Health Psychology A Biopsychosocial

Approach 4th Edition Straub Test Bank

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1. Health behaviors are:
A) health-compromising behaviors or habits.
B) health-enhancing behaviors or habits.
C) loss-framed health messages.
D) gain-framed health messages.

2. The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance project identified each of the following
health-risk behaviors as putting young people at risk for premature death and illness
EXCEPT:
A) not using proven medical methods for diagnosing disease early.
B) abusing alcohol or other drugs.
C) engaging in violent behavior.
D) irregular sleep habits.

3. The major finding of the Alameda Health Study was that:

A) men who regularly practiced seven health habits had lower mortality rates than
those who practiced few or none of these health habits.
B) people who become too obsessive in their health behaviors have higher morbidity
rates than their more moderate counterparts.
C) people who become too obsessive in their health behaviors have higher mortality
rates than their more moderate counterparts.
D) None of these answers is true.

4. According to the health belief model, a man who believes that cancer is a fatal illness,
that no good treatment exists for it, and who lives in a community with a relatively low
cancer rate will take what action when he finds a lump in his testicle?
A) immediately make an appointment with his doctor
B) probably not seek treatment
C) call a friend for advice
D) It is impossible to predict what he will do.

5. Which theory emphasizes the importance of perceived susceptibility to a health threat,

perceived severity of the threat, and perceived benefits of treatment?
A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) prototype/willingness theory
D) transtheoretical model

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 6. Educational interventions aimed at changing health beliefs:
A) have not proven to be very successful.
B) are more effective when aimed at people with high socioeconomic status.
C) are more effective with women than with men.
D) are effective in increasing health-protective behaviors.

7. One shortcoming of the health belief model is that it:

A) ignores the importance of perceived barriers to being able to practice a health
behavior.
B) does not take into account advice from friends and other cues to action.
C) does not take into account the perceived benefits and barriers of treatment.
D) has not been widely tested in research studies.

8. According to the theory of planned behavior, the best way to predict whether a health
behavior will occur is to measure a person's:
A) subjective norm.
B) perceived behavioral control.
C) behavioral intention.
D) past behavior.

9. Living in the fraternity house, Carl finds it hard to eat a low-fat diet because his
housemates think such a diet is unmanly. According to the theory of planned behavior,
Carl's interpretation of his fraternity brothers' views and his failure to eat what he knows
is a healthier diet is being influenced by:
A) perceived benefits.
B) feelings of invulnerability.
C) behavioral willingness.
D) the subjective norm.

10. Research on the relationship between attitudes and behavior has shown:
A) no connection between the two.
B) a connection between attitudes and behavior.
C) that people do not always do what they say they intend to do.
D) that attitudes are more likely to predict behavior when they are based on direct
experience.

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11. Which theory of health behavior emphasizes the importance of perceived behavioral
control in attitude formation and behavior change?
A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) precede/proceed model
D) transtheoretical model

12. Which theory of health behavior has the practical advantage of allowing health
psychologists to match an intervention to the specific needs of each person?
A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) transtheoretical model
D) All of the answers are correct.

13. Which theory contends that people pass through stages of precontemplation,
contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance in altering health-related
behaviors?
A) health belief model
B) precede/proceed model
C) theory of planned behavior
D) transtheoretical model

14. Primary prevention refers to measures designed to:

A) prevent illness from developing.
B) manage symptoms of illness that have already begun to occur.
C) minimize the damage of a chronic disease.
D) identify an illness early in its course.

15. Wearing a seat belt is to _______________ prevention as taking chemotherapy to treat a

cancerous tumor is to _______________ prevention.
A) primary; tertiary
B) primary; secondary
C) secondary; tertiary
D) tertiary; secondary

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16. Because he has high blood pressure, Jake watches his diet and takes anti-hypertension
medication. These behaviors are examples of _______________ prevention.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) All of these are examples.

17. Which of the following is NOT true regarding tertiary prevention?

A) It is more cost-effective than primary prevention.
B) It is less beneficial than secondary prevention.
C) It is the most common form of health care.
D) Medical schools traditionally have focused on teaching it.

18. Morbidity refers to a state of being:

A) disabled.
B) ill.
C) in pain.
D) disabled, ill, or in pain.

19. Dr. Renton advocates for public policies that promote equity in access to quality health
care and other social services. Dr. Renton is most likely a:
A) social worker.
B) clinical psychologist.
C) community health psychologist.
D) physician's assistant.

20. The adult offspring of problem drinkers are:

A) themselves at increased risk of abusing alcohol.
B) at no greater risk of abusing alcohol than children whose parents do not abuse
alcohol.
C) seemingly unaffected by alcohol's gradient of reinforcement.
D) have a lower threshold for intoxication than others.

