Essentials of Radiographic Physics and

Imaging 1st Edition Johnston Test Bank

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Chapter 10: Radiographic Exposure Technique
Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a primary exposure technique factor?

a. kVp
b. time of exposure
c. SID
d. mA
ANS: C
SID. is not a primary exposure technique factor; mAs and kVp are.

OBJ: 3

2. What type of relationship do mAs have with the quantity of x-rays produced?
a. direct proportional
b. direct but not proportional
c. inverse proportional
d. inverse but not proportional
ANS: A
There is a direct proportional relationship between mAs and quantity of radiation; if the mAs
are doubled, the amount of radiation is doubled.

OBJ: 3

3. Given 40 mAs, doubling the mA produces the same result as:

a. doubling the time of exposure
b. doubling the mAs
c. A and B
d. none of the above
ANS: C
Doubling the mA doubles the mAs, as does doubling the exposure time.

OBJ: 3

4. How much mAs is produced when the mA is 200 and the exposure time is 0.5 s?
a. 25 mAs
b. 50 mAs
c. 100 mAs
d. 200 mAs
ANS: C
In that mAs = mA  exposure time (in seconds), 200  0.5 = 100 mAs.

OBJ: 4

5. How much mAs is produced when the mA is 800 and the exposure time is 30 ms?
 a. 24 mAs
b. 240 mAs
c. 2,4000 mAs
d. 24,000 mAs
ANS: A
In that mAs = mA  exposure time (in seconds), 800  0.03 = 24 mAs.

OBJ: 4

6. If the mA is 600 and exposure time is 10 ms, how can the mAs be doubled?
a. increase the mA to 1200
b. increase the time to 20 ms
c. increase the mAs to 24 mAs
d. all of the above
ANS: D
Doubling the mA, time, or mAs results in the same outcome.

OBJ: 4

7. Which of the following exposure factors produces 20 mAs?

a. 200 mA @ 1 s
b. 100 mA @ 2 s
c. 100 mA @ 0.5 s
d. 200 mA @ 100 ms
ANS: D
200 mA  100 ms (0.10 s) = 20 mAs.

OBJ: 4

8. What mA should be selected to produce 32 mAs using a 0.04 exposure time?

a. 128 mA
b. 200 mA
c. 400 mA
d. 800 mA
ANS: D
If mAs = mA  seconds, mA = mAs/seconds, or 32/.04, which equals 800 mA.

OBJ: 4

9. In maintaining the same mAs, there is a(n) ________________ relationship between mA and
exposure time.
a. direct
b. inverse
c. added
d. none of the above
ANS: B
 To maintain the same mAs, if the mA is increased, the exposure time must decrease, resulting
in an inverse relationship.

OBJ: 4

10. 200 mA @ 80 ms (0.08 s) produces 16 mAs. Which of the following exposure factors
maintains 16 mAs while using a shorter exposure time?
a. 100 mA @ 0.16 s
b. 200 mA @ 0.16 s
c. 400 mA @ 0.04 s
d. 400 mA @ 0.08 s
ANS: C
By doubling the mA and halving the seconds, 400 mA @ 0.04 s equals 16 mAs while
shortening the exposure time.

OBJ: 3

11. For film-screen imaging, increasing the mAs results in:

a. decreased recorded detail
b. increased recorded detail
c. decreased density
d. increased density
ANS: D
For film-screen systems, increasing the mAs increases the film density.

OBJ: 5

12. Which of the following has an effect on how much mAs is used for a specific examination?
a. generator type
b. pathologic conditions present
c. type of image receptor
d. all of the above
ANS: D
Many factors influence the amount of mAs selected for an examination, including generator
type, pathologic conditions, and the type of image receptor used.

OBJ: 5

13. The controlling factor for density when using a film-screen image receptor is:
a. SID
b. mAs
c. OID
d. image receptor type
ANS: B
Although many factors affect the amount of density on the film image, mAs are the
controlling factor manipulated to adjust the film density.

OBJ: 5
14. If a film image appears dark, to produce a diagnostic image you may decide to:
a. increase density
b. increase mAs
c. decrease mAs
d. A and B
ANS: C
To produce a lighter image, the density must be decreased by decreasing the mAs.

OBJ: 5

15. If a film image is too light to visualize the anatomy being imaged:
a. the optical densities are in the toe region of the sensitometric curve
b. the optical densities are in the straight-line region of the sensitometric curve
c. the optical densities are in the shoulder region of the sensitometric curve
d. none of the above
ANS: A
Appropriate densities (film) are in the straight-line portion of the curve and densities that are
too light are below that, in the toe region.

OBJ: 5

16. Generally, if a film image is dark the mAs should be:

a. halved
b. kept the same; adjust something else
c. doubled
d. none of the above
ANS: A
A good starting point for correcting exposure factors when a film image is dark is to half the
mAs.

OBJ: 6

17. If 400 mA @ 0.03 s produces a film image of a knee that is just a bit too light to see the bony
structure, the exposure factors should be changed to:
a. 200 mA @ 0.03 s
b. 200 mA @0.12 s
c. 400 mA @ 0.12 s
d. 400 mA @ 0.24 s
ANS: B
To improve this light image, the mAs must be doubled to 24 mAs (200 mA @ 0.12 s).
Increasing the mAs beyond 24 would be excessive.

OBJ: 6

18. If a film image has sufficient but not optimal density:

a. it should not be repeated
b. it should be repeated using 30% more or less mAs
 c. it should be repeated using twice or half the mAs
d. none of the above
ANS: A
An image with sufficient density, even if slightly light or dark, should not be repeated to
correct the density issue.

OBJ: 6

19. If a film image has to be repeated because of a positioning error, what should be done if the
density was just a little too much?
a. leave the mAs alone; it was sufficient for the first image
b. increase the mAs by 50%
c. decrease the mAs by 50%
d. decrease the mAs by 30%
ANS: D
When a film image is slightly dark, the image should not be repeated unless there is another
issue (such as poor position). If it is repeated because of another problem, the mAs should be
adjusted by approximately 30%.

OBJ: 6

20. How much of a change in mAs is the minimum required to see a visible change in density on
a film image?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
ANS: C
The mAs must be changed by a minimum of 30% to see a difference in density on a film
image.

