Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 12th Edition Shier Test Bank

Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology
12th Edition Shier Test Bank

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Chapter 07 - Skeletal System
Chapter 07
Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A bone includes
A. living material and nonliving material.
B. blood, cartilage, dense connective tissue, and muscle.
C. only nonliving material.
D. extracellular matrix and inorganic salts, but no collagen.
E. only living material.
Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

Learning Outcome: 07.01
Topic: Skeletal System
2. Which of the following is not a function of bone?

A. To protect soft tissues.
B. To house the tissue that manufactures blood cells.
C. To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle.
D. To store inorganic salts.
E. To provide a framework for the body.

7-1
3. The bones of the wrists and ankles are classified as

A. long bones.
B. flat bones.
C. short bones.
D. irregular bones.
E. dextrous bones.
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

4. Which of the following is not found in spongy bone?

A. Trabeculae
B. Osteons
C. Canaliculi
D. Osteoblasts
E. Periosteum

5. Which of the following four groups of bones, based on shape and with an example of each,
is correct?
A. Long bones-wrist and ankle bones
B. Short bones-arm and leg bones
C. Flat bones-facial bones
D. Irregular bones-bones of the backbone
E. Short bones-facial bones

7-2
6. Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________.

A. tightly packed tissue that reduces the weight of bone; cancellous bone that provides solid,
strong tissue resistant to bending
B. tightly packed tissue that is solid, strong, and resistant to bending; cancellous bone that
reduces the weight of bone
C. epiphyses; a diaphysis
D. osteocytes; no osteocytes
E. none of the above

7. The white material that reduces friction at the ends of bones is called
A. the epiphysis.
B. articular cartilage.
C. the periosteum.
D. the endosteum.
E. white matter.

8. Articular cartilage is
A. fibrocartilage.
B. endochondral cartilage.
C. hyoid cartilage.
D. hyaline cartilage.
E. found only in the elbows and knees.

7-3
9. A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital for the third time for a broken bone, and
the parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges
dropped after the results of genetic tests come back for which condition?
A. polydactyly.
B. osteoporosis.
C. osteogenesis imperfecta.
D. anemia.
E. bone cancer.
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze

10. A bone thickens by

A. activity of osteocytes in the medullary cavity.
B. increased secretion of calcium salts by osteoclasts.
C. increased activity of the epiphyseal plate.
D. adding blood vessels and nerves.
E. none of the above.

11. Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______.

A. bone-forming cells; bone-destroying cells
B. mature bone cells; bone-forming cells
C. bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
D. bone-destroying cells; bone forming cells
E. embryo cells, fetal cells

7-4
12. Osteoclasts are

A. bone cells that secrete bone matrix.
B. mature bone cells that maintain the matrix.
C. immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes.
D. bone cells that resorb bone tissue.
E. not bone cells.

13. A vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in

______.
A. rickets; dwarfism
B. rickets; retardation of bone development
C. osteomalacia; rickets
D. soft bones; rickets
E. osteoporosis; orange skin

14. Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ______ hormone, which
decreases production of ______.
A. thyroid; osteocytes in the periosteum
B. growth; osteoblasts in the medullary cavity
C. thyroxin; osteoclasts in the epiphyseal plate
D. growth; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate
E. sex; osteoclasts in the epiphyseal plate

7-5
15. Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?

A. Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
B. Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.
C. Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
D. Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
E. Osteoblasts deposit a thin layer of compact bone beneath the periosteum.

16. Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?

A. Broad, flat skull bones
B. Phalanges of the fingers
C. Humerus
D. Femur
E. Teeth

17. The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:

A. the bone is lengthening.
B. the bone is no longer lengthening.
C. the bone is increasing in diameter.
D. the bone is dead.
E. the bone is broken.

7-6
18. At what age are all bones normally ossified?

A. Birth
B. 5 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years
E. Never

19. Which is true?

A. Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix.
B. Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are
isolated in lacunae.
C. Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts.
D. Embryos and fetuses have only osteoblasts, children have only osteocytes, and adults have
only osteoclasts.
E. Osteocytes secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts

20. It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of

the
A. diaphysis.
B. medullary cavity.
C. epiphyseal plate.
D. articular cartilage.
E. neophyseal plate.

