Pig.

cl CIOO •

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
By Apollon et.al.
CHAPTER 1 - Chemistry Questions
Clinical Chemistry. Questions
1. A volumetric pipette has an accuracy of:
A. 1:10 B . 1:100 C.,1:500 D. 1:1000
2 . i\ pipette with a bulb close to the de livery li1> Is "sed for viscous fluids and Is called
'
a:
A . Moh, pipette C . Lewis-Dahn pipette
i
13. Volumeuic pipette !:l . OslWald-Folin p pette
3. The etched rings on the top of a pipette means·
A. The pipette should be allowed to dra in onr, the last drop should remai n in the pipette
Ll. The last drop Is lo be blown out after the pirottes drains
C; The pipette I s oolor coded
D. The pipette is a volumetric pipette
4 . Standard solution from wh ch 99.95% of the chemical can be relrlevecl are referred to as:
i
A. Secondary standards C. Lyoph[ll?ed 51andards
B. Primary standards o. Preset standards
5 , When preparing solutions:
A . A percent sol ution can be prepared from a volum•tr lc solu1lon
a. A volumletic sotutiori can be prepared fron1 a perce 1)1 solution
C. A trip l e beam balance and cylinder are necessary In 1he preparation of any type of solution
0. Only an analytical balance,can be used in solution preparation __,. -'
6 . A solution in wh ich the molecules or solute tn solu1ion arn In equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules Is
referred to as:
A. Dilule B. Concentrated C . Saturated D. Supersaturated
7. Pure waler has a pH of :
A. 6,8 B. 7.0 ::: . 7.4 D. 9.0
8. A 1 x 1 0 "" N solullon of hydrochlortc acid (HCI) l\as a pH of:
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D . 12
9 . The stati stical tear, U1a1 most specifically describe• ana lylical precisi.011 is the:
A. Mode B . Mean c Median o. Coefficient oJ variation
10. Qua lity control sho.uld be used with all procedures to dele1TT1ine:
A. Accuracy B . Reliability C. P1eclsion 0 . Coefficient of variation

11. DELETED
.
1 2 . A procedure has a 2 SD variJtion from a mean value. How many valces from a no1TT1al population will the 2 SD
include:
A. 68.27% B. 84. 76% C . 95.45% u. 99.73%
1 3 . Material with physical and chemical properties closely resemb ling lhe test specimen and c�nlaining
concentralions of lhe substances being measured is kmown as:
A.' Control B . Standard C. Calibrator D. Reference solution
1 4 . Optical density, according to Bee(s law, Is:
A Inverse ly proporti onal to lhe conceotration
El Directly proporti onal to the conce,1trati on
C. PropMional lo 1r.e square of the concentration
D, ProporlionAI to the squore root of the concentration
15. Tllo <lil11:ic11co bclwce11 son11n HIid p lasma is lhal senun does 1101 contain:
A Thrombin B . Fibrin C. Fibrinogen D. Calcium
16. Two control sera. a re desirable for eac1, general chemls1ry procedure. Which of these combi nations would b'l
appmpriale?
A. Mean of no1TT1al range and abnOITTlal (high) C. Low normal range and abnormal (low)
B. H:g h normal ranQe and abnormal (high) O . Abnormal Qo�) and •bnormal (high)
17. Sodium Ouonde is used in speci men collection 10:
A . Prevent glycolysis C. Chel1le c.il cium
.
B. Prevent conwrsion of prothrombin to lhrombln D. Bind c.alcium
1 8 . Tt.e concenlratlon of oxalate recommended to be used as an anticoagulant, in mg/ml blood, Is:
A. 1-2 B. 2-4 C . 4-6 0. 6-8
19. Et11ylenediamlnc lelrdaceUc acid (c.DTA) works as anticoagulant by:
A. Chelating calcium
B. Preventing conv.ersion of prothrombi:t to thrombin
C. Forming an insolub le complex with calcium
D. Binding magnesium
- W. Th& venipuncture s,te for a routine puncture is crnnmollly cleaned with:
A. 90'/4 ale-0hol C .70% ale-0hol
B. BET ADINE (Purdue-Frederick) D•. Quaternary ammonium compounds
2, The one µrecau11on to be followed with a s, eci men for l,ilimbin determinulion is to:
A. Relrtoerate C . Protect lrorn ligh1
B. Cap and ,efrigerate D . Freeze immeclialely
22. Wh ich of these substances cannot be presol"•ed by rree.ling?
A Blood urea n�rogen C . Lactic dehydr1J9onaso
II <:1c1:1ll11n klnw.,, l-;r)c•u✓y1111, 0 l'tw1 i11i1 m,hl 11hr,•, 1 ,l1111t1-in
l
:·:• � l'llllll lhlll :,ftuul\l I),• dt.lWtl 1,1 Ult.! :11111\t.' lhlh' �•I\ :,ttU:t. ·�•IVI' '111y:1 "' nvuhl
A Diurnal varialion C. Elfeci oT ,neJ,cahon
A C:lrnnr..r, o1 ron:;11mS)lifln u, r11olmy i1011 • 0 f�u•,IH'll11lti:ilil inl aor.. ,rpl1011 ol 11110
'i1 Wlm:h of 1111, p1nlf1in\l. •� •:fllublo In wulm:
A. Albumin B. Bela globulins C. Ga!T'ma globulins D . Hlstones
25. The alpha-amino acids const itute the basic b1 1ldlng blO<'ks of proteins, Tile amino acids aro Joi ned together to
form a chainlike structure through:
A. Disulfide bonding B. 1-'ydrogen bondinn C. Covaltlnl hon<llll{J D. Peplide bonding
2 6 . W111ch ol the lour elements in p,-oleins differentiate this rlass or substane-0s rrom carbohydrates and lipids?
A. Carbon B . Hydrogen c. Nttrogen D. Oxyge,
27. Vv'hich amino acid cannot rotate polarized Ug'tl?
A . Cystine B. Glycine C . Histidine D . Thio11ine
28. Proteins may oocome denatured when subjected l o mechanical agitation, heat, or exueme chemical treatment.
Denaturation of proteins refers to an:
A. A lteration in primary structuro c. Alteration in te11lary structuro
B. A lteration in see-0ndary structure D, Increase In solubility
29. The hemoglobin rnea.sur�ment technk1ue employed for 11<1000 donors i�:
A. Refractive index C. Flotation technique of Phill ps
B. Hemogl obin electrophoresis o. Falling drop technique i
30. The ration of velocitie s or light in two different 'lledia telurs to the:
A. Density gradient C. Rotation of polartzed tight
B. Refraciive Index 0. Ultraviolet absorption
31. Tile most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6 Is:
A. Alpha, globulin B. Albumi n C . Beta.g lobulin D. Gamma glol>ulin
32. Proteins are di polar or zwi!lerion compounds containi ng both positive and negative charges. When a p:otein is at
its l�arect,ir: p(lint, th� rmi�in will tmvA n:
A Nt1I ,1111, 1.1,111u,1 IJ ,,11 "' / IJ C N,11 111mlllv•• 1,hm�n t) Nol flhUhlhlh 1,luuuo
33 Svedberg ($) nurnbel' fete, to p,·otel11:
A. Electrophoresi s B . Fl otation C, Preciphat ion D . Ultracentlifugatlon
34 Tho mnr.roglobulins bolono 10 whnt s0<1imon111IIon cl11ss.'
A �.�:.; U . /.00 �- ti.uu u. IY.US
35 A"}; urine Is honte<1, fl procipltnlo appears at 60 C and dis,1pr,oars nl 100 C Tho �11hslnnco prosont l: a·
A. Macrogtot>ulln B. Cryogl obulln C. Bence Jones JlfOto 11 D Proleaso
36. The pcocess or separating albumi n from globulins usir,g sodium sulfate Is know, as:

l
A. Floatatio n B. Protein precipitation C. Salting out Cl . Ultracenllilugation
37. lhe conversion of protein nitrogen contant to protei n content depends on the factor:
A. 6.25 B. 6.54 C. 6.63 D. 6:, 3
38. Which of the followi ng Is NOT true of the bluret ,eactlon?
A Fnllnw�; Rorn·� h1w to, fl fnsHton,,llln u11tt1•• nr ruolulu
11 l.>11ptt11ch11111 1h11 111r1:;1t1U,i, 1,r bl IUbt>I IWl1 j,1,pt11l1, lt1k'1Uht1
l
1

C. Is relatlvely free from interlerence by lipids nnd hemogloll111

D . Is insensitive to the low prote in levels of urine
39. In acute ,enal failure which nonproteln nitrogen rises tile fastest?
A . Uric acid B . Blood urea nitrogen C Crealinine O. Crealine •
,w Why b hiomcu:��ul p111plt1 tho 1.11oh,1u,,11111!\:ului rm 11 hwu 11 dyn h1111lin\J '"i:1111h:10
l l
A. It lends ,Isell to manual and automat,'<l proceclure:s wst
6 II never binds with alpha nnd beA otobuli ns
C 'l r.M bo cmployucl wilh hupnrfn ,11LI pln :;11111
l
D . T�ero is less interference trom ptgment
41 . Which reagent is employed in the serum protJin detenmination?
A. Molybdenum blue B. Ferrlferrocyanlde C. Resorcinol-HCI D . Biuret
11) Hnmoly,od !:Of11111 i:houhl 1101 ho us-od tor totnl IH01uln bOCflUSO'
A Hemoglobin ,s absotb(>.d at tho SArne wavtlongth ;as protein of ol uu:t fOl.'geru
B Of e: ,vated protein nn,ounts in red blood cells as compared to serum
C Hemoglobin reads wit,, blurel reagent
n Tlu1 vahm will t in l1il�11ly1!1 w111111,
43 I 111bidily in serum is ,1ssocI ated will• Ille pl'usen,.o or :
/J. Cholesterol B. Chylom,c,ons C. Free fatly oCKJs D. Toi:11 lipids
44, 0Iye-0proteins and mucoprotelns are usually bound to:
A . Lactose and sucrose C. Galactose and mannosl.
B. Lactose and maltose D. Glucose a,id sucrtse
45. All of the following are glye-0protelns. except:
A Ceruloplasmin B .Follicte stimulating hormc,ne C. Fibrtnogen D .Cryoglobulln

...
46. Which of these statements is not appncable to mucoproteins?
A. They are proteins complexed willl Cllrbohydrates
8. They are related to glycoprotei ns
c. They contain more than 4% hexosa•nine
0 Hormones and coagulation proteins are included In this class
47, H�w many immunogtobufin classes are currently recog,1lzed?
A . One · 8. Three c. Four O. Five
48. Wh£,i performing an lmmunogl obuJin tleclrophoresis, there must be prnsent:
A Excess anUgen
8. Excess antibody and const.ant trough d istance between antibody and ant'gon
C . Acetate malrix
0. Oireot current
49 A normal serum protein c•ectrophoresls has �pproximately 60% albumin and s.10% each c,f the other 4 fractions,
If an electrophoretic pallem :lhows 10% albumi n, 4-10% of other fractions eYce� gamma wh ich Is 4�%. you
would expect what r-0nd1tlon to exist in the pali ent?
A . Cirrhosis C. Inflammation
lJ. Monoclonal gamm�pathy I) _ Chronic lymphocyUc leuken\la
�o. Nhich or the following applies to cryoglobulins?,
A. They are temperature-sensitive proteins
8, The blood spechnen sl\ou ld clot al ,0010 ternµerature
C The sample unit must remain at room tempe;ature so that precipitation can be observed
D. Only qualitative lests are available
51. Which or the follov.ing statements is true of albumln?
A. Compared to globulin. ii makes up the lesser portlo,, of total protein
13 lls si,c prevents its passage through e11c11 a dama1,ed glornerutar hurrier
C, IL is p1t.x.lucctl 111 thv hVOI
0 . Cllnlcai problems ar� usually related to h igh serum values
52. To measure urinary prote in you can use:
A 8iuret reagent C. 8romcresol purpl e
8. 8iuret reagent with tri�h lorcaceUc acid pre',reatmen• of ur ine 0 . 8romcresol green
53, An elevated cr&alinlne valce is most likely 10 be accomr,anied by wh ich of lhese values?
A Normal urfc acid C. Normal blood urea nilrogen
8 . Elevated urfc acid, 1 Ox creatinlne value D .Elevaled blood urea n itrogen, 1 Ox cr�atlnine value
'i-1 Tl•• •1mv��rc.inn f:,r.tnt Fof hloo(I otc:. 1 uilr()Qrn In 11mn i<.
I, I 10 U � t-1 I. :1 14
�;-, Uy the ureaso 11it:U100, uiea Is mzymaucan� convertttd to.
A Ammonia 8. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen o. Amino groups
'••• , 11111,wh)Cf i111rn: 1;:111 h11 o:;o,f tor tho d1ll0111.1111111ou ur u,,1a 11v 111,1 (h1u,,·1y1 111t1U0Jt1uu1 111c)t111ul l'Mu 11111n·
I, l)J;1ly�11;, 1111111 m1toa11u!y1.m 11•111uvus 111tu,lml11u sul.fuh.1 11ws
8 . The method is not measurtng ammonia
C. The increased temperature destroys 1he 1mfn01tia
0. Zinc does nol intertere
57. Urinary creatine may be eleva led ;n which ot I1,e followi 19?
A, Kidney failure 8 .Cirrtlosis of the liver C. Muscle deslfuction 0. Intestinal blockage
58. The measurement or croaiinin9 is based on the formeti•\n or· o ycUow-red color with:
A. Alka line picrale 8. Ehrtich's ,�auent C . Phosphomolybdale D. Titan yellow
59. The dassic creatinlne reaction Is that 01.
A Jaffe 8. Uoyd C . Kje,,..ahl o, Nessler
60. The specificity of the Jaffe reaction can be er.. ,anced b):
A Adsorption with Lloyd's reagent C, Prior treatment with urease
R Boillnri D. Prior treatment wilh ulicnse
1, I A •h•,m•��o ::lnh ; m�? .octnh i(t will, 1111 olovolluu ut :;urum , 11<: Of:N1 t:::
A Atlu.:u,:.,clo,o�..n . 0 A1lh1lhs C IJ,nlx•lo: , D Gln1I
ti� Thi� most COl1Ul1l)l1 (CllO\!lll ,m1ploymf 111 1111( .u:1t-1 111ctho(hlhl�!Y LJv l\1�11111"\t' oxu..ltUIOfl 1:-.
A. Potassium pennanganate C . Potassiu,n persulf�le
n rIu,�11hot1111osllr. nci,t O 1 tyd1rn:lil<l1I,: Jodd (I Ir.I)
GJ I ho unClJse method for uric acid assay depouds on.
r, IJllrnv iold tih!mrption pA!lk al 290 nm bn1nrn And al!nr tro:Hnumt w1Ih 111ir.n�e
II (�1,l1'11,l11)11 of 1,vufvocl t,fl'o 1111111 UIIC:111,(J ,•.,,.,�,u,ul
(.; hh:Iuaso 111 :1U!>1u511trn1 ,111u1 ' wh;.:.l:iu huullu,11I1
D. Measuremoot of blue..violet col o1
04 TtH! most prec;ise rncthOCI for amino n,..id deU ,minntion ls
/\ lsuthurrnut lfl�Hllullo11 <,; J\lk.011110 ux1d11 ho11
8. Gasometric nlnhydrln reacti on D . Color devalopmenl wtth 8011halo1 reagent
65, The. urea clearance test rs an Ind icati on o�:
A. Overall kidney function C. Tubular !unction
8 . Tubu la r rcabso<plion D , Glomerular fillration
66. The crealinine clearance is based on lhe assl!mpt ion 1h11 crealin ine:
A. Passes into the uttrafiltrate C. Is converted to creatine
8. Is relained In the blood 0 . Is passively real,sorOO'i by the kidney tubule
67. WhiOh of the dearance tests offers the most accurate measure or glome,.itar filtration?
A lnulln 8 . Creatinlne C. Urea L>. 1raminohippurate (PAH)
68. Which or the clearance tests offers the best measure ot tubular function?
A. Creoti rune B. lnutin C. p.am,nohippurale (PAH) D .Urea
69. A ctealinine clearance test is pertormed. The 24-hOur volume of urine Is 770 ml; serum crealinine Is 2.0 mgldl
H1K.I urine c1 eali nine ls 240 mg/dl. Whal is lhe dean:tnce expressed i11 1nl plasma cleared per rnl11ute, assuml1,y
average body sutface?
A . 6.0 8 . 38.4 C. 60.0 D .924.0
7 0 . The usual determination of osmolallty Involves measurement of:
A . pCO, and pO, B. Na• and K' C. Electrolytes D. Freezing point depression
71. Which or I.he following is true of blood glucose?
A The renal threshold is 200•240 mg/dl
B. Once excraled In the gl omerular filtrate, glucose must be excreted In the urine
C, A high blood glucose must be assoel ated with a positive uine glucose
D. In the glucose tolerance •es• (GTT), one may be faced with a norms: blood glucose, accompan ied by a
positive urlne glucose
72. Patients with borderline blood glucose levels are further investigated by per forming:
A . Postprandial sugar (PPS) C . lnulin tolerance lest
B. Fasting blood sugar D . 3 hour glucosg' tolerance test (GTT)
73, The lest Iha! gives a two to three (2·3) month picture or a dl abelic's glucose levels Is:
A . Hemogl obin A, C, Hemoglobi n A,C
B. 2 hour postprandial sugar D. 3 hour glucose tolerance test
74. Which of the foUowing precautions is necessary lo insure validit y or lhe glucose tolerar ce test?
A. A 1 SO gram/day earbohydrate d iet for 3 days prior to the test
8. A fasting state before glucose i.s given
C. No undue stress before or duri ng the test
o. All or the above
75. Conlamlnalion or the glucose reagent with catalase is a pruble111 with wt,i ch glucose method?
A . Alkaline cupric ion reduction (neocuproine) , , C .Glucose oxid&se
B. Alkaline ferr i c ion reducti on (fenicyan ide) D .Hexoklnase
76, The hexokinase methodology for glucose determination is baSC'd on:
A . Reduced coenzyme read al 340 nm
8. Rose-p ink color of oxygen-o-diansidine
C. Peroxidase acting upon H20, released from glucose
D. Protein-rree filtrate .
77. Proteins are precip�ated by wh ich or the following reagents in the Fohn-Wu method?
A. Tunastic acid B .Trichloroacetic acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Hydrochloric acid
78. The interferlng reducing substances In the Falin-Wu glucose method may be removed by:
A . Dial ysis C. Zinc-barlum precipilalion
B. Tungstate precip i!alion D. Heating
7 9 . 111 the copper reduction method ror glucose, measurable color is developed through the formation of:
A, Copper sulfate c. Copper-<:obalt complex
B. Molybdenum blue D. Phosphomolybdenum
80. The most frequently employed automated method for glucose uses:
A. Coupled enzyme system consisting or glucose oxidase-and catalase
B. Reducti on of alkaline cupric Ion
C. Addition or molybdenum blue
D. Reduction of alkaline ferricyanide to ferro<:yanide .
81. When sugars are separated by chromatography, the appllcallon of an isa ldehyde/sulfuric acid/ethyl alcohol spray
will idenliry galactose as what color spot?
A.· Blue B. Grey C. Green D. Yellow
8 2 . Seliwanorrs lest detects:
A . Dextrose B. Glucose C. Lactose D. Fructose
83. Xylose excretion is h el pful in the delerminalion or:
A. lnteslinal mal absorplion c . Pancretic secrelion
B. Renal c learance D. Uver failure
84. Prehepatlc bilirubin has which or the following ror a protein carrier?
A. A lbumin B. Alpha2 globulin C. Beta globulin D. Gamma globulin
8 5 . An Increase in indirect-reading bilirubin is suggestive of:
A. Bile acid build-up C. Hemoglobin breal,down
8. Lipid accumulation D. Gamma globuOnemla
86. Direct-reacting billrubin is:
A. Free blllrubln C . Bllirubln diQluCtJronlde
B . Bilirubin bound to albumin D . Bilirubln bound to red blood cells
87. Bilirubin Is converted in the intestines 10 wh ich or the following:
A. Porphobillnogen B. Hemoglobin C. Urobilinogen D. Phospho lip id
88. Which of the following will intetfere with the Evelyn and Malloy method for bilirubin?
A. Lipemia B. Hemolysis C. Anliconvulsants o. Alcohol
8 9 . The ·pon w ine• color of some urines can be attributed to:
A. Porphyrins B. Melanin C. Red blood ce?ls D . Bilirubi n
90. Para-<llmelhylamlnobenza ldehyde Is a co•.s�Iuen1 of which reagent?
A. El\tlich B . Sa lkOWSKi C . Dtabki n r,; Bloor
 p.,,� <..1 ' 1f\
1}1 t,,,111 ptuphoh1 lim>u1111 ,md 11,,,1>,ll noovn Imm II u14J col tJHl'fl ,.rn11p11mHI wtlh Llul11�11·•• ,uuu1111 l l1't1t111111 tu1 1ll,11 ,.uu
l)(l ootalned by:
A. Solubility or porphobilinogen in chlorotorm C. o,uerence in uv absorpt ion
8. Solubllil y or urobi llnogen in waler O. Solu bilily or urobili nogen In cl1lu1oro1111
gl fhliMIi11 will <1nv81np n vinlol �Al lor A0or wlIlr,l1 n l lhn lnllowino is a,t,11><1:
A I lydwch lrnh: ucl,t C Mulhyl ttll: ohnl
B . Ehrlich's reagent o. Van den Bergh' s reagr,nt
93. A uMne specimen that exhi bits yellow loam , n being shaken shOuld be suspecte;d or having an increased
concentration ot.
A . Kelones 8 . Glucose C. Bilirub l n • D. N�rite
94. An enzyme may be defined as a/an:
A . Biol ogical catalyst C . Metal catalyst
8. Inorganic catalyst O Large molecu le of biological lmpt.
95. Hemolysts wlll lnlerfere with all of the following enzyme measurernenls except:
A. Alkaline phosphate C. Aldolase
B. Laclale dehydrogenase D . Aspartale aminolransrerase
96. A high alkaline phosphatase level In Ihe presence o· �lher negative liver runction tests I s Indicative of:
A. Obsl n1 ctlve Jaundice C Carcinoma or lhe liver
B. Hepatitis 0 . �emolytic disorder
97. A metal ion is sometimes necessa,-,. in an enzymatic rea, lion to:
A . Act as an activatoror lhe enzyme C. REgulale pH
8. Permit the colorimetric reaction to occur D. I,1hibft competing enzymes
98. Which of me rouowing is true or an isoenzyme?
A . The substrate Is dirferent rorm each isoenzyme
B. The rate or reaction Is the same ror each enzyme w ith its own substrate
c. The electrophoretic property Is difrerent for each isoenz.yrne
D. Any or a group or isoenzymes w ill react the same to heat denaturalion
99. As the temperature is increased From 25 C to 37 C in lhe aspartate aminotransferase reaction, lhe activity of the
reaction.
A. Almost doubles B. Is halved c. I s tripled D. Is reduced 10 zero
100. The Michaelis-Menlen constant in the rate of conver.;i on of substrale 10 producl is determi ned by:
A. Substrate concenlratlon
8 . Substrale concentration and rale or dissociation or enzyn e-subSlrale complex
C. Temperature, pH and substrate concentralion
D Temperature and pH
101. In a zero order reaction, ,here wi ll be no further lne<ease in ,e locity because:
A. There is no excess substrate C. All enzyme is bound to sullStrate
13. The temperature is 35 C O. There is excess enzyme
102. Lipase catal yzes the hydrolysis of:
A . Starch 8. Gelalin C . Glycerides 0 . Sugar
103. Whli;h of Lile follmvi ng is Imo of tho isoon,ymo LO-t II is
A. The s lowest moving or the lactate dehydrogenase (LD) isoenzymes electrophoresis
8. The most positively charQed fraction
C . A heal-labi le Fraction
0 . Present In the greatest amount In normal heart tissue
104. Lactate + NAO ➔ Pyruvate + NAOH. The catalyst in the reaction is:
A. • Asparate amiootransferase (AST) C . Laclale dehyd,ogenase (LOH)
B. A l dol ase 0 . Alanine ami notransferase (ALT)
1OS. Serum creatine k·inase Is clinically significant in diseases of the:
A. Pancrease B. Liver C . Musc le O. Gonads
I 06. crealine ki nase is lrequenlly e levated in disorders such as acute mya<:ardial infarc!ion (Ml ) and:
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Cirrhosis
El Acute hepatit is D. Infections
107. Tho kinetic or rate enzymatic methodologies , optical density decreases as:
A. Tri phosphopyridine mucteolide (TPN) Is changed 10 triphosphOpyridlne nucleotide r'E!duceo Form (TPNH)
B . Nicolinamide adenine dinuel eolide (NAO) is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinuc leotide - reduced form
(NADP)
C . Nicotinamide adenine dinueleotide - reduced fonn (NAOP) is changed 10 nicolinamlde adenine dinucteolide
(NAO)
0. Ceric ion is changed to r..erous
108. In myocardi al Infarction, Ihe clinical ly s ignificant enzymes are:
A c,ealine kinase, aspartale aminotransferase, alanine ami notransferase
8. Crealine kinase, aspartale aminolransferase, lactate dehydrog�nase
C . Aldolase. aspartate aminotransferase, alani ne aminotransferase
0 . Lactate dehydrogenase, alanine am inotransferase, aspartale aminotransferase, aldolase
109. During a suspected myocardial infarction, you should perform crealine phosphokinase i�oenzyme and
laciate dehydrogenase lsoenzymes to demonstrate lhe:
A . MB fraction of crealine kinase and LD-5
B. MBfraction of crealine kinase and the LD 1-2 flip
C. LD-S and LO-3
D . BB fraction or creallne kinase and LO·1
110. In muscular dystrophy, the cffnlcally slg, 1,flcant enzymes are:
A. Creatine kinase. al dolase, aspartate amlnotransferdse
B. Al anlne aminotransferase. aldolase. lactale �ehydrogenase
c. vrealfne kJnase , aspartate aml nohansferase, al anine aminotransferase
D. Al dol ase. aspartate aml notransreras�. alanine aminotransferase
111 Ceruloplasml n Is an al pha, gl obulln that binds:
A. Copper B. Coba" C. Iron D. Manganese
112. Po, ,ibly the most sensitive enzyme indicator or liver function. partl cul a,ly le obst�octlve jaundice, I s:
A. Alkaline phosphatase c. Acid phosphatase
B. Al anine aminotransferase D. Lactol,:,.dehydrogcn1se
1 13 . In a · cute viral hepalili5, wllich or the following would NOT be suspected�
A. Al kaline phosphatase increase greater thar, aspartate aminotransferase
,J Lactate dehydrogenase - 5 Increase
c. Gamma-glutamyl traosrerase increase, mi ld
D. Aspartate aminotransferase and alani ne minot.-ansrerase increas e 10 to 200 • ro1 .:i
11 4, What is the optimum pH for acid phosphat,se?
A . 3.0 B. 5.0 C. 7.0 D. 9.0
115. The cJinical significance or an el evated acid phosp�atase I s:
A. Renal disease B. Pancreatic disease c. Bone disease D . Prostotic di sease
116.. If an acid phosphatase test cannot be perfo.nned immediate l y after colleclion, h lw should tho serum be
treated?
A. Acidity10 pH or 2 O. rreeze C. Cap and freeze D. Either acidify or freeze
1 1 7 . rests ror aeio phosr•Mtase e1eIecI level s of me enl ,me rrom tissues sueh as:
A. Bone, liver, spl een, kidney, erythrocytes and pl atete.ts
B. Bone. l iver and kidner
C. Muscle. spl een, and �• atelrts
D. Liver, splebn. prost•te, and pl atelets
118. The scbst.rate for the Cherry -Crandall l, pnse method is:
/\ Clyi orid<· 8, Nitmphonyl ,"lcc:Ioio c. onvo oil 0. sIorr.h
11'1 l•:t; u w1 1.: m1111t1 d (: ul ,; hun c;..,,o hu ciuinou cl wllhuut ulfor1 1h1u lllu 1t,tt1I ,:uh; huu ln v11I, wtwl otllm rmrumotor/11
11111: ,1 uo known 10 pr<)rlt1rly c:ivulunto cnfC, um?
A 1•t ' B Phosph lrus c; MCIQl)(1�l 1m1 u pH t111 <1 11101v1n
120. The Classic Clark - Colll p method for calch,m I s based on the assumpllon Ina1 cal cium will be:
A Precopilaled as cal cium carbonate
B Precipitated as an oxal ate and converte<' to an oxide
C Chelated wilh EOTA
D . Preci pitated as an oxal ate and convertec1 to oxclic acid
121 I n tho ti1ration or calci um oxalate with potassium pe<mangana1e, the te, nperature musl be maintained at:
A. 1-4 C B. 37 C C. 60-80 C 0. 100 C
122. A low parathyroid hoomone level will cause a:
A Low serum phosphorcs C. Low serurn calcium
B. High uri ne caleiurn le\'el D. High serum cal eium level
123. In the compleximetric titration (EDl �) met�od for cal cium. the pH must be adjusted to prevent:
A, Incomplete precipitation or cal cium c. A reversible color change
B, lnlerference by magnesi um D . Co•binding or phosphonis
124. What is the purpose or lanthanium In the .:oml c absorption detennination or cal cium? Lanthanlum:
A Is Involved in s!artino up the inslrument C. Will hi nd calcium
l'.t 1:-; P,.'Jf1 ol l hc hollow ,;nlht><:o di�.ChUt(JU t11l>t1 0 wm hi nd r,ll 'J',f !hnl o
125. All of lhe rouowl ng c11n cause low chl orldi! luvols, E <.CEPT
A . Diabetic acidosis B . Renal fail ure C. Pro,onged •,orntt,ng D. Dehydralion
126. Inorganic ph0Sph.;1te can he de1emiinPd fro,,, n comhinntinn of trirhl omflce.tic acv1 filtralA nn<1·
A SIOIIIIUUS �hloddu (; f u11y�l 11te
B . Glacial acetic -sulfuric acid D. Mvl ybdate
127. Al a pH o l 7.4. most or the inorganic phosphoate in 1:1e Plasma is in whicll ronn?
A. HPO, B. PO, C. H,,PO, D . P2O5
128. A phosphorus value or 2.5 mEq/L would be how m,.ny rng/dL7 (At.W. P:31)7 •
A. 4.3 B. 5.2 C. 8.5 D. 2.S
129. The col orimetric method ror magneslurn �mrl oys which reagent?
A. Mol ybdate B. Cal cium oxal ate <:. iitan yell ow D . 8-hydroxy-5-qulnoiine
130. The first step in lhe sewm Iron methoct involves:
A. Break up of the iron - protei n compfe� c. Addmon or excess iron for pro,ei n to absorb
B . Reaction ofiron with a chromogen D . Measurement of amuunt of r-ee serum iron
t :\1 The major ex11l!Cell ular cation i.s:
t, Chlo• kJu a. M.:moancsu
1l2, The major intracellul ar r.atlon l s:
A. Chloride B. Manganese C. Potassium o. Sodium
l'.l3 Whi�h of t11c: :P por11�si111n volucs wou ld 1 ,,� IN1nod .1y 1<1k:111�1nic?
A 3 0 111111ut/l 1
O �.O 11111101 /l C � / 111111101/L IJ I t, 111111 01/l
134. What is tile I nternal standard when sodiu•n and 001.1sslum are measured by llame photometty?
A. Calcium B . Lithi um C. Magnesium D. Copper
135. In the Classic Schal es and l;chales (mercurlmelric tttration) method for chloride, whJt substanc,, rea� wltt
the indicator to ronn J viol .et color?
A . HgCI , B. HNO , c Excess Hg" n.Br
136. In the coulometric - amperometnc method fo; chloride. the amount of chloride is measured by:
Ager produced
A. Time needed to reach the titration endpo:nt
i
B . Amount or current needed to generate A<
C. Rate or generation or current
0 . Time needed to reach the titrallon endpoint
137. In gasometric analysis of co,. the llberatecl gas is a�rbed w'.th:
A. Lactic acid B. Hydrochloric Ad� c. sutruric acid e,, Sodium hydroxide
138. What is the purpose or caprylic alcohol in the gasometric method for CO2? To:
A. Prevent foaming •
C. Absorb CO2
8 . Release co, 0. Maintais the •tmospher ic pressure a t a constant value
139. The normal pH or blood is:
A 6.50 - 7.50 B. 7.05 -7.35 C. 7.35-7.45 0. 7.45 -7. 65
140. Which of the foltowlng Is the Henderson - Hasselbalch equation?
A . PK. = pH+ log dissociated sail C. pH= PK.+ ffi:l
undissociated sail (HA)
a. pH= PK. + log undlsso.:jated salt o. pH = pl� + loo dissociated salt/A·)
dissoci ated salt ui: dlssociated sail (HA)
141, The ratio or bicarbonate: carbonic acid in normal plasma is:
A. 1 :20 B. 5:1 C . 10:1 0. 20:1
142. Most of the CO2 in the blood is present in wh ich form?
A . Disso lved CO2 C. Calcium carbonate
B . Bicarbonate Ion 0 .Ammonium carbonate
143. What will happen If blood Is exposed to air durtng collection for pH and blood gas .tudles?
A. CO2 content increases B . pH decrea·,es C . PO, decreases 0 . pCO, decreases
144, If u,e glass electrode of the pH Inst, wnent is coat.,.; wijh protein, the pH value will be:
A, Too high B. Too low C. Unchanged D .Vanable
145. Which of the following is true of the pC02 electrode?
A, Only charged particles can cross the membrane
B. Both charged and uncharged particles cJn cross the membrene
C. The actual pH of th!! sample has no effect
O There is no cal ibration avail able for the e!ectroJe because gases are invc,lved
1 46. The wavelength at which oxyhemog1 ,,bin and reduced hemoglobin hav• the sam" absorl>ance is referred to
as the:
A. Differential polnt B. lsoelectnc poi nt C. Equi valence point O i':quflibratlon point
·, 17. Which or these statements Is a,>propriate for the plotUng of a conce·,tra!IJn curve? On:
A Semi -log paper. plot % units on y ax.is and �tandard concentration on x axis
R Sem -log paper. p(�t standard concentration on y axis and absorbance on x a,is .
i
,. Linear graph paper. plo t absorbance on x axis and standard conc,wraticn on y axis
0. Linear graph paper. plot absorbance on y ax.is und % on T on.x axis
148. \Mien performing spectrophotometer q·, allty r,0nlro1 checks. the holm;um oxide glass fitter is . used to assess:
A. Stray light B . Linearity c. Absorbanc.e accuracy 0. V\'a ,elenglh accuracy
149. For the ul traviolet range. which or these must be employed In the spectrophotomeler?
A. Oiff, ·&clion grating B. Glass prisrr, C. Quar1Z cuveue o. Tungsten tamp
150. Measurement by flame photometry involves:
A. Absorpt ion of energy when an element i:; Ionized
3, 8ectrometric Utration
C. Colorimetrtcana lysls
0, Emission of a col or .v�en an element is burned
151. Atomic absorption speclrosoopy is based on the m�asurement of:
A. Light given off by exc ited atoms
B . Light absorbed et wavelen�lh of resonance line by Jnexcited atoms
C. Energy emttted by ultraviol�t treated atoms
0 . Energy ern�ted by Infrared treated atoms
152. IMlat is the light source In atomic absorplion instrumen1ation?
A. .:.,thode tamp B. Flame C . Grating 0 . Prlsm
153. o,·enching ls a disadvantage encountered In:
A, F luorometry B. Atomic adsorpti ,n C . Flame photometry O . Nephelometry
15' To achieve the best levels of sensltlvll" and specifirJty, a type of detector system that a gas chromatograph
may be coupled to Is a/an:
A. Fluoresecnce detector C. Bl chromatlc spectrophotometer
B . Ultraviolet spectrophotometer o, Mass spectrophotometer
155. Automated chemistry systems, whether tJiscrete or continuous now, m, ,s, include:
A Unknowr_,. reagent, mixing or the previot: s two menlioned ingredlents. readion analysis. ca lculation alld
reporting of results
B. Unkm,wn, m ixing. incubation, calculation, and reporting of resul's
C. Standards. mixing, incuba1ion, and repc 1ing of rese lls
0 . Unknown, m ixing, incubation, and r�pning of •esult s
156. I f a n isotope has a fla!l-tife of 1 2 hours and a n activity o f24 mil licuries (mC i), wt,at will !)e as acti v ity i n 36
!lours?
A . 3mCI B . 6 mCI C . 9 mCi D. 12 1nCi
157 Concentrated sul(uric acid has a normaltly ol:
A . 12 8 . 16 C . 18 0. 36
158. Maleh the following types of instruments with tne description:
t Mixtures ciln t>a s«parc1ted Into 1nd lvkh1al com r:,<>unds 10 he measrn �d 011 H�e basis of differences In their
physical cnaracterisllcs
2 . Analyles are measured in a sample by means or lulling diameter and now rate
3, Samples and reagents are pipetted into c.urvettes. read in a photometer and resutls are calculated
4 . Ughl absorbed by an element Is converted into the concentration ol I.h e el ement
5. The llghl emllled by an elemtint as ij falls from a h gh energy stale to a low energy stale I s convened into the
i
co, ,cco11·ation of U"� cl omonl
a Atomic absorption c . Flame photometry e. Chromatography
h. Discrete processing systern d. Co111inuous now analysis
159 The major bindi ng protei n forT-4 is:
A . Albumin c:Thyrold binding prealbumln (TBPA)
·a. Thyroid-binding globu lin (T8G) D . None, T-4 is free l n plasma
160. What purpose does iodine se,ve In the protein-bound iodine (PBll methodoloov?
A. Holds organic iodine in the prolein-bound slate
B. Acts as a catalyst in the cerierarsen ite reaction
C. Compensates for loss of inorganic iodi ne ·in the washing stage
D . Keeps mercur, rrom suppressing tM c olor rea.ction
161 A T-4measured as iodine is 1.8 mcg/dl. To wllal thyroxine val ue ls ii equivalent?
A. 1.10 B . 2. 7 5 C. 3.60 0, 5.40
162 In T-4 by radio lmrr.unoassay (RIA), the more lllyroxine present 1n the patient's serum:
A . The more 1he amount or radioadive-labeled thyroxine bound to anUbody
8. The less the amount of radioactive-labeled thyroxine bound to antibody
C. The less free radioactive-labeled thyroxine to be absorbeCl
0. A and C
163. T-3 uptake i� actually a measurement or.
A. T-3 8 . T-4 C. TBG 0 .Free thyroxine
164, The following tests are good Indications of hypothyroidism except:
A . T-3 uptake C, Total T-4 by radi;tmmun >�ssay \RIA)
B. Free T-4 by rodioirnmunoassay (RIA) D. T-3 by radioimmunoassa1 (RIA)
165. Whi ch of the steroids is identified as an 16-carbon compound that possesses " �henolic "A" ring?
A . Adrenocortical steroids C . Estrogens
B, Androgens 0, Progesterone
166. The estrogen with the greatest concentration In urine is:
A. Estnol B. Estradiol C. Estrone D. Progesterone
107 The standard ror 17-ketosteroid determi nations is:
A . Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Oehydroepiandrosterone D. Aldosterone
168. Willen of the followiog is true regarding pregnanediol? It l s:
A. A C-19 compoui nd C . Manuractured in the adrenal medulla
8 . The excret on product or progesterun·, D. Altered in the adrenal medull a
169 . Which or the foll owing is true of steroid�?
A . They are excreted as hormones rather tnan metabol ites
B. There ls no differential val ue for maJc and female
C . They are Upids
D . They contai n the 21 carbon atoms of the cy:lopentanopertiydrophenanthrene ring
170. . Whet Is the honnone that controls the reabso ,:>lion of socfo.im In the kidney?
A. A ldosterone B. Alcohol dehydrogenase C . Estrogen D . Growth hormone
171. The Kober reaction refers to the pi nk color, esulti ng from the com bination of hot concentrated sutturic acid
and oxtraded:
A. Estrogens B . Androgens C. Corticosteroids D. 17-ketosterolds
172. The lttrich exlraction for estrogens involves the reagent:
A. Phenylhydrazone B. p-nltrophenol c. m-dlnttrobenzene D. Sodium bl smuthate
173. The Porter-Silber reactions employs phenylhydraziM to detect:
A . Estrogens B . Corticosteroids C . 17-ketosterolds D. Catecho lamines
174, The Zimmerman determination of 17-ketosteroids is based on reaction with:
A . Acetic anhydride C . IAeta-dlnilroben2ene
B. Ehrtlch's reagent D . Potassium ferricyanide
175. For the measurement of 17-kelogenlc steroids (17-hydroxycorticostero lds), prior treatment with what reagent
Is required?
A . m-di nllrobenzene B. Hot sulfuric acid C. Sodium bismuthate o. Chlorororm
176. Catecholamines are see<eted by the:
A, Kidney B. Pituitar, C. Adrenal cortex D . Adrenal medulla
177. Which of the following is a metabolite or epinephrine?
A. 17-kelosteroids ' c . Vanillyl mandelic acid
E. Follicle stimulating hormone D . Thyro;d stimulati ng honnone
178. A two-hour pregnancy test can measure:
A. Androgens C. Estrtpens
B Chorionic gonadotropins, beta subunit 0 . Progesterone
 ._...... . ----·-Pegc9ofl0
179. Which of these statemenis Is true or an immunological test for pregnancy?
A. Only first morning urine specimen I s s u i table
B. Wtth Ihe aggluti nalion inhi bition melhod, t: ,e presence o f agglutlnatlon means a ne(latlve test
C. Drugs do not present a problem wUh inte1:a(ence
D. The hoimone level In the urtne detectable ')y this method steadil y increases aflerlhl first two week.'! of
gestation
180. Which subunit of huma1 chor!onic gonadotropln (hC 3) wlll give a very speci fic racllolmmunoassay ,est for the
measurement of tiCG?
A. Alpha B. Bela C. 3amma D. Delta
181� Which of the foUowi ng specimens is/are used for pregnancy iests?
A. Cerebrosp i nal fluid B. Blood C. :Jone D . B and C
182. An ectopic pregnancy Is one that occurs In the:
A. Stomach B. Urethra C Fallop.an tubes D . Ovarle�
183. Human ch0r!onic.9onadotropln (hCG) is secreted by the:
A . Thymus gland B. Placenta C. Ovary D . Ureter
184. The h ighest level of human chononic gonadotropin (hCG) occurs In wti lch llimester or pregna11 cy?
A . First trimester B. Second trimester C .Thi rd trimester D . NOTA
185. A g l ycoproteln consisting of two nonidentical noncovalenUy bound subunits Is:
A. Estrogen C. Androgen
B . Progesterone D. Human chorlonic gonadotrop i n
186. Some commercial kits now available for pregnancy tests incorporate wtiich of lhe following?
A . Monoclonal antibodies c. Heteroph l,., anlibodies
B. Forssman antibodies D .Opsonlns
187. To produce reliable resulls, at which time should blood specime.1s lorllpld studies be drawn?
A. 2 -4 hour lasting C. 8 - 1 o hour lasting
B . 6 - 8 hour faS1i n9 D. 12 - 16 hvur fa1,,in9
188. The reagenl for c olor development ht the Llebeima11n-Burchard reaction for cl\ole5tero, Is:
A. Sulfuric acid C. Glacial acetic a<Jd/sulruric acid
B . Acetic anhydride/sulfuric acid D. Ferne chloride/ethanol
189. Whi ch of the S1alements applies 10 Bloor's reagent? It:
A. Provides for color development In lhe ch ll esterol methods
B . Is composed or eth�nol and ether in " ratio or 3: 1
C. Compensates for lhe otherwise unequal color ,neasurement resulling from rree and esterified cholesterol
D. Comoensates for poS!'lble water contaminatio n of the reagents
190. The i>urposa or the 1aponification step In some cholesterol methods is 10:
A. Break the protein-lipid bond
B . Precipitate the protein
C. Conv\?fl esters tu free cholesterol so lhal all measured cholesterol ls or lhe same type ·
I''. Remove the error �f nonspecifi c cl,romogen i�terference
9
1 1 The purpose o f the d igitonin in cholesterol methoctology is the:
A Precip itation of free cholesterol C. Color developer
B . Preci pitation of esterified cholesIerol D. Reagent for e)(lfar.U<>n
1 92. In wh ich or these clinlc�I conditions may bl ood cholesterol be lncreasej;
A. Hypolhyrold ism C. Lupus erythematosus
B . MaJnutrliion D. Pancreati c cancer
193. Which of the following Is the Friedewald roimula by wh ich low density llpoprotein (LDL) cholesterol can be
estimated? (TC " total cholesterol, TG " tfiglycertdes, PL = phospholipids)
A. LDL cholesterol = TC -(TG/5 + HDL cho leslNOI)
B . LDL cholesterol "TC - (TG + PL)
C. LDL cholesterol = TC - ½ HDL cholesterol
D. lDl cho leslerol = HD!.. · TC
194. When evaluating a coronary risk lnd,x fo, a patient you shoula know the total cholbsterol and:
A . Total lipids c. Low-density llpoproteln cholesterol
B . Triglycerides 0. High-den stty lipoprotein chclesterol
195, Most lr iglyconde prooedsres Involve messurem�nt of :
A, Cally acids B. Glycerol C. Upoprolein D. Phos�hollplds
196 .J\hic.h or these lipids has the lowest density?
A. Alf.ha llpof)(Olein c. Chy'lomicrons
B. Bela lipop,olel11 D Pre-bola lipoprote,n
.
I� . Tho I,IorP, <:un-enl klneltc methods for l'·e quanlilalirn or serum lri<Jlyceri<les etnpluy enzymatic hydrolysis.
I htt enzymati c hy<.1ro1ysJs of tlig1yceri dcs mav be acco111pfi shc.'d by vhut enzyme?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. lipase C .Aldol ase o. ,-.mylase
198. The migration sequence, from the origin, or lipooroI•iins Is :
A. Chylomicro11s, beta, pre-bela, alpha C. Alpha, beta, pre-b<la, chyl omlcrons
B. Chylomicrons, pre-beta, beta. alpha D. Chylo microns. alpha, pre-beta, beta
1 99. D iseases ol which syslem are associaled with elev,,ted bela lipoprotei n values?
A. Pulmonary B. Cardiovascu la, C . Gastroinleslinal D . Connect ive !issue
200 Which s l atemenl ls !rue for the oral rout• or drug aomi nislralion?
A. Drug action occurs rnusl rapidly wh ·n taken oiolly
B. Tile oral ,oule of ad111:,1isltalion is the mo�I reliable
C, The oral route compensates for drug so1t1'Jil ity problems
D. Patient compliance is not always reliable
 - � . �--------_.......
_ ....
__________1111(111111

