Sample Test

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SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time-approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks
in English. There are three parts to this section. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do
so.
https://elolms.edu.vn/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=1772386&cmid=650644 1/27
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Thông tin
Part A
Directions:
In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about
the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(man) That exam was just awful.
(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you read:
(A) The exam was really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn't have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn't that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the woman disagreed with the
man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman mean?” is (D), “It wasn't that hard.” Therefore, the correct
choice is (D).
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Câu hỏi 1 Questions 1 to 15

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1.
(A) He'll correct the exams this afternoon.
(B) The exam will be at noon.
(C) He will collect the exams at 12:00.
(D) The tests will be graded by noon.
2.
(A) Martha applied for a visa last month.
(B) Martha's visa will last for only a month.
(C) Martha arrived last month without her visa.
(D) One month ago Martha got her visa.
3.
(A) The professor described what the students should do.
(B) There was a long line to register for the required class.
(C) It is a requirement for each professor to teach at least one course.
(D) The professor required the class to prepare an outline.
4.
(A) Chuck had improved.
(B) This visit was better than the last.
(C) Chuck looked at him in the hospital.
(D) Chuck didn't seem to be doing very well.
5.
(A) She thinks the tuition should be raised.
(B) The semester's tuition is quite affordable.
(C) She doesn't have enough money for her school fees.
(D) She has more than enough for tuition.
6.
(A) He thinks he got a good grade.
(B) The history grades were all C or above.
(C) No one got history grades.
(D) There were no high scores.
7.
(A) The parking lots were full before 10:00.
(B) It was impossible to start class by 10:00.
(C) He parked the car before class at 10:00.
(D) The possibility of finding a place to park increased.
8.
(A) She's found a new ring.
(B) She needs to help him find something.
(C) She's shopping for a carpet.
(D) She's thankful she has a rag.
9.

(A) In a department store
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(B) In a bank
(C) In an accounting firm
(D) In a checkout line
10.
(A) Jane usually visits San Francisco for her vacations.
(B) Jane's cousin often visits San Francisco.
(C) Whenever there's a holiday, Jane's cousin goes to San Francisco.
(D) Whenever there's a holiday, Jane leaves San Francisco.
11.
(A) He'd really like to have something to eat.
(B) Because he's weak, he can't eat.
(C) It's been weeks since he's had anything to eat.
(D) He hasn't felt like eating for weeks.
12.
(A) Traffic should not be allowed.
(B) She thinks that the traffic should stay outside.
(C) She agrees that the traffic is noisy
(D) She'll stay outside with the man.
13.
(A) The headings for today's reading assignment.
(B) The chance to make the headlines.
(C) Her reading ability.
(D) The daily newspaper.
14.
(A) The bus trip is only five minutes long.
(B) The man missed the bus by five minutes.
(C) The man should hurry to catch the bus.
(D) The bus was five minutes late.
15.
(A) It's not possible to pass the class.
(B) She'll definitely fail.
(C) It's always possible.
(D) She shouldn't say anything about the class.
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Đúng

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16.
(A) She gave Tom money to pay the rent.
(B) She was given money for the rent.
(C) Tom borrowed money for the rent.
(D) She had some money to lend.
17.
(A) The cake is extremely good.
(B) He never tasted the cake.
(C) He wished he hadn't tasted the cake.
(D) The cake has never been very good.
18.
(A) At the corner she ran into another car.
(B) She ran to Carl because she cared.
(C) She unexpectedly met one of her relatives.
(D) Carl was running from place to place.
19.
(A) She shouldn't leave her purse here.
(B) She's probably in the apartment.
(C) Her purse must not be in the apartment.
(D) She left without taking her purse.
20.
(A) The landlord failed to collect rent on the first of last month.
(B) The tenants absolutely must pay rent at the beginning of the month.
(C) The landlord will not fail to collect your rent on the first of next month.
(D) It is important to call the landlord about rent on the first of the month.
21.
(A) Taking the car out for a test drive
(B) Listening to the noises
(C) Fixing the car herself
(D) Getting the car repaired
22.
(A) Martha's jobs are easy.
(B) It's easy to hold two jobs.
(C) It's better for Martha to have two jobs.
(D) Martha should slow down.
23.
(A) The plane took off just after he arrived.
(B) He arrived just after the plane took off.
(C) He wasn't in time to catch the plane
(D) He arrived too late to catch the plane.
24.