7-7
21. Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______.

A. replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue
B. forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs
C. deposits calcium salts; activates osteoclasts
D. activates osteocytes; stimulates osteoblasts
E. replaces undifferentiated connective tissue; replaces hyaline cartilage

22. The thyroid hormone thyroxine can ______ bone growth by ______.
A. increase; increasing cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
B. halt; causing premature ossification of the epiphyseal plates
C. increase; stimulating osteoblast activity in the epiphyseal plate
D. halt; thickening the periosteum
E. halt; increasing calcium levels in the blood

23. Sex hormones stimulate

A. ossification of bone marrow.
B. increased activity of osteoclasts.
C. ossification of epiphyseal plates.
D. decreased activity of osteocytes.
E. destruction of osteoclasts.

7-8
24. Exercise ______ and _______ bones.

A. thickens; elongates
B. elongates; weakens
C. thickens; strengthens
D. thins; atrophies
E. strengthens; innervates

25. The type of calcium phosphate forming most of the inorganic salts in bone extracellular
matrix is
A. hemoglobin.
B. hydroxyapatite.
C. collagen.
D. elastin

26. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

A. Responsible for blood cell production
B. The storage of inorganic salts
C. The protection of organs, especially in the head and thorax
D. The interaction with muscles for movement
E. All of the above

7-9
27. Which of the following is the form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of
the bone?
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Hydroxycalcite
D. Haversian crystals
E. Hypochlorite

28. Which of the following is not a function of bones?

A. Contraction
B. Provide points of attachment for muscles
C. Produce blood cells
D. Store inorganic salts
E. Protect internal organs

29. Bones
A. are not living tissue.
B. are multifunctional.
C. perform only one function.
D. contain organic salts.
E. are built primarily of elastin and collagen.

7-10
30. The number of bones in the skeletal system is

A. the same for everyone.
B. more for males than females.
C. more for females than males.
D. variable, because some people have extra bones in skull sutures or tendons.
E. 306.

31. The axial skeleton includes the

A. upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B. skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C. radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D. femur, tibia, and fibula.

32. The sternum is part of the

A. pectoral girdle.
B. pelvic girdle.
C. axial skeleton.
D. appendicular skeleton.
E. head.

7-11
33. The pituitary gland is located in the

A. sella turcica.
B. cribriform plate.
C. sphenoidal sinus.
D. glenoid cavity.
E. mandibular fossa.

34. The hard palate is composed of the

A. sphenoid and ethmoid bones.
B. nasal conchae and vomer bones.
C. zygomatic and lacrimal bones.
D. maxillary and palatine bones.
E. nasal conchae and palatine bones.

35. The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the

A. zygomatic and temporal bones.
B. zygomatic and maxilla bones.
C. maxilla and temporal bones.
D. temporal and parietal bones.

7-12
36. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull?
A. Ethmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Vomer
D. Frontal
E. Zygomatic

37. Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most
likely spread from the
A. middle ear.
B. meninges.
C. frontal sinus.
D. maxillary sinus.
E. ethmoidal sinus.

38. A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the

A. ethmoid bone
B. maxillae.
C. mandible.
D. vomer bone.
E. sphenoid bone.

7-13
39. Which of the following sutures might close as late as age six?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Coronal
D. Squamous
E. Lambdoid

40. The primary curves of the vertebral column are the

A. cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B. cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C. thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D. lumbar and sacral curvatures.
E. cervical and sacral curvatures.

41. The hip bones include

A. ilium and pubis.
B. ilium, sacrum, and pubis.
C. ischium and pubis.
D. the ilium, the ischium, and pubis.
E. ischium, sacrum, and pubis.

7-14
42. The atlas is one of the

A. lumbar vertebrae.
B. thoracic vertebrae.
C. cervical vertebrae.
D. sacral vertebrae.
E. coccygeal vertebrae.

43. Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
A. true ribs.
B. false ribs.
C. floating ribs.
D. direct ribs.
E. spare ribs.

