NEET 2023 Manipur

NEET 2023 Exam Paper - Manipur
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Physics - Section A
5. A lens is made up of 3 different transparent
media as shown in the figure. A point object O
1. The variation of susceptibility (χ) with is placed on its axis beyond 2f. How many real
absolute temperature (T ) for a paramagnetic images will be obtained on the other side?
material is represented as:
1. 2.
1. 2
2. 1
3. No image will be formed
4. 3
3. 4.
6. The diameter of a spherical bob, when
measured with vernier callipers yielded the
values: 3.33 cm, 3.32 cm, 3.34 cm, 3.33 cm and
3.32 cm. The mean diameter to appropriate
significant figures is:
1. 3.328 cm
2. A bullet of mass m hits a block of mass M 2. 3.3 cm
elastically. The transfer of energy is the 3. 3.33 cm
maximum, when: 4. 3.32 cm
1. M = m
2. M = 2m
3. M << m 7. On the basis of electrical conductivity, which

4. M >> m one of the following material has the smallest
resistivity?
3. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 1. Germanium
−13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize 2. Silver
hydrogen atom from its second excited state 3. Glass
will be: 4. Silicon
1. 13.6 eV
2. 6.8 eV 8. The mechanical quantity, which has
3. 1.51 eV dimensions of reciprocal of mass (M −1 ), is:
4. 3.4 eV
1. angular momentum
4. The escape velocity of a body on the earth's 2. coefficient of thermal conductivity
surface is 11.2 km/s. If the same body is 3. torque
projected upward with a velocity 22.4 km/s, the
4. gravitational constant
velocity of this body at infinite distance from
the center of the earth will be:
1. 11.2√2 km/s
2. zero
3. 11.2 km/s
4. 11.2√3 km/s
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
9. The position of a particle is given by; 12. An ac source is connected to the given
→ ^ 2^ ^
r (t) = 4t i + 2t j + 5k circuit. The value of ϕ will be:
where t is in seconds and r in metre. Find the
magnitude and direction of velocity v(t), at
t = 1 s, with respect to x-axis.
∘
1. 4√2 ms−1 , 45
2. 4√2 ms
−1 ∘
, 60
3. 3√2 ms
−1 ∘
, 30
4. 3√2 ms
−1 ∘
, 45
10. For the given cycle, the work done during

isobaric process is: ∘
1. 60
∘
2. 90
∘
3. 30
∘
4. 45
13. The given circuit is equivalent to:
1.
1. 200 J
2. zero
3. 400 J
4. 600 J 2.
11. The equivalent capacitance of the

arrangement shown in the figure is:
3.
4.
1. 30 μF
2. 15 μF
3. 25 μF
4. 20 μF
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
14. A particle moves with a velocity 19. A long straight wire of length 2 m and mass
^ ^ ^
(5 i − 3 j + 6k) ms-1 horizontally under the 250 g is suspended horizontally in a uniform
horizontal magnetic field of 0.7 T. The amount
action of constant force (10^
i + 10 j + 20k) N.
^ ^
of current flowing through the wire will be (
The instantaneous power supplied to the g = 9.8 ms−2
):
particle is:
1. 2.45 A
1. 200 W
2. 2.25 A
2. zero
3. 2.75 A
3. 100 W
4. 1.75 A
4. 140 W
20. According to Gauss law of electrostatics,
15. A certain wire A has resistance 81 Ω. The
electric flux through a closed surface depends
resistance of another wire B of same material
on:
and equal length but of diameter thrice the
diameter of A will be: 1. the area of the surface
1. 81 Ω the quantity of charges enclosed by the
2.
2. 9 Ω surface
3. 729 Ω 3. the shape of the surface
4. 243 Ω 4. the volume enclosed by the surface
16. ε0 and μ0 are the electric permittivity and

magnetic permeability of free space 21. A ball is projected from point A with
respectively. If the corresponding quantities of velocity 20 ms-1 at an angle 60∘ to the
a medium are 2ε0 and 1.5μ0 respectively, the horizontal direction. At the highest point B of
refractive index of the medium will nearly be: the path (as shown in figure), the velocity v ms-
1. √2 1 of the ball will be:
2. √3
3. 3
4. 2
17. The amount of elastic potential energy per

unit volume (in SI unit) of a steel wire of length
100 cm to stretch it by 1 mm is (if Young's
modulus of the wire = 2.0 × 10 Nm−2 ):
11
1. 20
1. 10
11
2. 10√3
2. 10
17
3. Zero
3. 10
7
4. 10
4. 10
5
22. Which of the following statement is not

true?
18. The 4th overtone of a closed organ pipe is
1. Coefficient of viscosity is a scalar quantity
same as that of 3rd overtone of an open pipe. 2. Surface tension is a scalar quantity
The ratio of the length of the closed pipe to the
3. Pressure is a vector quantity
length of the open pipe is:
1. 8 : 9 4. Relative density is a scalar quantity
2. 9 : 7
3. 9 : 8
4. 7 : 9
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
23. A uniform electric field and a uniform 26. Which set of colors will come out in air for a
magnetic field are acting along the same situation shown in figure?
direction in a certain region. If an electron is
projected in the region such that its velocity is
pointed along the direction of fields, then the
electron:
1. will turn towards right of direction of motion
2. will turn towards left of direction of motion
3. speed will decrease
4. speed will increase
1. Yellow, Orange and Red

24. A horizontal ray of light is incident on the 2. All
∘
right angled prism with prism angle 6 . If the 3. Orange, Red and Violet
refractive index of the material of the prism is
4. Blue, Green and Yellow
1.5, then the angle of emergence will be:
27. If Z1 and Z2 are the impedances of the

given circuits (a) and (b) as shown in figures,
then choose the correct option:
∘
1. 9
∘
2. 10
∘
3. 4
∘
4. 6
1. Z1 < Z2
25. A p-type extrinsic semiconductor is
2. Z1 + Z2 = 20 Ω
obtained when Germanium is doped with:
1. Antimony 3. Z1 = Z2
2. Phosphorous 4. Z1 > Z2
3. Arsenic
4. Boron
28. The wavelength of Lyman series of

hydrogen atom appears in:
1. visible region
2. far infrared region
3. ultraviolet region
4. infrared region
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
29. 32. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted

photoelectrons in photoelectric effect is
independent of:
1. work function of material
2. intensity of incident radiation
3. frequency of incident radiation
4. wavelength of incident radiation
33. Two particles A and B initially at rest,

