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Criminal Justice in Canada 7th Edition

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1. What model did the minority of the Supreme Court of Canada follow in their final decision in R. v. Feeney?
a. local legal culture
b. crime control
c. courtroom workgroups
d. due process
ANSWER: b

2. Which of the following factors did Mr. Justice Sopinka and the majority of justices NOT highlight in the R. v.
Feeney decision?
a. privacy outweighs the interest of the police
b. it took too long for the police to read Feeney his rights
c. police must receive prior authorization before entering a dwelling to gather evidence
d. the police acted correctly by ensuring that a murder suspect was not a large
ANSWER: d

3. What was the verdict in the second trial of Mr. Feeney?


a. not guilty
b. acquittal
c. guilty of first degree murder
d. guilty of second degree murder
ANSWER: d

4. What bill did Parliament pass allowing a police officer to enter a residence or other dwelling to make an
arrest without a warrant if exigent circumstances exist?
a. Bill C-16
b. Bill C-21
c. Bill C-33
d. Bill C-42
ANSWER: a

5. Which case involved the police entering an apartment without a warrant after receiving a 911 call?
a. R. v. Murray
b. R. v. Caslake
c. R. v. Godoy
d. R. v. Pickett
ANSWER: c

6. Why is discretion a crucial component of policing?


a. it is difficult to create a system of laws and rules for the police and Crown prosecutors to be
comfortable with
b. it is difficult to create a system of laws and rules that divide appropriate from inappropriate behaviour
in every context
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c. it actually assists in the protection of due process rights of the accused
d. it enhances the control of crime in society
ANSWER: b

7. According to the Supreme Court of Canada in R. v. Beare (1988), which of the following is in a unique
position to use discretion in their decisions about enforcing the law?
a. the police
b. correctional officials
c. Crown prosecutors
d. the judiciary
ANSWER: a

8. What was the decision made by the Supreme Court of Canada in R. v. Beare?
a. the police held too much discretionary power in their operations
b. a judicial stay is allowed only when there are questions about the fundamental principles of justice
c. discretion is an essential part of the role of the police
d. if an appeal is to be allowed, there has to be clear evidence of discrimination
ANSWER: c

9. What section of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms is a remedy for cases involving the police use of
discretion in an “improper or arbitrary” manner?
a. s. 7
b. s. 8(a)
c. s. 10b
d. s. 24
ANSWER: d

10. Which of the following is NOT a legal factor that can be involved in a police decision to arrest someone?
a. the availability of jail cells
b. the seriousness of the crime
c. the demeanour of the suspect
d. the preference of the victim(s)
ANSWER: a

11. Which factor will make it more likely that a police officer will arrest someone?
a. a serious crime
b. the suspect is a family member
c. there is no witness to a crime
d. a high-income neighbourhood
ANSWER: a

12. A police officer is speaking with a suspect to a crime. The suspect is extremely disrespectful to the officer,
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which means the suspect is highly likely to be arrested. This scenario exemplifies which category of decisions
to arrest?
a. legal factors
b. situational factors
c. extralegal factors
d. community factors
ANSWER: c

13. Even where there is less than reasonable grounds to believe an offence has been committed, the police can
still conduct certain steps. Which of the following is NOT allowed to be conducted by the police?
a. detain the individual
b. interrogate the individual
c. search the individual
d. grill the individual
ANSWER: d

14. Which term refers to a reactive power held by the police dependent upon a reasonable belief that the
detained person is implicated in a prior criminal act?
a. arrest
b. custodial interrogation
c. warrantless search
d. investigative detention
ANSWER: d

15. Section 9 of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms states that “everyone has the right not to be arbitrarily
detained or imprisoned.” However, when are police officers allowed to detain and conduct a non-intrusive
search according to Bilodau?
a. when the police are concerned with safety
b. when the suspect has stopped after being told to stop
c. when the suspect goes with the police on their own free will
d. when the police find the person they believe to be the suspect
ANSWER: a