(A) He agrees with the woman's suggestion.
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(B) Parking is not free on the weekend.
(C) It is not necessary for them to park.
(D) He thinks they don't have to pay.
25.
(A) He is eager to leave his job.
(B) He is unhappy at the thought of retiring.
(C) He couldn't be unhappier about retiring.
(D) He is retiring too soon.
26.
(A) He got the car he really wanted.
(B) He didn't get a new car.
(C) The car that he got was not his first choice.
(D) He didn't really want a new car.
27.
(A) Mr. Drew pointedly asked the president about the committee.
(B) The president pointed to Mr. Drew's head.
(C) Mr. Drew became head of the new Commission.
(D) Mr. Drew was committed to the president's appointments.
28.
(A) She felt inferior.
(B) She wasn't furious.
(C) She felt there should have been more fairness.
(D) She was extremely angry.
29.
(A) The man would do the dishes.
(B) The plates did not need to be washed.
(C) The man would not be ready to go.
(D) The dishes would not be done.
30.
(A) He knew that grapes were cheaper than cherries.
(B) He didn't know that grapes were cheaper than cherries.
(C) He bought grapes because they were cheaper than cherries.
(D) He didn't buy either grapes or cherries because of the price.
Thông tin
Part B
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test
book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your
test book.
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31.
(A) Attend a football game alone
(B) Go to a sporting event
(C) Eat in the cafeteria and study
(D) See a play
32.
(A) It's the final game of the season.
(B) It's better than the drama department's play.
(C) It's a very important game.
(D) It's close to the cafeteria.
33.
(A) A play
(B) A game
(C) A study group meeting
(D) Dinner in the cafeteria
34.
(A) Saturday night
(B) After dinner in the cafeteria
(C) Sunday afternoon
(D) Maybe next weekend
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35.
(A) Trash orbiting Earth
(B) A trip by an astronaut to the Moon
(C) The overabundance of garbage on Earth
(D) Becoming space scientists
36.
(A) From a lecture
(B) In a magazine article
(C) In a book
(D) On a television program
37.
(A) 17,000 pounds
(B) 3,000 tons
(C) 3,000 pounds
(D) 300 tons
38.
(A) She will be able to travel in space.
(B) The problem will take care of itself.
(C) Scientists will find solutions to the problem
(D) The junk will fall to Earth.
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Part C
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will
not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.
(man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as American regionalist, a style reflecting
the distinctive characteristics of art from rural areas of the United States. Wood began drawing animals on the family
farm at the age of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received a remarkable amount of public
notice and acclaim. This painting, called “American Gothic,” is a starkly simple depiction of a serious couple staring
directly out at the viewer.
Now listen to a sample question.
(narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?
(A) Art from America's inner cities
(B) Art from the central region of the United States
(C) Art from various urban areas in the United States
(D) Art from rural sections of America
The best answer to the question “What style of painting is known as American regionalist?" is (D), "Art from rural sections
of America." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
Now listen to another sample question.
(narrator) What is the name of Wood's most successful painting?
(A) “American Regionalist"
(B) “The Family Farm in Iowa”
(C) “American Gothic”
(D) “A Serious Couple"
The best answer to the question, "What is the name of Wood's most successful painting?" is (C), “American Gothic.”
Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
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39.
(A) On the first day of class
(B) In the middle of the semester
(C) At the end of class
(D) In the final week of the semester
40.
(A) Later today
(B) By Friday of this week
(C) In two weeks
(D) In three weeks
41.
(A) Journal and magazine articles
(B) Books from outside the library
(C) Books listed in student journals
(D) Both books and journals
42.
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Seven
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43.
(A) In winter
(B) In spring
(C) In summer
(D) In fall
44.
(A) Seasonable, with warm summers and cold winters
(B) Fairly constant and moderate
(C) Very humid
(D) Extremely hot year-round
45.
(A) They come from the Southwest.
(B) They come most days of the year.
(C) They are the hardest during the night.
(D) They increase the humidity.
46.
(A) Preparing for a trip
(B) Writing a report about the weather
(C) Beginning a study of the weather
(D) Buying warm clothes for a trip
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47.
(A) Modern American Authors
(B) United States History
(C) American Democracy
(D) Nineteenth-Century American Literature
48.
(A) The death of Abraham Lincoln
(B) The beauty of American democracy
(C) The raising of plants
(D) The maturity of poetry
49.
(A) It's a poem about the author.
(B) It's a poem about Abraham Lincoln.
(C) It's a collection of twelve poems that remained unchanged.
(D) It's a volume of poetry that grew with its author.
50.
(A) “Leaves of Grass”
(B) “Song of Myself”
(C) “When Lilacs Last in the Dooryard Bloomed”
(D) “American Democracy”
This is the end of Section 1.
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SECTION 2: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
The second section of the TOEFL test is the Structure and Written Expression section. This section consists of forty
questions (some tests may be longer). You have twenty-five minutes to complete the forty questions in this section.
There are two types of questions in the Structure and Written Expression section of the TOEFL test:
1. Structure (questions 1-15) consists of fifteen sentences in which part of the sentence has been replaced with a
blank. Each sentence is followed by four answer choices. You must choose the answer that completes the sentence in
a grammatically correct way.
2. Written Expression (questions 16-40) consists of twenty-five sentences in which four words or groups of words have
been underlined. You must choose the underlined word or group of words that is not correct.
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Câu hỏi 8 PART A:

Đúng
Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences, there are four words or
phrases. You should select the one word or phrase – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – that best completes the sentence. Then blacken
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the corresponding space in your answer sheet.
1. Charles Babbage (1792-1871) drew up the first plans for a programmable digital computer in 1834, but __________ was
never completed.
A. his invention
B. he invented
C. to invent him
D. for him to invent
2. Ozone is formed when ultraviolet radiation from the Sun ______________molecules into highly reactive oxygen atoms.
A. oxygen breaks up
B. oxygen broken up
C. breaks up oxygen
D. to break up oxygen
3. The shapes of snow crystals depend largely ___________ temperature and humidity are.
A. how high its
B. on the height of the
C. on how high the
D. that the height of the
4. ______________ a tornado spins in a counterclockwise direction in the northern hemisphere, it spins in the opposite
direction in the southern hemisphere.
A. However
B. Because of
C. Although
D. That
5. The Caldecott Medal, _______ for the best children’s picture book, is awarded each January.
A. a prize
B. which prize
C. is a prize which
D. is a prize
6. ___________ in several early civilizations, a cubit was based on the length of the forearm from the tip of the middle finger
to the elbow.
A. It was used as a measurement
B. A measurement was used
C. The use of a measurement
D. Used as a measurement
7. __________ seasonal rainfall, especially in regions near the tropics, is winds that blow in an opposite direction in winter
than in summer.
A. Causing
B. That cause
C. To cause
D. What causes
8. In the northern and central parts of the state of Idaho ________ and churning rivers.
A. majestic mountains are found
B. found majestic mountains