21. Which of the following family variables has NOT been linked with risky health-related
behaviors among adolescents?
A) parental conflict
B) absence of parental supervision
C) parental drug and alcohol use
D) single parenthood

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22. Which of the following is NOT true of people who do not have health insurance
(compared with those who do)?
A) They receive about one-half the medical care.
B) They are likely to die at a younger age.
C) They are more likely to be diagnosed at later stages of illness.
D) They are more often women than men.

23. Most people in the United States who do not have health insurance:
A) come from families living below the federal poverty level.
B) come from working families with incomes above the federal poverty level.
C) are elderly, retired adults.
D) can afford to buy insurance, but choose not to.

24. Binge drinking is associated with several social risk factors, including:
A) being a college student.
B) maturing out.
C) having a large number of siblings.
D) low socioeconomic status.

25. Maturing out refers to the:

A) decline in heavy drinking among college students as they grow older.
B) tendency of younger adolescents to imitate the health behaviors of older, admired
peers.
C) new trend of highly stressed workers electing to take early retirement.
D) decline in the rate of accidental injuries as children grow older.

26. The most widely used health education model is the:

A) health belief model.
B) theory of planned behavior.
C) transtheoretical model.
D) precede/proceed model.

27. Community-based interventions:

A) work best when they are multifaceted rather than single-shot campaigns.
B) are generally less effective than interventions aimed at the individual.
C) are difficult to promote due to a lack of evidence linking rates of mortality and
morbidity to social conditions such as poverty.
D) are on the decline due to economic issues.

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28. A health message that focuses on a negative outcome from failing to perform a
health-promoting behavior is a(n) _______________ message.
A) gain-framed
B) loss-framed
C) approach-oriented
D) avoidance-oriented

29. Tailored messaging refers to health messages that are:

A) designed according to individual characteristics of participants.
B) approach-oriented rather than avoidance-oriented.
C) avoidance-oriented rather than approach-oriented.
D) designed as “one size fits all” communications.

30. Loss-framed messages are particularly effective with people who are:
A) avoidance oriented.
B) approach oriented.
C) young.
D) old.

31. Dennis has just heard a public service message on the hazards of smoking. Dennis is
most likely to quit smoking as the result of this campaign if he:
A) has been smoking for a long time.
B) has tried to quit several times in the past.
C) believes that he can perform those behaviors necessary to quitting.
D) has been smoking only a short time.

32. Which of the following is true about fear appeals?

A) Greater levels of fear promote greater attitude change.
B) High levels of fear can actually backfire and lead to less adherence.
C) Fear appeals are most effective in changing the attitudes of people who perceive
low self-efficacy for the behavior in question.
D) Fear appeals are more effective with men than with women.

33. Loss-framed messages are particularly effective in promoting _______________

behaviors, whereas gain-framed messages are particularly effective in promoting
_______________ behaviors.
A) detection; prevention
B) prevention; detection
C) health screening; compliance
D) compliance; health screening

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34. Which type of intervention focuses on the conditions that elicit health behaviors and the
factors that help to maintain and reinforce them?
A) Cognitive interventions
B) Self-monitoring interventions
C) Aversion therapy
D) Cognitive-behavioral interventions

35. Kendra wants to cut down on the number of soft drinks in her diet. Her plan begins with
a week of careful recordkeeping in which she counts the number of soft drinks she
consumes each day. This is an example of:
A) operant reinforcement.
B) stimulus control.
C) self-monitoring.
D) aversion therapy.

36. The intervention in which an unpleasant outcome is associated with a stimulus that
currently triggers an unwanted behavior is called:
A) stimulus-control.
B) aversion therapy.
C) systematic desensitization.
D) negative reinforcement.

37. Using the drug Antabuse to treat unhealthy patterns of alcohol consumption is an
intervention that relies on principles of:
A) stimulus control.
B) operant conditioning.
C) classical conditioning.
D) self-monitoring.

38. Many health behaviors are voluntary, and would be classified as:
A) operant behaviors.
B) respondent behaviors.
C) Pavlovian behaviors.
D) discriminative behaviors.

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39. A pleasant stimulus or event that increases the frequency of the health behavior that it
follows is a(n):
A) conditioned stimulus.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) positive reinforcer.
D) negative reinforcer.

40. An unpleasant stimulus that, when removed following a health behavior, increases the
likelihood of the behavior in the future is a(n):
A) conditioned stimulus.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) positive reinforcer.
D) negative reinforcer.

41. Discriminative stimuli are:

A) environmental signals that certain behaviors will be followed by reinforcement.
B) voluntary behaviors that “operate” on the environment.
C) delayed events that acquire reinforcing power by association.
D) the events that immediately follow operant behaviors.

42. Marsha, a nurse, runs two miles every day after work because it reduces her level of
stress. Marsha's running habit is maintained by __________ reinforcement.
A) positive
B) negative
C) conditioned
D) partial

43. Learning that occurs by observing others is called:

A) modeling.
B) a token economy.
C) classical conditioning.
D) contingency contracting.

