SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY

ALL INDIA MOCK TEST - 2 26.09.2021

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with the results on 28.09.2021 @ 5 PM

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S. (1-3)Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on
the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body.
In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the production and release in brain neurons of the
neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds that neurons use to transmit signals to other
cells) depend directly on the food that the body processes. Our first studies sought to determine whether the
increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injection of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after
rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels in the blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began to
eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These findings
suggested that the production and release of serotonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with blood-
tryptophan increases. In later studies we found that injecting insulin into a rat's bloodstream also caused parallel
elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the
secretion of the animal's own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate-
containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level
and the concentrations of tryptophan and of serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.
Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and serotonin
levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan, why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer lies in
the mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also provides the brain
cells with other amino acids found in protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of protein increases
blood concentration of the other amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does that of tryptophan. The
more protein is in a meal, the lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan concentration to the
concentration of competing amino acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to the brain. Thus the more
protein in a meal, the less serotonin subsequently produced and released.
Q.1) Which of the following titles best summarizes the contents of the passage?
a) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in Cellular Communication.
b) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship Re-examined.
c) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal Dependence.
*d) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings.
Solution:

Some recent findings are mentioned in the very first passage.

Q.2) It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would be LEAST likely to be a potential
source of aid to a patient who was not adequately producing and releasing serotonin?
 *a) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein.
b) Meals consisting almost exclusively of carbohydrates.
c) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion.
d) Meals that had very low concentrations of tyrosine.
Solution:

All other options mention source of aid desired for patient who was not adequately producing and releasing
serotonin.

Q.3) It can be inferred from the passage that the authors initially held which of the following hypotheses about
what would happen when they fed large amounts of protein to rats?
*a) The rats' brain serotonin levels would not decrease.
b) The rats' brain tryptophan levels would decrease.
c) The rats' tyrosine levels would increase less quickly than would their leucine levels.
d) The rats would produce more insulin.
Solution:

All the other options don't make sense. Though, as scientists had fed large amounts of protein to rats they
must have expected the tryptophan level to increase. In answer options only option A comes in line with this.
They must have thought that at least the tryptophan level shall not decrease.

Q.4) The total number of vehicles parked in a ground 660. The ratio between bikes and cars was 13:9. After some
time, 30 cars more were parked and some bikes left and new ratio between bikes and cars became 6:5.
The number of bikes that left is:
a) 50
b) 40
*c) 30
d) 60
Solution:
In the first case,
13
Boys = 660 x = 390
22
9
Girls = 660 x = 270
22
If X boys leave the school, then
390  x 6
=
270  30 5
 390 – x = 360
  x = 30

Q.5) When the price of a sandwich decreases by 10%, a man could buy 1 sandwich more for `270. Then the
original price per sandwich is
a) Rs. 25
*b) Rs. 30
c) Rs. 27
d) Rs. 32
Solution:
Let actual cost be 100%
Then reduced price is 90%
The difference between them is 10% which allows to buy 1 Sandwich more.
10% of 270 = 1
1 = Rs.27 (Reduced price)
Therefore original price is Rs.30

Q.6) Arun and Bijli are to deliver some cards. Arun does half as much work as Bijli in 3/4 th of the time. If together
they take 18 days to complete a work, how much time shall Bijli take to do it alone?
*a) 30 days
b) 35 days
c) 40 days
d) None of the above
Solution:
For Bijli,
Let time = X days
1
1 day’s work =
x
For Arun,
Work in Time
1 3
 x
2 4
1 ?
3x
(days)
2
Arun’s 1 day work
 2
= 3x
Together
1 2 1
 
x 3x 18
X = 30

S. (7)Direction for the following one item:

The table given below represents the amount of education loan (in crores) disbursed by 5 banks of a country over
5 years.

Q.7) What can be said about the two following ratios?

Loan amount disbursed by Bank 1 in 2011
I.
Loan amount disbursed by Bank 2 in 2014
Loan amount disbursed by Bank 3 in 2014
II.
Loan amount disbursed by Bank 4 in 2011
*a) I > II
b) I < II
c) I = II
d) No relation
Solution:
Loan disbursed by Bank 1 in 2011 = 295
Loan disbursed by Bank 2 in 2014 = 122
295/122 = 2.41
Loan amount disbursed by Bank 3 in 2014 = 211
Loan amount disbursed by Bank 4 in 2011 = 123
211/123 = 1.71
I > II

S. (8-12)Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
Some observers have attributed the dramatic growth in temporary employment that occurred in the United
States during the 1980s to increased participation in the workforce by certain groups, such as first-time or re-
entering workers, who supposedly prefer such arrangements. However, statistical analyses reveal that
demographic changes in the workforce did not correlate with variations in the total number of temporary
workers. Instead, these analyses suggest that factors affecting employers account for the rise in temporary
employment. One factor is product demand: temporary employment is favoured by employers who are adapting
to fluctuating demand for products while at the same time seeking to reduce overall labour costs. Another factor
is labour's reduced bargaining strength, which allows employers more control over the terms of employment.
Given the analyses, which reveal that growth in temporary employment now far exceeds the level
explainable by recent workforce entry rates of groups said to prefer temporary jobs, firms should be discouraged
from creating excessive numbers of temporary positions. Government policymakers should consider mandating
benefit coverage for temporary employees, promoting pay equity between temporary and permanent workers,
assisting labour unions in organizing temporary workers, and encouraging firms to assign temporary jobs
primarily to employees who explicitly indicate that preference.
Q.8) The primary purpose of the passage is to
a) Present the results of statistical analyses and propose further studies.
b) Explain a recent development and predict its eventual consequences.
*c) Identify the reasons for a trend and recommend measures to address it.
d) Outline several theories about a phenomenon and advocate one of them.
Solution:

Author first discusses a trend and reasons of temporary employment and finally suggests some measures to
control temporary employment.

