1 1

Reading Test 6
65 Minutes, 52 Questions
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

.Directions.

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each
passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.
The following passage is adapted from Homestead
on the Hillside, a novel by Mary James Holmes
written in 1855.
It stood at some distance from the road, and on
the bright green lawn in front were many majestic
forest trees on which had fallen the lights and
Line shadows of more than a century and under whose
5 branches oft, in the olden time, the Indian warrior
had paused from the chase until the noonday heat
was passed. Leading from the street to the house
was a wide, graveled walk bordered with shrubs,
and peeping out from the wilderness of vines and
10 climbing roses were the white walls of the huge
building, which was surrounded on all sides by a
covered walkway.
Many and hallowed were the associations
connected with that old homestead. On the
15 curiously-carved seats beneath the tall shade trees
were cut the names of some who there had lived,
and loved, and passed away. Through the little gate
at the foot of the garden and just across the brook,
whose clear waters leaped and laughed in the glad
20 sunshine and then went dancing away in the
woodland below, was a quiet spot where gracefully
the willow tree was bending, where the wild
sweetbrier was blooming, and where, too, lay
sleeping those who once gathered round the
25 hearthstone and basked in the sunlight which ever
seemed resting upon the Homestead on the Hillside.
But a darker day was coming; a night was
approaching when a deep gloom would overshadow
the homestead and the loved ones within its borders.
30 The servants, ever superstitious, now whispered
mysteriously that the spirits of the departed returned
nightly to their old accustomed place and that dusky
hands from the graves of the slumbering dead were
uplifted, as if to warn the master of the domain of
35 the desolation that was to come. For more than a
year the wife of Ernest Hamilton had been dying—
slowly, surely dying—and though when the skies
were brightest and the sunshine warmest she
seemed better, each morning's light still revealed
40 some fresh ravage the disease had made, until at last
there was no hope, and the anxious group that
watched her knew full well that before long among
them would be a vacant chair and, in the family
burying ground, an added grave.
45 One evening Mrs. Hamilton seemed more than
usually restless, and requested her daughters to
leave her, so that she might compose herself to
sleep. Scarcely was she alone when with cat-like
tread there glided through the doorway the dark
50 figure of a woman, who advanced toward the
bedside, noiselessly as a serpent would steal to its
ambush. She was apparently forty-five years of age,
and dressed in deep mourning, which seemed to
increase the marble whiteness of her face. Her eyes,
55 large, black, and glittering, fastened themselves
upon the invalid with a gaze so intense that Mrs.
Hamilton's hand involuntarily sought the bell-rope,
to summon someone else to her room.

CONTINUE
 1 1
But before the bell could be rung, a strangely . .2………………………………………. .. ……….
60 sweet, musical voice fell on her ear and arrested her
movements. "Pardon me for intruding," said the Based on the passage, the house in which Mrs.
stranger, "and allow me to introduce myself. I am Hamilton lived could accurately be described as
Mrs. Carter, who not long ago moved to the village. all of the following EXCEPT:
I have heard of your illness, and wishing to render
65 you any assistance in my power, I have ventured, A) large.
unannounced, into your presence, hoping that I am B) old.
not unwelcome."
C) dark.
Mrs. Hamilton had heard of a widow lady, D) stately.
who with an only daughter had recently move to the
70 village, which lay at the foot of the long hill on
which stood the old homestead. She had heard, too,
that Mrs. Carter, though rather singular in some . .3………………………………………. .. ……….
respects, was unusually benevolent, spending much
As used in line 16, “cut” most nearly means
time in visiting the sick and needy and, as far as
75 possible, ministering to their discomfort. A) chopped.
Extending her hand, she said, "I know you by B) sliced.
reputation, Mrs. Carter, and feel greatly pleased that C) slashed.
you have thought to visit me. Please be seated."
D) carved.
This invitation was superfluous, for with the
80 air of a person entirely at home, the lady had seated
herself and, as the room was rather warm, she threw . .4………………………………………. .. ……….
back her bonnet, disclosing to view a mass of rich
brown hair, which made her look several years Based on the passage, it is reasonable to conclude
younger than she really was. Nothing could have that
85 been more apparently kind or sincere than her
words of sympathy; nothing more soothing than the A) Mrs. Hamilton’s daughters knew Mrs. Carter.
sound of her voice. And when she for a moment
B) Mrs. Hamilton was loved by her family.
raised Mrs. Hamilton, while adjusting her pillows,
the sick woman declared that never before had C) Mrs. Hamilton always slept alone.
90 anyone done it so gently or so well. D) Mrs. Carter was a registered nurse.

. .1………………………………………. .. ………. . .5………………………………………. .. ……….

Based on the passage, Mrs. Hamilton and Mrs. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
Carter were answer to the previous question?

A) close friends. A) Lines 30-35 (“The servants … come”)

B) new acquaintances. B) Lines 35-44 (“For more … grave”)
C) arch enemies. C) Lines 45-48 (“One evening … sleep”)
D) estranged siblings. D) Lines 64-67 (“I have … unwelcome”)

CONTINUE
 1 1
. .6………………………………………. .. ………. ...9………………………………………. .. ……….

As used in line 56, “gaze” most nearly means The rhetorical effect of the language in lines 79-
81 (“for with … herself”) is to
A) look.
B) view. A) describe Mrs. Carter’s confident nature.
C) peek. B) support an assertion made earlier in the
sentence.
D) glare.
C) offer another example of Mrs. Carter’s
nurturing disposition.
D) introduce a secondary theme.

. .7………………………………………. .. ……….
. .10 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Based on the passage, when Mrs. Hamilton first
noticed Mrs. Carter in her room, Mrs. Hamilton The passage was written from the point of view
of
A) felt relieved.
B) became frightened. A) Mrs. Hamilton.
C) froze with fear. B) Mrs. Carter.
D) laughed lightheartedly. C) an all-knowing, third-party narrator.
D) one of Mrs. Hamilton’s servants.

. .8………………………………………. .. ……….

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 54-58 (“Her eyes … room”)
B) Lines 68-71 (“Mrs. Hamilton … homestead”)
C) Lines 71-75 (“She had … discomfort”)
D) Lines 84-87 (“Nothing could … voice”)

CONTINUE
 1 1
Questions 11-21 are based on the following
passage and supplementary material.
This passage discusses the emergence of leisure
time as a facet of American life.
When choosing ways to spend leisure time
“watching” or “listening,” Americans find
themselves with an overwhelming number of
Line options. Television and cable networks, streaming
5 services, and websites provide a wide variety of
programs. Big studios produce new movies each
year, while small, independent filmmakers have
access to a number of free ways to distribute their
work. Professional and college sports attract both
10 live and at-home audiences in droves. Music and
books of all kinds are digitally deliverable and
readily available to tech-savvy Americans. And
big, small, and online stores provide seemingly
limitless options for those who still like to hold a
15 book or play a record.
This incredibly varied market for American
leisure time and disposable income exists because
many citizens have time that is not allocated to
work or household tasks. This was not always the
20 case. In the 19th century, some people spent nearly
every waking moment performing work vital to
their survival. However, in the 1920s, a number of
developments converged to create the beginnings of
a leisure-time culture that resembles that of today's
25 America.
In the late 19th century, social reformers
underscored the notion that leisure time was
valuable to the health and welfare of society. They
made their case primarily in cities, where the
30 Industrial Revolution had brought on rapid societal
change and several deleterious effects. The
proliferation of factories created poor air quality.
Mechanization of work processes and transportation
advances created a faster pace to everyday life.
35 Crowded living conditions made privacy an elusive
commodity. As a result, many people, particularly
those who had migrated to cities from rural areas,
struggled to adapt to the more hectic and demanding
nature of urban living.
40 Recognizing that city life was exhausting city
dwellers, social reformers campaigned for changes.
In particular, they championed the establishment of
parks within city limits. These green oases allowed
city residents peaceful spaces for relaxation, helping
45 them ward off stress and maintain happiness. By
the 1920s, the idea that people needed leisure time
was supported by the era's leading mental health
professionals and gaining currency among
Americans.
50 At the same time, the unionization of the
workplace began to free up the leisure time that
Americans acknowledged as a necessity. At the
outset of the Industrial Revolution, factory owners
employed laborers willing to work grueling shifts of
55 up to 14 hours a day, six days a week. Conditions
were often dangerous. Workers toiled in buildings
that were hastily constructed, poorly lit, and
inadequately ventilated. In the late 1870s, laborers
began organizing themselves in an attempt to create
60 better working environments. By the 1920s, thanks
to productive negotiations between union leaders
and management, the 40-hour work week became
the norm and people had more free time to enjoy.
With time at their disposal, Americans of the
65 1920s turned to emerging communications
technologies for entertainment. Thanks to the
telegraph and, later, the telephone, reporters could
relay stories from almost anywhere to their home
newspapers. People began to take interest in
70 sporting events all over the country, from horse
races in Lexington, Kentucky, to boxing matches in
Chicago, Illinois, and college football games in
New Haven, Connecticut.
Meanwhile, massive audiences were enjoying
75 a number of other leisure time entertainments. The
phonograph brought jazz music directly into homes.
Radio broadcasts ushered in an era of live
entertainment delivered straight to American living
rooms. Movies were released for nationwide
80 distribution to audiences enthralled with the stars of
the day. These innovations fostered a sense of
interconnectivity between Americans. Previously,
cultural events had been geographically isolated
instances; by the late 1920s, however, listeners and
85 viewers from around the country could experience
radio and movie productions at the same time,
fashioning a truly collective experience.
CONTINUE
 1 1
The average American in the 21st century
wastes about five hours every day. Contemporary
90 observers often reflect that many people rely on
electronic devices for both work and leisure,
making the break between the two more muddied.
Perhaps this observation will eventually lead to a
revolution in leisure time activities, in much the
95 same way that the social observers at the turn of the
20th century influenced their world.
. .13 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
According to the passage, which of the
following contributed to the increase in leisure
time for American workers back in the 1920s?
A) A reduction in household tasks
B) The construction of city parks
C) The Industrial Revolution

