Hop Act PT 4

ACT ENGLISH TEST 4
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement For each question, choose the alternative you consider
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage document. Read each passage through once before you
as a whole. If you think the original version is best, begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in many of the questions, you must read several sentences
the right-hand column a question about the underlined beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question. that you have read far enough ahead each time you
chose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
“The Art of The Motorcycle”
[1]
The Guggenheim Museum in New York City can
rightfully claim a place for the most distinguished art 1. A. NO CHANGE

1 B. among
museums in the world. It not only houses paintings by C. inside of
D. in
masters such as Van Gogh, Cezanne, and Monet, it also 2. F. NO CHANGE

2 G. it also contains
contained an array of acclaimed sculpture, photography, and H. but also contains
2 J. DELETE the underlined portion.
performance-art exhibits. Its formidable collection is
displayed within an iconic building designed by Frank Lloyd
Wright. The museum's well-known spiral-shaped cone is one
of the most notable architectural achievements that you can 3. A. NO CHANGE

3 B. that one can find
find in the United States. C. found
3 D. DELETE the underlined portion.
[2]
Many people would agree that a museum like the 4. Given that all are true, which of the following (replacing “a
4 museum.”) would be most relevant?
Guggenheim would not need, or even want, to appeal to an
F. a venerable center of high culture
unsophisticated audience simply to turn a profit. Yet in 1998, G. a big well-designed building
H. an iconic structure
critics accused the museum of using a "populist" exhibition J. a museum located in the heart of New York City
for the making of money. 5. A. NO CHANGE

5 B. for money
C. to make money
D. as a way of making money
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

[3]
Thomas Krens the Guggenheim's director at the time 6. F. NO CHANGE

6 G. The Guggenheim’s director, Thomas Krens, at the time
was an avid motorcycle rider. He spearheaded an exhibition H. The Guggenheim’s director, at the time Thomas Krens
J. Thomas Krens, the Guggenheim’s director at the time,
entitled "The Art of The Motorcycle," which showcased a
collection of more than one hundred motorcycles, ranging 7. A. NO CHANGE

7 B. more then
from an 1868 French prototype to the latest model of Italian C. many more then
D. as more as
manufacturer Agusta. Krens also secured a lucrative corporate
sponsorship from BMW.
[4]
The public response was overwhelming; roughly two 8. F. NO CHANGE

8 G. overwhelming. As roughly
million people attended the exhibition, a 45 percent increase in H. overwhelming; as roughly
J. overwhelming, roughly
the Guggenheim's average attendance during the summer
months. From a business standpoint, the show was so
successful that restagings were held in Chicago, Las Vegas,
and Bilbao, Spain. 9 9. Given that all of the following statements are true, which
would make the best first sentence of Paragraph 4?
[5]
A. Krens was paid a big bonus for the business he helped
Critical reaction to "The Art of The Motorcycle" was generate for the museum.
B. The exhibit opened to the public in late June and ran for
mixed, however. Some praised the show for highlighting the nearly four months.
C. The exhibit killed it, and the public was down with it.
beauty and cultural significance of the motorcycle; one critic D. BMW sponsored the event and publicized it widely.
claimed that the show singlehandedly brought respectability to
"biker culture." Others were saying the exhibition had no 10. F. NO CHANGE
10 G. had said
H. said
J. say
place in a museum that promoted themselves as a showplace 11. A. NO CHANGE

11 B. itself
for “high art.” C. like
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
[6]
[1] Krens faced accusations that he had acted self-
indulgently in promoting the show and had compromised the
museum's reputation by excepting corporate funding. 12. F. NO CHANGE

12 G. for excepting
H. by accepting
J. the exception of
[2] Concerns over whether these accusations would tarnish 13. Which of the following is the LEAST acceptable
13 alternative to the underlined portion?
the reputation of the Guggenheim ultimately trumped the
A. NO CHANGE
financial success of "The Art of The Motorcycle." [3] The B. harm
C. lower
controversy created by Kerns also had ramafications at the D. polish
international level. [4] In direct response to the controversy, 14. Upon reviewing Paragraph 6 and realizing some
information has been left out, the writer composes the
the International Association of Art Museum Directors following sentence:
The board of directors of the Guggenheim decided
formulated new standards of ethics and professionalism for all
to reduce the authority of Kerns and all future
14
museum directors.
museums in its purview.
The most logical placement for this sentence would be:
F. after sentence 1.
G. after sentence 2.
H. after sentence 3.
J. after sentence 4.
Question 15 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.
15. The writer is considering deleting the first sentence from

paragraph 3. If the writer removed this sentence, the
essay would primarily lose:
A. detail that is largely irrelevant.

B. information that forshadows the action taken by the
International Association of Art Museum Directors.
C. detail that is relevant, but inconsistent with the tone
and style of rest of the passage.
D. detail that is important to understanding the third
paragraph.
PASSAGE II
Harmonia’s Dashed Hopes
Three months ago, a local artist named Harmonia, 16. F. NO CHANGE

16 G. a local artist, named Harmonia
unintentionally threw my modest neighborhood into a state of H. a local artist named Harmonia
J. a local artist, Harmonia
upheaval. The tumult centered around the old Forum Theater,
an elegant but vacant three-story building standing at the
corner of 3rd and Washington. Harmonia contacted them and 17. A. NO CHANGE
17 B. them to inquire
inquired about painting a mural on the windowless façade C. the owners to ask permission
17 D. the owners of the building to ask
facing Washington. The owners, who saw no immediate
financial prospects in the property, acceded to Harmonia’s
request. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Desiring the community's approval, a meeting at the 18. F. NO CHANGE
18 G. a meeting was organized at the public library
public library was organized by Harmonia to present a detailed H. a meeting was organized by Harmonia at the public library
18 J. Harmonia organized a meeting at the public library
sketch of the mural, which she called "Welcome World!" In
the center of the sketch, a man and a woman stood on opposite
sides of an open silver gate. The man and woman,
representatives of our community, smiled with their arms 19. A. NO CHANGE

19 B. there
extended in welcome. At the bottom of the mural, a crowd of C. they’re
D. them
people walked toward the gate seeking entrance. The crowd
featured people of different ethnicities, as well as famous
movie characters. 20 20. The writer is considering adding, immediately after the word
characters, the following parenthetical phrase with the
punctuation as shown:
—an acknowledgement of the Forum's cinematic history
Given that the statement is true, would this be a relevant

addition to make?
F. Yes, because it is critical to the meaning of the sentence.

G. Yes, because it explains why Harmonia planned to
include famous movie characters in the mural.
H. No, because it deviates from the style and tone of the
passage.
At the top of the mural, Harmonia planned to create J. No, because it includes irrelevant information.
an idealized representation of our community's buildings, 21. A. NO CHANGE

21 B. my community’s buildings
monuments, and public spaces to emphasize the rich beauty of C. my communities buildings
D. our communities’ buildings
our neighborhood. "Welcome World!" would serve as a warm
invitation to visitors, enticing them to explore our shops,
restaurants, in addition to our public parks. 22. F. NO CHANGE

22 G. restaurants, in addition to public parks
H. restaurants, and our public parks
Harmonia's presentation created a firestorm of J. restaurants, and public parks
controversy. One white-haired gentleman reflected that he
had seen many movies during the Forum’s heyday. He then 23. The writer would like to convey that the white-haired
23 gentleman spoke fondly of the time he spent at the Forum
remarked that it would be sad to "deface" the neighborhood Theater watching movies. Which of the following would best
accomplish the writer’s goal?
A. NO CHANGE
B. gone to
C. enjoyed
D. purchased tickets for

landmark with “graffiti.” On the other hand, an expectant 24. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion
24 is LEAST acceptable?
mother passionately argued that she felt public art provided
F. Nevertheless
the kind of vibrancy that she wanted her child to experience G. Conversely
H. Contrarily
J. In contrast
growing up in our city. Others, squabbled about what should 25. A. NO CHANGE
25 B. Others, squabbled around
be included or removed from the community scene. Still C. Others squabbled about
D. Others squabbled, around
others voiced strong feelings about which actors and actresses
should appear in the crowd entering the gate. 26 26. The writer is considering deleting the following clause
from the preceding sentence:
in the crowd entering the gate
Should the writer make this deletion?
F. Yes, because the phrase contains irrelevant information.

G. Yes, because it does not matter whether the figures are
entering or exiting the gate.
H. No, because the information reminds the reader where
the actors and actresses may appear.
J. No, because the information matches the tone and style
of the rest of the passage.
Harmonia was now unsure whether she will continue 27. A. NO CHANGE
27 B. were now
to pursue the project. She is disappointed that her idea to unite C. is now
D. is going to be
the citizens of our city as one has instead created division and 28. F. NO CHANGE
28 G. as one unit
discord. I hope Harmonia eventually comes to realize that it is H. as a whole
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
difficult, if not impossible, to please everyone with a work of
art, regardless of the artist’s skill or intentions. 29 29. The writer is considering adding a final sentence to conclude
the passage. Given that all of the following are true, which is
the best conclusion?
A. Harmonia and I are really good friends.

B. The white-haired gentleman was wrong to refer to
Harmonia’s idea as “graffiti.”
C. The inclusion of famous actors and actresses would have
added a really nice touch to the mural.
D. If she does, our city may eventually get the inspirational
mural that I think it deserves.

as a whole.
30. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief essay
focusing on the challenges faced by most artists. Would this
essay successfully fulfill the writer’s goal?
F. Yes, because the essay highlights the dischord that art

can create in a commmunity.
G. Yes, because the essay details why Harmonia was
disappointed by some members of her community.
H. No, because the essay dicusses only one challenge faced
by one artist.
J. No, because the essay does not offer any data to support
the assertion that artists face challenges.
PASSAGE III
The Boldness of Shirley Chisholm
Shirley Chisholm once asserted, “You don’t make
progress by standing on the sideline, whimpering and
complaining.” Her political career intersected with the 31. A. NO CHANGE

31 B. career intersects
African-American Civil Rights movement of the 1960s and C. career that intersected
D. career, which intersected
the Equal Rights for Women movement of the 1970s, is a
testament to those words. Though she could have followed a
less turbulent trajectory through life, Chisholm boldly trusted
her instincts and earned two major political distinctions: she 32. F. NO CHANGE
32 G. distinctions, she was
was the first African-American woman to serve in Congress H. distinctions: she became
32 J. distinctions, she is
but the first African-American, female or male, to run for 33. A. NO CHANGE
33 B. in addition to
President of the United States under the auspices of a major C. as well as
D. and
political party.
Born in Brooklyn, Chisholm attended Brooklyn 34. Which of the following is the LEAST acceptable alternative
34 to the underlined portion?
College and began work in a local day-care center after
F. A native of Brooklyn
G. Born and raised in Brooklyn
H. After being born in Brooklyn
J. A Brooklyn native

graduation. While this path was customary for educated
women of her time, her daily immersion in issues such as
child welfare and early education spurred her toward an active
role in the local Democratic party organization. 35 35. The writer is considering deleting the following phrase
from the preceding sentence:
for educated women of her time
If the writer were to delete this phrase, the sentence
would primarily lose:
A. an irrelevant detail.
B. detail that narrows the scope of an assertion made.
C. detail that elevates the standing of Shirley Chishlom.
In 1962, Chisholm defied the white leadership in her D. a digression from the main focus of the sentence.
predominant African-American precinct by garnering support 36. F. NO CHANGE

36 G. predominated
for an African-American man, Thomas Jones, who was H. predominately
J. predominating
running for the New York State Assembly. Thanks in part to
Chisholm's skillful campaigning, Jones was elected. While 37. A. NO CHANGE