The above figure shows the circuit symbol of a move towards each other under mutual force
transistor. Select the correct statements given of attraction. At an instance when the speed of
A is v and speed of B is 3v, the speed of center
below:
of mass is:
The transistor has two segments of p-type 1. 2v
(A) semiconductor separated by a segment of 2. zero
n-type semiconductor. 3. v
4. 4v
The emitter is of moderate size and heavily
(B)
doped.
34. A charge Q μC is placed at the centre of a
The central segment is thin and lightly cube. The flux coming out from any one of its
(C)
doped. faces will be(in SI unit):
The emitter base junction is reverse biased Q
(D) 1. ε × 10
−6
in common emitter amplifier circuit. 0
2Q
2.
−3
× 10
3ε0
1. (C) and (D) Q
3.
−3
× 10
2. (A) and (D) 6ε0
Q
3. (A) and (B) 4.
−6
× 10
6ε0
4. (B) and (C)
35. The viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of
diameter 1 mm, falling through a fluid of
30. The de Broglie wavelength associated with viscosity 0.8 Pas with a velocity of 2 ms-1 is
an electron, accelerated by a potential equal to:
difference of 81 V is given by:
1. 15 × 10 N
−3
1. 13.6 nm
2. 30 × 10 N
−3
2. 136 nm
3. 1.5 × 10 N
−3
3. 1.36 nm
4. 20 × 10 N
−3
4. 0.136 nm
31. The maximum power is dissipated for an ac

in a/an:
1. resistive circuit
2. LC circuit
3. inductive circuit
4. capacitive circuit
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Physics - Section B 40. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined

rough surface AC (as shown in the figure) of
36. If R is the radius of the earth and g is the coefficient of friction μ. If g = 10 ms-1, the net
acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface. force (in N) on the block will be:
Then the mean density of the earth will be:
πRG
1. 12g
3πR
2. 4gG
3g
3. 4πRG
4. 4πG
3gR
37. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 1. 10√3

free electrons per cubic metre. The drift 2. zero
velocity for free electrons when 10 A current 3. 10
flows through the wire will be (Given, charge 4. 20
on electron = 1.6 × 10 C):
−19
41. A container of volume 200 cm3 contains 0.2

4
6.25×10
1. π
ms
−1
6.25 3
mole of hydrogen gas and 0.3 mole of argon
2. π × 10 ms−1 gas. The pressure of the system at temperature
200 K (R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1) will be:
6.25
3. π ms −1
1. 6.15 × 10 Pa
5 5
6.25×10
4. π
ms
−1
2. 6.15 × 10 Pa
4
38. An object is mounted on a wall. Its image of 3. 4.15 × 10 Pa

5
6
equal size is to be obtained on a parallel wall 4. 4.15 × 10 Pa
with the help of a convex lens placed between
these walls. The lens is kept at distance x in
front of the second wall. The required focal 42. To produce an instantaneous displacement
length of the lens will be: current of 2 mA in the space between the
x
1. less than 4 parallel plates of a capacitor of capacitance
4 μF , the rate of change of applied variable
x x
2. more than 4 but less than 2 dV
x
potential difference ( ) must be:
3. 2 dt
x 1. 800 V/s
4. 4 2. 500 V/s
3. 200 V/s
4. 400 V/s
39. If a conducting sphere of radius R is
charged. Then the electric field at a distance r(r
> R) from the centre of the sphere would be,
43. An emf is generated by an ac generator
(V=potential on the surface of the sphere):
rV having 100 turn coil, of loop area 1 m2. The coil
1. rotates at a speed of one revolution per second
R2
and placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05

2
R V
2.
T perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the
3
r
RV
3. 2 coil. The maximum value of emf is:
r
4.
V 1. 3.14 V
r
2. 31.4 V
3. 62.8 V
4. 6.28 V
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
44. For very high frequencies, the effective 48. The angular momentum of an electron
impedance of the circuit (shown in the figure) moving in an orbit of hydrogen atom is
will be: 1.5(
h
). The energy in the same orbit is
π
nearly:
1. −1.5 eV
2. −1.6 eV
3. −1.3 eV
4. −1.4 eV
49. A particle is executing uniform circular

motion with velocity v → and acceleration a
→.
Which of the following is true?
1. 4 Ω
→ is a constant; a
1. v → is not a constant
2. 6 Ω
→ is not a constant; a
2. v → is not a constant
3. 1 Ω
4. 3 Ω
→ is a constant; a
3. v → is a constant
→ is not a constant; a
4. v → is a constant
45. A constant torque of 100 N m turns a wheel
of moment of inertia 300 kg m2 about an axis
passing through its centre. Starting from rest,
its angular velocity after 3 s is : 50. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a
1. 1 rad/s period of √3 s. If it is completely immersed in
2. 5 rad/s 1
th
3. 10 rad/s non-viscous liquid, having density ( 4 ) of the

4. 15 rad/s material of the bob, the new period will be:
1. 2√3 s
46. The emf of a cell having internal resistance 2
1 Ω is balanced against a length of 330 cm on a

2. s
√3
potentiometer wire. When an external 3. 2 s

resistance of 2 Ω is connected across the cell, √3
the balancing length will be: 4. 2 s

1. 220 cm
2. 330 cm
3. 115 cm Chemistry - Section
4. 332 cm
A
47. A 1 kg object strikes a wall with velocity 1 51. Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the
ms-1 at an angle of 60 with the wall and
∘
following is
reflects at the same angle. If it remains in 1. n=4,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=-1/2
contact with the wall for 0.1 s, then the force 2. n=5, l=2, m1 =-2, -1, +1, +2, ms=+1/2
exerted on the wall is: 3. n=4, l=2, m1 = -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, ms=-1/2
1. 30√3 N 4. n=5,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=+1/2
2. zero
3. 10√3 N
4. 20√3 N
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
52. Given below are two statements: one is 54. For a weak acid HA, the percentage of
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is dissociation is nearly 1% at equilibrium. If the
labelled as Reason (R). concentration of acid is
Ionisation enthalpy increases 0.1 mol L-1, then the correct option for its Ka at
along each series of transition the same temperature is:
elements from left to right. 1. 1 × 10−4 2. 1 × 10−6
Assertion (A):
However, small variations
occur. 3. 1 × 10−5 4. 1 × 10−3
There is a corresponding
increase in nuclear charge 55. The density of 1 M solution of a compound
which accompanies the filling 'X' is 1.25 g mL-1. The correct option for the
Reason (R): molality of solution is:
of electrons in the inner d-
orbitals. (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g):
1. 0.705 m 2. 1.208 m
In the light of the above statements, choose the 3. 1.165 m 4. 0.858 m
most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 56. Consider the given reaction:
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct dil. Ba(OH)
2
CH3 COCH3 ⟶ " X "

