal that is diploid and sterile
A, The drone bees B, the queen bees C, the worker bees D, A and B E, B and C
53. Which of the following statements concerning courtship behavior is true?
A, It precedes and can result in mating behavior
B, It allows members of a species to recognize each other
C, It prevents attempts at interbreeding between different species D, All of the above
54. Before a territorial dispute leads to actual fighting which of the following may occur?
A, vocalizations B, threat displays C, marking the area
D, ritual fighting E, All of the above
55. Which of the following is not an example of innate behavior?
A, imprinting in goslings B, Nesting behavior in love birds
C, A chimpanzee choosing a long stick over a short one to retrieve food from out side a cage
D, Aggression in stickle backs E, Scratching behavior in dogs
56. Latent learning is different from learning through operant conditioning because it
A, does not require reinforcement ( reward)
B, is a kind of innate behavior
C, is a kind of insight learning
D, does not require any input from the environment
57. Wood lice that normally live in more humid places under stones, logs or barks become very active when
exposed to very dry ( light ) conditions. For which of the following can this be an example
A, Taxis B, kinesis C, Imprinting D, Navigation
58. A chick that just emerged from an incubator tended to follow the person that is saw first. Which one of the
following is the correct term for this kind of animal behavior
A, Imprinting B, kinesis C, positive taxis D, insight learning
59. The material that the queen bee secretes and eaten by workers in order to prevent development of
reproductive ability is
A, queen substance B, primer pheromone C, Royal jelly D, Honey comb E, B and C
60. Parthenogenesis ( virgin birth ) is a process where

A, An fertilized egg develops into female organism
B, An unfertilized egg develops into male organisms
C, A sperm directly develops into female organisms
D, A fertilized egg develops into male organism
61. If you throw a ball and your dog brings it to you. This is
A, operant condition B, instinctive behavior C, insight learning D, Habituation
62. Which type of learning behavior is promoted by the achievement of correct answer in this worksheet?
A, insight B, trial and error learning C, latent learning D, classical conditioning
63. Which of the following is not a type of innate behavior
A, simple reflex action B, orientation behavior like kinesis and taxes
C, Habituation D, instinctive behavior
64. The human infant forms attachment ( attachement formation ) with their care givers. This is an example of
A, imprinting B, kinesis C, Habituation D, sensitization
65. If a larvae of honey bee are fed with royaljelly. They develop into
A, Queen B, worker bee C, Drones D, A and B
66. One of the following is not true about fixed pattern ( F.A.P)
A, It requires a sign stimulus B, Once started the activity is carried to completion
C, It is highly stereotyped D, It can be interrupted before it is completed
67. In the “ Little Abert “ loud noise experiment of classical conditioning which conducted by Waston and
Rayner. The conditional stimulus is
A, The loud noise B, The white laboratory rat
C, His fear of loud noise D, His conditioned to fear the rat
68. In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiments with dogs which one of the following is the conditioned
stimulus
A, The sight of food B, the sound of the bell
C, the smell of food D, the salivation of the dog
69. The sequence of action patterns in the three spined stickle back fish such as male’s red belly, female’s
swollen abdomen, female swims head up toward male, male swims zigzag to female etc is an
example of
A, courtship behaviour B, Aggressive behaviour

C, territorial behaviour D, social behaovior
70. A laboratory rat, which has just received a small electric shock to its feet, jumps in an alarm to a new
stimulus, like a flash of light or a small tap on the box, This is an example of A, Habituation B,
Latent learningC, Sensitization D, trial and error
71. A conditioning that involves associating two unrelated stimuli so that both produce the same response is
A, operant conditioning B, classical conditioning
C, Insight learning D, Latent learning
72. Which of the following is false about honey bee
A, Queens and workers develop from fertilized egg B, Drones develop from unfertilized egg
C, unlike Queens, workers are strile D, Unlike drones, workers are haploid organism
18. B 41. A 1999 EHEECE
ANSWERS 19. A 42. A 14. A
UNIT 1 – THE SCIENCE 20. C 43. B 15. C
OF BIOLOGY 21. A 44. B 16. D
1996 EHEECE 22. B 45. D 17. B
1. A 2003 EHEECE 46. D 2000 EHEECE
2. D 23. A 47. A 18. C
1997 EHEECE 24. C 48. B 19. C
3. D 25. D UNIT 2 – 2001 EHEECE
4. C 26. B BIOCHEMICAL 20. B
5. A 27. C MOLECULES 21. D
6. D 28. D 1996 EHEECE 22. C
7. B 29. D 1. C 23. B
8. A 30. C 2. C 24. A
1998 EHEECE 3. D 25. B
9. A 2004 EHEECE 1997 EHEECE 26. B
10. B 31. B 4. C 27. C
1999 EHEECE 32. C 5. D 28. C
11. D 33. D 6. B 29. C
12. D 34. B 7. A 30. B
13. B 35. D 1998 EHEECE 31. C
14. B 36. C 8. B 32. C
2000EHEECE 37. A 9. C 33. C
15. C 38. D 10. C 2003 EHEECE
16. C 39. D 11. A 34. C
2001 EHEECE REVISION 12. D 35. C
17. C 40. C 13. B 36. A