C. are found majestic mountains
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D. finding majestic mountains
9. The Missouri _________ longest river in the United States, flows through seven states from its source in Montana to its
confluence with the Mississippi.
A. River, the
B. River is the
C. River is one of the
D. River, one of the
10. Most radioactive elements occur in igneous and metamorphic ___________ fossils occur in the sedimentary rocks.
A. rocks, nearly all
B. rocks, but nearly all
C. rocks, nearly all are
D. rocks, which nearly all are
11. Different hormones ___________ at the same time on a particular target issue.
A. usually act
B. usually acting
C. they usual act
D. the usual action
12. Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and gas produce carbon dioxide when ____________.
A. are burned
B. they burned
C. burned
D. are they burned
13. Benjamin Franklin believed that the turkey rather than the eagle ___________ of the United States.
A. should become the symbol
B. the symbol becomes
C. should symbolize becoming
D. becoming the symbol
14. In the Antarctic Ocean __________plankton and crustacean forms of life.
A. an abundance of
B. is an abundance of
C. it is abundant
D. an abundance is
15. In 1858, the site _________ was to become the city of Denver was settled as a way station for outfitting gold prospectors.
A. it
B. of it
C. what
D. of what
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Câu hỏi 9
PART B
Đúng
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), or (D). You must identify the one
trên 25,00 underlined expression that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Then blacken the corresponding space in your
answer sheet.
16. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A. on
B. principles
C. chemists
D. mathematics
17. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts dancers.
A. must be
B. actors
C. as well
D. experts
18. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the Earth.
A. the second
B. from
C. exactly almost
D. same size as
19. P.T.Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous showman of his time.
A. his own
B. become
C. most famous
D. time
20. Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
A. have been
B. domesticated
C. over
D. years ago
21. Duke University in North California has an outstanding collecting of documents concerning Southern history.
A. has
B. collecting
C. concerning
D. history
22. Most modern barns are both insulated, ventilated, and equipped with electricity.
A. Most modern
B. both insulated
C. equipped with
D. electricity
23. Needles are simple – looking tools, but they are very relatively difficult to make.
A. simple-looking
B. but
C. very relatively
D. to make 
24. Ducks are less susceptible to infection than another types of poultry.
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A. less
B. to
C. then
D. another
25. Abigail Adams’ letters to her husband present a graphic picture of the age which she lived.
A. letters
B. her
C. a graphic
D. age which
26. Viscosity is a measurement describing the relative difficulty or easy with which liquids flow.
A. describing
B. relative
C. easy
D. with which
27. The tools used most often by floral designers are the knives, scissors, and glue gun.
A. The tools
B. most often
C. floral
D. knives
28. Isle Royale National Park in Lake Superior can only be reached by the boat.
A. in
B. can
C. be reached
D. the boat
29. The main divisions of geologic time, called eras, are subdivided in periods.
A. divisions
B. time
C. called
D. in
30. All root vegetables grow underground, and not all vegetables that grow underground are roots.
A. root
B. grow
C. and
D. that
31. The process of fermentation takes place only in the absent of oxygen.
A. process
B. takes place
C. only in
D. absent
32. Transfer taxes are imposed on the sell or exchange of stocks and bonds.
A. imposed on
B. sell
C. exchange of
D. and
33. Oceanic islands have been separated from the mainland for too long that they have evolved distinctive animal
populations. 
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A. from
B. too
C. they have
D. populations
34. Certain species of penicillin mold are used to ripe cheese.
A. Certain
B. are used
C. ripe
D. cheese
35. Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is wood pulp, which is used in paper-
making.
A. Many of the
B. obtained
C. the most
D. paper-making
36. Perhaps mankind’s first important musical influence were the songs of birds.
A. first
B. musical
C. were
D. birds
37. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey.
A. can detect
B. electrical
C. coming
D. its
38. Commercially honey is heated and filtered in order to stabilize and clarify it.
A. Commercially
B. filtered
C. stabilize
D. it
39. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties have developed.
A. various
B. so
C. surgical
D. many
40. The wood of the rosewood tree is used to do fine musical instruments.
A. wood
B. is used
C. do
D. musical
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SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION
This section contains five passages, each followed by ten questions. Read the passages and, for each question,
choose the one best answer – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – based on what is stated in or on what can be inferred from the
passage. Then blacken the corresponding space in your answer sheet.
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Câu hỏi 10
QUESTIONS 41 to 50
Đúng
The nuclear family, consisting of a mother, father, and their children, may be more an American ideal than an
trên 10,00 American reality. Of course, the so-called traditional American family was always more varied than we had been led to
believe, reflecting the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious customs among different American groups, but today
diversity is even more obvious.
The most recent government statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families fit the
traditional mold of two parents and their children, and another third consists of married couples who either have no
children or have none still living at home. Of the final one third, about 20 percent of the total number of American
households are single people, usually women over sixty-five years of age. A small percentage, about 3 percent of the total,
consists of unmarried people who choose to live together; and the rest, about 7 percent, are single parents, with at least
one child.
There are several reasons for the growing number of single-parent households. First, the number of births to
unmarried women has increased dramatically. In addition, a substantial number of adults become single parents as a result
of divorce. Finally, a small percentage of deaths result in single-parent families. Today, these varied family types are typical,
and therefore, normal.
In addition, close friends have become a more important part of family life than ever before. The vast majority of
Americans claim that they have people in their lives whom they regard as family although they are not related. A view of
family that only accepts the traditional nuclear arrangement not only ignores the reality of modern American family life,
but also undervalues the familial bonds created in alternative family arrangements. Apparently, many Americans are
achieving supportive relationships in family forms other than the traditional one.
41. With what topic the passage mainly concerned?
A. The traditional American family
B. The nuclear family
C. The current American family
D. The ideal family
42. The author implies that __________.
A. there have always been a wide variety of family arrangements in the United Sates
B. racial, ethnic, and religious groups have preserved the traditional family structure
C. the ideal American family is the best structure
D. fewer married couples are having children
43. The underlined word “current” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. typical
B. present
C. perfect
D. traditional
44. According to the passage, married couples whose children have grown or who have no children represent
A. 331/3 percent of households
B. 20 percent of households
C. 7 percent of households
D. 3 percent of households
45. The underlined word “none” refers to _______.
A. parents
B. children
C. couples
D. families
46. How many single people were identified in the survey?
A. One third of the total surveyed
B. One fourth of the total surveyed
C. One fifth of the total surveyed 