J\t."1' kc,;-,.,.,Ccn1..-,
1

1\l'OLLON •Cho!m .stry

i
l'hap I C'. hm1.-nlt.:lk!nalilf)' Q\.k:stiun
rn.g,c 10of' 10
201. Wlli cll of \he followi ng therapeutic drugs is not an antioonvulsant?
A. Olgoxin B. Dllantin C. Carbomezepi ne D. Phenobarbttal
202. The point of equilibrium between drug dosage intake an1 drug elimination Is referred to as: .
A. Peak concentration C. Stea,ly state
B. Trough concentration 0. Drug hal f-life
203 A major disadvantage �, drug detection by immunoassays :s:
A. Speed of performance
B. Stabili ty of reagents
C. Techni cal difficulty ofprocedure
D. Simultaneous assay of multi ple drugs in one specimen is not feasible
204. Li thium Is measured by:
A. Gas chromatography c. Visibl e spectrophotometry
B. Fl ame photometry D. Hi gh-pressure Uqul d chromatography
205, · Tricyclk: antidepressants Include:
A. Oi azepam B. Ollanlln C. Ltthium D. Ooxepin
206. Wilen a ki dney stone is tested with sodium cyani de and sodium nitroprussi de. the appearance.of a magenta
col or I dentifies what subS1ance?
A. Carbonate B. Cysti ne C. Calcium o, Uric acid
207. The sweat chloride test is useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Dehydration C. Hyper"81 emi a
B . Cystic fibrosis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobl nuria
208. The use of \he radioisotope 51Cr provi des a dlreci measurement �f which ort11e following?
A. Pl asma \/Olume B. Red cell mass C, Hematocrit D. Total blood vol ume
209. The average blood volume for human beings, expressed In mVkg body weight, is
A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 80

RBB March 2006

 Urinalysis
By .l'\po1lon at. a.l .

CliAPTER 1 Chemistry Questions

Urinalysis (CM) Questions
2 1 0 . Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine couJd lnulcate lhe pre�nce of :
a . protein b . sugar c..w: ,ite b lood cells d. an1 of the above
211. In acute febrile d isease. urine may acquire a reddish color due to:
a . hemoglobin p igment b. porphyrin c . urobOinogen d . uroerylhrin
212. A smoky red-brown urine should be &Jspected o f contai ni ng
a . billrubln b . hemoglobin c . porphyrin d. urob,lloogen
213. A urine that turns brown-black upon standing may conta in
a. homogentislc acid b . myoglobin c . ,lO!phyrln d. red blood cells
214. When a urine specimen is allowed to stand at room temperature, wh ich one of the followino does NOT
occur?
a. disappearance o f fanned elements c . fa lse posltive g lU<.Ose
b. elevation In pH d .!alse positive i,rotein
215. The first morning specimen of urine is oft.>n tesi�d because this specimen
a . contalna the most formed e lements c. la mo•t likely to contain protein
b .I s fresh d , w,11 display the phenomenon of' olkolloe lid<•
21 6 . Whal Is the hlgh�st specific gravity to wh ich the kidney Is able to conc..ntrate uri ne?
a. 1.022 b. 1.030 c, 1.040 (, 1.050
21 7. All of the followi ng systems may be used to dotormino tho specific grnvlty ol urlno. EXCF.PT·
a. spectrophotornel�r b . refractometer · c. T-S meter d . ,uugent test strip
218. At a temperature of 26C. a urine specir,c gravity reads 1.014. I f a temperature correcUon Is employed, wtlll
would the corrected specific gravity be?
a. 1.010 b. 1.011 c . 1.016 d . 1.018
219. A refractometer would be used in a urinalys is department to r,,easure
a . glucose b. ketones c. specific gravity d. bllirubln
220. If the plasma osmolality is normal (185 mOsm/Kg water), the ur' ne osmolali ty shou ld be at leasl
a. the same osmolaltty as that of the plasma c . three times that ..if the plasma
b . 500 mOam/Kg d, 1000 mO:lm/Kg
221. Which or these plasma substances : s NOT norrnall!, filtered It. rough the glomerulus In 1ignificant amount?
a .creatlnine b. g lucose c . protein d. urea
222. Precipitati on tests for urine protein DO NOT Include wh ich of the following 1
a. acid and heat b. di pstick c . sulfosalicyl ci aci1 d .trichloracetic acid
223. ·, he normal excretion of small amcunts of protein i n urine is conskf�red to be less than what daily amount?
a .5 mg b. 50 mg c, 150 mg d. 300 mg
224. All of the following apply to the dipstick tesl for urine protein. based on thn protein error o f i nd icators,
EXCEPT;
1
a. mor ofthe indi cator ! s In noni onl zed form
b . the protein will comb ine with the nonlonized form or the Indicator
c. protein combination w itt, indict''.or changes the ratio of ionized and nonlcnizect forms
d . the color chang-, on the stick Is due lo a pH change
:!2�. Wh ich or the followi ng does NOT �.pply to uri ne protein estimation by the dlpst'ck method?
a . Bence,Jones protein Interferes with measurerner.t of albumin
o . Highly a lkallne buffered urine can cause a false positive test
c . The principle of the test i s the protein error o f h•d�tors
I! The test Is more sensitive to album in than to g lobulin
226. Which of the following ,s true of the detection of urinary glucose?
a . any reducing substance can give a fals� positive reaction w ith the copper reduction method tor glucose
b , the copper reduction method is specific for glucose
c . glucose cannot appear in lhe urine In the absence uf an elevated plasma gluco.;e
d . ketonuria may produce a fals e negative d ipstick test for glucose
227. The enzyme d ipstick test for glucose in urine has a sensitivity of
a . 1 0 mg/di b. 50 mg/di c. 100 mg/di d. 200 mg/di
228. Wh ich ot the following may give a false positive rea�tion on lhe glucxr.e . d prtick?
i
a . galactose b . lactose c. maltose d. oxldazlog agent
229. For fructose detectlo, ,, which of these rea,enls is employed? · ·
a. EMich's reagent c . resorc no
i l and hydroch loric acid
b .ferric chloride d . sodium nltroprusside
230. Whi.:h of the ro:r owi ng is the most definitive tt:St for phenylketonuria (PKU)?
a . 1'rect measurement o f blood level of phenylalanine
b . G11thrie tests on b lood o f a newborn
c. Measurement of liver enzymes
d. PHENISTIX test on a freshly voided urine
231. The urine dipstick tests ror occult blood deµend on the lacl lhat
a. hemoglobin can acl as a peroxidase
b. hemoglobin can release an enzyme rro,n the strip
c . hemoglobin in urine combines .with oxygen on the suip to produce a blue colot
d . red blood·cells In urine are t ysed by perc.xide from the strip
232 . Wh ich of the followinJ statements Is true regarding the test ror heme pigment In urine?
a. colot in the inorganic p�ase identifies uroblllnogen
b. color in the organic vr,ase Identifies porphobillnogen
c . Ehtlich' s reagent contains resotcinol ar1d hydroehtoric acid
d. Prior removal of bilirubi n Is necessa:y
233. The addition or Fouchet' s reagent to the.barium chluride precipitate or urine tesults in a gre,,n color in the
presence of:
a. bliirubln b. ketones c , protein d. uroblllnogen
234. The Addis count is the semiquantitative estimate of the 12-hour excretion of wh ich urinary constituent?
a . oucteria and protein
b , caa:ts , ted blood cells, and wh ite blood cello
c . number and type or casts
.:l. wh ite blood cells and tubu lar epithe lial sells
23i. The most common use of p..,larized micrnscopy le to visual ize
a . crystals b. lip ids (fats) c. while blood cells d. casts
236, Wh ich statement does NOT apply to wh ite blood ce• ls In the urine soo lments?
a . a few white blood-cells may be present ln normal urine
b . an Increase in wMe blood cells ts associated with en inffammatory ptocess
c . while blood cells i n the urine must b e accompanied by protelnurla
d. unsta ned white blood ceDs in urine appear sphericAI and granuhr
i
237. With infections of the arin3ry system, wt ' IE blood c,,lls are frequently seen in the urine soo lmenl What type
or white blood cell is seen most frequen'ly in urine sediment? .
a. eosil1ophil b. lymphocyte c . mooocyte d. newophi l
238. Vaginal contamination may be responsibi-, for the aopearance of which element in the urine from a female
patient?
a. glucose b. hyaline cast c. erJSlals d. squamous epithelial cel s
l
239. Roo blood cells In the ur in� may be confuseo with any of the following, EXCEPT:
a. calcium oxalate crystals b . chole�terol crystals c . oil droplets d. yeasl ce l ls
240. Which urinary crystal can assume the gr�atect vari&ty or forms?
a , cystine b. oxalate c . phosphate d . uric Acid
241. Which urinary crystal is unli kely 10 appear i,1 an acio urine?
a. ammonium biurattt b. calcium oxalatd c . �yttine d . uric acid
242. Wnich crystal is unlikely to appear in an alkali11e urine?
a . ammonium blurate b . calcium oxalate c . cystine d. cholesterol
243. The "coffin lid" crystal is that of
a . ammonium biurate b . calcium oxalate c. sodium urate d. triple phosphate
244. The finding or six-aided puffy crysta ls In l�e acid urine of an infant should arouse a suspicion of
a . cystlnosi s b. cystinuria c . :,xaluria d. tyroslnuria
245. Yeas� oval fat bodies, and calcium oxalate crystals are common in persons who suffer m,m
a . obestty b . chronic neollnti• c . diabetes melli tus d . chroni; cystitis
246. The matrix or urinary casts has been Identified as which protein?
a. albumin b. g lobulin c. glycoprotein d. Tam-Horsfall
247. Wh ich of the following is true of casts in urine?
a. the high power objectiv� Is employoo in a search ror these elements
b . some kind of stain la needed to mako thon. vlaible
c . their refractive index makes them easil y visible
d. they tend to accumulate near the edges of the coversl ip
246. A granular cast is thought lo represent the decomp, oslllon or winch of those costs?
ii collulur b . rutty � hyslhlti ,J WUKY
249. Which ol these casts Is most easi ly visualized In unstained urinary sediment?
a . fatty b. hyal lne c. red blood cell d . white blood cell
250. Which cast may appear In urine in the absence or renal disease?
a . granular b . hyallne c. red blood cell d . waxy
251. The best s ingle Indicator of renal disease is
a. g lycosur la b . polyuria c. proteinurla d. py ,rta
252. "G litter cell" Is a term used to describe a specllio type of
a. fatty droplet b . ketone body c . oval fat body d. neutrophll
253. Which of the following Is NOT true about oval fat bodies?
a . cholesterol esters break down Into fatty globu le• In desquamaled tubular ep itheli al cells
b . their fat content is related t o the level of lip ids in the plasr!'a
c . they are associated wilh degenera tive lubulat disease
d they are associated with the appearance or the "Maltese cross· formation under pularizalion
254 Cas ts are formed primarily In which P< nion or the kidney?
a . distal convoluted tubu le c . loop of Hen le
b qlomerulus d proximal convoluted t, ·bulcs

\
 ACrs Reviewea,,..
APOLLON- Urillllysu
Chlfll<r5 -0-isttyQuestloN
P,pJof3
255. Which of the following etatements la NOT true?
•· a "clean catch" uilne la preferable, In moll inetanc:et, to• specimen ccl lecied by 011thenution
b. I n a routine cutture of urine, 102 mlcroorganllmalml of urine la considered r.lgnlficent
c. the presence of bacteria in the uncentrlfuged specimen of urine collected ur der controlled condition• iS
aaeoclated with a eignl flcant colony count on 'culture
d. the presance of bacteriurfa can be recognlzed by a poeltlve resul t on the ni trite portion of a dlpetlck casta
256. In glom<!rulonephri Us, whi ch ofthe following should be expected In a urine specimen?
a. clump■ ofwhi te blOOtJ eella and white blood call caata
b. fatty and granu l ar casts
c. red blood cells and red bl ood cell and fatty casla
d. waxy and fatty casts
1r,1 Which or thil followi ng la• tnJO ,1otom11n1?
a. a high specific gravi ty of urine may resul t In lyals ol red t>lood cell s
b. hemoglobinurla II a more common �ndlng than hematurfa
c. a low pH of urine may result In the conversion of red blood cells lei �emoglobln
d. lrue hilmoglobinuria occurs after intrllvasculer hemolysla

\
 CLIN1CAL CHEMISTRY
By Apollon et . al .
CHAPTER 1 - Chert.i:;try Questions
Math Questions

258. The mean for a series of laboratory results Is 10.0, the 95% conlldence llmlls a, e 9.8 to 1 0 2. What Is the
standard deviation?
a. 0.2 SD b . 0.1 SD c . 0.4 SD d . 0.5 SO
259. If 0.5 m l packed red blood cells are cliluted to a volume or 10 ml wit1 normal saline, what dilution Is
ach ieved?
a . 1:5 b . 1:10 c 1:20 d. 1:4Ci
260. 5 ml filtrate are required for a procedure. The final colored sol ution proves to be loo high to read accurately
on the speclrophotorneter. 1 ml filtrate ano 4 ml dlsl'lled water are substi:uted fer the o riginal ftllrale and the
procedure is run as before. The graph re,,-d lng Is 46 mg/di. Whal is the actual H1nount of substance In the
patient'• serum?
a. 9.5 mg/di b. 11.5 mg/di c . 184.0 mg/di d. 230.0 mg/di
261. If 1.0 ml serum is diluted with 4 mt 26% benzoic acid, how muc� serum Is represented In 2.0 ml of the
solution?
a. 0. 2 0 ml b . 0.25 ml c. 0.40 ml d. 1 0. 0 mt
262. 90 ml distilled water is added to 1 0 ml of a 3% solution. What ls the slrength of the resulting solution?
a . 0.10% b . 0.27% c, 0.30% d, 0.90%
263. 0.1 ml seru m is added to 0.4 ml saline In the first tube of a seria dilution, Half (0.25) of the contents of the
l
first tube are transferred to the second tube, which already contains 0.25 ml saline, What is the serum dilution In
the second tube?
a , 1:20 b , 1:50 c. 1:80 d, 1:10
264. In a thrombocytopenia, twice the usual amount of blood Is drawn into the red cell di luting pipe! (bloc.d to the
1.0 mall<), wh ich is then filled wi th Rees-Ecker diluent to the t.ne at the top of th<. bulb . All nine squares of the
hemacytometer are employed to Increase the accuracy of the count ln these nine squares, 27 platelets are
counted. In cells/cu mm, what is the p late let count for thls patient?
a. 300 b. 3, 000 c. 6, 000 d. 27, 000
265. Dilution of a spinal fluid Is accomp lished In a white cell diluting pipe!, using diluent to the 1 . 0 mall< and splnal
fluid to the 1 1 mall<. All nine squares of a hemacytometer ar-, counted, w ith a tal ly of45 white cell s . In cells/cu
mm, what is the spi nal flui d cell count?
a. 50 b . 56 c, 500 d. 1000
266. A 10% (WN) solution of sodium chlorije is needed. Of what 1oes It consist?
a. 10 mg NaCVdl b . 10 g NaCVdt c. 10 g NaCVL d. 1 g NaCV100 ml
267. A solution o f ca lcium chtorlde contains 3 grams per 100 ml. What percent Is this solution?
a . ,.5 b . 3.0 c. 15. 0 d. 30.0
268. 1-'ow much sodium citrate is requlrP.d to make 500 m l of a 3. 2 % solution for c�agulation studies?
(M.W. of sodium citrate • 258)
a .· 1 . 6 g b.3.2g c.8.0g d.16.0g
269. A concenlrated acid has a specific gravity of 1,6. What Is the welght of 30 mt o f this acid?
a . 4.5 g b . 20. 0 3 c. 45.0 g d. 200.0 g
270. Concentrated sulfu, ic acid has a specific gravity of 1.84 and a percent purity of 98%. How many grams or
sulruric aci d are there In 200 ml of concentrated acid?
a . 111 b, 361 c_ 368 d . 720
?.7 l. 150 ml u rine we,ghs 154 grams. Whatis the specific gravity of the urine?
" 1.013
· b, 1 . 021 c. 1.030 d . 1.or,o
272. How much NaOH Is needed to make 4 trters of a 1 N s olution? (M.W. Na • 23: O • 16; H " 1)
a. 40 g b.80g c . 160g d.4009
->
273. How many milligrams or CaC l2 are nee.:!ed tc. prepare 100 m l of a 1 x 1r M solution?
(1111.W. Ca " 40; Cl • 35.5)
a . 5,5 b , 11.1 c . 35.0 d. 111.0
274. How much Na,SO, is there In 400 ml 01 a4M $Olution? (M.W. Na• 23; S " 32; O" 16)
3. 114g b . 150g c.190g d . 227g
276. What is Ille normality or isotonic sallne (U.85%)? (M.W. Na• 23; Cl • 35,5)
a. 0,014N t- . 0 028N c. 0.140N d. 0.280N
276. What Is the normali,y of 4M NaOH? (M.W. Na= 23: 0 • 16; H • 1)
a. O.,: N b. 0 . 4 N c_ 2.0 N d. 4.0 N
2TT. A solution of HCI contains 84 grams pt,r liter. What Is its norn-a lity? (M.W. I◄= 1; C l = 35.5)
a 0.42 N b . 0. 43N c. 2.30 N d. 2.36 N
278. What is the normality of a 3. 6 M sulfuric acid solutton? (M.W. H = 1; S = 32; O " 16)
a. 1.8 N b. 3 . 6 N c .4 . 9 N d. 7.2 N
279. How mary ,nt of 95% alcohol do you need to make 1 filer of a 70% S<..l ution?
a 7• ml b . 136 mt c_ 737 ml d. 1360 ml
 ACTS-C..
APOLLON-Mldi
Clllp 1-Clmiolll CloeelllryQ,,Mm
....lof2
280. HNO, has a percent purity,(�) of 70 and a ep,,elfio gralllty of 1.42. How m.,ny ml of concentrated acid
' are needed to make 500 ml of 0.22N acid?
a.3.5ml b.3.7ml :.8.0ml d.7.0ml
281. What perQanllolutlon la 0.4N HCI ? (AL W. H. •1; Cl• 31U)
a. 1.42% b. 1.48% c. 14.20% • d. 14.80%
-282. Whet amount of 10N NaOH mull be ue811lo·p,9pa,e.1 fiterof 1N Na0H? •
a. 10 ml b. 40 ml c. 1(0 ml d. 200 ml
�83. A serum calcium level of 10 mg/di would be exP'91Md n how many mEq/1.? (AlW. C. • 40)
a4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10

RU--
284. The microgram can !)ti ••P•'fl* u w!llch ofthe followlng?
a. 1/10 gram b. 1/100 gram c. 1/1000 gram �- 1/1000 mg
 .,..,orn
Microbiology & Parasitology
By Apo1lon et.al.

CHAPTER 2 Mic.robiology Questions

Bacteriology Questions
1. OELETED
2. DELETED
·3 Capsul es can be used for a;
A. Complement fixation C. Serotypi nq by swelling
B. Hemaggl utinatlon test D. Preclpllati()n test
4 . To demonstrate capsul es, grow the cul ture on media contalnl ng:
A. Antibiotics B. MIik C. Serum D. B and C.
5. ,:he Quellung test depends on the antigenic specltlcity of the;
A. r ·ucI eus B . Cell wa•i C . Flagella D. \;apsul e
6 . Dark staining granul es are called:
A. Spores B. Capsul es C. Cysts D. Metachromatic
7. Organisms that vary in si2a and shape ar"' referred to as:
A. Psyc�rophi Jl c B. Ther.nophilic C. Palisades 0. Pl eomorphlc
8 In the bacteria! growth tyr.le, grow\h ceaaes h<tcaur;e nutrients are exhoustocl or toxic motabollc producta have
accumul ated I n the:
A. Stationary phase B . Logarithmic phase C. Lag phase D. A and B
�- Which genera of bacteria form spores?
/,. Corynebacterium B . Bacfllus C. Cl ostridlum D. B £nd C
10. Jacteria that grow In the absence of atmospheric ,(free) oxygen and obtain <',;ygea from oxygen-containing
compounds are called:
A. Anaerobes B . AMC>bes C. Capnophiles D. Aerot�l erants
11. The temperature at which tacteria grow best is known as:
A Thqrrnr,philir. A P�yr.hror,hi l� r. Or,tlmurn D M9�r,philio
WIUch t•f lhd f1.JlllJWh lU tthditu1.: ldflc,IIC. ll lltd� ho 1•1oeid11 t'/
1:> A sth uy cohmy UH lJfUIJJ titJlif 11taJl um l lllfk.. ulnti
A. Bl ood agar I s too ol d C . Plate was incubated too l ong
B. Organism has a capsul e D. Plate was lncubnted st 100 I ,igh 1emporeture
13. On bl ood agar plates a small zone or al pho-hornclysls bUlfounded by zone or 0010-hu1111,lysl s unm relrlg111uUon It
known as:
A. Gamma,hemol ysis B. 8eta-hemotysrs C. Al pha-hemolysl s D. Al pha-prime
14. When using fractional ste:ilizatl on the sequence I s:
A. Heating (kills vegeiat' ve bacteria) C. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteri::i)
8. Incubation (spores germinate) D. AOTA
15. What is the most effective method or sterill2atlon?
A. Autoclave B, Ory heat oven C. Boiling D. Ol sinfecUon
1 6 . Wl-'oh of the followi ng is used for quattty control br the dry heat oven?
A. · tlacillus subtilis C. Staphylococcus aureus
B. 8a.;illus stearothermophilu, 0 . Salmonella typhl
17. Which of the foll owing r.lters can give 100% st<,riOty?
A. Seitz B . MIiiipore (0.22 um) C. Millipore (0.5 um) 0 . A and B
18. Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by:
A. FIitration C. Antiseptics
B . Chemical disi nfectants D . Cannot be sterl l�ed
19. Which or the fol lowing I s not a disinfectant?
A. Phenol . B, 70% al cohol C . QUATS O. 2% aqueous glutaral:lehyde
?O lod()J')hors are composed of iodi ne and:
/\ Ptu-,ooh<.: cu111JKJu11U U Oalby�nl t; /0% ulr..ofu, • tJ OO-lJ0% ulct.tl 1 ol
21 Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are ea 1 11 lnactlva,ed by:
A. Heat B . P. aeru,ir,Jsa C. Organic material D. tap water
22 What is a term that describes s process or treatm,ent that renders a medical device, instrument. or envlron�tal
surface safe to handl e?
A. Decontamination B. Antlspesl s C. Disinfectant D . Sterile
23 What do gram-positive bacteria stain?
A. Purple B. Green C. Red O . Maroon
24. The mordant used In the Zl ehl•Neelsen acid--fast stain 1 -.:
A. Gram's Iodi ne B . Auramine . C. Heat O. Acic-alcohol
25. How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed?
A. Methyl alcohol C. Tergltol no. 7
B. Acid alcohol O Sl' de warmer at 65 C for 2 hours
26. Acid-last bacteria appear what col or microscopie&lly?
A. Red B. Blue C. Green 0. Purp.e
27. Aci d-IHI 01'.ganl ams In lluue are belt atal r,eu byWlll ch of the loltowlng methods?
A. Hiss 8. Kinyoun C. Zlehl-Neel sen D. Negative stain
28. In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the daeul oriur Is:
A. Heated saline B. Acetone C. l\cetone+al cohol D. Alcohol + HCI
29 An exampl e of a negative stain Is:
A Auramlne -rhodamine stain C. India Ink stain
B. Gram stai n 0. �ethylene bl ue stain
30 Which ofthe following is NOT gram-negative?
A. Peptococcus B. Sal monella C. Branhamella D . Aeromonas
31. Which of the fol lowing is NOT an anaerobe?
A . Veillonella 8 . Fusobactertum C. Actinomyces D . campylobacter
32 If a patient Is taking antlml crobials, which of the followl n� c,,n neutralize the antlmicrob' al s?
A T 1ypUc soy lJ(Olh C. rt1i ol bmlh
B Antihistami ne 0. Braln· ho:::in lt1fu:Hon lJtolh
;\� F1(')m o bronchinl wntt,hlng, orqonlsms oro soon on o Gnon slnfn. Olrt uo growth occ1.uo �orot,ir:, lly ond
lmtu,tublCull y llll:. lb mot1l Ukttl y du& to:
A, Anaerobes
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
C Uncultlvoblo bttctoriu e g., rk:ktit1il o-,, myt:.Of-JI. 1arnu, M k,puiu
D. The specimen being incubated Instead ot refmgerated
34. Which of the fol lowing should be used to remove anlimirJobl als before cul turhg?
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device C. Septl-Chek
B. l sol ato< D. NOTA
35. Sodium pol yanethol sulfonote may be used as an antlccagulant in blood cultures beceuse It
A. Removes some antimicrobials C. r,reutral izes the baclericirlal effect of human serum
8. Prevents phagocytosis O. B and C
36. What Is the most abundant normal flora In throat ,cul tures?
A. Micrococcus C . Escherichia coli
B. Alpha-hemol ytic Streptococcus :>. Legionella pneumophlla
37. What is the most CQ.mmon pathogen in throat cul tures?
A. Group A Streptocxcus C . Staphylococcus ep' dermi dis
B . Alpha-hemol ytic Streptococcus D . Coynebacterium diphtrerlae
38. Why must bl ood agar pl ates for throat cul tures be incubated aerobically and auaarobically when beta-hemolytic
streptococci are suspected?
A. Some may producebeta-hemol ysis under aerobic condition�
B. Streptocoocl only grow under aerob c eonditio<ts
i
C. Streptococci onl y grow under anaerobic conditions
0. Neither A nor B
3�. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as:
A. Hemophllus lnfluenzae, Nel sserl a, Bordetella pertussis
B . Nel sserta, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis
C. Hemophflus lnfluenzae, Eryalpel othrlx, Vibrio
D. Erysl pel othrlx, Nel sserta, listeria
40. Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for.
A. Determination of mycobacterl al growth rate
B . Primary culture for anaerobes
C. !'!ool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shlgella
D. Cutture of beta-hemol ytic streptococci lo, nuoresecnce microcopy
41. Phenylethyl al cohol is u�ed I n media to:
A. Inhibit gram-positive b11cteria C . Stimul ate g.ram-posJUve bacteria
B . lnhlb� gram-negative bacteria O. Stimul ate gram-negltlvP bacteria
42. Why Is a first morning u1 ine specimen preferred for urine cultures?
A. Speci men Is dil uted C. Specimen Is more concentrated
B, Bacteria are all motile D. A and B
43. What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of uri ne?
f. Many squamous epithelial cel ls C . 1-2 RBCslhpf
IJ. Few white bl ood cel ls O. morphous uratas
44. In the pour-plate metho<l for colony counts, how, dc,,,s th� amount of agar addoo �fflr.t the dilution
A. Oil ullon is inc,eased C. Dil ution is increaS<Jd 20%
B. DIi ution Is dec,eased D DIiution is not affected
45. Smears of cerebrospinal flui d are prepared from:
A. Cerebrospl nal flui d sediment C. 'ieated cerebrospinal fluid
0. Uncentriluged cerebrospl nal fluid D. "rozen cerebrospina
• l flui d
46. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usuall y sta,ned with:
A. Aci d-last stain E'. Gram stain C. India Ink stain D. B and C
47. Which of the following t&Sts for bacterial antigen on cul tures Isolated from cerebrospinal Uui d is more sensitive
and laster?
A. CoagglutinaHon tesls C. Counterimmunoel ectrophoresls test
·
B . Latex agglutination tes.ts D . Coagul ase test
48. Staphylococcal protein A coated wi th antiserum Is used in which of the following serological tesu on
cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Coagglutbauon test C. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis
B . ' atex agglutination test D . ELI SA
49.• Which or the following i• not the cause of a v�nereal dis• ,ase?
....,
A. Neisserl a gonotrlloeae C . 31aphyloeoecus oureus
8 . Treponema pallldum 0 . Tr1chomonas vagl nalls
50. Usi ng sheep blood ror Ll ood cga• plates ellmino1e, bela-hemolytic:
A. Slaphylococcus 8. Nel sserie C. ·,Jroptococcu, 0. 1 lumoµltlluv
51. A positive tube coagul ase IP.st is observed ror.
A. Bubbling B . Agglutination C. Liqueracti<,n o. Cl otti ng or pl asma
52, What lype of plasma is us.id for the tube coagulase test?
A. Rabbi t 8. Human C . Sheep 0. Hor�
53. Some citrate-positive organisms cause a rals..-posltive tube coagulase test because the o:ganism uses the
citrate
A. ,rd rel eases calcium C. As a beta�aclamase
B . As a source of cal cium 0, And releases oxygen
54. A nonhemolytic, catal aso-positive. coagul ase-negative, gram-positive coccus Is most likel y to be:
A. Staphyl ococcus aureus C. Al pha-hemol ytic streptococci
1,1, Staphyl ococcus eplde,mldltJ O Strepl OCOC<.':U'f hmcnllft
55 The preferred moIhod of difforenrl ating S, am eus from S . epldormiu1s 1:;
I\ :t1tol um1 10: .11 8. Coagul ano tost C ONose/rnanr11101 rem-11�ntation D. Phage typing
56. Wh ich ol Ille followi ng slaphylococci is the cause of urinary tracl I nfection In y"lung females?
A S. epl dermidis 8 . S .s.aprophyticus C S oureui,; 0 . S hominis
'.,/ St.ophylococcus l,IUICU$can t)O l&o18l(.!(I hon, Ulc,O� culluru:. l.•y mo UUtl tJf.
A. Potassium lellurlte medi um C. Medium with 7.5% sail concne•.ration
B . MacConkey agar O IO\vonslein-�1.1nson medium
58 The most common couso or bacloriol lood p,,1au11l 11g 111 1h11 lJul lod Sl11h,u ,.,
A Closlri dium botulinum C . Closltidl um perfringens
0. Staphyl ococcus aureu� O Shi willa dyaimtori111J typo I
59. Which of the f°'towlng grnm..posltfve cocci for ncnt glucC1so?
A. Staphylococci B. Microeoeci C. A and B O. Ne1!1ler A nor a
60. Which hemolysin. produced by l'eta-hemol ytic slfeptococci, is oxygen slable and nonantigenic?
fl fllroplol y$l t1 /I Fl Stroplolysln S C i=ilmptol vsl n r, 0 Slreplol y•l n 0
" I t'.11ltw no fut li ola:a ho111 1 ll alioplvt.:ut o 111w::i.t iltdt1(lc:t
1 l y l: t l
A lncubalkm at 25 C to ensure growth of all sttt:.ins C. tncul>c1li<H• w1Ul carbon ,.ho>c1 du
8. Anaerobic incubalion to detect hemol ysis In all strai ns 0. Media with glucose to show lypical hemolysls
62. Which or the followi ng is destroyed by oxygen?
A. Botul ism toxin B. Streptotysin 0 D Coagul aso

63. March tho following organisms with the blocl,amical resr or tests that presumpt,vely identifies them,
Tests may be used more than one time.
1. Group A. beta-hemol ytic streptococci a. hlppurate hydrolysis positive
2. Slreptococcus pneumoniae b . CAMP test posi tive
3. Alpha-hemol ytic slreptococcl c. bacitracin susceptibl e
4 . Group 8, beta-hemolytic streptococci d. bile..esculin positive
5. Enterococcus e . Oplochin disk susceptibl e
f. optochln disk resislan'.

64. Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serolOjJical test it is reported;

A. By the genus and species name C. By its common nam..
8. As•presumptive" with the name of the bi<X.hemlcal test 0. NOTA
65. CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-/lemolytic •treptococci that
A. Reduces the zone of lysls formed by the streptococci
B . Hydrol yzes the B factor
C. Causes a change in co or
l
0 . Enl arges the zone of lysl s formed by slaphylococcal beta-hemotysin
86. A positive Ouellung tast is:
A. OxldaUon bul not fermentaUon
B. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
C. Vi sibl e onl y by nuoresecent light
0 . From capsul ar swelli ng due to an antigen-antibody reactio1 ,
67. Which of the fol lowing serological tests is used for a confirmatory test o, streptococci?
A Phadebac test C. Lancef,el d preclplOn test
B. Fl uorescent antibody test 0. ACTA
68. When performing a bacttracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, US(, disks that have
how many uni1s7
A. 10.00 units 8. 5.00 units C. 0.02-0.04 units O. 1.00-2.00 units

69. Match the disease In the first column with the organism in the seco.?d column. Letters In th• sr,cond
column may be used more than once:
1 . seariet fever a group B streptococci
2 . major pathogen of the newborn b. group A sb'eptocf)CCi
3 . ·,:rep throat' c. alpha-hemolytic streptoc;,cci
4. subacute bacteria endocardl tis
 """ •of'ti
70. What do optochl n and bacltracln tests have In common?
A Autolysl s Is a negative resul t
B. Growth Inhibition is a posi tive rasult
C . They shoul d not be done on blood egar
O rithnr onn will rtufr,rc,ntlul«'t C'tolqrr)(:ot:nl r,on , vl ,lrtnn• o ,,,f)lf)('lor:d
l
/ 1 . • hlJ bllO---OSCUl11l test IS used to cJ1 rtel't.rflllate:
A Enterococci from other group D streptococci C. Group D sbnptococol from other st,ep
B. Streptococcus faecal is from Listeria D. Group A from group B stfeptococcl
72 Hl ppurate hydrolysis I s used to dlfrerentlato:
A . Group A from group B streptococci C . Listeria from stre�tococcl
B. Group B weptococci from enterococ:ci 0. Pneur.ioco:;ci fron other viridans
73, A bacl tracin-resistant, hippurate-hydrol ys;, posi tive, blle-,.sculln po-,lllve, beta-hemolytic Strr.ptococcus that
grow& in 6.5% NaCl I s probably a/an:
A l'neumococcus B. Enterococcus C . Group D strep 0, Oiphtherold
74, Pneumococci that are resistant to penlclllln should be tested for.
A. Production of beta-l actamase C, Growth in NaCl
B. Bile sol ubility D. Resistance lo bacitracin
75, Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped dl pl ococci with adjacent sides ftattened Is descriptive of which of the
following?
A. NeiS! Jria B. Staphylococcus C. Listeria 0. C:hlanivdia
76. The diagnosis of gonorrtio�ae in males can be made from:
A Positive urethral smear 6. Symr toms C. History D . AOTA
n. Which of the fol lowing specimens may be appropnate forculwring Neisserla gonorrhoeae?
A Eyes B. Rectum C. Oral cavity 0. ACTA
78. \/'• hat is the medium of choice for cul turing gonococci end meningococci?
A Lowenstein-Jensen B. Modified Thayer-Martin C . Sheep ol ood agar D. Potassi um tellurite
70 Which or the following differentiates Ttiayer-Martl n niedicm from modified Thayer-\lartin medium?
A Nyslull u 8. Vonoon,ycin c. Coli�Un n Td melhopri m ltt, tAte
80 Thayer-Martin medium Is ba•lcally 8/an:
A !'Hnod nqm C I ruichoct chc>t.;ol utt, 119rn
LL l:..mi <-l1bcJ MacCcmkuy &gar [), t · owa&1um tell u1iu, ayar
81. What color Is a positive oxidase test?
A. Blue B . Green C:. •:el low D. Oar� purpl e
82. Which of the fol lOwing g.,nera JrP oxldase-positive?
A. Moraxella 8. Aeromonas C. l�eisseria D. ACTA
83. When perfom,lng the oxi dase test, whieh of the following techniques can I>'! used?
A. Put a drop of reagent en the col ony
B. Rub colOny on a filter \)aper strip ana add a drop of reagent
C Rub tho colony on a picco or Riter paper containing tho reogent
0. ACTA
84. What do "PPNG" gooococci produce?
A. �nl cillln-producing gonoco.:ci C. A and B
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci D. rleither A nor B
85. Which of the following are meth>lds for tesUn;i for the producti on of beta-l aclamase?
A. Chromogenie cephat osporin method C. iodometnc method
':!. Acldometric method D. .\OTA
86. Which of the fol lowing I ndicates a positive rec.ction for the bela-lact�mase chrom<'genle cephalOsporl n method?
A 1'-.-oductlon or acid C �eduction of nl lralll$
B. Col or change D. .Jecol orization of star,,h-iodlnP. mixture
ll'l A11 o,ictnn,, 11o•lllvo, omm-noonllve cncc111 lrnm n thron• c.ullure migh1 he:
A 8tc:iphyl �v� l:j. An "l:..t:C" C · ubtJl Jb(;tc,tium l) Nnlrlbd.tl u
88. A fasti d1 ouS;, oxidase•po5'tl ve. gram•negatlve coccus fro'll a rectal swab mi ght be:
A. Neisserla gonorrhoeae C Listeria
0 P:•uud011)t)IIU-, llUft11)l ll 1n(Jj n llit111lt1lllhlll 11 •.11l;u1h:1 h6
tl9. Ne,sseria meningilidis degrades which cf u1c fc,ll ow,ng- sugars'/
A Glucose 8. maltose C Lactnse O . A and B
'Hl WhK!h or lho ronowing tosl.s can glv0: a prosrn 1tive ldenflica11 on of Brnnhnroona cat.anhalis 1f the :wl ale is a
u1t11r1-nugi:.11 vc dipl ococ cos I .hat I$ oxi<Joso-fk, .: O ltvo cmrl 1::-otul<>tl lror11 rnl(J<Jlt,�ttcir l h.:,d?
A Nitrate test B. L'rease rest i
C. lt1dol e test 0 . Oeta-lac1omas-a test
91 Why should beta-tactamse tesh; be per1ormed w th growth from pri mary isolalion media?
A Pl asmi d coding for the enzyme rnay be l ti9l on sutx:,;lluting
U Ma� react w1lll cuen11coN in tho medium
C, Because of the absorbance of oxygen from \he medium
0. NOTA
92 What ls the purpo�o of potassi um telturite hi h:Uurite mediu,i?
A lnltlhil� llm rirt111111I lloJH G I rnlGlim1 pl nt111101phh,1m
It lmt1.h u:t llu� 1m1'IIU1H IJ I uhuut; \11) 011111ul o puxJucll u11
HJ Potassi um tellulite medtum produces what colQ1 col onies of Corynebacterl um dl phthorl 'le?
A Green B . Bl ue C, Red 0. Gray-black
94 When cul turing Corynebactenum diphtherlae which of the foll owi ng media will gnhance pl eomorphism and
granul e production?
A Loeffler serum agar C, A and B
B. Pai coagul ated egg medium D. ne ither A nor B
---,,_,:--•vnannne fflOl'llhOIOIIY o1 Corynebaclllrtu <'ipllthenae?
A. Gram-negative, moti le coed C . Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
B. Gram,.posttlve, motile cocci 0. Gram-negative, nonmotile rods
96. The term "pansadl ng• "picket fence" ano "Chines letter" describe the common arrangement of cells of:
A. Corynebacterium
B . Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria
c. Ac!lnomyces but not Nocardla
0. Coryneba.cterium dlphtheriae but not other coryneb:acteria
97. Babes-Ems! granules are characteristic of:
A. Bacillus anthracis C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Listeria monocytogenes 0 . Corynebactertum dlphtheriae
98. Which o! the foll owing are considered d lphtherolds?
A. Corynebacterium xerosis C. Corynebacterlum JK
B . Corynebacterium diphtherlae 0 . A and C
99. Wh ich of the following d lphtherolds is found In the nonn11 throat?
A . Propionibacterium acnes C . Corynebacter ium xerosls
B . Corynebaeterlum pseudod lphtheritlcum 0. Rhodococcus equl
100. The Elek test Is for the detection of: .
A. Corynebacterlum d lphtheriae toxin, In vlw C. Bacillus anlhracls toxin, in vitro
B. Corynebacterlum d lphtheriae toxin, In vitro O. C losttkf lum botullnum toxin, In vitro
101 . The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from ccccoid to rod form tales:
A. 5 hours B. 1 2 hours C. 24 hours 0.48 hours
102. Which o f the fo liowing Is a gram-positive to 9ram-vam.b le coccobaclllus?
A . Staphylococcus epidermldis C. listeria monor.ytogenes
B. Corynebacterium dlphtheriae 0 . Haemoph l:us lnHuenzae
103. Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive In wh•·h of the following b ochemical tests?
i
A. Coagulase test B. Lactose fermen1t1Uon test t:. Catalase O A and C
104 Which or the rollow,'lQ is o vlfulence 1ee1 fnr I l•tena mo11<w:y lO(IAll&o'I
A. Elek lost B . Anton lest C . ELISA teal [1. Fee ley-Gorman
105. Refrigeration of the specimen for several months may enhance Iso lation of:
A. Psychrophilic blood bank contaminants C. Neisseria meningttidis
B . listeria monocytogenes 0. Actlnomyces
106. Which or the following will differentiate Li steria monocytogenes from the corynebacterla?
A. Nonmotile and sal ic ln negative C, Nitrate-positive and sucrose-negative
B . Motile and salicin positive O. Motile anri urea!Se negative
10 7 . Spore-forming cells In bamboo pole arrangement of Bacillus anthracis can be found in:
A. Sp,ecimen from patient B . Guinea pll)s C . Cultures 0 . NOTA
108. Which aerobic, gram-positive, sporulating rods can cause food poisoning?
A . Bacillus subtiUs C. Mycobacterlum phlei
B. Bacillus oereus 0 . Clostridlum ramosum
109. Very large gram-negative rods w ith spores are seen in a nonturbid thiog lycollalebroth culture of spinal ftuld, but
l.1ere is no growth anaerobica l ly or aerobically. This is most likely due to:
A . Too small an amount of inoculum that caused the or9anlsms to die i
B . Fxchange of genetic material between Bacillus ap. and Escherichia col
C. Bacillus sp. In the dehydrated medium a,e kllled and made gram-neg�tive by autoclaving the medium
0 . A very high spinal fluid g lucose allow,; the Escherich ia coli to multip l/ in broth but not on solid medium
110. Match the fol/owing dyu or reagents used In th• Zieh/..NHIHn •cld.faat stJtlnlng orocedure In th•
second column with their purposP In the first column:
1. mor ...ant a . acid (3% HCI) a lcohol
2. primary dye b. dilute methylene blue
3 . counterstaln c . carbolluchsln
4 . decolorizer d. heat to speed staini'ng
1 11. Nonacid-fast bacllll st•i n what color?
,\ Green 8. B lue t:. Red O. Orange
·, 12. Acid-fast bacilli retain which dye?
A. Methylene blue B . Melach ite grsen C. Gentian violet O. Carbolfuchsin
113. An acid-fast stain that does notuse heat as the nordant Is which of the following?
A Truant fluorochrome stein 8. Ponder stain C . Klnyoun s1nin 0 , Gomori atuJn
1 1 4 Which <..f lhe following media ts clear so tt1.ll the cok>n•ea or mycobacteda can be e,-amlned microcopk:eUy?
A . Mueller-h lnton B . lowenstel n✓ensen C . B lood agar D. M iddlebrook 7H11
115. What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolyJis of Tween 80 test?
,\. Red B . Amber C. 3reen O. Blue
116. Mycobacterial cultures shou ld be Incubated.
A In 5% carbon dio•id� C . Al 25 C
8 In mcreased humidity 0 . Under anoerobk: cond lti\.flS
117. A slow-growing, unbranmed. acid-fast rod 11,at Is nitraie reduction-negal ive and niaciri -neontivo Ir. most likely to
h•t
A, Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacter lum kansas!I
B . MycobacleriJm bovis 0 . Actinomyces israulll
118. Mv'OObacterium tuberculosls is best differentiate� from Mycobacterium bovis by:
A _;, owth rate C. rlydrofysis or Tween 80
8. Ni.;;in and nitrate reduction tests O. Cata lase test at 66 C
1 1 9 . Which or the rol lowing are sl ow g�,.7
A. Mycobactellum kansasli C. Mycobacterium tubercul osis
B . Myco�acterium avfum-intraceUul are oorrplex: 0. AOTA
120. Which differential test for I dentifying the species of Mycobactetium splits phenolphthalain from tripotasslcm
phenol phtha.l ein-sulfate within 2-3 days?
P Catal ase test ·
C. Nyl sulfatase test
B . Tween 80 hydrol ysis 0. Nitrate reduction test
121. Which of the following i� used for the identification of rr,ycobacteri a?
A. Biochemical reactions B. Pigment pro<luction C. Growth rata O AOTA
122 One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is lrcubated rovered\vilh foil and one tube is incubated uncovered
When is the covered tube obsf.ved?
A. When growth appea/S on the uncovered tube C. After 2 weeks of incubation
8. After 1 week of I ncubation 0 . At any time
123. Which of the following belong to Group IV (rapi d growers)?
A. , .) �obacterlum gordonae C. IAycobacterl um phlel
B. Myrobacteri um smegamatis 0 . B and C
124. What are " lepra' cells?
I\. Neutrrphil s contain ing gram-negative cocci
1. Basophils conatining gram-i):>allive dl plucoccl
C. Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilll
0. Ked bl ood cells containing acid-fast baci lll
125. Acid-rast rods In a specimen from nasal muc.osa:
A . Are diagnostic for l eprosy
8. Musi be cultured on Hansen's agar for definitive Ide,,tificaUon
C . Are call ed "lepra cells'
0 . Are not a dl a,gnoatlc polnl
126. The Fite-Faraco acid-fast slain Is differ�r.' !,om other ecl d-fast stains because It uses:
A. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain
8. Carbo! gentian violet rather than safranin �s a counterstt.: n
C. Malachite green ralher than hematoxylln a, a countt:rstaln
D. Indi a i nk wi th no counterstain
127. The specimen is usually used for the o:agnosis or Hansen's disease?
A. Tissue juice B. 8100d C . Spulum 0. Urine
128. "lumpy jaw' Is caused by:
A. Nocardla brasillensis C. Actl nomyces israelli
B. Trichophyton rubrum 0. Ml crosporum canis
129. Which of the following is anaerobic?
A. Aclinomyces 8. Nocardi a C. Mycobacterium O. BordelJfla
130. Which or the following Is urease-positlve?
A Salmonella B. Shigella C . Nocardia 0. Chlamrdi a
1 31. Nocardl a wm grow on any medi a that does not contain:
A. Antibiotics 8. BI OOd serum C. Peptone O. Agar

132. I/latch the organism In column 1 with the diS<>ase in column 2.

1. H. inftuenzae a. normal flora in respi ratory tract
2. H. ducreyl b . pinkeye
3 . H. aegyptius c. ul cerative chancroid
4 . H. haemol yticus d. meningitis

133. Which medium ls preferred for the cul ture or mosl Haemc,phllus?
A. Nutrient agar C. '3ordet-Gengou pl ate&
B. Tryptl c soy agar 0. Enriched chocolate agar
134. A tastidious, small to filamentous, gram-negative rod f,om a nasopharyngeal swab Is n.osl l ikel y to be:
A. Actinomyces l sraelll r:. 8ranhamella catarrhalis
B . Neissena menlngitidis 0. Hemo,:,hilus influenzae
135. Cul tures ofSiaphyklcoccus supplies which or �he foll owing forcul tures of Haemophllus?
A. Factor I B . Factor Ill C, X factor O:llfllctor
1 36. What type ol bl ood is use-j In blood agar pl ates for better production of beta-hemolysis of Haemophflus?
A. Horse 8. Sheep C. Human 0. Rabbit
137. Which of lhe fol lowing organisrr,s cause whooping cough?
A. Haemophllus haemolyticus C. 8ordetel la pertu: ;sls
8. legl onell a pneumophila 0. Streptococcus pheumonlae
138. Which ol the fol lowing specie■ of tlordetellu are urease and oxl dase-P<,sitive?
A. parapertussi. 8. bronchl aepUce C. pertussla O. NOTA
139. The preferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Bordet-Gengou medium C. Charcoakephalexin agar
B. Chocolate agar 0. Clotted rabbit bl ood
140. A Brucell a isolate !hat does not produce '-t,S, does not require e,o,, a r, d I s not Inhibited by thl onin or basic
fuchsin is probabl y which species of B1 ucella?·
A. 8rucella canl s C. Brucena suis, blutype 1
B . Brucel la abortus, biotype 1 0. Brucella melhensis, biotype 1
141, A gram-negative, fasl[dl ous bacillus lhal has been Isol ated from air-conditioning lowers iii:
A Proteus vul garls C. Edwardsiella tarda
8. Brucella abortus D . Legionella pneumophila
142. A gram-negative, faslldious baclllus that is difficul t to stain by the Gram stain Is:
A. Proteus vulgaris C. Ec!Wardslella tarda
B. Btucell a abortus . D. Lagl onel la pneum,iphlla
143. A rel ativel y sl ow growing and fasti dious, gram-negative rod that produces a charactertetlc Lrown pl gm•nt on
F1!1!1 ey-Gorman &gar is:
A. Hemophllus influenzae C. Bordatella �-,rtussls
8 . Legionella poeumophila D . Btucella melltensis
144, At the presenttime. which of the following Is most sensitive lor 1M diagnosis of lnfecllons with Legionelia
pneumophila?
A . Demonstration of a signlflcant rise In anHbody titer
B, Isolation of organism by culture
C . ')irect vlsual izatlon of the organism in tissue
D. L'etectlon of solubl e microbial products in body fluids
111�; The host modium for the laol ation of LegioneU:i ia.
A lron..:ysUne agar C. V 0901
8 . Ca,npy-thlo agar D. Buffered charcoal i'east extmcc agar
146. What dou tM campy gas mixture consl tt of?
A 10% CO7 B, 5% 0, C. 85% nitrogen D. AOTA
141. "Ri<."' w..101· slool s one11 co11laln:
A, A pure culture of Vibrio cholerae
8. Toxlgenic Clostrldlum botullnum
C, Toxigenic Staphylococcus aureus
U Undigested aflatoxin-<:enlaminated rice kemt s
l
148. • \ curved, gram-negative rod that is nonfermenlivt1, nl'.rate-positive and microaeropl,iric is:
/1. Fl avobacterium 8. Splrllluin min,,;, C . Cwnpyl obacte, J<lJu0I D. Loplti5Jllrn
149 Campylobacter is a/an:
A Oblluuto n1ic.,ouo1ophi lo C. Fcicultullvu un/11Jtc,l•�1
B. Obligate aerobe · D. Obl igate anerobe
150. A gram..,,egative. sl ender, curved rod with n singl e polar flagellum Is the cause of gastroenteritis and best
i,;ol atFtct on·
A !jll oor, l;l uc,d uu1.1t C (,.numy hlcHttJ ll!Jnf
E' Human bl ood Tween agar , 0. )!LO agor
151. "Cl ue cells" may be focnd in :nfrcUons with:
A Campyl obncter <:Oil C I eg,onalln pneumophllu
U Gardnurolla vuyi11all 1 D. llruoolla cm•I •
152 Mycopl asmas are not tru� bacteria because they:
A. Have 4 nucl ei 8 . C,row rapidly C. Are anaerobic D. Have no cell wall
153. Which of the followi ng mic,oorganisms fotm col o,1les II-at are embedded in the agar giving a fri;d egg
apr,earanr.<t?
A. MyC(Jplasm� µnuumonU•Ju C Cl vt.J1H<Jhuu dilhcllu
8. : Iycol>acterium kansasii D. Ureapl asma ureal ytlcum
154 What Is the besl method for the identification of Mycop!nsmn species?
A Nilrute ruduchon !OKI C: f'lmJlul hrnnunotllllu:tH)n luHt
11. Inhibition of grow1h by specific antlsera U. l'roducUon o l m:clol n
15� What is the purpose or enrichment fluid m ;<1I a when c"lluring Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Extends tag phase of normal nora C . Extends tag phase of pat�ogens
B . vecreases lag phase or pathogens D . A and B
156 Match each Item In the first column with f>ne 01 more oftho mod/a in th, second column,
I. __ eosin Y and methyl ene blue a MacConkey medium
2. __ l actose and sucrose b. I iolt-Harrl s EMS medium
3_ _ lactose only c . Levine's EMB agar
4. _ _ crystal violet
5. __ bile sal ts
6. _ _ neutral red
7. __ lacioso
8. _ _ black or purple col onies
9. brick red colonies
10 colOrl ess colonies

157, Nonfermenters produce what reaction I n tri pl e sugar inn agar (TSI)?
A . Alkaline sl an� al kaline 0< neutral butt C . Al kaline sla,,t, alklaline butt
B . Acid slant, acid butt D. Al kaline slant, acid bull
158. What is lhe hydrogen sulfide indicator in triple sugar ir1Jn agar?
A . Tryptophan C . Ferric ammonium citrate
B. Sodium thl osulfate D . Alpha-naphthot
1';� IMVi ('; 1 t; a �orir,ri nf whW:h nr fht, rollowinct tot.I '.?
A huJu u, muthyl ,,.,-<J, Vogds•f11osk.uuu, . cHmll1
l
B . lndol e, motility, Voges-Proskauer. carbohvdrate
C Inositol , manrtilol, Vogos-ProskouJr, cilr1<1tJ
D. tnosllol , methyl red, Voges-Proskouer, ca. bohydratu
'60. What is lhe indicator in lhe melhyl red test?
A Bromthymol bl ue B . Phenol red C. Bromcresol purple 0. Methyl red
161. "10s1 Enterobacteriaceae give what type of m!lhyl red and Voges-Proskau ir reactions?
A. Oppostte e.
Simnar C . Identical 0. NOTA
162. Whal is the indicator I n Si mmons citrate a')ar?
A . Phenol red e. Bromthymol bl ue C. aromcreasol purple 0. Neutral red

163. Match each Item In the flrst column with one or m"re of th• media In the secund column:
1. __ gl ucose (de,trose'1 a . Salmonella- Shiga/fa (SS.'
2 . __ lactose onl y b . '13ismuth-su/fila (BS)
3. _ _ l actose, sucrose, saJici n c. Xylose-/ys'n&-<lenxycho/ata
4. ferrous sul fate d. Htktoon Entaric agar
5 . == phenol red a . Brill/an/ Green agar
6. _ _ bnlli�nl green.only; inhl bhor for gram-positive organisms and coli/orms
7 ._ _ bile sal ts and brilliantgreen
8. _· _ ferric (ammonlum) citrate + Sodium lhl osulfate
9 _ _ xylose. laclose. sucr.>se
10. _ _ bromlhymol blue and acid ruchsin

=
11. neutral red
12. red ool onles
13. col orless col onies
14. red col onies wilh blac� centers
1 i. black colonies aurrounded by black zvne wl lh mel8Bic sheen
16. _ _ green colonies
17. __ blue green col onles with black centers
1 8 . _ _ orange-sal mon pink colonies
19. _ _ citrate lo inhibit coliforms and Proteus
20. __ whitish •snowfl&ke• colony surrounded by brH iant red agar

164. Which of lhe following amino acids are used in lhe lest for decarboxylase7
A Cadavertne, putrescine, omlthlne C . Lysire, arginine, ornithine
B. Omithine, arginine. cadaverine o. l\rgi nine, putrescine, cadaverine
1r.1, J m:lino :l mnl nrJ n<:i (IS woul d roqulnt '1 lu hnn Why?
A '/ lul;u:, llltt uttmlad fm lt1tillqJ ly:ilH"'t t... I luhn Ir. 1laud "tt ru1 a 1.,011!1111
8 2 tubes are needed l
for tes�ng arginine o. Onl y J tubes are neeJed
166. Which of the follow ng is an enzyme that re, noves the .,n,lno group (NH,) from 11n c.mil, o acid?
A 1)()(�11lx>xyl 11uo U. Urooll<l C. 1�.,111111111-,, II Dollml nnto
1ij7. Organisms that produce urease do what to lhP. medium?
A Produce phenyl pyruvic acid C. Hydrolyze urea to NH,OH
B. Liquefy lhe medi um O. Pr<,duce hydrogen sulfide
168. Hydrogen sul fide production, other than in triple sugar Iron agar, requires:
A . An organic source of sulfur C . A buffer
El A source of metal O A and B
WU Whul c.;ol dr i radi <:ult:ti u 11<,yollvu ,o�u ll ln tl1u u 11.kJ1ulh1 uUl t1ull o11 10:::.1�,
A. Green B. Yellow C . Bl ue 0. A rnd B
170. Gel aUnase breaks down gelatin to:
A Sodium mal onate B. Amino acids C. Hydrogen sul fide 0. Ac6lo1r
171. Whal indicates a positive ONase result r.ller 0.1 N HCI Is added to the pl ate?
A. Gels on refrigeration C. Agar becomes cloudy
B. Green sl ant 0 . Agar clears around the col ony
172. The DNase test is based on:
A . Col or
B. Turbidity indicating growth in a medium C?nlaining DNA
C. Destruction of sugars In the cul ture medium
0. Product detection of ONA degradation by DNase
173. If the negative niltate reduction test d08$ net change color alter the powdered zinc I s added, how is I t reported:
A Positive B. Doubtful C. Negafive O . Qo not report
174. Sal monella, Shigefla. Escherichia coll , and Serratia are all:
A . Dextrose - nega�ve C . Common hospi tal-acquired urinary tract infectio�s agents
B . LaetoH - negative 0. Members of Enterobacteriaceae
1 75. What is the purpose of the ONPG test?
A. Determines the amount of glucose C . Determines the amount of sucroae
B . Determines the rermentaUon of sucrose o. Detects sl ow lacto&e fermenters
17/"l An oroRnllim lc.ol tal')(J Imm A url ntt r.ullura fmc th., fol low1na rftActlnn•
Grcm1-11eg11tlvd rod
TS/ A/AG +G; IIIIVIC ++-; molile; Urease - negalive
Wh..-)1 of lhe following organi1m1 11 tt?
A E.1110,ob..
1c;to, ctou�a<t C Klobsi rtl l:.a pnoum�-,.-u:1et
B Serratla marcescens 0. Escherichia coli
177. 'In organism I solated trom a blood eultvre l)a., lhe following reactions:
Gram-negative rod
TS/A A/A +G; /MVIC --++; motile; lysine dacarboxylne- neg11tlve; no �•psule
Which of the following organisms Is I t?
A. Enterobacter c loacae C . Klebsiella pneumonlae
B. Escherichia coli D . Serratia marcescens
178. An organism isolated from & b lood culture has the followi ng reactions :
Gram-negative rod, urease andp1Hmyta/11nine deam!nue positive
TS/ KIA +G, • H,S; lysine dec.rboxy/11se - negative rnd
om/thine decarboxylase -positive; motilit!'positive ornegat/,e
Which of the following organisms i s it?
A. Proteus mlrabilis C. Morganel la morganil
B. Providencia alcalilaciens D. Proteus vu lgaris
179 An org�nisni isolated from a slool culture has thd fol lowing reactions:
Gr, '?-negative rod; urN•• a11dphenyl•l•nln• demanlnasa negotivo
TSJ KIA�G ·H,S: ly•lne d•c:1trboxytt1,_, llfffJlfll"o: ttomuhlllo
Wl1 1c; h •Jf lhti lollow1 11u OllJbl'lliu ," I• 11'1
A Solmo"ullu subtJ1oup 3 (Af1z.ona) C tiluuolka t1pp
J. Proteus mirabdi s D Cl trobacter freundil
180 ,Which of the fol lowing allows viability of acirt production by oxidiZbrs In oxidation-fermentation (0-F) medium?
A , Carbohydrate content ii h igh C, Peptone content Is low
B. Sodium ch loride content i s low D Peplone content is h"1h
181 An organism Isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions.
Gram-negative rod,· utlNlse •nd�ny/alanin• dMminase negative
TS/A KIA +G, +H,S; mot/le; lysine decerboxy/as•po,ltive;
lndo/o - positive
Which of tho following lo oxl dase - positive?
A. Versinia enterocol ilica C. Vibrio cholerae
B. Aeromonas hydrophila D . B and C
182 Wh.:h of tho fol lowing Is oxides& - positive?
A V,,1t,lolo nl\lJtlOC:ollllcn C v'Jhdu d1 nl r1rno
u Ao1 m11ouis1i hyc..hoph1 lc:1 u u .:1ud c
183. Which of the following is the rP.agent u.ied for the string test?
A. Methyl red C Carbonuto
0. Bromlhymol bl ue O O 5�. sodium cloa<1xycho�1to
184. Any organis m lhat is indole-posltive and ni trate ,eduction-positive i s also:
A. ONPG positive C. Omilh ine decarboxylase - negative
B. Cholera red - po.,itive 0 . Ph-,nyla lanine deaminase - positive
185. How many tubes or oxidation-fermentation medi� is/ar., lnoeulated and what precautluns shou l d be laken?
A. 1 t ube. under aerobic conditions C. 3 tubes , under anaerobic con�itions
B . 2 lubes. one covereo with oil so air is excl uded D . 2 tubes, under aerobic conditio. 1 s
186. Which of the following i s oxldase-posilive?
A. Moraxella osloensis C . Aclnetobactar cs lcoaoellcus b lotype anltralus
B . Xanthomonas maltophlila D. Acinetobaeter ca lcoacetlcus biotypo lwoffi
187. Which of the following i s rart of the normal flora of the skin?
A. Alcaligenes raecalls C. Acinetobacter calcoaeeticus biJtype lwofl
B. Xanthomonas maltophilia O. Moraxell a osloensis
188. Whal does PRAS mean?
A. Prereduced, aeroblcally sternized C. Phosphate. rifampln, aerobk;all� sterilized
B . Prereduced, anaerobically sterilized 0 . Penici llin, rirampln. anaerobically sterilized
189. Why shoul d thloglycollate broth be boiled for <O minutes oefore b�ing used?
A . To drive off oxygen C. To activate lhe th loglyc.ollata
U. l'o dr ive off hydrogen l
D. l'o deacllvate Ihe thtoglycollale
190. Nagler agar ls a selective med um ror:
A. Bacteroides B . Prop lonibacterium -:;. C lostsidl um D . Arachnia
19 1. Peptococcus and Peptostreptococcus are both:
A, Anaerobic. gram-,ositive cocci C. Common agents of meningitis
0 Mlcroawophlllc 0. Reahllanl lo pun lci!U,1
192. Propionibacterla are:
A Ann9robir,;, prom-positfvo rods C AerobJc. gram-negnUve rods
I: AtO,ibH.iliiC., ijlliffl- n6(J6U'i6 (()t.lS 0. Aetoblc g,am-P0$1't/Vf: rod...
193. A gram-negative, anaerobk. coccus that produces a red nuorescence l noer ultrav10let ltghl is·
A . Peptococcus B. vemone lla C. Ne l sseria D. Fusobaeterlum
194. Which anaerobic. gram-positive r<Jds prOdcce terminal " lollipop· spore£?
A Clotlridlu m lotonl C C lo1lli d lu 11, b11 tyrk:u111
8 Eubacterium tentum D . Bacterol des uroolytlcus
n,,; Whit:h ,,, 1110 fr1 Uuwiu g u1u11Jr1,t,q11 �: uul;.4)e ,m ,m1J111!l;mt,tal oi:Q.f�)l a·m1 ,Jl,mhQa�/
A. Ciosllidlum ramowm C. Clostr 1 d1 um buty.rcum
B. Ciostridium diff,cile D. Clostrldiuin alac"olyticum
196. Which or the fol lowing c lostrldia produte a double zon, of hemo,ysis around co lonies on �lood agar?
A Clostridlum perfri ngens C. Cio8hidlun, M >fr�ooldo�
l
B. Clostridium letani D . Clostridium dilficele
197. Mycoplesma pneumonlae is incubated:
._....._
A . Aerobically, In a sealed conminer, in carbOn dioxide C. Aerobicall"
8. Anaerobically In a GASPAK 0 . NOTA
198. A pos itive urease test for ureaplasmas is indicated by a:
A. Clea, zone surrounding the coJ.Jniff C. Brown halo surnunding the colonies
B . Green zone surrounding the colonies 0. Red halo iurrounding lhi, colonies
199. Which of the following organisms produces no haze in a broth culture?
A. Mycoplasma hominls C . Ureaplasmr urealyticum
B . Mycoplasma pnaumoniae 0 . Chlamydia pssit.aci
200. Whal is the cause of prima,y atypical pneumonia?
A. Klebslella pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus aureus
8. Streptococcus pneumonlae 0. Mycoplasma pn;,umonlae
201. � /hlch of the following has both r ibonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyr ibonucleic acid (DNJ\)?
A. Rickettsla 8. Chl amydia C . Viruses o. A and B
202. Ric: .ettsias are tra nsm•itted by:
A. Mosquttoes 8. Aeroso l . C. Contamination D . Arthropod vectors
203. Which of the following ls not caused by Rickettsia?
A. Typhus B. Q lover C. TI-phold fever · D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Feve,
204. Which �f the fol lowing have a bact�rial type cell wall?
A. Viruses and chlamydias C. Rickettsias and chJamY,:ils
B. Mycoplasmas and chlamydias 0 . Rlckei!slas and viru!Y!S
2U5. Which of the following is a small nonmotile, coccobacill us that is cultured in yolk sac of a chick embryo?
A. Chlamydia B. Mycop lasma C. Rlckettsia D . Bitidobacterium,
206. Chlamydia are cu ltured In:
"· Yolk sac of chick embryo B . McCoy cells · C. B lood agar D. NOTA
207 Genital cultures for sexually transmitted dlsooaes include all of tho foUowlnn, ox.. opl.
A Chlamydia trachomaOs C, T. pallldum
8 . Herpes simplex virus D. Campylobacter coli
208. ·TRIC' conjunctivitis Includes which of the following?
A lncll1 ijlon conjuncUvlHs 0. Troc11u111a C. 1'ronch Jovo, 0. 11 and U
209. Which serological test Is done for Ch lamydia trachomalls on genital smears?
A . Enzyme-linked lmmunosorbent assay (ELI SA) C. Direct FA using monocto1lal Abs
1:1 . Radioimmunoassay (RIA) D. Indirect FA_using Chlam:·d la Ags
210. What is the most common tick-borne disease In the U.3.?
A. Botulism B. Cholera C. '..yme disease D . l.egionnaires
211. What is erythema chronicum mlgrans (ECM)?
A. Cardinal sign of Lyme di sea�e at site of tic� bite C. Initial stage ln psittacosis
B . Detects the entry of hOC'kworm larvae D . Rash in rickeltsial infection s
212, What are !>road spectrum anllbiollcs?
A. Act against gram-negative bacteria C . Acl against bacterial and nonbaclerial organisms
B . • ct against gram-positive bacteria D . AOTA
213 . Suostances. produced by microorgani sms, that in very small amounts Inhibit other m lcroorg�ni sms are called:
A. Antibiotics 8. Antibody C. Antiseptic 0 . A and B
214, Baclerlostatlc agents do wh ich of the following?
'\. Cause dealh of the organism C. A and B
B. Inhibit the growth ofthe organism 0 . Netther A nor B
215. Th.:i lime It takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood is called the:
A. Full-life B . Absorption tima C. Half-life U. Rea l- life
216. Resistance lo an antibiotlc can be transferred from a ruistant lo a susceptible orga1lism by:
A. Selectivity pressure C. Innate passage
B . MutatiC'n D. Extrachromo$0mal plasmid
217. In the Kirby-Sauer susceptibi lity tes� the O.� McFarland standard is used to:
A. Measure the th1ckneas of·the media in •ho Petri pl ate
8 Ootounl no how close tho anUbiotjc dises should bo r, t-J<'.(,c.J
l
c. Adjust the turbidity of the lnocu lum
D . AOTA
218 . After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton p lates for 1 he Kirby,Bauer susceplibilily lesl. how long shnulri the rlale1 dr
l•1fo1u mlcl inu tho �!Ska?
A. 3.5 minutes B. Not more lhan 15 minutes C.l 30 minutes n. A and 8
219 How docs one measure the zone of growth 111hibilion rcr um K rby-Baver suscepliblhly test?
A. On the undersi de of the �late C . Using a ru ler, caliper or template
B . With the unai ded eye 0 . AOTA
220. Whal does the s ize nf the zone of growth Inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used?
A Ma,(lmum lnhlbltory concentration C rAl n1 m11m 1othnl f.onCt>nlraOon
U M1 n,mum Inhi bitory coneonttation O , 1m lmum hru:.tu,1 c1 da co,,cnt;ttinUon
l
221 If there is too mvch moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer
susceptibility iest, what will happen to lhe growth?
A. larger zone B . Smal ler zone C. Confluent growth 0, OandC
222. Which of the following are the best irnJicators of µoor storage7
A. Chloramphenicol and cephalosporins C. Penicillin and methicillin
B . Lincomycin and penicill n 0 . Melh icillin and linomycin
i
 A<.-rs kffi cw c:cneer
A.POI J.oN -AecCc: 1.olcw
C'h-,,tt'1 ' t.0,•1 �il'lk•1C1�ll.4111
,._., II ofII
223. In Mueller-Hinton agar. what can cause increased resi stance of PsedomoAAs aeruc,i nosa to aml nogl ycosldes?
A. Decreased peptone C. Increased calci um and magno,,l um
B. Decreased sodium chl oride D. Docroased cal cium and mewne:.lum
224. When doing a susceptibili ty testwith sul fonamides, th<1reare two concentric zones around lhe di sk. How <;hould
the zone be measured?
A Measure the di ameter of the I nner zone
B. Measure the di ameter of the outer zone
C. Measure both zones and take the average size
D. Zone cannot be measured
225. The lowest ooncenlratlon of drug that wtll kill all but the minimum defined proportion of vi abl e organi sms after
i ncubation f0< a fixed time under a given set of oondijions Is definition of the:
A. Mi nimum lethal ooncentrall on C. Maxi mum lethal concnetrallon
B. Mi nimum bacteri cidal concentrati on D. A and B
226. For quality oontrol when monijoring reagents. how often should reagent disks be checked<'
A When container Is first open&d C. Once nch month
B. Once each week of use D. A and B
:•:,, I 111,w c,rt.au •luml,,l 11 alalA41o, 1 1 1'flrla11a, AWi r-,1RtJllla110 10«.uaul• l,a loo1cul','
A. Once each day of uS<l C. When vial ls hrs. openeo
B. Once each week of use D. A and C
228. Record temperatures of incubators. water baths, heating blocks. refrigerators, freezers, .Jnd thermometers:
A At eacn ti me of use C. At the end cf each day
B. At the begi nning of each day D. A.OTA
220. Check the lace velocity of safety cabi net• each:
A. Day B. Week C. Month D. Year
230, 1'eltings of rpm, marked on lhe face of the rhooslal control on lhe coo1r1rugo ahoul d be che<:ked once:
A. Weekl y B. Daily C. Monthly U. Every o,hor wook