OBJ: 6

21. If a film image has to be repeated because it is too dark or too light, the mAs must be changed
by a factor of at least:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 30
ANS: B
If a film image has to be repeated because it is too dark or too light, the mAs must be changed
by a factor of at least 2 (either doubled or halved).

OBJ: 6

22. With digital imaging, if the mAs is too high:

a. the image brightness will appear low (dark)
b. the image brightness will appear appropriate
 c. the image brightness will appear high (light)
d. none of the above
ANS: B
With digital imaging, overexposure will result in an image with appropriate brightness
because the computer will make the required adjustments.

OBJ: 5

23. With digital imaging, if the image receptor is not exposed to enough radiation:
a. the image brightness will appear low (dark)
b. the image brightness will appear appropriate
c. the image brightness will appear high (light)
d. none of the above
ANS: B
With digital imaging, underexposure will result in an image with appropriate brightness
because the computer will make the required adjustments.

OBJ: 5

24. With digital imaging, the relationship between mAs and image brightness is:
a. direct
b. direct proportional
c. inverse
d. none of the above
ANS: D
Generally speaking, there is no relationship between mAs and image brightness with a digital
image; the computer will adjust image brightness to an appropriate level regardless of the
mAs used.

OBJ: 5

25. Using 20 mAs on a knee image (digital IR) when only 8 mAs was needed to produce
sufficient remnant radiation results in:
a. a dark image
b. an image with appropriate brightness
c. unnecessary patient radiation dose
d. B and C
ANS: D
Using more than two times the mAs needed to produce an excellent digital image results in
appropriate brightness (due to computer adjustment) but a patient who has been overexposed
to radiation.

OBJ: 5

26. With digital imaging, overexposure of the IR and excessive dose to the patient can be:
a. easily determined by looking at the image brightness
b. hard to determine by looking at the image brightness
c. determined by checking the exposure indicator value
 d. B and C
ANS: D
Overexposure of the digital image is difficult to determine by evaluating image brightness but
monitoring exposure indicator values will help the radiographer reduce unnecessary patient
exposure.

OBJ: 5

27. With digital imaging, if the image receptor is not exposed to enough radiation:
a. the image brightness will appear high (light)
b. the image brightness will appear appropriate
c. quantum noise will be visible
d. B and C
ANS: D
Insufficient remnant radiation results in a digital image that has appropriate brightness
(resulting from computer adjustment) but has quantum noise.

OBJ: 5

28. Increasing the kVp:

a. increases the energy of the x-ray photons
b. increases the quantity of x-ray photons
c. increases the penetrating power of x-ray photons
d. all of the above
ANS: D
Increasing kVp produces more photons with greater energy (more penetrating).

OBJ: 7

29. When kVp is increased, exposure to the image receptor is increased with:
a. film-screen imaging
b. digital imaging
c. A and B
d. none of the above
ANS: C
When kVp is increased, the amount of remnant radiation goes up, increasing exposure to all
types of image receptors.

OBJ: 7

30. What type of relationship does kVp have with the density of a film image?
a. direct proportional
b. direct but not proportional
c. inverse proportional
d. inverse but not proportional
ANS: B
Although increasing kVp increases density (direct relationship), the effect changes (is not
proportional) throughout the range of kilovoltage used in diagnostic imaging.
 OBJ: 7

31. With digital imaging, if the kVp is too high:

a. the image brightness appears low (dark)
b. the image brightness appears appropriate
c. the image brightness appears high (light)
d. none of the above
ANS: B
With digital imaging, overexposure (whether caused by excessive mAs or kVp) results in an
image with appropriate brightness because the computer makes the required adjustments.

OBJ: 7

32. Too little remnant radiation caused by low kVp results in a digital image in which:
a. the image brightness appears high (light)
b. the image brightness appears appropriate
c. quantum noise is visible
d. B and C
ANS: D
Insufficient remnant radiation (caused by low mAs or kVp) results in a digital image that has
appropriate brightness (because of computer adjustment) but has quantum noise.

OBJ: 7

33. Kilovoltage is not usually used to adjust density with film-screen imaging because:
a. it has too great an effect on patient exposure
b. it is too difficult to determine how much it should be changed
c. it affects contrast as well as density
d. it affects recorded detail as well as density
ANS: C
Even though changing kVp has an effect on density, it is not usually used with film-screen
imaging to make density adjustments because it also affects the image contrast.

OBJ: 7

34. The relationship between kVp and the quantity of remnant radiation is known as the:
a. kVp-density rule
b. 15% rule
c. 115% rule
d. kVp-quantity rule
ANS: B
The 15% rule represents the relationship between kVp and the quantity of radiation reaching
the image receptor.

OBJ: 8

35. Increasing the kVp by 15% has the same effect as:
 a. increasing the mAs by 15%
b. doubling the mAs
c. decreasing the mAs by 15%
d. halving the mAs
ANS: B
Increasing the kVp by 15% has the same effect on the amount of radiation reaching the IR as
does doubling the mAs.

OBJ: 8

36. Which of the following exposure factors produces the same amount of remnant radiation as
does 20 mAs at 70 kVp?
a. 10 mAs @ 70 kVp
b. 10 mAs @ 80 kVp
c. 40 mAs @ 60 kVp
d. B and C
ANS: D
Fifteen percent of 70 kVp is approximately 10 kVp. Therefore using 10 mAs (one half of the
mAs) at 80 kVp and using 40 mAs (two times the mAs) at 60 kVp produces the same amount
of remnant radiation.

OBJ: 8

37. 100 kVp should be changed to __________ kVp to decrease the exposure to the IR by a factor
of 2.
a. 50
b. 85
c. 115
d. none of the above
ANS: B
To decrease the exposure to the IR by a factor of 2, the kVp must be reduced by 15%; 15% of
100 is 15, so 100 minus 15 is 85 kVp.

OBJ: 8

38. To maintain the same amount of radiation reaching the IR, if the kVp is increased by 15% the
mAs needs to:
a. remain the same
b. be doubled
c. be halved
d. be decreased by a minimum of 30%
ANS: C
Increasing the kVp by 15% doubles the radiation reaching the IR, so to maintain the original
amount of exit radiation, the mAs needs to be halved.