44. A sternal puncture is often employed to obtain a sample of

A. fibroblasts.
B. osteoblasts.
C. red bone marrow.
D. yellow bone marrow.
E. compact bone.

7-15
45. The sternal angle is a clinical landmark commonly used to locate

A. a particular rib.
B. the apex of the heart.
C. the larynx.
D. the aorta.
E. the spinal cord.

46. The clavicles

A. hold the shoulders in place and provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and
upper limbs.
B. form the shoulders.
C. provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
D. are triangle-shaped bones with indentations in the center.
E. serve no function in the body.

47. The three borders of the scapula are called

A. the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders.
B. the superior, axillary, and vertebral borders.
C. the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid borders.
D. the spinous, suprascapular, and subscapular borders.

7-16
48. Phalanges are

A. finger bones.
B. toe bones.
C. finger and toe bones.
D. neither finger nor toe bones.
E. wrist and ankle bones.

Learning Outcome: 07.10 and 07.12
49. The capitulum and trochlea are located

A. at the proximal end of the humerus.
B. at the distal end of the humerus.
C. at the distal end of the ulna.
D. in the hand.
E. at the proximal end of the ulna.

50. In the northeastern U.S., many cats have extra digits, thanks to an ancestor from England
with many toes who came over in a ship during colonial times and was reproductively very
successful. Multitoed cats have
A. polydactyly.
B. polyuria.
C. osteoporosis.
D. polydipsia.

7-17
51. The components of the pelvic girdle are called

A. hip bones.
B. coxal bones.
C. innominate bones.
D. pelvic bones.
E. all of the above.

52. The acetabulum

A. is a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
B. a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
C. the prominence of the hip.
D. is the anterior portion of the hip bone.
E. is formed anteriorly by the joining of the pubic bones.

53. Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis?
A. A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
B. A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
C. A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
D. A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
E. A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with fewer bones.

7-18
54. Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A. The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B. The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C. The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less.
D. The female iliac bones are less flared.
E. The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.

55. The femur

A. is the longest bone in the body.
B. extends from the hip to the knee.
C. has a large, rounded head.
D. articulates with the patella.
E. all of the above.

56. The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are
all part of the
A. foot.
B. hand.
C. pelvis.
D. sternum.
E. skull.

7-19
57. Height begins to decrease on average after age

A. 25.
B. 30.
C. 50.
D. 65.
E. 80.

58. A compound fracture

A. is caused by an injury.
B. is caused by a disease.
C. results when the broken bone is exposed to the outside.
D. results when the bone is broken more than once.
E. results when a bone is incompletely broken in two places.
Boxed Reading: Clinical Application 7.1

59. Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?
A. A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and
phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.
B. A hematoma forms, then osteoblasts arrive to produce new bone tissue.
C. Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma
forms.
D. White blood cells arrive during the inflammatory response and differentiate into
osteoblasts, which produce new bone.
E. A hematoma forms, followed by a bony callus that is replaced by fibrocartilage.

7-20
60. Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
A. fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B. chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C. osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D. osteoclasts and phagocytes.
E. osteocytes and osteoblasts.

61. Which of the following increases the risk of developing osteoporosis?

A. Low intake of dietary calcium
B. Lack of physical exercise
C. Frequent drinking of alcoholic beverages
D. Family history of the condition
E. All of the above.

62. Which person is at highest risk of developing osteoporosis?

A. A dark-skinned woman past menopause.
B. A dark-skinned elderly man
C. A light-skinned postmenopausal woman
D. A light-skinned, elderly man
E. A dark-skinned child

7-21
63. Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones
strong. She most likely has
A. polydactyly.
B. osteogenesis imperfecta.
C. osteoporosis.
D. a hematoma.
E. rickets.

64. Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of

A. rickets.
B. heart disease.
C. osteoporosis.
D. menopause.
E. cancer.

True / False Questions
65. Bones are dead.

FALSE

7-22
66. Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, and long.

TRUE

67. A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded part at the ends are the epiphyses.
TRUE

68. Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue.

