Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition Cowan Test Bank

Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th
Edition Cowan Test Bank

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CH-09: Test Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on
A. chromosomes.
B. plasmids.
C. mitochondrial DNA.
D. chloroplast DNA.
E. All of the choices are correct depending on the type of microorganism observed.
2. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A. histone proteins.
B. chromosomes in a nucleus.
C. several to many chromosomes.
D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes.
E. All of the choices are correct.
3. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
A. It contains structural genes that code for proteins.

B. It has regulatory genes that control gene expression.
C. It contains genes that code for RNA.
D. It is inherited.
E. It has expressed traits governed by the genes.
4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
A. proteome
B. chromosome
C. genome
D. plasmid
E. prophage
5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _______.
A. nuclear membrane
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. histone
E. nucleolus
6. A ______ is a specific segment of DNA that codes for the production of one functional product.
A. intron
B. exon
C. gene
D. operator
E. triplet
7. The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______.
A. genome
B. genotype
C. proteome
D. phenotype
E. proteotype
09-1
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written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
8. The DNA of an organism is made up of subunits called _______.
A. histones
B. amino acids
C. nucleotides
D. mRNA
E. polymerases
9. Which is incorrect about purines?
A. They are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

B. They are nitrogenous bases.
C. They are always paired with a specific pyrimidine.
D. They include adenine and guanine.
E. They are found within nucleotides.
10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction.
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except
A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

B. guanine pairs with uracil.
C. adenine pairs with thymine.
D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines.
E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.
12. Each nucleotide is composed of
A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.

B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.
D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar.
13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds.
A. peptide
B. nonpolar covalent
C. polar covalent
D. hydrogen
E. sulfhydryl
14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called _______.
A. mitosis
B. replication
C. transcription
D. translation
E. mutation
15. Structural genes code for

A. ribosomal RNA molecules.
B. transfer RNA molecules.
C. cellular proteins.
D. gene expression elements.
16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
09-2
A. copy point
B. template
C. comparison molecule
D. scaffold
E. reservoir
17. Semiconservative replication refers to

C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand that runs from the 3'to 5'direction.
18. DNA polymerase III
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction.
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
D. synthesizes an RNA primer.
19. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
20. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
21. The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is
_______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the ________.
A. primer
B. Okazaki fragment
C. template
D. rolling circle
E. replication fork
23. DNA gyrase
A. copies DNA bases.

B. synthesizes RNA primers.
C. closes gaps between DNA bases.
D. removes supercoiling ahead of origin.
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24. Helicase ______.
A. unwinds DNA
B. supercoils DNA
C. unwinds RNA
D. winds RNA
25. DNA Polymerase I
A. removes primers.
B. adds bases to new DNA chain.
C. seals DNA gaps.
D. proofreads DNA chain.
26. DNA Polymerase III
A. synthesizes the primer.

B. removes the primer.
C. joins Okazaki fragments.
D. unzips the DNA helix.
E. proofreads new DNA.
27. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.
A. translation
B. transcription
C. a mutation
D. an alteration
E. regeneration
28. Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area.
A. guanine-cytosine
B. uracil-adenine
C. adenine-thymine
D. adenine-cytosine
E. guanine-adenine
29. A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A. polymerase III
B. polymerase I
C. helicase
D. RNA
E. DNA
30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______.
A. protein
B. nucleotide
C. amino acid
D. purine
31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an ________.
A. codon
B. exon
C. anticodon
D. intron
E. triplet
32. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.
09-4
A. ribosomal RNA
B. messenger RNA
C. transfer RNA
D. primer RNA
E. ribozymes
33. Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence?
A. Ribosomal RNA
B. Messenger RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. Primer RNA
E. Ribozymes
34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A. has ribose.
B. has uracil.
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D. does not have thymine.
35. Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?
A. tRNA
B. miRNA
C. Antisense RNA
D. Riboswitch
E. siRNA
36. All of the following pertain to transcription except
A. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

B. it occurs before translation.
C. it requires RNA polymerase.
D. it requires a template DNA strand.
E. it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein.
37. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
________.
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron
38. RNA polymerase binds to the
A. start codon.
B. termination sequence.
C. regulation sequence.
D. promoter sequence.
39. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
A. It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon.