37. C 2. A 37. D 14. B
38. A 3. B 38. E 15. B
39. A 1997 39. B 2000 EHEECE
40. A 4. A 40. A 16. B
41. D 1998 EHEECE 41. D 17. B
42. A 42. A 18. D
43. C 5. D 43. B 19. D
2004 EHEECE 6. B 44. D 2001 EHEECE
44. B 1999 EHEECE 45. E 20. C
45. B 7. B 46. E 21. B
46. D 8. C 47. A 22. D
47. C 2001 EHEECE 48. B 23. C
48. D 9. C 49. B 24. A
49. D 10. C 50. B 25. D
50. C 11. D 51. C 26. A
51. A 12. C 52. C 27. C
52. B 13. B 53. C 28. D
REVISION 14. C 54. A 2003 EHEECE
53. A 15. C 55. A 29. B
54. A 16. C 56. B 30. C
55. A 2003 EHEECE 57. B 31. A
56. A 17. B 58. D 32. D
57. B 18. B 59. C 33. C
58. E 2003 EHEECE 60. B 34. D
59. B 19. A UNIT 4 – CELL 35. D
60. B 20. B BIOLOGY 2004 EHEECE
61. B 21. D 1996 EHEECE 36. C
62. C 22. C 1. C 37. D
63. A 23. A 2. B 38. D
64. B 24. D 3. B 39. D
65. B 25. D 4. A 40. D
66. A 26. A 1997 EHEECE 41. A
67. A REVISION 5. C 42. A
68. E 27. A 6. D 43. C
69. D 28. A 7. D REVISION
70. A 29. B 8. D 44. D
71. C 30. E 1998 EHEECE 45. D
72. D 31. D 9. B 46. D
73. C 32. C 10. B 47. D
74. A 33. D 11. D 48. A
UNIT 3 – ENZYMES 34. A 12. C 49. E
1996 EHEECE 35. D 13. C 50. A
1. B 36. A 1999 EHEECE 51. E

52. D 10. B 50. B UNIT 1 – MICROORGANISM
53. C 11. C 51. E
1996 EHEECE
54. C 12. B 52. C
55. E 13. C 53. B 1. B
56. B 14. B 54. C 2. D
57. B 2001 EHEECE 55. D 3. B
58. A 15. A 56. C 4. B
59. D 16. D & B 57. C 5. A
60. D 17. B 58. B 1997 EHEECE
61. D 18. D 59. C 6. A
62. A 19. B 60. A 7. B
63. A 20. C 61. C 8. C
64. A 21. B 62. C 9. C
65. A 22. C 63. D 10. B
66. A 23. C 64. D 1999 EHEECE
67. A 24. B 65. B 11. C
68. A 25. C 66. D 12. B
69. B 26. A 67. C 13. B
70. B 27. A 68. A 2000 EHEECE
71. B 28. A 69. E 14. D
72. C 2004 EHEECE 70. B 15. C
73. D 29. A 71. A 16. B
74. A 30. D 72. B 17. B
75. B 31. A 73. D 18. A
76. C 32. D 74. A 19. C
77. A 33. C 75. D 2001 EHEECE
78. B 34. C 76. B 20. C
UNIT 5 ENERGY 35. C 77. B 21. C
TRANFOMRATION REVISION 78. D 2002 EHEECE
1996 EHEECE 36. D 79. C 22. D
1. D 37. A 80. A 23. B
2. C 38. B 81. A 24. B
3. D 39. C 82. E 25. D
1997 EHEECE 40. B 83. E 26. B
4. B 41. C 84. C 2003 EHEECE
5. D 42. B 85. E 27. D
1998 EHEECE 43. B 86. D 28. D
6. C 44. D 87. C 29. B
7. A 45. B 88. D 30. B
8. A 46. D 89. A 31. A
1999 EHEECE 47. C 90. A 32. A
9. A 48. B 91. D 33. C
2000 EHEECE 49. D GRADE 12 34. B