OBJ: 8

39. With film-screen imaging, changing from 60 kVp to 69 kVp results in an image:
 a. with twice the optical density
b. with four times the optical density
c. with 15% more optical density
d. with 50% more optical density
ANS: A
Increasing the kVp by 15% (9 kVp) results in twice the exposure to the IR and therefore twice
the density.

OBJ: 8

40. When the intensities of radiation exiting the patient are very similar, the resulting film image
has:
a. low contrast
b. high contrast
c. short-scale contrast
d. B and C
ANS: A
When the intensities of radiation exiting the patient are very similar, the resulting film image
has low contrast (many shades of gray).

OBJ: 7

41. When the intensities of radiation exiting the patient are very different from each other, the
resulting film image has:
a. low contrast
b. high contrast
c. short-scale contrast
d. B and C
ANS: D
Using a low kVp results in a greater variation of x-ray intensities exiting the patient,
producing a high or short-scale contrast image.

OBJ: 7

42. __________ kVp results in the intensities of radiation exiting the patient being very
____________.
a. Low; similar
b. Low; different
c. High; different
d. A and C
ANS: B
Low kVp results in the intensities of radiation exiting the patient being very different from
each other.

OBJ: 7

43. Low kVp produces ______________ radiographic contrast and high kVp produces
____________ radiographic contrast.
 a. higher; higher
b. lower; lower
c. lower; higher
d. higher; lower
ANS: D
Low kVp produces higher radiographic contrast and high kVp produces lower radiographic
contrast.

OBJ: 7

44. Low kVp produces ______________ radiographic contrast and high kVp produces
____________ radiographic contrast.
a. long-scale; long-scale
b. long-scale; short-scale
c. short-scale; long-scale
d. short-scale; short-scale
ANS: C
Low kVp produces short-scale (high) radiographic contrast and high kVp produces long-scale
(low) radiographic contrast.

OBJ: 7

45. To adjust the kVp to produce the desired contrast level, the kVp must first be:
a. as low as possible for radiation safety
b. as high as possible
c. high enough to penetrate the part
d. none of the above
ANS: C
To manipulate the kVp to change radiographic contrast, it first must be at a level high enough
to penetrate the anatomy.

OBJ: 7

46. If the original exposure factors are 20 mAs @ 70 kVp, which of the following factors produce
a film image with the same density but higher contrast?
a. 10 mAs @ 80 kVp
b. 10 mAs @ 70 kVp
c. 40 mAs @ 70 kVp
d. 40 mAs @60 kVp
ANS: D
Based on the 15% rule, decreasing the kVp by 15% (to create more contrast) and doubling the
mAs results in the same amount of radiation reaching the IR.

OBJ: 7

47. Using excessive kVp with a digital IR results in:

a. increased scatter reaching the IR
b. decreased image contrast after computer adjustment
 c. increased patient exposure
d. A and C
ANS: D
Using kVp that is too high results in more scatter reaching the IR as well as increased and
unnecessary patient exposure. The image contrast will be adjusted by the computer to an
appropriate level.

OBJ: 7

48. Standard radiographic x-ray tubes have small focal spots that measure approximately:
a. 0.5-0.6 mm
b. 0.6-1 mm
c. 1-1.2 mm
d. 0.5-1.2 mm
ANS: A
Standard radiographic x-ray tubes have small focal spots that measure approximately 0.5-0.6
mm.

OBJ: 9

49. Standard radiographic x-ray tubes have large focal spots that measure approximately:
a. 0.5-0.6 mm
b. 0.6-1 mm
c. 1-1.2 mm
d. 0.5-1.2 mm
ANS: C
Standard radiographic x-ray tubes have large focal spots that measure approximately 1-1.2
mm.

OBJ: 9

50. Focal spot size is determined by:

a. the amount of kVp
b. cathode filament size
c. cathode focusing cup size
d. all of the above
ANS: B
The size of the focal spot depends on the size of the cathode filament selected to be energized.

OBJ: 9

51. Focal spot size affects only:

a. density
b. contrast
c. recorded detail
d. noise
ANS: C
Focal spot size affects only recorded detail.
 OBJ: 9

52. The line-focus principle is used to produce the _______________ actual focal spot and
__________________ effective focal spot.
a. smallest; smallest
b. smallest; largest
c. largest; smallest
d. largest; smallest
ANS: C
The largest actual focal spot allows higher heat (and exposure), whereas the smallest effective
focal spot produces sharper recorded detail.

OBJ: 9

53. The inverse square law describes the relationship between _________ and __________.
a. kVp and density
b. mAs and density
c. distance and beam intensity
d. kVp and beam intensity
ANS: C
The inverse square law describes the relationship between distance and beam intensity.

OBJ: 10

54. What type of relationship does distance have with x-ray beam intensity?
a. direct proportional
b. direct but not proportional
c. inverse proportional
d. inverse but not proportional
ANS: C
Distance and beam intensity have an inverse proportional relationship (as the distance
increases the beam intensity decreases by a proportional amount).

OBJ: 10

55. Which of the following is the correct formula for the inverse square law?
a. I1/I2 = D1/D2
b. I1/I2 = D2/D1
c. I1/I2 = (D1)2/(D2)2
d. I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2
ANS: D
I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2 is the formula for the inverse square law, describing the relationship
between the intensity of radiation (I) and distance (D).

OBJ: 10

56. When the distance is increased from 20 inches to 60 inches, the beam intensity:
 a. increases
b. decreases
c. stay the same
d. decreases by a factor of 3
ANS: B
Increasing the distance from 20 to 60 inches results in lowered beam intensity but not by a
factor of 3.

OBJ: 10

57. When the distance is decreased from 72 inches SID to 40 inches SID, the radiation reaching
the measuring device:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stay the same
d. increases by a factor of 0.4
ANS: A
Reducing the distance results in greater exposure to the IR, but not by a factor of 0.4.

OBJ: 10

58. If the intensity of radiation at 36 inches is 480 mR, what is the intensity if the SID is increased
to 72 inches?
a. 360 mR
b. 240 mR
c. 120 mR
d. 60 m R
ANS: C
If the distance is increased by a factor of 2 (doubled), the beam intensity will be one fourth
(1/22) of the original.