Q.9) The passage mentions each of the following as an appropriate kind of governmental action EXCEPT.
a) Getting firms to offer temporary employment primarily to a certain group of people.
b) Encouraging equitable pay for temporary and permanent employees.
c) Facilitating the organization of temporary workers by labour unions.
*d) Establishing guidelines on the proportion of temporary workers that firms should employ.
Solution:

Clearly D is not stated in the last sentence of the passage.

 PASSAGE: 2
Among the myths taken as fact by the environmental managers of most corporations is the belief that
environmental regulations affect all competitors in a given industry uniformly. In reality, regulatory costs—and
therefore compliance—fall unevenly, economically disadvantaging some companies and benefiting others. For
example, a plant situated near a number of larger noncompliant competitors is less likely to attract the attention
of local regulators than is an isolated plant, and less attention means lower costs. Additionally, large plants can
spread compliance costs such as waste treatment across a larger revenue base; on the other hand, some smaller
plants may not even be subject to certain provisions such as permit or reporting requirements by virtue of their
size.
Finally, older production technologies often continue to generate toxic wastes that were not regulated when
the technology was first adopted. New regulations have imposed extensive compliance costs on companies still
using older industrial coal-fired burners that generate high sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide outputs, for
example, whereas new facilities generally avoid processes that would create such waste products. By realizing
that they have discretion and that not all industries are affected equally by environmental regulation,
environmental managers can help their companies to achieve a competitive edge by anticipating regulatory
pressure and exploring all possibilities for addressing how changing regulations will affect their companies
specifically.
Q.10) The primary purpose of the passage is to
a) Address a widespread environmental management problem and suggest possible solutions.
b) Illustrate varying levels of compliance with environmental regulation among different corporations.
c) Describe the various alternatives to traditional methods of environmental management.
*d) Correct a common misconception about the impact of environmental regulations.
Solution:

The author is not presenting possible solutions for correcting the misconception. Instead, the author corrects
the misconception in the passage, and then explains why environmental managers should adopt this
corrected view to help their companies.

Q.11) It can be inferred from the passage that a large plant might have to spend more than a similar but smaller
plant on environmental compliance because the larger plant is
a) More likely to attract attention from local regulators.
*b) Less likely to be exempt from permit and reporting requirements.
c) Less likely to have regulatory costs passed on to it by companies that supply its raw materials.
d) More likely to employ older production technologies.
Solution:
 If smaller companies, by virtue of their small size, are exempt from permit or reporting requirements, then it
must be true that large companies would be subject to these requirements.

Q.12) According to the passage, which of the following statements about sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
outputs is true?
a) Older production technologies cannot be adapted so as to reduce production of these outputs as waste
products.
b) Under the most recent environmental regulations, industrial plants are no longer permitted to produce
these outputs.
*c) Although these outputs are environmentally hazardous, some plants still generate them as waste
products despite the high compliance costs they impose.
d) Many older plants have developed innovative technological processes that reduce the amounts of these
outputs generated as waste products.
Solution:

The fact that the paragraph talks about "companies still using older industrial coal-fired burners that
generate high sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide outputs" means, of course, that right now there are
"companies" that "still use older industrial coal-fired burners that generate high sulfur dioxide and nitrogen
oxide outputs." This is stated clearly and unambiguously.

S. (13) Direction for the followingone item:

The bar chart given below shows the sales (in ‘000 units) of 4 mobile brands for 3 years

Q.13) In 2017 the sales of each brand increased by 100% from 2016. What will be the approximate average
sales (in units) of mobiles per brand in year 2017?
*a) 15250
b) 10000
c) 15000
 d) None of the above
Solution:
2016 2017
B1 7.5 15
B2 6 12
B3 7.5 15
B4 9.5 19

15  12  15  19
Average =
4
61
=
4
= 15.25
= 15250 (in 000’ units)

S. (14-17) Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

The line graph shows annual profits in rupees lakhs of a certain company from 2011 to 2016. Study the
diagram and answer the following questions.

Q.14) If the profits are added to the company's reserves and the reserves stood at Rs 150 lakhs at the end of
2015, what were the reserves (in Rs. lakhs) in the beginning of 2012?
a) 130
b) 90
*c) 110
d) 40
Solution:
Total profit from 2012 to 2015 = 30-10+5+15 = Rs. 40 lakhs
Reserves in the beginning of 2012 = 150 – 40 = 110 lakhs
Q.15) By what value profit in 2012 was more (in %) than the profit of 2011?
a) 10
b) 33.33
*c) 50
d) 40
Solution:
(30-20)/20 * 100
=50%

Q.16) The company reported a loss in which year?