37 B. After
Jones left the assemby for a judgeship two years later, C. Since
D. From the time when
Chisholm's constituents elected her to take their seat in the 38. F. NO CHANGE
38 G. a
assembly, making her the first black woman elected to public H. his
J. her
office in Brooklyn.
By 1968, Chisholm was an accomplished lawmaker
who decided to run for Congress. 39 She campaigned 39. Which of the following best transitions the reader from the
preceding paragraph to the current paragraph?
vigorously, won the election, and became a member of the
A. NO CHANGE
United States House of Representatives. She was dismayed, B. In 1968, Chisholm was feeling great and wanted more.
C. In 1968, Chisholm ran for Congress.
however, when she was assigned to serve on the House D. By 1968, Chisholm had found her groove.
Agricultural Committee, an ill-suited post for someone
representing an urban district. Though she was eventually
reassigned to a different committee, Chisholm was generally
frustrated by the slow pace of change in the issue she cared 40. F. NO CHANGE
40 G. on the issue
about, especially the Vietnam War and women's rights. H. around the issues
J. on the issues

Hoping to accomplish more, the 1972 presidential 41. A. NO CHANGE
41 B. the presidential election of 1972 was the next challenge
election was the next challenge for Chisholm. She advanced for Chisholm.
41 C. Chisholm decided to run for president in 1972.
her candidacy “in spite of hopeless odds ... to demonstrate the D. Chishom wanted to become president so she entered the
1972 presidential election.
sheer will and refusal to accept the status quo.” Though her
campaign was lacking competitive funding, she managed to 42. F. NO CHANGE

42 G. lacked
finish a very-respectable fourth at the Democratic Convention, H. had been lacking
J. lacks
which preceded the presidential election.
Chisholm continued to serve in Congress until her
retirement in 1980. Her tireless, enduring, relentless and 43. A. NO CHANGE

43 B. tireless, enduring, and relentless, as well as
barrier-breaking drive for reform remains a reflection of her C. tireless and
personal motto: "Service is the rent you pay for room on this
earth." Chishom now lives in a modest condominium in
Florida with many other retired people. 44 44. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose:
Question 45 asksofabout
F. evidence the preceding
Chishom’s succees. passage as a
G. a statement that contradicts her motto.
whole.
H. an unimportant detail.
J. an important biographical fact.

as a whole.
45. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay that
explores the rights and privileges of elected officials. Would
this essay successfully fulfill the writer’s goal?
A. Yes, because the essay details the political career of

Shirley Chisholm.
B. Yes, because the essay includes information on both
state and national politics.
C. No, because the essay does not specifically discuss the
rights and privileges of elected officials.
D. No, because the essay discusses the rights, but not the
privileges of public servants.

PASSAGE IV
Music and the Mind
English neurologist, and author Oliver Sacks is one 46. F. NO CHANGE

46 G. neurologist, and author Oliver Sacks,
of the world's leading authorities on music and its effects on H. neurologist and author Oliver Sacks
J. neurologist and author: Oliver Sacks
the mind. In his lectures, articles, and books, they note that 47. A. NO CHANGE
47 B. they noted that
music triggers responses in the emotional, motor, and C. he notes that
cognitive regions of a listener's brain, whereas other stimuli
generate a single response in a single region of the brain. 48. F. NO CHANGE

48 G. of a listener’s brain
Over the past decade, Sacks has harnessed music's ability to H. in a listener’s brain
engage the brain on multiple levels to assist patients with
dementia and Alzheimer's disease, producing breakthroughs.
49 49. The writer would like to indicate that music has helped
patients with dementia and Alzheimer’s disease in ways that
are truly astonishing. The writer would like to do so by
adding the word astounding to the previous sentence. To
accomplish the writer’s goal, where is the best place to add
the word astounding?
[1] One patient, referred to here as "Joe," exemplifies
A. Before the word ability
a typical Sacks case. [2] Joe began showing signs of dementia B. Before the word brain
C. Before the word levels
about ten years ago, and ever since then his mental abilities D. Before the word breakthroughs
have slowly deteriorated. [3] Today, you might notice that Joe 50. F. NO CHANGE
50 G. you might have noticed
does not remember simple facts about his life, such as his own H. people have noticed
name, where he was born, and the names of his own wife and
children. [4] He spends most of his day seated near his bed,
looking out the window with a vacant look on his face. 51 51. Upon reviewing the preceding paragraph and realizing some
information has been left out, the writer composes the
following sentence:
He went from being self-sufficient to needing help with

basic day-to-day tasks.
The most logical placement for this sentence would be:
A. before sentence 1.
B. after sentence 1.
C. after sentence 2.
D. after sentence 3.

In the past, doctors would of viewed Joe as 52. F. NO CHANGE
52 G. would have
essentially “unreachable.” However, Sacks' research has H. could of
J. could have
determined that Joe responds vibrant to one stimulus: the 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. vibrant for
music of his youth. As soon as a caregiver slips a pair of C. vibrantly for
D. vibrantly to
earphones on Joe's head and begins streaming familiar music
from a portable device, Joe's eyes widen. 54 He begins 54. The writer is considering deleting the following phrase from
the preceding sentence:
from a portable device
If the writer were to make the deletion, the sentence would

primarily lose:
F. an unimportant detail.
G. an important detail about the caregiver’s equipment.
H. an indication of Joe’s musical tastes.
nodding his head, tapping his chair with his fingers, and J. a hint at Joe’s age.
singing a verse or two. 55 Somehow, music awakens 55. The writer would like to convey the significance of Joe’s
ability to sing a verse or two while listening to familiar music
memories presumed to be lost. by inserting a word or phrase before the word singing in the
preceding sentence. Which of the follow would best
accomplish the writer’s goal?
A. then
B. even
C. sometimes
Joe's responsiveness typically lasts several minutes D. softly
after the music stops. When prompted with questions, they 56. F. NO CHANGE
56 G. they may
can recall once-popular musical artists and sing lines from old H. you can
56 J. Joe can
songs. Eventually, he slides back into his customary state. 57. A. NO CHANGE
57 B. Nevertheless
People who witness Joe’s animated state for the first time only C. Earlier
D. Furthermore
to watch him slip back to a state of inactivity are dismayed but 58. F. NO CHANGE
58 G. and
left wondering about Joe’s condition. H. in
J. from
Rather than being dismayed, researchers are 59. A. NO CHANGE
59 B. Since they are dismayed too
encouraged by the possibilities inherent in music therapy. C. Rather than getting down about the whole situation
D. Instead of getting down
Though their is much more work to be done, Sacks may prove 60. F. NO CHANGE
60 G. there are many
prescient in claiming "Music is more than a beautiful luxury... H. there is much
J. their was much
it is often our best medicine."
PASSAGE V
Silicon Wafers - Functional and Beautiful
The major technological advancements that society
has enjoyed over the last half century would not have been 61. A. NO CHANGE
61 B. will not have been
possible without the contributions of many innovative men C. will not be
D. would not of been
and women. Jöns Jacob Berzelius was one such pioneer, his 62. F. NO CHANGE
62 G. pioneer: his
scientific efforts predate the computer age considerably. In H. pioneer, though his
J. pioneer, since his
1824, Berzelius discovered silicon, an element that makes up
over one quarter of the earth's crust. Though prevalent, silicon
seemed virtually useless in industrial circles until the 1950s, 63. Given that all are true, which of the following alternatives to
63 the underlined portion would be the LEAST acceptable?
when it suddenly became critical to the information age.
A. to industry leaders
B. among industrial leaders
C. to the top dogs in industry
D. among the industrial elite
Silicon's key moment was when scientists determined 64. F. NO CHANGE

64 G. happened as
that silicon is a very efficient semiconductor, meaning that it H. was happening when
J. occurred when
conducts electrical impulses very well under certain
conditions. This discovery proved useful in shrinking
electronic devices to make them smaller, which at that time 65. A. NO CHANGE
65 B. devices to make them smaller, because
were cumbersome, often filling entire rooms. With the help of C. devices, because
D. devices, which
silicon, the large and complicated circuits within the first
computers were eventually made small enough to fit on a
small disc-shaped wafer. Silicon Valley is the nickname for
the southern portion of the San Francisco Bay Area of
Northern California because so many computer technology
companies are located there. 66 Today, integrated 66. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence in
its entirety. Should the writer make the deletion?
computer circuits are measured in millimeters, not meters,
F. Yes, because the sentence includes information that
because of silicon’s conducting properties. deviates from the style and tone of the essay.
G. Yes, because the sentence contains detail that is
informative but irrelevant to the focus of the paragraph.
H. No, because the sentence contains information that is
critical to understanding the paragraph.
J. No, because it explains how Silicon Valley got its name.

The manufacturing process that yields silicon wafer
semiconductors in large batches are intricate. A silicon crystal 67. A. NO CHANGE

67 B. was
grows into the shape of a cylinder after it has been exposed to C. is
D. were
high temperatures in a quartz furnace. The crystalline cylinder
is then cooled and sliced into round wafers. Each wafer is
ground, flattened as well as chemically etched with circuitry. 68. F. NO CHANGE

68 G. flattened, in addition to being chemically etched
H. flattened, and chemically etched
Finally, after cleaning and polishing, the etched wafer is ready J. made flat, and etched chemically
for use. 69 69. The writer wants to add a sentence to conclude this
paragraph. Given that all are true, which of the following
sentences should the writer add?
A. The whole process is really cool.

B. The entire process is executed in a vacuum because even
the slightest impurity would render a silicon wafer
unusable.
C. If you ever get a chance to watch a video of the process,
you should watch it because it is fascinating.
D. Because even the slightest impurity could render a batch
of wafers unusable, you have to complete the entire
As a visual object, a silicon wafer is striking. Small process in an airless environment.
geometric patterns populate their entire surface, and the 70. F. NO CHANGE
70 G. their whole
myriad microscopic surfaces reflect rainbows of shimmering H. it’s entire
J. its entire
light. These attractive attributes have inspired, artists and 71. A. NO CHANGE
71 B. inspired artists, and technophiles to amass
technophiles, to amass impressive wafer collections. Online C. inspired artists and technophiles to amass
71 D. inspired artists and technophiles, to amass
auction web sites reveal a burgeoning market for wafers as
prized collectibles. 72 72. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. If
the writer were to make the deletion, the paragraph would
primarily lose:
F. information that is related to the previous sentence, but

not to the essay as a whole.
G. detail that is critical to understanding the paragraph as a
whole.
H. language that deviates from the style and tone of the
essay.
J. an indication of the real market for silicon wafers.