16. Which activity involves the police power to restrain individuals, depriving them of their liberty?
a. bail hearing
b. investigative detention
c. custodial interrogation
d. arrest
ANSWER: d

17. Once a suspect is identified, the police have to go to a justice of the peace. Which term describes this
process?
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a. bail hearing
b. lay an information
c. investigative detention
d. arrest
ANSWER: b

18. Police officer Smith has spent many days investigating and questioning people about a crime that was
committed in her district. She finally identifies the suspect and has the justice of the peace lay an information
first against the person. What is the next step in the process?
a. the arrest is authorized or a summons is issued
b. a search warrant is issued to gather further evidence
c. the justice of the peace will have a member of the court locate the suspect for appearance
d. the case will proceed to the next court level
ANSWER: a

19. What is the appropriate standard of proof for a police officer receiving a search warrant?
a. reasonable grounds
b. the doctrine of plain view
c. on the balance of probabilities
d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
ANSWER: a

20. When can the police arrest someone without a warrant?


a. when the person’s custody is not an issue
b. when the person has committed a crime and their appearance in court cannot be compelled by a
summons
c. when the person is found committing any criminal offence
d. when the person is to be brought before a justice of the peace within 18 hours of their arrest
ANSWER: c

21. A police officer’s power to arrest without a warrant is restricted by s. 495(2) of the Criminal Code. This
section of the Criminal Code states that no arrest shall occur in which of the following circumstances?
a. when district supervisors support the decision of a patrol officer
b. unless the justice of the peace agrees with the police that arrest is necessary
c. where reasonable grounds exist to believe the accused will fail to appear in court
d. where the public interest is satisfied
ANSWER: d

22. What term is defined as the intrusion of a government representative into an individual’s privacy?
a. inquiry
b. investigation
c. search
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d. seizure
ANSWER: c

23. What term is defined as the exercise of control by a government representative over an individual and/or
item?
a. seizure
b. arrest
c. information
d. summons
ANSWER: a

24. What legal area does NOT govern searches and seizures in Canada?
a. the Charter of Rights and Freedoms
b. the Criminal Code
c. civil law
d. common law
ANSWER: c

25. What section of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms is breached when an unreasonable search occurs?
a. s. 7
b. s. 8
c. s. 10
d. s. 12
ANSWER: b

26. Where is a reduced expectation of privacy found according to the Supreme Court?
a. a person’s home
b. prison cells holding inmates
c. information in medical records
d. places where the public is ordinarily invited
ANSWER: b

27. In which of the following examples is there no expectation of privacy?


a. a person’s home
b. places where the public is ordinarily invited
c. border crossings
d. school records
ANSWER: b

28. Not every unreasonable search will lead to the exclusion of evidence. What section of the Charter deals with
exclusion or inclusion of evidence?
a. Section 8
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b. Section 10
c. Section 24
d. Section 52
ANSWER: c

29. Which of the following regulates most of what the police do in the area of search and seizure?
a. the Criminal Code
b. the doctrine of plain view
c. the common law
d. the “reasonableness” test
ANSWER: a

30. What gives police the right to conduct general body searches and searches of the immediate surrounding
area when arresting a suspect?
a. the Criminal Code
b. administrative law
c. the common law
d. the Charter of Rights and Freedoms
ANSWER: a

31. Legislation authorizing the seizure of bodily samples for DNA testing was approved by Parliament
following which case?
a. R. v. Stillman
b. Alderton v. R.
c. Borden v. R.
d. R. v. Vu
ANSWER: a

32. In the R. v. Fearon (2014) case, the Supreme Court of Canada ruled that police are able to search digital
devices without a warrant subject to certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT a condition to search
someone’s phone?
a. the arrest must be lawful
b. the search must be truly incident to the arrest
c. the police are able to view all emails, texts, photographs, or call logs
d. the police must take detailed notes of what they examined on the device and how they examined it
ANSWER: c

33. As it applies to searches and seizures, which term generally refers to the question of whether police officers
have overstepped their authorities?
a. generalized search
b. particularity
c. the doctrine of plain view
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d. the “reasonableness” test
ANSWER: d