D. Less than one tenth of the total surveyed
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47. Who generally constitutes a one-person household?
A. A single man in his twenties
B. An elderly man
C. A single woman in her late sixties
D. A divorced woman
48. The underlined phrase “the rest” could best be replaced by ________.
A. those easily forgotten
B. those remaining
C. a small number
D. a significant group
49. The underlined word “they” refers to _______.
A. parents
B. children
C. couples
D. Americans
50. The underlined word “undervalues” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. does not appreciate
B. does not know about
C. does not include
D. does not understand
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Câu hỏi 11
QUESTIONS 51 to 60
Đúng
The Richter scale is a numerical logarithmic developed and introduced by American seismologist Charles R. Richter in 1935.
trên 10,00 The purpose of the scale is to measure the amplitude of the largest trace recorded by a standard seismograph one
hundred kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake. Tables have been formulated to demonstrate the magnitude of
any earthquake from any seismograph. For example, for a one-unit increase in magnitude, there is an increase of times
thirty in released energy. To put that another way, each number on the Richter scale represents an earthquake ten times as
strong as one of the next lower magnitude. Specifically, an earthquake of magnitude 6 is ten times as strong as an
earthquake of magnitude 5.
The Richter scale considers earthquakes of 6.75 as great and 7.0 to 7.75 as major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5
would be expected to cause localized damage, and those of magnitude 2 may be felt. It is estimated that almost one
million earthquakes occur each year, but most of them are so minor that they pass undetected . In fact, more than one
thousand earthquakes of a magnitude of 2 or less occur every day.
51. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Earthquakes
B. The Richter scale
C. Charles F. Richter
D. Seismography
52. In what kind of textbook would this passage most likely be found?
A. History
B. Biography
C. Geology
D. Mathematics
53. According to information in the passage, what does the Richter scale record?
A. The distance from the epicenter
B. The amplitude of the largest trace
C. The degree of damage
D. The location of the epicenter
54. The underlined word “standard” 3 could be replaced by ____________________.
A. reliable
B. complex
C. conventional
D. abandoned
55. What is the value of the tables?
A. They allow us to interpret the magnitude of earthquakes.
B. They help us to calculate our distance from earthquakes.
C. They record all earthquakes.
D. They release the energy of earthquakes.
56. The underlined word “those” refers to ___________________.
A. magnitudes
B. damage
C. earthquakes
D. energy
57. According to the Richter scale, which of the following numbers would indicate that there had probably been damage
to the immediate area only?
A. 7.0
B. 6.0
C. 5.0 
D. 2.0
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
58. The underlined word “undetected” is closest in meaning to ___________________.
A. with no damage
B. with no notice
C. with no name
D. with no problem
59. How does each number on the Richter scale compare?
A. Each number is one hundred times as strong as the previous number.
B. Each magnitude is ten times stronger than the previous magnitude.
C. The strength of each magnitude is one less than the previous magnitude.
D. The scale decreases by five or six for each number.
60. The author mentions all of the following in the explanation of the Richter scale EXCEPT ____________________.
A. it was introduced in 1935
B. it was developed by an American seismologist
C. it detects all earthquakes
D. it measures the magnitude of earthquakes
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
Câu hỏi 12
QUESTIONS 61 to 70
Đúng
Course numbers are an indication of which courses are open to various categories of students at the University.
trên 10,00 Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshmen or
sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are open to juniors and seniors
only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally
those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600
for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate
students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not
carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the number of hours
needed to complete graduation requirements.
A full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A full-time
graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Students holding assistantships are
expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate student may register for a minimum of three
credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an
academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval form when registering.
Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.
61. Where would this passage most likely be found?
A. In a syllabus
B. In a college catalog
C. In an undergraduate course
D. In a graduate course
62. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform
B. To persuade
C. To criticize
D. To apologize
63. The underlined word “prerequisites” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. courses required before enrolling
B. courses needed for graduation
C. courses that include additional charges
D. courses that do not carry academic credit
64. The underlined word “those” refers to __________.
A. graduate students
B. graduate courses
C. introductory courses
D. course numbers
65. Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?
A. A graduate student
B. A part-time student
C. A full-time student
D. An undergraduate student
66. If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register for an accounting course, what number would a graduate
student probably use to register for the same course?
A. Accounting 520
B. Accounting 620
C. Accounting 720
D. Accounting 820
67. How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?