LNhSepl'05
RBB Sopt'05
 .....
Microbiology & Parasitology
By Apollon et . al .
CHAPTER 2 - Microbiology Questions
Mycol�gy Questions
1. DELETED

2 . Characteristicall y, fungi:
A. Are members of the plant kir,gdom C . Lack chlorophyll
a. Lack roots and stems 0. A.OTA
3 . Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for:
A. Sepatate hyphae 8. Arthroconidl a C. Pseudohyphae D . Aseptate hyphae
4 Which type of mycoses produce no cellular respcnse by the host? .
A. Deep mycoses B. Cutaneous C . Supe(flcl al mycoses D. Systemic mycoses
5 . Arthroconidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyph;ie wi thin the hair shaft is callert
A. Ectothrix B. Endothrix C . Scututa D. Dimorphic
6. True yeast produce which of the followi ng in the asexual stage?
A. ,Chlamydospores B . Favl c chandeliers C . Balstoconidia D. Arthroconidi11
7. Septate hyphae have:
A. No divisions B. OMsl ons C. Pseudohyphae D. Ve3etative parts
8. Mol ds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a:
A. Conidiophore B. Sporangio�hore C . Thallospore 0. Zygosrore
9. The basic, branching, Intertwi n ing structuras of molds are referred lo as:
A. Mycelium B. Rhlzoids C. Conidia
1 o. Arthroconldla are fQrmed:
A Directly from the hyphao by fragmentation C . By knots of twisted hyphae
U l:ty duuuhtc,r c.;olhi pl<:l1i uu c:lf r, um SJ<>tUo,,., of lho 1m,ll1c,1 ci oll I> Wllhh1 lhn hyptuao
1 1, Mycella withi n the colony u,at grow Into the s• 1�s1rate are called,
A . Aerial hyphae B . Conidiophore� C. Macroconldia D. Vegetative hvphae
12. Chl�mydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred lo as:
A. Spirals B. Terminal C . lntercalary D. Sessile
13. Buddi ng rorms in which the daughter cell forms as a :iud from a single mother cell or forms l aterally from a
mycellum or pseudornycellum are call ed:
A . Blastopsores B. Chtamydospores C. Ascospores D . Sporanglospores
14. Which of the followi ng are the result of asexual reproduction?
A . Arthrospores B. Ascospores C. Zygospores 0. B andC
15. Conldia are:
A. Asexual spores C. Vegelaiive spo,es
B. Sexual spores 0. Asexual or sexual spores
16. Macroconidia are usually:
A. Mul ticellul ar B. Unicellul ar C. Square 0. Rectangul ar
17, The swollen portfon of the coni diophore is called the:
A. Spherule B. Sporangium C, Sterl gmata D. Vesicle
1 a Which or tho rollowl ng siatemonts does NOT appl y to true yeasts?
A Aacoeporaa cm, producod In the att,cual pho10
8. Blastospore.s are the sexual rep,odu et,va form
C. Saccharomyces I s a representative of this group
n Th@y oxhibll thormnl dli110q1hiam
1 9 . ConkJla with rough 0t spiny surfaces are descrtbfld ea:
A. r.n1one10 B. Echlnulate C Pnduncul nte
20. Conidi a in Chai ns are said to be:
A. catenate B. Echinul ate C. Pedunculate D. Sessile
21. When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is tho sl ide ger.Uy heated?
A. Pre$erves the speciman C. Mounts the specimnn
B. Increases the rate of clearing 0. A0TA
22. Which of the fol lowing acts as a cl earing agent to el iminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent ir
skin, hai r, and nalls?
A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. 10% KC•H C . 70% alcohol O.EthOf
23 ''\/hat is the stain in An.an medium?
A, Cotton blue B. Methyl ene blue C. Prussian blue O. Bromthymol bl ue
24. Which of the lo/towing I s negative stain?
A. Periodic acid-Schiff stain C . Acrldi ne orange stai,
B. Giemsa stain 0. India ink stai n
25. In the periodic acid-SChiff stain (PAS). what colors denote the presence orglycogen?
A. Blue to green B . Red to violet C, Pink lo red O . Yellow to brown
26. Which of the following ablins is used for sharp dell.-tion offungal elem£nts by fluo-t microseopy?
A. Gomori melhenamlne silver C . Hemato,cylln
B. Calco"our white D. Eosln
27. When the fungus wall is i.wisible wi th lhe hematoxylln and eosin stain, which of U,e fol lowing may be used to
reslain Iha slide?
A. Acid-fast stain C . Gram slain (Hucl: er rr, odificallon)
A. Periodic acid-ScMf stain D. Gomori methenaml ne sliver stain
28. F,•ngal el ements In the ;,cridine orange Jtal ning procedure:
A Stol n rod 8 Do 1ml at.eln C Slaln purpl o O Fl1 Jot�scet. a green color
2� How does MYCOSEL medi um dl tter lrom Subouraud dextros@ ooar'/
A Contai ns chl oramphenico1 and cyclc,hexl ml de •
B, Does not contain dextroM
C. Contains an Indicator
0. Stimul ates the production of chl amydos�ores
30. Which fungus medium i s used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures?
A. Sabouraud dextrose agar C. Slaib' s medium
6. Cornmeal agar D. nice agar
31. What is the indicator In Dem,atopnyte Test Medium?

I
A. Melhyl red B. Phenol red C. ttromcresol purple p. Methyl orange
32. If .1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton f\Jbf\Jm can be dlfferentiat:!d from Trichophyton
mentagrophytes by the production ot
A. Hyphae B . Aacospores C . Pigment D. Sporsngl a
33. Fungi shoul d be Incubated at:
A. 25-30 C . B . 10-15 C C . 35-37 C 0. 50-5& 0
34. How •ong should fungus cul ture, be hel d before reportlng ea negative?
A. L �ays B. 14 days C . ',8 hours D. 30 days
35. Which tf the following antibiotics can be addP.d to media for the isolation ol pathogenic lung! hom conlaminated
material?
·, Penl ci:lln and streptomycin C. Cycloheximl de and chloramphenlcol
,3. Vancomycl n and nyslatln D. 3treptomycin and nystatin
36. Whl r.11 of the followlAg medi a atimuletsa the production of chlamydospores?
A. Brain-heart I nfusion bl ood agar C. •::Ornmeal agar
B . Czapek's agar O . urease test medium
37. Which of the following medi a identlr.,, 1pecios of AsperHl llus?
A. Urease medi um B. Rice agar C . ,;zapek' s agar D. Asco3�ore agar
38. A posi tive result for the hair-baiting test is:
A. v.shaped penetration er t�e hair ahaft C. The production of red pigment
B. The production of germ lubes D. The production of brown pigment
39, A tlnea infection Is commonl y referred to as:
A. Taeniasis B. Ringworm C . Pityr; asis o. Piedra
40. Which of these organisms is the usual cause o• white piildra?
A. Trichosporon beigelii C . ?l edraia horate
B. Mi crosporum cani s D. Malassei zia fur1ur
41 Tmea ungui um ia a dermatophyte infecUon of the:
A. Nail pl ates B. Beard C. ?air., of hand 0. Fool
42, The favus type of tinea capiti s i s caused by which of the following?
A . Trl chophyton viotacaum C. Tricllophyton schoenlein ii
B . Microsporum autiouinl i D. Candida albicans
43. Whl ch of the following is/are anthrophillc?
A. Microaporum audoulnl l C. MicrospoNm gypseum
B. MicrospoNm canis 0 . All of these organi sms
44. Hai rs Infected wi th which of these derrnatophytRs fluoresce under Wood's l amp?
A. Trichophyton rubf\Jm C. Microsporum cani s
B. Trichophyton lonsurans D, Epidermophyton floccosum
45. Colonization by dermatophytic fungi or the haor, Mils, and skin is called:
A. Mycetoma C. Phaeohyphomycosi s
B. Chromoblastomycosis D. Oermatophytoses
46. Which of the following fungi ls/are the cause vf dermatophytoses?
A. Epidermophyton B. Trichophyton C . Microsporum O. AOTA

47. DELETED

48. Which of the following produces macroconfdia that are large, multicellul ar, and club-shaped wi th smooth walls?
A. Fonsecaea psdroaol C. Epl dermophton f1occcsum
B. Mlcrooporum audoulnll D. Trlchophyton menlagrcphyta.
49. Whl eh statement is NOT true?
A. Trichophyton meitagrophytes is urease positive
8. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft
C . Trichophyton f\Jbrum is noted for its 'balloon' forms
D. Trichophyton rubf\Jm produces a red pigment on some media
SO. Which of the following produces small, very sl ow growing calories and has favic chandeliers?
A. Trl chophyton tonsurans C . Trl chophyton sthoenl einii
8. Microspof\Jm canis D . Epidermophyton floccosum '
ff n
51. Which ol the followfng Is dl8gnostlc forchromot.lastomycosls?
----
A. Flowerette conl dla 8. Asteroid body C. Sclerotic body 0. Ger.n tube
52. Which of the following are found In the yeast :,hase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37 C?
A . Scl erotic bodies C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
8. A.steroid bodi es O. GP-rm tube
53 Which of the followi ng ls the result of an antigen-antibody reaction 1n cat es of sporotrichos!s?
A. Scl eroUc body C, Sleeve conldia
B . Flowerette conidl a 0 . A.steroid body
54. In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenckii single couidl a borne al ong the �ides of the hyphae are referred as
A. Cigar-shaped B . Flowerette C. A.stemlq.body 0. Sleeve
55. Which or 1h11 following infections Is caused by dematiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immun:,suppressed
hosts?
A. Phaeohyphomycosis C. Hyalohyphomycosis
B . Chromoblastomycosis 0. Dem,atophytoses
56. The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosl s) in the U.S. is:
A Pseudoolloacherio boydil C. Rhlnosµoridl urn seeoorl
11 NocotdlO oatttrokJea O A<�U,14 ,,n qlltttA 11u.,iJ11,,_�
!>7 ()ou1uli ucoous fungl flov« colo11I OJ with
A. Surlace and reverse side light C. Surface liihl an\J reverse side dark
B . Surface and rev&/$e side dark 0 . surface dark and reverse side light
58. Which ofthe following are a dematiaceous fungi?
A Sporotrichum and A.spergl llus C. Penicl llium �nd l\cremonium
B . Phial ophorn ond Cl adbsporfum 0 Fusarium and Pnocilomycos

59. DELETED

60. Scl�rotlc bodies are found In tissue In an infection with:

A. r.andida 8. Cl adosporium • C. Chrysosporium o. Coccldl oldes
61. lnfecUon of chromoblastomycosl s Is NOT caused by which of the ro11ow1 ng fungi?
A. Exophlal a B . Cl adosportum C, Phlal ophora 0 . fonseeaea
62. A fungus that grow� as a mol d at 35-37 C and a mol d at 25 C Is described as;
A Monomol'l)hl c B . Mya-llal C. Dimorphic 0. Eumycolic
63. True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are knc,wn as:
A. Eumycotlc B . Monomorphlc C. Dimorphic 0 . feasts
6-1. Which of the fol lowing causes an l niection by hyen ne saprobes that lnv�de most tissues or body fluids of
immunosuppressed hosts?
/1. A.sperglllus B . Penicilli um marneffei C. Fusarium monil iforme O. AOTA
65. ·ryou observe clel stothecia containing ascospores, report the organism as:
A. Scedosporidium apiospermum C . Nocardia asteroids
B . Actinomyces israelii 0 . Pseudoallescherl a b?ydii
66. The actinomycetes are bes\ classified as:
A Acid-fast bacteria B. Eumycetes C . Funguslike bacteri a 0 . Opportunist,c fungi
67. Which ofthe following I s anaerobic, gram-positive but Mt acid-fast, and does not stain with fungal stai ns?
A. Nocardla asterol des C. Actlnomyces israelii
B . Nocardla brasillensls O. AcUnomadura madurae
68. 'Nhich of the following h£s a r.ipsule?
A Candida albicans C . Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Geotrichum candl dum 0. Bl astomyces dermatitidis
69. When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the fol lowing antibiotics shoul d not bd In the
medium?
A. Trimelhoprim 6, Vancomycln C. Aml nogtycosl de O. Cyclohexl mide
70. In the direct microscopic: examination of cere�rospinal flui d, which of the fol lowing �n be mistaken for a
lymphocyte?
A, t:andl da B. Gryptococcus C. Geotrichum o. Blastomyces
71. Wh; �oes Cryptococcus ueofom,ans produce a brown <;0l or on Birdseed or staib ager?
A. A.s�l mllatas creatlnine C. Ferments glucose
l
B, Assim lates niacin 0 . Ferments trehal ose
72 ;;ryptoc0<.cus neoformans has the followl n, , biochemk:21 reactlon/s:
A. Urease posilive 8. Inositol positive C . Nitrate negJtive D. AOTA
73, Cry:,tococcus neoformans l atex agglutination tlll't on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal:
A. Creatinlne B. Antibody C, Carbohydrate I), Antigen
74. Candida albicans produces:
A . Bl astospores B. Chlamydospvres C. Pseudohyphae O. AOTA
75. Which of the following Is another name for oral candldia;is?
A . Ringworm B . Thrush C. Barber's itci'. O, Favus
76. A presumptive identification ot Candida al bit 3ns can be made by checklng the ability of he organism to produce
what structure with serum
A. Blastospores 8. Chlamydosporas C. Germ tube O. Pseudohyphae
77, Commeat agar plus Tween 80 Is used to iden'jfy Candi<ia al bicans throu�h the organism's producUon of:
A. Capsul es B. Chlamydospor,.s C. Germ tubes O . Spcrangia
78, Geotrichum candidum col oni es eppear as:
A. Sl ow g.rowl ng, dematiaceous growth C. Slow growi ng. violet, waxy growth
B . Rapid, yeastlike growth 0. Rapid growing, suede-l ike groW'h
 Al,1'$ RC'\'i owCenter
APOI.LQN-Myooto1r
ct\lpt.erl.. Mk:mblolol)'Ql.lntl ON
�4or4
79. Laboratory workers are in no dan�er when h�ndling which form or oi morphlc fungi?
A. Yeast form (tissue) C. A and 8
B. Hyphal form (culture) D. Neither A nor 8
80, Sepedonlum produces spiny, tuberculate macrooonldl a �ut Is a;
A. Dimorphic fungus i
8 . YeAstlike fungus C . Monomorphlc mold D A and 8
81. Which orthe fol low ng are produced by Geolrichum canoidum? •
A. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
B . Small, buddi ng yeaat c.ella D. uberculate macroeonidia
ll2. Which of the fol lowing ls/are dimorphic fangi?
A. Hl stopl asma capsulatsm C. Parinoccl dloldes brasiliensl s
B . Bl astomyces dermatitidls , D. AOTA
83. Th<! tissue phase of Hl stoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows:
A. Pseudohyphae with blastosi;ores C . Yeast cells within macrophages
B . Yeast forms with multipl e buds D. Tuberculate chl amydospores
84 The characteristic structures of the mycelial phase of Hi ,toplasma capsul atum are;
A. Bl astospores C. Tuberculate chlamydospores
B. Mhrospores with a germ tube In one comer D. Yeast cells usually in monocytes
85, Lel shmanla can be differentiated from HlstoplAsma beciluse Leishmania has:
A. A difrerent size C. Central nucl ear material
B. A different shape 0. NOTA
88. Which of the following tests may be sued lnalea;I of conversion when Identifying dimorphic fungi?
A. Exoantlgen test B. String test C. lmmunoftuorescence test D . Ell fA
87. In the myceli al form, Bl astom1,ces dermalitidis produces:
A. Conidl ophores that resembl e lollipops C. Broad, nonseptate hypt.ae
8 Wida, soptato hyphae D, Dull cate, branci1iny, acld•fast hyphao
88. A yeast form with a si ngl e broad:based bud woulcJ identify an organism as.
A. Bl astomyces B . CoccidioidJs C . Hlstopl asma D. Sporo1hrl•
89, The characteristic structures of the mycellal phase of bl astomycosis are:
A Cl usters of blaalospores
U. 8111011 poor-shaped conl uia called lollipops
C. Numerous intercal ary 01 te;minal chlamydospores
0 . Spherul es filled with endospores
90. Yeastlike forms with multi pl e buds are characteristic forms associated with:
A. Blastomyces dermatltidis C . Paracocci<iiokJes braslll ensis
B. Candida albl cans D . Sporothrix schenckii
91. Immature spherul es of Coccldlol des are differonti:ated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because:
A. They produce buds C. Their buds have a narrow base
B. Their buds have a wide base D. They never bud
i
O;> Which nr tho rolll")Wl no funQI 18 n mnjnr bl ohn1nrd j() l'Jborntory pnrf:.()nnol?
A . Cocci dlodes i mrni tis C. Fonsoeaea pedroso,
8, Cryptococcus neoformans 0 . Hl stopl asma capsulatum
m Tho exoantioen 111s1 Is a/arr
A. Indirect passive agglullnaUon lest c,;_ Neulraltzatlon test
B . Microscopic immunoiliffusion tE,SI D. Rocket electroplioresis tlchnl que
94. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsutatum. which bands "' e present in a positive resul t?
A . H and/or M B . J and/or L C. A and/or D D. O and/or P
95. When differentiating Hlatopl asma capaul atum from Leishman!,, using special fungus stains, Leishmani,i stains;
A. Green B . Red C. Bl ue D. WIii mt stain
96. Which of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dr,rmatitidis I � present In a positive resul t?
A. A B. G C. H D. M
97. Which of the fol lowing fungi produces a spherule ·that is filled wi th endorpores?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum C. Bl astomyces immitis
B . Coccldl oides l mmltls D. Rhisopus arrhlr,�
98. Zygo.nyoosl s Is caused by which of tho following genera?
A. Asperglllus and Rhiwpus C . Mueor and Aspe1gillus
B . Rhi20pus and Aureobasidium D. Mucor and Rhizopus
99. Fungal el ements I n zygomycosls show hyphae that are:
A. Broe d and nonseptate C. Narrow and septate,
B . Broad and septate D . Regul ar and dichoton10,s bfonching
ALN llttch 2005
RB/t March 2005
 Microbiology & Parasitology
By Apollon et . al .
CHAPTER 2 - Mi,crobiology Questions
Parasitology Questions
•
1. The motile, reproducing stage, feedi ng stage of Ille Prolozoa Is whi ch of tho following?
A Cyst B. Trophozoi te C. Ova 0 . Adult 1110rm
2. 'Milch of the following amebae has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage?
A . endollmax B . lodamoeba C. Oi entamoeba 0 . Entamoeba
3. Amebiasls I s caused by:
A . I. bustchlii B. E. poleeki C . E. histolytlca 0 . E . coli
. often 'nvolved n extra n;estina amehias s?
4. 'Milch of the following organs of the body I s most i i • i
A . Lungs 8. Kidneys C . Pancreas 0. Liver
5. Which of the following is �haracieriaUc of true �mebae?
A Peripheral chromatin on the nuck!ar body C. Include pathogons and nonl,\0U1og«lo$
B . Chromatin bodies In the cyst 0. AOTA
6 Which of the :allowing Is a true ameba?
II •• nuna a, ::. lllfhTIQrllll C O frogill• I) I 11111.c:1,111
/ . An,ebae that Inhabits Ille gastroi ntesti nal tract or man aro non111otile, nonfeedlng. and inioctiv.1 during whi<:h
stage?
A. Pseudopod 8 . Cyst C. Trophozolte O. Crypt�zolte
a. Mature cysts of E . pol ecl<I have how many 1 uelel?
A 2 8. 8 C. 1 r
0,
9, Wh; �h of the following has cysts with chromatolo bodlM that have two poi nted ends er that can be round,
triangular or oval?
A . E. cell 8. E . poleckl C . E. histolylica 0 . E . glnglvalls
10. Trophozoltes of Entamoeba histolytica have the followlng characieJisti cs :
A . Small, delicate nuclear chromatin
B . Fi ne, even, peripheral chromatin
C . Progressi ve motl i ily with hyall ne, fing�,-I,ke pseudopod•
II /10 1/1
1 1 Which er these Irophozc1ies, when acting as a pathogen, Is h�ely to ingest red blood cells ol tho host?
A. E. cell B. E. hartmanni C. E . hi stolytlca O. E. nana
12 The poi nt or differentiation between Entamoeh., hi11lolyt l�J1 nnd f hai1mannl 11:
A. Presence of peripheral chroInet1n C. On ly 0110 possessos e cyst l�cm
8. Presence cf chromatold bodies o, Size
13, The mature cyst or Entamoeba histol ytlca has how man I nuclei?
A . One B . Two C. Four 0 . More than lour
14. Fail ure to find bacteria In purulent spi nal ftuld should a lert one to find the posslbility or en lnfectinn wi th:
A Viruses 8. Amebae C . Flagellates O . Wor ms

15. DELETED

16. 'Mlich trophozoi te I s di sti ngui shed by the possession of achromatic granu les surroundi n g i t s �a.yosomal
chromatin?
A. E . nana B . E. h lstclytlca C. E. coli 0. I. buischlll
1 7 . 'Mlich of the following woul d have a double•wnlled, wrinkled cyst form?
A. N. fowl eri 8. E. hartmanni c. A. ca.stollani i o. o. r1 �ms
18. A cyst that possesses a single nuc leus an1 a la,ge glycogen vacuole that stai ns deep ly with Iodine belong to
A. E . nana B. I. butschlli C. i:>. fragiUs O . E. cvli
1 9 . Somo amebae have s pi ny, hyaline extensloM called:
A Pseudopods B . Limax forms C . '::ribrilorm p lates 0 . Acanthopods
20. 'Milch are the best staining procedures fer speci es of Naenleria and Acanthamoeba?
A . Gram stain B . Hematoxylin and eosin C. Wright slai n 0 . 8 and C
21. Amebae inhabi ting the central nervous systen, enter the body through tht:
A Mouth B . Nasal mucosa C. Ears 0 . Feet
22. In which specimen are Acanthamoeba and nre-g lerla usually found?
A. Blood 8. Cerebrosplnal fluld .::. Urine O. Joint fluid
23. Naeg leria has which cl the foflowlng characlertsUcs?
A. Found ln the brai 11 C. Trophozoile can btcomo an erreba flageRale
B . Trophozoite can assume a llmax form 0 . AOTA
24. The tropozoite whose karycsomal chromatin appears as a rosette of4-6 granule l is identified as:
A N, fowleri B . 0 . fragilis C. T. gondli D, B. coll
25. Which or the followi ng are often mi staken tor cyst& or amebao?
A B lastocystis hom lnis C. Ammonium magensium phosphate c,ysta l s
B. Ammonium carbonato crystals O. Epi thelial cells
---""
Z
"'
b.-"'
fna!lllffijf nigillitis are usually which shape In !Ile lrophozoite stage?
A. Round B. Oval C. Pear-shaped D. Triangul ar
27. IVhi ch of the fOllowing ,s pathognomoolc for G. lar.1bl i:i an� the stage it fs found in?
A. Spiral groove -trophozol te C. Cytostome • lfopho�ol te
e. Undulating membrane-cyst D. Ventral sucking di sk• tro, >hoz.olte
28. Whi ch of the followi ng protozoa have en undulAtlng membrane?
A. Tri chomooas e. Trypanosoma C. Chi lomastix D . A and B
29. rnrectlons with D. fraglll s can show which of the followi ng symptoms?
A. Di arrhea C. Asymtornatlc
B. Abdominal dlscomrort wi thout diarrhea D. AOTA
30. What does 0. lragilis have In common with T. vaglnalla'1
A. Both are ciliate C. Neither has a cyst form
B. Both can appear as urine contami nants D. AOTA
31. Whi ch flagellate can be a pathogen of the small lntestin�?
A. Gi ardl a B. Trichomonas C. ChJlomas0x 0. Strongylol des
32. DELETED
33. Which Intestinal nasellate trophozol te has a sucking di sc, 2 nucl ei, 8 flagella. and an Axostyle7
A ; mesnlll B. :>. fragllls C. G. lambli a D. T. homl nla
34. Rea and white blood cells In stool specimens aru characteristic of.
A. Meni ngoencephalitis B. aacll1ary dysentery C. Gl ardiasls D. NOTA
35. A pear-shaped flagellate with Jerky motll lty that Is found in a uri ne specimen I s Identified as:
A. T. horninis B. T. vaginalis C. E. coll 0. Leptosplra
36. Eighty percent of the trophozol tell of D. fragil: s have:
A. 2 nuclei 8. 3 nuciel C. 1 nucl eus D. No nuclei
37 The onl y bilaterally symmetri cal protozoan la:
A lttr.homo,U:i-9 B Oien amoeba C Giardi a D. Balantldl um
:ia WJ1 ich al tho to11ow1ng i s tho lnlracelll ul ar form o• bkxx:I i ,uJ hMu..11-, nauollul1Jt.·1
A. Cnthl cttal 8. Leishmanl al C, frypnnosomul 0. Loptornonad
39. Whi ch or the following i s the c,,use of Afri can sleeping sickness?
A Loi shmanl a B. Trypanosom., C Pl11sn1odl11n1
•Ill Which of u,c foll owing I s the vector of A,ucan sklop111y si ckness/
A Reduviid bug (Triatoma) C . Tsetse fl y (Glossl na)
B. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) D. Ticks
41 Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause o, Chagas· di sease?
A Rhodesiense B. Cruzi C Gambiense D. A and C
42. Which of the following is charactensUc of the lrypanosome form of Trypanosoma cruzi?
A Prominent kinetopiast B. C -shaped C. Thi<'.k organism D. AOTA
43. Which specimen would be s�l table for a der,.onstration of the trypanosomes of sl eepi ng sickness?
A Bl ood B. Fl uid rrom : ymph llode C. CSF D. ACTA
,,,, nu, ftxtrar.al lulm form of Trypano1oma is a: 1l nn.der oro:.ni11m r.hnmctrnlzod hy nn unr1ulatlno memhrane and 1
flee: nayellun, U1at auses,
A. Anteriorl y from the nucleus C. Cenlfally from the anterior end
8. Posteriorly from the kintoplast o. Posteri orly from the nucl eus
45. Winch or lho rollowlng is found wi thi n the roUculoondolhollul culls?
A. L. donovanl B. H. capsulawm C. T. gondil 0 . AOTA
46. Mowi s Trypanosoma cruzl uansmi tteC:?
A. Inhal ation 8. Bi te of tsetse l' y C. Bi te of reduvli d bug D. Sex11al contact
47. A chagoma i s a lesi on seen i n infections wi th·
A. Trypanosoma gambl ense C, Trichuris trichlura
B. Tri chomans vaginalls D. Trypanosoma cruzi
48. Whi ch organism I s the cause of kafa-azar?
A. L. donovanl B. L. brazlliensis C. T. cruzl D. T. gambl ense
49. In the laboratory di agnosis <ifL. donovani, wt.iclo is the pre!erred specimen in which to find Le,� man-Donovan
bodi es?
A. Bone marrow B. Bl ood C. Vaginal secretions D. CSF
50 Which of the roll owlng is the ooly cili ate that is µalhogeric in humans?
A. Babesi a 8. lsospora C. B . coll O. E. coll
51. A very large cyst whose double wall encloses a cilited organism with one visi ble nucl ei woold be:
A. Transmi tted by a mosquito to man
8. Acqui red by accioent by man, since it costornariiy infects swine
C. A member of the Sporozoa
D Demonstrated onl y by the tMchrome stain
�l Wl11ch of the follow1 n11 �llucluit11 er� uHcJ lw molltlly of Uul 11nllcflt 1111 i:ulrl
A. Fl agella 8. CIiia C. Pseudopodia D. Ur.dul aUng membrane
53. Whi ch nucleus i n the trophozoite of Bal antidi um, col i is the reproductive one?
A. Micronucleus B. Mauonucl eu� C. A and B O. Neither A nor 8
54 Conjugati on of trophozoites of Balantldi um coli never occurs betwten:
A. Large organisms C. Large and small organi sms
8. Same size organisms D . Very large crganisms
55. The definitive host (vector) to Plasmodlum Is tile:
A. Tsetse fly (Glossina) C. Fem,de Anopheles mosquito
B. Sandffy (Phlebotomus) D . Mal e reduvnd bug ITriatoma)
56. Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale, vary ameboid rl n11 trophozoites, lnfe..:�ng a large pale red
bl ood cell with dota of hem'Jglobin?
A. P. oval e B. P. malariae C. P. lalclparum D . P. vlvH
57. Which of the malarial Orl}&nlsms ;,referenllally Invades relleulocylea?
A. P. falciparum B. P. malariae C. P. vlvax D . AOTA
58. The malarial organism whose schizonl resembl es a "fruit pie' in which the merozolle form a rosette arornd the
•
malarial pigment Is:
A . P. malariae B. P, vivax C . P. oval e D . P, fal ciparum
59. Which malarial organism characteristically has a band form trophOzol te stretching across lhe red bl ood cell?
A. P, mal arlae B. P. oval e C. P. vivax D. P. fal clparum
60. The gametocyte or Pl aamodl um falcl parum can be differentiated from that of other malJrl el opecies by:
A NurnlJor of nuc-l ul B . Nuck>ur chro,n811n C. Suo D Shurx,
01 In wtuctHype of n\al o11a eon Ziemann' • ,lipf1l utg bo found?
A Vlvnx a. Mal arias C. Ovale D. Fal ciparum
62. In which type of mal aria can Maurer's dots be found?
A. Vlvax malaria B. Mal ariae mal aria C . Oval e mal aria D . Fal clparum
03 Whk. 1 malarial organ1 1-m feature• rlng tropho:tottea thel have doubl e chromatin dota, appUqvo form» and often
have multiple parasites In the infected red bl ood cells?
A. P . vivax B . P . falciparum C. P. malariae D . P. oval e
64. Which malarial organism has large, coarsg, red dots wllhln a l arge, pale reo blood cell Mlh fimt rlated edges?
A. P. vi"ax B. P . fal cipa,um C . P. ovale D. P. mPl arl ae
l}"i Th'> tlnxuul tOJHoduol k.10 �yolo I n Pl 11cunodho11 und Co-bdlJlu Ila tofartoll tu 1:10
A. Spo,ogony s. Schl togony c. Sporocysl D . NOrA
6G. What is the infective stage of the mal arial parasite to the vector?
A. Cryplozol tes B, Trophozolle C GomoIocyIe D (),1klnnl•
61 1·n1ol ls the tnfecllve utuge ol lhe malarial pemYl te to humans?
" Gametocyte B. Cryplozoltes C . Schizonts D . Sp:lfozol tes
68. In which type of malaria is there synchronized ruptcre or the red blood cells ever}' 72 hours?
A. Vivax malaria B. Faicip2rum mal�rla C . Oval e ma18r'a D. Mal ari.Je
69. In fal ciparum malaria, there may be a sudden massive lntravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobir'Jt' :. This I s
called:
A. Blackwater fever B. Hemogl obinopathies C. Macrophllla D . A and C
70. Which hemogl obin is incompatibl e with malaria parasi te survival ?
A. Hb-CC B . Hb-F C. Hb-SS D . Hb-.\
71. What is the name of lht l abor.Jto-y test that allOWt. laboratory-bred reduvi id bugs to fee<:! ,n pallents suspected of
having Chagas' disease?
A. Complement fixation B . Serodiagnosis C. )(enodiagnosis D. Westen, blot
72. Humans are infected with Babesia by:
A. Bite of Ucks B. Rlood transfusion C. Bite of sandfly D. A and B
73. If I mmature oocysts of I 80Spora belll are found In •tool s;,ecl mens from Infected humans, what snoul(j be done
wilh the spAcimen for identification?
A. Leava at room temperature C. Leave In the incubator
B. · eave In the refrigerator D. Leave In the waler bath
74_ Whal stage ol lsospora I s Infective to humans?
A. Oo<..-ysts B . r>seudocysts C. Larval D. Tachyzol tes
75, lsospora belli immature oocysts C011tai nls:
A. Sporozoites B. Tachyzo
l i tes C. ->seudocysts D . Sporoblast
76. Infective oocysts of lsospora betl COlltain:
A. 3porozoltes B. Tachyzoltes C. 0seudocysts D. Sporoblasl
77 The <Mtmonatration of retinochoroidl tis and cerebral cal c,fications in a newborr would ;esul t in which of these
l aboratory requests?
A. Casoni skin test C . · �amon fl occulation test
B. MHA-ABS lest for congenital syphilis D. Titer of Toxoplasma antibodies
78. What is both the definitive and intermediate host of Toxeopl asma gondfi?
A. Dog 8. C- C. Cat D . Chicken
, 9 Wh:,1 ,s he appeornncn of Toxoplaamo uondii in liuuo rtuid• of rnon?
t
A Oval B. Crescent C Lm1:.-w to,111 0 Rl ua tonu
80. What conslilules a positive resul t In the Sabin Fel(jman <iye IesI?
A Toxopl asma becomes nonmotile
n T,JkOpl nsn,n r.nn no lr,nuur br1 dn1rn•ofltr111t-,d u� nn l11huu-,1111t111 tHuu111 mu
C. Toxopl asma l osi,s its amnl ty ror methylene bl ue dye
D. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from loxopl asmosl;
81. Which or lhe followi ng tests 13 used for the de tection of Cryptosporidi um?
A, Sabi n-Feldman dye test C, Xenod.iagnosis
B. .G-6-PD test D. Sheather's sugar flotation
82. Wh1eh or the fol lowing parasffes poses a particu ar hazard for immunodefic ent or imrr.u�osuppressed
l i ·
i ndividual s?
A. Cryptosporidlum B. Gl ardia C. Strongyl oides D . AOTA
83. Which of the fol lowing parasites is associated wi th AIDS?
A. lsospora belll B . Sarcocystis C. Babesra o Cryptosporidium
 ,__..� ...
84, Which operculated ovum contains a miracldiw n and can appear In spu!Um, often acoompanied by bl ood and
Charcot-Leyden c,ystal s?
A. Fascioia hepatl ca C. Schlstosoma mansoni
B. Paragonimus westermani D. Olpyiidlum caninum
85. Which of the schl stosome eggs may be recovered in rer.tal biopsy?
A Schl stosoma haematobl um C. Schlstosoma Japonl cum
B. Schistosoma mansonl D. 8 and C