34. The police knock on your door and present you with a warrant to search your property. They use a term
other than “warrant.” What term refers to the search warrant itself?
a. particularity
b. summons
c. affidavit
d. writ
ANSWER: a

35. A police officer approaches a home where he knows a person is being held against their wishes. He has
received information from a neighbour that a person has a weapon and is yelling threats of harm to the hostage.
The police enter the dwelling without a search warrant due to changes in which bill?
a. Bill C-3
b. Bill C-16
c. Bill C-21
d. Bill C-25
ANSWER: a

36. Which of the following is NOT examined when determining the reasonableness of a search?
a. whether the information predicting the commission of a criminal offence was compelling
b. whether the information was based on a credible informant’s tip
c. whether the information was corroborated by a police investigation before the decision to conduct the
search was made
d. whether the information was obtained by unnecessary force
ANSWER: d

37. Which of the following cases involved the Supreme Court of Canada ruling that most searches are to be
based on reasonable grounds but that searches incidental to an arrest need not be?
a. Cloutier v. Langlois
b. Hunter v. Southam
c. R. v. Golden
d. R. v. Stillman
ANSWER: a

38. Which of the following allows police officers to search for and seize evidence without a warrant?
a. failure to observe the rights of the suspect
b. improbable grounds
c. the doctrine of plain view
d. lack of consent searches
ANSWER: c
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39. What section of the Criminal Code contains the provision for “reasonable grounds”?
a. s. 7
b. s. 101(1)
c. s. 125
d. s. 528
ANSWER: b

40. What is the major legal issue in most consent searches?


a. whether the object in question is in plain view or hidden from view
b. whether the individual fits the description of the suspect
c. whether the suspect acts suspiciously
d. whether the police officer can prove that consent was given to them voluntarily
ANSWER: d

41. In which case did the Ontario Court of Appeal provide guidelines for judging whether voluntary consent was
given by a suspect?
a. R. v. Golden
b. R. v. Ducharme
c. R. v. Wills
d. R. v. Collins
ANSWER: c

42. Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines concerning consent searches by the Supreme Court of
Canada in R. v. Wills?
a. the giver of consent had the authority to give the consent in question
b. the giver of consent was aware of his right to refuse to give consent to the police to engage in the
conduct requested
c. the consent was given voluntarily even if there was some external police conduct that negated the
freedom to choose
d. the giver of consent was aware of the potential consequences of giving the consent
ANSWER: c

43. When an investigative technique is classified as a “search,” what constitutional requirement applies?
a. the reasonable expectation of privacy
b. reasonableness
c. the right to legal counsel
d. security of the person
ANSWER: b

44. What section of the Charter protects the right to counsel as well as the right to be informed of the right to
counsel?
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a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
ANSWER: b

45. What is a right of an accused to obtain legal counsel according to the Charter of Rights and Freedoms?
a. the accused must be given a reasonable opportunity to consult a lawyer
b. the accused cannot be allowed to talk to legal counsel privately
c. the accused can delay the investigation by deciding to contact counsel after several hours
d. the right to counsel is absolute
ANSWER: a

46. Who has the right to legal counsel?


a. someone who refuses to accompany an officer to the police station
b. someone who can afford legal counsel
c. someone who is charged with multiple indictable offences
d. someone who is under arrest
ANSWER: d

47. Corrine has been arrested and is being questioned by the police. Her attorney is present and Corrine has been
given some advice on how to handle the situation. The following day her situation has not changed but she is
questioned again by the police. Is Corrine able to request her attorney’s presence again?
a. yes, the right is continuous
b. no, the right is not continuous
c. she is allowed to phone the lawyer only
d. she can meet with duty counsel this time
ANSWER: d

48. What is the primary goal of a custodial interrogation?


a. to find out more information about other individuals
b. to gain enough information so the prosecutor can plea bargain
c. to solicit a confession from the suspect
d. to confirm an arrest
ANSWER: c