Leisure Time on an Average Day for an D) The formation of labor unions

Average American 15 Years Old or Older
in 2013
Relaxing and thinking
(18 min)
Watching . .14 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Using computer television
(26 min) (164 min) Which choice provides the best evidence for the
Exercising answer to the previous question?
(18 min)
Reading
A) Lines 16-19 (“This incredibly … tasks”)
(19 min) B) Lines 28-31 (“They made … effects”)
Socializing Total time = C) Lines 43-45 (“These green … happiness”)
(39 min) 5 hours (or D) Lines 50-52 (“At the same … necessity”)
300 min)
Other leisure activities (16 min)

. .11 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Of the many types of leisure activities, the first
paragraph focuses mainly on
A) the digital and the visual.
B) the visual and the auditory.
C) the live and the prerecorded.
D) the in-home and the out-of-doors.
. .12 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
As used in line 20, “case” most nearly means
A) situation.
B) predicament.
C) cause.
D) concern.
. .15 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Based on the graphic, which of the following
statements is accurate about Americans on an
average day in 2013?
A) Children under the age of 15 had more free
time than most adults.
B) Most adults found exercising relaxing
and a good time to think.
C) The average adult spent more than twice as
much time socializing than reading.
D) People over 14 years old spent more than
half of an average day watching television.
CONTINUE
 1 1
. .16 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .19 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

What is the rhetorical effect of the third, fourth,
and fifth paragraphs (lines 26-63)?
A) They introduce and expand upon a
secondary theme.
B) They foreshadow the increase in leisure
time that Americans experienced
throughout the 1900s.
C) They expand upon and, thus, support an
assertion made at the end of the second
paragraph.
D) They highlight the need for city reform
during the Industrial Revolution.
In order to better align the language of the
passage with the graph, the phrase “wastes about
5 hours” in line 89 should be changed to which
of the following?
A) wastes exactly 300 minutes
B) watches over two hours of television, while
sitting on the couch,
C) enjoys about 5 hours of leisure time
D) gets about 300 minutes of free time every
evening

. .20 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

. .17 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
As used in line 92, “break” most nearly means
The passage most strongly supports which of the
A) pause.
following statements about the 1920s in
America? B) distinction.
C) rest.
A) Americans were happier than they had been
in the 19th century. D) breach.
B) American workers earned less money than
they did in the 19th century.
C) Regardless of where they lived, Americans
had more shared experiences. . .21 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

D) Jazz became a very popular genre of music. The passage can best be described as
A) persuasive.
B) informational.
. .18 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
C) promotional.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) clinical.
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 43-45 (“These green … happiness”)
B) Lines 58-60 (“In the late … environments”)
C) Lines 75-76 (“The phonograph … homes”)
D) Lines 82-87 (“Previously … experience”)

CONTINUE
 1 1
Questions 22-32 are based on the following
passages.
The following passages discuss issues related to
gene therapy.
Passage 1
If the transition from concept to practical
application proceeds smoothly, gene therapy will be
hailed as one of the most incredible breakthroughs
Line ever made in medicine. The science of gene
5 therapy is straightforward. Human beings have
genetic information in their cells that regulates
fundamental biological processes. One of these
processes is protein construction. Proteins are vital
to cellular function, as well as the construction and
10 regulation of the body’s tissues and organs. Genetic
information also regulates mitosis, a form of cell
division. Mitosis produces cells that contribute to
human growth and replace non-functioning cells.
Problems occur in the body when genes
15 mutate, or change permanently. These changes can
affect protein construction and mitosis. When these
processes fail to run smoothly, severe health
complications can arise. For example, organ
function may be compromised when the proteins
20 that make up the organ are not structured correctly.
Through gene therapy, doctors can introduce a
normal copy of a gene into the body, compensating
for the mutated gene. Genes that are injected
directly into cells do not usually function, so the
25 normal copy requires a carrier, called a vector. The
vector, in theory, would be a virus, which would
infect cells and deliver the new gene effectively.
Scientists would alter the virus that serves as a
vector to ensure that it does not cause a disease.
30 Once the new gene is delivered, it would begin
replicating during mitosis.
There are technical challenges with gene
therapy. Doctors will need to discover ways to
target specific cells and will also have to be sure
35 that the body can control the new genes in the same
way that it controls existing genes. However, the
promise of a technique that can overcome some of
the most lethal conditions known to man is too
inviting not to explore fully.
Passage 2
40 When analyzing the suitability of gene therapy,
members of the scientific community must recall
that, throughout history, scientific breakthroughs
have opened up new and unanticipated sets of
questions. While the theory behind gene therapy
45 seems sound, the treatment raises serious ethical
issues that must be considered carefully and
thoughtfully.
First, certain gene therapies create new genes
that can be passed on to future generations.
50 Scientists are uncertain about what effects these
new genes might have. Could there be long-term
side effects that are currently unknown? Could a
developing fetus be affected by a new gene in
unpredictable ways? Doctors should only consider
55 implementing gene therapy when they possess
ironclad answers to these questions.
Second, the cost of gene therapy would be
prohibitive to all but the wealthiest members of
society, given the specialized equipment, technical
60 knowledge, and trained medical personnel needed
to carry out the procedures. This fact raises the
kinds of questions that medical ethicists dread. Is it
fair only to treat those patients in a certain
socioeconomic class while ignoring those in other
65 classes? Alternatively, assuming widespread
access, many patients will be unable to pay for their
care, which means that society may have to bear the
cost. Insurance companies might only pay for gene
therapy if they are permitted to charge higher
70 premiums. And government subsidies of treatment
would likely mean higher taxes for all citizens.
Finally, beyond the life-threatening conditions
that gene therapy could address, it could also be
used to "enhance" humanity. People could, in
75 theory, alter their genes in order to produce
offspring with heightened intelligence, strength, or
athletic ability. Such uses could enforce the idea
that certain characteristics are less desirable and less
valued than others, ushering in the potential for
80 discrimination. Given the struggles for dignity that
various groups have endured over the centuries,
introducing a new way to weed out "undesirables"
seems horribly misguided.
CONTINUE
 1 1
. .22 …………………………… . ..… … …. . .25 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Based on Passage 1, it is reasonable to conclude According to Passage 1, successful gene therapy

that would involve all of the following EXCEPT:

A) mitosis controls aging in humans.
B) gene therapy is not yet a reality.
C) gene therapy may replace the need for
medicine.
D) gene mutation always leads to negative
consequences.
A) a virus that does not cause disease.
B) the replication of altered genes.
C) a way to target specific genes.
D) an unusually small syringe.

. .26 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

According to the passage, which of the

following is most likely responsible for
. .23 ………………………………… . ..…… …. controlling “existing genes” (line 36) in the
body?
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question? A) The brain
B) Genetic information in cells
A) Lines 1-4 (“If the transition … medicine”)
C) Viruses
B) Lines 12-13 (“Mitosis … cells”)
D) The body’s tissues and organs
C) Lines 14-16 (“Problems … mitosis”)
D) Lines 21-23 (“Through gene … gene”)

. .27 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Based on the passages, with which of the

following statements would both authors most
. .24 ………………………………… . ..…… …. likely agree?

As used in line 22, “normal” most nearly means A) Gene therapy is theoretically possible.
B) Gene therapy will likely lead to many
A) healthy. unforeseen consequences.
C) If scientists ask the right questions, gene
B) routine.
therapy will not lead to negative
consequences.
C) familiar.
D) Some scientists are unethical and will use
D) mediocre. gene therapy solely for the purpose of
making money.