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3. The functional groups present in compound "X"
correct explanation of (A)
are:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
4. 1. ketone and double bond
2. double bond and aldehyde
3. alcohol and aldehyde
4. alcohol and ketone
53. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 57. The E ⊖ values for
labelled as Reason (R). + +
Al /Al = +0.55 V and Tl /Tl = −0.34 V
Lithium and beryllium unlike 3+ 3+
their other respective group Al /Al = −1.66 V and Tl /Tl = +1.26 V
Assertion (A):
members form compounds with Identify the incorrect statement
pronounced ionic character 1. Al is more electropositive than TI
Lithium and Magnesium have 2. Tl3+ is a good reducing agent than Tl1+
Reason (R): similar properties due to a 3. Al+ is unstable in solution.
diagonal relationship 4. Tl can be easily oxidized to Tl+ than Tl3+
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options 58. The correct order of dipole moments for
given below: molecules N H3 , H2 S, CH4 and H F is :
1. (A)is true but (R) is false 1. CH4 > H2 S > NH3 > HF
2. (A) is false but (R) is true 2. H2 S > NH3 > HF > CH4
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 3. NH3 > HF > CH4 > H2 S
3.
4. HF > NH3 > H2 S > CH4
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4.
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
59. Molar conductance of an electrolyte 63. For a reaction 3A → 2B

increase with dilution according to the The average rate of appearance of B is given by
equation: Δ[B]
∘
. The correct relation between the average
Δt
Λm = Λm − A √ c
rate of appearance of B with the average rate of
Which of the following statements is true?
disappearance of A is given in option:
This equation applies to both strong and
A. 1.
−Δ[A]
weak electrolytes Δt
Value of the constant A depends upon the 2.

−3Δ[A]
B.
nature of the solvent 2Δt
−2Δ[A]
Value of constant A is the same for both 3.

C. 3Δt
BaCl2 and M gSO4 Δ[A]
4.
Value of constant A is the same for both Δt
D.
BaCl2 and M g(OH )2
64. The following conversion is known as:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only 1. Stephen reaction
3. (B) and (C) only 2. Gattermann-Koch reaction
4. (B) and (D) only 3. Etard reaction
4. Rosenmund reaction
60. Cheilosis occurs due to a deficiency of:
1. Thiamine 2. Nicotinamide 65. Which amongst the following is used in
3. Pyridoxamine 4. Riboflavin controlling depression and hypertension?
1. Seldane 2. Valium
3. Equanil 4. Prontosil
61. The correct value of cell potential in volt for
the reaction that occurs when the following two
half cells are connected, is: 66. Which one of the following represents all
Fe
2+
+ 2e
− ∘
→ Fe(s), E = −0.44 V isoelectronic species?
(aq)
2− + − 3+
1. N a+ , Cl− , O− , N O+
Cr2 O (aq) + 14H + 6e → 2Cr + 7H2 O,
7 2. N2 O, N2 O4 , N O+ , N O
∘
E = +1.33 V 3. N a+ , M g 2+ , O− , F −
1. +1.77 V 2. +2.65 V 4. Ca , Ar, K , Cl
2+ + −
3. +0.01 V 4. +0.89 V
67. Given below are two statements:
The value of wave function, Ψ depends
62. Consider the following reactions: I: upon the coordinates of the electron in the
(i) X
atom
R − COOH −−−−−−−−→ R − CH2 OH
(ii) H2 O/H Cl
The probability of finding an electron at a
(i) X II: point within an atom is proportional to the
R − CH = CH2 −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ R − CH2 − CH2 − OH
orbital wave function
(ii) H2 O,N aOH ,H2 O2
Identify 'X' in above reactions:

In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1. B2 H 6 2. LiAlH4
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
3. N aBH4 4. H2 /P d 2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
68. The correct van der Waals equation for 1 73. Which amongst the following reactions of
mole of a real gas is: alkyl halides produces isonitriles as a major
1. (P +
a
)(V − b) = RT
2
product?
V
V
2 A. R − X + H CN →
2. (P + a )(V − b) = RT B. R − X + AgCN →
2
3. (P +
an
)(V
2
2
− nb) = RT C. R − X + KCN →
V
H2 O
2
an
4. (P + )(V − nb) = nRT D. R − X + N aCN −−−−−→
V
C2 H5 OH

69. The correct option in which the density of
argon (Atomic mass =40) is highest:
1. (D) only
1. STP 2. 0°C, 2 atm 2. (C) and (D) only
3. 0°C, 4 atm 4. 273°C, 4 atm 3. (B) only
4. (A) and (B) only
70. Which of the following is correctly 74. The List-I with List-II
matched?
1. Basic oxides - I n2 O3 , K2 O, SnO2 List-I List-II
2. Neutral oxides - CO, N O2 , N2 O (Hydride) (Type of Hydride)
3. Acidic oxides - M n2 O7 , SO2 , T eO3 A NaH (I) Electron precise
4. Amphoteric oxides -BeO, Ga2 O3 , GeO
B PH3 (II) Saline
71. Which of the following is a positively C GeH4 (III) Metallic
charged sol? D LaH2.87 (IV) Electron rich
1. Methylene blue sol
2. Congo red sol Choose the correct answer from the options
3. Siver sol given below:
4. Sb2 S3 sol Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
1. III IV II I
72. Match List -I with List-II
2. II III IV I
List-II
List-I 3. I III II IV
(Technique used for
(Mixtures/Sample) 4. II IV I III
purification)
Glycerol from spent
A (I) Steam distillation
lye
Chloroform + 75. Which one of the following statements is
Fractional
B (II) incorrect related to Molecular Orbital Theory?
Aniline distillation
The π ∗ antibonding molecular orbital has a
Fractions of crude Distillation under
1.
C (III) node between the nuclei.
oil reduced pressure
In the formation of a bonding molecular
D Aniline+water (IV) Distillation
2. orbital, the two electron waves of the
bonding atoms reinforce each other.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below Molecular orbitals obtained from 2Px and
3. 2Py orbitals are symmetrical around the
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) bond axis.
1. III IV II I A π−bonding molecular orbital has larger
4. electron density above and below the
2. IV II I III
internuclear axis.
3. I II III IV
4. I III II IV
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
76. An acidic buffer is prepared by mixing: 81. Which of the following forms a set of
1. weak acid and it's salt with strong base complex and a double salt, respectively?
equal volumes of equimolar solutions of 1. CuSO4.5H2O and CuCl2,4NH3
2. 2. PtCl2.2NH3 and PtCl4.2HCl
weak acid and weak base
3. strong acid and it's salt with strong base 3. K2PtCl2.2NH3 and KAl(SO4)2.12H2O
strong acid and it's salt with weak base 4. NiCl2.6H2O and NiCl2(H2O)4
4.
(The pKa of acid = pKb of the base)
77. Reagents which can be used to convert High density polythene is formed in the
alcohols to carboxylic acids, are: I: presence of catalyst triethylaluminium and
(A) CrO3 - H2SO4 titanium tetrachloride.
(B) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 High density polymers are chemically
II:
inert.
(C) KMnO4 + KOH/H3O+
(D) Cu, 573 K
(E) CrO3+ (CH3CO)2O
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 1. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
options given below: false.
1. (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (D) and (E) only 2. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
3. (A), (B) and (C) only 4. (A), (B) and (E) only true.
3. Both Statement-I and Statement- II are true.
4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
78. Select the element (M) whose trihalides
cannot be hydrolysed to produce an ion of the 83. Which amongst the following compounds
from [M(H2O)6]3+ will show geometrical isomerism?
1. Pent-1-ene
1. Ga 2. In
2. 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
3. Al 4. B 3. 2-Methylprop-1-ene
4. 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene
79. The correct options for the rate law that 84. Given below are two statements:
corresponds to overall first order reaction is
1. Rate = k[A]0 [B]2 Hydrated chlorides and bromides of Ca, Sr
2. Rate = k[A] [B] I:
and Ba on heating undergo hydrolysis.
3. Rate = k[A]1/2 [B]2 Hydrated chlorides and bromides of Be and
II:
4. Rate = k[A]-1/2 [B]3/2 Mg on heating dehydration.
80. Which amongst the following In the light of the above statements, choose the
compounds/species is least basic? correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
1. 2. false.
2. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
true.
3. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
3. 4. 4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
85. The correct order for the rate of α , β- 89. Read the following statement and choose
dehydrohalogenation for the following the set of correct statements:
compounds is: Chrome steel is used for cutting tools and
A.
crushing machines.
(i) The fine dust of aluminium is used in paints
(ii) B.
and lacquers.
C. Copper is used for the reduction of alcohol.
Zinc dust is used as a reducing agent in the
D.
manufacturing of paints.
(iii)
E. Iron is used for galvanising zinc.
1. (i) < (ii) < (iii) 2. (ii) < (i) < (iii) choose the most appropriate answer from the
3. (iii) < (ii) < (i) 4. (ii) < (iii) < (i)
1. (D) and (E) only
2. (A) and (D) only
3. (A), (B), and (D) only
Chemistry - Section 4. (B), (C), and (D) only
B 90. Choose the correct sequence of reagents in