44. Token economies and modeling are widely used types of:
A) counterconditioning.
B) respondent conditioning.
C) Pavlovian conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.

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45. After an especially stressful day at work, Connie isn't interested in talking to her family
and just wants to be by herself. Connie's behavior is an example of:
A) an interaction effect.
B) social withdrawal.
C) negative emotion spillover.
D) avoidance.

46. After getting into an argument at work, Jack becomes impatient with his son's behavior
at the dinner table. Jack's behavior is an example of:
A) an interaction effect.
B) social withdrawal.
C) negative emotion spillover.
D) avoidance.

47. Negative emotion spillover and social withdrawal are examples of:
A) interaction effects.
B) main effects.
C) allostasis.
D) crossover effects.

48. The safety triad refers to a work culture that pays attention to:
A) individual and group performance.
B) equipment, management systems, and workplace design.
C) biology, cognition, and experience.
D) the person, the environment, and behavior.

49. The positive psychology movement:

A) is a strength-based, preventive approach to health behavior research and
interventions.
B) is not endorsed by the American Psychological Association.
C) maintains that adversity only rarely yield benefits.
D) emphasizes tertiary prevention.

50. Anabolism is to catabolism as:

A) bodybuilding activities are to activities that break down the body.
B) activities that break down the body are to bodybuilding activities.
C) immunosuppression is to immune enhancement.
D) immune enhancement is to immunosuppression.

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51. Despite growing up in poverty and a childhood characterized by extreme adversity,
Rosa has lived an exceptional life filled with success and well-being in every domain.
Rosa exemplifies the outcome called:
A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) allostatic load.
D) thriving.

52. Which term refers to the body's ability to adapt to stress and other elements of rapidly
changing environments?
A) Anabolism
B) Catabolism
C) Allostasis
D) Resilience

53. Which of the following is NOT true of catabolic reactions?

A) They are characterized by the release of catecholamines.
B) They break down tissues to be converted to energy.
C) They are characterized by the release of cortisol and other “fight-or-flight”
hormones.
D) They build the body.

54. Anabolic reactions involve activities that:

A) break down the body.
B) build the body.
C) help the body quickly mobilize energy.
D) promote arousal.

55. Which type of metabolism counters arousal and promotes relaxation and healing
processes such as protein synthesis?
A) Anabolic
B) Catabolic
C) Allostatic
D) Sympathetic

56. The hippocampus has large concentrations of receptors for:

A) IGF-1.
B) cortisol.
C) growth hormone.
D) sex hormones.

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57. Which of the following is not an anabolic hormone?
A) Cortisol
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) growth hormone
D) sex steroids

58. Prolonged elevations of catabolic hormones:

A) strengthen the body's immune response.
B) lead to faster recovery from illness.
C) damage the body and promote chronic illness.
D) are found in people who rely primarily on emotion-focused coping.

59. One measure of physical thriving is:

A) a predominance of catabolic activity at rest.
B) a predominance of anabolic activity at rest.
C) a fluid allostatic system that flexibly shifts from light to low levels of arousal.
D) high levels of cortisol, despite ongoing stress.

60. The state called allostatic overload is characterized by:

A) a predominance of catabolic activity at rest.
B) a predominance of anabolic activity at rest.
C) a fluid allostatic system that flexibly shifts from light to low levels of arousal.
D) low resting levels of serum cortisol.

61. The capacity of the brain and body to withstand challenges to homeostasis is called:
A) allostatic load.
B) resilience.
C) biological embedding.
D) eustress.

62. Animal research studies have shown that chronic stress leads to a dramatic shrinkage
and loss of connectivity among neurons in one area of the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) amygdala.
C) temporal lobe.
D) parietal lobe.

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63. The process by which the functioning of the brain is shaped by feedback from
neuroendocrine systems working to maintain homeostasis is:
A) allostaic load.
B) physical thriving.
C) biological embedding.
D) methylation.

64. People who tend toward self-enhancement:

A) see themselves more negatively than others see them.
B) tend to be maladjusted.
C) struggle in environments that are changing or threatening.
D) tend to be healthy.

65. Self-efficacy refers to:

A) the belief that one is unable to successfully perform a health behavior.
B) the belief that one is able to successfully perform a health behavior.
C) a preoccupation with thinking that things are likely to go wrong.
D) emotional instability.

66. Lower cortisol levels and stronger immune systems are found in people who:
A) score low in measures of self-efficacy.
B) score high in measures of neuroticism.
C) have a strong sense of control in their lives.
D) have a weak sense of mastery in their lives.

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Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. A
42. B
43. A
44. D

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45. B
46. C
47. D
48. D
49. A
50. A
51. D
52. C
53. D
54. B
55. A
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. C
60. A
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. C

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