OBJ: 10

59. If the intensity of radiation at 36 inches SID is 600 mR, what is the intensity if the distance is
increased to 60 inches SID?
a. 215.8 mR
b. 359.9 mR
c. 1000 mR
d. 1666.7 mR
ANS: A
Before actually calculating the answer, it is important to think through that increasing the
distance results in decreased intensity. Using the inverse square formula, I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2,
600/X = 602/ 362.

OBJ: 10

60. If the intensity of radiation at 72 inches is 225 mR, what is the intensity if the SID is
decreased to 40 inches?
 a. 69.4 mR
b. 125 mR
c. 405 mR
d. 728 mR
ANS: D
Before actually calculating the answer, it is important to think through that decreasing the
distance results in increased intensity. Using the inverse square formula, I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2,
225/X = 402/ 722.

OBJ: 10

61. To maintain the same exposure to the IR, if the SID is increased, the mAs must be:
a. decreased
b. increased
c. left the same
d. doubled
ANS: B
If the SID is increased, the beam intensity and radiation reaching the IR is decreased. To
maintain the original exposure to the IR, the mAs must be increased.

OBJ: 10

62. Which of the following is the correct formula for the mAs/distance compensation formula?
a. mAs1/mAs2 = SID1/SID2
b. mAs1/mAs2 = SID2/SID1
c. mAs1/mAs2 = (SID1)2/(SID2)2
d. mAs1/mAs2 = (SID2)2/(SID1)2
ANS: C
mAs1/mAs2 = (SID1)2/(SID2)2 is the formula for the mAs/distance compensation formula,
describing the relationship between the mAs and SID.

OBJ: 10

63. What type of relationship does mAs have with SID when the goal is to keep the exposure to
the IR constant?
a. direct proportional
b. direct but not proportional
c. inverse proportional
d. inverse but not proportional
ANS: A
SID and the mAs required to maintain exposure to the IR have a direct proportional
relationship (as the SID increases, the mAs required to maintain exposure to the IR increases
by a proportional amount).

OBJ: 10

64. The mAs/distance compensation formula describes the relationship between ________ and
__________.
 a. SID; mAs needed to compensate for changes in SID
b. SID; kVp needed to compensate for changes in SID
c. SID; exposure time needed to compensate for changes in SID
d. SID; milliamperage needed to compensate for changes in SID
ANS: A
The mAs/distance compensation formula describes the relationship between SID and mAs
needed to compensate for changes in SID.

OBJ: 10

65. When the SID is decreased from 72 inches SID to 40 inches SID, the radiation reaching the IR
____________, requiring a(n) _______________ in mAs to compensate.
a. increases; decrease
b. decreases; increase
c. increases; increase
d. decreases; decrease
ANS: A
When the SID is decreased from 72 inches SID to 40 inches SID, the radiation reaching the IR
increases, requiring a decrease in mAs to compensate.

OBJ: 10

66. When the SID is increased from 36 inches SID to 72 inches SID, the mAs must be
_____________ to maintain exposure to the IR.
a. decreased
b. increased
c. kept the same
d. increased by a factor of 2
ANS: B
When the SID is increased from 36 inches SID to 72 inches SID, the mAs must be increased
to maintain exposure to the IR (but not by a factor of 2).

OBJ: 10

67. If 12 mAs produce appropriate film density at 36 inches SID, how much mAs is needed at 72
inches SID to maintain that amount of film density?
a. 3 mAs
b. 6 mAs
c. 24 mAs
d. 48 mAs
ANS: D
If the SID is increased by a factor of 2 (doubled), the beam intensity will be one fourth (1/22)
of the original, requiring a 4 increase in mAs to maintain density.

OBJ: 10

68. If 32 mAs produce appropriate film density at 72 inches SID, how much mAs is needed at 36
inches SID to maintain that amount of film density?
 a. 8 mAs
b. 16 mAs
c. 64 mAs
d. 128 mAs
ANS: A
Decreasing the SID by a factor of 2 requires a decrease in mAs by a factor of 4 (22).

OBJ: 10

69. If 16 mAs produce appropriate film density at 72 inches SID, how much mAs is needed at 48
inches SID to maintain that amount of film density?
a. 7 mAs
b. 11 mAs
c. 24 mAs
d. 36 mAs
ANS: A
Before actually calculating the answer, it is important to think through that decreasing the SID
will require a decrease in mAs to maintain density. Using the mAs/distance compensation
formula, mAs1/mAs2 = (SID1)2/(SID2)2, 16/X = 722/ 482.

OBJ: 10

70. If 10 mAs produce appropriate film density at 40 inches SID, how much mAs is needed at 48
inches SID to maintain that amount of film density?
a. 7 mAs
b. 8 mAs
c. 12 mAs
d. 14 mAs
ANS: D
Before actually calculating the answer, it is important to think through that increasing the SID
will require an increase in mAs to maintain density. Using the mAs/distance compensation
formula, mAs1/mAs2 = (SID1)2/(SID2)2, 10/X = 402/ 482.

OBJ: 10

71. When a known mAs at 72 inches SID produces appropriate exposure to the IR, one half of the
mAs can be used at:
a. 40 inches SID
b. 48 inches SID
c. 56 inches SID
d. 60 inches SID
ANS: C
A useful tip is that changing from 72 inches SID to 56 inches SID can be compensated for by
reducing the mAs in half.

OBJ: 10
72. Doubling the mAs produces appropriate exposure to the IR when the SID is changed from 40
inches to:
a. 36 inches SID
b. 48 inches SID
c. 56 inches SID
d. 60 inches SID
ANS: C
A useful tip is that changing from 40 inches SID to 56 inches SID requires a doubling of the
original mAs to maintain exposure to the IR.

OBJ: 10

73. Changes in SID affect:

a. density (film) and beam intensity
b. contrast and recorded detail
c. recorded detail and beam intensity
d. A and C
ANS: D
Changes in SID affect beam intensity (inverse square law) as well as distortion and recorded
detail.

OBJ: 9

74. Using a higher SID:

a. increases magnification
b. decreases magnification
c. increases size distortion
d. none of the above
ANS: B
Using a higher SID decreases magnification (size distortion).

OBJ: 9

75. _________ SID is typically used to image the chest so that the heart is seen with minimal
magnification.
a. 30 inches
b. 40 inches
c. 72 inches
d. 90 inches
ANS: C
An SID of 72 inches is typically used with chest imaging to reduce magnification. An SID of
90 inches would further reduce magnification, but it is not a standard SID.