35. A 77. D 34. D 75. D
36. D 78. A 35. D 76. B
37. D 79. B 36. B 77. C
2004 EHEECE UNIT 2 – ECOLOGY 37. D 78. D
38. B 1996 EHEECE 2001 EHEECE 2004 EHEECE
39. A 1. B 38. C 79. A
40. B 2. B 39. A 80. C
41. C 3. A 40. B 81. A
42. C 4. C 41. A 82. D
43. B 5. B 42. C 83. A
44. B 6. C 43. A 84. A
45. D 7. C 44. D 85. C
46. D 8. B 45. C 86. D
47. D 1997 EHEECE 46. C 87. A
48. A 9. B 47. D 88. D
49. A 10. C 48. A 89. –
50. E 11. C 49. A 90. B
51. A 12. D 50. A 91. C
52. E 13. D 51. A 92. B
53. E 14. C 52. D 93. C
54. A 15. C 53. B 94. A
55. D 16. B 54. C 95. C
56. E 17. B 55. B 96. B
57. D 56. A REVISION
58. E 1998 EHEECE 57. C 97. E
59. D 18. A 58. A 98. C
60. B 19. D 59. C 99. D
61. A 20. D 60. B 100. B
62. B 21. D 2003 EHEECE 101. A
63. B 22. D 61. D 102. A
64. D 23. C 62. B 103. D
65. A 24. C 63. B 104. B
66. A 1999 EHEECE 64. B 105. A
67. D 25. B 65. B 106. E
68. C 26. A 66. B 107. E
69. A 27. B 67. A 108. A
70. A 28. C 68. B 109. E
71. B 29. D 69. D 110. B
72. D 30. D 70. B 111. A
73. D 31. D 71. D 112. A
74. B 2000 EHEECE 72. A 113. E
75. C 32. D 73. D 114. E
76. B 33. D 74. B 115. A

116. D 21. B 60. B 101. B
117. A 1998 EHEECE 61. D 102. A
118. D 22. B 62. A 103. B
119. D 23. A 63. C 104. A
120. D 24. B 64. A 105. C
121. B 25. C REVISION 106. D
122. A 26. A 65. A 107. C
123. A 27. C 66. C 108. A
124. A 28. B 67. B 109. B
125. B 29. D 68. A 110. A
126. A 30. A 69. A 111. A
127. C 31. A 70. D 112. C
128. C 1999 EHEECE 71. B 113. E
129. B 32. B 72. C 114. B
130. C 33. D 73. D 115. A
131. A 34. C 74. B 116. C
132. C 35. B 75. B 117. B
133. D 36. B 76. A 118. B
134. D 37. C 77. A 119. B
135. D 38. A 78. B 120. D
UNIT 3 – GENETICS 39. A 79. C 121. D
1996 EHEECE 2000 EHEECE 80. C 122. B
1. B 40. B 81. B 123. B
2. D 41. C 82. A 124. C
3. B 42. B 83. C 125. B
4. C 43. C 84. A 126. E
5. D 2001 EHEECE 85. C 127. A
6. D 44. C 86. A 128. A
7. A 45. A 87. D 129. A
8. C 46. C 88. D 130. C
9. D 47. A 89. C 131. A
10. A 48. B 90. C 132. C
11. C 49. C 91. B 133. A
1997 EHEECE 50. A 92. C 134. A
12. B 51. A 93. D 135. A
13. D 52. D REVISION 136. B
14. A 53. C 94. D 137. B
15. D 54. B 95. B 138. A
16. C 55. B 96. A 139. C
17. C 56. D 97. E 140. D
18. D 57. C 98. A 141. D
19. B 58. C 99. A 142. D
20. A 59. A 100. B 143. A