Microscopic inspections yield an even greater
appreciation from these cornerstones of computing. Those 73. A. NO CHANGE

73
B. for
C. to
D. on
whom are fortunate enough to view wafers at high 74. F. NO CHANGE

74 G. that are
magnifications liken the complex etchings to a vast map of H. whom is
J. who are
roads and buildings. Occasionally, manufacturers will etch
the likeness of a cartoon character or animal into a wafer.
Discoveries of these "inside jokes" elicit a mixture of laughs
and thrills that Berzelius, discoverer of silicon, could never 75. A. NO CHANGE
75 B. discovering silicon
have anticipated. C. the guy who discovered silicon a long time ago
D. the discovering of silicon
END OF TEST
ACT MATHEMATICS TESTS 4
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct but some of the problems may be best done without using
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your a calculator.
answer sheet. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
Do not linger over problems that take too much time. be assumed:
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the 1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
time you have left for this test. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You 3. The word line indicates a straight line.
may use your calculator for any problems you choose, 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
b
1. The sum of Jason’s 5 quiz scores is 95. What is the DO FIGURING HERE
average of Jason’s quiz scores?
A. 95
B. 45
C. 20
D. 19
E. 11
2. If a = 3, b = 1, and c = – 1, what does (b + c) ‒ (c – a)

equal?
F. 4
G. 3
H. 0
J. – 2
K. – 4
3. The digit 5 in the number 1,348.75 is in which of the

following places?
A. The hundreds place

B. The units place
C. The tenths place
D. The hundredths place
E. The thousandths place
4. If 7(p + 3) = – 28, the p = ?
F. 4
G. 1
H. – 1
J. – 4
K. – 7
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
5. A triangle has two congruent angles. The length of one DO FIGURING HERE
side of the triangle is 16 cm and the length of another
side is 32 cm. Which of the following is the length of
the third side of the triangle?
A. 64 cm
B. 48 cm
C. 32 cm
D. 16 cm
E. It cannot be determined based on the information
provided.
6. Which of the following properly expresses the verbal

statement “The square root of a number, x, is 5 less than
the sum of the number and 2” ?
F. √𝑥𝑥 = 5 – (x + 2)
G. √𝑥𝑥 = (x + 2) – 5
H. x2 – 5 = 2x
J. 5x2 = 2x – 5
K. √𝑥𝑥 – 5 = (x + 2)
7. Calvin earns $10.00 per hour for up to 40 hours of work

in a given week. For each hour Calvin works over 40
hours in a week, he earns 1.25 times his regular hourly
rate. How much does Calvin earn for a week in which
he works 48 hours?
A. $600.00
B. $520.00
C. $512.50
D. $500.00
E. $481.25
8. What is the distance between the point (2, 7) and the

point (‒1, 3) in the xy-coordinate plane?
F. √17
G. 4√2
H. 5
J. 5√2
K. 6
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
ePrep, Inc. © 2008 www.eprep.com
9. The price, P, of a sweater was discounted by 10% in DO FIGURING HERE
February. Because the sweater did not sell by the end of
the winter season, it was discounted by another 20% in
March. In terms of P, what was the price of the sweater
after the discount in March?
A. 0.97 P
B. 0.72 P
C. 0.70 P
D. 0.30 P
E. 0.28 P
10. The expression (4a + b) – 3(2a + b) is equivalent to:
F. ‒2a + 4b
G. ‒2a ‒ 2b
H. 10a + 4b
J. 10a ‒ 2b
K. 10a ‒ 4b
11. log 100 + log 3 81 =
A. 181
B. 127
C. 19
D. 14
E. 6
12. Ian wants to place 5 trophies in a row on a shelf in his

bedroom. How many different arrangements of the 5
trophies are possible?
F. 120
G. 80
H. 60
J. 14
K. 8
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
13. What is the sum of all of the single-digit factors of 60? DO FIGURING HERE
A. 21
B. 17
C. 14
D. 11
E. 10
14. For two consecutive even integers, the result of sub-

tracting the larger integer from 3 times the smaller
integer is 14. Which of the following is the larger
integer?
F. 12
G. 10
H. 8
J. 6
K. 4
15. Mary poured 40,000 cm3 of water into an aquarium that

is shaped like a rectangular box. If the length and width
of the aquarium are 40 cm and 80 cm, respectively, what
is the height, in centimeters, of the water in the
aquarium?
A. 12.5
B. 14.0
C. 16.5
D. 18.0
E. 20.5
1
16. If x3 = , then 625x3 = ?
125
F. 125
G. 100
H. 75
J. 15
K. 5
17. If �– 4 + 𝑥𝑥� = 8, 𝑥𝑥 could equal which of the following?
A. – 4 only
B. 4 only
C. – 4 or 4
D. 12 only
E. – 4 or 12
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
18. If 𝑥𝑥 + 2 = √ 𝑥𝑥 + 4, then 𝑥𝑥 could equal which of the DO FIGURING HERE
following?
F. ‒ 3
G. – 2
H. – 1
J. 0
K. 1
19. Circle O has a radius that is 10 units long. Chord AB is

drawn on Circle O such that it is 4 units long. Chord CD
is then drawn on Circle O such that it is 4.5 units long.
Finally, Chord EF is drawn on Circle O such that it is 5
units long. Which chord is the closest to the center of
Circle O?
A. Chord AB
B. Chord CD
C. Chord EF
D. They are all the same distance from the center.
E. It cannot be determined based on the information
provided.
20. The number of cars on a bridge on a given weekday can

t
be estimated using the equation c = 800(0.9) , where t
represents time, in hours, after 7:00 am on any given
weekday, and c represents the number of cars.
According to this formula, approximately how many
cars are on the bridge at 9:00 am on a given weekday?
F. 800
G. 720
H. 648
J. 583
K. 364
21. A function g(x) is defined as g(x) = –x3 · (x ‒ 2)2. What

is the value of g(–2) ?
A. 128
B. 24
C. 0
D. – 24
E. – 128
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
22. ∆ABC and ∆DEF are similar. The length of the smallest DO FIGURING HERE
side of ∆ABC is 2 units and the length of the smallest
side of ∆DEF is 5 units. The area of ∆ABC is 4 units
squared. What is the area, in units squared, of ∆DEF ?
F. 8
G. 10
H. 15
J. 18
K. 25
23. Given the right triangle with sides as labeled below,

what is the value of tan θ ?
12
A.
13
13
B.
12 13
5
C.
12
θ
12
D. 12
5
7
E.
12
24. Given the pattern of H’s and T’s below, how many T’s
are there between the 15th H and the 17th H?
HTHTTHTTTHTTTTHTTTTTH...
F. 48
G. 31
H. 28
J. 22
K. 16
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
25. Lines m and n lie in the standard (x, y) coordinate plane. DO FIGURING HERE
Line m includes the points (5, ‒3) and (5, 7). If line n is
perpendicular to line m, which of the following could be
the equation of line n ?
A. x=5
B. x=1
C. y=8
D. y=x
E. y=x+2
26. In triangle ABD below, AD = BD and m A = 40°.

What is the measure, in degrees, of BDC ?
B
F. 140
G. 120
H. 100
J. 80
K. 60 A
D C
27. The expression (x + 5)2 ‒ (2x ‒ 3) is equivalent to:
A. x2 + 8x + 28
B. x2 ‒ 2x + 22
C. x2 ‒ 2x + 28
D. x2 + 8x + 22
E. x2 ‒ 8x + 18
28. The inequality 4(5 + 22) < 3(3 – x) is equivalent to

which of the following inequalities?
F. x<9
G. x>3
H. x < –9
J. x > –9
K. x < –3
29. The graph of f (x) = x3 + 9 includes the point (‒1, 2n) in

the standard (x, y) coordinate plane. What is the value
of n ?
A. –5
B. –4
C. 0
D. 4
E. 5 GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
30. Which of the following equations properly models the DO FIGURING HERE
data in the table below?
x –1 0 1 2 3
h(x) ‒1 0 1 2 3
F. h(x) = x3
G. h(x) = x
H. h(x) = 2x ‒ 2
J. h(x) = ‒x2
K. h(x) = 0
31. The center of a circle is at (3, 4) in the standard (x, y)

coordinate plane. The point (8, 4) is on the circum-
ference of the circle. Which of the following points is
NOT also on the circumference of the circle?
A. (3, 9)
B. (8, 3)
C. (–2, 4)
D. (3, –1)
E. (8, 4)
32. Each dot (“d”) in the Venn diagram below represents 2

people. According to the Venn diagram, how many
people own both a laptop and a tablet?
F. 1 Ownership of Electronic Devices
G. 2 laptop phone
H. 3
J. 4
K. 6 tablet
1
33. What is the period of the function f (𝑥𝑥) = 2 – sin � 𝑥𝑥 � ?
2
A. 5π
B. 4π
C. 2π
D. π
E. –π
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
34. A bucket contains 4 tennis balls, 7 baseballs, and 11 DO FIGURING HERE
golf balls. What is the least number of tennis balls that
need to be added to the bucket so that the probability of
1
randomly choosing a tennis ball is ?
4
F. 1
G. 2
H. 3
J. 4
K. 6
35. What are the quadrants of the standard (x, y) coordinate

plane shown below that contain the points on the graph
of the equation x + 41 = 0 ?
II I
III IV
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV
E. I, II, and III
36. Abigail, Bart, and Carson shared a box of mints after

1 1
school. Abigail ate of the mints, Bart ate of the
5 3
mints, and Carson ate the rest. What is the ratio of
numbers of mints eaten by Abigail, Bart, and Carson?
F. 5:3:8
G. 8:5:3
H. 3:7:5
J. 7:5:8
K. 3:5:7
37. What is the volume of a cube with total surface area

equal to 294 in2 ?
A. 49 in3
B. 64 in3
C. 128 in3
D. 146 in3
E. 343 in3 GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
38. Which of the following is the equation for a circle in the DO FIGURING HERE
standard (x, y) coordinate plane that has a radius of
length 6 and its center at (4, ‒3) ?
F. (x + 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = 6
G. (x + 4)2 ‒ (y – 3)2 = 6
H. (x ‒ 4)2 ‒ (y + 3)2 = 36
J. (x ‒ 4)2 + (y + 3)2 = 36
K. (x + 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 36
39. The figure below consists of an equilateral triangle with

perimeter 24 and three semicircles. What is the total
area, in square inches, of the three shaded semicircles?
A. 12π
B. 16π
C. 24π
D. 48π
E. 96π
40. The figure below is a rectangle that has been divided

into 5 separate regions. Three of the regions are shaded
and two are unshaded as shown. What is the ratio of the
total shaded area to the total unshaded area?
F. 3:2
G. 1:1
H. 3:5
J. 1:2
K. 2:5
41. The endpoints of PQ in the standard (x, y) coordinate

plane are (0, ‒5) and (8, 15). What is the y-coordinate
of the midpoint of PQ ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 12.5
E. 15.5
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
42. In the system of equations below, a and b are integers. DO FIGURING HERE
ax + by + 7 = 0
‒ax = b ‒ 7
Which of the following describes the graph of at least 1
such system of equations in the standard (x, y) coor-
dinate plane?
I. A single line
II. 2 intersecting lines
III. 2 parallel lines
F. I only
G. II only
H. III only
J. II or III only
K. I, II, or III
43. The circle graph below shows the distribution

of flowers, by type, for sale at a florist. If a flower other
than a rose is randomly chosen, what is the probability
that the flower will be a tulip?
Distribution of Flowers by Type
20%
30% tulip
lily
rose
22% iris
10% orchid
18%
A. 0.200
B. 0.150
C. 0.125
D. 0.100
E. 0.080
44. If x, y, and z are positive real numbers such that x is

even, y is odd, and 2z is even, then which of the
following must be true?
F. xyz is odd
G. x + y + z is odd
H. x + y + z is even
J. x + (y + 2z)2 is odd
K. x + 2y + 2z is odd
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
DO FIGURING HERE
Use the following information to answer
questions 45-47.
The figure below is composed of a circle and 4 small

congruent equilateral triangles (3 shaded and 1
unshaded) that are arranged to form a larger equilateral
triangle that is inscribed in the circle. The circle has
radius 4.
45. What is the distance between the center of the circle and
any one of the vertices of the small unshaded triangle?
A. 2√3
B. 2√2
C. 2
D. √3
E. √2
46. The figure has how many lines of symmetry in the plane
in which it lies?
F. 1
G. 3
H. 6
J. 12
K. Infinitely many
47. If the design in the figure above were replicated with a

circle having area 4 times that of the circle in the figure
and triangles having area 4 times that of the triangles in
the figure, which of the following would be the length of
the radius of the new, larger circle?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 20
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
48. For which value of c would the following equation have DO FIGURING HERE
only one real solution?
x2 – 6 x + c = 0
F. 12
G. 9
H. 6
J. 0
K. –6
49. In the circle shown below, BD and CE are diameters and