*a) 2013
b) 2016
c) 2012
d) 2014
Solution:
2013

Q.17) What is the cumulative profits (in lakh Rs) earned by the company in the given six years?
a) 80
*b) 70
c) 90
d) 100
Solution:
20+30-10+5+15+10 = 70

Q.18) A can do a work in 24 days and B in 40 days. If they work on it together for 10 days, then what fraction of
work is left?
a) 1/2
*b) 1/3
c) 2/3
d) 3/4
Solution:
10 days’ work together = 10/24 + 10/40
= 8/12
 =2/3
Work left = 1/3

Q.19) A can do 75% of a job in 9 days and B can do half of the job in 8 days. If they work on it together, then in
how many days can they do half of the job?
a) 40/7
*b) 24/7
c) 7/2
d) 9/2
Solution:
A does 75% work in 9 days
therefore, 100% in 12 days
B does half work in 8 days
therefore, full work in 16 days
Together one day’s work = 1/12 + 1/16
= 48/7 days to complete the work
Therefore 24/7 to complete half work

Q.20) Two cyclists P and Q cycle at 20 km/hr and 16 km/hr towards each other respectively. What was the
distance (in kms) between them when they started if they met after 40 minutes?
a) 36
b) 30
c) 25
*d) 24
Solution:
D = T * Relative Speed
= 40/60 * (20+16)
= 2/3 * 36
= 24 km

Q.21) Two cars A and B travel from one city to another, at speeds of 35 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively. If car
B takes 2 hours lesser time than car A for the journey, then the distance (in kms) between the two cities is?
a) 345
b) 375
c) 415
*d) 315
 Solution:
Difference in time = 2 hours
d/35 – d/45 = 2
d = 315km

Q.22) The average cost of 5 items in a shopping list is Rs 650. If one more item whose cost is Rs 1400 is added to
the list what will be the new average (in Rs)?
*a) 775
b) 875
c) 725
d) 825

Solution:
Sum = 650*5 = 3250
New sum = 3250+1400 = 4650
New average = 4650/6 = 775

Q.23) If compound interest received on a certain amount in the 2nd year is Rs 1200, what will be the compound
interest (in Rs) for the 4th year on the same amount at 10% rate of interest?
*a) 1452
b) 1320
c) 1552
d) 1420
Solution:
CI for 3rd year = 1200 + 10/100 * 1200 = 1200 + 120 = Rs. 1320
CI for 4th year = 1320 + 10/100 * 1320 = 1320 + 132 = Rs. 1452

Q.24) What number should be added to each of the numbers 94, 24, 100 and 26, so that the resulting numbers
are in continued proportion?
a) 10
*b) 11
c) 9
d) 8
Solution:
(94+x)/(24+x) = (100+x)/(26+x)
 Go by options,
x = 11

Q.25) A letter lock consists of 4 rings, each ring contains 9 non-zero digits. This lock can be opened by setting a
4 digit code with the proper combination of each of the 4 rings. Maximum how many codes can be formed to
open the lock?
a) 49
9
b) P4
4
*c) 9
d) None of these
Solution:
9 9  9  9 = 94
Q.26) There are four calculators and it is know that exactly two of them are defective. They are tested one by
one, in a random order till both the defective calculations are identified. Then the probability that only two
tests are required is:
5
a)
6
1
b)
2
1
*c)
6
1
d)
3
Solution:
The total number of ways in which two calculators can be chosen out of four calculators is 4C2 =6. If only two
tests are required to identify defective calculators, then in first two tests defective calculators are identified.
This can be done in one way only.
1
 Required probability =
6

S. (27-29)Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

These questions are based on the information given below.
A family of eight persons has three married couples. Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-
in-law of Floyd. Helen is the daughter of Bob, who is the brother of George. Diana is the only child of George and
is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
Q.27) How is George related to Helen?
 *a) Uncle
b) Father
c) Brother
d) Cousin
Solution:
Given that Helen is the daughter of Bob and Bob is the brother of George. Also Diana is the only child of
George and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.

Also given that Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of Floyd.
Floyd should be the husband of Diana and Amelie should be the wife of George.
(Names are represented by their corresponding first letters)

George is the uncle of Helen

George is related to Helen as Uncle.

Q.28) How is Helen related to Diana?

a) Sister
b) Daughter
*c) Cousin
d) Mother
Solution:
Helen is the cousin of Diana
Q.29) Diana’s mother is
a) Emma
*b) Amelie
c) Helen
d) Floyd
Solution:
Amelie is Diana’s mother

S. (30-33)Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
Eco efficiency (measures to minimize environmental impact through the reduction or elimination of waste
from production processes) has become a goal for companies worldwide, with many realizing significant cost
savings from such innovations. Peter Senge and Goran Carstedt see this development as laudable but suggest
that simply adopting ecoefficiency innovations could actually worsen environmental stresses in the future. Such
innovations reduce production waste but do not alter the number of products manufactured nor the waste
generated from their use and discard; indeed, most companies invest in ecoefficiency improvements in order to
increase profits and growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee that increased economic growth from ecoefficiency
will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in today's global markets, greater profits may be turned into
investment capital that could easily be reinvested in old-style eco-inefficient industries. Even a vastly more
ecoefficient industrial system could, were it to grow much larger, generate more total waste and destroy more
habitat and species than would a smaller, less ecoefficient economy. Senge and Carstedt argue that to preserve
the global environment and sustain economic growth, businesses must develop a new systemic approach that
reduces total material use and total accumulated waste. Focusing exclusively on ecoefficiency, which offers a
compelling business case according to established thinking, may distract companies from pursuing radically
different products and business models

Q.30) The primary purpose of the passage is to

a) Explain why a particular business strategy has been less successful than was once anticipated
b) Propose an alternative to a particular business strategy that has inadvertently caused ecological damage
*c) Present a concern about the possible consequences of pursuing a particular business strategy
d) Make a case for applying a particular business strategy on a larger scale than is currently practiced
Solution:

Yes, he presents a concern caused by simply implementing ecoefficiency.