the conversion of 4-nitrotoluene to 2-
86. How many number of tetrahedral voids are bromotoluene.
formed in 5 mol of a compound having cubic 1. NaNO2/HCl; Sn/HCl; Br2; H2O/H3PO2
close packed structure? (Choose the correct 2. Sn/HCl ; NaNO /HCl; Br ;H O/H PO
2 2 2 3 2
option)
3. Br 2 ;Sn/HCl;NaNO 2 /HCl;H 2 O/H 3 PO 2
1. 1.550 × 1024 2. 3.011 × 1025
4. Sn/HCl;Br2;NaNO2/HCl;H2O/H3PO2
3. 3.011 × 1024 4. 6.022 × 1024
91. How are edge length 'a' of the unit cell and
radius 'r' of the sphere related to each other in
87. Type of isomerism exhibited by compounds ccp structure?
[Cr(H2O)6Cl3, [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O, (Choose correct option for your answer)
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O and the value of 1. a = 2r 2. a = r/2√2
coordination number (CN) of central metal ion
3. a = 4r/√3 4. a = 2√2r
in all these compounds, respectively is:
1. Geometrical isomerism, CN = 2
2. Optical isomerism, CN = 4
3. Ionisation isomerism, CN = 4 92. Identify the product in the following
4. Solvate isomerism, CN = 6 reaction:
88. The correct sequence given below

containing neutral, acidic, basic and
amphoteric oxide each, respectively, is
1. NO, ZnO, CO2, CaO 2. ZnO, NO, CaO, CO2
3. NO, CO2, ZnO, CaO 4. NO, CO2, CaO, ZnO
1. 2.
3. 4.
Page: 12
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93. Given below are two statement: 96. Consider the following reaction:-
∘
In an organic compound, when inductive 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(g)Δr H = −483.64kJ .
and electromeric effects operate in opposite What is the enthalpy change for the
I:
directions, the inductive effect decomposition of one mole of water?
predominates. (Choose the right option).
II: Hyperconjugation is observed in o-xylene. 1. 120.9 kJ
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2. 241.82 kJ
correct answer from the options given below: 3. 18 kJ
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 4. 100 kJ
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 97. Which statement is not true about
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. photochemical smog?
Photochemical smog is harmful to humans
1.
94. The correct option for a redox couple is: but has no effect on plants.
Both are oxidised forms involving same Plants like Pinus, Juniparus can help in
1. 2.
element. reducing the photochemical smog.
Both are reduced forms involving same Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry,
2. 3.
element. and sunny climates.
Both are reduced and oxidized forms involve Common components of photochemical
3. 4. smog are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein,
same element.
4. Cathode and anode together. formaldehyde, and peroxyacetyl nitrate.
95. Given below are two statements: one is 98. Which amongst the following aqueous
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is solution of electrolytes will have minimum
labelled as Reason (R). elevation in boiling point?
Ionisation enthalpies of early Choose the correct option:-
Assertion (A): actinoids are lower than for 1. 0.05 M NaCI 2. 0.1 M KCI
early lanthanoids. 3. 0.1 M MgSO4 4. 1 M NaCI
Electrons are entering 5f
orbitals in actinoids which
Reason (R):
experience greater shielding 99. Identify 'X' in the following reaction.
from nuclear charge.
correct answer from the options given below :
1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 1. 2.
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4. 3. 4.
correct explanation of (A).
Page: 13
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
100. The major product formed in the following 102. Match List - I with List - II
conversion is: List - I List - II
Hydrarch Gradual change in the
(A) (I)
succession species composition
Xerarch Faster and climax
(B) (II)
succession reached quickly
Ecological Lichens to mesic
(C) (III)
1. 2. succession conditions
Secondary Phytoplankton to mesic
(D) (IV)
succession conditions
3. 4.
given below:
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
1. IV II III I
Biology - 1 - Section 2. III I IV II
3. I IV II III
A 4. IV III I II
101. Match List - I with List - II
List-I List-II
(A) Protein (I) C=C double bonds
103. In Calotropis, aestivation is:
Unsaturated fatty Phosphodiester
(B) (II) 1. Valvate 2. Vexillary
acid bond
(C) Nucleic acid (III) Glycosidic bonds 3. Imbricate 4. Twisted
(D) Polysaccharide (IV) Peptide bonds
List - I List - II
given below:
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Chlorophyll a (I) Yellow to yellow orange
1. II I IV III (B) Chlorophyll b (II) Yellow green
2. IV III I II (C) Xanthophyll (III) Blue green
3. IV I II III (D) Carotenoids (IV) Yellow
4. I IV III II
given below:
1. III II IV I
2. III I IV II
3. II III I IV
4. IV III II I
105. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from