49. According to Leo, which specific strategy is used during a custodial interrogation where officers provide an
environment in which the suspect is encouraged to think positively of the interrogation and subsequently
cooperates with the authorities?
a. reemphasizing
b. conditioning
c. persuasion
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d. de-emphasizing
ANSWER: b

50. Which strategy used in a custodial interrogation results in the suspect rarely, if ever, thinking of stopping the
interrogation in order to contact a lawyer for advice?
a. persuasion
b. limitation
c. conditioning
d. de-emphasizing
ANSWER: d

51. In which strategy used in a custodial interrogation do the investigators inform suspects that if they don’t tell
their side of the story only the victim’s side will be heard during the trial?
a. persuasion
b. limitation
c. conditioning
d. de-emphasizing
ANSWER: a

52. Which high-profile Canadian case is used as an example of an unsuccessful interrogation yet still resulted in
a charge and wrongful conviction?
a. Guy Paul Morin
b. David Milgaard
c. Donald Marshall
d. William Mullins-Johnson
ANSWER: a

53. Tim has been watched closely by the police recently. He has not been arrested but they hope to get him to
confess to a murder. They decide to use a technique whereby a police officer will pose as a member of an
organization and befriend Tim. He will be persuaded to join the organization and receive various incentives if
he confesses to the crime. This is an example of what type of police interrogation?
a. sting operation
b. Mr. X
c. Mr. Big
d. operation confession
ANSWER: c

54. Prior to 2010, what percentage of all Mr. Big cases by the RCMP resulted in a prosecution that led to a
conviction?
a. 75 percent
b. 80 percent
c. 90 percent

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d. 95 percent
ANSWER: d

55. Which case was the first in Canada involving the admissibility of evidence obtained by an undercover
officer?
a. Rothman v. The Queen
b. R. v. Oickle
c. Feeney v. The Queen
d. Nowlin v. The Queen
ANSWER: a

56. According to the Supreme Court of Canada decision in R. v. Oickle, which of the following police
interviewing techniques is NOT acceptable ?
a. suggesting the reliability of a polygraph
b. making an appeal to a person’s conscience
c. stating another family member or friend would not be charged
d. minimizing the seriousness of the offence
ANSWER: c

57. According to the Supreme Court of Canada decision in R. v. Oickle, which of the following police
interviewing techniques is acceptable?
a. offering some type of counselling
b. using shock tricks
c. using veiled threats
d. making offers of leniency
ANSWER: a

58. Which of the following is usually the result of an intense custodial interrogation?
a. coerced-complaint false confession
b. voluntary false confession
c. coerced-internalized false confession
d. coerced-externalized false confession
ANSWER: a

59. According to Kassin and Wrightsman (1985), which of the following is one of the elements of a coerced-
internalized false confession?
a. an unknown assailant
b. a promised benefit
c. a failure to give the suspect the right to silence
d. the presentation of false evidence
ANSWER: d

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60. You are a lawyer, and when you arrive at the jailhouse you discover your client has confessed to a crime she
didn’t commit. Upon discussing with her what happened, you learn she is in fear of her common law spouse
(who actually committed the crime) so she confessed. What type of false confession does this exemplify?
a. coerced-complaint false confession
b. voluntary false confession
c. coerced-internalized false confession
d. coerced-externalized false confession
ANSWER: b

61. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that an accused’s right to silence had been infringed on by the
police after they arranged a prison visit between the accused and his friend who was wearing a wiretap?
a. R. v. Broyles
b. R. v. Hart
c. R. v. Oickle
d. R. v. Brooke
ANSWER: a

62. In the United States, in what percentage of wrongful convictions did the prosecution use jailhouse
informants?
a. 10 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 40 percent
ANSWER: b

63. The Inquiry Regarding Thomas Sophonow (2001) noted some dangers of using jailhouse informants. Which
of the following is NOT included in those concerns?
a. jailhouse informants are polished and convincing liars
b. jurors will give more weight to “confessions” made to jailhouse informants than confessions made to
a police officer
c. jailhouse informants rush to testify, particularly in high-profile cases
d. jailhouse informants appear to have evidence that could only have come from someone who
committed the offence
ANSWER: b