Q.31) The passage implies that which of the following is a possible consequence of a company's adoption of
innovations that increase its ecoefficiency?
a) Company profits resulting from such innovations may be reinvested in that company with no guarantee
that the company will continue to make further improvements in ecoefficiency.
*b) Company growth fostered by cost savings from such innovations may allow that company to manufacture
a greater number of products that will be used and discarded, thus worsening environmental stress.
c) A company that fails to realize significant cost savings from such innovations may have little incentive to
continue to minimize the environmental impact of its production processes.
d) A company that comes to depend on such innovations to increase its profits and growth may be
vulnerable in the global market to competition from old-style eco-inefficient industries.
Solution:

The author does not mention anything about any of the other options, whereas option B is clearly
mentioned.

PASSAGE: 2
In 1988 services moved ahead of manufacturing as the main product of the United States economy. But what
is meant by "services"? Some economists define a service as something that is produced and consumed
simultaneously, for example, a haircut. The broader, classical definition is that a service is an intangible
something that cannot be touched or stored. Yet electric utilities can store energy, and computer programmers
save information electronically. Thus, the classical definition is hard to sustain.

The United States government's definition is more practical: services are the residual category that includes
everything that is not agriculture or industry. Under this definition, services includes activities as diverse as
engineering and driving a bus. However, besides lacking a strong conceptual framework, this definition fails to
recognize the distinction between service industries and service occupations. It categorizes workers based on
their company's final product rather than on the actual work the employees perform. Thus, the many service
workers employed by manufacturers—bookkeepers or janitors, for example—would fall under the industrial
rather than the services category. Such ambiguities reveal the arbitrariness of this definition and suggest that,
although practical for government purposes, it does not accurately reflect the composition of the current United
States economy.
Q.32) The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
a) discussing research data underlying several definitions
b) arguing for the adoption of a particular definition
*c) exploring definitions of a concept
d) comparing the advantages of several definitions
 Solution:

It is clear that the author discusses both the advantages and disadvantages of two definitions. Anything less
would not be the answer.

Q.33) The passage suggests which of the following about service workers in the United States?
*a) The number of service workers may be underestimated by the definition of services used by the
government.
b) There were fewer service workers than agricultural workers before 1988.
c) The number of service workers was almost equal to the number of workers employed in manufacturing
until 1988.
d) Most service workers are employed in service occupations rather than in service industries.
Solution:

Some service workers fall under industry using the government definition. Hence, there will be an
underestimation.

Q.34) Two labourers A and B are paid a total of Rs. 1120 per day. If A is paid 180 percent of what is paid to B,
how much (in Rs) is B paid?
*a) 400
b) 720
c) 500
d) 620
Solution:
A:B
180:100
9:5
Total parts = 9+5 = 14
14 -> 1120
1 part = 80
B = Rs.400

Q.35) A farmer buys a goat and a sheep for Rs 3500. He sold the sheep at a profit of 20 percent and the goat at
a loss of 10 percent. If he sold both the animals at the same price, then the cost price (in Rs) of the cheaper
animal was?
a) 2000
*b) 1500
 c) 1750
d) 2250
Solution:
Let x and y be the cost price of goat and sheep respectively.
x+y = 3500
120/100 * x = 90/100 * y
4x = 3y
x:y
3:4
Goat is the cheaper animal here.
7 parts = 3500
3 parts = ?
= Rs. 1500

S. (36) Direction for the followingone item:

Answer the following question by using the Velocity - Time graph given below:

Q.36) If a body follows the motion as shown in the following figure, what is the total distance covered by the
body? (V is velocity in M/sec and T is the Time in seconds)
a) 10 metre
b) 50 metre
c) 80 metre
*d) 20 metre
 Solution:
Distance = Area
Area of triangle 1 + Area of Triangle 2 + Area of Rectangle = Distance
1 1
 b h +  b h + l b
2 2
1 1
 1 5 +  1 5 + 5 3
2 2
2.5 +2.5 +15 = 20 metre.

S. (37-39)Directions for the following 3 (three) items: A, B, C, D and E are five different integers. When written in
the ascending order of values, the difference between any two adjacent integer is 4. D is the greatest and A the
least. B is greater than E but less than C. The sum of all the integers is equal to E. The value of the middle integers
is -1

Q.37) The value of A is

a) -7
*b) -9
c) -5
d) None of these
Solution:
First Statement A, B, C, D and E
Second Statement The numbers are in A.P.
with common difference 4
Third Statement D _ _ _ A (Descending
order from left to right)
Fourth Statement DCBEA

Value of middle integer is -1

So, value of B = -1
So the value of other Integer be
D C B E A
7 3 -1 -5 -9
A = -9

Q.38) The sum of A and B is

*a) -10
 b) -15
c) 10
d) None of these
Solution:
A + B = -10

Q.39) The greatest number has the value:

a) 9
b) -5
c) 3
*d) 7
Solution:
The greatest integer is 7

S. (40)Direction for the following one item:

Answer the following question by using the given Philip curves.

Q.40) From the above graph, which of the following statement can be concluded?
a) Direct Relationship between Inflation and unemployment.
b) Increase in Inflation will results in increase in unemployment.
c) Increase in Inflation will not affect the percentage of unemployment.
*d) Inverse relationship between Inflation and unemployment.
Solution:
According to this graph it Inflation increases then unemployment rate will be decreased.