CONTINUE
 1 1
. .28 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .31 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

In contrast with the author of Passage 1, the
author of Passage 2 focuses more on
A) the practical aspects of gene therapy.
B) the danger of using viruses as vectors.
C) the possible negative consequences of gene
therapy.
D) the theoretical aspects of gene therapy.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 48-52 (“First, certain … unknown”)
B) Lines 52-54 (“Could a … ways”)
C) Lines 57-61 (“Second, the … procedures”)
D) Lines 74-77 (“People could … ability”)

. .29 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .32 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

As used in line 41, “recall” most nearly means Which of the following best characterizes the
two passages?
A) remember.
B) recollect. A) Passage 1 is practical, yet hopeful, while
Passage 2 is largely cautionary.
C) consider.
B) Passage 1 is theoretical, but straightforward,
D) recount. while Passage 2 is unwaveringly cynical.
C) Passage 1 is informational, yet inspirational,
while Passage 2 is openly provocative.
D) Passage 1 is both practical and theoretical,
while Passage 2 is cautiously optimistic.
. .30 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

The author of Passage 2 addresses which of the

following aspects of gene therapy?
A) Potential tax loopholes for the wealthiest
members of society
B) The creation of a super-race of humans that
could self-destruct
C) Hereditary concerns that could negatively
impact generations to come
D) Issues related to neonatal care and elder
care.

CONTINUE
 1 1
Questions 33-42 are based on the following passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from a speech
entitled "The Economic Power of Women's
Empowerment," delivered by Christine LaGarde,
managing director of the International Monetary
Fund, in Tokyo on September 12, 2014.
The great Japanese writer and feminist, Raicho
Hiratsuka, once famously wrote: “In the beginning,
woman was truly the sun: an authentic person.”
Line Today more than ever, the global economy needs
5 precisely this kind of radiant sun—to provide light
and nourishment; to provide healing; to dry out the
swamps of poverty and unrest.
The reason is obvious. Seven years into the
worst global financial crisis since the Great
10 Depression, the recovery is still too tepid and too
turbulent. And even after the crisis abates, we will
face grave challenges to growth—as a slower “new
normal” sets in, as populations age, and as
economic disparities increase.
15 Given these challenges, we will need all the
economic growth and ingenuity we can get in the
years ahead. Thankfully, a key part of the solution
is staring us right in the face—unleashing the
economic power of women. Bringing the world’s
20 largest excluded group into the fold.
Let me start with the landscape of exclusion
and why it is so harmful. To some degree or other,
women everywhere face barriers to flourishing and
achieving their potential. Gender gaps in labor
25 force participation exist all over the world—ranging
from 12 percent in the economies of countries that
are members of the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD) to 50 percent
in the Middle East and North Africa. With female
30 participation in the workforce 20 percent lower than
male participation, Japan falls in between.
Another global reality: when women do
participate, they tend to be stuck in low-paying,
low-status jobs. Globally, women earn only three-
35 quarters as much as men—this is true even with the
same level of education, and in the same
occupation. Again, this is an acute issue in Japan,
with a gender wage gap of 29 percent—on the high
side for an OECD economy.
40 Women also tend to be overrepresented in less
secure jobs—such as informal, temporary, or part-
time work. This is partly because they want more
flexible work options, and partly because they are
locked out of higher-status careers. We can see this
45 clearly in Japan. Many large companies reserve the
permanent positions—the coveted sogo shoku—for
men, and women flock to lower-paying and less
secure jobs—the ippan shoku.
Globally, women also tend to be locked out of
50 leadership positions, where gender seems to matter
more than ability. Women make up only 5 percent
of Fortune 500 CEOs. They account for only 24
percent of senior management positions around the
world—these numbers are fairly consistent across
55 Asia, Europe, Latin America, and North America.
In Japan, it is 9 percent.
Clearly, the global economy is not using its
productive resources very effectively. It is tossing
away economic growth at a time when it cannot
60 afford such wanton waste. This needs to change.
The benefits of greater inclusion are clear—not just
for women, but for all of us. For a start, women are
the ultimate agents of aggregate demand,
accounting for 70 percent of global consumer
65 spending. So if we want growth, let us put women
in the driver’s seat.
This brings to mind something that the
Japanese author Osamu Dazai once said: “the term
gender equality means that the status of men is
70 raised to the status of women.” This might be true,
but, in the case of the labor market, we have to start
with raising women to the position of men! We
know that eliminating gender gaps in labor force
participation can lead to big jumps in income per
75 capita. This is true everywhere in the world, but
especially in lagging regions like the Middle East
and North Africa, and South Asia.
We also know from the business side that
prejudice does not pay. Companies that are open to
80 women do better than companies that are closed.
For example, the Fortune 500 companies with the
best records of promoting women have been shown
to be 18 to 69 percent more profitable than the
median firms in their areas.
CONTINUE
 1 1
. .33 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .36 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

The primary function of the second paragraph Which choice provides the best evidence for the
(lines 8-14) is to answer to the previous question?
A) cite a reason why women should be A) Lines 24-29 (“Gender … North Africa”)
empowered.
B) Lines 32-34 (“Another global … jobs”)
B) offer an example of a global crisis that
C) Lines 40-42 (“Women also … work”)
women can end.
D) Lines 51-56 (“Women … percent”)
C) highlight the severity of the global financial
crisis.
D) support an assertion made in the previous
sentence.
. .37 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

According to the passage, which of the

following individuals is LEAST likely to hold a
. .34 ………………………………… . ..…… …. senior management position at a company?

As it is used in line 18, “unleashing” most nearly A) A man from Europe

means B) A women from North America
A) untying. C) A man from Asia
B) releasing D) A women from Japan
C) supporting.
D) unloading.

. .38 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

The primary rhetorical effect of both the third

. .35 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Based on the passage, it is reasonable to
conclude that, in countries around the world,
women
A) are forced to work low-paying jobs.
B) represent a larger percent of the workforce
than men.
C) tend to fill more temporary and part-time
jobs than men.
D) have lost interest in senior management
positions at large, global companies.
paragraph (lines 15-20) and the eighth paragraph
(lines 57-66) is to
A) transition from the discussion of a problem
to a discussion of a solution.
B) transition from the identification of a
problem to a detailed discussion of the
problem.
C) introduce counterexamples that are
summarily discounted.
D) delineate multiple solutions to the global
economic crisis discussed in the second
paragraph.

CONTINUE
 1 1
. .39 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .41 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

As used in line 78, “side” most nearly means Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) perspective.
B) phase. A) Lines 49-51 (“Globally … ability”)
C) border. B) Lines 61-62 (“The benefits … all of us”)
D) frontier. C) Lines 70-72 (“This might … men”)
D) Lines 79-84 (“Companies … area”)

. .40 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .42 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

The passage suggests that companies that accept
women employees at all levels
A) are virtually nonexistent.
B) are found in North America only.
C) tend to be environmentally sustainable and
highly profitable.
D) tend to earn more money than similar
companies that do not welcome women.
The primary purpose of the passage is to
A) inspire women globally who are stuck in
low-paying, thankless jobs.
B) discuss issues related to the economic
empowerment of women globally.
C) prove that most world cultures are
dominated by men who are not smart
enough to realize that women are valuable.
D) propose a solution to the global economic
crisis.

CONTINUE
 1 1
Questions 43-52 are based on the following
passage and supplementary material.
This passage discusses the importance of learning
about Near-Earth Asteroids.
The solar system, as most elementary school
students learn, consists of eight planets revolving
around the Sun. This simplistic representation of
Line Earth's cosmic neighborhood neglects the presence
5 of many other objects of significant interest,
including what astronomers call "Near-Earth
Objects," or NEOs. An NEO is an object that,
during its orbit, can come within one Astronomical
Unit (AU) of Earth. (One AU is equal to 93 million
10 miles, or the distance between Earth and the Sun.)
NEOs are either comets (NECs) or asteroids
(NEAs). NECs are commonly made of frozen
water embedded with dust particles that formed in
the outer reaches of the solar system. NEAs are
15 chunks of rock that formed in an area within the
orbit of Mars and Jupiter and continue to exist there.
The number of known NEAs continues to rise
almost daily, as more sophisticated stargazing and
satellite technologies yield impressive results. Each
20 new discovery adds to a body of knowledge that is
important for several reasons. One is that the
asteroids hold important clues about the formation
of the solar system, which scientists estimate
occurred some 4.6 billion years ago. Astronomers
25 believe that NEAs are essentially the leftover pieces
of the process of agglomeration, or consolidation of
cosmic material, that formed the inner planets of the
solar system: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. By
determining where these asteroids are and
30 positioning their observation instruments
accordingly, astronomers can learn which chemicals
formed the primordial mixture that gave rise to our
planet.
The composition of NEAs can also offer
35 insight into how life on Earth arose. Astronomers
believe that, for the first billion years of its
existence, Earth was steadily bombarded by a storm
of asteroids and comets. The heat released during
these collisions made Earth's surface too harsh to
40 support life. Eventually, a small window of time
opened during which the existing chemical elements
on Earth combined with those delivered by the
incoming projectiles to create living organisms.
The ability of life to sustain itself under these
45 conditions should have been extremely difficult,
because the amount of water and carbon-based
molecules that existed would not have been
sufficient for the task. Scientists speculate that
perhaps a subsequent, less intense series of
50 collisions between Earth and various asteroids and
comets delivered just enough material to create
conditions under which life could continue. A
detailed analysis of the compositions of different
NEAs will likely help scientists develop a clearer
55 picture of what happened during the window of
time when life on Earth was in its infancy.
Of course, the most urgent reason to learn
about NEAs is to determine how close one might
actually come to Earth. Potentially Hazardous
60 Asteroids, or PHAs, are large NEAs that come
within 0.05 AUs, or about 4.7 million miles from
Earth's orbit. Astronomers have identified over
1,500 PHAs with orbits that intersect Earth’s orbit
around the Sun. Thus, any one of these PHAs could
65 potentially collide with Earth, causing catastrophic
damage. Luckily, scientists have predicted that
such a collision between Earth and one of the
known PHAs is not likely to occur for a few million
years. However, because astronomers are
70 discovering NEAs so frequently, the small
possibility of a PHA disrupting life on Earth in the
near future still exists.
Known Near-Earth Asteroids
January 1980 – December 2014
12000
10000
All NEAs
Number
8000
6000
Large NEAs
4000
2000
0
Year
CONTINUE
 1 1
. .43 ………………………………… . ..…… …. . .46 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Which of the following most accurately According to the passage, learning about the
describes the focus of the passage? composition of NEAs may help scientists
determine
A) The solar system
B) Near-Earth Objects A) when our solar system was formed.
C) Near-Earth Comets B) how our solar system was formed.
D) Near-Earth Asteroids C) the primordial mixture that formed Pluto.
D) the mixture of elements that formed Earth.