86. DELETED
II/ I hu �,; lu1 11 1nt: 11mn,t ,,f lh111 t1"ntJ c,f p l,:ar,eWOflll In
/\ �.1Ull tOc II t'u)OI OttkJ (,; :iltohi ln It fCo•l allum
:11, Wh�h ot tho ronowinu WO<ntS have on oml und vei,tfal shaped suct.:u, 1n Lhe adul t stayu?
A. Cestodes B. Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Fil 3ree
89. Which of the fol lowing are hermaphrc(jitJc?
A Flukes B, Roundworms C Tapeworms D A and C
tJO Which of tho foUowl og ia tht, rirat l ntormodl ote ho•t of the flukea?
A. Snail 8. Water pl ant C. Fish D. Crab

91. DELETED

92. The common names for the schistosomes is:

A. Liver ftukes 8 . lntesUnal flukes C. Blood flukes D. Lung ftukes

93. DELETED

94. What Is the common name for Cl onorchls sinenais?

A Lung nuke B . Chinese llver fluke C . Intestinal fluke 0. Kidney �uke
95 What Is a schistosom·,l e?
A . Cercariae C. Free-swimming cercari•e
8, Cercariae minus tail D . Metacercarlae
96. The beef tapeworm is the common name for:
A, Taenia sollum B. Hymenol epl s nana C. E. granul osus D. T. saginata
97, Which tapeworm progl ottld makes its way across the fecal specimen by Joubllng movements. and is seen under
the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more tllan 15) resembling those or a tr"?
A. T. sagl nata 8, T. sollum C. D. latum D. o. caninum
98. Which.of the following has an unarmed scolex?
A. Dwarf tapeworm B. Beef tapeworm C. Pork tepeworm D. Dog tapeworm
99. Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches?
A T . sollum B . T, sagl nata C . E. granuiosus D. NOTA
100. A hexaeanth embryo enclosed in a rad:Sl ly striated shell belon'.)s to tlla genus:
A. Trlchurls B. Taenia C. Trichostrongylus D. Trichlnella
101. Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man dces not &C()uire the la,val lnf�tlon?
A. ?ragonl ml asis B . Taeniasls sollum C. Ol pytidlasis D. DiphylloboU1rlasls
102. /' bile stained egg tllat I s 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a ha.xacanth embryo that lacks
polar knobs or fil aments I s that ot
A. H. nana 8. H . dlml nuta C. O. latum D . T . seglnata
103. The "dwarf· tapeworm Is another name for.
A. H. nana 8. H, dl Minub C. 0. l atum D . T. sollum
104 The ..,gps of EchlnO(occus granuiosus am found l n the fOOll$ of·
A t..alb 11 l•loh (; IJtJijt, IJ r,aUlb
1 ,·5. Which of the fol lowing I s round "' the lntermectiate host of Echl nococ;us �ranuI 0sus?
A Adult worm B . Egg C . Hydatid cyst D. Pseudocysl
1 ll6, Hydatid cyst infecliM of man is dub to a tal\la nf the tapeworm:
I D. !alum 0. F . hepatics C. E. granul osus O. 1I, nunn
107. The first lntermedialo host or Ol phyliobothri um l 'ttum is:
A . Copopod 8. Snail C . Fish D. Crab
108. The second intermediat11 host of Ol phyllobothrl •Jm latum are:
A Cattle 8. Water pl ants C. Crayf1Sh D. Freshwater fish
109. What is the infective stage of the broad ush tapewonn to humane?
/', Plerocercold B. Coracldl um C. Hydatid cyst D. Cystlcereus
1 10. The eggs of this tapeworm are deveiopeo and have �n operculum at one end an� a small abopercular knob
tt the other end. The ta�worm I s:
A D . latum B. D . canlnum C. r>, westermani D . H. dlmlnuta
11 1. In some individuals, µ.,rticul arty those of SeandlnaviLJn extraction, this worm can cause megal obl astic
anemia.
A. D, !alum B. D . canlnu.n C. ·,·. sollum D . N. amerlcanu&
1 12. Which of the rol iowlng worms have separate sP.xes?
A I ntestinal nukes 8 . Liver Aukes C . Tapeworms 0, Blood fluk�
113. The male rot.ndworm is differentiated !rom the remal e roundworm by l is:
A. f'orsall y curved posterior C. Square posterior
B. I ·o,nted posterior D. Hounded posterior
114. The best way to demonstrate a plnworm i nfection ls by which ofthe following tachnlques?
A Rectal biopsy C. Cel lophane tape preparation
B. Third porti on of urine voi ding 0. Fl otation method
115. The gravi d femal e or Enterobiue vermlcuahis deposits her embryonated eggs:
A. In the smel l intestines C. In the large lnteetines
B. On the perlanal ski n 0. In sputum
116. Eggsthat average 60 mJcrons I n length, are oval wi•h one flattened side, end contai n a motile larva, are
those ot
,\. E. vermicul ari s B. T. sollum C. A l umbrl coides 0. N, americanus
117. Eggs that are bile-slal �ed and have cl ear pol ar plugs belong to the:
A. Pinworm B. Large roundworm C. Whl pworm O. Hookworm
118. Whi ch of the fol lowing nematodes doeo NOT have " rree-l ivin!l stage·,
A, E . vermlcualris B. T. trl chlu•a C. A. lumbriocides D. S. ste,coral is
119. Which stage of Trl churl s tric.hl ura is Infective ta hurr.ans?
A. Rhabditllorm l arva B. i'il ari farm larva C. Cyst D. Embryonated egg
120. Where does the larva or Ascaris lumbrlcoi des go alter it hatches in th� small intestine'?
A. Migrates lhrough the blOOd, liver, lung&, pharyn.x, a·nd then back to the small intetti ne
B �·grates thr ough the blood. brain and phnrynx
(� Ml,n,ult.ao: l l1 11111ull tlt•st lym11h t1tMIP11J ,.md lmc�k !11 lhn l11lnh1htn,.;i
IJ II Ut.Jei 1101 migH.llti
121 If an Ascari s egg lacks I ts bil e-stained mammlllated ooet, we refer to the egg es:
A Fertilized B. tJnlertllized C. OecorUceted D Mature
122. Trlchuris trichlura, hookworm and _ _ form the �unhol y three· of roundwor·ns,
A Enteroblus verml cularis B. A. l umbr!coi des C. T. saglnata 0. H. nana
123. Which of the followi ng ia the first stage la<va of lnte,,ti nal nematodes?
A Fll arlform larva B. Microfilaria C. Rhabdi tiform larva D. Cerc:srla
12• Whi ch of the followi ng organi sms cause Infections v,here the larvae mi grate into th11 lymphatlcs and blood,
lung, alveoli , bronch olus, pharynx, and then thesmall intesti nes?
A. N. amerl canus i B. A. duodenal e C. S. stercorall• D. AOTA
175. Which or the lol lowln9 is characterl sllr. o the eggs of hookworms?
A. An embryo I n the two-lo-ei ght cell s,age of cl eavage
B. Oval , thi n shell
C. Cl ear space between shell and embryo
0. AOTA
126. The hel minth that induces a hypochromic mlcrocyti canemia in it� host I s the:
A. Hookworm B. Whi pworm C. P.l nworm 0. Threadworm
127. The rhabditilorm lava of the hookworm has a:
A- Long buccal cavi ty equal to the wi dth of ·he body
8. Short buccal cavi ty equal to ½ the width of Uie body
C. Medium length buccal cavity
D. A no buccal cav�y
128. Which of the followlng lar.,at worms enters the host by penetrati on of the skin?
A. s. stercoralls B. A. duodenal e C . N. americanus o. AOTA
129. A roundworm that i nhablts the small intesti ne and u�ually is demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal
speci men is the:
A- Hookworm 8. Large roundworm C. Whl pworm D. Th·eadworm
130. Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique e'l1ployed to detect:
A- Tri chinosis 8. Taeniasls C. Trlchuriasi s 0. Ascariasis
131. Whi ch or the followi ng roundworms gi'le birth to her young?
A- Wuchererla B. Mansonella C. Brugia D. AOi'A
132. A vi viparous femal e nematode:
A. Produces li ving l arvae C. Does not require a mal e to produce eggs
8. Produces eggs D. Does not require a second intermedlotP. host
133. One of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae Is the presEnce or absence of.
A A nucleus C. A dorsal cur.,ature ofthe posterior eno
B. A sheath o. Flagella
134. Adul ts or filartal worms Ova in:
A. Bl ood and feet1s C. Subcutaneous Ussue and blood
B. Urine and lymphatics D. Lymphatics and subcutaneous Ussue
135. One of the patho: ogical findings in infestations or Wuchereria Is:
A. Blindness B. Elephntiasls C. Eye inrcellons Cl. Flbrotlc nodules
1 36. The intermedi ate host of the guinea worm is the:
A. Mosqui to B. Black fly C. Fly D. Copepod
137. Dl rofilaria lmmi tis is the:
A. Dog heartworm B. Dog hookworm C. Rat l ungworm D. Cerearlal dermatitis
138. Dracunculus i nfections cause L• lcers that:
A. On contact wi th water, rel ease larvae c. . ,O.rpear on the eye
B. Contain eggs 0. NOTA
139. Which of the followfng mlcrofll ar!ae does NOT have a shenth?
A- Wuchereria 8. Loa C. Mansonella O. BrugiA
140. Which of the following la the eye worm?
A. Wuchereria B. Brugla C. Onchocerca D. Loa
 Al''l'S Review Caltcr
APOLLON -Pansltok>gy
Ch11pttr2-MSC:robiol ogy Que;stions
Pag,6of6
1 41. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping erupti?n Is r.aused by:
A. Larvae or pinworms C . Fllarifurrn larvae or dog hookworm
B. Mlcrofilariae D . Metacercariae
142. Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart
i n humans?
A. Dlrofilaria lmmltls B . C. phill pplnensis C. Anlsakl s D. A. braslllensl s
143. Which of the following is cau•ed by the ingestion of snai ls �y humans?
A. Dog hookworm B. Rat l ungworm C. Dog heartworm 0. Cal tapeworm
144. Cercanal dermatitis, commonly known as �wl mmer' s ilch, Is caused by:
A. Larvae of roundworms C. Schlslosomule
B. Eggs of tapeworms D . Cercariae Ill schl stosomes
145. What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm?
A. Strobila B. Scolex C . Rostellum D. Progl ollld
146. The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with:
A. Male reproductive organs C. Eggs
B. Femal e reproductive organs D. Suckers
147. A six-hooked embryo is known as:
A. Proglottid 8. Scol ex C. Strobila D. Hexncanth
148. "Ground itch" occurs in infections of hookworms at the:
A. Site of larval penetration of the skin C. Allergic reactlor,
B . During l arval migration D. A and C
149. Direct examination of stool specimens stained .vilh iodine make the trOflh<>zol te of the Potozoo stain what
col or?
I\ Yc,11+,,.v (; Trophf)loltq� n,n rh:1t1lu,1nrl h·, l udl no
8. Brown D. Do not stai n
1 �0. What color does the cytopl asm or protozoan cyata stain In an I odi ne wet 1tool preparation?
A Red B Green C Colo�ess 0 Yellow-brown
·151. What col or do chromatoid bodies or p,otowan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparaUon?
•,. Yellow B. Brown C. Red D . D<> not stain
,52. What I s the advantage or the sedimentation melhod of concentrating stool c,pe..:imens?
A. All eggs will sediment C. Fecal debris and solubl e material can he removed
6. Recovers opercul ated eggs D. All ofthe above
153. Trophozoite structures of protozoans, when stained with trichrome stain. appear.
A. Gl yc.ogen -colorless C. Charcot Leyden aystal s - bright red
8, Nucl eus -red purpl e D . AOTA
154. When stai ned with trichrome stain, chromatoid bodies appear what col or?
\. Bright to red B . Green C. Black D . Col orless
155. The preservative to be empl -,yed wi th the triehrome stain is:
A Formalin 8 Al cohol C . Pol yvinyl al cohol D . Solina•
1!>0. 1 he 1 ueul tt:mptraturc, at whi ch 10 hol d a ltical 5pec,met1 for mou, ttmu 1 hOl , is.
A, Freezer temperature C. Room ten,peral\Jre
B Refrigerator temperature D. Incubator temperature
157. The preferred specific yravity of zinc sulfate sol uU011 for the notation method is:
A. 1.01 B. 1 . 04 C. 1.18 0. 1.48
158. What type of bl ood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozon?
A. .': nger puncture B . Venlpuncture C. Arterial bl ood D. Pl asm•
159. What will happen if blood from a Rnger stick mixes with the alcohol used to cl ean the ere�?
A "Fixes• red bl ood cells C. A and B
B. Thick blood films beccme unsui table f"r sldlnl ng D. Neither A nor B
16C. Venlpuncture bl ood is not rocommendtld ror.
A Malaria, Babesia, hemoflagoilates C. Babesia, Cryptosporidiu1,,, hemoflagellates
B. Amebae, malaria, Babesla D. lsospora, amebae, hemoffagellates
t61. To detect stippling, prepare bl ood films venlpuncture within:
A. 1 - 2 mi nutes C. 2 hours after bei ng drawn
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour af\er bel11g drawn D . 5-10 minutes

ALN S-i,t 200,

R8B Sept 2005

\
 .... ,
Microbiology & Parasitology
By Apollon et. al .

CHAPTER 2 - Microbiology Questions

Virology Questions
1. A mature virus partlc.e containing a nucleic ac id core serro:mded by a protein coat, with or without envelope, la
called a:
A . Nucleocapsld B. Genome c. Vlrion D . Cap...,mer
2. Viruses are characterized by the presence of:
A. Mitochondrial DNA B. DNA and RNA C. Ribosomal RNA D. RNA
3, What is the largest DNA virus?
A. Herpesvirus B. Poxvlrus C. Adenovl rus D. Parvo'llnJs
4, Which of the following la tho smallest RNA virus?
A. Paramyxovlrua B. Togavirus C. Rhabdovlrus D. Enter<,vlrus
5. What is the first step in the replication cycle of a virus?
A. Attachmentand penetration C. Release
B, Assembly of virion 0, Uncoating
6. The virus capsid morphology Is:
A . Square or round C. Ribbon�ik& or S(Juare
B . Long or short D . Helical o r icosahAdral
7. From what part of the virus is the envelope acq•Jired?
A. Nuclear or cytop lasmic membrane C. Capsomeres or genomes
B . Nucleus or cytop lasm '.:> . mRNA or DNA
8 . Where is the s ite of•virion assemb . y?
l
A. Capsomare B . Nucleus or cytoplasm C. Genomes 0. Membranes
9. Which ofthe foll owing Is a DNA virus?
A. Retroviridae B . Orthomyxoviridae C . Herpesvir iclae 0 . Paramyxoviriclae
10. Which of the foll owing ls an RNA virus?
A. Pseudomyxoviridae B. Papoviridae C. Herpes,irldae D. Pcxviridae
11. Specimens collected for virus isolation should be kept at
A. 37 C B. 20 C C. 4 C D. -20 C
12. At what temperature shou ld clinical specimens suspected of conb>lning viruoes kept for transport that takes
days?
A. -70 C 8. 37 C C.4 C D . -10 C
13. In what family of viruses, after primary infection, does an individual beco-ne latently infected and then th!\
infection can tie reactivated?
A. Adenovlridae B. HerpesvlrlC:ae C. Poxvl ridaP. D . Papovavir ldae
14. Cytomegalovlrus iso lation is best accomplished using:
A. Monkey kidney cells C. Human embryonic fibnb lasts
B. A549 cells 0. Embryonated hen's eggs
15. Wh lc� ofthe foll owing viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals,
A Rabies B. Influenza C. Mumps D. Measles
16. What specim&n/s shoulo be collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral meningitis?
A. Stool B . Throat swab C. Cerebrosplnal fluid D . AOTA
17. Influenza A viruses can be detected 'n ce! I cu ltures by:
A . Complement-fixatio,, test C. lmmunoperoxldase te,;t
B. Hemadsorption assay D . Hemagg lutination-inhibition test
t�. The best host systems for influenza virus isolation are:
A. Monkey kldney cel ls and embryonated hen' s eggs
P Monkey k.idnoy oelh and human embryonic ffb•obtasts
r.. Human embryonic fibr ob lasts. and embryoneted hen's eggs
D. Monkey kidney celts and A549 cells
19. What common a ntigen is cross-renctiv., in al l human adenoviruses?
A. Fiber B. Hexon C. Hemaggiutinln D . Capsomere
20. He following characteristics ar� similar in both Influenza and parainffuenza viruses, except
A. Helle&! symmetry C. ➔uddlng from cytop lasmic membrane
B. Lipid envelope D . Segmented RNA genome
21, Myxovlridae virus envelope contains both:
i,. Neuraminldase and t,emagglutinin
B. Llpoproteln and non.,egmented nucleocapsld
C. Lipid and double stranded DNA
D . Hemagglutinin and nonsegmented nucleocapsid
22. Eosinophmc cytoplasm ic inclusions are e lementary bodies of the:
A. Herpesvirus B . Poxv:rus C. Poliovirus D. Papi l:Oma virus
23 German meas les is callSOd by:
A Rubeol a vi rus C. Varicella,.zoster vi lus
B f1..tM1lla VtHJr� 0 Vau: l11J1t vluth
 AC'I S ReviewCcnlt1'
APOLLON-ViJology
Ch""'1 2 -Microl>iolpgyQudlioos
Page2 on
24. What i s an al astrim infecti on?
A. Smallpox B. Chi ckenpox C. Mi ld form of smallr,o < 0, MMsl u
25. Whi ch of the following laboratory procedures is rootlnely used for the detectlon of hepatltla B virus (1-''3\': In blood
donotS?
A. Solid-phase RtA B. ELISA C. Culture • 0. A and B
26. Which of the fol lowi ng laboratory procedure, I s the most rapid method for di agnosi s of a vl rua Infection?
._ Culture C. Oirecl el ectron microscopy
B. Serological tests O. Cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell cr11tures
27. What specimen/s shoulc ha collected from a patient wi t, , suspected inffuenza?
A. Stool B. Throat swab C. Uri ne 0. AOTA
28 What vi rus group contaln& a doubl e.stranded. segmentl>d RNA g�nom�?
A Herpesvl rua B. :nnuanza virus C. Paralnffuenza virus 0. Reovlru1
29. Enterovlruses can be di fferentiated f,om rhl novl rusea by:
I!,. Acid resi sta�ce C. Ether stabillty
B. Size determl nallon 0. Rl bonuclease treatment
30. Wh .I virus i s the mOllt frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months?
A. lnruenza viruses C. Rotavl rus
B. Adenovlruses 0. Hepatitis A vi rus
31 All or the foll owing groups of viruses are rPsisWnt to ether treatment. except:
A. Herpesviruses 8. •\danovi rusas C. Enterovi rulleS 0. Reovlruaea
32. The moat common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is:
A. Negative staining C. Gram stai n
B . Acid-fast staining 0. Periodic aci d-Schiff t:aln
33. Various virus groups can be differenti ated In negatively stained specimens by their:
A. Envel ope B. Cytoplasmic membrane C. Morphol ogy 0. Nucie111
ALN S�tember2005
RBB S•ptember 200.5
 Immunology-Serology
By Apollon et . al .

CHAPTER 3 Immunology-Serology Questions

Immuno & Serology Questions
1. Where doll$ di fferentiation of T cells c,ocur?
a . heart b . brain c . chymus d . bone marrow
2. Which organs or systems are capabl e of, aspondlng to circul ating antigens with the ?reduction of specific
l ymphocytes and plasma cells?
a. l ymph nodes and spleen
b. pancreas and l iver .
c. reticuloeodolhel ial system and biliary tract
d. bacteria and granul ocytic c91Is
3. How can cell-mediated Immunity be transferred to a normal Individual ?
a. wi th lymphoid cells from a hypersensitive Individual
b. wi th ltansfer of specific liver cells rrom an infected individual
c . with ltansfer of monocytes rrom a normal person
d. wi th pol ymorphonucl ear cells from a normal person
4. The first detectabl e antibodies in primary Infections are usually
a l� ��D c� d l gM
5 . Vilhich o f the immunoglot>ullns is prosent in the greotesl urnount and ,t,ea lotuf In 1111 ln:uctloo?
a� �� c� d�
6. An lgG antibody I s a good
a. indicator of early infection c. indl color of onorgy
b . precl p�atlng anllbody d. agglullnaling anllbody
7 . Anllbodles are ptirriartl y
a . alpha globulins b. beta gl obulins C . <Jlbuml n d. gam'Tla globuli ns
8. Reactive s ites on an antigen are known as
a. determinants b. valence c . haptens d. imni um;globuli ns
9. Which of the followi ng cells recogn�e certai n substane<!S as 'foreign" (nonsell)?
a . T lymphocytes b. macrophages c. B lymphocytes d . basophil s
10. Which of the followfng cells Ingest and destroy bacteria. damaged host coils, 0t tumors?
a. macrophages b. T cells c. B cells d. basophlls
11. T cells are I nvol ved with
a humoral I mmunity c. cc:1U�modla1od i mmunity
b. wheal and flare reaction d. antibody prolecllon
12. Humoral immune resoonse Is due to
a. mocrophage actlvtty c . lymphokl nes
b 'IUPPTeHOf T l ymphocyl:tl d. 8 lympt,<>eyto1 thAt lranaform lntn r,ha■ma cetll•
13. Which of the following cells are thymu-.dependent?
a . B cells b . T cells c . macropt\ages d. plasma cells
14. The production of antibodies by B cells Is turned off by
a . suppressor T cells c. helper T cells
b. B lymphocytes d, cytoto�l c T cells
15. Lymphokl nea, liberated by sensitized T cells, roc,ult
a . neutrophils b. monocytea c . macropha,ges d. all of the above
16. A heterologous antigen reacts with
a . an antibody whose production It induced
b. an antibody whose production I t did nnt Induce
c. nontipt,elnc subt>tanooa
d . specir1C: substances
17. Wl•lch immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta?
a. lgA b. l gG c, lgD d. l�E
18. Whic, , immunoglobulin I s predominant in bociy secrellons?
a. lgA b. l gG c. lgM d. lgE
19. Which immunoglobulln plays a role In hypersensi tivity?
a� �� c� d.lgD
20. The bl nc':ng strength ofa n antibody for an antigen l a referred to as It.
•· apeclflclty b. affini ty c. avidity d liter
21. The ability of a clinical test le, be pc1itive In the absence of its homol ogous antigen ls referred lo es its
a. specificity b. sensitivity c. affinity d. titer
�2. The random movement of antigen or aotibody to form antigen-antibody complexes In semisolid medium occurslr,
�- a,gglutinalion b. ,mmunofluoreacence -c. complement fixation d. gel diffusion
�3. Antigen and antibody are both free to move toward "8Ch other to form a pre.:lpitate In
a . two-dimensional diffusion c. ,inear diffusi on
b. single radial diffusion d. three-dimensi onal �i fusi on
25. A combination of electrophoresi& and d�uble lmmunodlffusion is referred to as
a. doubl e radial diffusion c . ' mmunonuorescence
b. immunoelectrophoresis d . electroi mmunodiffusion
26. In immunoelectrophoresis, which of the follo·.vl ng forms at the equi,al ence point of antlgen and .anUbody?
a . spurs b. precl piUn bands c . troughs d . line c,f intersecUon
27. An el ectrophoreticallv abnormal protein displ aced from ihe normal posttion may be recognized by
a. precipl tln band of moderate cur.ature c. �recipltln band mari<edl y cur.e1
b . lines of fusion d . 'gull wing" formation
28. lmmunoel ectrophores i s i s uSed to Identify
a. lipi ds b . chol esterol c. Bence.Jones protein d. cholionl c gonadotro�in
29. Electrol mmunodiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and anlibony in
a. solid media b. semJ.s�l ld media c . liqui d media d. any c,f the above
30. Which of the following is an advantage of counterimmuuoelectrophoresls?
a. precipitation lines not sharp c. precipitation lines vl dlblo within 30 minutes
b. precipitation does not occur at the inturmedl ate point d. none of the above
31. In the radioi mmunoassay test the zero standArd i s l abeled as
a. 80 b. ant�en O c. antigen X d. e,
32. Which or the fol lowing fluorochromes gives off a red emission at 580 nm?
a. auraml ne-rhodamine c . rmant ftuorochrome
b. fluorescein isothiocyanate d . tetrarnethyllhod�rnlne lsothl ocyanate
33. Which of the foll owing fluorochromes give a rnl nlmal fal se reading?
a. auramlne-rhodamine c. Truant fl uorOC:irome
b. fluorescel n lsothiocyanate d. tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate
34. lmmunonuorescence tests employ a compound that ,s abl e to absorb light or a certain wavel ength and to
a. emit l ight of a l onger wavelength c. emit white light
b. emit llght of a sholier wavel ength d, phosphoresce
35. Which of the following is the energy source of fluorescence microscopes?
a. Wood's lamp c . mercury vapor tamp
b. brighlfiel d microscope d, bl acl< li9ht
36. What system can be used In fluorescent staining technics to give a blight fluorescence?
a. quantum efficiency c. enzyme Inhibition
b. blotl n-avldl n d. all of the above
37. In the enzyme-li nked immunosorbent assay (ELI SA), which of J,e following can be attached lo a solid phase
support (e.g., polystyrene)?
a. antigen and enzyme c . antlge11 and antibody
b, antibody and al bumin d. antigen and al b�mln
38. In the en.zyme-llnked i mmunosorbenl assay (ELISA). the anNhurran glo'lulln Is
a. fluorochrome-conjugated c . hormone....:onjugated
b. auramine-conjugated d . enzyme-conjugrted
39. lnlNferon can be produced by which of the following?
a. macrophages b. T l ymphocytes c. viru s -infected cellJ d. all of the above
40. One Ji mensional single el ectroi mmunodlffusion Is also known as
a fmmunoel ectrophor�i s c. radi oimmunoassQy
11 1.111111le1 11urn111,ual o-1h••11l1111a•I• 11 "11,,il!ol cil CM1h•• 11l11 1 1 oc•o"
J
41 , Whict, ot o,e t0Uow1 ng Is a diagnosuc tabora1ory teal for acquired urnnunod..thcien..:y syn<tron 1e {AI OS)?
a. ski n test
b. parasites found in stool
r. <200 CD4• T lymjlhocy:ea111L .,, o co,i O T-lymphocylll porr,('HllllU" or l<>!ltl lymphocy!0• of <1◄
d. dilterential bloon count
-12. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) characteristically shows a deficienc, in
J. neutrophlls b. T l ymphocytes ".:. B lymphocytes d. L.E.. cells
13. Acquired I mmunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio ol
a. TIB cells b. B1187. cells c . NG d. 74fT3 cells
44. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is transmitted In al l the following way. EXCEPT:
a. bl ood transfusion c. sneezing and coughing
b. sexual contact d. sharing of hyperdermlc needl -.s
45. Fe Is which fragment of the antibody molecule?
a. heavy chains b. hinge c. crystaJlizabl e d. ant'3e:i-blndl ng
46. The basic lmmunogl obulln structure consists of
a . 1 fight and 2 heavy thal ns c. 2 light and 1 heavy chains
b. 2 l ight and 2 heavy chains d. 1 fight and 1 heavy chain
47. In the structure of immunoglobullns, where Is the antigen-bin ding site l oc:2ted?
a . carboxy terminal or constant region c . amino terr.,i nal or variabl e region
b disul fi de bridge d. all of the above
48. Which or the ro1Jowmg is a protool y�c enzyme that fragments an antibody?
a. papain b. anaphylatoxin c . properd n d. zymosan
49. After an antibody has been fragmented, which ta,m denotes thei antigen bind ng fragr-ient?
i
a. I : b. di,wlftde bond c. Fab d . carboxyl terminal
50. The a�tigen used in precipitation tests is
a. solubl e b. ,nsol ubl e c. particulate d. cellul ar
51. A postzonal reaction hi caused by
a. !oo little antigen c. too m,•ch antibody
b . too much antigen d . not by differing amounts of antigen and antibody
52 The optimal ratio, when the most antibody is � ·ecipitated by the least amount of antigen, is refetted to as
a . opsonization b . zone of equivalence c. zone of inhibition d. Wic al fom,atlon
i
53. When a precipitation reaction 's conve, ted to aggl utination by increasing th9 s ze or the •antigen· partlel es, the
test is then referred to as
a. direct agglutination c. 1 ndi1ec1 (passive) aggl utination
b, optimal aggl utination d. prozone reaction
54. What type or antigen-antibody reaction is usually perfor'Tled In tt.)e detection of the HBs antigen of hepatitis?
a, viral hemaggl utlnatl on c. ;>ar.sive agglutination
b. capfllary precipitation d. hemaggl utinatlon inhibition
55. Effective phagocytosl s occurs In the presence or
a. reagin b. anti-drug antibodies c. sensitivity cl. opson'ns
56. Serological tests empl oyed to Identify antigens o, antibodies are referred to as whnt type of te,it?
a. nonspecirtc b . In vitro c. i n vivo d. cross-reaction
57. Hybridomas are formed from
a. antibodies b. B l ymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d. phayocytes
58. How does a spl een cel l become •I mmor1ar?
a. reacts with an ep tope
i c. �y neutral lzalion
b . by being phagocytized d. by fusing with e tumor cell
59. When preparing monocl onal antibodies
a. inject an animal with-an antigen c. ruse B lymphocytes with a mal ignant r.ell
b. remove the B lymphocytes d. all ofthe auove
60. A hybridoma consists of a clone offused cell� of
a. guinea pig kidney cells c. mouse lymphc-cytes
b. rat myeloma cel ls d. B and C
61. Which of the following are llmttatlons of monocl onal :mtibodies from a hybrl doma?
a. react with onl y 1 antigenic detemil nant on a multival ent antigen
b. do not cross-link-to fom, a precipitate
c. are not good ln-precipttation or hemagglutination assays
d. al l of the above
62. Monoclonal antibodies cannot be used in compl ement fixation tests because they
a, cannot cross�ink to fom, a precipi tate c . can fix compl ement
b. cannot fix compl ement d. are homogeneous
63. Complement fixation tests contain which two systems?
a. antigen-antibody systems c, test and Indicator systems
b . ELISA and l atex syslems d. hemotysln and ti tration systems
64. What is the indicator in the comp!ement fixation test?
a. sheep red blood cells c. l atex antigen ab.�orbed particles
b, human red blood cells d. carbon particles
65. Complement prolelns are designated by a) of the following terms EXCEPT:
a. numbers (e.g.. C1, C2) c . abbreviations (e.g.. Fe)
b . ,ymbols (e.g., factor B) d. tm,i�I names (e.g., prcperdln)
66, A hemotysin Is an antibody that
a. c.-·,ses lysl s or red bl ood cell s c. lyses T cells
b. causes aggl utination of red bl ood cells d . sensitizes whi te �l ood cells
67, What is the purpose ofantisheep hemolysin In a compl ement fixation teat?
a. sensitizes sheep red bl ood cells c. agglutinates sheep red l:il ood cells
b. hem�lyzes sheep red blood cef13 d. neutralizes patient mtibody
68. A posttlve reaction in a .;ompl ement fixation test is expressed as
a, aggl utination b . hemolysis c. inhibition or hemol ysis d. neutralization
63. What I s the purpose of the hemolylle system in a complement fixation tL-st?
a. to test the patient's serum for the presence of antibodies
h. to act as an lndl cator and provide a visibl e rePction
;, to test the red blood cells
d. lo make certain that the serum is not antl complementary
70. If too much hemolysi n I s added to a complement fixation test, what happens to the resul t
a. Incomplete hemolysls c. compl ete hemotysis
b. sensitivity is decreased · d, hemagglutlnatlon
71, What shC>uld occur when control s for compIement fixalinn tesls are used to check for anUcomplementary factors?
a. no hemol ysis c . hamaggl utination
b. hemol ysis d. gll of the above
72. in a positive control for C,>mpiement fixation tests, What should occur?
a . no hemolysis b. hemolysis c. hemagglutination d . ffuorescence
73. What is used to sensiti!e red bl ood cells in the complement fixation test?
a. sheep red bl ood cells c. opsonlns
b. antisheep hemolysin d. horse red bl ood cells
74. In a negative compl ement fixation test sensitized red blood cells will
a. cl ump b. not clump =· be hemoiyzed d, not be hemolyzed
75. Antigen needl es for the quali tative Venereal Dl seaso Research Laborato,y test (VDRL) should deliver
a. 1 '100 (100 drops/ml ) c. 11120 (120 drops/ml)
b . 1161) (60 drops/ml ) d . 1175 (75 drops/ml)
 - -- ---- - --- ----,;,e.o11
- .......
76. Saline need les for the quantilatlve V-3nereal Disease Research laboratory tes: (VDRL) shou ld c!e! iver
a. 20 drops/ml b . 120c!rops/ml c . 100 drops/ml cl. 110 drops/ml
77. Need les used to deliver VDRL antigen shou ld be checked
a. once a month c . daily or every time tests art> performed
b . bimonthly c!. weekly
78. VDRL antigen emulsion is slable for
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 7,daya d . 30 days
79. Patients with syphilis deve lop an antibody reoponse to a substance known as
a. reagln b . complement c. hemol}sin d. cardlollpln
80. The reaction between the antibody and the antigen In the Vene·real Dls.,ase Research Laboratory test (VDRLI ia
known as
a. precipitation b. neutralintion c . nocculatio,1 d . hemolys ls
81. If the Interval between heating the serum l<lr the VDRL test and testinJ exceeds 4 hours, the serum sh?uld be
ret,'!ated at
a . 37C tor 15 minutes c . SSC for 15 minu•es
b. 3i; for 30 minutes d. 56C for •10 minutes
82. In the VORL lest, a zonRI reaction usualli• appears as which of the lollowi,,g resu lts?
a. reactive b . nonreactive c. weakly reactive d. any ot the above
83. The serum:antl gen ratio in any VDRL test is maintai ned at
a . 1:2 b. 1:1 c. 2:1 d. 3: 1
84. Inactivation of sere for serolog ical tests Is performed for whet purpose?
a. destruction QI complem,,nt
b. Increasing sens• Uvlty of test
c. removal of particu late matter
c. restoration or refrigerated sere tQ an approprMe temperature for testing
JlS. ti a VDRL test shows small ciumps or antigen with many free particles. tt woJ ld be ·eported as
a. reactive b. nonreective c. Jiologlcal false positive d. weakly reactive
86. 1-'ow would the foll owing VDRL quantitative te•t be reported?
1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128
W W R R R R W N
a . Reactive 4 dils · b. Reactive 32 dils c, .�eaclive 64 dlls d. canno\ be reportec!
87. What role does cardiot ip ln play in the VORL test?
a. it is the center for absorption of tissue lip ids c. ,t is re lated to reactivity of th-J lost
b . It Is related to sens,llvity ur the test d. all or the above
88. Which of the fol lowing mpresents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test?
a. lowest dilution g iving a weakly reactive resutt
b . lowest dilution g iving n reactive result
c . highest dilution givin, a we,ikly reactive re3u lt
d . highest c!il ullon givin g " reactive result
89. 'The quantitative VDRL lest is performed on &II 'iera In which lhe qualitative VDRL test Is
a. nonreactiv., c . weakly reactive
b . r •�tive d. either reactive or weakly reactive
90. Whteh laboratory tes t for syphilis uses plastic coated cards?
a. Rapid Plasma Reag in (RPn}
b . Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
c . Fluorescent Treponemal Ar>libody-AbsJrbed (FTA-ABS)
d. Mic,ohemagglutinallon-Trep('nema pat11,um (MHA-TP)
91. Ra� ld Plasma Reag in (RPR) antigen contains cardiolipio with
a . 10% saline c. charcoal particles
b . lipoteichoic acid d. ftuorescein lsoth locyanate
92. The Rapid P lasma Reagin (RPR) I.est
:1 11tloo; lim: nn,m� l,ltt c ltms not rori1mo � r,..-,rlocf o, mtatk>n
t,_ doeli not ,e�u1re 1oachvJtk)1 1 or ».t,tum d c111ptoyai uui,u11G1 \1 uJ unlibud lct5
93. The Rap id P lasma Reagin (Ri"R) test is mU.,ed at what speed for what length ot time?
a. 200 rpms for 10 minutes c. 180 rpms for 4 minutes
h I 00 rpms to, fl minuto• 11 t ,� rpm• Int ? minulfti
�� f'he flapid Plasn,u Heagin (RPR) antlyon ne, dlo will d, five, how muny drops?
a. 60 drops per 1.00 ml c. 100 drops per 0 . 50 mt
b. 60 drops per 0.50 ml d. 100 drops per 0.25 ml
95. The antigen that reacts with the antibody substance Ir. the patient's serum in the Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
test Is
a. sheep red blood cells c . cardiotipl n
b. cardlolipin with added charcoal particle� d . lecith in
96. The Treponema patlic!um lmmobilizaUon (TPI) test requ, res
a . reagl n c. rreponema pallidum fixed on E slide
b . an extract or a pathogenic treponeme d . living Treponema pallidum
97. Which or the following s�rves as the absorbent in the Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Test-Absotbed (FTA­
ABS) test?
a . Reite(s treponeme c. Treponema paltldum, Nichols strains
b . Treponema microdentium d . Treponema pertenue
98. The Ftuorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absor'.>ed (FTA-ABS) test is used to identify which of the following In the
patient's serum?
a, treponemal antibody b. tr�ponemes c . reagin d . cardlo!ipin
 ,..,on
99. The ffuore&ee1n-antl human gamma globulin used I n the FTA-ABS teat
a, makes the antlgen-antlbod'/ reaotio, 1 visible
b. is added to tbe serum before the antigen is added
c. Is added to the antigen llefore the serum is added
d. makes the antibody visible
100. The principle of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) tube t�st is
a . compl ement-fixatlon c . microhemmagl utinallon
b. enzyme-inhibition d. precipitation
101, tn the cl assic antlstreptolysin O (ASO) IP.St, s1reptol ysin O shoul d not be rehydrated until it Is needed
because it
102. The serum titer i n the antistreptolysln O (ASO) test is reported as the
a, highest dilution that gives a positive result c. ASO units
b. lowest dilution that g)ves a negative result d. Todd or International Units
103. What does the antistre?lol ysin O (ASO) test measure in the patient's serum?
a, oxygen labile stroeptolysin c. sheep red bl ood cells
b. antibody to streptol ysin O d. streptococcal antlboc:ies
104. The antistreptol ysin o (ASO) slide test is :ead ror the presence or:
a. hemolysis c . a mucln clot
b. precipitation d. agglutination
105. A streptococcal extracel lular product that dissol ves fibrin dots ,s:
a . streptokinase c. streptodornase
b. group A carbohydrates d. hy�l uronidase
106. The reactions on DNA-methyl green substrates when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (anti,
streptodornase) are
a . bl ue(+) yellow (-) c. green (•) col orless(· )
b . red(+) orange (') d. purple (+) yello-v (·)
107. Which of the following I s NOT a streplOCOCCai extracellul ar product?
a, nicotinami de adenine dinucl eotidaae c . hyeluronldase
b. isomerases d . deoxyrlbonucl ease B
108. What type of red bl ood cells are used in the traditional hetuophll antibody test!
a. human group O c. rabbit
b. sheep d . horse
1 09. In the presumptive heterophll antibody test, wh! ch of the folio'lllng constitutes a poslllve reactlon?
a. Agglutination c. precipitatlon
b. hemolysis d. neutra'lzation
110. A positive Oavidsohn heterophil antibody test
a . shO'WS hemolysis
b. di fferentiates three types of heterophll antibodi es
c. Indicates the presence of typhoid fever
d . uses fresh pl asma
111. The heterophil antibody test Is reported as the
a . �ighest dilution that shows hemol ysis c. l owest dil ution that shOw-� hemolysis
b. highest dilution that shows aggl utination d. lo-west aggl utlnati?n that shows agglutination
1 12. In the heterophil antibody test, when serum is absorbed with beef c,,Us
a . there I s a decrease in the Uter of infectious mononucleoSis antibodies
b. therP. is an increase In the ijter cl guinea pig kidney antibodies
c. serum sickness antbodies are not absorbed
d . Forssman antibodies aM absorbed
1 13, Infectious mononucl eosis is a self�imited disease of the reliculo�ndolhi>l, al system caused by
a. hepatrtls C virus c. Epstein-Barr virus
ll. JC virus d . herpes simpl ex virus
114. Forssman antibodies are absort>ed by
a. boiled beef cells
b. guinea pig ki dney antigen
c. neither beef cells nor g�inea pig ki dney anti gem
d, both beef cells and gul naa pig kidney antigen
115. The heterophll slide test of Lee and Davidsohn use� what type or bl OOd cells?
d . sheep c . horse
b . rabbit d. human group O
1 16. The Weil-Felix test is use-:! for the detection of whi cn type ofantibodies?
a. Sal m0<1ella c. Rickettsia
b. Mycopl asma d. Vi ral
1 17, The Wldaf and WeH-Fetl x reactions art. examples ot technlqurs used to dot1;,ct
a. heterophll antibodies . d. febri le agglutinins
b reagin d Fnr••mM AnlJoen
I HI OX 19 w1</ OX 'J. 1ulu1 lo
a. strains or P,ote,,s vulga,1s c. serotypes of Brucdlla abortus
b. 1ntigens of Rickettsi a prowueki cl . antibodies to Sa l monella typh,
119. In the Wodal test, an elevated O titer indicatl'S
a. cuirent Infection c, recent vaccination
b. antigens in aggluti nins to Sal monella typhi d a cross reaction
120. Serological cross reactions are usually
a. Indicative of infeciion with an unrel ated organism
b. In l ower ttters than are specific reactions
c . detected only later than are specific reactions
d . of a different type than are specific reactlonsmn
121. The antigen used t- > dete·ml�e the somatic antigenic grouping of enterl c bacteria I s
a. 0 b. H c. -< d . Vi
122. Brucella abortus will c,oss-reacl with antibodi es of
a. Sal monella typhi c. Streptococ-cus pneumomae
b . Proteus vulgaris d. Francisoell a tularensis
123. Which of the following can Interfere with the ,ryptococcat antigen latex aggl uti nation test?
a. thyrogl obulin b. monoclonal p, otei n c. rheumatoi d factor d. C-reacll vo protein
124. The rheu:natoid factor (RF) latex sl ide test uses diluted patient's serum pl us
a. t ,ta gl obulin c. al pha gl obulin
b. n,icn,somal antigen d. gamma globulin
125. Wl,ich of the following antibodies is dire,;ted against the Fe portion of lgG?
a. antlsheep hemolysln c. rheumatoid arthritis
o. antistreptolysln d. reagl n
12b. The presence of C-reacUve pn>tein In a �atl enrs serum indl cal�•
a. l:,fl ammatlon c. ';ln>up A bela hemol ytic streptococcal Infection
b . pneumococcal pneumonia d. lyphoi d or paratyphoi,• fever
127. In the rheumatoi d factor latex test
a. the antibody identified ls lgG
b . synovlal Ould may give a positive reaction when ser�m is negative
c. the test is more specific than the Rose-Waaler she«p cell aggl ut,nin test
d. a titer of 1:20 identi fies the patient's distase as rheumatoid arthritis
128. What is the incubation temperature io1 · the col d agglutinin test?
a. body temperature c. refrl rerator temperature
b . room temperature d. freezer temperat•ire
129. Col d aggl utinins may devel op after infectit.n with
a. Kl ebsiella pneumonl ae e, Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycopl asma pneumonl ae d. Haemophilus influen2ae
130. Which of the following col d reacting antibodi es is prasent in infections of Mycoplasn,a pneumoniae?
a . a.ntl-1 b. anti-i e, antl -Lewis d. anti-K
131. Which pattern of nuoresence In the ,:nil-nucl ear antibody (ANA) test is most cl osel y associated with active
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
a, cytoplasmic b . homogenous c . 1ucleolar d . speck' ed
132. A positive anti- ribonucleopn,tein (anti-RNP) in tile antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which
autoimmune disease?
a. mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) c . $Cleroderma
b . meumatoi d arthritis (RA) d . systemic lupus erytheroatosus (SLE)
133. What does "ds" in antl-ds-DNA anj anti-<>s-RNA mean?
a. dormant stage c . disease sign
b. double-stranded d. detectabl e symptom
134. Which of the following Is the major au:oantl gen of the thyn>ld gland?
a. thyrogl obulin b . rheumatoid fa�tor c. monocl onal protein d. thyn.,xl�e
135. Which herpes si mpl ex virus (HSV) can couae un>genilal infections?
a. type 1 b. type 2 c . '.ype 3 d. A and B
136. A method used to serotype lhe herpes simpl ex virus (HSV) is the
a. Indirect fluorescent antibody method e, cell typing
b. cell cul ture d . direct fluorescent antibody method
137. Which of the following methods has a high degree �f specificity wllen typing the heries simplex virus (HSV)?
a. direct nuorescent antibody c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELI SA)
b. cell cul ture d. cell typing
138. Which of the following Is the easiest serol ogical test for varleella zoster virus (VN)?
a . enzyme-linked lnimunosorbent assay (ELISA) test
b . complement fixation test
c . fluorescent antibody-membrane-antigen (FAMA) test
d. direct fluorescent •ntlbody Ifft
139. Which of the following I s the cause of chicken pox?
a, rubella virus
b. primary Infection of varicella zoster virus
c . primary Infection of human Immunodeficiency virus
d. herpes simplex virus
140. Blood donors should be n>utlnely tested for acquired lmm�nodellclency ayndn,me (AlDS) and
a. varicella zoster virus c. cytomegalovl rus
b. herpes simpl ex virus d. rubel la virus
141 . Cytomegal ovirus (CMV) infection cen oe diagnosed by which of the following sen>logical tests?
a . lgM and lgG antibody testing c . direct fluorescent antibody test
b . ,,ell culture d. i ndirect human gl obul in test
142. Which test for cytomegalovlrus has probl ems with false positives?
a. CG,npl ement fixation test c. Indirect immuno�uorescent antibody test
b. radioimmunoassay d. direct fluorescent antibody test
143. The best Hrologk:al m.thOC: uaed 10 INI for a Nbella IIIM' Infection II lhe
•· oompllment fixation INt c. ndirect ft-1111 antibody 1111
b. dl l9Ct ft---,,j antibody teat d, Ienzy!M-lnkad lmmunoacrbent anay IHI
1-44. The most popular aerologiclll 1891 for� dll!Q11101is cfTOXOQiallTIB WOOdi,l ls the
•· compliment fixation INt o. lndlract flu-I antibody INt
b. dl'9CI ftuo-t antibody INt . d. enzym►ffnkad lmmunoectt,ent -Y tat
145. I n the enzyme-linked l mmunOIOrt>ent auay ,(ELISA) methOd for typi11g herpes simplex v!NS (HSV), which
typecf red blood cal ls are uaed?
a. 11'"1) b. goat c. hotMI d. hum.n
148. Which of the following ii • goOd aceenlng 1991 for determining immunity to lhe Nbella viNs?
• di'9CI agglutination c. lgG antibody let.I
b. somplement ftxation d. lgM antibody Int