EB is a chord. If minor arc CD measures 58°, what is
the degree measure of EBD?
B
C
A
58°
E
D
A. 58°
B. 59°
C. 60°
D. 61°
E. Cannot be determined from the given information
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
50. The determinant of matrix � � equals 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 – 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏.
𝑐𝑐 𝑑𝑑
Which of the following must be the value of 𝑥𝑥, given
𝑥𝑥 4
that the determinant of the matrix � � equals 36 ?
16 𝑥𝑥
F. 10
10
G.
7
7
H.
12
J. 2√5
K. 20
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
Use the following information to answer DO FIGURING HERE
questions 51-53.
The bar graph below displays information regarding

balloons sold by a party-supply store on a given day.
The x-axis shows the color of the balloon sold and the y-
axis shows the number of balloons sold.
number sold
20
15
10
0
0 red blue green white color
51. If the data in the bar graph above were translated to a

circle graph, which of the following circle graphs would
best represent the data?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
52. According to the bar graph, what percent of the balloons DO FIGURING HERE
sold were green?
F. 20%
G. 25%
H. 30%
J. 40%
K. 45%
53. If the cost of a blue balloon is 25 cents and the cost of a

white balloon is 20 cents, how much money, in dollars,
was collected from the sale of blue balloons and white
balloons on the day represented in the bar graph?
A. 3.00
B. 3.25
C. 4.25
D. 32.50
E. 42.50
√3
54. If the value of cos θ = – , which of the following could
2
be true?
5π
F. 2π ≤ 𝜃𝜃 <
2
7π
G. 3π ≤ 𝜃𝜃 <
2
9π
H. 4π ≤ 𝜃𝜃 <
2
11π
J. ≤ 𝜃𝜃 < 6π
2
13π
K. 6π ≤ 𝜃𝜃 <
2
55. If i2 = –1, then (i)(1 + 2i)(2 – 3i)2 = ?
A. – 14 + 37i
B. – 26 + 13i
C. 10 – 5i
D. 22 + 19i
E. 10 + 6i GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
56. How many seconds total are there in 4 hours, 18 minutes DO FIGURING HERE
and x seconds?
F. 15,480 + 60x
G. 15,480 + x
H. 258 + 60x
J. 258 + x
K. 14,418 + 60x
57. The average price of a gallon of gasoline varies from

year to year. The table below displays the average price
of one gallon of regular gasoline over a five-year period.
Which of the following is equal to the average of the
mode and the median of the five average-price values in
the table below?
Year Average Price of One Gallon of

Regular Gasoline
2009 $2.50
2010 $2.70
2011 $3.50
2012 $3.50
2013 $3.40
A. $3.50
B. $3.45
C. $3.40
D. $3.35
E. $3.30
58. Right triangle XYZ is shown below. If m Y = 60° and

YZ = 10, what is the length of XZ ?
Y
F. 20.00
G. 17.32 60°
10
H. 14.14
J. 7.00
K. 5.77 X Z
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
59. Set A consists of all prime numbers between 0 and 17. DO FIGURING HERE
If a number is randomly selected from Set A, what is the
probability that the number is odd ?
17
A.
18
15
B.
16
7
C.
8
6
D.
7
5
E.
6
60. What is the amplitude of the graph of the function

f (x) = –5 cos (x + 2) ‒ 5 ?
F. –5
G. 5
H. 10
J. 12.5
K. 15
END OF TEST

ACT READING TEST 4
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each
passage is followed by several questions. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in
the corresponding oval on your answer document. You
may refer to the passages as often as necessary.
Passage I
I took a deep breath as I helped Marvell out of the
PROSE FICTION: The following passage is adapted from a Taurus and stayed right behind him as he ambled through the
novel. lot. He was unsteady, understandable given that this was his
45 first day on crutches, and he was probably fatigued. He had
Marvell and I were laughing in the back seat as Mr. twisted his ankle in his game for our high school last night, an
Moore eased the Ford Taurus into a parking spot in the vast excruciating experience for both of us. Watching Marvell, my
empty lot. As I leaned forward to get out of my seat, the car best friend since childhood, from the stands was always as
Line inexplicably lurched forward in two successive, violent exhausting for me as playing was for him. We were both
5 spasms before finally coming to rest. “Dad! What are you 50 relieved that the doctor believed there was nothing serious
doing?” Marvell shrieked with a look of mock horror. about the injury, and people in the crowd tonight would be
relieved as well. He would be playing at State Tech next year
“Sorry, son… Sorry, boys. I just wanted to get us in this as a highly touted recruit; I would be attending State Tech to
spot right,” he mumbled, gazing blankly through the study chemistry.
windshield.
55 The jocular camaraderie we usually enjoyed with Mr.
10 My surprise at being unexpectedly shaken disappeared as Moore was an afterthought tonight. He was ahead of us,
soon as I opened the door and relished the desolation of my setting an unattainable pace and taking a circuitous route that
surroundings. I heard the distant laboring of a campus bus added unnecessary distance. Marvell stayed on his own
engine, too far away to drown out the steady buzz of a course, a more direct route. When Mr. Moore was about a
malfunctioning overhead light that illuminated the Taurus and 60 hundred yards from the promised land of the arena, Marvell
15 the “C22” sign on the lamppost with a candle-like flicker. shouted to him.
Vaporous wisps escaped through my nostrils into the piercing
winter air. “Dad, I need to rest for a second.”
I had learned to appreciate this setting very recently. I “OK son,” said Mr. Moore. “Better out here than in
had been attending State Tech basketball games since I was in there. Don’t want the coaches looking over during the shoot-
20 grade school, and it had never occurred to me that there was 65 around and seeing you worn out.” As he spoke, his eyes
anything more to the experience than the game itself. remained fixed on the building.
However, two months ago I read a comparison between
attending an athletic event and attending a worship service. “Man, it seems so far away right now!” Marvell
The writer equated the court or field to an altar, the athletes to whispered to me.
25 gods, and the crowd to the congregation. I disagreed with the
writer in that the religious aspect of the experience is not Mr. Moore called out impatiently. “Let’s go. Tip off is
inside the arena, but outside. Finding peace is the best reason 70 only 50 minutes away.” Within thirty seconds he was a
to attend a worship service, and the pre-game parking lot is the compassionless speck in the distance, looking forward the
place to find peace. whole time.
30 A State Tech home game, on the other hand, was all “Take your time, Marvell,” I said, trying to reassure him.
about amplified humanity erupting within the arena. The cold I knew, and even felt, the feelings that were simmering inside
air of the parking lot would be replaced by the heat of 75 him.
excitement, a contagion that caused people to shed jackets and
Finally arriving, I held the front door for Marvell,
sweatshirts just minutes after finding their seats. This
peering inside for Mr. Moore. An event security worker arose
35 pandemic would spur the sellout crowd’s collective euphoria
from a folding chair just inside the door. His face was alight
after a dunk or bloodthirsty berating of a referee. The
with happy recognition. “Whoa! It’s the real Marvell Moore!
hypnotic bright lights of the scoreboard and shot clocks, the
80 Welcome, son!” He proclaimed to the empty foyer, his words
brassy music of the band, and the authoritative
echoing for no one in particular. Marvell smiled shyly,
pronouncements of the public address announcer would
looking at the ground as he mechanically made his way
40 combine with the throng’s extremes to nullify the serenity I
forward. “Yes, sir. Good evening sir…” he said, and
was enjoying now.
appeared ready to say more. The security worker shook his

85 head and lowered his voice. “You OK? I heard you got hurt 6. Which of the following best describes the narrator’s
last night…” Suddenly Mr. Moore appeared, standing with relationship with Marvell?
our tickets clutched to his chest on the opposite side of the
foyer. He seemed distant and small, but his spark had F. The narrator jealously admires his friend Marvell.
returned. “Ain’t the real Marvell there,” he boomed G. The narrator is a paid caretaker who is helping the
90 assertively. “Y’all gonna see the real Marvell next year on injured Marvell.
the court!” H. The narrator is a close friend who genuinely cares for his
friend Marvell.
J. The narrator is a classmate and teammate of Marvell.
1. Which of the following questions was NOT answered by the

passage? 7. According to the sixth paragraph (lines 42-54), what kind of
exhaustion did the narrator feel when he watched Marvell
A. How did Marvell twist his ankle? play high school basketball?
B. Was the narrator Marvell’s brother?
C. Why did Mrs. Moore not attend the game? A. Physical
D. In which section of the parking lot did Mr. Moore park? B. Emotional
C. Spiritual
D. Cardiovascular
2. According to the first paragraph, Marvell’s reaction to the

car’s violent lurching can best be described as one that
expressed: 8. Mr. Moore’s pace was likely characterized as “unattainable”
(line 57) because of a combination of which of the following?
F. fear.
G. humor. F. Mr. Moore’s fast pace and Marvell’s reliance on crutches
H. horror. G. The uphill slope to the arena and the winding path
J. confusion. H. Mr. Moore’s excitement and the narrator’s apprehension
J. Marvell’s injury and the icy conditions of the path
3. According to the passage, on the evening described, Mr. 9. Which of the following properly orders the events
Moore’s behavior suggests that, at one moment or another, he described or referenced in the passage from first-to-
experienced all of the following EXCEPT: occur to last-to-occur?
A. anxiousness. A. Mr. Moore parks car; Marvell is greeted by security
B. excitement. worker; Marvell injures ankle; Mr. Moore arrives with
C. pride. tickets.
D. anger. B. Mr. Moore parks car; Marvell injures ankle; Marvell is
greeted by security worker; Mr. Moore arrives with
tickets.
C. Marvell injures ankle; Mr. Moore parks car; Marvell is
4. The events described in the passage took place: greeted by security worker; Mr. Moore arrives with
tickets.
F. on a cold, wet afternoon.
D. Mr. Moore arrives with tickets; Marvell injures ankle;
G. on a warm evening.
Mr. Moore parks car; Marvell is greeted by security
H. on a windy, snowy night.
worker.
J. on a cold, dark evening.
10. Which of the following best describes the point of view from
5. The word peace in lines 27 and 29 most nearly means: which the passage was written?
A. fun. F. An all-knowing third party observer

B. serenity. G. Marvell’s best friend at the time the event took place
C. silence. H. An all-knowing State Tech faculty member
D. absolution. J. Marvell as an adult reflecting on an evening in high
school