. .44 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

. .47 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
The rhetorical effect of the third sentence of the
passage (lines 7-9) is to Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) introduce a unit of astronomical distance.
B) define a term introduced in the previous A) Lines 21-24 (“One is that … years ago”)
sentence. B) Lines 24-28 (“Astronomers … Mars”)
C) remind the reader that many objects in C) Lines 28-33 (“By determining … planet”)
space travel along orbital paths.
D) Lines 34-35 (“The composition … arose”)
D) support an assertion made in the previous
sentence.

. .48 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

. .45 ………………………………… . ..…… …. As used in line 40, “support” most nearly means

As used in line 24, “some” most nearly means A) bolster.

B) hold.
A) merely.
C) sustain.
B) roughly.
D) continue.
C) relatively.
D) only.

CONTINUE
 1 1
. .49 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Based on the passage, scientists are interested in
learning more about NEAs for both theoretical
and practical reasons. Which of the following is
the primary practical reason discussed in the
passage?
A) To understand how life came to be on
Earth
B) To determine the age and composition of
our solar system
C) To know exactly how many PHAs cross
paths with Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
D) To determine whether any PHAs are on a
collision course with Earth
.. 50 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 21-24 (“One … years ago”)
B) Lines 28-33 (“By determining … planet”)
C) Lines 62-64 (“Astronomers … the Sun”)
D) Lines 64-66 (“Thus, any one … damage”)
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work in this section only.
Do not return to any other section in the test.
. .51 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Which of the following offers the best
explanation for why, according to the graphic,
the number of known large NEAs was equal to
the number of all known NEAs back in 1983?
A) Small NEAs did not exist in 1983.
B) Scientists were only interested in large
NEAs back in 1983.
C) Asteroid detection equipment was not
highly sophisticated back in 1983 and,
therefore, only large NEAs were detectible.
D) Starting in 1997, large NEAs began to
crumble, resulting in many smaller NEAs.
. .52 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
If a curve labeled “Known PHAs” were added to
the graphic, such curve would most likely
indicate that the number of Known PHAs in
2010 was which of the following?
A) Greater than 6000
B) Equal to 6000
C) Between 1250 and 6000
D) Less than 1250
 2 2
Writing Test 6
35 Minutes, 44 Questions
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

.Directions.

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will
consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other
questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more
graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves
the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of
standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that
option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. . .1………………………………………. ..……….

Urban Planners: Facilitators of Revitalization A) NO CHANGE

In most cities across the United States, B) the city and the citizens
revitalization is a phenomenon that occurs C) the city and the group

constantly. When an enterprise or idea fails or D) they

becomes outdated, it is eventually replaced by a

new enterprise or idea. In Manhattan, for example,
elevated train tracks that opened in 1934 fell into
disuse in the 1980s. In 1999, a group of citizens
approached the city about revitalizing and
repurposing a 1.5-mile stretch of the tracks.
Together, ..1.. the city and the citizens who
approached the city turned the abandoned railway
into an elevated public “green space” that includes a
walking trail that is ..2.. great for exercising.
. .2………………………………………. ..……….
The writer wants to end the paragraph with a
phrase that helps explain why the elevated space
is called a “green space.” Given that all are true,
which of the following phrases best accomplishes
the writer’s goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) the envy of environmentalists
C) lined with plants, shrubs, and small trees
D) made of a synthetic material

CONTINUE
 2 2
Urban planners are professionals who are often . .3………………………………………. .. ……….
responsible for managing revitalization projects like A) NO CHANGE
Manhattan’s elevated walkway, which was formally B) view; They examine
named the High Line. Many urban planners study a C) view, examining
project from the municipality's point of ..3.. view, D) view: examining
they examine a project's potential economic and
environmental impacts. In the case of the High . .4………………………………………. ..……….
Line, the city's urban planners determined that the Which of the following alternatives to the
project was environmentally ..4.. sound. They also underlined word is most acceptable?

predicted that the tourism it would generate would A) bullish

help the Chelsea neighborhood economically. B) sturdy
C) loud
About 65 percent of all urban planners are
D) friendly
employed by local governments.

. .5……………………………………… .
Other urban planners approach a project from
the vantage point of a developer, corporation, or
..5.. that of another interested party, assessing a
site's readiness to accommodate a new enterprise or
function. Such urban planners work with
government officials to ensure that a proposed site
. 6……………………………………….
is fully approved for the new intended use.
..6.. Urban planners were an integral part of the
High Line project, for example.
..……….
A) NO CHANGE
B) the vantage point of another interested party
C) other interested party
D) interested party
.. ……….
The writer would like to offer an example to help
the reader understand the role of urban planners
who are not employed by local governments.
Which of the following sentences would best
accomplish the writer’s goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) With the High Line, urban planners
representing local citizens developed a plan
to transform the obsolete tracks into a
“cityscape” feature worthy of local pride.
C) For example, urban planners were employed
by a citizen group interested in the High Line
project.
D) Some urban planners even donated their time
to make the High Line project a huge
success.

CONTINUE
 2 2
Most urban planners hold master's degrees in
the field. About 100 universities nationwide offer
master’s degrees in some aspect of urban planning.
Most graduate students find creative ways to pay for
their education, like serving as student teachers for
undergraduate courses. ..7.. Urban-planning
graduate students hold all kinds of undergraduate
degrees, but most have majored or minored in
economics, public policy, or political science.
Master's programs typically involve ..8.. seminars,
and workshops where students analyze planning
problems and propose solutions. This format
..9.. mimics the group dynamics that often come
into play during real urban planning work.
. .7……………………………………… . ..……….
The writer is considering deleting the preceding
sentence. Should the writer make the deletion?
A) No, because it contains information that is
critical to understanding the paragraph.
B) No, because it bolsters the credibility of the
writer.
C) Yes, because it lacks statistical data to
support its assertion.
D) Yes, because it contains information that is
not critical to the focus of the paragraph.
. 8………………………………………. .. ……….
A) NO CHANGE
B) seminars and workshops where
C) seminars, and workshops during which
D) seminars and workshops during which

. 9………………………………………. .. ……….

Which of the following alternatives to the

underlined word is LEAST acceptable?
A) mirrors
B) replicates
C) simulates
D) belittles

CONTINUE
 2 2
Urban planners have to be able to work well ...10 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
with competing factions that may have radically A) NO CHANGE
different ideas about how a city should proceed with B) forge, compromises, people with strong
a given project or whether the project should verbal and leadership skills
proceed at all. Given the need to build consensus C) forge compromises, people with strong
verbal and leadership skills
and ..10.. forge compromises people with strong
D) forge compromises, strong people, with
verbal, and leadership skills are essential. Analytical verbal and leadership skills
skills are also important because urban planners
must often use data and information from many
different sources to determine the feasibility or direction
of a project. When applied well, the skills of an urban
planner can ..11.. have a tremendous impact on a . .11 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
community, positively influencing the cycle of A) NO CHANGE
revitalization. B) rock
C) transform and change
D) revitalize in a big way

CONTINUE
 2 2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following . .12 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
passage.
A) NO CHANGE
Peshtigo and the Forgotten Fire B) it
The Great Chicago Fire began on October 8, C) the fire
1871, lasted for three days, claimed 300 lives, D) DELETE the underlined portion.
destroyed 18,000 buildings, and ..12.. they left one-
third of the city's residents homeless. While those
statistics illustrate a truly terrifying disaster, the fire . .13 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
was, incredibly, not even the most lethal blaze in
A) NO CHANGE
the American Midwest on that day. A ..13.. most
B) more
devastating inferno engulfed Peshtigo, Wisconsin,
C) real
on that very day, decimating the town and D) really
surrounding area with unimaginable swiftness.