B. It has an anticodon that is complementary to a codon.
C. It contains a binding site for an amino acid.
D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.
E. The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
09-5
40. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______.
A. GCA
B. CGT
C. ACG
D. CGU
E. UGC
41. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis exceptev: 11_02_2012
A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

B. they participate only in translation.
C. they bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D. they use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E. they shift towards the 3'direction along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
42. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
A. They are also called nonsense codons.

B. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken.
C. They include AUG.
D. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA.
E. They do not have corresponding tRNA.
43. Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?
A. It is a 70s holoenzyme.
B. It has a peptide (P) site.
C. It has an exit site.
D. Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.
E. It has an amino acid (A) site.
44. A sequence of bases within a gene that does not code for protein is called a/n _______.
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron
45. Split genes
A. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes.

B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D. are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
46. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A. They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product.

B. They are often for use in catabolic pathways.
C. They are normally turned off.
D. They are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme.
E. They include the lac operon.
47. The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the ________.
A. operator
B. structural locus
09-6
C. regulator
D. promoter
48. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires
A. repressor alone bound to operator.

B. substrate bound to repressor.
C. substrate bound to promoter.
D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
49. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

50. Full induction of the lactose operon requires
A. lactose present.
B. lactose and glucose present.
C. lactose present without glucose.
D. lactose and arabinose present.
51. The lactose repressor
A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

B. is activated by binding lactose.
C. is inactivated by binding lactose.
D. requires lactose for its transcription.
52. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ______ from initiating transcription.
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase
D. mRNA
E. rRNA
53. Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A. the product
B. a cofactor
C. a coenzyme
D. the substrate
E. the reactant
54. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. back
D. missense
E. nonsense
55. The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. frameshift
D. back
09-7
56. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the
sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?
A. Point
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
59. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.
A. missense and insertion

B. missense and nonsense
C. nonsense and deletion
D. deletion and insertion
E. insertion and nonsense
60. What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?
A. Silent
B. Back
C. Point
D. Nonsense
E. Missense
61. A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A. Koch
B. Ames
C. mutation
D. cancer
E. Iowa
62. The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________.
A. transduction
B. excision repair
C. frameshift
D. back-mutation
E. transformation
63. Bacterial conjugation involves
A. a bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.
09-8
B. a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus.
C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell.
D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
64. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?
A. F+ cell
B. F-cell
C. Hfr cell
D. R cell
E. B cell
65. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Mitosis
D. Transduction
66. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A. Involves direct contact between cells

B. Transfers genes for drug resistance
C. Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D. Involves the action of bacteriophage
E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes
67. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except
A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome.

B. independent plasmid transfer.
C. F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome.
D. high frequency transfer.
E. a pilus connection between F+ and F- cells.
68. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed
recipient cell is termed ________.
A. transduction
B. conjugation
C. transformation
D. transmission
E. mitosis
69. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can
occur through the process of ________.
A. bacterial conjugation
B. transformation
C. generalized transduction
D. specialized transduction
70. A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example
of
A. conjugation.
B. generalized transduction.
C. specialized transduction.
D. the creation of an Hfr cell.
71. The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.
09-9
A. conjugation
B. transposons
C. transformation
D. transduction
E. transmission
72. Which of the following is not true of transposons?
A. They can change pigmentation.

B. They can replace damaged DNA.
C. They can transfer drug resistance.
D. They can change the genome.
E. They are always part of plasmids.
73. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?
A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information.