Passage II A different kind of journey emerges in another
contender, The Great Gatsby. Written in 1925, F. Scott
Fitzgerald’s novel gives voice to the Roaring Twenties, an age
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from an article of jazz and widespread prosperity. The title character, Jay
discussing "The Great American Novel." 55 Gatsby, shows the same crazed single-mindedness of Captain
Ahab, although Jay is not out for revenge. He is instead on a
How does a writer spend his or her day? Dozens and quest to woo the woman of his dreams, Daisy Buchanan.
dozens of would-be wordsmiths across the country will lift a Gatsby’s extravagant wealth, which he believes will impress
pen or sit at a keyboard with the intention of beginning, Daisy, is apparently gained from illegal pursuits. His journey
Line continuing, or completing “The Great American Novel.” 60 from an old, unremarkable identity to a new, opulent one ends,
5 From neophytes to old hands, from hacks to true craftsmen, all like Ahab’s journey, in death.
manner of scribes will spend hour upon hour chasing that
elusive, mythical achievement. Then there is The Adventures of Augie March. The
esteemed critic Martin Amis once wrote “The Adventures of
What is The Great American Novel? Critics who care Augie March is the Great American Novel. Search no
passionately about this question would likely agree on one key 65 further…The quest did what quests rarely do: it ended.” Saul
10 point: A “Great American Novel” is a work that definitively Bellow’s famous book from 1953 traces the life of a boy
captures the spirit of the American era in which it is written. named Augie, born during the Great Depression into a poor
While many of the big ideas and grand themes contained Chicago family. Augie shows little self-determinism. As
within the novel will have applicability to all humankind, the Huck meandered on a raft carried by the Mississippi current,
cultural background and settings are distinctly American. The 70 so fate continually nudges Augie along on an epic journey
15 American quality that infuses the story’s universal concepts from Detroit to Mexico, with a few stop-offs in Chicago.
will combine to point out what makes America a shaping Augie often seems destined for prosperity, but in decisive
influence in the lives of its citizens. moments he unwittingly pulls himself back into the ordinary
circumstances of his life. At the end of the book, Augie
One might wonder: how, in the course of our nation’s 75 relates that “all the time you thought you were going around
history, with all of the brilliant men and women who have idle, terribly hard work was taking place. Hard, hard work,
20 graced our shores, has this book not been written yet? The excavation and digging…working, panting, hauling, hoisting.
matter is still open to debate; many literary commentators have And none of this work is seen from the outside. It is internally
pet works they espouse as the definitive Great American done.” Augie’s reflection reveals the process of inner
Novel. Intriguingly, one of the universal themes that these 80 discovery he perceives during the journey of his life.
works share is an epic journey, or a trip through exotic or
25 uncharted realms that usually brings about self-awareness in Through Augie, Bellow also identifies a process at work
the traveler. in the lives of those writers who believe the Great American
Novel is within their grasps. These writers, mining the diverse
Chronologically, the first novel that garners widespread experiences from their own journeys, will create works that
consideration among critics is Herman Melville’s Moby-Dick, 85 reflect the diversity of the American population. As such, they
from 1851. In Moby-Dick, a crew of thirty men of many will probably come up short in the quest to pen the Great
30 different nationalities, representative of both America’s American Novel that speaks to all Americans. Perhaps they
diversity and the thirty states in the union at the time, sets off should more realistically, and just as nobly, aspire to create a
on what most of them presume is a standard whaling work that will be discussed among the classics in American
expedition. However, Captain Ahab, the ship’s commander, 90 literature.
reveals that he is in search of only one specific whale – a white
35 whale named Moby Dick. Ahab is crazed for revenge on the
creature, which broke Ahab’s leg in a previous encounter.
Fate thus sweeps the crew along its epic voyage, which ends in 11. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
a devastating encounter with the whale; only Ishmael, the
tale’s narrator, survives. A. summarize four American novels.
B. critique four American novels.
40 Other critics contend that Mark Twain’s The Adventures C. discuss the notion of “The Great American Novel.”
of Huckleberry Finn, written in 1884, is The Great American D. argue for more rigorous writing standards in America.
Novel. Author Ernest Hemingway said that “All modern
American literature comes from one book by Mark Twain
called Huckleberry Finn. American writing comes from that.”
45 The epic journey at the center of Twain’s book is Huck’s
voyage down the Mississippi River on a raft with Jim, a slave.
Some critics discount the novel’s worth pointing to racist
dialogue in the text. However, most scholars believe the raft
voyage is symbolic of young white America, embodied by
50 Huck, and its gradual realization of the evil of slavery. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
12. The “elusive, mythical achievement” referenced in the 17. According to the passage, which of the following is a
first paragraph (line 7) is best described as: character like Augie from The Adventures of Augie March
LEAST likely to do?
F. earning a living as a writer in America.
G. writing a novel that effectively captures the spirit of A. Travel without an itinerary
American at the time it is written. B. Study for and apply to medical school
H. writing a best-selling novel that will be adopted by C. Show up at a relative’s house without having been
high schools throughout the United States. invited
J. identifying the, one-and-only, Great American Novel D. Sleep in a train station
from the likes of Moby-Dick and The Great Gatsby.
18. The author of the passage ultimately concludes that:

13. The term “pet works” in line 22 most nearly means:
F. Moby-Dick is undoubtedly the Great American
A. personal favorites. Novel.
B. fun jobs. G. an author somewhere will eventually succeed in
C. secret favorite books. writing the Great American Novel.
D. unusual hobbies. H. no one is likely to write the Great American Novel, a
novel that speaks to all Americans.
J. only a handful of current writers have the ability to
pen a novel that speaks to all Americans.
14. The function of the fourth paragraph (lines 27-39) is to:
F. summarize Moby-Dick in a way that highlights the

19. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s
novel’s epic journey and its American setting.
approach in writing the passage?
G. argue that Moby-Dick has all the elements necessary
to make it The Great American Novel. A. The author argues a point by discussing four books
H. summarize Moby-Dick in a way that highlights and quoting several experts.
Ahab’s craze for revenge. B. The author introduces and discusses a concept,
J. offer proof that American authors have been trying to develops it further through examples, draws a
write “The Great American Novel” since the mid- conclusion, and offers a suggestion.
1800s. C. The author introduces a literary challenge, provides
four books as counterexamples, and then offers a final
opinion.
15. Based on the fifth paragraph (lines 40-50), it is reasonable D. The author introduces a topic, expands upon it
to conclude that: through examples, and encourages the reader to make
a final determination.
A. like the character Huck, all Americans now recognize
the evils of slavery.
B. some critics believe that a Great American Novel 20. In the context of the final paragraph (lines 81-90), the
should be free of potentially offensive content. phrase “mining the diverse experiences from their own
C. the author Ernest Hemmingway tried several times to journeys” suggests all of the following EXCEPT that:
write a Great American Novel.
D. Huck’s journey down the Mississippi River was more F. writers sometimes draw from personal experiences.
treacherous than Ahab’s journey to kill Moby Dick. G. authors represent a diverse group of people with
varied experiences.
H. most writers like to travel, especially great distances.
16. Which of the following two novels does the author of the J. novels often reflect the life experiences of their
passage briefly compare and contrast? authors.
F. Moby-Dick and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn

G. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn and The Great
Gatsby
H. The Great Gatsby and The Adventures of Augie
March
J. Moby-Dick and The Great Gatsby
Passage III Passage B
HUMANITIES: Passage A is adapted from the article In 2004, National Public Radio’s Over the Top, a
“Stanley Jordan’s Boundless Talent.” Passage B is adapted program that features the music of young, promising artists,
from the article “The Growth of a Prodigy.” broadcast a segment featuring 10-year-old classical pianist
45 Conrad Tao. The performance drew rave reviews from
Passage A
listeners across the globe, many of whom assumed Tao would
A glance at the assembled crowd at a Stanley Jordan soon hurtle to the apex of classical music fame.
concert reveals some intriguing juxtapositions. Twenty-
somethings sit shoulder-to-shoulder with septuagenarians. Things have played out somewhat differently. Now a
Wizened jazz aficionados, complete with berets and horn- young man, Tao is a performing veteran and the virtuoso that
Line
5 rimmed glasses, listen intently alongside greybeards who look 50 many envisioned. However, throughout his development as an
as though they just completed a 200-mile motorcycle trek. artist, he has nurtured an important corollary to his talent: an
acute awareness of the relationship between his audience and
This unusual mix of attendees is a product of Jordan’s himself. This understanding has prompted Tao to apply his
broad appeal. Born in 1959, he began studying piano at age 6, genius in unconventional ways, and in doing so, expand the
displaying a precocious talent. Just a few years later, however, 55 definition of a classical musician to suit the 21st century.
10 the siren song of rock music proved too seductive for Jordan to
ignore, and he turned his attention to the electric guitar. Tao has recognized that today’s audience brings a vastly
Applying a pianist’s instincts to his new passion, he developed different mentality to a concert than audiences of the 18th and
what he later called his “touch technique.” Jordan discarded 19th centuries, when many of the best-known composers
the conventional notion that notes are played by strumming or lived. Because modern society inundates people with a
15 picking the strings near the guitar’s body. Instead, he used the 60 myriad of entertainment, Tao believes that performers must
fingers of both hands to “hammer” notes on the guitar’s neck, “confront contemporary reality” by presenting classical music
playing percussively as though depressing the keys of a piano. in new and interesting ways while maintaining its core.
Jordan’s revolutionary style was catchy for sure, but it To achieve this objective, Tao has sought to question
was not merely a parlor trick. Depending on the power, everything about classical music performance. For example,
20 steadiness, and duration of each hammer, Jordan could 65 he does not want to be confined by the image of a lone
exercise control over a note’s volume, tone, and length. Thus, performer sitting behind a grand piano, so he will occasionally
the touch technique opened realms of creativity that play complicated pieces on a small pink toy piano. The sense
traditionally-trained guitarists did not have at their disposal. of playfulness that accompanies Tao’s still-evident ascendancy
He also played chords and notes simultaneously with a single in these moments consistently delights audiences.
25 hand, allowing him to use one hand to play his guitar and the
70 Tao has also challenged norms by refusing to be
other to play a second guitar or piano simultaneously.
restricted by the instruments of classical musicians by
Jordan gained worldwide renown in 1985 when he embracing electronic devices as worthy components of his
released an album entitled Magic Touch, which featured a own works. In 2015, he wrote a piece commissioned by the
scintillating solo version of the Beatles’ classic “Eleanor Chamber Orchestra of Philadelphia entitled An Adjustment.
30 Rigby.” This endeared Jordan to fans of both classic rock and 75 Described as “an electro-acoustic concerto,” the piece knitted
jazz. Heavy metal fans, drawn to Jordan’s fast-playing together live performance with prerecorded sounds supplied
technique, also greatly appreciated his artistry. by a tablet computer. One critic hailed the work as an
integration of “spiritual post-Romanticism and 90s techno club
In the ensuing decades. Jordan’s career has been music.”
anything but predictable. He has released 11 solo albums,
35 featuring dozens of original compositions. He has also 80 Classical music critics have hailed Tao for taking a
amassed an eclectic list of collaborators that includes sometimes stodgy and inaccessible form in new and vibrant
acclaimed jazz saxophonist Freddie Garrett, producer Quincy directions. Tao himself will ultimately measure his success
Jones, country legend Kenny Rogers, and the Grateful Dead’s not by the heights of his own virtuosity, but by the collective
bassist Phil Lesh. This group, like the audiences that continue interest he ultimately generates in challenging and redefining
40 to flock to his shows, testifies to Jordan’s prodigious talent, a 85 the once-staid boundaries of classical performance.
genius that transcends tidy classification.
26. Based on Passage B, it is reasonable to conclude that Tao
Questions 21-24 ask about Passage A. believes that modern classical musicians must:
21. The primary purpose of the first paragraph of Passage A F. learn to play toy pianos with electric keyboards.
(lines 1-6) is to suggest that Stanley Jordan has: G. compete with performers from other genres of music.
H. collaborate with performers of other types of music.
A. a large fan base. J. disregard the core principles of classical music.
B. young fans and old fans.
C. a diverse fan base.
D. crowded concerts in remote locations.
27. The primary function of lines 73-79 in Passage B (“In
2015… techno club music”) is to:
22. Which of the following quotations from Passage A best A. transition the discussion to a new subtopic.
describes the mechanics of Jordan’s touch technique for B. support an assertion made in the first sentence of the
playing the guitar? paragraph (lines 70-73).
C. describe An Adjustment (line 74), one of Tao’s
F. “[H]e turned his attention to the electric guitar” (line greatest works.
11). D. suggest that, while he embraced the unconventional,
G. “Jordan discarded the conventional notion that notes Tao still accepted commissioned work for money.
are played by strumming or picking” (lines 13-15).
H. “[H]e used the fingers of both hands to ‘hammer’
notes on the guitar’s neck” (lines 15-16).
J. “Jordan’s revolutionary style was catchy for sure” Questions 28-30 ask about both passages.
(line 18).
28. Both passages address:
23. According to Passage A, Jordan’s touch technique offered F. tortured musicians.