OBJ: 9

76. The distance between the object being imaged and the image receptor is the:
a. OID
b. SID
 c. MF
d. SOD
ANS: A
The OID is the distance between the object being imaged and the image receptor.

OBJ: 11

77. The distance between the x-ray focal spot and the image receptor is the:
a. OID
b. SID
c. MF
d. SOD
ANS: B
The SID is the distance between the x-ray focal spot (source of radiation) and the image
receptor.

OBJ: 11

78. The indication of how much magnification is seen on a radiograph is:

a. OID
b. SID
c. MF
d. SOD
ANS: C
The indication of how much magnification is seen on a radiograph is the magnification factor.

OBJ: 11

79. The distance between the x-ray focal spot and the object being imaged is the:
a. OID
b. SID
c. MF
d. SOD
ANS: D
The SOD distance between the x-ray focal spot (source of radiation) and the object being
imaged.

OBJ: 11

80. When OID cannot be reduced, it is possible to reduce size distortion by:
a. increasing mAs
b. increasing SID
c. using a small focal spot size
d. decreasing SID
ANS: B
An increase in SID can, to some extent, compensate for an increase in OID.

OBJ: 11
81. The only factor that affects exposure to the image receptor, size distortion, and image contrast
is:
a. SID
b. mAs
c. focal spot size
d. OID
ANS: D
OID is the only factor that affects exposure to the image receptor, size distortion, and image
contrast.

OBJ: 11

82. Which of the following is the formula to determine magnification factor?

a. MF = SID/OID
b. MF = SID/SOD
c. MF = SOD/SID
d. MF = OID/SID
ANS: B
The formula for magnification factor (MF) is MF = SOD/SID.

OBJ: 11

83. The formula to determine the SOD (source to object distance) is:
a. SOD = SID – OID
b. SOD = OID – SID
c. SOD = SID + OID
d. none of the above
ANS: A
The formula to calculate SOD is SOD = SID – OID.

OBJ: 11

84. When a patient cannot fully extend his or her leg for a knee image, resulting in the knee being
4 inches away from the image receptor, what is the MF if the SID is 40 inches?
a. 0.1
b. 0.9
c. 1.11
d. 10
ANS: C
The MF equals the SID (40) divided by the SOD (36). It is important to recall that it is
impossible to have a MF of less than 1.

OBJ: 11

85. If the magnification factor is 1.25, the image is ______________ than the object.
a. 25% smaller
b. 125% smaller
 c. 25% larger
d. 125% larger
ANS: C
A MF of 1.25 indicates that the image is 25% larger than the object. The image can never be
smaller than the object.

OBJ: 11

86. The formula that can be used to calculate the object size when the image size and MF are
known is:
a. object size = MF/image size
b. object size = image size/MF
c. object size = image size  MF
d. none of the above
ANS: B
The formula object size = image size/MF can be used to calculate image size, object size, or
magnification when two of the variables are known.

OBJ: 11

87. What is the size of the object when the MF is 1.3 and the image size is 3 cm?
a. 0.43 cm
b. 1.3 cm
c. 2.3 cm
d. 3.9 cm
ANS: C
Using the formula, object size = image size (3 cm)/MF (1.3).

OBJ: 11

88. Whenever magnification is increased:

a. recorded detail is decreased
b. recorded detail is increased
c. recorded detail stays the same
d. exposure to the image receptor increases
ANS: A
Increased magnification results in poorer recorded detail.

OBJ: 11

89. __________________ SID and ______________________ OID results in increased

magnification.
a. increased; increased
b. decreased; decreased
c. increased, decreased
d. decreased; increased
ANS: D
 Decreased SID and increased OID results in increased magnification.

OBJ: 11

90. The device used to absorb scatter radiation in the radiation leaving the patient before it
reaches the image receptor is the:
a. cassette
b. intensifying screen
c. grid
d. filter
ANS: C
The grid is the device used to absorb scatter radiation in the radiation, leaving the patient
before it reaches the image receptor.

OBJ: 12

91. Reducing the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR results in:
a. lower radiographic contrast
b. higher radiographic contrast
c. improved recorded detail
d. reduced recorded detail
ANS: B
Less scatter radiation reaching the IR results in higher (shorter-scale) radiographic contrast.

OBJ: 12

92. Using a grid to reduce scatter radiation reaching the film-screen IR results in:
a. shorter scale contrast and increased density
b. longer scale contrast and increased density
c. shorter scale contrast and decreased density
d. shorter scale contrast and increased density
ANS: C
By absorbing scatter radiation, using a grid results in a film image with less density (fewer
photons reach the IR) and shorter scale contrast (higher contrast).

OBJ: 12

93. Deciding to use a grid for a radiographic examination requires use of:
a. increased SID
b. decreased SID
c. increased mAs
d. decreased mAs
ANS: C
Adding a grid to a procedure, or increasing the grid ratio, requires additional mAs.

OBJ: 12
94. If a 12:1 ratio grid is used in a procedure that previously used no grid and 4 mAs, how much
mAs should be used with the grid?
a. 0.33 mAs
b. 1.25 mAs
c. 20 mAs
d. 48 mAs
ANS: C
Adding a 12:1 ratio grid requires five times the mAs (based on the grid conversion factor).
Adding a grid or increasing grid ratio always requires more mAs.

OBJ: 13

95. Which of the following is the correct formula to determine how mAs should be adjusted when
different ratio grids are used?
a. mAs1/mAs2 = grid conversion factor2/grid conversion factor1
b. mAs1/mAs2 = grid conversion factor1/grid conversion factor2
c. mAs1/mAs2 = (grid conversion factor2)2/(grid conversion factor1)2
d. mAs1/mAs2 = (grid conversion factor1)2/(grid conversion factor2)2
ANS: B
mAs1/mAs2 = grid conversion factor1/grid conversion factor2 is the formula used to adjust
mAs based on grid changes.

OBJ: 13

96. If 25 mAs produce a good-density film image when a 6:1 ratio grid is used, how much mAs
should be used with a 12:1 ratio grid?
a. 13 mAs
b. 15 mAs
c. 42 mAs
d. 50 mAs
ANS: C
Using the formula, mAs1(25)/mAs2 = grid conversion factor1(3)/ grid conversion factor2(5).