•.
 Hematology
By .J.pol.lon ot. al..

CHAPTER 4 - Hennatology Questions

Hematology Qu�stions
1. The largest quantity of normal body iron Is round In the rorm or:
A . Transrerrln B . Hemosiderin C. Free fenic iron D. Hemoglob:n
2. Whet i s the ratio ol iron to porphyrin In heme?
A. 1 : 1 8. 1:4 C. 4:1 D, 1:2
3. What is the !unction ol the enzyme methemoglobirt-eytochrome C reductase ·n a red blood cell?
A. To keep iron in the fer rous state C. To maintain alpha and beta chains or hemoglobin
B . To keep iron in the ferric state D. To maintain an anaerobic pathway ar glycolysis
4. What product i s lormed when ferrous iron of normal her.109lobln Is oxidized to the lerric state�
A . Methemog lobin B. Cart>oxyhemoglobln : . Cyanmethemog lubln D. Sulfhemog lobl n
5. Which of the following hemoglobins could be present in a normal a<lult?
A. Hb-A1 B. Hb-A, C. Hb-F 0. AOTA
6. Most of the hemoglobin In the newborn Is found to be:
A. Hb-A1 B. Hb-A, :;, Hb-0 D. Hb-F
7. Hemoglobin C disease is characterized by:
A. Target cells C. Rod-shaped crystr ls
8. Basophilic stippling D. Schistocytes
8. In the tube solubility test for hemoglobin S, the te&,gent tesponsible !or the redurlion or the hemoglobin molecu le
is:
A. Potas sium phosphate C . Saponl,1
B . Sodium dtthlonate D. Drabkin's solutic,n
9. lo hemoglobin C, gl utamic acid is replaced by:
A. Valine B . Lysine C. Cystine D . Arginine
10. Which of the following hemoglobin& is insoluble ur,der lowered oxygen tension?
A. Hb-A1 B. Hb-C C. Hb-5 D. Hb-F
11. The Kleihauer technic Is used to differentiate:
A. Hb-A, from Hb-F B. Hb-S from Hb-A C. Hb-A, from Hb-A D. Mb-$ from Hb-F
12. The cyanmethemoglobln method measurea:
A . All hemog lobin pigments C. All hemog lobin pigment� except sulfhemoglobln
8. Onty oxyhemoglobin D. Only methemoglobin
13. The dlluent used in the cyaomethemoglobin method ror hemog lobin determination I s :
A. Pilot's ftuid B. 0 . 1 N HCI C. Sodium carbonate D. Urabkln's so ln .
14, The plasma protein that binds that binds ftee hemog lobin i s :
A . Myoglobin 8. Haptoglobin C. Hemosiderin O. Transrerrfn
15. The normal plasma hemO{llobln per dl la:
A 2·3 "'9 B . 20-30 m g C. 200-300 mg D. 2•3grams
16. A hematocrit Is a meascre of;
A. Red blood cell sedimentAtion rate C. Total red blood eel.ls
B. Total red blood cell mass D. Packed red bloc,d Ct'JI volume
,7 An increase in the e,ythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be the result ofan increase In the quanti ty ot.
I'. Fibrinogen B . Prothrombin C. Platelets D . Red blood cells
18. -he WBC/ul of an undil uted synovial fluid that has 175 white blood celis oou•,ted in the large center square ofa
hemocytometer is:
A. 17,500 B . 3,eoo C. 7,000 D . 1,750
19. Tne RBC.ul of a body ftu ld that has 285 red blood ::ells counted In the 5 red olood cell squares wtth a 1·100
dilution is;
A 1,425.000 8. 142,000 C. 5,700,000 D . 285, 000
20. rhe addition or 0.02 ml of blood to 5.0 ml ordiluent results in a partial dilution ot.
A . 1:25 8. 1:50 C. 1:250 D . 1:5C10
21. Lyse-res istant red blooci �ells in specimens asplraled In automated hematology analyzers occur with:
A. Multiple myeloma B. Sickle cell di sease C. Acute leukemia D . Anemia
22. On au10mated hematology ana lyzers, marked red blood cell fragments wfil cause an abnormal histogram and/or
scatterplots for :
A. White blood cells and red blood cells C. White blood cells and platelets
8. Red blood rells and platelets D . While blood cells, red blood cells, and p latelets
23. The white blood cell count, When the dilfetential count has 5 nucleated red blood cel ls anc the automated
anatyzer wh,to b lood cell count Is 10.5, is:
A . '0.5 B. 10.0 C. 11.0 D. 9.5
24, Whi.ll , s the most likely cause of these resul ts? V'/BC 6.!>; RBC 1. 6 9; Hb 9.1 ; Hct 22.8; M�V 115; MCH 53.8;
MCHC J9.9.
A Improperly mixed specimen C. Cold agglutini n
.3. Hereoitaiy spherocytosis D. Instrument reagent dep leted
25. The factor for lhe conversion of counted wMe blood ce•ls to WBC/eu. m m . 1n ihe manu1J count Is:
t\. 50 ' 8. 1,000 c. 2,000 0 . 10.000
26. To avoicl artifacts or false etystals, synovlal Ould should be collected In:
A. Oxalate
8 . Powdered ethylene di.minetetraacelic acid (EOTA)
C . Lithium heparin
o. Liquid ethylene diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
27. Pi ot's
l fluid is the reagenl used in the detemri,,atlon of:
A. Eosinophils D. Hemoglobin C. Red blOl)d cells 0 . PlatclelS
28. The following results lndfcate a noninflamma•ory synovi.11 fluid:
A. wee < 2,000; PMN& < 30% wee
C. < 2,000; PIANs > 50%
8. WBC 2,000 - 5,000: PMNs > 50% 0 . WBC 2,000 - 5,000; PMNs < 30%
29. Th< cJlor of Wright-stained red blood cells moy be adjusted by:
A. Dir ping the slldo In methanol beroro ola'n lng
B. Adjusting the buffer pH
C. Decruasing the concentration of glyce,•,1 In the stain
0. Rapid drying of slides
30. Parasites In red blood cells are besl demonstralqd with which stain?
A. Giemsa B. Wright C . New methylene blue D . Crystal violet
31. to calcu late the mean corpuscular vol ume, one must know the erythrocyte count and the:
A. Hemog lobin B. Red blood cell count C. HematOC4'1 t 0. Mean cell �iameter
32. The blood film In iron deficiency anemia shows:
A. Occasional burr cells with decrea,;ed central pallor ,:if macrocytu
B. Nypcchromic microcytes with polki locyt, s
C. Normochromic norm01.-ytic cells wiU basorhilic stippling
D . Numerous oval macrccytes with decreas('d platel ets
33. Which determination Is considered a reliable nssessme�t of effective erythropolesls In the bone marrow,
A. Reliculocyte count C. Red blood cell count
B. Hemoglobin _ D . M:E ration of the marrow
34 . Anemia due to acute blood lose. ls usua,ly:
A . M icrocytic 8. Macrocytic C Normocytic D. Hypocl"romic
35. Abnormal variation In the size of erythrocyte is known as:
A. Anlsocytosis B. Polkilocytosis C. Erythrocytosis D. Leptocytosls
36. Erythrocytes with a diameter of 9-12 microns are referrE'd to as:
A . Macrocytes B . Mega locytes C . Le�tocytes D. Orepanocytes
37. Abnor mal variafion in shape of the erythrocyte is known as:
A. Anisocytosis B. PolkOocytosis C. Megalocytosis 0 . Microcytosls
38. The red blood cell that shows a peripheral rime of hemcglobin with a dark staining central area Is a:
A . Spherocyte B . Target cell C. Schlstocyte O. SicklG cell
39. The red blood cell with the 'bul l's eye' appearance is present In:
A. Thalassem la B. Liver disease C. Postsp lenectomy D . AOTA
40. Increased Iron in the mitochondria of normoblasts are characteristic of:
A. Ap lastic anemia B . Slderob lastlc an�mia C. Chronic anem ia O. Iron def1<;iency anemia
41. Chronic blood loss can lead to:
A. Iron deficiency C. Vitamin B12 dellclency
B . Tissue iron deposits 0 . Polycythemia
42. The characterislic finding in Iron deficiency anemia is:
A. Low serum Iron and low total Iron binding c.;,pacity (TI BC)
B. Low serum Iron and normal TIBC
C. Low serum Iron and high TIBC
D . High serum iron and low TIBC
43. Polycythemla vera is associ ated with:
A . Pancytosis C. Philadelphia chromosome
B. Pancytopenia 0. Teardrop red blOO<' cells
44. A macrocylic anemi a characterfslically accompanles all of the following, except:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Iron deficiency
B . Folate deficiency D. Fish tapeworm infection jn some lnd,vldu,il
45. Which of the following Is not typically seen In the peripheral smuar in megaloblastic anemia?
A. Decreased platelets . C. Spherocytes
B. Oval macrocytes 0. Hypersegmented neutrophlls
46. Punctate basophllia refers to Which of the roh owlng?
A . The deposit of lead In the red blood cella
8. The aggregation of residual RNA In the red blood cells
C. The presence of ONA remnants In the red blood ce lls
D . Iron deposits In the red blood cells
47. An increased osmotic fragility is observed i.1 the red blood cells ot
A. Sickle cell anemia C. Heredttary spherocytosls
B. Hereditary elllptocytosis D . Thalassemia
48. Wh,.;h of the fol lowing is true of hereditary elliptocytosis?
A. C'smotic fragility and autohemolysi� usuall y nonnaJ
B . Unless 100% of the red blood ceUs are oval, the diagnosis is doubtful
C. It is the on ly disorder associated with eUiptocytosis
D . An abnorma l�y of hemoglobin is responsible for this condition
49. Red blood cel ls lhat contain Iron-stained grenul<M are termed'.
A. Reticulocytes B. M91J9l obl a1ts C. Slderocytes D . Drepanocyti,s
50. Whi ch of the following inol ualont represents a remnant of nuclear DNA In a red bl ood cell?
A. Heinz body B . Dohl e body C . PappenhP.l mer l>ody D . Howell-Jolly body
51. RNA remnants in red blood cells are vi sual ized when steined with'/
A Prussian bl ue C. Peroxidase
B. New melhyl ene blue D . Heinz body stai n
52 Spherocytes differ most from normal red blOOd.cell s In their.
A. Decreased ratio of surface area:volurre C . Increased volume
B. Increased central pal lor D. lnCfeased r11Si stance to hypo!onic saline
53 C. •bot rings are inclus ions found in:
A. Eosinophils B . Erythrocytes C . Monocytes 0. Lymphocytes

54. Match Nth ofthe fol/owing red blood cell�· with the correct deacrf,>tion
1. Excess membrane ror cell vol ume (bull's eye) a. bite cell
2. decreased cell membrane with same cell volum� b. sickle cell
3. "pitting• of red blood cell Inclusion by spl een c . spherocyte
4. cryst,..11:ation or abnMnal hemoglobin during oxygen deprivation d . targel cell

cs. Match th• cellcontent with the l,Jproprf•t• Inc/us/on

1. RNA a. Howell-Jolly body
2 . DNA b. Heinz bOdy
'i. Iron c. Reticu'<x:yte
4. Hemoglobin d. Pappenheimer �Y

56. Match the following with th• correct definition

1. decreased white cells, red ceils and platelets a. left shi ft
2. granulocytes released prematurely to myalocyte slag� b. reticulocytosl s
3. lncrased polychromnie c . pancytopenia
4 . White bl ood cell count >50,000/ul d . leukomol d ,�action

57. The most characteri stic ch,mge �een I n the white blood cells of the megalobl astic anemiJ bone manow is·
A. Toxic granulation C. Hyposegmentation
B. Giant bands and metamyelocytes 0. Dohl e bodi es
58. Burr cells represent What abnormality of red b:ood cell?
A Damage to the red bl ood cell membrane
B . Change fn size of tt, e red blood cell
C. Change in hemoglobin content
0. An abnormal hemogl obin repieeing the normal vari ety
59. Oft .a fol lowing, which ls 3 White blood cell Incl usion?
A. Sc�uffner's granules (dots) C. Oohl e bodies
B. Heinz bOdi es 0. Cabot rings
60 '>-6-PD deficiency ls an abnormality In:
A. Gl utamic acid C . Emden-Me1erhoff pathway
B . Erythropoi esls 0. HMP shunt
61. The while bl ood cell least often aeen on a nollTl\al perlp�eral smear Is the:
A Neutrophil B. Eos inophil C. Basophil 0. Monocyte
62. In the Pelger-Huet anomal y. neutrophll s show:
A "A shift to the l eft" C . 2 lobes and hypercl umped _chromatin
B . Dohl e bOdles D. Toxic granuhlion
63. Dohl e Inclusion bodi es are found In the cytor loom of:
A. Lymphocytes B . Monocyt'>s C. Neutrophils D. ErythrocytllS
64. Toxic grenul alion of neutrcphil s I s usuall y associated with:
A. Infectious mononucl eosis C. Bacterial infections
B . Leukemias O. i'elger-Huet anomal y
65. Which of these i s NOT consistent with toxic granulation of polymorphonucl ear neutrophils (PMNs)?
A . Accompanies hypersegmeotation
B. Appears with a "shift to the eft"
l
C . May be mimicked by overstal ning
D. May be accompanied by vacuoflzation and/or Dohl e bodi es
66. In examining a stained fil m for lupus (LE) cell s , \he most probable source of confusion i s:
A. Smudge celfs B . Tart cells C. '3a·;cher' s cells O. Downey cells
67. In lupus (LE). the cells that phagocytlzes the nucle-iprotnin is usual ly a:
A Lymphocyte B . PMN C . Monocyte O. Hi stocyte
68. A monocyte that has phagocytized a nucl eus is called a:
A. LE cell B. Tart cell C. Flame cell D. Smudge cell
69. Leukopenia can occur in which of these condi�ons?
A. Leukemia C . Marrow I njury bychemical agents
B . Viral infections 0. All of the above
70. Acute l eukemias are usually associated wi t�,:
A. Immature cells of one White bloOd cell series C . Anemia
B. Thrornbocytopenia O. All of the above
71. At what sUlge wUI specific (eeoondary) g111nule1 of g111nulocytn appear?
A. Promyelocyte B. Metamyelocyte C. Myel ocyte D. Bend ieuttophll
72. Chroni c myel ocytlc leukemia (CML) can be dlsllriguished ttt,m pol ycythemla vera by:
A. Thrombocytosis B. Splenome-galy C, Lekocytosis 0 . LAP - l ow to zero
73. The whi te blood cell anomal y that may be confused wl \h a shift to the left Is:
A . Chedl ak-Hfgashl C May-Hegglln
8. Chroni c granul omatous di sease D Pelger-Huet
74, Reacti ve l eukocytosl s I s present when the absol ute count of granul ocytes are:
A. > 6000/uL 8 . > 4000/uL C > 9000fuL 0 . > 8000/uL
75. Wti.t 1s required ror the in vi tro rormation of LE cells?
A. Antinuciear antibodies B. Neutrophlls C. Free nucl ear material 0. AOTA
76. Match the fol/owing whit• blood cell ,motT'a/y with /he correct cellularcomponent
A. Alder-Re/1/y B. Pelger-Huet C. Chedlak-Hlgaahl D. May-Hegg/In
1. neutrophil inclusions resembling Oo�l e bodi es
2. l arge dark granules ln granulocytes caused by anomal y of pri mary granul es an, l ymphocytes by lysoso!"'al
granul es
3. failure to complete development of nuclear l obes
4. dense granulation of g.ranul ocytes and lymphocyte. caused by abnormal enzyme
77. Which of the following findings rule out acute leukemia?
A. Anemi a B. Auer rods C. Normal pl atelet, ;t. 0 . Immature CAiis
78. Eosl nophilia I s found in which ofthe following?
A. Di abeti c acidosis B. Trichi nosis C. Allergi c rhi nitis 0. B and C
79. What specific cytological finding·can differentiate atJte myel ocytlc leukemia (AML) from acute lymphocytlo
leukemi a (ALL)?
A. Leukocyte al kall�e ptipsphatase (LAP) activity C. Auer rodr in blast cell�
B Nurnbor of nucl eoli In blaal cell� 0. Vorlnllon of 111.1> of bl nal cell,
BO. The resulls on l eukemi a patient was al phe-napthol-AS-0-acetate-esterase (NA,DA) 3+ blasts; NASCA + NaF 0-
1+ suggests:
A. Acute granul ocyti c l eukemia (AGL) C. Acute l ymphocvtk: leuken-.ia (ALL)
B. Acute monocytlc l eukemia (AMol ) D. Acute nonlympnocytic l eukemia
81. Whal stain di fferentiates acute my<1l ocytlc leukemi a from acute lymphocytic l eu�emia?
A. Al pha,.,.apthol-AS-0-acetate esterase (NASDA) C. r,roxl dase
B. Leukocyte al kaline phosphatase (LAP) D. Methyl green pyronl ne
82. The leukemia that does not have peroxidase activity is:
A. Acute myetomonocytlc C. Acute lymphoc'.(lic
B. Acute monocytic 0. Acute m�rel ocyti c
83. The immediate p,ecursor of the "band" ool ymorphonucl ear neutrophll ls lhe:
A. Myel ocyte B. Promyel ocyte C. Stab D. Metamyel ocyte
84. T, 1e l argest leukocyte I n the normal peripheral bl ood smear is the:
A, PMN B. Megakarocyle C. Lymphocyte D. Mon ocyte
85. A "s'1i ft to lhe lefl' means an I ncrease In:
A. Polymorphonucl ear neutrophlls C. Hypersegmenled PMNs
B. Immature granulocytes D. Metarubricytes
86. An Increased number or eoslnophils may be observed in all of the followiny, except
A. Eryt�roleukeml a C. Parasitic I nfections
B. Chroni c granul ocyt,c l eukemia (CGL) 0. Allergies
87. A characteri stic or I mmature bl ood cells is:
A. A low nuclear: cytoplasmic (N: C) ratlo C. Pale blue cytoplasm
B. Fine nuclear chromatin O. Absence of nucleoli
88. The characteristi c cell found to be I ncreased in th3 peripheral smear ofi nfectious mononucleosi s i s a:
A. Pl asma cell B. Band PMN C. Lymphocyte 0. Monocyte
89. In chronic lymphocylic leukemia, there Is usually a·
A. Thrombocytopenia B. Basophlls C. Lymphocytosi s D. Lympoopenia
90, In chronic granulocytic l eu�emla, there is usually :,:
A. Leukopenia B. Lymphocytosis C . Leukocylosl s D. Eosinopenia
91. A peri pheral blood smear demonstrating an absolute increase in small "hypermature• lymphocytes and 'smudge•
cells would be suggestive of:
A. Chronic lymphocytic l eukemia (CLL) C. Leukomoi d reaction
B. Acute lymphocytic l ecukemia (ALL) 0. lnrectious mononuqeC>Sis
92. The Philadel phla chron, osome is associated wi th:
A. Chronic granul ocyti c i eukemia C. Myelofibrosl s
B. Chroni c lymphocytlc leukemia O. Acute granul ocytic leukemia
93. Auer rods are characteri�tlcally found In the cells or Whlch leukemi a?
A . Acute granulocytic leukemi a (AGL) C. Acute lymphocytic l eukemia (ALL)
B. Chronic granulocytlc l<!ukemla (CGL) 0. Chronic l ymphocytlc leukemia (C1.L)
94" A low neuttophll al kaline phosphatase NAP/LAP I s .een i n:
A. l eukomoi d reaction C. Pregnant women
B. ,;nroni c granul ocytlc l eukemia D. Pofycythemia vera
95 A posi \i ve myel operoxidase slt>i n indicates Ille possi bili ty ot
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia C. Myelomonocytic l eukemia
B. Chroni c lymphocytlc leukemia 0. Infectious mononucieosis
96. An Increased ttter of anti nuclear antibody (ANA) aids In the diagnosis of:
A. Systemi c lupus erythematosus C. Infectious mononucleosi s
B. Acute l ymphocytlc leukemi a D. Autoi mmune hemol Y,' c anemi a
97. The leukemia that has a positive periodic acid-Schiff sraln is associated with;
.....,•.
A Acute promyeloeytlc C. Acute monocytlc
8. Acute myel ocytl c 0 . Acute lymµhocytl c
9 8 . Using the automatic cell counte,s may Increase a meen corpuscular volume (MCV) dua to:
A Cold agglutini ns 8. Excess EOTA C. In vi tro hemol ysls O . 08<'.reased WBC
99. Ninety-five percent of chronir; l ymphocytl c leuktimias have surface marke,s of:
A. R cell s 8. T cel ls C. Termi nal deoxynucieotidyl transferase 0 . CALLA
100. ,I. of the following are characteristic of a bone marr-,w of Waldenstrom' s macroglobullnemla, except
A. Ma1<ed rouleaux formation C. Increased tiseua mast cells
8. lnc,eased abnormal lymphoid cells 0 . Increased megakaryocytes
10· Reed Sternberg cells are dlagnosllc fer.
A Chronic lymphocytlc leukerr.la C. Hodgkin's <1isease
B. Prolymphocytic l eukemia 0. Mul tipl e myel oma
102. The l eukemia that has I ncreased basophlls and/or �osl nophils In the earl y stages I�:
A Chronic lymphocytlc leukemia C. Acute lymphocytl c e.,kemia
i
B . Chronic myel ocytic leukemia 0 . Hairy cell leukemia
103. Lymphosarcoma cells can be Jescribed as:
A Centr-•I nucelol us, condensed nuclear chromatin, llpht basophill� cytopl asm
6. Small prominent nucleoli , fine nucl ear cl"romatin wilh deep clefts in the nucleus
C. Plasmacytoid
0. Small mature lymphoc.ytes with dense nucl ear chromatin
104. A leukemia that presents with leukopenla In > 50% of pt�ents wi th > 90% massive spl onomegaly is most
likel y:
A. Hairy cell leukemia C . Progranulocytic leukemia
B. Prol ymphocytic leukemia 0. Monocylic leukemia
105. The cytochemical stain, peroxide�. is nP.gaUve for:
A. Monocytes 8. Lymphocytes C. Nev trophlls 0. Eoolnophlls
106. Moat chronic lymphocytl o l eukemias are neopl aams ot.
A. T lymphocytes · 8. 8 lymphocytes C. T4 helper cells 0. TS suppressor cells
107. In the presence of marked roul eaux lotmotion on a peripheral smear, one could oxpect lhe same sampl e to
exhibi t an increased:
A. Hemoglobi n B . RBC count C . Sedimentation rate o. WBC count
1 OB. Giant, bizarre pl atel&ts; nucl eated red blood cells (nRBCs); and teardrop red bl ood cells are associated with:
A. Erythroleukemia 8. Multiple myeloma C . Myel ofibrosis 0. May-Heggl ir,
109. The l ast red blood cell precursor to retain the nucleus before it becomes an erythrocyte is:
A. Rubrl cyte 8. Prorubr1cyte C. Rubriblast O. Mo,tarublicyte
1 10. The most rel.iabl e criteria for the estimaUon of a cell's age is:
A. Cytopl asm 8 . Nucleus C . Nuclear chromatin 0. Gran• ties
111. Which of the followlng l aboratory resul ts ::an occur with lntravascul ar hernol ysis ufthe red blood cell?
A. Increased pl asma hemogl obin C . Decreased plasma haptogl ocin
8. Hemogl oblnuria o. All or the above
1 12. A peripheral blood smear from a patient with lhalas,emia woul d exhi bit
A. Teardrop cell s, target cells. Howel hlolly oodl es
B . Target cells, nucleated red bl ood cells, basophilic stippling
C . Burr cells, nucleated red bl ood cel ls, sickl e cells
0. Basophil ic stippling, nucleated red blood cells, aca111hocytes
113. What l aboratory resul ts are round in an iron defir:iency anemia but not in lhal asseml a?
A. Normal to high serum Iron and normal tot.JI Iron binding capacity
8. Low serum I ron �nd ineteased total iron binding capacity
C . High red bl ood cell count and low mean corpuscul ar volume
0 . Low red bl ood cell cocnt and high mean corpuscular vol ume
114. The specific di agnosis of sickle cell anemia can be made from the followi ng l aboratory testis:
A. Sol ubility test C. HemO{ll obl n electrophoresis
B. Sodium metablsulfite 0. Presence of sic�l e cells
115. The second most common abnormal hemoglobin In the worl d, which predominates In southeast A31ans, Is:
A Hb-S 8. Hb-E C . Hb-C 0. Hb·M
116. The autoantibody that has maxlmal l ntravascul ar hemolysis al low temperature is:
A lgG C. Complement
B. lgM-binding compl ement o. lgG-binding complement
117. The FAS classification of the lymphocytl c leukemia with prominent �ytoplasmic vEcuolatlon Is:
A. L2 8. L3 C . L1 0. M2
118. Acute lymphocytl c l eukemias that have a predomir,ance of homogenous cells with a high N/C ratio bel ong 10
"�ich FAB group?
A. L1 8 . L3 C. L2 0 . M2
119. in acute myeloeytic leukemia, the FAS cl asa.ficaUon of type II bias�,; chat disHngul shes them from type 1
bl aslS ,s:
A. Few cytopl asmic granul es C. Uncondensed rhromaUn
B . Cytoplasmic granul es absent 0. Nucleoli prominent
120. The stain that is posi t ve for hairy cel l l eukemia I s:
i
A. Oi l ,led O B . PAS C . ACP 0 . NaplhJI AS-0 acetate
 -