agricultural farms into water bodies are a
significant cause of:
1. Eutrophication 2. Humification
3. Mineralisation 4. Stratification
Page: 14
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
106. Match List - I with List - II 110. Doubling of the number of chromosomes
List - I List - II can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell
(Phenotypic division soon after
(Type of cross) 1. Anaphase 2. Telophase
ratio)
(A) Monohybrid cross (I) 1:1 3. Prophase 4. Metaphase
(B) Dihybrid cross (II) 1:2:1
Incomplete
(C) (III) 3:1 111. Given below are two statements :
dominance
Statement RuBisCO is the most abundant
(D) Test cross (IV) 9:3:3:1
I: enzyme in the world.
Choose the correct answer from the options Statement Photorespiration does not occur in
given below: II: C4 plants.
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) In the light of the above statements, choose the
1. III IV II I most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
2. II IV III I
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is
3. II III IV I incorrect
4. IV III I II 2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
3. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. Both statement I and statement II are
107. How many times decarboxylation occurs incorrect
during each TCA cycle?
1. Thrice 2. Many 112. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich
3. Once 4. Twice compared the rivets in an airplane to
species within a
1. 2. genetic diversity
genus
108. The dissolution of synaptonemal complex 3. ecosystem genera within a
4.
occurs during: family
1. Pachytene 2. Diplotene
3. Diakinesis 4. Leptotene
113. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in
a specialized manner with one posterior, two
109. Identify the correct statements regarding lateral and two anterior. These are named
Mass flow hypothesis. as___________, ____________ and ________
respectively.
1. Mass flow is faster than diffusion.
Keel, Wings and Vexillum, Keel and
Mass flow is the result of pressure difference 1. 2.
2. standard standard
between the end points.
Keel, Standard and Standard, Wings and
Different substances involved in mass flow 3. 4.
3. Carina Keel
move at different paces.
Mass flow can result through either a
4. positive or a negative hydrostatic pressure 114. In which of the following sets of families,
gradient. the pollen grain are viable for months?
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
given below: 2. Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
1. (A), (C), (D) only 2. (B), (C), (D) only 3. Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
3. (A), (B), (C) only 4. (A), (B), (D) only 4. Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae
Page: 15
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
115. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to 121. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form
stigma of another flower of same plant is of pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate
known as: the pollination process. This is an example of:
1. Geitonogamy 2. Xenogamy 1. Amensalism 2. Competition
3. Autogamy 4. Cliestogamy 3. Commensalism 4. Mutualism
116. The phenomenon which is influenced by 122. The species of plants that plays a vital role
auxin and also played a major role in its in controlling the relative abundance of other
discovery: species in a community is called _______.
1. Phototropism 2. Root initiation 1. alien species 2. endemic species
3. Gravitropism 4. Apical Dominance 3. exotic species 4. keystone species
117. The Transverse section of plant part 123. Match List - I with List - II
showed polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, List-I List-II
with endodermis and pericycle. The plant is (A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum
identified as:
(B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum
1. Monocot root 2. Dicot root
(C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum
3. Dicot stem 4. Monocot stem
(D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella

118. What will happen if fresh water lake gets
given below:
contaminated by the addition of polluted water
with high BOD? Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
Amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake will 1. II III I IV
1. 2. III I IV II
decrease.
2. The lake will remain unaffected 3. II III IV I
Number of submerged aquatic plants in the 4. III IV I II
3.
lake will increase
Number of aquatic animals in the lake will
4. 124. Inulin is a polymer of:
increase.
1. Fructose 2. Galactose
3. Amino Acids 4. Glucose
119. The last chromosome sequenced in Human

Genome project was: 125. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in
1. Chromosome 6 2. Chromosome 1 PCR was isolated from:
3. Chromosome 22 4. Chromosome 14 1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Escherichia coli
3. Agrobacterium tumifaciens
120. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, 4. Bacillus thuringiensis
nitrogen, potassium and calcium present in the
soil at any given time is referred to as: 126. Name the component that binds to the
operator region of an operon and prevents RNA
1. Standing state 2. Standing crop
polymerase from transcribing the operon.
3. Humus 4. Detritus
1. Promotor 2. Regulator protein
3. Repressor protein 4. Inducer
Page: 16
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127. A heterozygous pea plant with violet 131. During symport two different molecules
flowers was crossed with a homozygous pea move across the membrane:
plant with white flowers. Violet is dominant in same direction with the help of different
over white. Which one of the following 1. carriers located at a common site
represents the expected combinations among in same direction with the help of different
40 progenies formed? 2. carriers located at different sites in the same
1. 30 produced violet and 10 produced white cell
flowers
in same direction with the help of same
2. 20 produced violet and 20 produced white 3.
carrier
flowers.
3. All 40 produced violet flowers in opposite direction with the help of same
4.
4. All 40 produced white flowers carrier
128. Fatty acids are connected with the

respiratory pathway through:
α - Ketoglutaric 132. Which classes of algae possess pigment
1. Acetyl CoA 2. fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin,
acid
respectively?
Dihydroxy acetone
3. 4. Pyruvic acid 1. Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
phosphate
2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3. Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
4. Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
129. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the
following site will result in loss of tetracycline 133. In which disorder change of single base
resistance of pBR322 ? pair in the gene for beta globin chain results in
1. PsT I 2. Pvu I change of glutamic acid to valine?
3. EcoR I 4. BamH I 1. Thalassemia 2. Sickle cell anemia
3. Haemophilia 4. Phenylketonuria

List - I List - II 134. For chemical defense against
Promotes female flower herbivores, Calotropis has
(A) Auxin (I)
formation in cucumber 1. Cardiac glycosides 2. strychnine
Overcoming apical 3. toxic ricin 4. distasteful quinine
(B) Gibberellin (II)
dominance
Increase in the length of
(C) Cytokinin (III)
grape stalks 135. Consider the following tissues in the stellar
Promotes flowering in region of a stem showing secondary growth.
(D) Ethylene (IV)
pineapple (A) Primary xylem
(B) Secondary xylem
Choose the correct answer from the options (C) Primary phloem
given below: (D) Secondary phloem
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) Arrange these in the correct sequence of their
position from pith towards cortex.
1. II I IV III
1. (A), (B), (D), (C) 2. (B), (A), (C), (D)
2. IV III II I
3. (A), (B), (C), (D) 4. (B), (A), (D), (C)
3. I III IV II
4. III II I IV
Page: 17
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Biology - 1 - Section
139. In angiosperms the correct sequence of
events, formation of female gametophyte in the
ovule is:
B 1.
3 successive free nuclear divisions in
136. Which of the following mineral ion is not functional megaspore.
remobilized in plants? 2. Degeneration of 3 megaspores
1. Potassium 2. Calcium 3. Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell
3. Nitrogen 4. Phosphorus 4. Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
Formation of wall resulting in seven celled
5.
embryosac.
137. Which out of the following statements is
incorrect? Choose the correct answer from the options
1. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II given below:
Cyclic photophosphorylation involved both 1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) 2. (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
2.
PS I and PS II 3. (B), (C), (A), (D), (E) 4. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
+
3. Both ATP and NADPH + H are synthesised
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NAP 140. Which of the following statements is true?
4.
reductase All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-diplomatic
1.
pattern.
2. Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern
3. Most algal genera are diplontic
138. Match List - I with List - II Most bryophytes do not have haplo-
Column - I Column - II 4.
diplomatic life cycle.
(A) Nitrococcus (I) Denitrification
Conversion of ammonia to
(B) Rhizobium (II)
nitrite
141. Which of the following statement is
Conversion of nitrite to
(C) Thiobacillus (III) incorrect above Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?
nitrate
It is used to deliver gene of interest in both
Conversion of atmospheric
(D) Nitrobacter (IV) 1.
nitrogen to ammonia prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic host cells.
'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium
Choose the correct answer from the options 2. tumifaciens used for gene transfer is not
given below: pathogenic to plant cells.
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) It transforms normal plant cells into tumor
3.
1. III I IV II cells
2. IV III II I 4. It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell
3. II IV I III
4. I II III IV
142. Consider the following plant tissues:
(A) Axillary buds
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium
(C) Interfascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem
Identify the lateral meristems among the above
1. (A), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (C) and (D) only
(A), (B), (C) and (E) (A), (B), (D) and (E)
3. 4.
only only
Page: 18
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
143. Match List - I with List - II 146. A certain plant homozygous for yellow
List-I List-II seeds and red flowers was crossed with a plant
Delivers genes into homozygous for green seeds and white flowers.
(A) Kanamycin (I) The F1 plants had yellow seeds and pink
animal cells
(B) ClaI (II) Selectable marker flowers. The F1 plants were selfed to get F2
Disarmed progeny. Assuming independent assortment of
(C) (III) Restriction site the two characters, how many phenotypic
retroviruses
categories are expected for these characters in
Kanamycin
(D) R (IV) Antibiotic resistance the F2 generation?
gene
1. 9 2. 16
Choose the correct answer from the options 3. 4 4. 6
given below:
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 147. During which stages of mitosis and
meiosis, respectively does the centromere of
1. II III I IV
each chromosome split?
2. III I IV II
Metaphase, Prophase,
3. IV III I II 1. 2.
Metaphase II Telophase I
4. II IV I III Telophase, Anaphase Anaphase,
3. 4.
I Anaphase II
148. Which of the following statements is not