OBJ: 13

97. If 40 mAs produce a good density film image when a 12:1 ratio grid is used, how much mAs
should be used with a 5:1 ratio grid?
a. 6.7 mAs
b. 16 mAs
c. 96 mAs
d. 100 mAs
ANS: B
Using the formula, mAs1(40)/mAs2 = grid conversion factor1(5)/grid conversion factor2(2).

OBJ: 13

98. Increased collimation results in a film image with:

a. lower contrast and less density
 b. lower contrast and more density
c. higher contrast and less density
d. higher contrast and more density
ANS: C
Increasing collimation results in less scatter produced, leading to fewer photons reaching the
IR (less density) and higher contrast.

OBJ: 12

99. If 8 mAs produces an appropriate exposure to the IR with a single-phase generator, a

three-phase generator should:
a. use higher mAs
b. use lower mAs
c. keep the mAs the same
d. none of the above
ANS: B
Because a three-phase generator produces radiation more efficiently, less mAs is required.

OBJ: 13

100. Increasing tube filtration:

a. increases the beam energy
b. decreases radiographic contrast
c. A and B
d. none of the above
ANS: C
Although the effect is minimal, increased tube filtration results in a beam with higher energy
photons, producing a lower-contrast image.

OBJ: 13

101. A compensating filter:

a. is used for specific anatomic areas
b. produces a more uniform exposure to the IR
c. requires an increase in mAs
d. all of the above
ANS: D
The purpose of a compensating filter is to produce a more uniform exposure to the IR for
specific anatomy that has both thick and thin parts. This requires additional mAs and therefore
additional patient exposure.

OBJ: 13

102. Which type of body habitus is the thickest, requiring higher exposure factors?
a. asthenic
b. hypersthenic
c. sthenic
d. hyposthenic
 ANS: B
The hypersthenic patient is the thickest, requiring an increase in exposure factors.

OBJ: 14

103. Which type of body habitus is the thinnest, requiring a reduction in exposure factors?
a. asthenic
b. hypersthenic
c. sthenic
d. hyposthenic
ANS: A
The asthenic patient is the thinnest, requiring a decrease in exposure factors.

OBJ: 14

104. The ________________ body habitus accounts for approximately 50% of the adult
population.
a. asthenic
b. hypersthenic
c. sthenic
d. hyposthenic
ANS: C
The sthenic body habitus accounts for approximately 50% of the adult population.

OBJ: 14

105. Typically, every increase in the thickness of the part being imaged of 4-5 cm requires the
mAs:
a. to be halved
b. to be doubled
c. to be increased by 4%-5%
d. to be decreased by 4%-5%
ANS: B
A thicker body part requires more radiation to produce the same exit radiation. The mAs
should be doubled for every 4-5 cm increase in thickness.

OBJ: 14

106. If a small adult’s 24-cm thick abdomen requires 20 mAs to produce the appropriate level of
radiation reaching the IR, how much mAs should be used with a larger patient whose
abdomen measures 32 cm?
a. 5 mAs
b. 20 mAs
c. 40 mAs
d. 80 mAs
ANS: D
For every 4-5 cm the mAs needs to be doubled, so if the patient measures 28 cm, then 40 mAs
is needed. Adding another 4 cm of thickness (to get to 32 cm) requires a doubling of 40 mAs.
 OBJ: 14

107. Which of the following results in increased scatter radiation reaching the IR?
a. imaging a thicker body part
b. using a lower kVp
c. decreasing collimation
d. A and C
ANS: D
Opening up the x-ray beam field size (decreasing collimation) and imaging a thicker body part
increases the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR.

OBJ: 14

108. Imaging a thicker body part will result in a film image with:
a. lower contrast and less density
b. lower contrast and more density
c. higher contrast and less density
d. higher contrast and more density
ANS: A
A thicker body part will absorb more radiation (resulting is less density) and produce more
scatter radiation (lower contrast).

OBJ: 14

109. Pediatric chest imaging requires:

a. high mAs
b. high kVp
c. long exposure times
d. short exposure times
ANS: D
To stop the motion of the diaphragm, a very short exposure time is needed with pediatric
patients who may not be able to hold their breath.

OBJ: 14

110. For most pediatric examinations, it is recommended that the kVp:

a. be reduced by 15%
b. be increased by 15%
c. be reduced by 50%
d. be increased by 50%
ANS: A
For most pediatric examinations it is recommended that the kVp be reduced by 15%.

OBJ: 14

111. Assuming that all of these produce a similar amount of exit radiation, which of the following
exposure factors minimize the radiation dose to the patient?
 a. 5 mAs @ 80 kVp
b. 10 mAs @ 70 kVp
c. 20 mAs @ 60 kVp
d. none of the above
ANS: A
Exposure factors with higher kVp and lower mAs reduce radiation exposure to the patient

OBJ: 15

112. Which of the following statements is true regarding practices to minimize patient exposure?
a. The beam should be open as large as the image receptor being used.
b. Grids should be used as much as possible to improve contrast.
c. Film-screen speed selection should balance exposure and the level of recorded
detail needed for the examination
d. none of the above
ANS: C
To minimize radiation exposure, the beam should be restricted as much as possible and the
grid used only when needed.

OBJ: 15

113. Technique charts typically include information regarding:

a. mAs
b. kVp
c. SID
d. all of the above
ANS: D
Technique charts include information regarding mAs, kVp, SID, grid, and type of IR.

OBJ: 16

114. When using a technique chart, decisions about exposure factors are made based on the
patient’s or part’s:
a. age
b. gender
c. thickness
d. none of the above
ANS: C
The first step in using a technique chart is to measure the thickness of the part being imaged.

OBJ: 16

115. A technique chart should be established for:

a. each radiographic room, even if there is more than one tube
b. each radiology department, even when there are multiple rooms
c. each x-ray tube, even if there is more than one tube per generator
d. none of the above
ANS: C
 To be most effective, each tube (both fixed and mobile) should have its own technique chart.

OBJ: 16

116. The device used to measure part thickness is the:

a. tape measure
b. ruler
c. thickness strip
d. caliper
ANS: D
The caliper is the device used to measure part thickness.

OBJ: 16

117. A common mistake made when using technique charts is:

a. looking up the wrong anatomic part
b. inaccurate measurement of the part
c. switching the mAs and kVp values
d. forgetting to notice the SID
ANS: B
Failing to accurately measure the part is a common mistake when using a technique chart.