64. Which of the following involves a trial judge having the discretion to give a “clear and sharp” warning to
attract jurors’ attention to the risks of adopting the evidence of the witness?
a. the Brooks warning
b. waiver
c. Vetrovec warning
d. Askov warning
ANSWER: c

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65. While conducting a trial, the judge addresses the jury to explain that the evidence they are about to hear is
subject to special scrutiny as directed by the Supreme Court of Canada. Which warning is this scenario an
example of?
a. Vetrovec warning
b. Viceroy warning
c. Vellenchuck warning
d. Vain warning
ANSWER: a

66. In which case did the Supreme Court of Canada conclude that trial judges have a significant obligation to
caution jurors about the unreliability of jailhouse informants’ testimony?
a. R. v. Sophonow
b. R. v. Morin
c. R. v. Brooks
d. R. v. Bagley
ANSWER: c

67. How did former Supreme Court Justice Peter Cory describe jailhouse informants?
a. “a dangerous group”
b. “pathological liars”
c. “opportunists”
d. “criminal entrepreneurs”
ANSWER: a

68. Which inquiry noted the Crown relying on evidence supplied by a jailhouse informant who had 26 fraud
charges dropped in exchange for his testimony?
a. the Morin Inquiry
b. the Milgaard Inquiry
c. the Sophonow Inquiry
d. the Mullins-Johnson Inquiry
ANSWER: c

69. How much money was Thomas Sophonow awarded after DNA evidence cleared him of the 1981 murder of
a waitress?
a. $2.4 million
b. $2.6 million
c. $2.8 million
d. $3.1 million
ANSWER: b

70. Which of the following is the only situation defined as deadly force as highlighted in the textbook?
a. choke holds
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b. police use of firearms
c. high-speed chases
d. stabbings
ANSWER: b

71. Which case resulted in Parliament introducing a new defence authorizing police officers to use deadly force
in order to prevent a suspect from fleeing if the officer believes that force is necessary to protect the officer
and/or any other person?
a. R. v. Fyfe
b. R. v. Lines
c. R. v. Smith
d. R. v. Johnson
ANSWER: b

72. Which type of investigation led to the greatest number of police murders from 1961 to 2009?
a. robbery
b. domestic
c. homicide
d. sexual assault
ANSWER: a

73. What percentage of police officers between 1961 and 2009 were murdered during a robbery investigation?
a. 15 percent
b. 18 percent
c. 23 percent
d. 27 percent
ANSWER: c

74. Tom is a Toronto police officer who has worked in the same district for years. He has come to know some of
the people in the community, especially those who are not following the law. It’s nearing the holiday season and
Tom wants to purchase a new game system for his children. He knows of someone in the district who sells
“hot” systems for a discounted price. As a police officer Tom does not make a large salary, so he decides to use
his resources and purchase a system for the holidays. What does this scenario exemplify?
a. police deviance
b. police nonconformity
c. police opportunity
d. police prospect
ANSWER: a

75. Joan is a police officer in Vancouver and a mother of three small children. She is on duty but had a rough
night with her youngest and was up most of the night. Joan decides to drive to a quiet area in her district and
take a nap to regain her strength. What does this scenario exemplify?

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a. selective enforcement of laws
b. occupational deviancy
c. administrative misconduct
d. organizational deviancy
ANSWER: b

76. Which of the following is defined as criminal and noncriminal behaviour committed during the course of
normal work activities or under the guise of the police officer’s authority?
a. occupational deviancy
b. unethical conduct
c. police misconduct
d. police deviance
ANSWER: a

77. Which of the following is a type of police misconduct?


a. consistent enforcement of the law among all populations
b. maintenance of authority
c. refusal to listen to community members
d. occupational deviancy
ANSWER: d

78. What is the term used to describe actions that are inconsistent with the police officer’s legal authority?
a. police misconduct
b. police discretion
c. police authority
d. police control
ANSWER: a