...,.,.
ACT'S lleolow0..
APOC.LON-"-Moloc.Y•c,...,aMfoo
a.,,...,.ff
. •c,Quo,dw
121. Leborlt01y rNUlta of Hodgkin'• di - are:
A. Normel-e,ythroc;yt,eMdlmentatlonrate, hlghwNle blood c,ejl count. low aerum I ron
B. Low whlta blood c,ejl count. low MrUm Iron, high llbttnogen
C. High whim blood cell count with neutrophllla, hi gh erylhrocyja ..c:IIMenllltlon rate, low "rum Iron
0. High gamma globulin, low white blood cell count with neutrophMJa, high e,ylhrocy18 MdL'nentation rei.
122. Lab0tlt01y findlrigt of myeloid metaplesla·...,tn myelofibroals it:
A. Anemia, t.erdrop cellt, low alkellne �. Iner.Md uric acid
B. Bizeare platelets, high hemoglobin, no b!Nt ceu.
C. 6-10% bi.t., achlttocytN, low leukocyte alkaline phoept,..._,,
D. TM/drop ceYI, lncreeeed uric acid, high white blood eel count
123. DELETED
124. DEL!T!D

(
 COA(;ULATION QUESTIONS
1. Which or the foll owing facton1 does not requl� vttamin K lo ,1s production by the liver?
A. ti 8. VII C . VI II 0. IX
2. The activated coagul allon factor that Is NOT a serine protease is:
A. X B . VII C . IX 0. VIII
3 . The precu!llOr of thrombin is:
A. ThromboplasUn 8. Fibrlnogen C . Prothrombinase 0 . Prothrombl n
4. Fl brinogen Is converted 10 fibrin by:
A. Thrombin B. Thrombopl astin C. Plasmin D . Cal cium
5. The coagulation family that Is dependent on ,ltaml n K syn•hesl s is:
A Contact B . Prothrombln C. Fibrl nogen D . A01'1'
6 . The end result of most ccagul aUon tests is the �roduction of.
A. Thrombin B . Prothrombinase C. Flbri n cl ot D . Fibrln"l ysls
7. In the process of fibrl nolysfs, which of the followirig acls on fibrin?
A. Flbrinogen 8. Plasmin C. Thrombin U Factor XIII
8 . Secondary hemostasls consists of:
A. Pl atelet change shape
8 . Secretion of adenosl ne dl phosphate /ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Irreversible pl atel et aggregation
0. All of the above
9. The prothromblnase complex oonlists of.
A. IXa-Vlll - phospholipid -cal cium
8 . VIiia - tissue factor - calcium
C . Prekalli krein, kallikrel n, high molecular w..l ght kinin<)9en
D. Xa -Va - phosphollpid -calcium
10. Factor XII can be activated by:
A Exposure to subendothell um In vivo C. A and 8
B . Exposure to glass In vitro D . Nei ther A nor 8
11. The origin of platel et-. In the bone marrow is the:
A. Megakaryocytes 8. Stem cell C. Hemohistioblast n. Megal oblast
12. Low platel et count and normal bl eeding time indicates:
A. Primary vascul ar abnormality C. Oual ltaUve platel et disorder
B. von Wlllebrand's syndrome O. Aulol rr,mune thrombocylopenl a
13. The normal range of a direct platelet count Is:
A. 50, 000 to 100, 000/ul C. 140,000 to 440, 000/uL
8. 75,000 to 125, 000/uL 0. 300,000 tn 600,000/ul
14. A bleeding tendency I s likel y to be present when the pl atelet count ls belOw:
A. 50, 000/uL B. 150,000/ul C. 200,0llO/uL 0. 400,0001ul
15. A quantitative defect of plateleta ts known as:
A. Thrombocylopalhla B . Thrombocytopenl a C. Thromcythemia D. Thrombocytosis
16. Thrombocytopenl a is associated with a:
A. Prolonged bl eeding time C. Abnormal prolhrombin time
8. Prol onged clotlfng time D Abnormal APTI'
17. In lnrombocythemia, platelets ara:
A. "lo"™"I in number C. Markedly lncreaued
8. Normal In number but abnormal In funct,on D. Markeoly decreased
18. Cl assic hemophilia is the resul t of a def,cfency or which coagul ation factor?
A VI 8. VII C . VIII 0. IX
1 9 . Factor VIII ls present in highest concentration in:
A . Fresh frozen plasma 8. Platel et ooncentrate C. Cryoprecl pltate O. Who' e blood
20. The Chrlstmas factor is factnr:
A . VII B. VIII C . IX D. X
21. A prolonged bleedi ng lime wi th a normal pl atelel count indicates:
A Aspirin digestion C . von Wil lebrand's syndrome
3. Vascular abnormality 0. AOTA
l2. The test that uses a reagent form of dssue thrombnplesUn is:
A. APTT 8. O-dl mer a�ay C . Prothrobfn time o. Eugl obulin clol lysis
23. l he phase oontrast mlcrosr,ope ts empl oyed in which platel et count methcd' /
A. Rees-Ecker B. Brecher-Cronkl te C . Indirect D . Coulter
T
24. If the prolhrombl n ti me i1 abnormal and the activated pmtlal thromboplasdn ti me (AP T) ts normal, a def,r,f enci
�, which factor Is suggested?
A. V B. VII C . VIII D. X
25. If the prothrombin time It. normal and the activate� partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal, a deficienci
or which factor is suggutcd?
A. V 8. VII C . IX 0.X
26. If the bl eeding time Is normal, prothrombln time normal , and the ar,t;vated partial thrombopl astin time (,6.P TT) Is
abnormal , a deficiency of which factor i� suggested?
A II 8. V C. VII 0, VIII
27. :he test that can monr,or hepari n lllerapy, increa�ed levels of fibrin split products, o,nd quantitative and
�ua!Hative fibrinogen is:
A Fl brinogen assay C. Thrombln lime
B. Activated partial lllromboplastin lime D. 0-dl mer
28. The onl y test that is sensitive to a deficiency of f111.1or Vll is:
A. Prothrombin time 8. Thrombl n time C APTT 0. Protamlne S<.Jlfate
29. The acbvated partial thrombopl aslln time (APTT) serve:; as a screening proce(!ure for which pl asma faclur
deficiencies?
A. VII and IX 8. V and X C. All exc.>pt Vll and XIII 0 . XI, XI! and plate(.
fls
30. The activated partial lh:ombcp1'>sUn time may be within notmal l imits with abnoonallty a-:tivi\y ot. ,
A Platel ets 8. Factor I C. Factor '/111 D . Factor'/
31. All ofthe following represent coag . ulation methodology, excapt
A Optical B. lmpedanca C. Immunological 0. Chemical
32. If a coagulation test Is prel onged due to a deficiency or a ptasma coagulation factor, then the test shoul d be
corrected by tho addition ol:
A. Cal cium 8. Normal plasma C . Vitamin K D. Pla!elets
33. 5M urea or 1 % monochl oraoellc acid are reagenb used in tests for which pl asma factor deflclcency?
A. Vlll B. IX C. XII 0 . XI II
34. Dia,inosis of von Willab<and' s disease r.an be made from the following test results:
A. Decreased Vlll:C C. Prolonged bl eeding lime
B. Decreased VIIIR:RCo 0. AOTA
35. Which of ihe following factor activations oc ;ur In the al t.,rnate pathway?
A. Factor VIiia, can activate IX Md X
8. Factor IX and kalllkrel n can activate factor VII
C. Factors Xlla, xa, lxa or thrombin can act;vate VII
0 . All ofthe above
36. Maleh lh• funelion with lh• follttwlng lnhlbllors
1. _ _ heparin a . degrades factor:; v. and VIII,
i. _ _ AT-Il l b. inhibits vitamin K
3. ___ protein C c. acr.e erates Inactivation of factors V, and VIII.
4, _ __ protein S d. activates pl asminogen for l ysis of thrombi
5. ___ coumadl n e . inactivates zymogen. binds fibrin at.critical lysine binding si tes
6. _ _ plasml nogen f . princip.e lnhibito, of thrombin and ractor X,
7. _ __ streptokinase 9. gready enhances activity of AT-Ill
8. _ _ lupus-like anU-coagullnt h . Inactivates coagul ation factors through phospholl.poprotel n
components
37. Fibrinogen has to decrease bel ow what level to affect ll• e various clotting tests?
A 20 mg/dl B. 50 mg/dl C . 75 rr.g/dl 0. 200 mg/dl
38. Idiopathic thrombocylopenl o purpura is usually characterized by:
A. Increased platel P.t destruction C. Normal platel et count
B. Increased me.;iakaryocytea D. Marrow I nfiltration (mallgnanc:')
39. Disseminated lntravascular coagul opathy (DI C) is assouiated with all of the following �lsorders, except
A. Hemophilia C . Pl acenta praevia
8. Snake bites 0. Acute granulocytic leuk(Jml a or acute monocytic: l eukemia
40. Laboratory reS<.Jl ts rrom a patient with dissemhated intravascul ar coagul opathy (DIC) are:
A Decreased platel ets and factors I, V and VI II
B, Prolonged prothrombln Ume, activated pa.11al thrombopl astine time, .and thrombi� time
C . Positive 0-dimer
D . All of the above
41. Ehlers Danlos, von Willeb<and, and Bernard $ouller are all qualitative plateleidisorders that have abnormal iUes
of:
A. Adhesion 8. Primary aggregation C. Secondary aggregation O. NOTA
42. The quali tative pl atelet disorder that has abnormal primary aggregAlion is:
A. W,skott-Aldrich B. Gray platel et �yndrome C . Glanzmann 0. May-Hegglin
43. Storage pool deficiency and Wiskott-Al drich �re qualitative pl atelet disoroers that have abnonnal:
A. Secondary aggregation C . Primary aggregation
B. Adhesion D. Other rel ease mechanisms
44. DIiutions of patient and normal pl asma with a ptolonged prolhrombin timeand/or acllvaled partial thromboptastin
lime indicates a:
A. Circul ating anticoagulant
B . Deficiency or more than one plasma factor
C. Deficiency of a factor invol ved In both intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pati,ways
0. Fl brfnolysln
 Immunoh�na tology
By Apollon et . al .
CHAPTER 5 - Iromunehematology Questions
Blood- Banking QueEtions
1, The interval between blood donaUon, la:
A 6 weeks B. 8 weeks C . 10 weeks 0 . 3 month�
2 . The oral temperature of a donor shall not
A 37.0 C B. 37.5 C C. 98.8 F 0. 98. 0 f'
3. The mi nimum acceptable hemog obin for male d01101S Is:
l
A 12.5 g/dl B . 13.0 g/d'. C. 13.5 g/dl 0. 14.0 g/dl
4 . ';''hat is the lowest acceptable hematocri t fer female blood donors?
A . 36% B. 38% C. 41% 0 . 43%
5 . prospective donors who have malaria should be deferred:
A. , 'errnanently C. For two years after cessation or treatment
B. For three years altAr cessation ol treatment D. For six months
6 . The name given to the Infectious virus or hepatitis B (HBV) Is:
A . Complex virus B . Dane particle C . Clrcuiar ONA virus 0. Infectious pa"icle
7 . Symptc-· n-free donors immunized 't;ith oral polio, measles (rubeola) o r mumps •,accines are acceptable after a
period ot.
A. 24 hou r s B . 2 chys C. 2 weeks 0 , 24 days
8. For autologous b lond donation, blood shoul d nol be drawn from the do.1or-;,atient w ithin __ hours oflhe timf'
of the anticipated operat on or transfusion .
i
A. 12 hours
•
B. 24 hours C.'48 hours o. Ti hour s
9 . An auto logous blood donor must
A. Be over 21 years ol d C. Have at least an 11 g/JI hemoglobin
!l Be treated for bacteremia D. Be on oral iron tt,erapy
10. Which of the following pre\ransfuslon tests 'must" be determined for an autologous transfusion recipient?
A. ABO and Rh type B . HBs Ag C . STS 0 . Compatibility testing
11. Which biochemical change doe NOT occur in stored bl ood?
A. Plaema pH decreases C. Plasma ammonia (NH,) inr.reases
B. Plasma potassium (Kl decreases D . Inorganic phosphate incre.ses
12. Which or the following orgar.lsms have been l mi:,llcated in bacterial contamination of door blood?
A. Pseudornonas B . Cilobacter freundll C . Escherichia coll 0 . Bacillus species
13. The acceptable temperature range for a blood bank refrigerator is:
A. 1-6 C B . 1-10 C C . 6-10 C 0 . 32-37 C
14. Fresh frozen plasma Iha: is stnred at-18 C o : lower has a sheff life of .
A. 6 months B 1 yaar C . 2 years - - O. 5 years
15. When a blood product Is stored at 1-6C and the herrneUc seal has been broken, the expiration date becomes:
A. 24 houra B . 6 hours C . 48 hours 0. 8 hours
16. n • -,pttmum temperature for :hawing fresh froz;an plasma is:
A .·1ac B.-10C C . 30-37C 0 . 56 C
17. According to FDA regulations, if blood la to be transported. the blood temperature must be kept between:
A. 2-8 C B. 1-10 C e;_ 1-6 C O. 4-6 c;
h•. Which blOOd group system was discoverd rirst?
A. ABO B . MNS C. P O . Rh
19. Al. amorph Is gene:
A. That is expressed in lhe heterozygous �tale C . With no dirPctiy observable product
B. That Is expressed only in the homozygous state 0 . Wilh an c,bservable variable effect
20. Production or more antigen In the homozygous state than In the heterozygous stat� Is ref6rred to as:
A. Dosage effect C. Independent segregation
B . Antigenic determination 0. Prozone
21. UneKpected antibodies t'lat react at 37C a. e:
A. Usually lgM antibodies C. Considered not c linically signif1C81lt
B . Usually naturall y oocurring antlbod lea 0. Considered most c lin lcalfy significant
22. Naturall y oocumng antibodlee are found resJiarty In which system?
A. ABO R Rh C:. Keli 0, Kidd
23. Select the INCORRECT stater.1ent be low. Naturally occurring antibodies:
A. React best in saline C:. Do not usually cross the placenta
B . React best at room temperature or 4C n. Are usually lgG
24. immune antibodies may bo produced by:
A. Injection of purified blood group sub3tancen C. Repeated blood transfusions
B, Pregnancy 0 . AOTA
25. Anti-A1 is a seed extract from:
A . Ulex europeus
i
B . Vlcia gram nea r,. Arachis hypogea 0 . Oolichos bfflorus
26. The frequency of Group A individuals in the United States is:
A . 4% B. 9% G. 41% 0 . 46%
27. Group B individual• MVe:
A. A antigens on their red cells C . Neither anti-A nor Anti-8 I n �erum
B, AnU-A i n their serum D. Anli-B In their serum
28. Red blood cells of which blood group will not oe aggluti,ated by anti-A.8 typing serum?
A. A 8. 8 C. AB D. 0
29. Red blood cells of which blood group mact most strong ly with antf-H?
A . AB 8. A1 C. 0 D. B
30. The reagent made from the seeds of Dolichos bifloru• i ;;
A. Anti-A1 B. Ant�A, 8 C, Anti-B D. Anti-H
31. The antigen 1'11081 commonly teated for In :he Rh system la:
A. E B. C C. D D. e
32. Which of the following I s true of D"?
A. D" cannot be Inherited
B . D" is a variant of the Rho (DJ antigen
C . D" cells shou ld not be consldered Rho (D) ne,gatlve when used as donor blood
u
0 . o is common i n Caucasians
33. Which is not true of D" antigens?
A. D" antigens are lalrty common In ba le!<&
B . o• cells usually appear to be negative or weakly reactive at Initial testing
c. D' cells must be Incubated at4C for one hour
D. D' ce l ls are Incubated at 37C. then tested by the a11tiglobulin procedure
34. Anti-C wm not react with:
A. Rh1 Rh2 cells B . Rh1 Rh1 cells C . rh cells D. rh' rh cells
35. Ant�E wm react with:
A. rh cells B . Rh1 rh cells C. Rho rh cells 0. Rh2 Rh2 cells
36 . Anti-c can be formed by persons with the ge1101ype;
A . R1 R2 B . R 1 R1 C. R2 r D.rr
37. Antl-h( will NOT react with:

���=
A. rh cells 8. Rh1 rh cells C, Rh1 Rh1 cells D. Rh2 Rh2 cells
38. Anti-hr" W11 1 react with:
A. � � � R Rh1 Rh1 � �R���
39. The f antigen refers to:
A. Ce B . cE C. CE D . ce
40. The symbol ror the Bombay blood group is:
A . Oh B . OH C. Ho 0 . Hu
41. All but one of the followfng antibodies will be detected In the serum of Bombay genotype:
A. Anti-A B. Antl- B C. Anti-H 0 . Anti-Oh
42. The system composed of antigens found pr lmarify in saliva and p l:isma is;
A. Lutheran B. Lewis C. P D. Rh
43. In the Duffy blood group system, the most common antibody Getected is:
A . Anti-Fy' B . Anti-Ff C. Anti-Fy4 D. AnU-Fy5
44. Which of the fol lowing Is usually lgG, I mmune, and antlglobL•lin (Coombs') reactive?
A. Anti-Le' 8. Anti-Jk• C Anti-I D . Anti-N
45. The antigen I ls;
A. Weakly reactive with anti-I at4C C. A rare antigen
B . Poorly developed on cord red blood cells D . Not found I n blecks
46. Anti,· is most commonly detected in which crossmatch phase?
A , Room temperature B. 37 C C. Coombs' phase D . AOTA
47. Select the incorrect statement·
A. Anti-I ls often the cautative antibody In cases of cold hemagglutinln disease (CHAO)
R Anti, I reacts best with cord blooJ celis
C. Ant,-1 can be found as weak colld aggluti ni n In the serum of normal l nd lvk!unt s
D. Anti-I agglutinin are u1u1lly cilo cally lhalgn lllcant however, they may m"al< more significant antibodies, auci
as anti-P1, anti-M and anti-Le
48 Which of the fol lowing s NOT TRUE of Anti-Le"?
I
.\ Occurs in Le (a• b-) indlvlduals
a. Is commonly I mplicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HON)
C . I s neutra lized by Lewis blood group substance
D. S composed mostiy of lgM molecules
49. What percentage of the po�ulation lacks the Kell (K) antigen?
A. 0.02% B . 2.00% C . 10.00% D . 90.00%
SO. Select the INCORRECT statement
A. 90% or the population Is Kell (K) negative
B. Anti-K reacts best I n sal ine al room temperature
C. Anti-K can cause t,emoly:ic 1isease of the newborn (HON)
D. Next to Rho (0), the Kell (K) antigen is the most lm-nunogenic
51. Anti-k is also known as:
A. Anti-K1 B . Anti-Mcleod C. Anti-I<" D. Anti-Cellano
52, Approximately what perc..,ntag� or blaci<s have Ille Fy (a-b-) phenotype?
A. 1% B . 9% C . 22% D. 68%
53. Recent findings suggestthere ls-an association between the Fy (a-b-) phenotype and re!.istance to:
A. Chronic yranu lomatous disease C . Syphilis
B, Va laria D. Viral hepatitis
54. The antigen lj" is partof which 1Y31em?
A. Rh B . MNS C. Kidd D.P
55. Approximately what percentage of mai<3s a:e Xg' positive?
A . 11.3% B. 36.0% C. 65.6% D . 88.0%
56. Approximately what percentage of females are Xg' pos:Uve?
A. 11.3'/4 B. 36. 0% C, 65.6% D. 88.0%
57. When color-coding Is used for donor blood labels, grour A i s:
A. Pink B. Blue C. Yellow D. B lr.k
58. 'JI/hat Is lhe standard ar:c.eptable color for anti-A grouping serum?
A. Blue-green 8. Co lorless C . Red 0 . Yellow
•59. Polyspeciflc ant lglobuUn serum Is sometimes colored: .
A. Blue B. Yellow C. Green 0 . Pink
60. What Is the color of the d�e added to co.11me1clally prei:,ared antl-8 blood grouping serum?
A . Yellow 8. r3Iue C. Green D. NOlA
61. Anti-A. B serum:
A. Is used lo confirm group O Individuals C . Is obtained from ,\28 Individuals
B. 1s obtained from A1 B indlvi'1uals D. Agglutinates group O cells
62. Wh.al , of the following I s l�OT a suttable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking?
A. Sa'lne B. Serum C. Albumin D. Di stllled water
63. Which of lhe following enzyrMS I s NOT used Ir. blood bank procedures?
A. Ficin 8. Amylase C. Bromelin D. Papaln
64. Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies In the:
A. Kidd system B. Duffy system C. Lewis sy$tem D . Rh system
65. The technique used to remove antibody bound to s,,nsitlzed red cells ls ca lte/1:
A. Absorption B. Elutlon C. TIier D. Translocatlon
66. A cold autoagg lutinln will usuall y ti.ve speer.Jetty for the:
A. D antigen B . e antigen C. I antigen D. K antigen
67. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria I s ofien associated with antibodies In which system?
A . MNS B. P C. Lewis D . Rh
SB. Forward grouping is using:
A. Reagent A1 and B cells to detect serum anti-A and Anti-8
B. Ant�A and antl-B antisera to detect cell a�tigens A 11nd/or B
C . Anli-A, 8 to confirm Group 0
D . Using anl�A1 lo detect subgroups of A
69. Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered In the rollowing lnstancas:
A. Newborn lnrants C . Patients undergoing chemothenpy
8. Geriatric patienls D . AO' A
(
70. A patient that forward groups an an AB but reveille groups as group B probably Is a group A2 B with:
A . Anti-A1 8. Antl-A2 C . Anti-8 D . Anti-0
71. The most dangerous and unexpected antibodi es in the �10-Jd bank are those lhat react at:
A, 4C 8. 25C C. 32C 0. 37C
72. Ant lglobul in reagent
A . May be produced in laboratory anima l s
B . Is produced In human beings
C . Never deleols complement-dependent an tibodies
D. Occurs naturally in most human beings
73. Which of the following druga will NOT cau•e a po•itive direct antlglotiulln (Coombs') test?
A. Penicill in 8. Alpha-met'>yl<lopa C . Cepha lolhin D . Aspl�,1
74. Whal Is the optimum lnoubatlon temperalu� for the indirect antiglObu lin (IAi1 lest?
A. 4C B. 22C C. 37C D. 56C
75. The direct antlglobulln test (DAT) using polyspeciflC antihuman globul in serum i s NOT of value In the:
A. Diagnosi s of the hemo�1ic d'isease of the newborn
B. Diagnosi s o f hemolytic transfusion recations
C . Diagnos i s of drug�nduced hemolytic ane: nia
D. Differentiation of cell surface coating (com,..lemenl or lgG)
7 6 . Albumin-reactive lgG antibodies are about _ _ In lenglh.
A. 1000 angstroms B . 600 angstrom s C . 500 angstroms D . 250 angstroms
77. By common usage, a po yspeciflc anti-human serum at east contains ant bod es to:
l l i i
A. lgG and C4 8 . lgG and lgM C. lgG, lgA and C3d 0. lgG and C3d
78. The direct antlg lobulln test Is most U"9ful for:
A. Detection of hemolyllc di sease or the newborn C. Leukoagg lulinin assays
8 . CompaUblllty testing D. Detection of unexpected antibodies
79. In a direct antiglobulln test , you are testing patinet:
A. Cells . B. Serum C. Cells agalnst donor serum Cl. Serum against donor cells
8 0 . An indirect anfiglobulin test is incubated for:
A. 15-30 minutes at 25 C C . 5-1O minLies at 4C
8 . 15-60 minutes at 37 C D . 15-60 m inutes al 56C
81. The red blood cells used tor screening patients· serum for une:cpected antibodies should be or what group·
A. Group O B. Group A C. Group 8 D. Grour AB .
82. A false positive antiglobulln lest can be caused by:
A. Inadequate washing C. Elutlon dee lo deiayed washing
B. Prozone reaction D. Bacterial contam ination of reagents
 r••Ol
83. A lalM negative I ndirect antigl obulln teat can b4I eauaed by:
A Test cells bei ng di rect Coombs' posltlve C. Inadequate washi ng
B. Bacterial contami nation of test cells 0. Chemi cal contamlnatlo11
84. Laboratories must check each nn�tlve antlglobulln test using red bl ood cells seMili?ed wi th lgG. Alter the
addi ti on of these cells, whi ch of thefollowlng Is NOT necessaril y true?
A Active antiglobulln serum was added
B. Pati ent serum was added
C. Thewashing phase was performed satisfactoril y
0. Antlglobulln serum has not reacted with the ori ginal red cel ls bei ng tested
85. Fresh serum (l ess than 48 hours old must be used for compabbMity testing lo preserve:
A Chelating agents 8. Siallc acid C. Compl ement 0. Aut�tlbodl es
88. Mi xed fiel d agglutination 11 observed under the mlcrosoope us clumps or agglutinates of cells among many rree
cells. Whi ch of the following i s the MOST COMMON REASON 101 mi xed field agglutinatlou?
A Twin chimeras C. Weak subgroup; or A or B
B. Transfused cells mingling with patient cells 0. Antigen strength altered In disease states
87. The term ·type and screen· refers to:
A ·,ypi ng the patient's blood for rare antigens
B. Screening donor units for rare anUgens
C. Testing the patient's blood for ABO and Rh tyr,e and unexpected antlbod:es
0. Identification of unexp.,cted antl bodl u in the patient' s blood
88. All but 0·1e or the ro11ow1ng antibodi es wlll usually be detected I n the room lempcraturr phase of crossmatch:
A. Anti-.Jk' 8, Anti-Le' C. Antl-M 0. ._,,t�l-'1
�9. A positive antigen-antibody 1eactlor I s indicated by:
A. Antibody formal'on C. Aggl utinati on or he,nol ysi s
B. Antigen formation 0. No agglutlnalion or hemolysls
90. \Vhich of the following antibodi es u1ually gives ne,gati·,e reactions I n enzyme test procedures?
A. Antl-Jk' B. AnU-Fy' C. Anti-0 0 Ar.ti-Le'
91. One of the eight uni ts crossmatched is incompatibi,, in lhe antiglobuli n phase of t..sting. The mosl l ikel y a 1li body
i�:
A Antl-K B. Antl-Fy' C. Anti-Jk' 0. Anti•k
92. If a recipient is incompatible with only one donor, ihe most probabl e cause Is:
A A reci pient antibody to a hi gh incidence anti gen C. A clerical error
B. A recipient antibody to a low Incidence anUgen 0. Recipient serum was not added
93. Hemol ysis requires complement activation. Whi ch of thft followi ng are required for cumpl emenl acti vation'/
A Cal cium and magn13sium C. Calcium and sodi um
B. Cal cium and potassi um o. Sodi um and potassi um
94. The initial response to a foreign anti gen is known as the "prima,y responsu' . His primary response usually takes
how long to occur?
A. II never occurs B. 10-12 months C. 2-6 months 0. 8-10 months
95. Secondary response to the sarr.e foreign antigen ,s known as:
A Anamneslic response B. lgG response C. Nalural response 0. Ab response
96. Pl atelet concentrates are most likely to be or benent In:
A. l�molytic disease of the newborn C: l\titoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Thrombocytopeni a O. Mul tipl e myel oma
97. Cryoprecipltated antlhemophillc factor (AHF) Is not reco-nmended for the treatment ot.
A, HemophRia A C. Hemophilia B
8. von Wl llebrand's disease O. hypofibrillC'geneml a
98. Red bl ood cells are the product o'. choice for:
A. Supplying deficient coagul ation factors C. Exchange lransfuslon
B. Thrombocytopenia 0. Increasi ng oxygen r.a,ryl ng capaci ty
99. Oegl ycerollzed frozen red blood cells must i>fl ltansferred within how many hours?
A. 4 B. 21 C. 14 0. n
100. Recurrent nonhemolytlc febril e transfusi on reacllons are usually caused by all of the followi ng except
A. Antl- HLA antibodies C. �ed cell antibodies
B. Platel et anti bodi es o. Whi te cell anti bodies
101. A pati ent is suspected of having a trJnsfuslor, reaction. When should the transfusion be stopped?
A. After the unit is i nfused C. Aftei the phy�lcl an has been notitl ed
B. Immedi ately 0. .l\fler notification ur the labor&IOfY
102, A lransfusion reacti on is considered febril e YJl,en th;, patient experiences a:
A. 2 degree F rise In temperature wi thi ,, 1 hour of transfusion
B. 2 degree F drop In temperature within 1 hour of transfusi on
C. No temperature Increase during lfansfusion
0. A lemparature at the start of the lransfus10n
103. The bl ood phenotype O can resuH from whi ch of the followlng genotypes?
A. AO B. BO C. 00 O. A20
104. The cel ls and serum of a neonate were tested 3t room lemperature.
Patient cells with: Patientserum with:
Anti-A • negati ve , A1 cells - negative
Antl•B - positive 8 cells negati ve
The infant is probabl y:
A. Group B B. Group AB C. Group O 0. NOTA
105. P•tlent ce1i. wltli: Patient ,:en,m with:
Anti-A - positive A1 eel!, - positr,e
Antf-B - positive B eel/a - negative
Anti-AB • positive
Anti-A1 • negative
Gi ve the most likel y expl anation ror the discrepancy In tne rorward and roverse groupl nus:
A . The patient i s group A18 with autoanllbody
8. The patient Is group A2B with and-A1 .
C. The patient Is group B wi th an acquired A-li ke antlgan
D. The patient i s group A2B wi th antl-H •
106. What is the optimum concentration of a cell suspension to be used in biood bank testing?
A 1-2% B. 2-5% C. 8--10% D. 10-16%
107. TheWeiner genotype R2 R2 ls equival ent to:
A. COe/COe B . cde/cde C. cDE/cOE 0. c<le/cdE
108. What I s the most common genoty;ie that coul d resutt from the phenotype O• C- E• c+ e-?
A. R2R2 B. R1R1 C. r r D. R1r
109. Given the reacti ons, 0· • C+ e. c+ e+, what Is the most probable genotype?
A R1R1 B. R1Ro C. R1r 0. R1P2
110. Given the reactions, O+ C+ E+ c+ e+, what i s the n, ost probabl e genoty�e?
A. R1R2 B. R1r" C. R2r D. R2Ro
111. II cel ls are posi tive when tested wtth anti-0, anti-C nnd antl-e, and negative when tested with anti-!: and anti-
c, what is the most fikely genotype?
A. R2 R2 B. R1r C. R2r' 0. R1R1
112. If red cells give positive reactions when tast8d wtth anti-RhO, anti-th', anti-hr', and a negati ve reaction wi th
anti-rh'. which or the foll owing genotypes is IMPOSSIBI.E?
A, R1r 8. R1R2 C. R1Ro 0. Ro r'
113. DELETED
114. What Is the mostcommon or th!' Rh negative genotypes?
A. cde/cde B. Cde/cde C . Cde/CdE 0. cdE/cde
115. When red cells are positive when tested wi th antl -c and anti-e and negative when tested wi th anti -0, anti-C
and anti-E, what Is the genotype?
A. rr B. r' r C. Ro Ro 0. r' (
116. Ou antigens ere ralrll common to what race?
A. Blacks B. Caucasi ans C. Hispanics D. Asians
117. The O antigen is responsi ble for the most frequent producti on of unexpected antibodi!S. Whi ch otherblood
group anti gen I s responsibl e for a large peroentage of unexpe�ed Mtl body production?
A O antigen B. A antigen C. K antigen D . B ant'gen
1 18. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when:
A. The infant lacks the antigen the mo'her posaeasea
B The mother tacks an antigen the Infant possesses
C. The mother possesses an antigen the lather lacks
0. NOTA
119. '.Vhlch antibody Is most likely to b£ Involved In hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A. Anti-e B. Anti-Le• C. Ant�M D. Anti.Js•
120. When severe hemolyti c disease or the newborn is due to an unidentified ,nlibody;
A No biood I s acceptable, for transluslon
B. AB regative red cells and O negative plasma should be used for transfusion
C. Mother's red cells niay be used for transrusl on
0, NOTA
111. Of the fol lowing bl ood groups, which one does not usually cause hemol yti c di�ase of the newborn?
A. Rh 8. Kell C. P D. Duffy
122. In a case or hemol ttic di sease or the newborr., w�en the mother I s group o ancJ the baby ls group A, red
cells for exchange transfusion shoul d be what group?
A:. A 8. 8 C. 0 D. ,\B
123. In cases or ABO hemol ytic di sease of tne newborn, the mother is usuall·I which of the fo!lovilng?
A. Group AB B. Group O C. Rho (0) negative 0. A
124. II a mother passes an antibody to her l'!tus through the placenta, what type of Immunity does the fetus have·
A. Naturally acqui red active C. Naturally acqui red passi ve
B. Artllicfally acquired active 0. Artl flcially acquired passive
125. If the mother is group A18 end the father Is group A2B, which wcul d be IMPOSJIDLE In the offspring?
A. A1 0. t2 C. B 0. A2B
126. In the phenotype mating A2B x 0, whi ch of the follcwing phenotypes is possi ble in tiie offspri ng?
A. A1 B. A2B C. 0 D. B
127, In the phenotype ma11,g O x 0, which of 1he followi ng phenotypes i s possibl e i n th/3 offspring?
A. A1 B. .O.:ZB C. B D. 0
128. An A1 B mother and an A20 father could NO"i' prod·Jce which of the fol lowi ng genotypes?
A A1A2 B. A2B C. 80 D. A20
129. Ir th" mol'.her is group O and the inrant is group 8, the Infant's bl ood group genotype I s:
A. 1'l 8 . AO C. BO O. AB
 - �i>l'
- -· -
130. Given a mother of group O and an Infant of group El, which of the following blood groups would eliminate
paternity?
A. AB 8. B C.O 0 . Paternity could not be ruled out
131. If a group AB is mated with a group 0, th" followlng genotypes will resul t
A. A O and BO • B. AA and BB C AB end 00 0 . AO and BB
132. In the mati ng of R1r x R2r genotypes, wh, -:h of the following Is probably NOT that of the offspring?
A. COe/cDE B . cde/cda C. COe/cde 0 . CDe/cdE
133 If an R2R2 patient Is ltans\'used with R1 R1 blood, I' wou ld be possible for him to font' which of the fol10W1 ng
antibodies?
A. Anli-E B . Anti-Ce C . Anli-ce' D. Anti-c
134. If a patient requiring a blood 1tansfusl�n has an enli-e (hr') approximately what percent.o f donor b lood tested
would be compatible?
A . 2% B . 15% C 2�% D. 80%
135. Approximately what percentage of donor blOOd Is compatib le w ith a patient who has anti-Jk•?
A . 25% B .40% C. 75% D . 90% '
136. You must find two units of compatible blood for a p3tient who has ant i✓k'. How many uril.; Will you
crossmatch?
A. 5 B . 10 C. 20 C. 5('
137, When a patient is to undergo heart bypars surgery, which antibody is considered clinic.ally significant?
A. Anti-A B. anti-B C. anti-Le• D. Anti-P1
138. Which blood grouping anti bodies can be the cause of a severe de layed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A. Kldd B . Lutheran C. Lewis D. Xg'
139. In titration of an antibody, the first 2-3 tuhes are negative and later lubes are positive. This is known as :
A. Rou leaux effect B . Antibody effect C Antigen effect o. Prozo11e effect
140. lntravascuiar hemolysis occurs when:
A. Complement Is activated C. Calcium is activated
8. Complement is Inactivated 0 . Calcium is inactivated
141. What is tile optimum pH a t which antlbodios bind to cells?
A . 5.5-6.0 . B . 7.8-8.5 C. 6.0-7.0 0. 6.5-7.�
142. A blood bank has 10 units of O Rho (0) positive blood from random donors. It should be eas lestto find two
units of compatible blood for the patient w ith:
A. Antj.e B. Ant-c C. Anti-k 0 . anti-Le•
143. If tile patient w ith anti-E needs a blood transfusion, approximately what pc,rcentage of donor blood tested will
be compatible?
A. 2% B. 30% C. 70% 0. 98%
144, A patient needing a blood transfusion Is found to have anti-P1. According to ti,e statistics, select lhe
appropriate number of compatib le units
A. 1 of 4 units B . 1 of 10 units C. 2 of 3 units D 3 of 4 units
145. A 56 C water bath ls common ly used for :
1. Croasmatchlng 2. P,.,,,,rlng e/uetn 3. Inactivating sere 4. Thawing fro:zen cells
A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 0 . 1 , 2 , 3 and4
146. Testing media for antigen-antibody reactions Include:
1. Isotonic sal/ne 2. USS 3. Alb11mln 4. Enzymu
A . 1 and 3 B . 2 and4 C. 1, 2 ar.d 'J 0. 1, 2, 3 ard 4
147 . Anti-A1 agg lutinin Is:
1. FoundIn group A1 patients 3. Found In •II A2B p;,i/ents
2. Occas/ona//y found In A2patients 4 . Found In group B and O p;,tlenta
A. I and3 B. 2 and4 C . 1, 2 an d 3 0 . 1 , 2 , 3 and4
148. Standardize techniques for blood banking procedures by:
A . Grading reactions conslstenUy
B, Timing tests accurately
C. Ma•ing accurate cell suspenslGns a,ld conltolllng size of drops
0 . A0rA
149. Anti-AB serum: ,I
1. Is obtained from A1B Individuals 3. /s obtained frc,m i;iroup O individuals
2. I• obtsln<Kl from A2B Individuals 4. Confirms group O individuals
� 1 and2 B . 3and4 C . 1, 2 and 3 0. 1, 2, 3 and4
15L. Rh antibodies:
1. React more strongly et 37 C than at4 C 3. Acquired fr. transfus,o, orpregnancy
2. Frequently not<KJ to b• cold agg/utl,1/n� 4. Confirm group O Individuals
A. 1 and 3 B . 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and4
151. Which of the following are naturally occurlng?-
1. Antl-P1 2. AntJ.Le' 3. AntJ.N 4. Antl-S
A. 1 and 3 8 . 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D . 1,'2, 3and4
152. The group B phenotype can result from the fo.l lowi119 genotype/s?
1. A1B 2. !IBB 3. AO 4.80
A. 1 and 3 B . 2 and 4 C 1, 2 and 3 0. 1, 2. 3 and 4
153. The phenotype A can result from which or the foliowlhg genotypes?
a� a� �� �M e.�B
154. in The very acute ph3se of hepatitis, which of the following wou ld be indicative of the onset o l a viremic
state?
A. positive HBsAg B . positive HBeA9 C . positive anti-HBc D. anti-HA\/
 A(."TS-�
APOLU>N-Blood Ba,1dq
a,..,S-I�Q,d"""
,.1al7
155. What fa the expl raUon date (In daya) of red blood c:ena p -eaerved with citrate-p�phate,.dextroae-ad4n ne
(CPDA-1)? l
A. 21 8, 24 C. 35 0. 40
15&. Low ionic atrwngth IOludon (LISS):
1. C.uaea en Inc� /11 tM � cdo,,. OtTOU • lldlllfl the'" celi.