S. (41) Direction for the following one item:

 Answer the following question by using the different type of inflation chart given below.

Q.41) The above figure indicates the rapidity with which the price increase takes place under different types of
inflation. Which of the line represents Galloping or Hyperinflation?
*a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Solution:
Line D represents - Creeping inflation
Line C represents - Walking Inflation
Line B represents - Running Inflation
Line A represents - Galloping or Hyper Inflation

S. (42-44)Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
Erosion of America's farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and
grasslands under the plow in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmland were
damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands
placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes
are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation's most critical natural resource problem.
Q.42) As we understand from the reading, today, soil erosion in America.
a) Causes humans to place new demands on the land.
*b) Is worse than it was in the nineteenth century.
 c) Happens so slowly that it is hardly noticed.
d) Is the most critical problem that the nations faces.
Solution:

The author mentions that ‘After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new
demands placed on the land by heavy crop production’.

Q.43) The author points out in the passage that erosion in America.
a) Has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plow.
b) Has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements.
c) Occur only in areas with no vegetation.
*d) Can become a more serious problem in the future.
Solution:

The author concludes that ‘In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to
replace petroleum scarcity as the nation's most critical natural resource problem’.

PASSAGE: 2
A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone
species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy
and materials through ecosystems. The sea start Pisaster ochraceus which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on
the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel
Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competition in a broad belt of
the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other
species.
A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by
removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major
changes occurred in the area from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed
extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely
where they are covered with water most the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and
algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied
the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines,
which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
Q.44) Which of the following is/are implied by the passage?
a) Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
b) Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
c) Sea star constitute an important contribution in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
 *d) Mussels are benevolent species in intertidal zone.
Solution:

The author highlights that ‘Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars,
these mussels crowd out other competition in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea
star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.’ This indicates the usefulness of
mussels.

Q.45) If a train runs at 40 km/hour, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes. But if it runs at 50 km/hour. It
is late by 5 minutes only. The correct time (in minutes) for the train to complete the journey is
a) 13
b) 15
*c) 19
d) 21
Solution:
Let’t’ be the correct time
40kmph * (t +11) = 50kmph * (t+5)
t = 19 min

Q.46) What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 5:30?
a) 100
0
*b) 15
c) 200
0
d) 25
Solution:
11
 = | 30H - M|
2
11
= | 30  5-  30 |
2
= 150

Q.47) In a certain code language, East is called North-east, South-east is called East, South is called South-east,
South-west is called South and so on. A man starts travelling as per the original directions and travels a
distance of 7 km towards North, then turns by an angle of 90o Clockwise direction and travels 24km in that
direction. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction is he now from the starting point in
that language?
 a) 35km, North-east
*b) 25km, North
c) 35km, East
d) 35km, South
Solution:
In a certain code language, east is called North-east, South-east is called East, South is called South-east
and so on.
ACTUAL FIGURE FIGURE AFTER CODING

A man travels a distance of 7 km towards North and turns 90o East means he travelled 24 km towards
East.
Hence the figure is as follows.

Distance between AC= (AB) 2  (BC) 2  (7)2  (24)2

= 49  576 = 625 = 25 km.

He is 25 km towards North-east but as East is called North-east in the coded language. Hence he is 25km
towards North from the starting point.

S. (48-50)Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia
in the Baltic surely should have never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried
the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the
Estonia rolled over and sank in a cold, stormy night. It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught
in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves. Of those who managed to scramble overboard,
only 139 survived. The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final
death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the
Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of life, while most of the dead were women,
children and the elderly.

Q.48) One can understand from the reading that.

a) The lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered.
b) Design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry.
c) 139 people managed to leave the vessel but died in freezing water.
*d) Most victims were trapped inside the boat as they were in their cabins.
Solution:

The passage mentions that ‘It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark,
flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves.’

Q.49) It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident.
a) Helped one another to overcome the tragedy that had affected them all.
*b) Were mostly young men but women, children and the elderly stood little chance.
c) Helped save hundreds of lives.
d) Are still suffering from severe post-traumatic stress disorder.
Solution:

The author ends by stating that ‘so many survivors were men in the prime of life, while most of the dead
were women, children and the elderly’.

PASSAGE: 2
Critics of theory A point out that some fish form schools even in areas where predators are abundant and
thus little possibility of escaping detection exists. They argue that the school continues to be of value to its
members even after detection. They advocate theory B, the "confusion effect," which can be explained in two
different ways. Sometimes, proponents argue, predators simply cannot decide which fish to attack. This
indecision supposedly results from a predator's preference for striking prey that is distinct from the rest of the
school in appearance. In many schools the fish are almost identical in appearance, making it difficult for a
predator to select one. The second explanation for the "confusion effect" has to do with the sensory confusion
caused by a large number of prey moving around the predator. Even if the predator makes the decision to attack
a particular fish, the movement of other prey in the school can be distracting. The predator's difficulty can be
compared to that of a tennis player trying to hit a tennis ball when two are approaching simultaneously.
Q.50) According to one explanation of the "confusion effect," a fish that swims in a school will have greater
advantages for survival if it.
a) Tends to be visible for no more than 200 meters.
b) Stays near either the front or the rear of a school.
c) Is part of a small school rather than a large school.
*d) Is very similar in appearance to the other fish in the school.
Solution:

The passage mentions that ‘In many schools the fish are almost identical in appearance, making it difficult for
a predator to select one’.