79. Which of the following occurs when almost all members of a police department are involved in systemic
and organized misconduct?
a. “rotten apples”
b. pervasive but unorganized misconduct
c. pervasive but rarely organized misconduct
d. pervasive and organized misconduct
ANSWER: d

80. Which of the following is a basic component of early warning systems?


a. pre-intervention monitoring
b. intelligence
c. selection
d. punishment

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ANSWER: c

81. What type of early warning system has the ability to look at a large number of issues?
a. the performance problem system
b. the inclusive single performance system
c. the comprehensive personnel assessment system
d. the data-based system
ANSWER: c

82. What type of early warning system is used to look at a small number of performance issues?
a. the administrative performance system
b. the focused personnel performance system
c. the comprehensive personnel assessment system
d. the performance problem system
ANSWER: d

83. What is the primary goal of early warning systems?


a. to deter police officers
b. to educate police officers
c. to reprimand police officers
d. to change the behaviour of police officers
ANSWER: d

84. The administration at a Toronto district police service has noticed that one of their officers, Alan, has
received many citizen complaints. Most of the complaints seem to be from members of the Black community.
The administration is recommending that Alan take a sensitivity course to alter his possible racism to the Black
community. Which phase of the early warning system is this an example of?
a. selection phase
b. intervention strategies
c. post-intervention strategies
d. performance problem strategies
ANSWER: b

85. Which of the following would be one of the goals of a police executive who wants to introduce an early
warning system into his police service?
a. to increase the reactiveness toward problem police officers
b. to change the behaviour of police officers
c. to look at a wide range of policing issues
d. to increase the technology capabilities of the police service
ANSWER: b

86. Which of the following is a criterion used by police in the selection phase of an early warning system?
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a. civil litigation
b. increase deterrence
c. increase education
d. threats by citizens groups
ANSWER: a

87. Which of the following police accountability systems allows police to investigate complaints against
themselves?
a. early warning systems
b. civil liability
c. internal investigations
d. civilian oversight
ANSWER: c

88. What is the most popular method to control police misconduct today?
a. the creation of a separate civilian commission or review agency
b. criminal liability
c. an internal police investigation
d. civil liability
ANSWER: a

89. Which of the following is a reason why individuals favour citizen oversight committees of the police?
a. they lead to more disciplinary actions against police officers
b. police officers are capable of conducting their own personal investigations
c. police departments punish problem police officers more harshly
d. police officers are deterred more by oversight committees
ANSWER: a

90. What do critics of civilian oversight committees point out to be a problem with such committees?
a. they undermine the authority of police executives
b. they upset the balance between the various criminal justice agencies
c. they are less satisfying to the complainants
d. they are less fair and thorough
ANSWER: a

91. What can be the outcome of a successful civil liability case in the area of police misconduct?
a. the police service itself can be sued
b. police administrators can be sued for any actions of the officers under their command
c. individual police officers cannot be held liable for their misconduct and incarcerated
d. it is impossible for citizens to bring lawsuits against individual police officers
ANSWER: a

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92. Which of the following is NOT an element of procedural fairness?
a. participation
b. neutrality
c. treatment with dignity and respect
d. procedures and rules
ANSWER: a

93. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that no warrant could ever be granted on the basis of heat
emissions (FLIR) alone?
a. R. v. Tessling
b. R. v. Thornton
c. R. v. Boucher
d. R. v. Landa
ANSWER: a

94. “Privacy” is not mentioned in the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.


a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

95. “Privacy” had to be determined by the courts and decided the rights of society far outweigh the rights of
suspects to their privacy.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

96. In R. v. Feeney, the minority of the Supreme Court of Canada followed the crime control model in their final
decision.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

97. In the R. v. Feeney case, both sections 8 and 10 of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms were violated.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

98. The impact of the Feeney decision that requires the police to gain prior authorization to enter the private
dwelling of an individual to search and collect evidence took effect immediately after the Supreme Court’s
decision.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