Jordan creative options and outlets that: G. the childhood struggles of two musical geniuses.
H. the value of collaboration in the music industry.
A. shocked fans of heavy metal music. J. innovation in the field of music.
B. required a computer tablet to synthesize.
C. were not available to traditionally-trained guitarists.
D. allowed him to improvise like a jazz musician.
29. Based on the passages, it can most reasonably be inferred
that the two authors would agree that:
24. Based on Passage A, it is most reasonable to conclude that A. musicians who are willing to push boundaries have
the author of Passage A believes that Freddie Garrett, the potential to advance the industry.
Quincy Jones, Kenny Rogers, and Phil Lesh: B. most musical prodigies thrive in adulthood.
C. electronic instruments have made classical stringed
F. are all legendary figures in the music industry. instruments virtually obsolete.
G. all use the touch technique developed by Jordan. D. classical music, performed traditionally, is stodgy and
H. have all attended one of Jordan’s live shows. largely inaccessible.
J. together represent a diverse group of people in the
music industry.
30. According to the passages, the notion of considering and

valuing the feedback of customers, or potential customers,
Questions 25-27 ask about Passage B. is most in line with the thinking of:
F. Jordan from Passage A.

25. According to Passage B, Tao’s unconventional ideas have G. Tao from Passage B.
been inspired by which of the following? H. both Jordan from Passage A and Tao from Passage B.
A. The mentality of modern audiences J. neither Jordan from Passage A nor Tao from Passage B.
B. Advances in electronic instruments
C. Tao’s personal preferences
D. Tao’s childhood instructors GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Passage IV 50 visible brushing, such as “Doesn’t it feel like that [the rubber
hand] is your real hand?”
NATURAL SCIENCE: The following passage is adapted
from an article about the connection between the human body The experimenter then brings the experiment to a
and self-perception. somewhat shocking, but telling, ending. Putting down both
brushes, the experimenter grabs a hammer from under the
The French philosopher Rene Descartes is well known 55 table, raises it swiftly and brings it down upon the rubber
for his statement “cogito ergo sum,” which means “I think, hand. Though of course there is no danger to the subject, the
therefore I am.” Descartes’ statement, which dates from the subject inevitably adapts a look of extreme fear at the moment
Line 17th century, referred to his interpretation of how a person is the hammer comes down. This reaction is clear proof that the
5 able to perceive the self. Three centuries later, another French subject has been fooled into believing that a foreign object
philosopher, Maurice Merleau-Ponty, deviated from the 60 belongs to his or her body.
reasoning behind Descartes’ well-known saying. Instead of
Botvinick and Cohen’s experiment has interesting
focusing on thought, Merleau-Ponty pointed to the primacy of
implications for neuroscientists, or scientists who study the
the body in determining one’s relationship with the world; the
brain and nervous system. Neuroscientists noted that perhaps
10 body, he argued, is the gateway to perception of the world. As
the brain itself might be undergoing instantaneous changes to
such, Merleau-Ponty maintained, the body is perceived as
65 assimilate the rubber hand to the body during the experiment.
unique and different when compared to other objects.
This idea is referred to as “neuroplasticity,” and exploration of
The sense of self-perception of the body intrigued Dr. the concept is already underway. A Magnetic Resonance
Matthew Botvinick, a psychiatrist at the University of Image (MRI) of the brain during the Rubber Hand Experiment
15 Pittsburgh School of Medicine in the late 1990s. Inspired by indicates that the premotor cortex, located in the frontal lobe,
Merleau-Ponty’s writings, Botvinick wondered just how 70 is the portion of the brain that is most active during the
uniquely the body was perceived by its owner compared to experiment. Neuroscientists hypothesize that the formation of
other objects, and he speculated that perhaps a person could be new neural pathways is the cause of the activity, which would
fooled into believing that another object was part of his or her mean that the brain is actually malleable, and not hard-wired.
20 body. Botvinick began working with a colleague, Dr. Additional testing during the experiment, which shows that the
Jonathan Cohen, on a relatively simple experiment that came 75 temperature of the subject’s real right hand drops during the
to be known in the field as the “Rubber Hand Experiment.” experiment, hints that the brain is already “forgetting” the old
hand in favor of the new.
During the Rubber Hand Experiment, a subject sits at a
table with arms extended and hands palm-side down. The The concept of neuroplasticity may have wide-ranging
25 experimenter—seated facing the subject—then takes a applications for people suffering from what are called “self-
temporary partition (such as a piece of poster board) and walls 80 related distortions.” For example, some stroke victims no
off the subject’s right arm, so that the subject is unable to see longer recognize limbs as their own, a phenomenon that used
that arm. The experimenter then places a sheet of cloth on the to give neuroscientists little hope that such recognition could
subject’s right shoulder, and extends the sheet onto the table be regained. Now, many neuroscientists believe they may be
able to help such stroke victims relearn that their limbs are
30 on the inside of the partition, so that the sheet is visible to the
subject. To complete the setup, the experimenter places a 85 parts of their bodies, greatly improving the functionality of
rubber hand that peeks out of the open end of the sheet on the such limbs. At the other end of the spectrum, sufferers of
table. The rubber hand is palm-side down on the table. With phantom limb syndrome—a condition that causes an amputee
some strategic scrunching of the sheet, the experimenter to feel pain in a limb that has been amputated—may also one
day benefit from a deeper understanding of neuroplasticity.
35 creates the illusion that the sheet is covering a nonexistent
right arm, and the rubber hand appears to be the subject’s right
hand.
The experimenter then takes two small brushes, one in 31. The author’s purpose in writing this passage was most
each hand. Using gentle, sweeping strokes, the experimenter likely to:
40 uses the brush in his or her right hand to brush the rubber
hand. Behind the partition, invisible to the subject, the A. describe an interesting experiment.
experimenter uses identical strokes with his or her left hand to B. chronical recent advances in medicine.
brush the subject’s actual right hand. After a minute or so of C. provide hope to stroke victims and amputees.
this synchronized brushing, the subject, able to visually D. discuss issues related to how humans perceive their
45 observe the brushing on the rubber hand while feeling the own bodies.
brushing on the hidden right hand, begins to believe that the
rubber hand is part of his or her own body. The experimenter
then intensifies the experience by asking the subject leading
questions about connecting the sensations of touch to the
32. The author likely references Descartes and his famous 37. All of the following are acceptable replacements for the
saying in the first paragraph (lines 1-5) in order to: word telling in line 53 EXCEPT:
F. inspire thinking in readers themselves. A. informative.

G. get the reader thinking about how humans perceive B. revealing.
themselves. C. speaking.
H. argue that Merleau-Ponty’s theory is equally D. enlightening.
intriguing.
J. foreshadow the coming of another French philoso-
pher three centuries later. 38. The primary purpose of the fourth and fifth paragraphs
(lines 38-60) is to:
33. With respect to the body referred to in line 17, the owner F. describe the Rubber Hand Experiment.
referred to in line 17 is: G. prove the validity of the Rubber Hand Experiment.
H. reveal the secret of the Rubber Hand Experiment.
A. the medical school from which Dr. Botvinick J. assure the reader that the subject of the Rubber Hand
graduated. Experiment was not physically harmed.
B. the University of Pittsburg School of Medicine.
C. the person whose body it is.
D. whoever is looking at, and trying to perceive, the 39. Which of the following best describes the author’s
body. opinion regarding the validity of the Rubber Hand
Experiment?
34. The word field in line 22 most nearly means: A. The author of the passage is convinced that the
Rubber Hand Experiment is valid.
F. the area outside the University of Pittsburg. B. The author of the passage remains unsure of the
G. the medical profession generally. validity of the Rubber Hand Experiment.
H. the Department of Psychiatry at the University of C. The author of the passage doubts the validity of the
Pittsburg. Rubber Hand Experiment.
J. students studying to become psychiatrists. D. The author of the passage does not comment on the
validity of the Rubber Hand Experiment.
35. Which of the following properly orders, from first-to-

occur to last-to-occur, certain aspects of the Rubber 40. Which of the following statements best summarizes the
Hand Experiment’s setup, as it is described in the sixth and seventh paragraphs (lines 61-89) of the passage?
passage?
F. The Rubber Hand Experiment has excited
A. the sheet is draped over the subject’s right shoulder; neuroscientists, and amputees are already gaining the
the subject is seated; the subject’s right arm is benefits of neuroplasticity.
blocked from view; the rubber hand is positioned. G. Botvinick and Cohen are the neuroscientists who
B. the subject is seated; the subject’s right arm is coined the phrase neuroplasticity, and stroke victims
blocked from view; the sheet is draped over the and amputees are more hopeful than ever.
subject’s right shoulder; the rubber hand is H. The term neuroplasticity relates to instantaneous
positioned. changes to the brain, and neuroscientists are already
C. the rubber hand is positioned; the subject’s right arm working on some applications of neuroplasticity.
is blocked from view; the subject is seated; the sheet J. The Rubber Hand Experiment has created excitement
is draped over the subject’s right shoulder. among neuroscientists, but the applications of
D. the sheet is draped over the subject’s right shoulder; neuroplasticity are limited to stroke victims and
the subject is seated; the rubber hand is positioned; amputees.
the subject’s right arm is blocked from view.
36. The author uses the phrase actual right to modify the
word hand in line 43 in order to distinguish the hand in
line 43 from:
F. the subject’s left hand.

G. the subject’s actual left hand.
H. the rubber hand.
J. the experimenter’s right hand. END OF TEST
ACT SCIENCE TEST 4
DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
PASSAGE I d orbital is regarded as 5 spaces of various shapes

An atomic orbital is region of space around (that can contain up to 10 electrons), and an f orbital
the nucleus of an atom that can contain 0, 1, or 2 is regarded as 7 spaces of various shapes (that can
electrons. There are 4 types of atomic orbitals (s, p, contain up to 14 electrons).
d, and f ) that differ in shape and in the number of
like orbitals grouped together. Table 1 provides a Table 3 provides the type of orbitals that can
general description of the shapes of various orbitals. exist in each of 4 energy levels and the standard
sublevel name, which includes reference to the
energy level and orbital type. Note: If an orbital can
Table 1
exist in a given energy level, only one orbital of its
Orbital Shape type may exist in that energy level. For example,
s sphere energy level 2 may only contain one s orbital (i.e., a
spherical space) and one p orbital (a group of 3
p dumbbell dumbbell-shaped spaces).
d dumbbell with donut around middle
or Table 3
4 eggs in the same plane clustered Energy level Orbital Sublevel name
around a center point
f dumbbell with 2 donuts around middle 1 s 1s
or s 2s
bundle of 8 balloons with knots tied 2
p 2p
together in the center
s 3s
Table 2 provides the number of orbitals that 3 p 3p
group together for each type of orbital. d 3d
Table 2 s 4s
p 4p
Orbital Number of orbitals in group of 4
d 4d
like orbitals f 4f
s 1
p 3 The atomic orbitals around the nucleus of an
atom fill up with electrons in the following order:
d 5
1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 4d, 4f
f 7
Superscripted numbers are used to indicate the
number of electrons in the associated orbital. For
Thus, an s orbital is generally regarded as 1
example, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 indicates that a
spherical space (that may contain up to 2 electrons), particular atom has 13 electrons: 2 in 1s; 2 in 2s; 6
a p orbital is regarded as a group of 3 dumbbell- in 2p; 2 in 3s; and 1 in 3p.
shaped spaces (that can contain up to 6 electrons), a
1. According to the passage, which of the following 4. Based on the information in the passage, as the
notations properly represents an atom with number of electrons around the nucleus of an
exactly 7 electrons? atom increases from 4 to 13, the number of
electrons in sublevel:
A. 1s2 2s2 2p3
B. 1s2 2s2 3s3 F. 1s decreases.
C. 1s2 2s2 3s2 2p1 G. 2s increases.
D. 1s2 2s2 3s2 4s1 H. 2s remains the same.
J. 4s increases.
2. Based on the information in the passage, five

like orbitals grouped together can exist in which 5. An atom of vanadium has 23 electrons that fill
of the following energy levels? orbitals in the order described in the passage.
Chromium, which has 24 electrons, does NOT
F. Energy levels 1 and 2 only follow the order described in the passage: when
G. Energy levels 2 and 3 only compared to vanadium, chromium has 1 less
H. Energy level 3 only electron in the 4s orbital and 2 more electrons in
J. Energy levels 3 and 4 only the 3d orbital. Based on this information, which
of the following notations best represents the
electron configuration of chromium?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d 3
3. According to the passage, an atom with 21 B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d 4
electrons will NOT have one or more electrons C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d 5
in an orbital that is shaped like which of the D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 6
following?
A. A dumbbell with a donut around the middle
B. A dumbell
C. A bundle of 8 balloons with knots tied
together in the center
D. A sphere