B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information.
C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function.
D. DNA codes for proteins.
74. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into
smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which
microbial process had Griffith identified?
A. Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Cloning
75. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.
True / False Questions
76. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
True False
77. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3'DNA end of the template.
True False
78. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
True False
79. Transcription occurs within the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
True False
80. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
True False
81. Introns have no detectable functions.
09-10
True False
82. Excised introns form structures called lariats.
True False
83. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.
True False
84. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
True False
85. Induced mutations are initiated by errors in DNA replication.
True False
86. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation.
True False
87. All mutations are not beneficial to the cell.
True False
88. An unidentified cell was found to contain introns and exons. It also expresses DNA polymerase and RNA
polymerase. Although it exhibits a promoter region, it has no operons. You conclude that this cell
A. is eukaryotic.
B. is prokaryotic.
C. is either a prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell.
D. is actually a virus.
89. Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine,
you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result?
A. The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth.
B. The chemical being tested is mutagenic.
C. The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium.
D. The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to give for
treatment of disease.
90. A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon
ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not?
A. This is a silent mutation.

B. The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so
no change to the protein.
C. The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for
the normal protein.
D. This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made.
91. A bacterial cell has replicated its plasmid, and when this cell divides into 2 daughter cells, each cell receives one
copy of the plasmid. This is an example of horizontal gene transfer.
True False
09-11
92. You have taken E. coli strain A which has its own plasmids, and mixed it with E. coli B strain without plasmids. E.
coli B cells now have plasmids but, in addition, they also carry some genes from E. coli A strain. What has
happened is
A. the E. coli B cells have become mutants of the original culture.

B. vertical transmission of DNA has occurred.
C. an example of transformation.
D. the cells of E. coli A were Hfr cells.
93. The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that
A. the phenotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the genotype represents only the
genetic material that is expressed into proteins.
B. the genotype refers to the organism's genes and the phenotype refers to the non-coding segments of DNA.
C. the genotype refers to eukaryotic genes that contain both introns and exons, whereas phenotype refers to
bacterial DNA that has only exons.
D. the genotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the phenotype represents only the
94. The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is due to
the fact that
A. both RNA primers attach to the 3'end of the template strands, which are at opposite ends from each other.
B. both daughter strands can't extend toward the replication fork because there would not be room for two DNA
polymerase enzymes.
C. one RNA primer attaches to the 5'end of the parent strand and the other primer to the 3'end.
D. the DNA strands run antiparallel to each other and the DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3'end
of the growing strand.
95. DNA polymerase can catalyze a dehydration synthesis reaction only at the 3'carbon of the daughter strand of
DNA. This means that
A. the antiparallel nature of the parent molecules determine that the leading strand must be grown in fragments
away from the fork and the lagging strand is synthesized continuously toward the fork.
B. the leading and lagging strands extend in the 3'- 5'direction toward the replication fork as the nucleotide bases
are exposed.
C. Okazaki fragments extend toward the replication fork as the parent strands are unzipped by helicase.
D. since the strands are antiparallel, one strand will grow toward the fork as it opens, and the other strand will grow
in fragments away from the fork.
96. In order for protein synthesis to begin, which of the following statements reflects the correct sequence of events?
A. The AUG codon on mRNA base pairs with the UAC anticodon on tRNA allowing the small and large ribosomal
subunits to join the complex.
B. Translation begins when the ribosome translocates from the A site to the P site on the mRNA
C. The 5'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit, and the large subunit joins, creating the P and A
sites where reactions between codons on the mRNA and anticodons on tRNA are stabilized.
D. The 3'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit and the AUG anticodon on the tRNA base pairs
with the UAC codon on the mRNA, allowing the large ribosomal subunit to attach.
97. The fields of genomics and proteomics differ in that
A. the field of genomics involves the study of DNA replication and the field of proteomics refers to the study of
transcription and translation.
B. genomics refers to the study of an organism's entire genome, whereas proteomics is the study of expressed
proteins.
C. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and the resulting proteins are studied in the field of
proteomics.
09-12
D. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and proteomics is the study of transcription and
translation of proteins.
98. The field of genomics refers to
A. the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA.
B. the study of chromosomal DNA.
C. the study of an organism's plasmids.
D. the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes.
99. Proteomics is the study of all proteins that are expressed by an organism, whereas genomics refers to the study of
the organism's entire genome, not simply the protein-coding regions.
True False
100. The antibiotic rifamycin is selectively toxic in blocking protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis because
A. the drug binds to the initiator tRNA, preventing the formation of the protein synthesis initiation complex in the
bacterial cell.
B. it binds preferentially to bacterial RNA polymerase rather than the eukaryotic protein, effectively halting
transcription in the pathogen but not the host.
C. the antibiotic binds to the mRNA once synthesized, preventing it from participating in the initiation complex with
the ribosome.
D. bacterial ribosomes are 70s whereas host ribosome are 80s, thus the antibiotic binds to the M. tuberculosis
ribosome but does not bind to the eukaryotic machinery.
101. Erythromcycin, a macrolide, inhibits protein synthesis
A. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation.