A. Full-time student
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
B. Graduate student
C. Part-time student
D. Non-degree student
68. Which of the following courses would not be included in the list of courses for graduation?
A. English 90
B. English 100
C. English 300
D. English 400
69. A graduate student may NOT _______________.
A. enroll in a course numbered 610
B. register for only one one-hour course
C. register for courses if he has an assistantship
D. enroll in an introductory course
70. The underlined phrase “under any circumstances” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. without cause
B. without permission
C. without exception
D. without a good reason
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
Câu hỏi 13
QUESTIONS 71 to 80
Đúng
Noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is another environmental pollutant. Particularly in congested urban areas,
trên 10,00 the noise produced as a byproduct of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts
from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eye, the ear has no lid; therefore noise penetrates without protection. Loud noises instinctively signal
danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration
accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning
brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer
than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we
would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an
annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the
ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal
health problem, but now we are learning that none of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. In
addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the
quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours.
71. What is the author’s main point?
A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
72. What is the author’s definition of noise?
A. Unwanted sound
B. A byproduct of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm
D. Congestion
73. What was probably the topic of the paragraph that preceded this passage?
A. Environmental pollutants
B. Urban areas
C. Technology
D. Disease
74. The underlined word “congested” could best be replaced by _____.
A. hazardous
B. polluted
C. crowded
D. rushed
75. It can be referred from this passage that the eye ________________.
A. responds to fear
B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions
D. is damaged by noise
76. According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to
A. annoyance
B. danger
C. damage
D. disease
77. The word “accelerate” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. decline 
B. interrupt
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
C. increase
D. cease
78. The underlined word “it” refers to ___________.
A. noise
B. harm
C. life
D. technology
79. According to the author, which of the following is true?
A. Noise is not a serious problem today.
B. Noise is America’s number-one problem.
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society.
D. Noise is a complex problem.
80. The underlined phrase “as well” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. after all
B. also
C. instead
D. regardless
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
Câu hỏi 14
QUESTIONS 81 to 90
Đúng