The village of Peshtigo was built on the

. .14 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
western shore of Green Bay, almost ..14.. directly
Which of the following alternatives to the
east of Minneapolis, in the late 1830s. Settlers were
underlined word is most acceptable?
attracted to the area by the rich concentrations of
A) due
white pine trees, which yielded long, knot-free
B) right
boards that were used for shipbuilding, C) straightforward
construction, and flooring. The Peshtigo River D) obliquely
wound ..15.. through forests via a winding route and
emptied into Green Bay, making water transport of
harvested logs relatively simple. . 15 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

A) NO CHANGE
B) through forests by way of a winding route
C) throughout the forest along a snakelike route
D) through forests

CONTINUE
 2 2
By 1871, the timber industry in Peshtigo had . .16 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
blossomed, evidenced by the construction of
Which of the following provides the best
sawmills, factories, and railroad lines. These transition from the previous sentence?
enterprises needed clear land on which to build. A) NO CHANGE
.. 16.. Nevertheless, Peshtigo's growing population B) However
required food, which meant that additional land C) Fortunately
needed to be cleared for farms. D) Furthermore

[1] At the time, workers regularly cleared land

by setting small fires. [2] Historians ..17.. believe
that several scattered small fires meant for land . .17 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

clearing continued to smolder for days. [3] Records
show that the summer of 1871 was exceedingly dry
in Peshtigo, which likely allowed the fires to slowly
consume even the roots of water-deprived trees,
The writer would like to indicate that historians
are not very sure what caused the fire that
destroyed the town of Peshtigo back in 1871.
The use of which of the following words would
best accomplish the writer’s goal?

shrubs, and plants. [4] Eventually, several disparate A) NO CHANGE

blazes met and grew into an untamable conflagra- B) deny
C) suspect
tion. [5] A weather front on October 8, 1871, may
D) predict
have brought windy conditions through the area,
stirring the smoldering embers to new life. ..18..

. .18 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5

should be placed
A) before sentence 1.
B) after sentence 1.
C) after sentence 2.
D) after sentence 3.

CONTINUE
 2 2
The intense heat of the combined fires and the . .19 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
swiftness with which it moved claimed the village
A) NO CHANGE
of Peshtigo without warning. The destruction B) lost their lives
wreaked by the fire was so complete that bodily C) lost there life
remains were extremely scarce, and lists of the D) lost there lives
deceased had to be compiled through counts of
missing persons. An estimated 800 people from
Peshtigo ..19.. lost their life. . .20 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Which of the following rhetorical questions

.. 20.. How is it possible that such a tragedy would best introduce the final paragraph of the
passage?
remains largely forgotten today? One major reason
A) NO CHANGE
.. 21.. is related to Chicago's past (and current)
B) How is it possible that this tragedy
standing as one of the most influential cities in the happened?
country. ..22.. Chicago's tragic news was C) How is it possible that the Great Chicago
Fire and the fire in Peshtigo happened on the
disseminated quickly because the city was a
very same day?
transportation hub. In addition, the fact that the D) How is it possible that the cause of the fire in
Chicago fire started in a barn, possibly from a cow Peshtigo remains a mystery today?
kicking over an oil-filled lantern, gave rise to a
folksy mythology that has remained alive even
. .21 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
today. Perhaps the main reason, and the sad truth,
is that the totality of the Peshtigo fire's destruction A) NO CHANGE
left no voices to tell the tale. B) is because
C) is because of
D) DELETE the underlined portion.

. .22 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

A) NO CHANGE
B) The tragic news of Chicago’s
C) Chicagos’ tragic news
D) The news of the tragedy of Chicago

CONTINUE
 2 2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following . .23 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
passage.
A) NO CHANGE
Sophia Hayden Bennett and the Struggle of the B) now
Female Architect
C) in modern times
While there are many women in high-profile
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
positions in the world of architecture today, the
more welcoming environment that females enjoy in
the profession's upper tiers ..23.. today has taken
some time to develop. Beginning with the rise of
women's rights activism in the mid-19th century, . .24 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
gender equality in the field of architecture was A) NO CHANGE
advanced incrementally by women ..24.. that pursued B) who pursued
architecture despite considerable obstacles. C) that were pursuing
D) who was pursuing
Sophia Hayden Bennett was one such woman.
Bennett was born in 1868 in Chile to a Peruvian
mother and an American father. When she was six
years old, her parents sent her to Boston,
. .25 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Massachusetts, to live with her paternal grand-
parents. Bennett remained in Boston through high A) NO CHANGE
school, proving to be ..25.. a killer student. Outside B) a sick
the classroom, she developed a love of architecture. C) an excellent
D) an awesomely good

CONTINUE
 2 2
Upon graduation from high school in 1886,
.. 26.. the Massachusetts Institute of Technology
(MIT) was the college where Bennett majored in
architecture. Throughout her training, she gained
an appreciation for neoclassicism, one of the era's
most popular artistic movements. ..27.. Bennett's
thesis project, a design for a museum of fine arts,
included symmetry, arches, and winged statuary, all
hallmarks of the neoclassical style.
Bennett graduated in 1890 with honors,
becoming the first woman to earn an architecture
degree from MIT. Although a promising career in
the field appeared to beckon, Bennett failed to
.. 28.. get a high-level job that matched her
qualifications. Disappointed, she took work as a
drafting teacher in a Boston high school.
. .26 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
A) NO CHANGE
B) the college where Bennet majored in
architecture was the Massachusetts Institute
of Technology (MIT)
C) Bennett enrolled at the Massachusetts
Institute of Technology (MIT) as an
architecture major
D) Bennet went to MIT (Massachusetts Institute
of Technology) to earn a degree in the major
of architecture as an undergraduate student
. .27 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
At this point, the writer would like to include a
sentence that provides some background on the
neoclassical style of architecture. Which of the
following would be the best sentence to include?
A) Neoclassicism is still popular with architects
today.
B) Neoclassicism finds inspiration in ancient
Greek and Roman art and architecture.
C) Neoclassicists are part of a close-knit group
of architects who appreciate both Greek and
Roman architecture.
D) You can always tell a building that was
designed by a neoclassical architect because
it will have features reminiscent of the
Greeks and the Romans.
. .28 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
Which of the following alternatives to the
underlined word is LEAST acceptable?
A) secure
B) acquire
C) land
D) find
CONTINUE
 2 2
In 1891, Bennett entered a design competition . .29 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
open ..29.. for woman only. Entrants submitted
A) NO CHANGE
designs for the Women's Building at the 1892 B) for women
Columbian Exposition, the World's Fair to be held C) by woman
in Chicago. Bennett won the contest with a design D) to women
that ..30.. anyone could see adhered closely to the
neoclassical principles of her thesis project.

Unfortunately for Bennett, construction of her

. .30 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
building demonstrated the prevalent sexism of the
A) NO CHANGE
time. Her monetary award for winning was $1000,
B) you could tell
one-third to one-tenth of what males earned in
C) one could see
similar circumstances. Members of the construction
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
.. 31.. committee, altered her design several times.
Toward the end of the project, when Bennett balked
at further changes, the chairperson of the
construction committee fired her.
. .31 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

A) NO CHANGE
B) committee altered
C) committee; altered
D) committee: altered

CONTINUE
 2 2
When the building opened, several architects . .32 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
.. 32.. voiced their support for Bennett's efforts, and
Which of the following is the most acceptable
many critics praised her work. Other critics were alternative to the underlined word?
not so kind; one even claimed that the building A) spoke
displayed a "timidity" that "revealed the sex of its B) intoned
author." Frustrated, Bennett abandoned C) expressed
architecture. Her struggle may have appeared D) broadcast
fruitless to her, but historians now recognize her
work as an important historical step ..33.. in her
. .33 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
career.
The writer wants to conclude the sentence (and
the passage) with a phrase that is in line with
ideas from the introductory paragraph. Which of
the following would best accomplish the writer’s
goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) in establishing a more gender-equitable
environment in the field of architecture
C) in the construction of the Women’s Building
D) in Bennett’s high-profile career in the field
of architecture

CONTINUE
 2 2
Questions 34-44 are based on the following
passage and the accompanying graphic.
An Unexpected Public Health Crisis
In the 1970s, representatives of the United
Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) took steps to
address a serious health problem in Bangladesh. At
the time, Bangladeshis regularly drank
contaminated water from surface sources that were
often stagnant and contained harmful
microorganisms. ..34.. UNICEF worked with the
Bangladesh government to dig tube wells
.. 35.. which provided citizens with water from
underground aquifers.
. .34 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
At this point, the writer would like to include a
sentence to explain the actual health issue in
Bengladesh. Given that each statement is true,
which best accomplishes the writer’s goal?
A) The water at issue came from lakes, ponds,
and even puddles created by heavy rain.
B) The microorganisms caused severe flu-like
symptoms that threatened the lives of all,
especially the very old, the very young, and
those in poor health.
C) The microorganisms were known to survive
in the human body for several weeks after
being ingested.
D) Scientists were not able to determine how
the microorganisms got into the water, but
they were undoubtedly present.