3. Uauelly con•l•t:a of,,,.,,.,.,,.,.

2. C.USN • decl'Nff Ill th•� ceflon, eunoundlng the red ce1i.
ulln• end glycine
4. EnhellCN the ,_ end --'1lvftyofent!,,.,...,,tlbody rNCtlona
A. 1 and 3 8. 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 ancl-4
157. DELETED
IILN�2005
1188 S.,,--

•
 S1J?E1{V9S90N t4nl'M:AN:At';F'ME.Nf'f
�3 11.(ioffon eta{
1. When a new empl oyee t-egins orlentaUon, the employe.'s skills-and abilttles Sllould be pennanently documented
in the:
a. Personnel handbook c . Personnel file
b. Orientation checkl ist d . None of tr e above
2. The orientati on process fur a nAW empl oyee includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. A review ot duties and responsibilities of the job
b. A revitw of personnet policies
c . The localion of general use facllllles
d. A request ror personal infonnation on past ro-nduci
3. Duong the orientati on period fer a new emp:oyee. all of the following actions shoul d be perlonned EXCEPT:
a. lntroducilon to laboratory staff
), lnlroduct on to department manageme11t
I i
c . Introduction to Relerence La!)oratory Technical Support Associate
d. Introduction and i dentification of supervisory persor•nel
4 A11 orientati on to tho labOratory work area inctudes all of the foll owing EXC!PT:
a. A review or an tests Ille new empl oyee will be expected to perform
b. The techniques and procedures employed by teciiclcal bi omedical service engln-.ers
c. Routine preventative rnaintenance and lroubleshoo•ing or Instruments
,1 . Nccessa,y responses to grossly ab•tc n .al palienl tesl results
5. All new employees should be Introduced to the proper procedures ror al l or Jhe roll01,ing EXCEPT:
a. Use and care of personnel idenlificaUon tadge or c�rd
b. Proper use and documentalion on lime c.:.ds
c . Personnel regulall ons for time cards
d Calculaling time card hours
6 A well designed job desc,ipuon does NOT lncl udf! whic11 of :Jte following?
a. The dulfes of the employee ror the job class;ficalion
b. The minimol qual ificalions or the employee
c. The pay scale for lhejob
d. Job responsibllllles and degree of supe.rvision
7. Personnel evaluations shoul d be conducted at least
a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Quartert, ct Annually
a. Employee personnel records should Include all or the foll ow ng EXCEPT:
i
a. Records or affidavits or civil or criminal arrests c. Repri mand.s and commendJti ons
b. An employee's job des:liptions d . Copl es of certifications qnd credential s
9 A conllnulng education unit (CEU) is defired as;
a One hour r.. Ten comac1 hours
b. One contact hour J. Twenty hours
10. In-service and continuing education programs for the er1ployee shoul d be conducled at leas!
a . Weekly b . bl-week1 y c . monthl y c!. annually
1 1 . The determination of lhe type of services offered by Jhe laboratory must t9ke Into consideration all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. The request of the patients
b. Usefulness or procedures for the type or ratients treated
c. Needs oft.he me�lcal staff )
d. The reasonabl e cost-Jo-charge rel aUonshlp of lhe procedure
12. Which of Jhe following woul d cause the most con,cem i n limiting test specimen p,ocessi ng?
a. A temporary shortage of staffing c . A lack of qualified personnel 10 perform analysis
b, A mlnimum supply of reagenls d. Tile temporary absence of a technical supervisor
13. Infecti on control policies and procedures should incl ude all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Personal prolecllve E,Qul pmenl and dot�ing to be used c. 'Nork pructice control s
b. Engineering conJrol procedures d . Cullures to be taken
14. Emergency evacuation routes and procedures for lhe Jaborato,y shoul d be posted
a. In the laboratory office c. N,ot posted bul in the saf�y manual
b, In lhe laboratory seciions d. Al every entl'Mce and eYtt
15. Results that are grossly abnormal should be revi ewed by one or all of tt.e follo·.,ing EXCEPT:
a. General laboralory supervi sor c. Physician ordering the test
b. Medical director ofthe laboratory d. Section supervisor
16. In the performance evaluation, the parties invol ved ,-�ould consi der all or the foll owi ng EXCEPT:
a. Goals and objecti ves identified
b. Review of work.e:s· actual performance during the period
.. Criteria usea to evaluate perforr,,ance
d. Management's system to evaluate performance
17. A well maintained personnel file '.or an employee should contaio all of the followi nr EXCEPT:
a. Job descripti on of employee c. Salary and bentfils records
b. Wrfllen reprimands and commendations d. Information regarding the personal Ufe of the en, pl oyee
18. Test resul ts shoul d be reported:
a. At specilic ume periods during the shilt
b. When requested
c. Within the speci fied time defined by the laboratory
d. In a clinically useful ti me period
19. All emeryency (STAn laboratory analyses shoukil be reported lo the ordering physician, or desi gnate. Nithln
a. 0.5 to 1 hour b. 10-20 minutes c. 1 - 2 hours J. 3 hours
20. All ,aboratory testi ng performed by another labomtory a.nd reported by t�n originati ng laboratory must include, on
lhe r .;port form, which one of the following?
a . The inltlals of lhe p,,rson collecting the speclmen
b. The name and address of the laboratory perfo:ming the analyses
c. The type of specimen submitted to the reference laboratory
d. The si gnature of thn technical supervisor of the originating laboratory
21. A property labeled speclmer will incl ude all ol lhe foll owing EXCEPT:
a. Name of pallen·t c, Date of collection
b. Unique i dentification number d. Date of bi rth of patienl
22. cabels that must be aNlxed to reagents or materials prepared by the laboratrry i n�l ude all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Hazards and precautions c. Recommended st�n>ge
b. Concentration of reagests d. Amount of reagent used in a procedure
23. Those who utlllze laboratory services for patienl testing should be provi ded wi th I nformation pertinent to all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Proper methods of specimen collection
'>. Care necessary In cnlledl on and transport of specimen
c. Special times of collec.li on and preparation or paller.t
d. Methodologies emp;Ofed in the performance of tesung
24. laboratory specimens require proper labeling for posllive patient I1entificallon throuchout the processi ng or the
speci men. Identify the or.e unnecessary Item of information from the list below:
a. Pati ent' s a�e c. ::>ate or speci men collecti on
b. Full name of patient d. Uni que patient ldPntification number
25 To ns,sure proper lest performance all of the foll owing rnusl be availabl e lo the technical slaff in \lie immedi ate
are.. Lt testing EXCEPT:
a. Specimen collecting and h•ndling requirements
b. A methodology for the performance of the ".lrccedure
c. Profici ency reports of previ ous lnlertab.,ratory eval uallons
d. Necessary q�allly control malerial s to be u\111:zed
26 Puri;hased reagents and diagnostic kits must be verifie<I for intended reacti vi ty:
a. Before being used for patient testing c. Within 2 days of beJln ning ute of new matenals
b. When runni ng oul of old materials d. 'lever
27 The tiUe page of a poficy or proceelure manual sh:oul CI Include all or the foll owi ng EXCEPT:
a. Eftective date of manual c. 01gna1ure of indi vidual approving the manual
b. Dale of lasl revision d. I ndex of manual
28. Eaeh Slandard Operating Procedure must be reviewed and dated by the laboratory Ji redor
a. WeekJy c. Year,y orwtlenever changes �re made
b. Yearly d. None oflhe above
29. The Standard Operallng Proced11re Maoual should address four primary areas. These areas are:
a. Materi al s, supplies. equi pment, storage
b. Equipment, reporting results, techni cal methods, m:, teri.�ls
c. Supplies. instrumentation, equipment, materi.nls
d. Repon,ng results. reagents, cli nical retevan�. reference servi ces
JU. Quality assurance stu dies should be conducted o.n a re,;iular basis
a, To Identify problems and make corrections
b, To point a finger a t poor performance by testing pe:-sonnel
c . Determine competency oi management ot the laboratory
d. So that the laboratory will comply v.ith CUA regulaUons
31. Management's role in provi ding for a safet workli>g env lronrr.ent inciudes all or the followin0 EXCEPT:
a. Adequate onemaOon of new empl oyees ,r sa·iety p, actices
b. Annual safety traini ng
c . Providing incentives for employees to use safety eauiprnenl
d. Maintenance of all safety equipment in {,Ood worki1 g order
32. Reagents that require storage between 2-8 � and are photoreactive shoul d be stored in a
-a. Refrigerator in a dark bott le c , Dark laboratory cabinet sealed from fight
b . Relr\gerator ,n a dear bollle d. LabOratory closet In a coot location
33. Which of the fol l owing is NOT associated with imrrope, specimen sampli ng?
a . Incorrect specimen collection vessels c . Cleansing of tho collection situ
b . lnappropnate venipuncture site d. Labeling of specimen with name only
34. ilenipuncture sites prepared for the purpose nf cbtainlng ethanol levels should be cleansed with:
a. Acqueous mar1hiolate solution o. �!ethanol c. Ethano. d. Betadlne
35. Da,ty mstrument preparation and evaluation sho,,I d lnctude all o l the foll owi ng EXCEPT:
a . Evaluation of electronic parameters
b . Quality control of test procedures
c. Dummy runs to certify operalion
d . Cer11ficatlon of operation within manufacturer' s spe'.iflcatlons
36. Food and drink may be stored In a laborator)' refriger ator i�
a. Placed In a special sealed container
b. Marked as a consumab le materia l
c, Food and drink may not be placed in a laboratory rnrerigeralor
d. Stored for sI1or1 periods of time
37, Laboratory fire exti nguisher s shou l d be inspected at least
"· A11nually b . Monthly c, Weekly d, Ouart1•My
38. Laboratory Salely Manuals shou l d te available in:
a. The laboratory office on l y c . All wor1< areas of the laboratory
b . The pathologist's office only d . In the administration office and dargerous laboratory areas
39. Flammable liquids may be stored
a . In an ordinary refr1g�rator with a nammab le storage label aff1Xed
b . In any refrigerator within the laboratory department
c. In en explosion..proot refrigerator
d. Only In an exploslon-proor reMgerator located in a remote area
40, Laboratory supplies shoul d NOT be stored
a. In cabinets and drawers c. On the 1Ioor
b. At noor level II placed upon a raised platform d. On shel ving
41 Tl e National Fire Protection Association hazard wamlrg emblem ls a three col ored squ3re label. The thre�
colors are red, bl ue, and yellow, Wi thin each c ol ?rblook Is a numeral lc'tnllfying the severity of the hazaro
iden..fled by the col o r . The color red i dentif ies fire hazards, yellow identifies instability ol the product, and blue
Identifies what type or hazard?
8 . Radiatlon b , Hea lth C. Polson d. Acid
42. Management's role In the admln lstrnUon of the ctin lca laboratory requires daily efforts in lour areas. These four
l
areas a,a planning. org�n izing. activating, and
a, Reporti ng b . Surerv lsing c. Communicating d. Eval uating
43 Directives from sup,>rv lso,y personnel must be
a, Clear and concise c . Reasonab le
',. Applied wiIh regard to the demands or the situatiun d, All ot thr ab<ve
'
44 The purchasing ol labOratory supplies must be monitored through the evaluaticn and verification of three
imPQr1anl documenlS to ascertain thal lhc l.1bora<ory received the proper ,)rl"ducis and paid the appropriate priCE
- , 11ese three documents aru
a. Purchase order, instruC!lon manual, pa� ..king slip c . Purchase rrder , pac�ing slip, Invoice
b . Invoice, packing Slip, instrument manual d. Packing slip, bill of lad!ng, price list
45. 111 order to panicipale in the Medicare progmm, a laboratory must meet all applicab,e
a, Federal laws and reoulatlons c . Federa and state laws and regulations
b Stale laws 3nd mgulations d . Federal or stale laws and regulations .
46 A tabOratory must be licensed under the Chn,cal Laboratory lmprovemenl ACI (CUA) if ii
a, Onl y collects specimens c. Performs �leclrocardiograms
b, Operates in Mexico a11d Cenada d. Enpapes in interstate commerrP.
47. A hospltal clinical laboratory that performs Medica,e wor1< must be
a. AccredHed by JCAH c. Approved by Medicare
b. AccredHed by CAP d . A member of AHA
•8. Proficiency testing should consist rf
a. Testing and evrfuaUng indlv!dual workers c . Sending samples to a reference lab 'or analysis
b . Internal and external quality contml testi ng samples d. Checking all reagLJnls for performance
49. •1 a result on a single oonlrot had a result outside of 3 standard devlallons, y,1u should
a . Repeal the run c. Use a n�w standard
b. Check the reagents d. Check the machl11 c •or a defect
50. An explosion could result If.
a. Acid is added to water c . Acid is neutra lized snd water added
ll. Water is promaxed with a weak salt d Water is added to concentrated acid
5 1 . An excellent general laboratory c eanser thrt is also a Oisintectant Is
l
a. 0.85% saline c . Hypochtorlte
b. Tincture or iodi nr- d. Tincture of merthlolate
52. All accidents should hsve a written report made within
a, The time tho accldem vlcaim is hospHa liwd c. 24 hours
b The week it occurred d 30 days
53. One ot the besI preventive meusures for personal safely is
a Avoiding wor1< areas c. Avoiding all incomi ng specimens that are marked "CAUTION"
b. Frequent t,andwash ing d . Wearing proIeC1ive clolhlng at all llm�s
54. A l.ooratory procedures ,;ommonty practiced fo, years chat must be avoided in today's I.JborAtory is:
a. Pwring chemicals from st0ck bottles c. Use of nonbioctegradable chemicals
b . Use of Bunsen burners d. Pipetting by mouth
bb The only avenue or access to a patient's l&ooratory rec,rd from an outside source without the p�tient's writlen
pennlssion is:
a A lawyer's request c Some form of judicial order
b. A pathologist' s request d. A hospital' s reque�I
56. Which blOfogical samp les should be regarded as poten'lal hazards?
a. Uri ne specimens from AIDS patients c . Alt biological samples
b . SIoot specimens d. Spulum specimens from tuhercular patients
57. Materials used In b lood ccHectlng shoul'I '>e disposed or by:
a. Placing in acid for 24 hours c . Placing in a potassium dl chr ornate solution ror 24 hours
b. Boihng for 15 minutes In saline d . P lacing . In a bag and autoclaving
58. Which of the following does NOT appear on ti a specimen label?
a. The name of the patient c . The name of the requesting physician
b. A tentative diagnosis d. The date of coltecllon
59. If an automated test inslrument should be temporarily i11operable. samp les for testi ng snou ld be
a. Discarded and fresh ones obtained when the instrument is operable
b . Kepi at 37C untd Ihe instrument is operable
c . Analyzed b y an attemate melhod o r prop,irfy storer' ur,til the lnstrumenl i s operal>le
d. Stored in the referigerator until the instrument I s op>.ral>le
60, Chemical waste ls best discaroed by;
a . Buryi ng contaminated materials in an isolated area
b. Burning lhe waste in a laboratory inciner;tor
c . Neutra lizing, diluting, and then burying o. incineratiog
d. · D issolving In acid and burying ine res11 I1s
61. Laboratory speci mens should be regarde-:J as:
a . Routine unless otherwi se noted c . Rouline with no precautions
b. Noninreclious unless noted d. Infectious
62. ACOJmutated radiation exposure ror clinical laboratory �ersonnef should NOT exceed how many roentgen
equivalents in humans (rem) per quaner?
a. 15 b. 3 c. 10 d. 7
63. A centrifuge should be checked with a tachomoter evefV
a . 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d . annually
64. The degree of reproducibility among a series �f laboralory de:ermlnatlons on the same specimen is called:
3. Accuracy b . Precision c . Sensitivily d . Specificily
65. A p,ec,sion run has a mean (X) of 231 and slandard dev iation of 5 . The percent COAffi.:ienct of variation Is:
a. 0.0216 b. 21.6000 c, 2.1600 J. 46.2000
66. The disposal procedure for radioactive material (I"') used in the laboratory ls as follows
a. Follow manufacturer's instruction c. Pack well and pl ace in trasn can
l>. Pl aoe in a special radioactive disposal can d. Dispose with copi ous amouols of water
 Page 5 of

67. One method to check the accuracy of a pipeuor is to dfllver mu ltip l e volumes into a
a. Graduated centrifuge tube c. Class A votumentric flask
b. Graduated cylinder d. All of the above
68. What ls a pure. stab le chemical substance ol a definite oomposition ol which measu-ed amounts are used to
establish a point or reference against which vnknown amounts of the substance can t � compored and
determined?
a. Reference sample c. Pfima<y standard
b. Control d. Secondary standard
69. Fire exti nguishers shou ld be rr.onttored, certmed, and dated every
a. Six months b. monllls c. year tl. 2 years
70. How often shou ld a spore suspension be used to check the sterility or an autoclave?
a. Once a month c . Eve<y lllree monllls
b . Twice a month d. None of the above
71. Countertops shou ld be disinfected at least
a. In the morning before work starts c. Once a week
b. In the eveni ng after work ends d. Before work begins and when finished
72. Under Medicare regulations the laboratory repolli is sent to the physician who requested the test and a record is
kept on me forwhat period of time?
a. 90 days b . 1 year c. 2 years d. 7 years
73. A mathematical measure of the spread (dispersion) of statistical data above an<' below the average is tailed:
a. Refiabi tty b . Mean c . Prec lslon d . Slandard deviation
l
74. All laboratory reagents shou ld have labe l s that state
a. Name of reagenl c . Expiration <'.ale
b . Dale reco lvc<.l or prepared d All of lho above
75. A budget is a w r itten formal proposal of e:.pected revenues and
a · standards b. Expenses c. Requirements d. Income
76. A ,aboratory worker splashes concentrated hydrochlori�acid in his/her eye. 1 he best s 1fely mea$ure is to
a. Wash the eye with dl lute sodi um hydroxide (NaOH} and call a phys't1an STAT
b. ,Vash the eye with dl stilled water •nd Cl'lf a physician STAT
c. Wash I.he eye with i1U ute acetic add and call a physician STAT
d. Call the physician and wah for hiSlher advice

Answer Key:
-
I 2.
1. C
C
26.
27 .
A
B
51.
52.
C
C
76. E

- - - - - --
� 3. C C 53. B
28.
4. B -?.� - 8- 54. D '-

- 5. D 30. A 55. C
_ ,_ cD
6. C 31. C Su.
7. B 32- A 57.
8. A 33. C 58. B
�-
-- C
c--
34. A 59. C --
10.
11. A
35.
3(l.
C
C
60.
61.
C
D
·-
12- ,
13.
_ C
D
- _37.
38 .
A
c-
62.
63 .
B
A
14. D 39 C 64. B
15.
1 6.
C
C
4C
41.
C
6
- 6�.
66.
C
D
-
17 . D 42. D a1. C
H}�
1( ,-A
D 43, D 68. C
-

"J
44. C 69. C
7"o.- B 45. C 70. A

22.
D
D
46.
47.
D
C
71 .
72.
D
C
-
23. D 48. B 73. -� - -
D
-
I 24.
2�.
A
C
49
50.
A
D
74.
75.
D
B - -
 ANSWER KEY:
APOLLON, ET.AL.

- 1 D
CLINICAL CHEMI� TRY QUt;;STIONS
51 C 101 C 151 B 196 C
2 D 52 B 102 C 1!i2 A 197 B
3 B 53 D 103 D 153 A 1t8 A
4 B 54 B 104 C 1G4 D 199 B
:; A 55 A 10!5 C 1:.i5 A 200 D
6 C 56 B 106 P. 1!,;6 A 201 A
7 B 57 C 107 C 157 D 202 C
8 C 58 A 108 13 158 203 D
9 D 59 A 109 n 1 E 204 B
10 B 60 A 110 A 2 D 205 D
11 D 61 D 11 1 A 3 B 206 B
12 C 62 B 112 A 4 A 207 e;
13 A 63 A 1 13 A 5 C 208 B
14 B 64 B 1 14 B 1S9 8 209 C
15 C 65 A 115 D 100 8
16 A 66 A 1 16 D 101 8
·-
17 A 67 A 1 17 D 162 8
18 A 68 C 118 C 11>3 C
19 A 69 C 119 D 164 A
20 C 70 D 120 D 11>5
21 C 71 D 121 C 166
C
A
·-
22 C 72 D 122 C Hl7
23 A 73 C 123 l3 168
C
B
..
24 A 74 D 124 D 1r.9 D
25 D 75 C 125 D 170 A
26 C 76 A 126 D 171 A
27 B 77 A 127 A 172 B
28 C 78 C 128 A 173 B
29 C 79 B 129 C 174 C
30 B 80 D 130 A 175 C
31 B 81 B 131 D 176 D
32 A 82 D 132 C 177 C
33 D 83 A 133 A 178 B
34 D 84 A 134 B 179 B
35 C 85 C 135 C 180 8
36 C 86 C 136 B 181 D
37 B 87 C 137 D 182 C
38 C 88 B 138 A 1 83 B
39 B 89 A 139 C 184 t.
40 D 90 A 140 D 105 D
41 D 91 D 141 D 1fl6 A
42 A 92 C 1 42 B 187 D
43 B 93 C 143 D 188 B
44 C 94 A 144 , 0 189 B
45
"D
D 95 0 145 I C 190 C

--
46 96 A 146 . B 191 A
47 97 A 147 A 1 92 A
48 B 98 C ,48 D 193 A
49 B 99 A 149 C 194 0
50 A 100 B 150 0 195 B -
 hemistry Questior
Match Questions VIROLOGY BLOOD BANKI NG Questions
258 B 1 C 1 B 51 101
259 C 2 8 2 B 52
0
C 102
B
A
-
260 D 3 B 3 A �3 6 103 C
261 C 4 0 4 B 54 D 104 A
262 C 5 A 5 B 55 C 105 B
263 D 6 0 6 B 56 A 106 B
264 B 7 A 7 C 57 C · ,07 C
265 C 8 B 8 0 58 A 108 A
266 A 9 C 9 C 59 C 101 c__
267 B 10 A 10 A 60 A 1 10 A
268 0 11 C 11 8 61 A 1 11 0
'-- 269
,,
C 12 A 12 0 62 0 1 12 B
270 B 13 B 13 A 63 B 113
27 1 B 14 C 14 B 64 B 11✓• A
272 C 15 A 15 A 65 B 115 A
273 B 18 n 16 C. 66 C 1 1(, A
274 0 17 B 17 B 67 B 117 C
...I!._5 C 18 A 18 A 63 B 118 B
276 19
277
0
C 20
B
D
19
20
C
A
69
70
0
A
1 19
120
I,
C
-
278 D 21 A 21 D 71 D 121 C
279 C 22 B 22 A 72 A 122 C
280 0 23 B 23 :, 73 D 123 B
281 B 24 C 24 0 74 C 124 C
282 C 25 0 25 D 75 0 125 8
283 0 �6 C 26 C 76 0 126 0
284 D 27 B 27 B 77 D 127 D
28 D 28 D 78 A 128 D
26 A 29 C 79 A 129 C
30 C 30 A 80 B 130 C
31 A 31 C 81 A 131 A
32 A 32 B 82 0 132 D
33 C 33 C 83 C 133 B
34 C 84 B 134 A
35 D 85 C 135 A
36 E, 88 B 136 B
37 C. 87 C 137 ['
38 B 88 A 138 A
39 (' 89 C 139 D
40 A 90 B 140 A
41 D 91 A 141 D
42 B 92 8 142 D
43 A 93 A 143 C
44 B 94 C 144 A
45 B 95 A 145 B
46 A 9o B 146 0
47 B 97 C 147 B
48 R 98 D 148 D
49 J) 99 C 149 13
50 B 100 C 150 C:
151 C
152 6
153 A:;
154 A
155 C
·,56 C
 MYCOLOGY JRINALY31l
1 51
·-
C 210 C
2 D 52 C 21 1 D
53 ,-..212 _
3 D
·D-
D u
4 C 54 �213 A
5 A 55 A 214 C
6 C 53 A 215 I.
7 57
·-
B B 216 C
8 B 58 B 217 A
9 A 59 B 21d C
10 A 60 B 219
11 D 61 A 2.20
C
C
-
12 C 62 A 221 C
13 A 63 A 222 B
14 B 64 D :;:23 C
15 A 65 0 224 [I
16 A 66 C �223 A
17 D 67 C 226 A
18 D 68 C 227 C
19 B 69 D 228 D
20 A 70 B 229 C
21 B 71 A 230 A
22 B 72 D 231 A
23 A 73 D 232 D
24 D 74· D 233 A
25 B 75 B 234 B
26 B 76 C 235 B
27 B 77 B 236 C
28 D 78 B 237 D
29 A 79 A 238 D
30 A 80 C 239 B
31 81 240
"
B A [)
32 C 82 D 241
33 A 83 C 242 C
34 D 84 C :!43 D
35 C 85 C 244 B
36 C 86 A 245 C
37 r 87 A 246 D
38 A 88 _
A 247 D
39 B 89 B
_
248 A
41) A 90 C 24� C
41 A 91 D 250 B
�42 C 92 A 251
43 A 93 B 252
�-
D
44 C 94 I. 253
"·
B
45 D 95 D 254
46 D 96 A 255 B
47 B 97 B 256 C-
4b C 98 D 257 o_
19 C 99 A
50 C
 PARASITOLOGY Questions
1 B 51 B '01 B 151 0
�2 52
0 B 102 B 1 5.2 0
� 3 C 53 105 153
A A 0
4 D 54 B 104 C 154 -A
5 D 55 C 105 C 155 C
6 B 56 D 106 C, 156 B
7 B 57 C 107 A 157 C
8 C 58 A 108 0 158 A
9 A 59 A 109 A 159 A
1(' 0 60 0 110 A 160 A
11 C 61 B 111 A 161 B
i2
.,
0 62 0 1 12 0
13 C 63 B 1 13
14 B 64 C 114 C
15 65 A 115 B
16 0 66 C 1 16 A
17 C 67 0 11 7 C
18 B 68 0 118 A
19 D 69 A 119 D
70 C 120
�21' 0
B 71 C 121
A
C
22 B 72 D 122 B
23 0 73 A 123 C
24 A 74- A 124 D
�5 A 75 D 125 0
26 C 76 A 126 A
27 0 n 0 127 A
28 0 78 C 128 I)
29 D 79 8 129 \'
30 C 80 C 130 A
31 A 81 0 131 D
32 82 D 132 A
33 C 83 D 133 8
34 B 84 8 134 D
35 B 85 0 135 B
36 A 86 136 0
37 C 87 A 137 A
38 B 88 B 138 A
39 B 89 D 13£ C
40 C 90 A 140 [)
41 8 91 D 141 -::
42 D 92 C 142 A
43 0 93 A 143 3
44 8 94 8 144 D
45 D 95 8 145 A
46 C 96 0 146 G
47 D 97 A 147 0
48 A 98 B 148 A
49 A 99 A 1 49 (;
50 C 100 B 150 0
 BACTERIOLOGY Questions
1 51 D 92 A 134 D 164 ' C 214 B
2 52 A 93 D 135 D 165 C 215 C
3 C 53 A 94 C 136 A 166 !l 216 D
4 D 54 B 95 C 137 C 167 C 217 C
5 D 55 B 96 A 138 A 168 D 218 D
6 D 56 B 97 D 139 C 169 D 219 D
7 D 57 C 98 D 140 D 170 B 220 B
8 A 58 B 99 B 141 D 171 D 221 B
9 D 59 A 100 B 142 C 172 C 222 C
10 A 60 B 101 C 143 B 173 A 223 C.
11 C 61 B 102 C 144 B 174 D 224 B
12 62 103 145 175 :.125
o
B B C D D D
13 D 63 104 B 146 D 176 D 226
14 D 1 C 105 B 147 A 177 A 227 D
15
16 "
A 2
3
E
F
4 A&B
106
1')7
108
A
C
148
149
1 50
C
A
17'!
17!1
C
C
228
229
D
C'
17 B B C 180 C 230 C
18 A 5 D '.09 C 151 B 181 B
19 B 64 110 152 182
_ B D D
20 B 65 D 1 D 153 A 183 D
21 C 66 D 2 C 154 B 18( 9
22 A 67 D 3 B 1b5 D 185 B
23
24
A
C
68
69
C:
11 1
4 A
B
156
1 B&C
1 06
187
A
C
--
25 0 1 B 112 D 2 B 188 B
26 A 2 A 113 C 3 C 189 J..
27 B 3 B 114 D 4 A 190 C
28 D 4 C 115 B 5 A 191 A •
29 C 70 B 1 16 A 6 A 1')2 A
30 A 71 C 1 17 D 7 A 193 B
31 .-
0 72 A 118 B 8 B&C 194 A
32 C 73 B 1 19 0 9 A 195 B
33 B 74 A 120 C 10 ABC 196 A
34 A 75 A 1 21 D 1f7 A 197 A
35 D 76 D 122 A 1 58 B 198 C
36 B 77 D 123 D 1(,9 A 199 C
�3' A 78 B 124 C 1€'0 D 200 D
38 A 79 D 125 D 161 A 201 D
39 A 80 C 126 A 1e2 B 202 0
40 0 81 D 127 A 1'' 3 203 C
41 B 82 D 128 C 1 - B 11 - A 204 C
42 C 83 D 129 A 2 - A 1 2 - A::' 205 C
43 A 84 B 130 C 3 - 0 13 - A
131 "
206 B
44 D 85 0 A 4 - B 14 - C 207 D
45 A 86 B 132 5 - C& 1 5 - B 208 .0
46 0 87 D 1 C 6 - 8& 16 ·· BJ 209 C
47 B 88 A 1 C 7 - A 17 •• D 210 C
48 A 89 0 3 B 8 - C& 1 8 - 0 211 A
49 C 90 0 4 A 9 - C 19 - A> 212 D
50 D 91 A 133 D 10 - 0 20 - E 2 13 A
IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY Questions
1 C 51 B 101 n
2 A 52 B 102 0
3 A 53 C 103 B
4 (1 54 D 104 D
5 C 55 D 105 A
6 B 56 B 106 C
7 D 57 B 107 B
' A 58 D 108 B
�9 C 59 C 109 A
10 A 60 D 1 10 B
11 C 61 D 11 1 6
12 D 62 B 112 A
13 B 63 C 1 13 C
14 64 1 14
c
A ,(\ B
15 D 65 "� 1 15
16 B 66 A 116 C
17 B 67 A 117 'J
18 A 68 C 1 18 A-
19 C 69 B 1 19 B
20 C 70 D 120 B
21 B 71 B 121 A
22 D 72 A 122 D
23 A 73 B 123 C
24 C 74 C 124 D
25 B 75 B 125 C
26 B 76 C 126 A
27 D 77 C 127 ·�
-
28 C 78 A 128 �
29 B 79 D 1 29 9
30 C 80 C 130 A
31 A 81 D 131 t)
32 D 82 C 132 A
33 B 83 D 133 a
34 A 84 A 134 (I
35 C 85 D 135 D
36 B 86 B 136 '.)
37 C 87 C 137 C
38 0 88 D 138 A
39 D 89 D 1;19 B
40 D 90 A 140 C
41 C 91 C 141 A
42 B 92 B 142 C
43 D 93 B 1 43 D
44 C 94 A 144 D
45 C 95 B 145 B
46 B 96 D 146 C
47 C 97 A 147
48 A 98 A 148
49 C 99 A 149
50 I A 100 B 150
 HEMATOLOGY Questions
1 D 51 8 85 3 1 C
2 A 52 A 86 A 2 D
3 A 53 8 87 t3 3 D
4 A 54 88 C 4 A
5 D i D 89 C 5 B
G D 2 C 90 A 6 C
7 C 3 A 91 A 7 B
8 B 4 B 92 A 8 D
9 B 55 93 A 9 0
10
11
C
A
1
2
C
A
il4
95
B
C
10
11
C
A
·-
\ 12 C 3 0 96 A 12 0
13
-c
-
D 4 B 97 0 13
-
/
14 B 56 98 A 14 ··- A
15 A 1 C 99 A 15 8
16 D 2 A 100 D 16 A
17 A 3 B 101 C 17 C
18 D 4 D 102 B 18 C
19 A 57 B 103 B 10 C
20 C 58 A 104 A . 20 C
21 F' 59 C 1J5 B 21 D
22 Iii 60 D 106 ' B 22 C
?3 B 61 C ·,07 C 23 B
24 C 62 C 1 08 C 24 B
A 63 C 109 0 25 C
�
26 D 64 C 1 10 C 26 D
27 A 65 A 1�1 D 27 C
28 A 66 B 112 B 28 A
29' B 67 B 113 B 28 C
30 A 68 B 1 14 C 3J A
31 C 69 D 115 B 31 D
3� B 70 D 116 B 3:2 B
33 A 71 C 117 B 33 D
34 C 72 D 118 J. i
35 A 73 D 119
A
,\ 33
·-
D
D
36 A 7- 4· - - D 120 C Jo
- -· c,-

--
a7 B 75 D 121 C 1
38 B 76 122 A 2 F
39 0 1 0 123 3 A
40 B 2 C 124 4 C
41 A 3 B 5 B
4··-
' C 4 A 6 E
/43 A 77 C 7 D
44 C 78 0 8 H
45 C 79 C 37 C
46 B 80 B
,._47 C 81 C
3J
3')
A
A
48 A 82 C 40 0
.
49 C 83 0 41 A
50 D 84 0 42 C
41 A
44 A