144. Given below are two statements: correct?
The process of copying genetic information Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is
I: from one strand of the DNA into RNA is 1.
characterized by increased vacuolation.
termed as transcription
Cells in the meristematic phase of growth
A transcription unit in DNA is defined 2. exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal
primarily by the three regions in the DNA connections
II:
i.e. a promoter, the structural gene and a
3. Plant growth is generally determinate
terminator.
4. Plant growth is measurable
1. Statement I is true but statement II is false 149. Match List - I with List - II
2. Statement I is false but statement II is true Type of flower Example
3. Both statement I and statement II are true (A) Zygomorphic (I) Mustard
4. Both statement I and statement II are false (B) Hypogynous (II) Plum
(C) Perigynous (III) Cassia
145. Which scientist conducted an experiment
(D) Epigynous (IV) Cucumber
with 32p and 35s labelled phages for
demonstrating that DNA is the genetic Choose the correct answer from the options
material? given below:
1. James D. Watson and F.H.C Crick
2. A.D. Hershey and M.J. Chase
3. F. Griffith 1. I II IV III
4. O.T. Avery, C.M. MacLeod and M. McCarty 2. I II III IV
3. IV I III II
4. III I II IV
Page: 19
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
150. Given below are two statements: 154. Arrange the sequence of different
The process translocation through phloem hormones for their role during gametogenesis:
I: is unidirectional but through xylem, it is Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and
A.
bidirectional secretion of Androgen
The most readily mobilized elements are Gonadotropin releasing hormone from
B.
II: phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and hypothalamus
potassium. C. Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of
In light of the above statements, choose the D. spermiogenesis
most appropriate answer from the options E. Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correct
given below:
2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct 1. (E), (A), (D), (B), (C) 2. (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 3. (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) 4. (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
155. House fly belongs to _______ family.
Biology - 2 - Section 1. Cyprinidae 2. Hominidae

3. Calliphoridae 4. Muscidae
A
151. Which of the following sexually 156. Select incorrect statement, regarding
transmitted infections are completely curable? chemical structure of insulin:
1. HIV infection and Trichomoniasis Mature insulin molecule consists of three
2. Synphilis and Trichomoniasis 1.
polypeptide chains - A, B and C.
3. Hepatitis-B and Genital herpes Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which
4. Genital Herpes and Genital warts 2.
contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
152. Match List - I with List - II 3.
molecule.
List-I List-II
Polypeptide chains A and B are linked to
(A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan 4.
disulphide bridges.
(B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella
(C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes
(D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum
Choose the correct answer from the options 157. Which one of the following is the quiescent
given below: stage of cell cycle?
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 1. M 2. G2
1. I IV III II 3. G1 4. G0
2. I III IV II
3. II III IV I
4. II IV III I
153. Which of the following is not a secondary

metabolite?
1. Curcumin 2. Morphine
3. Anthocyanin 4. Lecithin
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158. Given below are two statements: 161. Which of the following statements are
RNA being unstable, mutate at a correct with respect to the hormone and its
Statement I: function?
faster rate
RNA can directly code for Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood
A.
Statement II: synthesis of proteins hence can calcium level
easily express the characters. In males, FSH and androgens regulate
B.
In the light of the above statements, choose the spermatogenesis
correct answer from the options given below: C. Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal
false. D.
Medulla
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Parathyroid hormone is regulated by
true E.
circulated levels of sodium ions
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
labelled as 1. (C) and (E) only 2. (A) and (B) only
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (A) and (D) only
Reason (R)
Ascending limb of the loop of
Henle is impermeable to water 162. Select the sequence of steps in Respiration.
Assertion (A): and allows transport of Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across
A.
electrolytes actively or alveolar membrane.
passively. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
B.
Dilution of filtrate takes place tissues
Reason (R): due to efflux of electrolytes in
C. Transport of gases by the blood
the medullary fluid
Pulmonary ventilation by which
D. atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich
correct answer from the options given below: alveolar air is released out.
Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
E.
1. (A) is true, (R) is false reactions and resultant release of CO2
2. (A) is false, (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Choose the correct answer from the options
3. given below:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1. (D), (A), (C), (B), (E) 2. (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
4. 3. (B), (C), (E), (D), (A) 4. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
160. The Cockroach is: 163. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of
1. Ammonotelic only 2. Uricotelic only biodiversity losses?
1. Over-exploitation, habitat loss and
3. Ureotelic only 4. Ureotelic and Uricotelic
fragmentation
2. Climate change only
3. Over-exploitation only
4. Habitat loss and fragmentation only
Page: 21
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
164. Match List - I with List - II 166. Match List - I with List - II
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(A) Contractile vacuole (I) Asterias (A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375
(B) Water vascular system (II) Amoeba Rubber
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II)
(C) Canal system (III) Spongilla barrier
(D) Flame cells (IV) Taenia Hormone releasing
(C) (III) Lippes loop
IUDs
Choose the correct answer from the options (D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20
given below:
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) given below:
1. IV II I III Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
2. I III II IV 1. IV III I II
3. III II I IV 2. II IV III I
4. II I III IV 3. III I IV II
4. III IV II I
165. Match List - I with List - II 167. Which of the following can act as
List-I List-II molecular scissors?
(A) Palm bones (I) Phalanges 1. Restriction enzymes 2. DNA ligase
(B) Wrist bones (II) Metacarpals 3. RNA polymerase 4. DNA polymerase
(C) Ankle bones (III) Carpals
(D) Digit bones (IV) Tarsals
168. Select the correct statements about sickle
cell anemia:
given below: A. There is a change in the gene for beta-globin
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) In the beta-globin, there is a valine in the
B.
place of Lysine
1. II III I IV
C. It is an example of point mutation
2. IV I II III
D. In the normal gene U is replaced by A
3. III IV I II
4. II III IV I
given below:
1. (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (B) and (D) only 4. (A) and (C) only
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
169. Given below are two statements: 171. Match List - I with List - II
Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is List-I List-II
I: another specialized procedure of in- (A) Eosinophils (I) 6-8%
vivo fertilization. (B) Lymphocytes (II) 2-3%
Infertility cases due to the inability of the (C) Neutrophils (III) 20-25%
II: male partner to inseminate the female can
(D) Monocytes (IV) 60-65%
be corrected by artificial insemination (AI)
given below:
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is false Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 1. IV I II III
true 2. IV I III II
3. Both statement I and statement II are true 3. II III IV I
4. Both statement I and statement II are false 4. II III I IV