UNICEF's simple and well-intentioned

. .35 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
solution was the beginning of a public health
A) NO CHANGE
disaster. Unbeknownst to the well diggers, the
B) for providing
underground water in the aquifers ran through rocks
C) that provided
and ..36.. soil that was rich in arsenic, an element
D) who provided
that is toxic when ingested in large quantities. By
the early 1980s, many doctors in Bangladesh were . .36 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
treating patients with arsenic poisoning, but no one
A) NO CHANGE
.. 37.. connected the dots, unfortunately. As time
B) soil that were rich in arsenic
passed, the number of patients increased as the well
C) arsenic-rich soils
digging initiative continued to spread across the D) soil that were arsenic rich
country. By 2000, when about 80 percent of
Bangladeshis had access to tube well water and
consumed it regularly, government testing of . .37 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

thousands of wells revealed that much of the water A) NO CHANGE

was laced with arsenic. B) put 2 and 2 together
C) made the connection
D) had an “ah-ha” moment

CONTINUE
 2 2
Studies show that arsenic poisoning can take . .38 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
between 5 and 20 years to manifest itself in humans. Which of the following provides the best
.. 38.. This is how come the United Nations and the transition from the previous sentence?
Bangladesh government anticipate a public health A) NO CHANGE
emergency in the coming decades. Researchers B) In light of this fact,
estimate that health complications related to arsenic C) That’s the reason why
poisoning ..39.. are responsible for one out of every D) Because of this reason,

ten deaths in Bangladesh in the foreseeable future.

. .39 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Fortunately, scientists across the world are
attempting to somehow salvage this catastrophic A) NO CHANGE

situation. For starters, Ashok Gadgil, a scientist at B) were

C) will be
the Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory in
D) was
.. 40.. California has developed a cost-effective filter
that is able to purify the tube well water. Gadgil's
filtration system makes use of coal ash, a very fine . .40 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
powder boasting a high surface-area-to-volume
A) NO CHANGE
ratio. A byproduct of coal burning, the ash is
B) California, has developed
plentiful and cheaply ..41.. acquired from industrial
C) California has, developed
facilities in nearby India. D) California has developed,

. .41 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

Which of the following alternatives to the

underlined word is LEAST acceptable?
A) procured
B) obtained
C) seized
D) transported

CONTINUE
 2 2
Gadgil found a way to coat each particle of .42 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
coal ash with ferric hydroxide, a chemical that
According to the passage and the accompanying
reacts with arsenic. The result of the reaction is a graphic, which of the following is an acceptable
alternative to the underlined word?
solid that clings to the ash, thereby safely removing
the arsenic from the water. Thus, when arsenic- A) reacting with

rich water flows through a filter filled with the B) lowering, in parts per billion, the arsenic
level of
coated ash, the surface-area-to-volume ratio of the
C) lowering the arsenic level to below 50% in
ash maximizes the arsenic-to-ferric-hydroxide D) leveling the level of arsenic found in
reactions, significantly ..42.. detoxifying the water.

Early tests of Gadgil's filter are very . .43 ………………………………… . ..…… ….

promising. Gadgil estimates that a filter the size of
According to the graphic that accompanies the
a tea bag can purify one day's worth of water for a passage, which of the following is most accurate?
family of six, lowering the arsenic level below the A) NO CHANGE
established threshold of 50 parts per billion B) after just two passes
.. 43.. after just one pass through the filter. Gadgil C) after just three passes
believes that the filter can be made for as little as D) after five or more passes
$0.30 per person per year. More rigorous testing
awaits what appears to be a solution to one of the
. .44 ………………………………… . ..…… ….
.. 44.. unfortunate public health disasters in history.
One Gallon of Arsenic Contaminated Water A) NO CHANGE
Treated with a Single Coal-Ash B) more unfortunate
Ferric-Hydroxide Filter
C) most unfortunate
350
Arsenic level in water

300
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
250
(parts per billion)

200
Safety threshold level of 50 ppb
150
100
50
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
Number of times gallon of water was run
through filter

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work in this section only.
Do not return to any other section in the test.
3 3
Math Test 6 – No Calculator
25 Minutes, 20 Questions
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

.Directions.

For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in
the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your
answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 16 on how to enter
your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

.Notes.

1. The use of a calculator is NOT permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f (x) is a real number.

.Reference.

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2𝜋𝜋.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
 3 3
. .1………………………………………. ..…………. . .3………………………………………. ..………….

𝑥𝑥 − 3 On Sunday morning, Albert mowed r

If = q and q = 5, what is the value of x ?
4 neighborhood lawns per hour for 3 hours, and
Beth mowed t neighborhood lawns per hour for 4
A) 33 hours. Which of the following expressions
B) 23 represents the total number lawns mowed by
Albert and Beth on Sunday morning?
C) 19
D) 17 A) 12rt
B) 7rt
C) 3r + 4t
D) 4r + 3t

. .2………………………………………. ..………….

Given that i = √−1, what is the sum of (2 + 3i) . .4………………………………………. ..………….

and (‒ 7 ‒ 2i) ?
Simon is a repair technician for a cellular phone
A) ‒5 + i company. Simon specializes in replacing the
B) 5‒i broken glass covers of smart phones. The number
of covers that Simon has left to replace at the end
C) ‒ 8 ‒ 25i of each day during a given week can be calculated
D) ‒ 9 ‒ 6i using the following equation:
C = 55 ‒ 11d
In the equation, C is the number of covers left to
replace and d is the number of days he has worked
that week. What is the meaning of the number 55
in the equation?

A) It represents the number of days Simon

works each year.
B) It represents the number of covers that
Simon must replace each week.
C) It represents the number of covers that
Simon can replace each day.
D) It represents Simon’s daily wages in dollars.

CONTINUE
 3 3
. .5………………………………………. ..…………. . .7………………………………………. ..………….

(𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 − 2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦) ‒ (2𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 − 3𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦) 𝑟𝑟 𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚

� � �1 + �
1,200 1,200
𝑝𝑝 = 𝐿𝐿
𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚
�1 + � −1
Which of the following expressions is equivalent 1,200
to the expression above?
The formula above can be used to determine the
A) −𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 − 5𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 monthly payment p needed to pay back a loan of L
dollars in full at r percent annual interest rate over
B) 3𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 m months. Which of the following properly
expresses L in terms of p, r, and m ?
C) −𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2
A)
2 3
−𝑥𝑥 𝑦𝑦 + 2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 𝑟𝑟 𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚
D) � � �1 + �
1,200 1,200
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑝𝑝
𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚
�1 + � −1
1,200

B)
𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚
�1 + � −1
1,200
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑝𝑝
𝑟𝑟 𝑟𝑟 𝑚𝑚
� � �1 + �
1,200 1,200

. .6………………………………………. ..………….
C)
w = 100 + 68m 𝑟𝑟 2𝑚𝑚
�1 + �
1,200
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝑟
A farmer uses the equation above to estimate the �1 + � +1
1,200
weight w of a cow, in pounds, in terms of the
cow’s age m, in months, between birth and 15
months. Based on the equation, what is the D)
estimated increase, in pounds, of a cow’s weight 𝑟𝑟 𝑟𝑟 2𝑚𝑚
�1 + �� �
each month during the 15-month age span? 1,200 1,200
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝑟
�1 + � +1
A) 168 1,200

B) 100
C) 68
D) 34

CONTINUE
 3 3
. .8………………………………………. ..…………. ..10 ..……………………………………. ..………….

2𝑥𝑥 2𝑦𝑦 2
f (x) = ax ‒ 13
If = 5, what is the value of ?
𝑦𝑦 𝑥𝑥
For the function f defined above, a is a constant
A) 10 and f (3) = 13. What is the value of f (‒ 3) ?
5
B) A) ‒ 35
2
B) ‒ 13
5
C) C) 7
4
4 D) 13
D)
5

. .9………………………………………. ..…………. ...11..……………………………………. ..………….

6 𝑥𝑥 + 8 y = ‒ 46 A = 4,700 + 500h
𝑥𝑥 19 B = 3,500 + 800h
y− = −
2 2
The manager of a U.S. Post Office facility is
What is the solution (𝑥𝑥, y) to the system of considering two bids from companies that are
equations above? interested in replacing the roof of the facility,
which is nearing the end of its useful life. In the
A) (‒ 2, 4) equations above, A and B are the final price
quotes, in dollars, from Company A and Company
B) (‒ 35, 8)
B, respectively. At a given value of h, the two
C) (‒ 8, 4) price quotes are equal. What is the value of
Company A’s price quote when it is equal to the
D) (3, ‒ 8)
value of Company B’s price quote?

A) $4,000
B) $6,700
C) $7,700
D) $13,400

CONTINUE
 3 3
..12 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..14 ..……………………………………. ..………….