Q.51) Thirty members are standing in a row. How many persons are between Ramu and Mohan?
(i) 13 persons are standing to the right of Mohan and 15 persons are standing to the left of Ramu.
(ii) 18 persons are standing to the left of Mohan and 13 persons are standing to the right of Ramu.
(iii) 17 persons are standing to the right of Ramu and 26 persons are standing to the right of Mohan.
Which of the above statements are sufficient to answer the question?
a) Only I
b) Only I and II
c) Only II and III
*d) Each statement alone is sufficient
Solution:
From I alone,
Let Ramu be standing to the left of Mohan, then the representation will be as follows.
_______ Ramu Mohan ________
15 13
Ramu and Mohan are adjacent to each other.
I alone is sufficient
From II alone,
If Mohan is to the left of Ramu, then there will be more than 30 persons in the row.
Mohan must be the right of Ramu
The representation will be as follows.
_______ Ramu ____ Mohan ________
16 1 11
One person is standing between Ramu and Mohan.
 From III alone,
Mohan must be standing to the left of Ramu
The member of persons between Ramu and Mohan is
26-17-1= 8.
Any one of the statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.52) From a bag containing 2 pears, 3 Peaches and 4 Figs, three fruits are drawn at random. What is the
probability that all the three fruits are of the same variety?
5
*a)
84
1
b)
9
11
c)
120
11
d)
30
Solution:
The bag contains 2 Pears, 3 Peaches, and 4 Figs.
Since all the three fruits should be of same variety, they have to be all Peaches or all Figs.
3
C3  4 C3 1  4 5
Required probability = 9
 
C3 84 84

Q.53) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ARCHITECTURE, each of which has as many letters
between them as they have between them in the English alphabet?
a) 6
*b) 5
c) 3
d) None of the above
Solution:
Given word is ________
A R C H I T E C T U R E
A _ C, H _ I, T _ U, R _ T and E _ H are five such pairs.

S. (54-55)Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Each of the following questions contains three views of the same cube. Find out from the given choices, the
choice which represents another view of the same cube.
Q.54)

(i) (ii) (iii)

a) b) *c)d)
Solution:
From (i) and (ii), 1 is opposite 3 and from (i) and (iii), 6 is opposite 2. Hence, 5 is opposite 4. The third option is
correct view of the cube.

Q.55)

(i) (ii) (iii)

*a) b)c)d)

Solution:
From (i) and (ii), e is opposite b and from (ii) and (iii), f is opposite d. Hence, a is opposite c. The figure in the
first choice is a correct view of the cube.

S. (56-57)Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’
arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. So far as they relate to the question, ‘strong’ arguments are those which are
both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance
and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Mark your answer as
*a) If only argument I is strong.
b) If only argument II is strong.
c) If neither I nor II is strong.
d) If both I and II are strong.
Q.56) Should children be allowed to use internet in internet kiosks.
I. Yes, all the internet kiosks are using filter-software’s, which do not allow adult software to be downloaded.
II. No, Internet is a communication medium, which transmits information and does not distinguish between a
child and a grown-up.
Solution: Nil

Q.57) Statement:
“Do as I say, and not as I do” A told B
Assumptions:
I. B does what A does.
II. B does not do what A does.
III. B would consider A’s advise.
a) Either I or II is implicit.
*b) Only I and III are implicit.
c) Only III is implicit.
d) All the three are implicit.
Solution: Nil

Q.58) The marked price of a toy is `60 and at a discount that was sold for `45. Then rate of discount allowed is
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 20%
*d) 25%
Solution:
Rs. 60 = 100%
Rs. 45 =?
= 75%
Therefore discount is 25%

1
Q.59) The simple interest on a sum after 4 years is of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is
5

a) 4%
*b) 5%
c) 6%
d) 8%
 Solution:
P/5 = P×4×R/100
R = 5%

S. (60-63)Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

In a colony of 460 people, 130 watch Cartoon channels, 150 watch News channels and 210 watch Music
channels. 15% of the people watch all the three channels, 20 people watch only Cartoon channels and Music
channels. 99 watch Cartoon channels and News channels. 10 people watch only News channels and Music
channels.

Q.60) How many people watch none of the given channels?

a) 111
b) 170
*c) 168
d) 162
Directions (60-63)
The given information can be represented in the following venn diagram

CC  Cartoon channels
NC  News channels
MC  Music channels
The people who watch all the three channels = 15%
15 460
 = 69
100
The people who watch Cartoon channels and News channels
 b + 15% = 99
b + 69 = 99
b = 30
The people who watch only Cartoon channels
 a = 130 – (b+20+15%)
 = 130 – (30+20+69)
= 11

The people who watch only News channels

 c = 150 – (b+15%+10)
= 150 – (30+69+10)
=41

The people who watch only Music channels

 d = 210 – (20+15%+10)
= 210-(20+69+10)
=111

The people who watch none of the given channels

 = Total – (a+b+c+20+15%+10+d)
= 460-(11+30+41+20+69+10+111)
= 460-292 = 168
Solution:
168 people watch none of the given channels.

Q.61) How many people watch at least two channels?

a) 30
b) 20
c) 10
*d) 129
Solution:
People who watch at least two channels
 b+ 15% +20+10
30+69+20+10  129.

Q.62) How many people watch exactly one channel?

a) 69
b) 111
c) 41
*d) 163
Solution:
 People who watch exactly one channel a+c+d  11+41+11163

Q.63) How many people do not watch either Cartoon channels or Music channels?
a) 41
b) 30
c) 81
*d) None of these
Solution:
People who do not watch either Cartoon channels or Music channels  c+n = 41 +168 = 209

S. (64-65)Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

In the following figure, the circle represents Females, the square represents Students and the triangle
represents Athletes.