List-I List-II
(Electrical activity of 172. Given below are two statements:
(ECG)
heart) I: Goblet cells are unicellular glands
Depolarisation of II: Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland
(A) P-wave (I)
ventricles
(B) QRS complex (II) End of systole In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) T wave (III) Depolarisation of atria
End of T Repolarisation of 1. Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) (IV) 2. Statement I is false but statement II is true
wave ventricles
3. Both statement I and statement II are true
Choose the correct answer from the options 4. Both statement I and statement II are false
given below:
173. Given below are two statements regarding
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) oogenesis.
The primary follicles get surrounded by
1. IV I III II
more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and
2. I IV III II I:
shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is
3. IV III I II called secondary follicle.
4. III I IV II Graafian follicle ruptures to release the
II: secondary oocyte from the ovary by the
process called ovulation.

1. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
true
4. Both statement I and statement II are false
Page: 23
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
174. If there are 250 snails in a pond, and 177. Match List - I with List - II
within a year their number increases to 2500 by List-I List-II
reproduction. What should be their birth rate Responsible for
per snail per year? heating of Earth's
1. 10 2. 9 (A) Deforestation (I)
surface and
3. 25 4. 15 atmosphere
Conversion of forested
(B) Reforesation (II) areas to non-forested
175. Given below are two statements: areas
The nose contains mucus-coated receptors Natural ageing of lake
I: which are specialised for receiving the sense Green-house by nutrient
of smell are called olfactory receptors. (C) (III)
effect enrichment of its
Wall of the eyeball has three layers. The water
external layer is called choroid (dense Process of restoring a
connective tissue), middle layer is sclera (D) Eutrophication (IV) forest that once existed
II:
(thin pigmented layer) and internal layer is but was removed
retina (ganglion cells, bipolar cells and
photoreceptor cells) Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
correct answer from the options given below: 1. IV III II I
1. Statement I is true but statement II is false
2. I II III IV
2. Statement I is false but statement II is true
3. Both statement I and statement II are true 3. III I II IV
4. Both statement I and statement II are false 4. II IV I III
176. Which one of the following acts as an

inducer for lac operon? 178. Diacetyl morphine is also called as:
1. Sucrose 2. Lactose 1. Amphetamine 2. Barbiturate
3. Glucose 4. Galactose 3. Crack 4. Smack
179. 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial

nomenclature. This naming system was
proposed by 'Z':
X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z -
1.
Carolus Linnaeus
X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - R.H.
2.
Whittaker
X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z -
3.
Carolus Linnaeus
X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - R.H.
4.
Whittaker
Page: 24
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
180. Which of the following statements are 183. Select the correct sequence of substages of
correct? Prophase - I of Meiotic division
Reproductive health refers to total well- (A) Zygotene
A. (B) Pachytene
being in all aspects of reproduction
Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex (C) Diakinesis
B. (D) Leptotene
determination in India
(E) Diplotene
"Saheli" - a new oral contraceptive for
C. females was developed in collaboration with
given below:
ICMR (New Delhi).
1. (D), (B), (A), (E), (C) 2. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic
D. 3. (D), (A), (B), (E), (C) 4. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
disorders and survivability of foetus.

options given below: 184. Brain stem of the human brain consists of:
1. Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
1. (B) and (C) only 2. (D) and (C) only
2. Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
3. (A), (B) and (D) only 4. (A) and (C) only 3. Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora
quadrigemina
4. Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus
181. Match List - I with List - II Callosum
List-I List-II
(A) Terpenoides (I) Codeine 185. Identify the fossil of a man who showed
(B) Unsaturated fatty acid (II) Diterpenes the following characteristics:
(C) Nucleic acid (III) Ricin (A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
(B) Used hides to protect their body
(D) Polysaccharide (IV) Concanavalin A
(C) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of above statements, choose the
Choose the correct answer from the options correct answer from the options given below:
given below:
1. Homo erectus 2. Neanderthal man
3. Homo habilis 4. Australopithecus
1. II IV III I
2. II I IV III
3. II III I IV
4. II IV I III

In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by
I:
the extensions of the plasma membrane.
The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA
II:
replication and cell wall formation.

most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
correct
3. Both statement I and statement II are correct
4. Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
Page: 25
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Biology - 2 - Section
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R)
B A person goes to high altitude
186. With reference to Hershey and Chase and experiences "Altitude
experiments. Select the correct statements: Assertion (A): Sickness" with symptoms like
Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive breathing difficulty and heart
A. palpitations.
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur Due to low atmospheric
B. pressure at high altitude, the
contained radioactive proteins. Reason (R):
Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus body does not get sufficient
C. oxygen
contained radioactive protein
Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur
D. In the light of the above statements, choose the
contained radioactive DNA
Viruses grown on radioactive protein
E. 1. (A) is true but (R) is false
contained radioactive DNA
2. (A) is false but (R) is true
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
options given below: correct explanation of (A)
1. (D) and (E) only 2. (A) and (B) only Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4.
3. (A) and (C) only 4. (B) and (D) only correct explanation of (A)
187. Select the correct sequential steps

regarding the absorption of fatty acids and
glycerol, in the intestine: 189. The salient features of genetic code are:
(A) The code is palindromic
Micelles are reformed into small protein-
A. (B) UGA act as initiator codon
coated fat globules called chylomicrons.
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific
B. Micelles move into intestinal mucosa. (D) The code is nearly universal
Fatty acids and glycerol are incorporated Choose the most appropriate answer from the
C.
into small droplets called micelles. options given below:
Lacteals release the absorbed substances 1. (A) and (D) only 2. (B) and (C) only
D.
into the bloodstream. 3. (A) and (B) only 4. (C) and (D) only
E. Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals.