A line in the standard xy-coordinate plane passes 42𝑥𝑥

If 4𝑥𝑥 ‒ 3𝑦𝑦 = 4, what is the value of ?
2 8𝑦𝑦
through the origin and has a slope of − . Which
3
1
of the following points does NOT lie on the line? A)
2

A) (‒ 3, 2) B) 8

B) (2, ‒ 3) C) 16
C) (0, 0)
D) The value cannot be determined based on
D) (3, ‒ 2) the information provided.

..13 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..15 ..……………………………………. ..………….

If ‒ 4 < x < 4, which of the following is equivalent 2

If (ax + 2)(bx ‒ 5) = 12x + cx ‒ 10 for all values
1 of x, and a + b = 7, what are the two possible
to 1 1 ? values of c ?
+
𝑥𝑥 −4 𝑥𝑥+4
A) ‒ 14 and 14

2𝑥𝑥 B) ‒ 14 and ‒ 7
A)
𝑥𝑥 2 − 16 C) 14 and ‒ 7
D) 14 and 7
𝑥𝑥 2 − 16
B)
2𝑥𝑥

C) 𝑥𝑥 2 − 16

D) 𝑥𝑥 2 − 8𝑥𝑥 − 16

CONTINUE
 3 3
.Directions.

For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in the appropriate grid at the bottom of the answer
sheet page on which you have answered questions 1-15.

7
Answer: Answer: 2.5 Answer: 201
12 Either position is correct.
Write answer 7 / 1 2 2 . 5 2 0 1 2 0 1
in boxes. / Fraction / / / / / /
. . . . line . . . . Decimal . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Grid in
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
result.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Note: You may start your answers
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
in any columns, space permitting.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Columns not need should be left
blank.

• Mark no more than one circle in any column. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with
• Because the answer sheet will be machine- more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be
scored, you will receive credit only if the either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
circles are filled in correctly. For example, if you obtain an answer such as 0.3333…,
you record your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate
• Although not required, it is suggested that you value such as .66 or .67 will be scored as incorrect.
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
𝟐𝟐
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. Acceptable ways to grid are:
𝟑𝟑
• Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer. 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / /
• No question has a negative answer. . . . . . . . . . . . .
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
• Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is gridded, it will be 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
/
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
31 1
interpreted as , not 3 .) 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
2 2 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

CONTINUE

ePrep, Inc. © 2008 www.eprep.com

 3 3
..16 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..19 ..……………………………………. ..………….
2
If p > 0 and 2p ‒ 18 = 0, what is the value of p ? In a right triangle, one angle measures d ° and
3
tan d ° = . What is cos (90° ‒ d °) ?
4

..17 ..……………………………………. ..………….

10
B C

..20 ..……………………………………. ..………….

4 D
If k = 4√5 and 8k = √4𝑥𝑥, what is the value of 𝑥𝑥 ?
A E
10
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

What is the perimeter of polygon 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 above,

���� = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷
given that the m 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 60° and 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 ���� ?

..18 ..……………………………………. ..………….

2x + 3y = 17
by ‒ 2b = ‒ 5x

Given that the system of equations above has no

solutions, what is the value of b ?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work in this section only.
. Do not return to any other section in the test.
4 4
Math Test 6 – Calculator
55 Minutes, 38 Questions
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

.Directions.

For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in
the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your
answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 31 on how to enter
your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

.Notes.

1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f (x) is a real number.

.Reference.

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2𝜋𝜋.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
 4 4
. .1………………………………………. ..…………. . .3………………………………………. ..………….

The graph below shows the value, in dollars, of If 12 ‒ 3x is 5 less than 23, what is the value of
one share of stock in Company ABC over a 60- 2x ?
day period. On which of the following intervals
was the value strictly decreasing and then strictly 1
A) ‒5
increasing? 3

Value B) ‒4

$50.00 C) ‒2

$40.00 D) 4

$30.00

$20.00

$10.00
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Day
. .4………………………………………. ..………….
A) Between day 2 and day 10
a m
B) Between day 15 and day 22
b 1
C) Between day 30 and day 37 n
D) Between day 50 and day 58
2

In the figure above, lines a and b are parallel and

lines m and n are parallel. If the measure of 1 is
31°, what is the measure of 2 ?

. .2………………………………………. ..…………. A) 31°

B) 59°
If y = bx, where b is a constant, and y = 28 when
x = 7, what is the value of y when x = 9 ? C) 121°

A) 12 D) 149°
B) 18
C) 24
D) 36

CONTINUE
 4 4
. .5………………………………………. ..…………. . .6………………………………………. ..………….

w (kg) 1 ton = 2,000 pounds

7500 1 pound = 16 ounces

7000
In accordance with regulations set forth by the
6500 United States Environmental Protection Agency, a
chemical manufacturer stores one type of toxic
6000
waste in steel containers that are lined with a
5500 material that will not react chemically with the
waste. Each container weighs 1.5 tons when
5000 completely filled with waste. Based on the
2 2.5 3 3.5 4 h (m) information contained in the box above, how
many ounces do 4 full containers weigh?
A zoologist measured and recorded both the A) 1.92 × 10
5
height, in meters (m), and the weight, in
kilograms (kg), of 13 adult elephants. The 4
B) 1.92 × 10
zoologist then plotted the data in the scatter plot
above with height, h, on the horizontal axis and 5
C) 1.28 × 10
weight, w, on the vertical axis. Which of the
4
following best describes the correlation between D) 1.20 × 10
height and weight in the scatterplot?

A) The two variables have a strong positive

correlation.
B) The two variables have a non-linear
correlation.
C) The two variables have a weak negative . .7………………………………………. ..………….
correlation.
‒ 2 + | 2p ‒ 2 |
2
D) The two variables are not correlated.

For what values of p is the expression above equal

to zero?

A) ‒ 2 and 2
B) ‒ 1 and 3
C) ‒ 2 and 3
D) There are no such values of p.

CONTINUE
 4 4
..10 ..……………………………………. ..………….
Questions 8-10 refer to the following information.
What is the difference between the speed of sound
The speed of a sound wave in air depends on at ‒ 3° C and 3° C ?
many factors, such as humidity, pressure, and A) 3.6 meters per second
temperature. At a given humidity and a given
pressure, the speed of sound s, in meters per B) 4.2 meters per second
second, varies with temperature T, in degrees C) 332.8 meters per second
Celsius (° C), in accordance with the following D) It cannot be determined based on the
formula: information provided.
s = 331 + 0.6T

. .8………………………………………. ..………….

Which of the following properly expresses

temperature in terms of the speed of sound?
...11..……………………………………. ..………….
A) T = 60𝑠𝑠 − 331
Number of Seeds in Each of 14 Oranges
B) T = 0.6𝑠𝑠 − 198.6 5
10𝑠𝑠 −331
4
Number of oranges

C) T=
6
3
10𝑠𝑠 −3,310
D) T=
6 2

0
4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Number of seeds
...9………………………………………. ..………….
Based on the histogram above, of the following,
At which of the following temperatures will the which is the closest to the average (arithmetic
speed of sound be closest to 340 meters per mean) number of seeds per orange?
second?
A) 9
A) ‒ 15° C B) 8
B) ‒ 10° C C) 7
C) 10° C D) 5
D) 15° C

CONTINUE
 4 4
..12 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..13 ..……………………………………. ..………….

y Which of the following numbers is NOT a

solution of the inequality | 4x ‒ 3 | < 10 ?

x A) 3
B) 2
C) 0
The graph of y = 𝑚𝑚x + b is shown in the xy-coor- D) ‒2
dinate plane above. Which of the following could
be the graph of y = 𝑚𝑚2 x + 𝑏𝑏 2 ?
P

A) y
..14 ..……………………………………. ..………….

A convenience store sells pre-packaged meals for

x $7.50 each and bottled drinks for $1.50 each. The
store’s revenue from selling a total 70 meals and
drinks one day was $273.00. How many drinks
B) were sold that day?
y
A) 28

x B) 32
C) 38
D) 42
C) y

x ..15 ..……………………………………. ..………….

y < x ‒ 2b
y>a‒x
D) y
If (0, 0) is a solution of the system of inequalities
shown above, when graphed in the xy-coordinate
x plane, which of the following must be true about
the relationship between a and b ?

A) a=b
B) a = ‒b
C) a<0<b
D) b < 0 and a < 0

CONTINUE
 4 4
..16 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..18 ..……………………………………. ..………….

Traffic Camera Installations in Six Cities

Zoo Tigers
Bengal Siberian Malayan Total 8
Female 10 5 1 16 7
Male 4 6 4 14 6
Total 14 11 5 30 5
4
The table above shows how many male and 3
female Bengal, Siberian, and Malayan tigers live 2
in zoos in California. Which of the following 1
categories accounts for 20 percent of the total 0
number of Bengal, Siberian, and Malayan tigers A B C D E F
living in zoos in California? City

A) Female Bengal tigers The number of traffic cameras installed in six

cities is shown in the graph above. If the total
B) Female Siberian tigers number of installations is 2,750, what is an
C) Male Siberian tigers appropriate label for the vertical axis of the graph?
D) Male Malayan tigers A) Number of installations (in tens)
B) Number of installations (in tenths)
C) Number of installations (in hundreds)
D) Number of installations (in hundredths)

..17 ..……………………………………. ..………….