Q.64) Which of the following letters in the figures represents Athletes who are neither Students nor Females?
a) g
*b) a
c) f
d) d
Solution:
Given venn diagram is as shown below:

Athletes who are neither Students nor Females are represented by the letter ‘a’.
Only Females, only Students and only Athletes are represented by the letters c, b and a respectively.
 The athletes who are neither students nor female are represented by the letter ‘a’.

Q.65) Which of the following letters in the figure represents male student Athletes?
a) a
b) b
*c) d
d) f
Solution:
The letter ‘e’ represents ‘Female Students but not Athletes’

S. (66)Directionfor the following one item:

Select theappropriate alternative, from among the answer figures marked a), b), c) and d) satisfying the similar
conditions of placement of dot(s) as in the problem figure.

Q.66) Problem figure:

Answer figure:

*a) b)c)d)
Solution:
In the problem figure, there are two dots. One dot appears in a region common to both circle and square only
and another dot appears in a region common to both triangle and square only. Such a region is present only
in the answer figurea).

Q.67) Find the missing term(s) in the given figure(s).

 *a) 22
b) 20
c) 12
d) 15
Solution:
The given logic is,
6+4 = 10
10+4 = 14
14+4 = 18
18+4 = 22
 The missing number is 22

S. (68-72)Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
PASSAGE: 1
Because of the proximity and likeness of Mars to Earth, scientists have long speculated about the possibility
of life on Mars. As early as the mid-17th century, astronomers observed polar ice caps on Mars, and by the mid-
19th century, scientists discovered other similarities to Earth, including the length of day and axial tilt. But in
1965, photos taken by the Mariner 4 probe revealed a mars without rivers, oceans or signs of life. And in the
1990s, it was discovered that Mars, unlike Earth, not longer possessed a substantial global magnetic field,
allowing celestial radiation to reach the planet’s surface and solar wind to eliminate much of Mar’s atmosphere
over the course of several billion years.
 More recent probes have focused on whether there was once water on Mars. Some scientists believe that
this question is definitively answered by the presence of certain geological landforms. Others posit that
difference explanations, such as wind erosion or carbon dioxide oceans, may be responsible for these formations.
Mars rovers Opportunity and Spirit, which have been exploring the surface of Mars since 2004, have both
discovered geological evidence of post water activity. These findings substantially bolster claims that there was
once life on Mars.

Q.68) The author’s stance on the possibility of life on Mars can best be described as
a) Optimistic
*b) Disinterested
c) Sceptical
d) Cynical
Solution:

The author presents a neutral perspective, supporting option B.

PASSAGE: 2
Polygamy in Africa has been a popular topic for social research over the past four decades; it has been
analyzed by many distinguished minds and in various well-publicized works. In 1961, when Remi Clignet
published his book “Many Wives, Many Powers,” he was not alone in sharing the view that in Africa co-wives may
be perceived as direct and indirect sources of increased income and prestige.
By the 1970s, such arguments had become crystallized and popular. Many other African scholars who wrote
o the subject became the new champions of this philosophy. For example, in 1983, John Mbiti proclaimed that
polygamy is an accepted and respectable institution serving many useful social purposes. Similarly, G.K. Nukunya,
in his paper “Polygamy as a Symbol of Status,” reiterated Mbiti’s idea that plurality of wives is a sign of affluence
and power in the African society.
However, the colonial missionary voice provided consistent opposition to polygamy by viewing the practice
as unethical and destructive of family life. While they propagated this view with the authority of the Bible, they
were convinced that Africans had to be coerced into partaking in the vision of monogamy understood by the
Western culture. The missionary viewpoint even included, in some instances, dictating immediate divorce in the
case of newly converted men who had already contracted polygamous marriages. Unfortunately, both the
missionary voice and the scholarly voice did not consider the views of African women on the matter important.
Although there was some awareness that women regarded polygamy as both a curse and a blessing, the
distanced, albeit scientific, perspective of an outside observer predominated both on the pulpit and in scholarly
writings.
Contemporary research in the social sciences has begun to focus on the protagonist’s voice in the study of
culture, recognizing that the views and experiences of those who take part in a given reality ought to receive
close examination. This privileging of the protagonist seems appropriate, particularly given that women in Africa
have often used literary productions to comment on marriage, family and gender relations.

Q.69) Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the passage above?
a) To discuss scholarly works that view polygamy as a sign of prestige, respect, and affluence in the African
society.
b) To trace the origins of the missionary opposition to African polygamy.
c) To argue for imposing restrictions on polygamy in the African society.
*d) To discuss multiple perspectives on African polygamy and contrast them with contemporary research.
Solution:

The author mentions the views of African scholars and colonial missionaries, contrasting them with
contemporary research.

Q.70) Which of the following statements can most properly be inferred from the passage?
*a) Nukunya’s paper “Polygamy as a symbol of Status” was not written in 1981.
b) John Mbiti adjusted his initial view on Polygamy, recognizing that the experiences of African women
should receive closer attention.
c) Remi Clignet’s book “Many Wives, Many Powers” was the first well-known scholarly work to proclaim
that polygamy can be viewed as a symbol or prestige and wealth.
d) Under the influence of the missionary opposition, polygamy was proclaimed illegal in Africa as a practice
“unethical and destructive of family life”.
Solution:

The passage states that ‘, G.K. Nukunya, in his paper “Polygamy as a Symbol of Status,” reiterated Mbiti’s
idea’, which means that it came after 1983.