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99. In R. v Godoy, the appeal court and Supreme Court of Canada held that Godoy’s rights were not infringed
upon when the police entered his apartment to aid a woman who was sobbing and had a badly bruised eye.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

100. Police are legally required to inform individuals about their right to legal counsel.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

101. According to the Supreme Court of Canada’s decision in R. v. Beare, the police were using too much
discretion in their law enforcement activities.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

102. The discretion of police during a case is often questioned in Canada.


a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

103. Section 24 of the Charter is a remedy for cases involving the use of discretion in an “improper or arbitrary”
manner.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

104. Factors that influence a police officer to arrest someone include situational, extralegal, and community
factors categories.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

105. Police are more likely to arrest someone if the victim and offender are family members.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

106. Suspects from higher-income neighbourhoods are more likely to be arrested than those from low-income
neighbourhoods.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
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107. An arrest is always the first step in criminal pretrial procedures.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

108. In Canada, police can hold a person for questioning even when they do not have grounds for an arrest.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

109. The police are always allowed to detain and conduct an intrusive search of an individual they believe has
been involved in a crime.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

110. According to Nicol, police resort to investigative detentions because the opportunity to stop and confront
suspects is an invaluable tool.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

111. The police have investigated and questioned people and have a suspect identified. The next process is to lay
an information first against the person.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

112. If the police arrest someone at the scene of the crime, the process of laying the information first must still
be performed.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

113. Police must believe they have reasonable grounds to make an arrest and the grounds must be justifiable
from an objective point of view.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

114. For police to justify an arrest, the threshold of proof has to be high.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
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115. When the police arrest someone without a warrant, it is the police and not the justice of the peace who
actually are commencing the proceedings requiring the accused to appear in court.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

116. Three different legal areas govern searches and seizures in Canada: the common law, the Criminal Code,
and the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

117. All unreasonable searches will breach s. 8 of the Charter and every unreasonable search will lead to the
exclusion of evidence.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

118. Police officers have the right to seize an item not mentioned on a warrant if an officer believes on
reasonable grounds that the item in question has been used in the commission of an offence.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

119. Police officers do not have the legal right to seize items not mentioned in the warrant if the officers have
reasonable grounds for believing those items were obtained by or used in the commission of an office.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

120. Police officers may make a warrantless search when an individual voluntarily consents to a search.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

121. The police can search a suspect when they give their voluntary consent, as the suspects are waiving their
constitutional rights.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

122. In early decisions, courts across Canada took similar positions on the taking of DNA samples by the police.
a. True
b. False

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ANSWER: False

123. Laws governing privacy, particularly for the use of personal electronic devices such as laptop computers
and cell phones, are constantly facing challenges.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

124. Parliament feels the existing provisions surrounding governing of computer and/or personal electronic
device search warrants are acceptable.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

125. In the R. v. Vu (2013) case, the Supreme Court of Canada held that specific and prior judicial authorization
is required prior to any search of electronic devices containing personal or other information.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

126. In the second trial that the Supreme Court of Canada ordered in the R. v. Vu (2013) case, the evidence
collected from the computers without a specific warrant was excluded.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

127. In the R. v. Fearon (2014) case, the Supreme Court of Canada ruled that the police are unable to search
digital devices without a warrant.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

128. The appropriate standard of proof is one of “reasonable and probable grounds” rather than proof beyond a
reasonable doubt.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

129. Searches incident to an arrest grant the police the power by the common law to search the suspect for
weapons and evidence of a crime without first obtaining a search warrant.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

130. In Cloutier v. Langlois (1990), the Supreme Court of Canada unanimously agreed that while most searches
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are to be based on reasonable and probable grounds, searches incidental to arrest are not.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

131. The courts have ruled that before conducting a frisk search the police must inform suspects of their right to
counsel.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

132. The Supreme Court of Canada has ruled that before police conduct a frisk search they have to wait until the
suspect contacts a lawyer before a search is made.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

133. An example of a justification for a warrantless search would be where there is a report of a weapon but no
weapon is visible.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

134. The right to legal advice and assistance is fundamental to ensure fairness in our criminal justice system.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