B. by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids.
C. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex.
D. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA.
102. Streptomycin, an aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis
A. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex.

C. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA.
D. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation.
103. The term 'recombinant organism'refers to
A. an organism that has genes passed down from the parent cell to the daughter cells during binary fission.
B. genetically engineered cells, but not those that have new genes as a result of horizontal gene transfer.
C. an organism that expresses proteins coded for by genes that originated in a different organism.
D. an organism that has recombined its genes.
104. Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid; genetically
engineered cells are not considered recombinant.
True False
09-13
CH-09: Test Bank Key
1. Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on
A. chromosomes.
B. plasmids.
C. mitochondrial DNA.
D. chloroplast DNA.
E. All of the choices are correct depending on the type of microorganism observed.
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
Blooms Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene.
Section: 09.01
Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function
2. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A. histone proteins.
B. chromosomes in a nucleus.
C. several to many chromosomes.
D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes.
Section: 09.01
3. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
A. It contains structural genes that code for proteins.

B. It has regulatory genes that control gene expression.
C. It contains genes that code for RNA.
D. It is inherited.
E. It has expressed traits governed by the genes.
Learning Outcome: 09.02 Differentiate between genotype and phenotype.
Section: 09.01
4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
A. proteome
B. chromosome
C. genome
D. plasmid
E. prophage
Blooms Level: 1. Remember
09-14
Section: 09.01
5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _______.
A. nuclear membrane
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. histone
E. nucleolus
Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule.
Section: 09.01
6. A ______ is a specific segment of DNA that codes for the production of one functional product.
A. intron
B. exon
C. gene
D. operator
E. triplet
Section: 09.01
7. The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______.
A. genome
B. genotype
C. proteome
D. phenotype
E. proteotype
Section: 09.01
8. The DNA of an organism is made up of subunits called _______.
A. histones
B. amino acids
C. nucleotides
D. mRNA
E. polymerases
Section: 09.01
9. Which is incorrect about purines?
09-15
A. They are only found in DNA, not in RNA.
B. They are nitrogenous bases.
C. They are always paired with a specific pyrimidine.
D. They include adenine and guanine.
E. They are found within nucleotides.
Learning Outcome: 09.07 Identify important structural and functional differences between RNA and DNA.
Section: 09.01
10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction.
Section: 09.01
11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except
A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

B. guanine pairs with uracil.
C. adenine pairs with thymine.
D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines.
E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.
Section: 09.01
12. Each nucleotide is composed of
A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.

B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.
D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar.
Section: 09.01
13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds.
A. peptide
B. nonpolar covalent
C. polar covalent
D. hydrogen
E. sulfhydryl
09-16
Section: 09.01
14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called _______.
A. mitosis
B. replication
C. transcription
D. translation
E. mutation
Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process.
Section: 09.01
Topic: DNA Replication
15. Structural genes code for
A. ribosomal RNA molecules.

B. transfer RNA molecules.
C. cellular proteins.
D. gene expression elements.
Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science.
Section: 09.02
Topic: Protein Synthesis
16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
A. copy point
B. template
C. comparison molecule
D. scaffold
E. reservoir
Section: 09.01
17. Semiconservative replication refers to

C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand that runs from the 3'to 5'direction.
Section: 09.01
18. DNA polymerase III
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction.
09-17
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
D. synthesizes an RNA primer.
Section: 09.01
19. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
Learning Outcome: 09.05 Compare and contrast the synthesis of leading and lagging strands during DNA replication.
Section: 09.01
20. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
Section: 09.01
21. The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace
them is _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
Section: 09.01
22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
________.
A. primer
B. Okazaki fragment
C. template
D. rolling circle
E. replication fork
09-18
Section: 09.01
23. DNA gyrase
A. copies DNA bases.