PASSAGE II Experiment 2
Mechanical energy is the sum of potential A metal ball on a string was released from a
energy—the stored energy of position (PE)—and stationary position at various heights (h) as shown
kinetic energy—the energy of motion (KE). In in Figure 2. After the ball was released, it traveled
other words, mechanical energy is the energy a pendulum-like path back and forth. For metal
associated with the motion and position of an balls of two different masses, PE and KE were
object. The principle of conservation of mechanical determined at h and the point on the swing where
energy of an object states that an object’s the ball was closest to the floor. The results of
mechanical energy—the sum of its PE and KE— several of the trials are set forth in Table 2.
remains constant. While the principle of
conservation of energy is theoretically accurate, Figure 2
real-world factors like friction and wind resistance
sometimes cause an object’s mechanical energy to
decrease as it moves or changes position. Note: PE
and KE in Experiment 1 and Experiment 2 were
calculated in joules (J).
Experiment 1 h
Toy carts of varying masses rolled (from
rest) down a curved metal track as illustrated in
Figure 1. (Note that at Points X and Z, the car’s
potential energy is zero.) The students conducting
the experiment recorded the cart’s PE and KE at Table 2
each of the points on the track that are labeled in PE at KE at
Figure 1. Some, but not all, of the results are set PE at KE at lowest lowest
forth in Table 1. Mass h h h point point
Trial (kg) (m) (J) (J) (J) (J)
Figure 1
1 1 1 9.8 0 0 9.8
W 2 1 1.5 14.7 0 0 14.7

3 1 2 19.6 0 0 19.6
4 2 1 19.6 0 0 19.6
Y
5 2 1.5 29.4 0 0 29.4
X Z
6. According to Experiment 1, which of the
following did NOT remain constant from trial to
Table 1 trial?
PE at KE at PE at KE at
Point W Point X Point Y Point Y F. The shape of the track
Cart (J) (J) (J) (J) G. The mass of the cart
H. The initial velocity of the cart
1 9.8 9.7 4.8 4.8 J. The initial height of the cart
2 14.7 14.6 7.2 7.2
3 19.6 19.4 9.6 9.6
7. Which of the following offers the best 10. Based on Table 2, it is reasonable to conclude
explanation for why the KE of Cart 2 at Point X that:
does not equal the PE of Cart 2 at Point W?
F. the length of the string attached to the metal
A. Cart 2 had slightly less mass at Point X than ball is 1 meter.
at Point W. G. PE is greatest at the lowest point on the
B. Cart 2 had higher velocity at Point X than at pendulum-like swing.
Point W. H. friction and wind resistance were negligible
C. Cart 2 descended nearly 1 meter as it rolled in the experiment across all trials.
down the track from Point W to Point X. J. KE is greatest when the ball is somewhere
D. Friction in the wheels of Cart 2 caused a between h and the lowest point on the
slight drop in the total mechanical energy of pendulum-like swing.
Cart 2.
8. Based on Table 2, it is reasonable to conclude 11. Given that Point W is 1 meter above the floor in
that as the mass of the metal ball doubled from Experiment 1, a comparison of Table 1 and
Trials 1-3 to Trials 4-5, the PE at a given height Table 2 indicates that the mass of Cart 3 is:
h:
A. 1 kg.
F. doubled. B. 1.5 kg.
G. tripled. C. 2 kg.
H. decreased. D. 4 kg.
J. remained the same.
9. In Trial 3 of Experiment 2, the KE of the metal

ball at a point between h and the lowest point on
its swing is:
A. 19.6 J.
B. greater than 19.6 J.
C. less than 19.6 J.
D. zero joules.

PASSAGE III
Table 2
Drosophila is a genus of small flies that are
commonly referred to as fruit flies. Fruit flies exist Chromosomes Average
all around the world. They can be found in deserts, sperm
tropical rainforests, cities, swamps, and even cold Number Number Number length
alpine regions. Fruit flies vary widely with regard Group X 1 2 3 (mm)
to reproductive capacity. The females of one 1 A AA AA AA 40
species can mature 10-20 eggs every two days,
while females of another species can lay only one 2 A AA AB AB 42
egg per day. 3 A AB AA AA 48
A graduate student studied the egg 4 B BB AB BB 58
production of several species of fruit fly in several 5 B AB AB BB 54
geographic regions. Table 1 shows the average
yearly egg production of different species of fruit 6 B AB AA AB 52
fly in different geographic locations at various
temperatures.
12. According to Table 1, for the Species A fruit fly

Table 1 located in Ontario, as the temperature increased
from 10°C to 25°C, the average yearly egg
Average yearly egg production production per adult female fly:
per adult female fly
at an temperature (°C) of: F. increased only.
Species Location
10 15 20 25 G. decreased only.
H. increased, then decreased.
A Brazil 2,400 2,800 3,200 2,750 J. decreased, then increased.
A Arizona 1,600 1,850 1,900 1,825
A Ontario 900 940 960 920
B Brazil 270 300 330 290
13. According to Table 2, male flies in which of the
B Florida 260 280 310 270 following groups had the fewest number of
B England 240 265 290 260 Species A chromosomes?
A. Group 1
B. Group 4
The graduate student also studied the length C. Group 5
of sperm cells produced by male fruit flies of D. Group 6
different species. The graduate student also studied
the X chromosome (which determines the species),
both Number 1 chromosomes, both Number 2
chromosomes, and both Number 3 chromosomes.
Table 2 shows the results of the graduate student’s
studies.

14. The graduate student wants to perform a third 16. Table 2 includes information on male fruit flies
experiment that requires a large number of fruit with all of the following combinations of
fly eggs. Given that neither the species nor the chromosomes EXCEPT:
location of the female fruit fly matters, but that
the eggs must all come from the same fly, which F. 2 Species A Number 1 chromosomes and 2
of the following species-location-temperature Species A Number 3 chromosomes.
combinations would allow the graduate student G. Only 1 Species A Number 1 chromosome
to obtain the greatest number of eggs? and only 1 Species A Number 3 chromo-
some.
F. Species A from Arizona at 10°C H. Only 1 Species B Number 1 chromosome
G. Species A from Ontario at 20°C and only 1 Species B Number 2 chromo-
H. Species B from Brazil at 15°C some.
J. Species B from Florida at 25°C J. 1 Species B X chromosome and 2 Species A
Number 1 chromosomes.
15. A particular male fruit fly has a Species B

X chromosome, only 1 Species B Number 1
chromosome, only 1 Species B Number 2
chromosome, and 2 Species B Number 3
chromosomes. According to Table 2, the
average length of sperm cells produced by this
particular male fruit fly is:
A. 42 mm.
B. 52 mm.
C. 54 mm.
D. 58 mm.

PASSAGE IV 19. If the temperature in the heating coil made of
Metal 3 had been recorded 110 minutes after the
A current from a battery is run through a current had begun to run through it, the recorded
frozen heating coil for 50 minutes. The temperature temperature would most likely be:
of the heating coil is recorded for 100 minutes from
the time the current begins to run through the coil. A. 2.3 °C.
This procedure was followed 3 times with heating B. 1.5 °C.
coils of 3 different metals. The results of the 3 trials C. 1.0 °C.
are set forth in the figure below. D. 0.0 °C.
Key 20. If a fourth trial had been conducted using a

Heating Coil Material: heating coil made of a fourth metal that resists
Metal 1 Metal 2 Metal 3 the conduction of electricity more than Metal 2,
but less than Metal 1, the maximum recorded
10.0 temperature for the trial would most likely be:
9.0
8.0
temperature (°C)
F. greater than 7.5 °C.

7.0
6.0 G. between 4.0 °C and 7.5 °C.
5.0 H. between 1.8 °C and 4.0 °C.
4.0 J. less than 1.8 °C.
3.0
2.0
1.0
0.0 21. It is reasonable to assume that all of the
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 following remained constant from trial to trial
time (min) EXCEPT:
A. the temperature of the surrounding air.
B. the voltage provided by the battery.
17. Based on the figure, approximately how long
C. the number of minutes the current was
did it take the frozen heating coil made of Metal
permitted to run through the heating coil.
2 to reach a temperature of 3 °C?
D. the type of metal used to make the heating
A. 23 minutes coil.
B. 34 minutes
C. 70 minutes
D. 80 minutes 22. Which of the following statements provides the
best explanation for why each heating coil
reached its maximum temperature 50 minutes
18. Based on the figure, which coil heated up the into the trial?
fastest after the current began to run through it?
F. The same battery was used for each trial.
F. The coil made of Metal 1 G. The same gauge wire was used to construct
G. The coil made of Metal 2 each heating coil.
H. The coil made of Metal 3 H. The current stopped running through the
J. It cannot be determined based on the heating coil at the 50-minute mark.
information provided. J. The air temperature that surrounded the
heating coil remained constant from trial to
trial.

PASSAGE V natural pace, one that is not slowed down by periods
of sickness.
Introduction
Scientist 2
Antibiotics are used in livestock production
primarily to treat disease or prevent disease. Some In the United States, many livestock
scientists believe that antibiotics act as growth producers give their animals low doses of certain
hormones in animals. Other scientists disagree, antibiotics to improve the overall health of the
arguing that antibiotics do not directly promote animals and to help them gain weight. This practice
growth in livestock. Two scientists discuss their is sometimes called "gen-therapy" because instead
views below. of curing a specific disease, the antibiotics are used
to improve the “general” health of the livestock.
Scientist 1
Since the 1950s, studies have shown that
Just like humans, animals (including antibiotics improve animal growth by improving
livestock such as cattle, sheep, and poultry) are intestinal health. Animals such as pigs and cows,
susceptible to bacterial infections. And just like for example, host many kinds of microbes and,
medical doctors who treat human patients suffering while many intestinal microbes help the animals
from bacterial infections, veterinarians who treat digest food, they also compete with the host animals
livestock suffering from bacterial infections do so for nutrients.
with antibiotics. While humans and animals are
treated similarly when diagnosed with an infection, A 1997 study conducted by researchers at
it is much more common to prescribe antibiotics to Cornell University showed that as much as 9
livestock to prevent infection than it is to prescribe percent of the net energy in the diet of a typical pig
antibiotics to prevent infection in humans. The is lost to intestinal microorganisms. Antibiotics in
primary reason for this difference is that humans animal feed can reduce this competition, helping an
become immune to antibiotics much more quickly animal gain weight more efficiently. Low doses of
than do animals, so humans are generally treated antibiotics can also ward off infections that stress
with antibiotics only after a bacterial infection has the animal's immune system and slow growth.
been diagnosed with certainty.
The use of growth-promoting antibiotics is
Animals treated with antibiotics as a one way livestock producers meet the global
preventative measure tend to be healthier than demand for food. In 2010, a professor of swine
animals not so treated. In turn, the healthier nutrition at the University of Kentucky published a
animals tend to grow faster. This has led some paper showing that antibiotics dramatically
scientists to characterize preventative antibiotics improved pig growth. The study upon which the
as “growth promoters.” In reality, all antibiotics paper is based analyzed the results of more than
have “indications” that enumerate exactly what they 1,000 growth experiments in swine over a 25-year
“do.” (This is required by the United States Food period. In sum, antibiotics improved the growth rate
and Drug Administration.) For example, a bottle of of young pigs by an average of 16.4 percent.
veterinary penicillin will indicate on its label that
the penicillin contained in the bottle can be used to 23. According to Scientist 1’s discussion, when is a
treat pneumonia in cattle. Of all the antibiotics human most likely to be prescribed an antibiotic?
available for use in livestock, very few have
indications for “growth promotion.” In fact, most A. During an emergency
veterinary antibiotics are indicated for the treatment B. After a proper diagnosis
or prevention of specific diseases only. C. Before the onset of an infection
D. At regular intervals
Thus, the claim that antibiotics are growth
promoters is false. Antibiotics help keep livestock
healthy so the animals can grow at a normal or GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
24. It can be reasonably inferred that all of the 27. Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 would likely both
following individuals would be interested in agree with which of the following statements?
Scientist 2’s discussion EXCEPT:
A. Intestinal health is the key to growth in
F. a pig farmer. livestock.
G. a dairy farmer. B. Antibiotics can fairly be characterized as
H. a poultry farmer. “growth hormones.”
J. an organic vegetable farmer. C. Antibiotics can be used to improve the
overall health of livestock.
D. The United States Food and Drug
Administration should better regulate the
pharmaceutical industry.
25. Unlike the discussion of Scientist 1, the
discussion of Scientist 2 included:
A. reference to specific studies.
B. reference to human beings.
28. Scientist 1 most likely put quotation marks
C. an unfounded claim.
D. reference to a specific drug. around the word “do” in order to:
F. indicate that the word is not a technical
term.
G. highlight the word’s many uses and its
various definitions.
26. The reasoning set forth in the third paragraph of H. underscore that most drugs have many
Scientist 2’s discussion relies on which of the indications.
following assumptions? J. indicate that the word should be stressed, if
the passage were read aloud.
F. The more energy that an animal can absorb
from the food it eats, the more efficiently it
can gain weight.
G. The more antibiotics an animal consumes,
the fewer the number of strains of
microorganisms it will host in its intestines. 29. It is reasonable to conclude that the 16.4 percent
H. Antibiotics should always be administered increase in growth rate referred to in the
to animals in low doses. discussion of Scientist 2 could have been
J. Most animals that host microorganisms are determined by measuring all of the following
raised on farms as livestock. EXCEPT:
A. the weight of the pigs.
B. the length of the pigs.
C. the waist circumference of the pigs.
D. the number of microbes in the intestines of
the pigs.