trên 10,00 Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May, 1966, the World Health
Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations, was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox.
The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more
than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could
actually be eradicated, but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to
contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox victim
was sought out, removed from contact with others, and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had
lived was vaccinated.
By April of 1978, WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of the disease, but health
workers continued to search for new cases for two additional years to be completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal
statement was made to the global community. Today, smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations
have been stopped worldwide.
81. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The World Health Organization
B. The Eradication of Smallpox
C. Smallpox Vaccinations
D. Infectious Diseases
82. The underlined word “threat” could best be replaced by
A. debate
B. humiliation
C. risk
D. bother
83. What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
A. To decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide
B. To eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years
C. To provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide
D. To initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria, and yellow fever at the same time
84. According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of smallpox?
A. Vaccinations of entire villages
B. Treatment of individual victims
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
D. Extensive reporting of outbreak
85. The underlined word “isolated” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. restored
B. separated
C. attended
D. located
86. How was the public motivated to help the health workers?
A. By educating them
B. By rewarding them for reporting cases
C. By isolating them from others
D. By giving them vaccinations
87. The underlined word “they” refers to __________.
A. health workers

B. officials
17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test
C. victims
D. cases
88. Which statement does NOT refer to smallpox?
A. Previous projects had failed.
B. People are no longer vaccinated for it.
C. The World Health Organization mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.
D. It was a serious threat.
89. It can be inferred that _____________.
A. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
B. malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
C. smallpox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
90. When was the formal announcement made that smallpox had been eradicated?
A. 1966
B. 1976
C. 1978
D. 1980
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17:26, 20/08/2022 Sample Test

 Trở về 'Sample Test'

(including the reading of the directions for each part)

On the recording, you hear:

(man) That exam was just awful.

(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.

(narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you read:

(A) The exam was really awful.

(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.

(C) It couldn't have been more difficult.

(D) It wasn't that hard.

Câu hỏi 1 Questions 1 to 15

Đạt điểm 15,00

(A) He'll correct the exams this afternoon.

(B) The exam will be at noon.

(C) He will collect the exams at 12:00.

(D) The tests will be graded by noon.

(A) Martha applied for a visa last month.

(B) Martha's visa will last for only a month.

(C) Martha arrived last month without her visa.

(D) One month ago Martha got her visa.

(A) The professor described what the students should do.

(C) It is a requirement for each professor to teach at least one course.

(D) The professor required the class to prepare an outline.

(A) Chuck had improved.

(B) This visit was better than the last.

(C) Chuck looked at him in the hospital.

(D) Chuck didn't seem to be doing very well.

(A) She thinks the tuition should be raised.

(B) The semester's tuition is quite affordable.

(D) She has more than enough for tuition.

(A) He thinks he got a good grade.

(B) The history grades were all C or above.

(C) No one got history grades.

(D) There were no high scores.

(A) The parking lots were full before 10:00.

(B) It was impossible to start class by 10:00.

(C) He parked the car before class at 10:00.

(D) The possibility of finding a place to park increased.

(A) She's found a new ring.

(B) She needs to help him find something.

(C) She's shopping for a carpet.

(D) She's thankful she has a rag.

(C) In an accounting firm

(D) In a checkout line

(A) Jane usually visits San Francisco for her vacations.

(B) Jane's cousin often visits San Francisco.

(C) Whenever there's a holiday, Jane's cousin goes to San Francisco.

(D) Whenever there's a holiday, Jane leaves San Francisco.

(A) He'd really like to have something to eat.

(B) Because he's weak, he can't eat.

(C) It's been weeks since he's had anything to eat.

(D) He hasn't felt like eating for weeks.

(A) Traffic should not be allowed.

(B) She thinks that the traffic should stay outside.

(C) She agrees that the traffic is noisy

(D) She'll stay outside with the man.

(A) The headings for today's reading assignment.

(B) The chance to make the headlines.

(C) Her reading ability.

(D) The daily newspaper.

(A) The bus trip is only five minutes long.

(B) The man missed the bus by five minutes.