B. synthesizes RNA primers.
C. closes gaps between DNA bases.
D. removes supercoiling ahead of origin.
Section: 09.01
24. Helicase ______.
A. unwinds DNA
B. supercoils DNA
C. unwinds RNA
D. winds RNA
Section: 09.01
25. DNA Polymerase I
A. removes primers.
B. adds bases to new DNA chain.
C. seals DNA gaps.
D. proofreads DNA chain.
Section: 09.01
26. DNA Polymerase III
A. synthesizes the primer.

B. removes the primer.
C. joins Okazaki fragments.
D. unzips the DNA helix.
E. proofreads new DNA.
Section: 09.01
27. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.
A. translation
09-19
B. transcription
C. a mutation
D. an alteration
E. regeneration
Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
28. Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area.
A. guanine-cytosine
B. uracil-adenine
C. adenine-thymine
D. adenine-cytosine
E. guanine-adenine
Section: 09.01
29. A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A. polymerase III
B. polymerase I
C. helicase
D. RNA
E. DNA
Section: 09.01
30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______.
A. protein
B. nucleotide
C. amino acid
D. purine
Section: 09.01
31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an ________.
A. codon
B. exon
C. anticodon
D. intron
E. triplet
09-20
Section: 09.01
32. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.
A. ribosomal RNA
B. messenger RNA
C. transfer RNA
D. primer RNA
E. ribozymes
Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation.
Section: 09.02
33. Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence?
A. Ribosomal RNA
B. Messenger RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. Primer RNA
E. Ribozymes
Section: 09.02
34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A. has ribose.
B. has uracil.
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D. does not have thymine.
Learning Outcome: 09.07 Identify important structural and functional differences between RNA and DNA.
Section: 09.02
35. Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?
A. tRNA
B. miRNA
C. Antisense RNA
D. Riboswitch
E. siRNA
Section: 09.02
36. All of the following pertain to transcription except
A. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

B. it occurs before translation.
C. it requires RNA polymerase.
D. it requires a template DNA strand.
E. it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein.
09-21
Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the direction of mRNA synthesis.
Section: 09.02
37. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
________.
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals.
Section: 09.02
Topic: Gene Regulation
38. RNA polymerase binds to the
A. start codon.
B. termination sequence.
C. regulation sequence.
D. promoter sequence.
Section: 09.02
39. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
A. It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon.

B. It has an anticodon that is complementary to a codon.
C. It contains a binding site for an amino acid.
D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.
E. The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
Blooms Level: 3. Apply
Section: 09.02
40. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______.
A. GCA
B. CGT
C. ACG
D. CGU
E. UGC
Learning Outcome: 09.10 Define the terms codon and anticodon and list the four known start and stop codons.
Section: 09.02
41. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except
09-22
A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.
B. they participate only in translation.
C. they bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D. they use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E. they shift towards the 3'direction along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
Learning Outcome: 09.11 Identify the locations of the promoter, the start codon, and the A and P sites during translation.
Section: 09.02
42. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
A. They are also called nonsense codons.

B. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken.
C. They include AUG.
D. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA.
E. They do not have corresponding tRNA.
Section: 09.02
43. Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?
A. It is a 70s holoenzyme.
B. It has a peptide (P) site.
C. It has an exit site.
D. Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.
E. It has an amino acid (A) site.
Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea.
Section: 09.02
44. A sequence of bases within a gene that does not code for protein is called a/n _______.
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron
Section: 09.02
45. Split genes
A. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes.

B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D. are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
09-23
Section: 09.02
46. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A. They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product.