144. B 23. C 63. B 3. B
145. B 24. D 64. E 4. C
146. B 25. C 65. E 5. A
147. D 26. B 66. C 1998 EHEECE
148. C 27. D 67. D 6. A
149. B 28. D 68. B 1999 EHEECE
150. D 29. A 69. E 7. C
151. C 30. C 70. C 8. C
152. D 31. C 71. D 9. D
153. A 32. B 72. C 2000 EHEECE
154. A 2003 EHEECE 73. E 10. A
155. C 33. B 74. A 11. C
156. A 34. B 75. E 2001 EHEECE
157. B 35. A 76. E 12. C
UNIT 4 – EVOLUTION 36. B 77. D 13. C
1996 EHEECE 37. D 78. D 14. C
1. C 38. A 79. E 15. D
2. D 39. C 80. E 16. C
3. B 40. D 81. D 17. D
4. A 2004 EHEECE 82. A 2003 EHEECE
1997 EHEECE 41. A 83. B 18. D
5. D 42. D 84. D 19. D
6. C 43. C 85. B 20. C
7. B 44. B 86. B 21. D
8. B 45. C 87. A 22. B
9. A 46. B 88. C 23. B
1998 EHEECE 47. C 89. A 24. C
10. C 48. D 90. B 25. C
11. D REVISION 91. A 26. C
12. D 49. D 92. A 2004 EHEECE
1999 EHEECE 50. D 93. C 27. B
13. B 51. A 94. B 28. B
14. C 52. B 95. D 29. B
15. A 53. D 96. C 30. A
2000 EHEECE 54. A 97. C 31. D
16. A 55. C 98. D REVISION
17. D 56. B 99. D 32. D
18. C 57. E 100. D 33. D
19. D 58. D UNIT 5 – BEHAVIOR 34. B
20. B 59. E 1996 EHEECE 35. A
21. A 60. D 1. A&D 36. B
2001 EHEECE 61. D 2. A 37. E
22. A 62. A 1997 EHEECE 38. D

39. E
40. E
41. A
42. E
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. E
48. A
49. A
50. C
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. E
55. C
56. A
57. B
58. A
59. A
60. B
61. A
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. A
66. D
67. B
68. B
69. A
70. C
71. B
72. D

OMEGA PRIMARY, SECONDARY AND PREPARATORY SCHOOL BIOLOGY REVIEW

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OMEGA PRIMARY,

1 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

Questions From unit 1 The science of Biology ( grade 11)

Prepared By Azmach A.M 6

7 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

Prepared By Azmach A.M 8

14. Which of the following polysaccharides has no structural function?

9 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

Prepared By Azmach A.M 10

11 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

C, high heat fusion D, Density and freezing property

55. Which of the following is the component of DNA and RNA

13 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

1. To which one of the following groups of organic molecules do enzymes belong?

Prepared By Azmach A.M 14

15 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

41. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Prepared By Azmach A.M 18

A, activator ( inorganic ion ) B, allosteric enzyme

C, coenzymes D, prosthetic group

58. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A, Biological detergents – proteases, lipases and amylases

19 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

C, pulp and paper industry – amylases , xylanase and esterase

D, textile industry – streptokinase , pectinase and pulmozyme

59. Which of the following statement is false about enzymes

A, Enzymes work at specific PH and temperature

B, Enzymes are specific in their action

C, Enzymes start chemical reactions in cells

D, Enzymes are globular protein

60. Extreme PHs can inactivate enzymes because they

A, Alter the charge on the aminoacids in the allosteric site

B, alter the charge on the eminoacids in the active site

D, All of the above

UNIT – 4 CELL BIOLOGY

Prepared By Azmach A.M 20

21 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

Prepared By Azmach A.M 22

23 OMEGA, Primary, secondary and Preparatory School 2005 E.C.

C, Protoplasmic theory – Oscar Hetwig D, Organismal theory – Robert Koch

45. Which of the following is the function of lysosome?

70. Phospholipids form bilayers in water molecule

A, two times bigger B, three times bigger

C, six times bigger D, two times smaller

A, releases energy in respiration B, conserve energy

73. Which is not a normal function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A, Detoxification B, lipid synthesis

C, protein synthesis and transport D, Energy storage

74. Which best describes the structure of a plasma membrane

A, proteins embedded within two layers of phospholipids

B, phospholipids sandwiched between layer of protein

C, protein sandwiched between layers of phospholipids

D, A layer of protein on top of a layer of phospholipids

75. What do nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria have in common

A, Nucleus and mitochondrion B, Chloroplast and Nucleus

C, Mitochondrion and Chloroplast D, Nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum

Prepared By Azmach A.M 26

A, lysosome B, Golgibody C, Ribosome D, Mitochondrian

A, Hypertonic B, Hypotonic C, Isotonic D, Unknown

UNIT – 5 ENERGY TRANSFORMATIONS

1. What is the energy currency of the cell?

3. Which of the following happens during the dark reaction of photosynthesis?