OBJ: 16

118. The variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart adjusts ______ as the part thickness changes and
the ______ remains constant.
a. kVp; kVp
b. mAs; mAs
c. mAs; kVp
d. kVp; mAs
ANS: D
The variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart adjusts kVp as the part thickness changes and
the mAs remains constant.

OBJ: 16

119. When using a variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart, the kVp is increased by 2 for every
__________ increase in part thickness.
a. 1 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 8 cm
ANS: A
When using a variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart, the kVp is increased by 2 for every 1
cm increase in part thickness.

OBJ: 16
120. If the variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart indicates that an abdomen measuring 26 cm
requires 24 mAs @ 70 kVp, what exposure factors should you use for a 30 cm thick
abdomen?
a. 24 mAs @ 74 kVp
b. 24 mAs @ 78 kVp
c. 28 mAs @ 74 kVp
d. 28 mAs @ 78 kVp
ANS: B
The variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart requires that the mAs remain constant (24) and
the kVp increase by 2 for every cm of thickness difference. In this case, the part is 4 cm
thicker, requiring an 8-kVp increase.

OBJ: 16

121. A variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart is most effective when used for:
a. large parts
b. small parts
c. both small and large parts
d. it has never been effective
ANS: B
A variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart is most effective when used for small parts such as
extremities.

OBJ: 16

122. A disadvantage of the variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart is:

a. it is very expensive to create
b. it is very difficult to formulate
c. that varying the kVp affects contrast as well as density
d. that varying the mAs affects contrast as well as density
ANS: C
A disadvantage of the variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart is that varying the kVp affects
contrast as well as density.

OBJ: 16

123. The fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart adjusts ______ as the part thickness changes and
the ______ remains constant.
a. kVp; kVp
b. mAs; mAs
c. mAs; kVp
d. kVp; mAs
ANS: C
The fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart adjusts mAs as the part thickness changes and
the kVp remains constant.

OBJ: 16
124. For every anatomic area the fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart uses an:
a. optimal mAs
b. optimal kVp
c. A and B
d. none of the above
ANS: B
For every anatomic area the fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart uses an optimal kVp.

OBJ: 16

125. The optimal kVp for digital image receptors should be _________ than that for film-screen
image receptors.
a. higher
b. lower
c. the same as
d. two times
ANS: A
In that the digital system can adjust image contrast after exposure, using a higher kVp allows
use of lower mAs while the contrast remains appropriate.

OBJ: 16

126. When using a fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart, the mAs is increased by a factor of 2
for every __________ increase in part thickness.
a. 1 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 8 cm
ANS: C
When using a fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart, the mAs is increased by a factor of 2
for every 4- to 5-cm increase in part thickness.

OBJ: 16

127. If a fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart indicates that an abdomen measuring 26 cm
requires 18 mAs @ 75 kVp, what exposure factors should be used for a 30-cm thick
abdomen?
a. 18 mAs @ 85 kVp
b. 22 mAs @ 75 kVp
c. 36 mAs @ 75 kVp
d. 36 mAs @ 83 kVp
ANS: C
The fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart requires that the kVp remain constant (75) and
the mAs double for every increase of 4-5 cm of thickness. In this case, the part is 4 cm
thicker, requiring two times 18 or 36 mAs.

OBJ: 16
128. An advantage to the fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart is:
a. image contrast remains constant
b. patient groups can be formed around 4-5 cm thickness changes
c. accurate part measurement is important but not critical
d. all of the above
ANS: D
There are many advantages to using a fixed kVp–variable mAs technique chart.

OBJ: 16

129. A child’s knee measures the same thickness as an adult’s elbow, and the elbow was imaged
well using 4 mAs @ 60 kVp. Based on the concept of comparative anatomy:
a. 2 mAs @ 60 kVp should work for the child’s knee
b. 4 mAs @ 60 kVp should work for the child’s knee
c. 2 mAs @ 50 kVp should work for the child’s knee
d. none of the above
ANS: B
If both parts measure the same thickness and the kVp is sufficient for penetration, the same
mAs and kVp should work for both examinations.

OBJ: 16

130. A lateral ankle position requires less exposure than an AP ankle projection because:
a. all lateral positions require less exposure
b. all lateral positions require more exposure
c. part thickness is greater from front to back
d. part thickness is greater from side to side
ANS: C
Because the ankle is thicker from front to back than from side to side, less exposure is needed
for the lateral ankle position.

OBJ: 17

131. Casts made of fiberglass require _________________ in exposure factors as compared with
not having a cast.
a. an increase
b. a decrease
c. no change
d. doubling
ANS: C
Typically, the same exposure factors can be used with a fiberglass cast that would be used
without a cast.

OBJ: 17

132. Casts made of plaster require _________________ of exposure factors as compared with not
having a cast.
a. an increase
 b. a decrease
c. no change
d. halving
ANS: A
When compared with the exposure needed for a part without a cast, adding a plaster casts
require additional exposure.

OBJ: 17

133. Diseases that increase the absorption characteristics of the part are:
a. destructive diseases
b. subtractive diseases
c. additive diseases
d. multiplicative diseases
ANS: C
Additive diseases increase the absorption characteristics of the part, for example pneumonia.

OBJ: 17

134. Diseases that decrease the absorption characteristics of the part are:
a. destructive diseases
b. subtractive diseases
c. additive diseases
d. multiplicative diseases
ANS: A
Destructive diseases decrease the absorption characteristics of the part, for example
emphysema.

OBJ: 17

135. Typically kVp is ________________ for additive diseases and ____________ for destructive
diseases.
a. increased; increased
b. increased; decreased
c. decreased; decreased
d. decreased; increased
ANS: B
Typically, kVp is increased for additive diseases and decreased for destructive diseases.

OBJ: 17

136. To visualize soft tissue structures with digital imaging, the standard exposure factors should
be:
a. increased
b. decreased
c. left the same
d. doubled
ANS: C
 In that the contrast and brightness can be adjusted by the computer, there is no reason to
adjust exposure factors to demonstrate soft-tissue.