PASSAGE VI Experiment 2
Students in science class studied resistors in The students then designed the electrical
series and in parallel by creating and testing two circuit shown in Figure 2 below. The circuit
electrical circuits. consists of a 12-volt battery, one voltmeter, and two
resistors.
Experiment 1
Figure 2
The students designed the electrical circuit
shown in Figure 1 below. The circuit consists of a
48-volt (V) battery, two voltmeters (instruments
capable of measuring the voltage difference battery R3 R4
between two points in an electric circuit), and two
resistors (two-terminal electronic devices that resist V
the flow of electricity in a circuit).
Figure 1
battery The students used various resistor
combinations and the voltmeter (V) to determine
the drop in voltage, in Ohms, caused by the two
parallel resistors (R 3 and R 4 ). The students then
calculated the total resistance of R 3 and R 4 in the
R2 V2 V1 R1 circuit and the current in the circuit, in Amps. The
results are set forth in Table 2 below.
Table 2
The students used various resistor Drop in

Total voltage Current in
combinations and the voltmeters (V 1 and V 2 ) to R1 R2 resistance V circuit
determine the drop in voltage, in Ohms (Ω), caused (Ω) (Ω) (Ω) (V) (A)
by each of the two resistors (R 1 and R 2 ). The
students then calculated the total resistance of R 1 6.4 3.9 2.4dd 12 5.0d .
and R 2 in the circuit and the current in the circuit, in 5.6 4.7 2.6dd 12 4.6d .
Amps (A). The results are set forth in Table 1 4.7 5.6 2.6dd 12 4.6 d.
below. (Note: the electrical current in each trial 3.9 6.4 2.4dd 12 5.0 d.
flowed out of the battery through R 1 and then 8.0 8.0 4.0dd 12 3.0d .
through R 2 .) 2.0 2.0 1.0dd 12 12.0 d.
Table 1
Drop in Drop in Current
Total voltage voltage in 30. Based on the results of Experiment 1, as total
R1 R2 resistance V1 V2 circuit resistance increases, the current in the circuit:
(Ω) (Ω) (Ω) (V) (V) (A)
F. increases.
6.4 3.9 10.3dd 30 18 4.7d.
G. decreases.
5.6 4.7 10.3dd 26 22 4.7d.
H. decreases, then increases.
4.7 5.6 10.3dd 22 26 4.7d.
J. remains constant.
3.9 6.4 10.3dd 18 30 4.7d.
8.0 8.0 16.0dd 24 24 3.0d.
2.0 2.0 4.0dd 24 24 12.0d.
31. The students concluded that the total resistance 34. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2,
created by resistors in series is simply the sum which combination of two resistors in series in a
of the resistance of all resistors in the series. circuit powered by a 48-volt battery will result
Based on the results of Experiment 1, is this in the same current as two 8 Ω resistors in
conclusion accurate? parallel in a circuit powered by a 12-volt
battery?
A. Yes, because the sum of R 1 and R 2
remained constant from trial to trial. F. 3.9 Ω/6.4 Ω
B. Yes, because the total resistance equaled the G. 2.0 Ω/2.0 Ω
sum of R 1 and R 2 in each trial. H. 8.0 Ω/8.0 Ω
C. No, because the sum of R 1 and R 2 did not J. 4.7 Ω/5.6 Ω
remain constant from trial to trial.
D. No, because the sum of R 1 varied from trial
to trial. 35. Based on the information provided, which of the
following arrangements of 5 Ω resistors would
result in the greatest resistance?
32. Based on the results of Experiment 1, it is

reasonable to conclude that when two resistors A.
are arranged in series:
F. the resistor with the greater resistance will
cause a smaller drop in voltage.
G. the resistor with the greater resistance will B.
cause a greater drop in voltage.
H. the resistor that is first in the series will
cause the greater drop in voltage.
J. the resistor that is second in the series will
cause the greater drop in voltage. C.
33. Based on the results of Experiment 2, all of the

following conclusions about two resistors in D.
parallel are reasonable EXCEPT:
A. The total resistance does not equal the sum
of the individual resistors.
B. If the sum of the two resistors remains
constant, the total resistance will remain
constant.
C. The greater the total resistance, the lower the
current in the circuit.
D. The drop in voltage will remain constant
regardless of the resistance of each
individual resistor.

PASSAGE VII Figure 3
Weekly average temperature
A high school biology class measured (°F)
average humidity and average air temperature in 75.0
three different terrariums over 4 consecutive weeks.
(See Figure 1.) Humidity was measured with a 72.5
hygrometer in grams per cubic meter (g/m3) and
Terrarium 1
temperature was measured with a thermometer in 70.0
degrees Fahrenheit (°F). The results are set forth in Terrarium2
Figure 2 and Figure 3 below. 67.5 Terrarium 3
65.0
Figure 1 Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4
36. The highest weekly average humidity

recorded during the four week period for
Terrarium 2 is closest to:
F. 4 g/m3.
G. 6 g/m3.
H. 14 g/m3.
J. 28 g/m3.
Figure 2
Weekly average humidity
(g/m3)
30 37. The weekly average air temperature of
Terrarium 1:
25
A. decreased only.
20 B. decreased then increased.
Terrarium 1
15 C. increased only.
Terrarium 2 D. increased then decreased.
10 Terrarium 3
5
0 38. According to Figure 3, weekly average

Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 temperatures were likely recorded to the
nearest:
F. hundreds unit in °F.
G. tens unit in °F.
H. ones unit in °F.
J. tenths unit in °F.

39. The heater in one of the terrariums broke at the H.
end of Week 1 and was not fixed until after 75
Week 4. It is reasonable to conclude which of
air temperature (°F)

the following? 72.5
A. Terrarium 1 had a non-functioning heater
70
during Weeks 2-4.
B. Terrarium 2 had a non-functioning heater
67.5
during Weeks 3-4.
C. Terrarium 2 had a non-functioning heater
65
during Weeks 2-3.
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
D. Terrarium 3 had a non-functioning heater
during Weeks 2-4. humidity (g/m3)
J.
75

40. The weekly average air temperature versus
weekly average humidity for Terrarium 3 is best 72.5
represented by which of the following plots?
70
F. 67.5
75
65
72.5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
humidity (g/m3)
70
67.5
65
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
humidity (g/m3)
G.
75
72.5
70
67.5
65
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
humidity (g/m3)
END OF TEST

Hop Act PT 4

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Hop Act PT 4

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

ACT ENGLISH TEST 4

rightfully claim a place for the most distinguished art 1. A. NO CHANGE

masters such as Van Gogh, Cezanne, and Monet, it also 2. F. NO CHANGE

displayed within an iconic building designed by Frank Lloyd

Wright. The museum's well-known spiral-shaped cone is one

of the most notable architectural achievements that you can 3. A. NO CHANGE

for the making of money. 5. A. NO CHANGE

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Thomas Krens the Guggenheim's director at the time 6. F. NO CHANGE

collection of more than one hundred motorcycles, ranging 7. A. NO CHANGE

sponsorship from BMW.

The public response was overwhelming; roughly two 8. F. NO CHANGE

months. From a business standpoint, the show was so

successful that restagings were held in Chicago, Las Vegas,

claimed that the show singlehandedly brought respectability to

place in a museum that promoted themselves as a showplace 11. A. NO CHANGE

[1] Krens faced accusations that he had acted self-

indulgently in promoting the show and had compromised the

museum's reputation by excepting corporate funding. 12. F. NO CHANGE

Question 15 asks about the preceding passage

15. The writer is considering deleting the first sentence from

A. detail that is largely irrelevant.

Harmonia’s Dashed Hopes

Three months ago, a local artist named Harmonia, 16. F. NO CHANGE

an elegant but vacant three-story building standing at the

financial prospects in the property, acceded to Harmonia’s

request. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

the center of the sketch, a man and a woman stood on opposite

sides of an open silver gate. The man and woman,

representatives of our community, smiled with their arms 19. A. NO CHANGE

featured people of different ethnicities, as well as famous

—an acknowledgement of the Forum's cinematic history

Given that the statement is true, would this be a relevant

F. Yes, because it is critical to the meaning of the sentence.

an idealized representation of our community's buildings, 21. A. NO CHANGE

invitation to visitors, enticing them to explore our shops,

restaurants, in addition to our public parks. 22. F. NO CHANGE

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

F. Yes, because the phrase contains irrelevant information.

A. Harmonia and I are really good friends.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

F. Yes, because the essay highlights the dischord that art

The Boldness of Shirley Chisholm

Shirley Chisholm once asserted, “You don’t make

progress by standing on the sideline, whimpering and

complaining.” Her political career intersected with the 31. A. NO CHANGE

testament to those words. Though she could have followed a

less turbulent trajectory through life, Chisholm boldly trusted

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

women of her time, her daily immersion in issues such as

child welfare and early education spurred her toward an active

predominant African-American precinct by garnering support 36. F. NO CHANGE

Chisholm's skillful campaigning, Jones was elected. While 37. A. NO CHANGE

By 1968, Chisholm was an accomplished lawmaker

Agricultural Committee, an ill-suited post for someone

representing an urban district. Though she was eventually

reassigned to a different committee, Chisholm was generally

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

campaign was lacking competitive funding, she managed to 42. F. NO CHANGE

Chisholm continued to serve in Congress until her

retirement in 1980. Her tireless, enduring, relentless and 43. A. NO CHANGE

earth." Chishom now lives in a modest condominium in

Question 45 asks about the preceding passage