given below:
1. (A), (E), (B), (D), (C) 2. (D), (E), (B), (C), (A)
3. (C), (B), (A), (E), (D) 4. (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)
Page: 26
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
190. Arrange the events of Renin-Angiotensin 192. Given below are two statements:
mechanism in correct sequence
1. Activation of JG cells and release of renin Parathyroid hormone acts on bones
Statement
Angiotensin II activated release of and stimulates the process of bone
2. I:
aldosterone resorption
3. Fall in glomerular blood pressure Parathyroid hormone along with
Statement
+ Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant
4. Reabsorption of Na and water from distal II:
role in carbohydrate metabolism.
convoluted tubule
Angiotensinogen is converted to Angiotensin
5. In the light of the above statements, choose the
I and then to Angiotensin II
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Choose the correct answer from the options 2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
given below: true
1. (C), (A), (E), (B), (D) 2. (A), (D), (E), (C), (B) 3. Both statement I and statement II are true
3. (A), (D), (C), (B), (E) 4. (B), (A), (E), (D), (C) 4. Both statement I and statement II are false
193. Select the correct statements:

191. Select the correct statements regarding Platyhelminthes are triploblastic
dissolved Oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen A. pseudocoelomate and bilaterally
demand. symmetrical organisms.
1. BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen Ctenophores reproduces only sexually and
B.
Low dissolved oxygen and high BOD lead to fertilization is external
2.
loss of aquatic life. In tapeworm, fertilization is internal by
C.
3. High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen sexes are not separate
Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator Ctenophores are exclusively marine,
4. D.
of health of a water body diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms
Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are affected In sponges, fertilization is external and
E
5. by amount of organic matter in the water development is direct.
body.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given below:
options given below: 1. (A), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (C) and (D) only
1. (A), (B), (C), (E) only 2. (A), (B), (D), (E) only 3. (A) and (E) only 4. (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), (D) only 4. (B), (C), (D), (E) only
Page: 27
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
194. Match List - I with List - II 197. Given below are two statements:
List-I List-II In cockroaches, the forewings are
I:
Separation of DNA transparent and prothoracic in origin.
(A) Gene therapy (I)
fragments In cockroaches, the hind wings are opaque,
II:
Diagnostic test for leathery and mesothoracic in origin
(B) RNA interference (II)
AIDS
(C) ELISA (III) Cellular defence In light of the above statements, choose the
Gel correct answer from the options given below:
Allows correction of a
(D) (IV) 1. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Electrophoresis gene defect
true
given below:
4. Both statement I and statement II are false
1. IV I II III 198. Match List - I with List - II
2. IV II III I List-I List-II
3. IV III II I (A) Columnar epithelium (I) Ducts of glands
4. IV III I II Inner lining of
(B) Ciliated epithelium (II) stomach and
intestine
195. Which of the following statements are Inner lining of
correct with respect of Golgi apparatus? (C) Squamous epithelium (III)
bronchioles
It is the important site for the formation of (D) Cuboidal epithelium (IV) Endothelium
A.
glycoprotein and glycolipids
It produces cellular energy in the form of Choose the correct answer from the options
B.
ATP given below:
It modifies the protein synthesized by Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
C.
ribosomes on ER 1. III II I IV
D. It facilitates the transport of ions 2. III II IV I
E. It provides mechanical support 3. II III I IV
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 4. II III IV I
1. (B) and (C) only 2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only 4. (D) and (E) only 199. Match List - I with List - II
List-I List-II
Cytokine Mucus coating of
196. Select the incorrect statement with respect (A) (I)
barriers respiratory tract
to Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)
(B) Cellular barriers (II) Interferons
technology.
Fertilised eggs at 4 to 6 cells - stages are Physiological Neutrophils and
(C) (III)
recovered non-surgically from a super- barriers Macrophages
1. Physical
ovulating cow and transferred to a (D) (IV) Tears and Saliva
surrogate mother. barriers
It is used to increase herd size in a short
2. Choose the correct answer from the options
time
given below:
Cow is administered with hormones to
3. Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
induce super-ovulation.
Super-ovulating cow is either mated with an 1. II III IV I
4. 2. III I IV II
elite bull or is artificially inseminated
3. III I II IV
4. II III I IV
Page: 28
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
200. Select the correct statement/s with respect

to mechanism of sex determination in
Grasshopper.
A. It is an example of female heterogamety
Male produces two different types of
B. gametes either with or without X
chromosomes.
Total number of chromosomes (autosomes
C. and sex chromosomes) is same in both
males and females.
All eggs bear in additional X chromosome
D.
besides the autosomes.

given below:
1. (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (C) and (D) only
3. (A) only 4. (A) and (C) only
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NEET 2023 Exam Paper - Manipur

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3. M << m 7. On the basis of electrical conductivity, which

10. For the given cycle, the work done during

13. The given circuit is equivalent to:

11. The equivalent capacitance of the

16. ε0 and μ0 are the electric permittivity and

17. The amount of elastic potential energy per

22. Which of the following statement is not

1. Yellow, Orange and Red

27. If Z1 and Z2 are the impedances of the

28. The wavelength of Lyman series of

29. 32. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted

33. Two particles A and B initially at rest,

in common emitter amplifier circuit. 0

31. The maximum power is dissipated for an ac

Physics - Section B 40. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined

37. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 1. 10√3

41. A container of volume 200 cm3 contains 0.2

38. An object is mounted on a wall. Its image of 3. 4.15 × 10 Pa

and placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05

49. A particle is executing uniform circular

3. 10 rad/s non-viscous liquid, having density ( 4 ) of the

1 Ω is balanced against a length of 330 cm on a

potentiometer wire. When an external 3. 2 s

the balancing length will be: 4. 2 s

CH3 COCH3 ⟶ " X "

59. Molar conductance of an electrolyte 63. For a reaction 3A → 2B

Value of the constant A depends upon the 2.

Value of constant A is the same for both 3.

Identify 'X' in above reactions:

Choose the most appropriate answer from the

B 90. Choose the correct sequence of reagents in

88. The correct sequence given below

105. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from

Choose the correct answer from the options

119. The last chromosome sequenced in Human

128. Fatty acids are connected with the

130. Match List - I with List - II

148. Which of the following statements is not

Biology - 2 - Section 1. Cyprinidae 2. Hominidae

153. Which of the following is not a secondary

170. Match List - I with List - II

In the light of the above statements, choose the

176. Which one of the following acts as an

179. 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial

Choose the most appropriate answer from the

182. Given below are two statements:

In light of the above statements, choose the

187. Select the correct sequential steps

Choose the correct answer from the options

193. Select the correct statements:

200. Select the correct statement/s with respect

Choose the correct answer from the options

Fill OMR Sheet*

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