..19 ..……………………………………. ..………….
12 13 11 12 14
12 3 13 10 13 During a sale, Peter purchased a smart phone from
a store at 25 percent off the displayed price P.
Mark measured and recorded the weights of 10 The total amount Peter paid to the cashier was d
one-year-old female dogs of the same breed. The dollars, which included 7 percent sales tax on the
weights of the 10 dogs, in pounds, appear above. discounted price. Which of the following
The outlier measurement of 3 pounds is an error. represents d in terms of P ?
Of the mean, mode, and range of the values
collected by Mark, which will change the most if A) 0.75P + (0.07)(0.75)P
the 3-pound measurement is removed from the B) P ‒ (0.2)(0.07)P
data set?
C) P ‒ (0.2)d + (0.07)P
A) The mean
D) 0.75P + (0.07)(0.2)P
B) The mode
C) The range
D) It cannot be determined based on the
information provided.
CONTINUE
 4 4
..22 ..……………………………………. ..………….
Questions 20 and 21 refer to the following y
information.

C
2,250
2,000
Total cost (dollars)

1,750
1,500 1
1,250
1,000 O 1 x
750
500
250
0 d
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
The complete graph of the function f is shown in
Days
the xy-coordinate plane above. For what value of
x is the value of f (x) at its minimum?
The graph above displays the total cost C, in
dollars, of renting a house for d days. A) ‒5
B) ‒3
..20 ..……………………………………. ..………….
C) 0
Which of the following properly represents the D) 2
relationship between d and C ?

A) d = 250 + 250C
B) C = 250 + 250d ..23 ..……………………………………. ..………….
C) d = 250C ‒ 250
Sarah is a viticulturist studying the production of
D) C = 250(d + 250) grapes by two different types of grapevines. She
noticed that Type A grapevines produce 30
percent more useable grapes than Type B
grapevines. Based on Sarah’s observation, if a
..21 ..……………………………………. ..…………. Type A grapevine produced 91 useable grapes,
how many usable grapes would a Type B
What does the C-intercept represent in the graph? grapevine produce?
A) The total number of houses rented
A) 60
B) The initial cost of renting the house B) 61
C) The total number of days the house is rented C) 70
D) The per-day increase in the cost of renting D) 118
the house each year

CONTINUE
 4 4
..24 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..26 ..……………………………………. ..………….

y
y
20
II I
2 15
y = x + 4x ‒ 12
10 x
5 III IV

0
-7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1O 0 1 2 3 4 5 x
-5
If the system of inequalities y ≤ x ‒ 1 and
-10 y ≥ 2x were graphed in the xy-coordinate plane
above, which quadrant would contain all solutions
-15 to the system?
-20 A) Quadrant I

Which of the following is the vertex form of the B) Quadrant II

quadratic equation graphed in the xy-coordinate
plane above? C) Quadrant III

A) y = (x ‒ 6)(x + 2) D) Quadrant IV

B) y = (x + 6)(x ‒ 2)
2
C) y = (x + 2) ‒ 16
2
D) y = (x ‒ 2) ‒ 16

..25 ..……………………………………. ..………….

For a polynomial g(x), g(4) is equal to 0. Which

of the following must be true about g(x) ?

A) g(x) passes through the origin.

B) (x ‒ 4) is a factor of g(x).
C) (x + 4) is a factor of g(x).
D) The remainder when g(x) is divided by
(x + 4) is 4.

CONTINUE
 4 4
..27 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..29 ..……………………………………. ..………….

5 𝜋𝜋 What happens to the price of a product when it is

Given that sin 𝜃𝜃 = and that < 𝜃𝜃 < 𝜋𝜋, what is
13 2 increased by 10 percent and then decreased by 20
the value of cos 𝜃𝜃 ? percent?
12 A) It is 88 percent of the original price.
A) −
13
5
B) It is 90 percent of the original price.
B) −
13 C) It is 94 percent of the original price.
12
C) D) It is 112 percent of the original price.
13
13
D)
12

..30 ..……………………………………. ..………….

..28 ..……………………………………. ..…………. Given that 4 apples and 15 grapes are required to
make dessert for 3 people, dessert for 7 people
Basketball Shooting Results will require how many grapes?
30
25 A) 38
Shots made

20 B) 35
15
10 C) 32
5
0 D) 29
10 20 30 40
Age (years)
The scatterplot above shows the number of shots
out of 30 that 20 people of different ages made in
a contest. What is the approximate age of the
person who seems to be an outlier with regard to
the rest of the data?

A) 12 years old
B) 20 years old
C) 31 years old
D) 40 years old

CONTINUE
 4 4
.Directions.

For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the appropriate grid at the bottom of the answer
sheet page on which you have answered questions 1-30.

7
Answer: Answer: 2.5 Answer: 201
12 Either position is correct.
Write answer 7 / 1 2 2 . 5 2 0 1 2 0 1
in boxes. / Fraction / / / / / /
. . . . line . . . . Decimal . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Grid in
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
result.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Note: You may start your answers
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
in any columns, space permitting.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Columns not need should be left
blank.

• Mark no more than one circle in any column. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with
• Because the answer sheet will be machine- more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be
scored, you will receive credit only if the either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
circles are filled in correctly. For example, if you obtain an answer such as 0.3333…,
you record your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate
• Although not required, it is suggested that you value such as .66 or .67 will be scored as incorrect.
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
𝟐𝟐
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. Acceptable ways to grid are:
𝟑𝟑
• Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer. 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / /
• No question has a negative answer. . . . . . . . . . . . .
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
• Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is gridded, it will be 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
/
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
31 1
interpreted as , not 3 .) 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
2 2 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

CONTINUE

ePrep, Inc. © 2008 www.eprep.com

 4 4
..31 ..……………………………………. ..………….
Curtis processes social security applications for
the United States government. Curtis can process
at least 5 applications, but not more than 8
applications per hour. Curtis processed 72
applications in h hours, where h is an integer.
What is one possible value of h ?
..32 ..……………………………………. ..………….
The posted weight limit for a freight elevator is
1,600 pounds. A dolly is loaded with identical
boxes that weigh 80 pounds each. A worker
needs to transport the loaded dolly, along with
herself, from the first floor to the third floor using
the freight elevator. If the combined weight of the
dolly and the worker is 215 pounds, what is the
maximum number of boxes that would keep the
combined weight of the dolly, worker, and boxes
below the posted weight limit?
.
Questions 33-34 refer to the following information.
𝑥𝑥 2𝑡𝑡
300 �1 + �
2
Luke opened a savings account that earns 2.5
percent interest compounded semiannually. His
initial deposit was $300. Luke uses the expression
above to determine the amount of money in his
account after 𝑡𝑡 years. Luke does not withdraw any
money from his account.
..33 ..……………………………………. ..………….
What is the value of 𝑥𝑥 in the expression that Luke
uses to determine the amount of money in his
account after t years?
..34 ..……………………………………. ..………….
Luke’s sister Maya found a bank that offers
savings accounts that pay 3 percent interest, also
compounded semiannually. Maya made a $300
deposit into such a savings account on the same
day that Luke made his $300 deposit. After 8
years, how much more money is in Maya’s
account than in Luke’s account. (Assume that,
like Luke, Maya did not withdraw any money
from her account. Round your answer to the
nearest dollar and ignore the dollar sign when
gridding your answer.)
CONTINUE
 4 4
..35 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..37. .……………………………………. .. … …….

circular base Number of Snow Blowers Sold

40

Snow blowers sold

30
height
20

10

A chemist uses a container that is in the shape of a 0

right circular cylinder to store certain solutions. If
the volume of the cylinder is 96𝜋𝜋 cubic feet and
the diameter of the circular base is 8 feet, what is
the height of the cylinder, in feet?
Oct Nov Dec Jan Feb Mar Apr
Month
The graph above displays the monthly sales of
snow blowers by a hardware store from October
to April over a given 7-month period. According
to the graph, the number of snow blowers sold in
March was what fraction of the number of snow
blowers sold in January?

..36 ..……………………………………. ..…………. ..38 ..……………………………………. ..………….

9 A local newspaper sells advertisements that fill 4

ℎ(𝑥𝑥) =
𝑥𝑥 2 − 6𝑥𝑥 + 9 full pages of a daily newspaper. Each day,
exactly 8 ads are printed on 2 of the pages and
For what value of 𝑥𝑥 is the function ℎ above exactly 16 ads are printed on the other 2 pages.
undefined? How many ads total will be included in the
Thursday and Friday editions of the daily
newspaper in a given week?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work in this section only.
Do not return to any other section in the test.