B. They are often for use in catabolic pathways.
C. They are normally turned off.
D. They are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme.
E. They include the lac operon.
Learning Outcome: 09.14 Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a bacterial cell.
Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each.
Section: 09.03
47. The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the ________.
A. operator
B. structural locus
C. regulator
D. promoter
Section: 09.03
48. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires

Section: 09.03
49. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

Section: 09.03
50. Full induction of the lactose operon requires
A. lactose present.
B. lactose and glucose present.
C. lactose present without glucose.
D. lactose and arabinose present.
09-24
Section: 09.03
51. The lactose repressor
A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

B. is activated by binding lactose.
C. is inactivated by binding lactose.
D. requires lactose for its transcription.
Section: 09.03
52. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ______ from initiating transcription.
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase
D. mRNA
E. rRNA
Section: 09.03
53. Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A. the product
B. a cofactor
C. a coenzyme
D. the substrate
E. the reactant
Section: 09.03
54. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. back
D. missense
E. nonsense
Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations.
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
09-25
55. The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. frameshift
D. back
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?
A. Point
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
59. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.
A. missense and insertion

B. missense and nonsense
C. nonsense and deletion
09-26
D. deletion and insertion
E. insertion and nonsense
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
60. What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?
A. Silent
B. Back
C. Point
D. Nonsense
E. Missense
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
61. A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A. Koch
B. Ames
C. mutation
D. cancer
E. Iowa
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
62. The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________.
A. transduction
B. excision repair
C. frameshift
D. back-mutation
E. transformation
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
63. Bacterial conjugation involves
A. a bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

B. a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus.
C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell.
D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria
09-27
64. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?
A. F+ cell
B. F-cell
C. Hfr cell
D. R cell
E. B cell
Section: 09.04
65. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Mitosis
D. Transduction
Section: 09.04
66. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A. Involves direct contact between cells

B. Transfers genes for drug resistance
C. Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D. Involves the action of bacteriophage
E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes
Section: 09.04
67. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except
A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome.

B. independent plasmid transfer.
C. F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome.
D. high frequency transfer.
E. a pilus connection between F+ and F- cells.
Section: 09.04
68. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed
recipient cell is termed ________.
A. transduction
B. conjugation
C. transformation
D. transmission
E. mitosis
09-28
Section: 09.04
69. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can
occur through the process of ________.
A. bacterial conjugation
B. transformation
C. generalized transduction
D. specialized transduction
Section: 09.04
70. A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an
example of
A. conjugation.
B. generalized transduction.
C. specialized transduction.
D. the creation of an Hfr cell.
Section: 09.04
71. The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.
A. conjugation
B. transposons
C. transformation
D. transduction
E. transmission
Learning Outcome: 09.17 Explain the defining characteristics of a recombinant organism.
Section: 09.04
72. Which of the following is not true of transposons?
A. They can change pigmentation.

B. They can replace damaged DNA.
C. They can transfer drug resistance.
D. They can change the genome.
E. They are always part of plasmids.
Section: 09.04
73. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?
09-29
A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information.
B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information.
C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function.
D. DNA codes for proteins.
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria,
Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
Section: 09.02
74. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted
into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci.
Which microbial process had Griffith identified?
A. Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Cloning
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.
Section: 09.04
75. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.
Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and translation machinery.
Section: 09.03
76. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
FALSE
Section: 09.01
77. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3'DNA end of the template.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
09-30
78. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
FALSE
Section: 09.01
79. Transcription occurs within the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
80. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
81. Introns have no detectable functions.
FALSE
Section: 09.02
82. Excised introns form structures called lariats.
TRUE
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze
Section: 09.02
83. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.
FALSE
Section: 09.03
84. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
TRUE
09-31
Section: 09.04
85. Induced mutations are initiated by errors in DNA replication.
FALSE
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
86. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation.
TRUE
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
87. All mutations are not beneficial to the cell.
FALSE
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
88. An unidentified cell was found to contain introns and exons. It also expresses DNA polymerase and RNA
polymerase. Although it exhibits a promoter region, it has no operons. You conclude that this cell
A. is eukaryotic.
B. is prokaryotic.
C. is either a prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell.
D. is actually a virus.
Section: 09.02
89. Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino
acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this
result?
A. The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth.
B. The chemical being tested is mutagenic.
C. The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium.
D. The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to
give for treatment of disease.
09-32
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
90. A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of
this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein
being made. Why not?
A. This is a silent mutation.