Q.71) According to the passage, the colonial missionary and the early scholarly research shared which of the
following traits in their views on polygamy?
a) Both considered polygamy a sign of social status and success.
*b) Neither accounted for the views of local women.
c) Both attempted to limit the prevalence of polygamy.
d) Both pointed to polygamy’s destructive effects on family life.
Solution:

The author emphasizes that ‘Unfortunately, both the missionary voice and the scholarly voice did not
consider the views of African women on the matter important.’
Q.72) The passage provides each of the following, EXCEPT
a) The year of publication of Remi Clignet’s book “Many Wives, Many Powers”.
b) The year in which John Mbiti made a claim that polygamy is an accepted institution.
*c) Examples of African women’s literary productions devoted to family relations.
d) Reasons for missionary opposition to polygamy.
Solution:

No examples are provided of any African women’s literary productions devoted to family relations.

Q.73) The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of
interest per annum for 2 years is Rs. 25. Then the sum is
a) Rs. 6,500
b) Rs. 9,500
*c) Rs. 10,000
d) Rs. 17,000
Solution:
For 2 years
CI – SI = PR2/1002
25 = P×5×5/1002
P = 10000

Q.74) A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12cm and width 8cm. This is used to construct a
closed cube. The side of the cube is?
a) 2 cm
b) 3 cm
*c) 4 cm
d) 7 cm
Solution:
Total surface area of the cube = Area of rectangle
6a^2 = 12*8
a = 4 cm.

S. (75-79)Directions for the following 5 (five) items: These questions are based on the following information:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight employees of a concern. Each is allotted a different locker, out of eight
lockers numbered 1 to 8 in a cupboard. The lockers are arranged in four rows with two lockers in each row.
 Lockers 1 and 2 are in the top row from left to right respectively while lockers 7 and 8 are in the bottom row
– arranged from left to right respectively. So lockers 5 and 6 – arranged from right to left respectively – in the
second row from the top 3 and 4 arrange from right to left respectively. P has been allotted locker 1 while V has
been allotted locker 8. T’s locker is just above that of Q which is just above that of R, whereas W’s locker is in the
bottom row. (Above or below indicates the same column).
Q.75) Which of the following cannot be the correct locker number-occupant pair?
a) 3-Q
b) 7-W
*c) 6-R
d) 2-T
Solution:
Let us first try to locate the lockers in the cupboard as per the conditions given. Then, we will do the
allotment to the persons.
Lockers 1 and 2 are in the top row and lockers 7 and 8 are in the bottom most row. In these two rows, the
lockers are numbered from left to right. In the other two rows, the lockers are numbered from right to left.
L R
1 2 Top Row
4 3
6 5
7 8 Bottom Row

Now let us look at the conditions given for the allotment of the lockers. P has locker1. V has locker 8.

1-P 2
4 3
6 5
7 8-V

Locker of W is in the bottom row  W’s locker must be 7

1-P 2
4 3
6 5
 7-W 8-V

T’s locker is just above that of Q, which is just above that of R  The lockers of T, Q and R must be 2, 3 and 5
respectively (there are no other group of lockers which satisfy this condition).

1-P 2-T
4 3-Q
6 5-R
7-W 8-V

S and U have lockers 4 and 6 left for them.

Thus, on the basis of the data given to us, we can show the final arrangement of lockers as below:

1-P 2-T
4-S/U 3-Q
6-U/S 5-R
7-W 8-V

Now we can answer the questions easily on the basis of the above.
Solution:
By looking at the final arrangement of lockers above, we find that choice c) does not represent the correct
combination of locker number-occupant pair. The Answer is Choicec).

Q.76) If U’s locker is not beside Q’s locker, whose locker is just above that of W?
*a) U
b) S
c) R
d) Q
Solution:
If U’s locker is not beside Q’s locker, then U’s locker must be locker 6. So, it is U’s locker that will be
immediately above W’s. The Answer is Choice a)

Q.77) Which of these pairs cannot have lockers that are diagonally placed?
a) P-Q
b) S-R
c) U-R
 *d) Either b) or c)
Solution:
R’s locker is in the same row as that of exactly one of S or U and diagonally placed to the other one. Hence,
‘either S-R or U-R’ is the answer. The Answer is Choice d).

Q.78) Which of the following groups consists only occupants of odd numbered lockers?
*a) Q, R, W
b) R, V, W
c) T, R, Q
d) P, T, Q
Solution:
The odd-numbered lockers 1, 3, 5 and 7 which belong to P, Q, R W appear in choice a). Hence, this is the
correct choice. The Answer is Choice a)

Q.79) If U’s locker is in the same row as that of R and S exchanges his locker with V, then who is the new
neighbour of V in the same row? (Assume that nothing else is disturbed form the original arrangement.)
a) P
*b) Q
c) R
d) U
Solution:
U’s locker is in the same row as that of R which means that locker 6 belongs to U. So locker 4 belongs to S.
Now V and S exchange lockers. Then the new neighbour of V is Q.

Q.80) Same quantity of water is required for 15 plants. On a particular day, some plants were not watered and
the consumption of water was reduced in the ratio 5:3. The number plants not watered was
a) 3
*b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
Solution:
Assume 1 unit of food per person. Therefore 15 units for 15 members.
5 : 3 = 15 : ?
=> 9 units were consumed, hence 9 were present and 6 were absent