TRUE

69. If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow.
TRUE

70. Bone remodeling occurs throughout life as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts
replace the bone.
FALSE

7-23
71. Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens.

FALSE

72. The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium.

TRUE

73. The thyroid gland secretes growth hormone.

FALSE

74. Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.
TRUE

75. Blood cell formation is called osteogenesis.

FALSE

7-24
76. The number of bones in most people is 206.

TRUE

77. The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck,
and trunk.
FALSE

78. The parietal bones meet the frontal bone along the sagittal suture.
FALSE

79. Fontanels in the infant's skull permit some bone movement, enabling the infant to pass
more easily through the birth canal.
TRUE

80. Intervertebral discs are muscles that separate vertebrae.

FALSE

7-25
81. The first cervical vertebra is the axis and the second is the atlas.
FALSE

82. Most people have 24 ribs.

TRUE

83. The sternum develops in three parts: the lower manubrium, middle body, and upper
xiphoid.
FALSE

84. The pectoral girdle consists of two scapulae and two clavicles.
TRUE

85. The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus.

TRUE

7-26
86. The styloid process is part of the ulna.

TRUE

87. The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle.

TRUE

88. The ischium is the anterior part of the hip bone.

FALSE

89. The femur extends from the knee to the foot.

FALSE

90. As a person ages, osteoblasts outnumber osteoclasts.

FALSE

7-27
91. Men and women begin to lose bone at the same rate by about age 70.
TRUE

92. The characteristics of bone that enable it to provide clues to the past of our species are
hardness and endurance.
TRUE
Boxed Reading: Vignette

93. A laminectomy is a procedure used to treat osteoporosis that removes of part of the
posterior arch of a vertebra.
FALSE

94. Kyphosis is excess curvature of the thorax.

TRUE

95. Tawanda is in a car accident. When she regains consciousness, she notices a sharp pain in
her left arm. Looking down, she sees a bone sticking out. This is a compound fracture.
TRUE

7-28
Fill in the Blank Questions
96. The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ______.
endosteum

97. The tough, fibrous vascular tissue that encloses a long bone is the ______.
periosteum

98. Secretion of excess ______ ______ causes acromegaly.

growth hormone

99. Bone-forming cells are called ______.

osteoblasts

100. Blood cell formation is called _____________.

hematopoiesis

7-29
101. The pigmented molecule that carries oxygen in red blood cells is __________.
hemoglobin

102. The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.
appendicular

103. The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ______.
fontanels

104. The cartilagenous parts that separate the vertebrae are called ______ ______.
intervertebral discs

105. The xiphoid process is part of the ______.

sternum

7-30
106. The shoulder is part of the _________ girdle.

pectoral

107. The bones of the wrist form the ______.

carpus

108. The two pubic bones create a joint called the ______ ______.
symphysis pubis

109. Peter is whacked in the knee on the soccer field and collapses. The bruised bone is the
___________.
patella

7-31

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12th Edition Shier Test Bank

Multiple Choice Questions

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

2. Which of the following is not a function of bone?

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

3. The bones of the wrists and ankles are classified as

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

4. Which of the following is not found in spongy bone?

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

6. Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________.

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze

10. A bone thickens by

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

11. Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______.

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

12. Osteoclasts are

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

13. A vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in

Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

15. Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

16. Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

17. The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

18. At what age are all bones normally ossified?

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

19. Which is true?

Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze

20. It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of

Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze

21. Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______.

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

23. Sex hormones stimulate

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

24. Exercise ______ and _______ bones.

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

26. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

28. Which of the following is not a function of bones?

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

30. The number of bones in the skeletal system is

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

31. The axial skeleton includes the

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

32. The sternum is part of the

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

33. The pituitary gland is located in the

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

34. The hard palate is composed of the

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

35. The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the

Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand

Difficulty Level: Evaluate/Create

6. Compact bone has , whereas spongy bone has __.

11. Osteoblasts are , whereas osteocytes are .

21. Endochondral ossification , whereas intramembranous ossification .

24. Exercise and _ bones.