135. The right to legal counsel is absolute in Canada.


a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

136. The right to a lawyer is a continuing right in Canada.


a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

137. The Supreme Court of Canada has established a low threshold for an accused to waive their Charter right to
legal counsel.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

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138. Suspects are usually questioned in private and can only be conducted five concurrent times.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

139. Traditionally, Canadian courts have held that an out-of-court statement by an accused person constitutes
appropriate evidence as long as the statement was given voluntarily.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

140. When using the conditioning strategy, the police are attempting to provide an environment in which the
suspect is encouraged to think positively of the interrogator(s) and subsequently cooperate with the authorities.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

141. According to Williams, the Charter of Rights and Freedoms has led to significant changes in police
techniques during custodial interrogations.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

142. A coerced-internalized false confession occurs when the suspect, who may be anxious, emotional, and/or
tired of being repeatedly interrogated, falsely recalls an involvement in a crime and confesses to it.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

143. If there has been a Charter violation in the obtaining of a confession by the police, it is automatically
excluded from the trial.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

144. In Canada, a statement made by the accused to the police is admissible in court automatically.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

145. Guy Paul Morin’s case involves an example of a jailhouse informant.


a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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146. By 2009, Ontario had ended the use of jailhouse informants.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

147. According to the Criminal Code, police officers have to follow a reasonableness standard when using force.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

148. The most common circumstance surrounding the death of a police officer in Canada between 1961 and
2009 was when the police were investigating a firearms complaint.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

149. The issue of police misconduct is important to police agencies as they are concerned about such issues as
they relate to police accountability.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

150. Police misconduct is defined in the textbook as a generic description of police officer activities that are
inconsistent with the officer’s legal authority, organizational authority, and standards of ethical conduct.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

151. An early warning system is a data-based police management tool for identifying police officers whose
actions are problematic.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

152. An external citizen police review board is also known as civilian oversight.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

153. The Commission for Public Complaints cannot initiate a complaint against the RCMP.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

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154. Civil liability for police misconduct can lead to an individual police officer being held liable for their
misconduct and sentenced to a period of incarceration.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

155. According to critics of citizen oversight commissions, complaints of police misconduct are dealt with much
more harshly when police investigate their own officers compared to a citizen oversight commission.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

156. Ontario was the first province in Canada to create a civilian oversight commission.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

157. Research into police legitimacy in the United States has found that people generally care more about the
outcomes of their contact than how the police treat them.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

158. The right to privacy in Canada is not explicitly protected by the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

159. Explain the legal processes involved in arrest. Can a person be arrested without a warrant? If so, under
what conditions? Compare and contrast the legal procedures involved in arrest with and without a warrant.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

160. When can the police place the accused in custody? Is this consistent with Section 7 of the Charter? Provide
statistics to support your answer.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

161. Define custodial interrogation. What is its purpose? What are some of the issues related to confessions that
have been raised about this process in our criminal justice system?
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

162. Define search and seizure. Identify the main elements of R. v. Stillman and discuss its impact upon the
Canadian criminal justice system.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

163. When can a search warrant be obtained, and what are the “reasonableness test” and particularity?
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ANSWER: Answers will vary.

164. Discuss a recent case in which warrantless searches in exigent circumstances were at issue. Also include in
your discussion what issues the court considers concerning this topic.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

165. Discuss whether a search warrant that grants police the authority to search a residence should automatically
include the right to search a computer or cell phone.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

166. What is the national significance of the R. v. Feeney decision? Explain the implications of this case in terms
of police searches and seizures.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

167. Discuss and explain how and why the Mr. Big police interrogation operates and works.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

168. Explain section 25 of the Criminal Code surrounding “as much force as is necessary.” Discuss the
problems and subsequent mechanisms surrounding the phrase.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

169. Highlight and discuss the pros and cons surrounding officer body-worn cameras. Discuss the results so far
in the United States and the United Kingdom.
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

170. Discuss at least three pros and cons of citizen oversight. What is your stance on the process and why?
ANSWER: Answers will vary.

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