OBJ: 17

137. To visualize soft tissue structures with film-screen imaging, the standard mAs should be:
a. increased
b. decreased
c. left the same
d. doubled
ANS: B
To visualize soft tissue structures it is necessary to reduce the film image density, requiring a
reduction in mAs.

OBJ: 17

138. Air is considered a:

a. positive contrast agent
b. neutral contrast agent
c. negative contrast agent
d. B and C
ANS: C
Air is a negative contrast agent.

OBJ: 17

139. Barium sulfate is considered a:

a. positive contrast agent
b. neutral contrast agent
c. negative contrast agent
d. B and C
ANS: A
Barium sulfate is a positive contrast agent.

OBJ: 17

140. A positive contrast agent:

a. absorbs more radiation than surrounding tissue
b. absorbs less radiation than surrounding tissue
c. has less density/more brightness than surrounding tissue
d. A and C
ANS: D
A positive contrast agent has a high atomic number and absorbs more radiation than
surrounding tissue. This results in fewer photons reaching the IR, producing less density or
more brightness.

OBJ: 17
TRUE/FALSE

1. As compared with film-screen, digital image receptors depend more on mAs.

A. True
B. False

ANS: F
The amount of mAs used is not as critical for digital image receptors as it is for film-screen.

OBJ: 5

2. mAs and kVp both affect the density and contrast of a film image.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Although kVp affects both density and contrast, mAs affect only density.

OBJ: 7

3. Increasing kVp has a greater effect on the quality of a film-screen image than on a digital
image.
A. True
B. False

ANS: T
Increasing kVp results in obvious changes in density and contrast with film imaging, but
digital image quality changes are less obvious because the computer can make adjustments.

OBJ: 7

4. To produce the same change in film density, it is necessary to have a smaller change in kVp
when operating at the 100-kVp level.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
To produce the same change in film density, it is necessary to have a greater change in kVp
when operating at the 100-kVp level.

OBJ: 7

5. Higher kVp results in less absorption and more variation in the intensities exiting the patient.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Higher kVp results in less absorption and less variation in the intensities exiting the patient.

OBJ: 7
 6. More scatter radiation exits the patient when using higher kilovoltage.
A. True
B. False

ANS: T
More Compton interactions producing scatter radiation that exits the patient occur when using
higher kilovoltage.

OBJ: 7

7. At higher levels, kVp always decreases radiographic contrast.

A. True
B. False

ANS: T
At higher levels, kVp does always decrease radiographic contrast.

OBJ: 7

8. Exposure factors that include higher kVp and lower mAs are recommended for both film and
digital imaging to reduce patient exposure.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Higher kVp and lower mAs exposure factors are primarily recommended for digital imaging
because the computer can adjust the contrast.

OBJ: 7

9. The small focal spot should be used with every examination to produce the best recorded
detail.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Although the small focal spot size should be used whenever possible, there are examinations
that require exposures so high (lateral lumbar spine for example) that the small cathode
filament and focal spot cannot handle the heat and the large filament and focal spot must be
used.

OBJ: 9

10. As the SID increases, the x-ray photons in the beam become less perpendicular to the object
being imaged.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
 As the SID increases the x-ray photons in the beam become more perpendicular to the object
being imaged, decreasing size distortion.

OBJ: 9

11. A magnification of factor of 1 cannot be achieved with radiographic imaging.

A. True
B. False

ANS: T
A MF of 1 indicates there is absolutely no magnification, a situation that is not possible with
radiographic imaging.

OBJ: 11

12. Shape distortion is only due to misalignment of the tube or part.

A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Shape distortion is due to misalignment of the tube, part, or image receptor.

OBJ: 9

13. Tube angulation may result in elongation and reduced exposure to the IR.
A. True
B. False

ANS: T
Tube angulation may result in elongation (shape distortion) and reduced exposure to the IR if
the SID is not adjusted.

OBJ: 11

14. The higher the grid ratio, the less efficient the grid is at absorbing scatter radiation.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
The higher the grid ratio, the more efficient the grid is at absorbing scatter radiation.

OBJ: 12

15. Increasing collimation means decreasing the x-ray field size.

A. True
B. False

ANS: T
Increased collimation can also be said as decreased field size.

OBJ: 12
16. Increased beam restriction means decreased collimation.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Increasing beam restriction is the same as increased collimation (resulting in a smaller field
size).

OBJ: 12

17. A radiograph of a part having different tissue types (such as bone and air) has lower contrast
than that of a part with similar tissue types (such as liver and stomach).
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Images of anatomy that includes different tissue types have higher contrast.

OBJ: 14

18. With digital imaging, it is impossible to overexpose the patient to radiation because the
computer makes adjustments to the image.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Overexposure with digital imaging is a real issue; overexposing the IR may result in an image
with appropriate brightness (because of computer adjustment), but the patient has received an
unnecessary radiation dose.

OBJ: 15

19. Exposure technique charts are important for film-screen imaging, but don’t really matter for
digital because the computer will adjust the image.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Exposure technique charts are very useful and help reduce patient exposure for both
film-screen and digital imaging systems.

OBJ: 16

20. The primary purpose of using technique charts is to produce consistent quality radiographs.
A. True
B. False

ANS: T
Production of consistent quality images is the goal of using a technique chart.
 OBJ: 16

21. Using a technique chart can significantly reduce patient exposure.

A. True
B. False

ANS: T
Using a technique chart can reduce repeat images as well as promote exposure factors that
result in reduced patient dose.

OBJ: 16

22. When a good technique chart is available, the radiographer doesn’t even have to think about
what exposure factors to set.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Technique charts are a starting point for setting exposure; adjustments may need to be made
for a variety of reasons and it is the radiographer must use critical thinking skills.

OBJ: 16

23. Because the technique chart determines image quality, there is no need to establish
department standards for image quality prior to creating a technique chart.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
Determining department standards of quality and procedural consistency needs to be done
before the technique chart is created.

OBJ: 16

24. The baseline kVp for a variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart has been set since shortly
after Roentgen’s discovery.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
The baseline kVp for a variable kVp–fixed mAs technique chart has never been standardized.

OBJ: 16

25. To create a technique chart, patients of all different sizes need to be imaged with different
exposure factors until optimal radiographs are produced.
A. True
B. False

ANS: F
It would be unethical to experiment on patients to determine optimal techniques. Instead
radiographic phantoms should be used.

OBJ: 16