B. The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so
no change to the protein.
C. The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for
the normal protein.
D. This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made.
Section: 09.05
Topic: Mutations
91. A bacterial cell has replicated its plasmid, and when this cell divides into 2 daughter cells, each cell
receives one copy of the plasmid. This is an example of horizontal gene transfer.
FALSE
Section: 09.04
92. You have taken E. coli strain A which has its own plasmids, and mixed it with E. coli B strain without
plasmids. E. coli B cells now have plasmids but, in addition, they also carry some genes from E. coli A
strain. What has happened is
A. the E. coli B cells have become mutants of the original culture.

B. vertical transmission of DNA has occurred.
C. an example of transformation.
D. the cells of E. coli A were Hfr cells.
Section: 09.04
93. The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that
A. the phenotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the genotype represents only the
B. the genotype refers to the organism's genes and the phenotype refers to the non-coding segments of DNA.
09-33
C. the genotype refers to eukaryotic genes that contain both introns and exons, whereas phenotype refers
to bacterial DNA that has only exons.
D. the genotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the phenotype represents only the
Section: 09.01
94. The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is
due to the fact that
A. both RNA primers attach to the 3'end of the template strands, which are at opposite ends from each other.
B. both daughter strands can't extend toward the replication fork because there would not be room for two DNA
polymerase enzymes.
C. one RNA primer attaches to the 5'end of the parent strand and the other primer to the 3'end.
D. the DNA strands run antiparallel to each other and the DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3'
end of the growing strand.
Section: 09.01
95. DNA polymerase can catalyze a dehydration synthesis reaction only at the 3'carbon of the daughter strand of
DNA. This means that
A the antiparallel nature of the parent molecules determine that the leading strand must be grown in
fragments
away from the fork andaway from thestrand
the lagging fork and the lagging continuously
is synthesized strand is synthesized continuously
toward the fork. toward the fork.
B. the leading and lagging strands extend in the 3'- 5'direction toward the replication fork as the nucleotide
bases are exposed.
C. Okazaki fragments extend toward the replication fork as the parent strands are unzipped by helicase.
D. since the strands are antiparallel, one strand will grow toward the fork as it opens, and the other strand
will grow in fragments away from the fork.
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate
Section: 09.01
96. In order for protein synthesis to begin, which of the following statements reflects the correct sequence of
events?
A. The AUG codon on mRNA base pairs with the UAC anticodon on tRNA allowing the small and large
ribosomal subunits to join the complex.
B. Translation begins when the ribosome translocates from the A site to the P site on the mRNA
C. The 5'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit, and the large subunit joins, creating the P
and A sites where reactions between codons on the mRNA and anticodons on tRNA are stabilized.
D. The 3'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit and the AUG anticodon on the tRNA base
pairs with the UAC codon on the mRNA, allowing the large ribosomal subunit to attach.
09-34
Section: 09.02
97. The fields of genomics and proteomics differ in that
A. the field of genomics involves the study of DNA replication and the field of proteomics refers to the study
of transcription and translation.
B. genomics refers to the study of an organism's entire genome, whereas proteomics is the study of expressed
proteins.
C. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and the resulting proteins are studied in the field of
proteomics.
D. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and proteomics is the study of transcription
and translation of proteins.
Learning Outcome: 09.13 Explain the relationship between genomics and proteomics.
Section: 09.02
98. The field of genomics refers to
A. the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA.
B. the study of chromosomal DNA.
C. the study of an organism's plasmids.
D. the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes.
Section: 09.02
99. Proteomics is the study of all proteins that are expressed by an organism, whereas genomics refers to the
study of the organism's entire genome, not simply the protein-coding regions.
TRUE
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function
Section: 09.02
100. The antibiotic rifamycin is selectively toxic in blocking protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis
because
A. the drug binds to the initiator tRNA, preventing the formation of the protein synthesis initiation complex in
the bacterial cell.
B. it binds preferentially to bacterial RNA polymerase rather than the eukaryotic protein, effectively halting
transcription in the pathogen but not the host.
C. the antibiotic binds to the mRNA once synthesized, preventing it from participating in the initiation
complex with the ribosome.
D. bacterial ribosomes are 70s whereas host ribosome are 80s, thus the antibiotic binds to the M.
tuberculosis ribosome but does not bind to the eukaryotic machinery.
09-35
Section: 09.03
101. Erythromcycin, a macrolide, inhibits protein synthesis
A. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation.

C. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex.
D. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA.
Section: 09.03
102. Streptomycin, an aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis
A. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex.

C. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA.
D. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation.
Section: 09.03
103. The term 'recombinant organism' refers to
A. an organism that has genes passed down from the parent cell to the daughter cells during binary fission.
B. genetically engineered cells, but not those that have new genes as a result of horizontal gene transfer.
C. an organism that expresses proteins coded for by genes that originated in a different organism.
D. an organism that has recombined its genes.
Section: 09.04
104. Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid;
genetically engineered cells are not considered recombinant.
FALSE
Section: 09.04
09-36
CH-09: Test Bank Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation,
pathogenicity and 81
drug resistance).
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of
replication, transcription, 9
and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal
molecular cues and/ 15
or signals.
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 2
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 1
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 99
Blooms Level: 1. Remember 47
Blooms Level: 2. Understand 37
Blooms Level: 3. Apply 11
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze 6
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate 1
Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. 6
Learning Outcome: 09.02 Differentiate between genotype and phenotype. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups
within the molecule. 7
Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used
in this process. 16
Learning Outcome: 09.05 Compare and contrast the synthesis of leading and lagging strands
during DNA replication. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed
by recent science. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.07 Identify important structural and functional differences between RNA and
DNA. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the
direction of mRNA synt 4
hesis.
Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.10 Define the terms codon and anticodon and list the four known start and
stop codons. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.11 Identify the locations of the promoter, the start codon, and the A and P
sites during translati 3
on.
Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these
processes in bacteria 7
and archaea.
Learning Outcome: 09.13 Explain the relationship between genomics and proteomics. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.14 Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a
bacterial cell. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an
example of each. 9
Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and
translation machin 4
ery.
Learning Outcome: 09.17 Explain the defining characteristics of a recombinant organism. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. 11
Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative
example of it in micro 7
organisms.
09-37
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution
without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense
mutations. 8
Section: 09.01 34
Section: 09.02 26
Section: 09.03 13
Section: 09.04 16
Section: 09.05 15
Topic: DNA Replication 19
Topic: Gene Regulation 16
Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 15
Topic: Mutations 15
Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 20
Topic: Protein Synthesis 22
09-38
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution
without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition Cowan Test Bank

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Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th

Edition Cowan Test Bank

1. Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on

3. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?

A. It contains structural genes that code for proteins.

4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _______.

7. The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______.

9. Which is incorrect about purines?

A. They are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except

A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

12. Each nucleotide is composed of

A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.

13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds.

14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called _______.

15. Structural genes code for

17. Semiconservative replication refers to

A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

18. DNA polymerase III

A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

23. DNA gyrase

A. copies DNA bases.

25. DNA Polymerase I

26. DNA Polymerase III

A. synthesizes the primer.

27. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.

28. Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area.

29. A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

33. Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence?

35. Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?

36. All of the following pertain to transcription except

A. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

38. RNA polymerase binds to the

39. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

A. It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon.

A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

42. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?

A. They are also called nonsense codons.

43. Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?

45. Split genes

A. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes.

46. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

A. They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product.

48. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires

A. repressor alone bound to operator.

49. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

A. repressor alone bound to operator.

50. Full induction of the lactose operon requires

51. The lactose repressor

A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

55. The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.

59. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.

A. missense and insertion

63. Bacterial conjugation involves

A. a bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

64. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?

65. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?

66. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

A. Involves direct contact between cells

67. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except